CRIMINOLOGISTS Licensure Examination

First Day – Afternoon Session

LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION

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INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the
following questions. Mark only one answer for each item
by marking the box corresponding to the letter of your
choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NI
ERASURES ALLOWED. Use black ball pen only.
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1. This term are now used primarily to denote a body

of people organized to maintain civil order and public
safety, to enforce the law, and to investigate breaches
of the law.
A. agent in authority B. police
C. agent of peace D. law enforcers

2. In England, it can give instructions to a chief

constable where it relate to purely administrative
matters and cannot interfere in police operations and
policy, nor can it give directions concerning
particular enforcement measures or incidents.
A. enforcer’s authority B. government
authority
C. police authority D. state authority

3. Scholars have identified three primary police

agency functions in the US, and the police are usually
called-on to "handle" these situations with discretion,
as follows, EXCEPT:
A. order maintenance B. law enforcement
C. calls for service D. miscellaneous
activity

4 The dual system of municipal police and rural

police in Japan was abolished and the two forces were
integrated into a central police force under the name
of __________, which literally means Prefectural
Police.
A. Keiheryo B. Todo Fukeu Keisatsu
C. Naimutsu D. Gonim Gumi

5. With regard police ranks in Thailand, it is the

equivalent rank of Policeman or Constables of other
Western police, and the local police systems.
A. Phon Tamruat B. Junsa
C. Rakan Cop D. Police Officer I
6. The Hong Kong Police Force (HKPF) is the
largest disciplined service under the __________
of Hong Kong.
A. Public Defense Bureau B. Public Safety
Bureau
C. Safety Bureau D. Security Bureau
7. In Singapore, the basic training for all officers
was conducted at the __________, under the purview of
the Police Training Command. It takes about six
months and nine months to train a new police officer
and senior police officer respectively.
A. Police Team Academy B. National Academy
C. Home Team Academy D. Team Academy

8. The Indonesian Republic National Police or

__________, is the official police force for Indonesia,
and it had formerly been a part of the Tentara Nasional
Indonesia.
A. Kepolisan Negara Republik Indonesia
B. Indonesia Republik Kepolisan Negara
C. Republik Kepolisan Negara Indonesia

D. Negara Kepolisan Republioc Indonesia

9. In Malaysia, it is a community outreach program

launched in August 9, 2005, and it is apart from the 2
departments involved in the administration vis-a-vis
Management Department and Logistics Department
A. Rakan Cop B. Koan Linkai
C. Koban Police D. Neighborhood Watch

10. Because citizens have such a great influence on

the goals of policing activities within the community,
the goals of different police agencies vary.
Traditionally, there are five basic goals, as follows:
enforcing laws, preserving the peace, preventing
crimes, protecting rights and liberties, and
__________.
A. providing other services
B. providing miscellaneous service
C. providing social services
D. providing community-oriented policing

11. It may be defined as the function of management

concerned with promoting and enhancing the development
of work effectiveness and advancement of the rank and
file of the police organization.
A. management B. personnel
management
C. leadership D. police
administration

12. This principle requires that every employee should

be under the direct supervision of but one manager.
Thus each employee should be accountable directly to
only one manager in normal operations.
A. unity of command B. scalar chain
C. chain of command D. esprit de corps

13. It is a part of the management process, and this

refers to the act of overseeing people or in police
organization it is the process of overseeing
subordinates and line officers.
A. leadership B. all of these
C. management D. supervision

10. This principle was initially adopted from

psychologists refers to the number of person one
individual can supervise effectively.
A. unity of command B. span of control
C. division of work D. span of
attention

15. It is the ability of an individual to influence,

motivate, and enable others to contribute toward the
effectiveness and success of the organizations of which
they are members.
A. supervision B. leadership
C. management D. administration

16. This type of leader is highly authoritative; makes

decisions without allowing subordinates to participate;
and they are often made to feel that they are not part
of the team because they are not allowed a voice in the
decision-making process.
A. autocratic leader B. democratic leader
C. free-rain leader D. none of these

17. To some it denotes a military bearing; to others,

it means a distinctive type of appearance and conduct;
while others feel it as comprised of the same
ingredients as leadership.
A. leadership ability B. unity of command
C. chain of command D. command
presence

18. This method of giving orders may be indicated in

dealing with the lazy, careless, indifferent, or
irresponsible employees or the one who refuses or
neglects to obey standard operating rules or fails to
respond to suggestions or implied orders.
A. direct command B. implied
C. request D. suggestive

19. This denotes any training intended to produce a

specific character or pattern of behavior, especially
training that produces moral, physical, or mental
development in a particular direction.
A. esprit de corps B. morale
 C. all of these D. discipline
20. It shall be administered based on rules and
regulations approved by the National Police Commission
(NAPOLCOM) for the members of the police organization
in order to assess and measure individual efficiency,
competence and effectiveness.
A. performance evaluation system
B. performance evaluation rating
C. all of these
D. none of these

21. It is information produced or received in the

initiation, conduct or completion of an institutional
or individual activity and that comprises content,
context and structure sufficient to provide evidence of
the activity.
A. records B. data
C. information D. documents

22. It is the practice of identifying, classifying,

archiving, preserving, and destroying records, and it
is also defines as the field of management responsible
for the efficient and systematic control and
maintenance of records
A. records control B. records
management
C. records keeping D. records
administration

23. It is the most popular method for destruction of

records, and it can even destroy paper clips, staples,
and fasteners along with the records fed into the
machine.
A. incinerating B. shredding
C. recycling D. disintegrating

24. In the record cycle, this refers to the physical

movement of active records from the office to semi-
active storage areas.
A. changes of custody B. records transfer
C. chain of custody D. records
delegation

