Namma Kalvi 11th Physics Book Back One Mark Questions EM 221386

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RAJENDRAN M, M.Sc., B.Ed., C.C.A., P.G.T in PHYSICS, SRMMHSS, KAVERIYAMPOONDI : Page 1

ONE MARK QUESTIONS (BOOK BACK)


UNIT 1 (NATURE OF PHYSICAL WORLD AND MEASUREMENT)
ℎ𝑐
1. One of the combinations from the fundamental physical constants is . The unit
𝐺
of this expression is
(a) kg2 (b) m3 (c) s-1 (d) m
2. If the error in the measurement of radius is 2%, then the error in the determination
of volume of the sphere will be
(a) 8% (b) 2% (c) 4% (d) 6%
3. If the length and time period of an oscillating pendulum have errors of 1% and 3%
respectively then the error in measurement of acceleration due to gravity is
(a) 4% (b) 5% (c) 6% (d) 7%
4. The length of a body is measured as 3.51 m, if the accuracy is 0.01m, then the
percentage error in the measurement is
(a) 351% (b) 1% (c) 0.28% (d) 0.035%
5. Which of the following has the highest number of significant figures?
(a) 0.007 m2 (b) 2.64x1024 kg (c) 0.0006032m2 (d) 6.3200 J
6. If π = 3.14, then the value of π2 is
(a) 9.8596 (b) 9.860 (c) 9.86 (d) 9.9
7. Round of the following number 19.95 into three significant figures.
(a) 19.9 (b) 20.0 (c) 20.1 (d) 19.5
8. Which of the following pairs of physical quantities have same dimension?
(a) force and power (b) torque and energy
(c) torque and power (d) force and torque
9. The dimensional formula of Planck's constant h is
(a) [ML2T-1] (b) [ML2T-3] (c) [MLT-1] (d) [ML3T-3]
10. The velocity of a particle 𝑣 at an instant t is given by 𝑣 = at +bt2. The dimensions
of b is
(a) [L] (b) [LT-1] (c) [LT-2] (d) [LT-3]
11. The dimensional formula for gravitational constant G is
(a) [ML3T-2] (b) [M-1L3T-2] (c) [M-1L-3T-2] (d) [ML-3T2]
12. The density of a material in CGS system of units is 4 g cm-3. In a system of units in
which unit of length is 10 cm and unit of mass is 100 g, then the value of density
of material will be
(a) 0.04 (b) 0.4 (c) 40 (d) 400
13. If the force is proportional to square of velocity, then the dimension of
proportionality constant is
(a) [MLT0] (b) [MLT-1] (c) [ML-2T] (d) [ML-1T0]
1
14. The dimension of (μ0 ε0 )2 is
(a) length (b) time (c) velocity (d) force
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15. Planck’s constant (h), speed of light in vacuum (c) and Newton’s gravitational
constant (G) are taken as three fundamental constants. Which of the following
combinations of these has the dimension of length?
√ℎ𝐺 √ℎ𝐺 ℎ𝑐 𝐺𝑐
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) √ (d) √ 3
𝐺
𝑐2 𝑐2 ℎ2
UNIT 2 (KINETICS)
16. Which one of the following Cartesian coordinate systems is not followed in physics?

17. Identify the unit vector in the following


𝑖̂ 𝑖̂ 𝑖̂+𝑗̂
(a) 𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂ (b) (c) 𝑘̂ − (d)
√2 √2 √2
18. Which one of the following physical quantities cannot be represented by a scalar?
(a) Mass (b) length
(c) momentum (d) magnitude of acceleration
19. Two objects of masses m1 and m2 fall from the heights h1 and h2 respectively. The
ratio of the magnitude of their momenta when they hit the ground is
ℎ1 𝑚1 ℎ1 𝒎𝟏 𝒉𝟏 𝑚1
(a) √ℎ (b) √𝑚 (c) √𝒉 (d)
2 2 ℎ2 𝒎𝟐 𝟐 𝑚2
20. If a particle has negative velocity and negative acceleration, its speed
(a) increases (b) decreases (c) remains same (d) zero
21. If the velocity is 𝑣⃗ = 2𝑖̂ + 𝑡 2 𝑗̂ − 9𝑘̂ , then the magnitude of acceleration at
t = 0.5 s is
(a) 1m s-2 (b) 2 m s-2 (c) zero (d) -1 m s-2
22. If an object is dropped from the top of a building and it reaches the ground at t = 4
s then the height of the building is (ignoring air resistance) (g = 9.8 ms–2)
(a) 77.3 m (b) 78.4 m (c) 80.5 m (d) 79.2 m
23. A ball is projected vertically upwards with a velocity v. It comes back to ground in
time t. Which v-t graph shows the motion correctly?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

24. If one object is dropped vertically downward and another object is thrown
horizontally from the same height, then the ratio of vertical distance covered by
both objects at any instant t is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 0.5
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25. A ball is dropped from some height towards the ground. Which one of the following
represents the correct motion of the ball?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

26. If a
particle executes uniform circular motion in the xy plane in clock wise direction,
then the angular velocity is in
(a) +y direction (b) +z direction (c) -z direction (d) -x direction
27. If a particle executes uniform circular motion, choose the correct statement
(a) The velocity and speed are constant.
(b) The acceleration and speed are constant.
(c) The velocity and acceleration are constant.
(d) The speed and magnitude of acceleration are constant.
28. If an object is thrown vertically up with the initial speed u from the ground, then
the time taken by the object to return back to ground is
𝑢2 𝑢2 𝑢 2𝑢
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2𝑔 𝑔 2𝑔 𝑔
29. Two objects are projected at angles 300 and 600
respectively with respect to the
horizontal direction. The ranges of two objects are denoted as R300 and R600.
Choose the correct relation from the following
𝑅600
(a) R300 = R600 (b) R300 = 4R600 (c) R300 = (d) R300= 2R600
2
30. An object is dropped in an unknown planet from height 50 m, it reaches the ground
in 2 s . The acceleration due to gravity in this unknown planet is
(a) g = 20 m s-2 (b) g = 25 m s-2 (c) g = 15 m s-2 (d) g = 30 m s-2
UNIT 3 (LAWS OF MOTION)
31. When a car takes a sudden left turn in the curved road, passengers are pushed
towards the right due to
(a) inertia of direction (b) inertia of motion
(c) inertia of rest (d) absence of inertia
32. An object of mass m held against a vertical wall by applying
horizontal force F as shown in the figure. The minimum value of
the force F is
(a) Less than mg (b) Equal to mg
(c) Greater than mg (d) Cannot determine
33. A vehicle is moving along the positive x direction, if sudden brake
is applied, then
(a) frictional force acting on the vehicle is along positive x direction
(b) no frictional force acts on the vehicle
(c) frictional force acts in downward direction
(d) frictional force acting on the vehicle is along negative x direction
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34. A book is at rest on the table which exerts a normal force on the book. If this force
is considered as reaction force, what is the action force according to Newton’s third
law?
(a) Gravitational force exerted by Earth on the book
(b) Gravitational force exerted by the book on Earth
(c) Normal force exerted by the book on the table
(d) None of the above
35. Two masses m1 and m2 are experiencing the same force where m1 < m2. The ratio
𝑎1
of their acceleration is
𝑎2
(a) 1 (b) less than 1
(c) greater than 1 (d) all the three cases
36. Choose appropriate free body diagram for the particle experiencing net
acceleration along negative y direction. (Each arrow mark represents the force
acting on the system).

(a) (b) (c) (d)

37. A particle of mass m sliding on the smooth double inclined plane (shown in figure)
will experience

(a) greater acceleration along the path AB


(b) greater acceleration along the path AC
(c) same acceleration in both the paths
(d) no acceleration in both the paths
38. Two blocks of masses m and 2m are placed on a smooth horizontal surface as
shown. In the first case only a force F1 is applied from the left. Later only a force
F2 is applied from the right. If the force acting at the interface of the two blocks in
the two cases is same, then F1 : F2 is

(a) 1:1 (b) 1:2 (c) 2:1 (d) 1:3


39. Force acting on the particle moving with constant speed is
(a) always zero (b) need not be zero
(c) always non zero (d) cannot be concluded
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40. An object of mass m begins to move on the plane inclined at an angle θ. The
coefficient of static friction of inclined surface is 𝜇𝑠 . The maximum static friction
experienced by the mass is
(a) mg (b) 𝜇𝑠 mg
(c) 𝜇𝑠 mg sinθ (d) 𝜇𝑠 mg cos θ
41. When the object is moving at constant velocity on the rough surface,
(a) no force acts on the object (b) net force on the object is zero
(c) only external force acts on the object
(d) only kinetic friction acts on the object
42. When an object is at rest on the inclined rough surface,
(a) static and kinetic frictions acting on the object is zero
(b) static friction is zero but kinetic friction is not zero
(c) static friction is not zero and kinetic friction is zero
(d) static and kinetic frictions are not zero
43. The centrifugal force appears to exist
(a) only in inertial frames (b) only in rotating frames
(c) in any accelerated frame
(d) both in inertial and non-inertial frames
44. Choose the correct statement from the following
(a) Centrifugal and centripetal forces are action reaction pairs
(b) Centripetal force acts towards the centre and centrifugal force appears to
act away from the centre in a circular motion
(c) Centripetal forces is a natural force
(d) Centrifugal force arises from gravitational force
45. If a person moving from pole to equator, the centrifugal force acting on him
(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) remains the same (d) increases and then decreases
UNIT 4 (WORK, ENERGY AND POWER)
46. A uniform force of (2𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂)+ N acts on a particle of mass 1 kg. The particle displaces
from position (3𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂ ) m to (5𝑖̂ + 3𝑗̂).The work done by the force on the particle is
(a) 9J (b) 6J (c) 10 J (d) 12 J
47. A ball of mass 1 kg and another of mass 2 kg are dropped from a tall building
whose height is 80 m. After, a fall of 40 m each towards Earth, their respective
kinetic energies will be in the ratio of
(a) √2 : 1 (b) 1 : √2 (c) 2:1 (d) 1:2
48. A body of mass 1 kg is thrown upwards with a velocity 20 m s . It momentarily
-1

comes to rest after attaining a height of 18 m. How much energy is lost due to air
friction? (Take g = 10ms-2)
(a) 20 J (b) 30 J (c) 40 J (d) 10 J
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49. An engine pumps water continuously through a hose. Water leaves the hose with
a velocity v and m is the mass per unit length of the water of the jet. What is the
rate at which kinetic energy is imparted to water?
1 3 5
(a) 𝑚𝑣 3 (b) 𝑚𝑣 3 (c) 𝑚𝑣 2 (d) 𝑚𝑣 2
2 2 2
50. A body of mass 4 m is lying in xy-plane at rest. It suddenly explodes into three
pieces. Two pieces each of mass m move perpendicular to each other with equal
speed v. The total kinetic energy generated due to explosion is
3
(a) 𝑚𝑣 2 (b) 𝑚𝑣 2 (c) 2𝑚𝑣 2 (d) 4𝑚𝑣 2
2
51. The potential energy of a system increases, if work is done
(a) by the system against a conservative force
(b) by the system against a non-conservative force
(c) upon the system by a conservative force
(d) upon the system by a non-conservative force
52. What is the minimum velocity with which a body of mass m must enter a vertical
loop of radius R so that it can complete the loop?
(a) √2gR (b) √3gR (c) √5gR (d) √gR
53. The work done by the conservative force for a closed path is
(a) always negative (b) zero
(c) always positive (d) not defined
54. If the linear momentum of the object is increased by 0.1%, then the kinetic energy
is increased by
(a) 0.1 % (b) 0.2% (c) 0.4% (d) 0.01%
β
55. If the potential energy of the particle is 𝛼 − x 2 , then force experienced by the
2
particle is
β β
(a) F = x2 (b) F = βx (c) F = −βx (d) F = − x2
2 2
56. A wind-powered generator converts wind energy into electric energy. Assume that
the generator converts a fixed fraction of the wind energy intercepted by its blades
into electrical energy. For wind speed v, the electrical power output will be
proportional to
(a) 𝑣 (b) 𝑣2 (c) 𝑣3 (d) 𝑣4
57. Two equal masses m1 and m2 are moving along the same straight line with
velocities 5 ms-1 and -9ms-1 respectively. If the collision is elastic, then calculate
the velocities after the collision of m1 and m2, respectively
(a) -4ms-1 and 10 ms-1 (b) 10ms-1 and 0 ms-1
(c) -9ms-1 and 5 ms-1 (d) 5 ms-1 and 1 ms-1
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58. A particle is placed at the origin and a force 𝐹 = 𝑘𝑥 is acting on it (where k is a


positive constant). If U(0) = 0 , the graph of U (x) versus x will be (where U is the
potential energy function)

(a) (b) (c) (d)

59. A particle which is constrained to move along x-axis, is subjected to a force in the
same direction which varies with the distance x of the particle from the origin as
𝐹 (𝑥) = −𝑘𝑥 + 𝑎𝑥 3 . Here, k and a are positive constants. For x ≥ 0, the functional
form of the potential energy U(x) of the particle is

(a) (b) (c) (d)

60. A spring of force


constant k is cut into two pieces such that one piece is double the length of the
other. Then, the long piece will have a force constant of
2 3
(a) 𝑘 (b) 𝑘 (c) 3k (d) 6k
3 2
UNIT 5 (MOTION OF SYSTEM OF PARTICLES AND RIGID BODIES)
61. The centre of mass of a system of particles does not depend upon,
(a) position of particles (b) relative distance between particles
(c) masses of particles (d) force acting on particle
62. A couple produces,
(a) pure rotation (b) pure translation
(c) rotation and translation (d) no motion
63. A particle is moving with a constant velocity along a line parallel to positive X-axis.
The magnitude of its angular momentum with respect to the origin is,
(a) zero (b) increasing with x
(c) decreasing with x (d) remaining constant
64. A rope is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass 3 kg and radius 40 cm. What is
the angular acceleration of the cylinder if the rope is pulled with a force 30 N?
(a) 0.25 rad s-2 (b) 25 rad s-2 (c) 5 m s s-2 (d) 25ms-2
65. A closed cylindrical container is partially filled with water. As the container
rotates in a horizontal plane about a perpendicular bisector, its moment of
inertia,
(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) remains constant (d) depends on direction of rotation
66. A rigid body rotates with an angular momentum L. If its kinetic energy is halved,
the angular momentum becomes,
𝐿 𝐿
(a) L (b) (c) 2L (d)
2 √2
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67. A particle undergoes uniform circular motion. The angular momentum of the
particle remains conserved about,
(a) the centre point of the circle.
(b) the point on the circumference of the circle.
(c) any point inside the circle.
(d) any point outside the circle.
68. When a mass is rotating in a plane about a fixed point, its angular momentum is
directed along,
(a) a line perpendicular to the plane of rotation
(b) the line making an angle of 45° to the plane of rotation
(c) the radius
(d) tangent to the path
69. Two discs of same moment of inertia rotating about their regular axis passing
through centre and perpendicular to the plane of disc with angular velocities
𝜔1 and 𝜔2 . They are brought in to contact face to face coinciding the axis of
rotation. The expression for loss of energy during this process is,
1
(a) I(𝜔1 − 𝜔2 )2 (b I(𝜔1 − 𝜔2 )2
4
1 1
(c) I(𝜔1 − 𝜔2 )2 (d) I(𝜔1 − 𝜔2 )2
8 2
70. The ratio of the acceleration for a solid sphere (mass m and radius R) rolling down
an incline of angle θ without slipping and slipping down the incline without rolling
is,
(a) 5:7 (b) 2:3 (c) 2:5 (d) 7:5
71. A disc of moment of inertia Ia is rotating in a horizontal plane about its symmetry
axis with a constant angular speed ω. Another disc initially at rest of moment of
inertia Ib is dropped coaxially on to the rotating disc. Then, both the
discs rotate with same constant angular speed. The loss of kinetic energy due to
friction in this process is,
1 𝐼𝑏2 𝐼𝑏2 (𝐼𝑏 −𝐼𝑎 )2 1 𝐼𝑏 𝐼𝑏
(a) 𝜔2 (b) 𝜔2 (c) 𝜔2 (d) 𝜔2
2 (𝐼𝑎 +𝐼𝑏 ) (𝐼𝑎 +𝐼𝑏 ) (𝐼𝑎 +𝐼𝑏 ) 2 (𝐼𝑎 +𝐼𝑏 )
72. From a disc of radius R a mass M, a circular hole of diameter R, whose rim passes
through the centre is cut. What is the moment of inertia of the remaining part of
the disc about a perpendicular axis passing through it
15 𝑀𝑅2 13 MR2 11 MR2 9 MR2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
32 32 32 32
73. The speed of a solid sphere after rolling down from rest without sliding on an
inclined plane of vertical height h is,
4 10 1
(a) √ gh (b) √ gh (c) √2gh (d) √ gh
3 7 2
74. The speed of the centre of a wheel rolling on a horizontal surface is 𝑣0 . A point on
the rim in level with the centre will be moving at a speed of speed of,
(a) zero (b) 𝑣0 (c) √2 𝑣0 (d) 2 𝑣0
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75. A round object of mass M and radius R rolls down without slipping along an inclined
plane. The frictional force,
(a) dissipates kinetic energy as heat.
(b) decreases the rotational motion.
(c) decreases the rotational and transnational motion
(d) converts transnational energy into rotational energy
UNIT – 6 (GRAVITATION)
76. The linear momentum and position vector of the planet is perpendicular to each
other at
(a) perihelion and aphelion (b) at all points
(c) only at perihelion (d) no point
77. If the masses of the Earth and Sun suddenly double, the gravitational force
between them will
(a) remain the same (b) increase 2 times
(c) increase 4 times (d) decrease 2 times
78. A planet moving along an elliptical orbit is closest to the Sun at distance r 1 and
farthest away at a distance of r2. If v1 and v2 are linear speeds at these points
𝑣1
respectively. Then the ratio is
𝑣2
𝑟2 𝑟 2 𝑟1 𝑟 2
(a) (b) ( 2) (c) (d) ( 1)
𝑟1 𝑟1 𝑟2 𝑟2
79. The time period of a satellite orbiting Earth in a circular orbit is independent of..
(a) Radius of the orbit (b) The mass of the satellite
(c) Both the mass and radius of the orbit
(d) Neither the mass nor the radius of its orbit
80. If the distance between the Earth and Sun were to be doubled from its present
value, the number of days in a year would be
(a) 64.5 (b) 1032 (c) 182.5 (d) 730
81. According to Kepler’s second law, the radial vector to a planet from the Sun sweeps
out equal areas in equal intervals of time. This law is a consequence of
(a) conservation of linear momentum
(b) conservation of angular momentum
(c) conservation of energy
(d) conservation of kinetic energy
82. The gravitational potential energy of the Moon with respect to Earth is
(a) always positive (b) always negative
(c) can be positive or negative (d) always zero
83. The kinetic energies of a planet in an elliptical orbit about the Sun, at positions A,
B and C are KA, KB and KC respectively. AC is the major axis and SB is perpendicular
to AC at the position of the Sun S as shown in the figure. Then
(a) KA > KB > KC (b) KB < KA < KC
(c) KA < KB < KC (d) KB > KA > K C
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84. The work done by the Sun’s gravitational force on the Earth is
(a) always zero (b) always positive
(c) can be positive or negative (d) always negative
85. If the mass and radius of the Earth are both doubled, then the acceleration due to
gravity g ′
g
(a) remain s same (b) (c) 2g (d) 4g
2
86. The magnitude of the Sun’s gravitational field as experienced by Earth is
(a) same over the year
(b) decreases in the month of January and increases in the month of July
(c) decreases in the month of July and increases in the month of January
(d) increases during day time and decreases during night time
87. If a person moves from Chennai to Trichy, his weight
(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) remains same (d) increases and then decreases
88. An object of mass 10 kg is hanging on a spring scale which is attached to the roof
of a lift. If the lift is in free fall, the reading in the spring scale is
(a) 98 N (b) zero (c) 49 N (d) 9.8 N
89. If the acceleration due to gravity becomes 4 times its original value, then escape
speed
(a) remains same (b) 2 times of original value
(c) becomes halved (d) 4 times of original value
90. The kinetic energy of the satellite orbiting around the Earth is
(a) equal to potential energy (b) less than potential energy
(c) greater than kinetic energy (d) zero
UNIT – 7 (PROPERTIES OF MATTER)
91. Consider two wires X and Y. The radius of wire X is 3 times the radius of Y. If they
are stretched by the same load, then the stress on Y is
(a) equal to that on X (b) thrice that on X
(c) nine times that on X (d) Half that on X
92. If a wire is stretched to double of its original length, then the strain in the wire is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
93. The load – elongation graph of three wires of the same material are shown in
figure. Which of the following wire is the thickest?

(a) wire 1 (b) wire 2


(c) wire 3 (d) all of them have same thickness
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1 rd
94. For a given material, the rigidity modulus is ( ) of Young’s modulus. Its
3
Poisson’s ratio is
(a) 0 (b) 0.25 (c) 0.3 (d) 0.5
95. A small sphere of radius 2cm falls from rest in a viscous liquid. Heat is produced
due to viscous force. The rate of production of heat when the sphere attains its
terminal velocity is proportional to
(a) 22 (b) 23 (c) 24 (d) 25
96. Two wires are made of the same material and have the same volume. The area of
cross sections of the first and the second wires are A and 2A respectively. If the
length of the first wire is increased by Δ𝑙 on applying a force F, how much force is
needed to stretch the second wire by the same amount?
(a) 2F (b) 4F (c) 8F (d) 16 F
97. With an increase in temperature, the viscosity of liquid and gas, respectively will
(a) increase and increase (b) increase and decrease
(c) decrease and increase (d) decrease and decrease
98. The Young’s modulus for a perfect rigid body is
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 0.5 (d) infinity
99. Which of the following is not a scalar?
(a) viscosity (b) surface tension
(c) pressure (d) stress
100. If the temperature of the wire is increased, then the Young’s modulus will
(a) remain the same (b) decrease
(c) increase rapidly (d) increase by very a small amount
101. Copper of fixed volume V is drawn into a wire of length 𝑙. When this wire is
subjected to a constant force F, the extension produced in the wire is Δ𝑙. If Y
represents the Young’s modulus, then which of the following graphs is a straight
line?
(a) Δ𝑙 versus V (b) Δ𝑙 versus Y
1
(c) Δ𝑙 versus F (d) Δ𝑙 versus
𝑙
102. A certain number of spherical drops of a liquid of radius R coalesce to form a single
drop of radius R and volume V. If T is the surface tension of the liquid, then
1 1
(a) energy = 4 V T ( − ) is released
r R
1 1
(b) energy = 3 V T ( + ) is absorbed
r R
1 1
(c) energy =3 V T ( − ) is released
r R
(d) energy is neither released nor absorbed
103. The following four wires are made of the same material. Which of these will have
the largest extension when the same tension is applied?
(a) length = 200 cm, diameter = 0.5 mm
(b) length= 200 cm, diameter = 1 mm
(c) length = 200 cm, diameter = 2 mm
(d) length= 200 cm, diameter = 3 m
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104. The wettability of a surface by a liquid depends primarily on


(a) viscosity (b) surface tension
(c) density
(d) angle of contact between the surface and the liquid
105. In a horizontal pipe of non-uniform cross section, water flows with a velocity of 1
ms-1 at a point where the diameter of the pipe is 20 cm. The velocity of water (1.5
m s-1) at a point where the diameter of the pipe is (in cm)
(a) 8 (b) 16 (c) 24 (d) 32
UNIT – 8 (HEAT AND THERMODYNAMICS)
106. In hot summer after a bath, the body’s
(a) internal energy decreases (b) internal energy increases
(c) heat decreases
(d) no change in internal energy and heat
107. The graph between volume and temperature in Charles’ law is
(a) an ellipse (b) a circle
(c) a straight line (d) a parabola
108. When a cycle tyre suddenly bursts, the air inside the tyre expands. This process is
(a) isothermal (b) adiabatic
(c) isobaric (d) isochoric
109. An ideal gas passes from one equilibrium state (P1, V1, T1, N) to another equilibrium
state (2P1, 3V1, T2, N). Then
𝑇2
(a) T1 = T2 (b) T1 = (c) T1 = 6T2 (d) T1 = 3T2
6
110. When a uniform rod is heated, which of the following quantity of the rod will
increase
(a) mass (b) weight
(c) center of mass (d) moment of inertia
111. When food is cooked in a vessel by keeping the lid closed, after some time the
steam pushes the lid outward. By considering the steam as a thermodynamic
system, then in the cooking process
(a) Q>0,W>0 (b) Q < 0, W > 0
(c) Q > 0, W < 0 (d) Q < 0, W < 0
112. When you exercise in the morning, by considering your body as thermodynamic
system, which of the following is true?
(a) ΔU > 0, W > 0 (b) ΔU < 0, W > 0
(c) ΔU < 0, W < 0 (d) ΔU = 0, W > 0
113. A hot cup of coffee is kept on the table. After some time, it attains a thermal
equilibrium with the surroundings. By considering the air molecules in the room as
a thermodynamic system, which of the following is true
(a) ΔU > 0, Q = 0 (b) ΔU > 0, W < 0
(c) ΔU > 0, Q > 0 (d) ΔU = 0, Q > 0
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114. An ideal gas is taken from (Pi,Vi) to (Pf,Vf) in three different ways. Identify the
process in which the work done on the gas the most.

(a) Process A (b) Process B


(c) Process C (d) Equal work is done in Process A,B &C
115. The V-T diagram of an ideal gas which goes through a reversible cycle
A→B→C→D is shown below. (Processes D→A and B→C are adiabatic)

The corresponding PV diagram for the process is


(all figures are schematic)

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

116. A distant star emits radiation with maximum intensity at 350 nm. The
temperature of the star is
(a) 8280 K (b) 5000K (c) 7260 K (d) 9044 K
117. Identify the state variables given here?
(a) Q, T, W (b) P, T, U (c) Q, W (d) P, T, Q
118. In an isochoric process, we have
(a) W=0 (b) Q=0 (c) ΔU = 0 (d) ΔT = 0
119. The efficiency of a heat engine working between the freezing point and boiling
point of water is
(a) 6.25% (b) 20% (c) 26.8% (d) 12.5%
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120. An ideal refrigerator has a freezer at temperature −12°C. The coefficient of


performance of the engine is 5. The temperature of the air (to which the heat
ejected) is
(a) 50°C (b) 45.2°C (c) 40.2°C (d) 37.5°C
UNIT – 9 (KINETIC THEORY OF GASES)
121. A particle of mass m is moving with speed u in a direction which makes 60° with
respect to x axis. It undergoes elastic collision with the wall. What is the change in
momentum in x and y direction?

(a) ∆𝑝𝑥 = −𝑚𝑢, ∆𝑝𝑦 = 0 (b) ∆𝑝𝑥 = −2𝑚𝑢, ∆𝑝𝑦 = 0


(c) ∆𝑝𝑥 = 0, ∆𝑝𝑦 = 𝑚𝑢 (d) ∆𝑝𝑥 = 𝑚𝑢, ∆𝑝𝑦 = 0
122. A sample of ideal gas is at equilibrium. Which of the following quantity is zero?
(a) rms speed (b) average speed
(c) average velocity (d) most probable speed
123. An ideal gas is maintained at constant pressure. If the temperature of an ideal gas
increases from 100K to 10000K then the rms speed of the gas molecules
(a) increases by 5 times (b) increases by 10 times
(c) remains same (d) increases by 7 times
124. Two identically sized rooms A and B are connected by an open door. If the room A
is air conditioned such that its temperature is 4°C lesser than room B, which room
has more air in it?
(a) Room A (b) Room B
(c) Both room has same air (d) Cannot be determined
125. The average translational kinetic energy of gas molecules depends on
(a) number of moles and T (b) only on T
(c) P and T (d) P only
126. If the internal energy of an ideal gas U and volume V are doubled then the pressure
(a) doubles (b) remains same
(c) halves (d) quadruples
Cp
127. The ratio γ = for a gas mixture consisting of 8 g of helium and 16 g of oxygen
Cv
is
(a) 23/15 (b) 15/23
(c) 27/17 (d) 17/2
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128. A container has one mole of monoatomic ideal gas. Each molecule has f degrees
Cp
of freedom. What is the ratio of γ =
Cv
f f f +2
(a) f (b) (c) (d)
2 f+2 f
129. If the temperature and pressure of a gas is doubled the mean free path of the gas
molecules
(a) remains same (b) doubled
(c) tripled (d) quadrapoled
130. Which of the following shows the correct relationship between the pressure and
density of an ideal gas at constant temperature?
(a) (b)

(c) (d)

131. A sample of gas consists of μ1 moles of monoatomic


molecules, μ2 moles of diatomic molecules and μ3 moles of linear triatomic
molecules. The gas is kept at high temperature. What is the total number of
degrees of freedom?
(a) [3μ1 + 7(μ2 + μ3)] NA (b) [3μ1 + 7μ2 + 6μ3] NA
(c) [7μ1 + 3(μ2 + μ3)] NA (d) [3μ1 + 6(μ2 + μ3)] NA
132. If SP and SV denote the specific heats of nitrogen gas per unit mass at constant
pressure and constant volume respectively, then
(a) SP - SV = 28R (b) SP - SV = R/28
(c) SP - SV = R/14 (d) SP - SV = R
133. Which of the following gases will have least rms speed at a given temperature?
(a) Hydrogen (b) Nitrogen
(c) Oxygen (d) Carbon dioxide
134. For a given gas molecule at a fixed temperature, the area under the Maxwell-
Boltzmann distribution curve is equal to
PV kT P
(a) (b) (c) (d) PV
kT PV NkT
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135. The following graph represents the pressure versus number density for ideal gas
at two different temperatures T1 and T2. The graph implies

(a) T1 = T2 (b) T1 > T2


(c) T1 < T2 (d) Cannot be determined

UNIT – 10 (KINETIC THEORY OF GASES)


136. In a simple harmonic oscillation, the acceleration against displacement for one
complete oscillation will be
(a) an ellipse (b) a circle (c) a parabola (d) a straight line
137. A particle executing SHM crosses points A and B with the same velocity. Having
taken 3 s in passing from A to B, it returns to B after another 3 s. The time period
is
(a) 15 s (b) 6s (c) 12 s (d) 9s
138. The length of a second’s pendulum on the surface of the Earth is 0.9 m. The length
of the same pendulum on surface of planet X such that the acceleration of the
planet X is n times greater than the Earth is
0.9 0.9
(a) 0.9n (b) 𝑚 (c) 0.9 n2m (d)
𝑛 𝑛2
139. A simple pendulum is suspended from the roof of a school bus which moves in a
horizontal direction with an acceleration a, then the time period is
1 1
(a) T∝ (b) T∝
g2 +a2 √g2 +a2

(c) T ∝ √g 2 + a2 (d) T∝ (g 2 + a2 )
140. Two bodies A and B whose masses are in the ratio 1:2 are suspended from two
separate massless springs of force constants kA and kB respectively. If the two
bodies oscillate vertically such that their maximum velocities are in the ratio 1:2,
the ratio of the amplitude A to that of B is
k k 2k 8k
(a) √2kB (b) √8kB (c) √kB (d) √kB
A A A A

141. A spring is connected to a mass m suspended from it and its time period for vertical
oscillation is T. The spring is now cut into two equal halves and the same mass is
suspended from one of the halves. The period of vertical oscillation is
T T
(a) T ′ = √2 T (b) T′ = (c) T ′ = √2T (d) T′ = √
√2 2
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142. The displacement of a simple harmonic motion is given by y(t) = A sin (ωt + ϕ) where
A is amplitude of the oscillation, ω is the angular frequency and ϕ is the phase. Let
the amplitude of the oscillation be 8 cm and the time period of the oscillation is 24
s. If the displacement at initial time (t = 0 s) is 4 cm, then the displacement at
t = 6 s is
(a) 8 cm (b) 4 cm (c) 4 √3 cm (d) 8 √3 cm
143. A simple pendulum has a time period T1. When its point of suspension is moved
vertically upwards according as y = k t2, where y is vertical distance covered and
𝑇12
k = 1 ms−2, its time period becomes T2. Then, is (g = 10 ms–2)
𝑇22
5 11 6 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
6 10 5 4
144. An ideal spring of spring constant k, is suspended from the ceiling of a room and a
block of mass M is fastened to its lower end. If the block is released when the spring
is un-stretched, then the maximum extension in the spring is
Mg Mg Mg Mg
(a) 4 (b) (c) 2 (d)
k k k 2k
145. A pendulum is hung in a very high building oscillates to and fro motion freely like a
simple harmonic oscillator. If the acceleration of the bob is 16 ms−2 at a distance
of 4 m from the mean position, then the time period is
(a) 2s (b) 1s (c) 2πs (d) πs
146. A hollow sphere is filled with water. It is hung by a long thread. As the water flows
out of a hole at the bottom, the period of oscillation will
(a) first increase and then decrease (b) first decrease and then increase
(c) increase continuously (d) decrease continuously
147. The damping force on an oscillator is directly proportional to the velocity. The units
of the constant of proportionality are
(a) kg m s−1 (b) kg m s−2 (c) kg s−1 (d) kg s
148. Let the total energy of a particle executing simple harmonic motion with angular
𝜋
frequency is 1 rad s–1 is 0.256 J. If the displacement of the particle at time t= s
2
is 8 √3 cm then the amplitude of motion is
(a) 8 cm (b) 16 cm (c) 32 cm (d) 64 cm
149. A particle executes simple harmonic motion and displacement y at time t0, 2t0
A+C
and 3t0 are A, B and C, respectively. Then the value of ( ) is
2B
(a) cos ωt0 (b) cos 2ωt0 (c) cos 3ωt0 (d) 1
150. A mass of 3 kg is attached at the end of a spring moves with simple harmonic
motion on a horizontal frictionless table with time period 2π and with amplitude of
2m, then the maximum fore exerted on the spring is
(a) 1.5 N (b) 3N (c) 6N (d) 12 N
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UNIT – 11 (WAVES)
151. A student tunes his guitar by striking a 120 Hertz with a tuning fork, and
simultaneously plays the 4th string on his guitar. By keen observation, he hears
the amplitude of the combined sound oscillating thrice per second. Which of the
following frequencies is the most likely the frequency of the 4th string on his
guitar?
(a) 130 (b) 117 (c) 110 (d) 120
152. A transverse wave moves from a medium A to a medium B. In medium A, the
velocity of the transverse wave is 500 ms-1 and the wavelength is 5 m. The
frequency and the wavelength of the wave in medium B when its velocity is 600
ms-1, respectively are
(a) 120 Hz and 5 m (b) 100 Hz and 5 m
(c) 120 Hz and 6 m (d) 100 Hz and 6 m
153. For a particular tube, among six harmonic frequencies below 1000 Hz, only four
harmonic frequencies are given: 300 Hz, 600 Hz, 750 Hz and 900 Hz. What are
the two other frequencies missing from this list?
(a) 100 Hz, 150 Hz (b) 150 Hz, 450 Hz
(c) 450 Hz, 700 Hz (d) 700 Hz, 800 Hz
154. Which of the following options is correct?
A B
(1) Quality (A) Intensity
(2) Pitch (B) Waveform
(3) Loudness (C) Frequency

Options for (1), (2) and (3), respectively are


(a) (B),(C) and (A) (b) (C), (A) and (B)
(c) (A), (B) and (C) (d) (B), (A) and (C)
155. Equation of travelling wave on a stretched string of linear density 5 g/m is y =
0.03 sin(450t – 9x), where distance and time are measured in SI units. The
tension in the string is
(a) 5N (b) 12.5 N (c) 7.5 N (d) 10 N
156. A sound wave whose frequency is 5000 Hz travels in air and then hits the water
surface. The ratio of its wavelengths in water and air is
(a) 4.30 (b) 0.23 (c) 5.30 (d) 1.23
157. A person standing between two parallel hills fi res a gun and hears the first echo
after t1 sec and the second echo after t2 sec. The distance between the two hills is
𝒗(𝒕𝟏 −𝒕𝟐 ) 𝑣(𝑡1 𝑡2 )
(a) (b)
𝟐 2(𝑡1 + 𝑡2 )

𝑣(𝑡1 + 𝑡2 )
(c) 𝑣 (𝑡1 + 𝑡2 ) (d)
2
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158. An air column in a pipe which is closed at one end, will be in resonance with the
vibrating body of frequency 83Hz. Then the length of the air column is
(a) 1.5 m (b) 0.5 m (c) 1.0 m (d) 2.0 m
159. The displacement y of a wave travelling in the x direction is given by
𝝅
𝒚 = (𝟐𝐱𝟏𝟎−𝟑 )𝐬𝐢𝐧 (𝟑𝟎𝟎𝒕 − 𝟐𝒙 + ), where x and y are measured in metres and t
𝟒
in second. The speed of the wave is
(a) 150 ms-1 (b) 300 ms-1 (c) 450 ms-1 (d) 600 ms-1
160. Consider two uniform wires vibrating simultaneously in their fundamental notes.
The tensions, densities, lengths and diameter of the two wires are in the ratio 8:
1, 1: 2, x : y and 4 : 1 respectively. If the note of the higher pitch has a frequency
of 360 Hz and the number of beats produced per second is 10, then the value of
x : y is
(a) 36: 35 (b) 35: 36 (c) 1: 1 (d) 1: 2
161. Which of the following represents a wave
𝟏
(a) (𝒙 − 𝒗𝒕)𝟑 (b) 𝒙(𝒙 + 𝒗𝒕) (c) (d) sin(𝒙 + 𝒗𝒕)
(𝒙 + 𝒗𝒕)
162. A man sitting on a swing which is moving to an angle of 600 from the vertical is
blowing a whistle which has a frequency of 2.0 k Hz. The whistle is 2.0 m from the
fixed support point of the swing. A sound detector which detects the whistle sound
is kept in front of the swing. The maximum frequency the sound detector detected
is
(a) 2.027 kHz (b) 1.974 kHz (c) 9.74 kHz (d) 1.011 kHz
𝟏
163. Let 𝒚 = at t = 0 s be the amplitude of the wave propagating in the positive x-
𝟏+𝒙𝟐
direction. At t = 2 s, the amplitude of the wave propagating becomes 𝒚 =
𝟏
𝟏 + (𝒙−𝟐)𝟐
Assume that the shape of the wave does not change during propagation. The
velocity of the wave is
(a) 0.5m s-1 (b) 1.0m s-1 (c) 1.5m s-1 (d) 2.0m s-1
164. A uniform rope having mass m hangs vertically from a rigid support. A transverse
wave pulse is produced at the lower end. Which of the following plots shows the
correct variation of speed v with height h from the lower end?

(a) (b)

(c) (d)
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165. An organ pipe A closed at one end is allowed to vibrate in its first harmonic and
another pipe B open at both ends is allowed to vibrate in its third harmonic. Both
A and B are in resonance with a given tuning fork. The ratio of the length of A and
B is
8 3 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 8 6 3

Prepared By
RAJENDRAN M, M.Sc., B.Ed., C.C.A.,
P.G. TEACHER IN PHYSICS,
DEPARTMENT OF PHYSICS,
SRMHSS, KAVERIYAMPOONDI,
TIRUVANNAMALAI DISTRICT – 606603.

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