25. It is a tool upon which the police managers rely in

deciding questions of policy in the employment and
deployment of personnel, and in eliminating wasteful
administration and operations of the police
organization.
A. civilian records B. police records
C. enforcement records D. criminal records

26. To the laymen, it suggest little more than

inspectional activity, whether carried out on foot,
mobile or some other way.
 A. police operation B. police
communication
C. police intelligence D. police patrol

27. An alternative patrol system which means the

fielding of the field units in their respective area of
responsibility with prescribed objectives and
verifiable tasks schedule of the day.
A. proactive patrol B. walking beat
patrol
C. undercover patrol D. air patrol

28. Crime results from the existence of the elements of

crime, EXCEPT:
A. desire B. capability
C. intent D. opportunity

29. This is the primary purpose of police patrol.

A. detect the desire B. check the capability
C. eliminate opportunity D. maintain peace &
order

30. This repressive police activity is accomplished by

making their presence know in such a way that, even
when they are not in a specific location, a felon will
refrain from misbehavior because, and this is actually
refers to this phenomenon as:
A. police omni-presence B. elimination of
desire
C. lessening capability D. control of
opportunity

31. Its method is consisting of the fixed post, line

beat, and random patrol, and it is restricted to small
areas and is used to deal with special problems of
prevention and repression.
A. fixed surveillance B. beat patrol
C. bicycle patrol D. foot patrol

32. It is useful for relief and rescue operation,

medical evacuation, general patrol, criminal
apprehension, crime prevention and repression,
emergency transportation, surveillance and other
activities.
A. helicopter B. air patrol
C. airplane D. eye in the sky

33. This is done by patrolling the streets within the

perimeter of the beats, not at random, but with a
definite target location where he knows his presence is
necessary.
A. zigzagging B. freewheeling
C. all of the above D. none of the
above
34. The observation of the patrol officer in
patrolling their respective beats must keenly be aimed
at this, and it is the sources of hazards.
A. material things B. dangerous
persons
C. persons & things D. other police
officers
35. It is locally referred to as Community Oriented
Policing System (COPS), it is now being widely applied
by the law enforcement agency particularly in highly
urbanized places in the country.
A. participative law enforcement
B. community-Police Assistance Center
C. maintenance of Police-Community Precinct
D. community-mobilization in crime prevention

36. It includes the objectives of protecting lives and

properties and providing all the other services which
are required or expected from police officers.
A. maintain peace/order B. enforce the law
C. ensure public safety D. serve & protect

37. This type of assignment is particularly effective

for “saturation coverage” of high crime area.
A. low visibility patrol
B. specific patrol
C. high visibility patrol
D. undercover patrol

38. The bicycle patrol has the combined advantage of

__________ because the bicycle can be operated very
quietly and without attracting attention.
A. speed & mobility B. mobility &
stealth
C. speed/maneuverability D. speed & flexibility

39. This is the art of using and solving codes and

ciphers, and it came from the Greek kryptos, meaning
hidden, and graphia, meaning writing.
A. cryptography B. cryptanalysis
C. encoding D. deciphering

40. This means emergency, and is to be answered

immediately by driving to the scene as quickly and
safely as possible, the red lights and the siren are to
be used to obtain the right of way.
A. Code 4 B. Code 5
C. Code 3 D. Code 6

41. This is the particular provision of the New

Philippine Constitution of 1987 that mandated the
creation of a police force which is national and scope
and civilian in character, and to be administered by a
National Police Commission.
 A. Sec. 16, Art. 6, NC B. Sec. 12, Art. II,
NPC
C. Sec 2, Art. 12, NPC D. Sec. 6, Art. XVI,
NPC

42. It shall function as a mobile strike force or

reaction unit for civil disturbance control, counter-
insurgency, hostage-taking rescue operations, and other
special operations.
A. Special Action Force
B. Traffic Management Group
C. none of these
D. Police Intelligence Group

43. In case of emergency, the police shall support the

Armed Forces of the Philippines (AFP) through
__________ and performance of its ordinary police
functions except when the President shall call on the
PNP to support the AFP in combat operations.
A. collecting informationB. information
gathering
C. colleting intelligenceD. intelligence
gathering

44. On the average nationwide, the manning levels of

the PNP shall be approximately in accordance with what
police-to-population ratio.
A. 1:500 B. 1:1,000
C. 1:1,500 D. 1:750

45. At present, how many is the authorized star rank

officers in the Philippine National Police (PNP).
A. sixty-three B. ninety
C. none of these D. sixty

46. The application of a member of __________ for

height waiver shall be processed regardless of whether
or not the number of applicants falls below the annual
quota.
A. cultural community B. indigenous group
C. minority groups D. special people

47. The following requirements for initial appointment

in the PNP may be waived only when the number of
qualified applicants falls below the approved quota
after the final interview of the recruiting unit,
EXCEPT:
A. age B. height
C. weight D. education

48. This is the age requirement in the recruitment and

selection of police personnel.
A. none of these B. 35 years
C. 21 to 30 years D. 20 years
49. The appointment of the officers and members of the
Philippine National Police (PNP) with the ranks of
Police Officer I to Police Superintendent shall be
attested by what particular agency of the government.
A. Commission on Appointments
B. Civil Service Commission
C. Department of Interior and Local Government
D. National Police Commission

50. Recruitment of Philippine National Police (PNP)

uniformed personnel shall be based on this principle,
and shall be open to all qualified men and women.
A. vacancy in position B. merit and fitness
C. standards D. qualifications

51. It refers to the utilization of units or elements

of the PNP for purposes of protection of lives and
properties, prevention and control of crimes, etc.
A. operational control
B. use of services
C. employment
D. operational supervision

52. It is filled-up and submitted by the police, and

other law enforcement agencies at the NAPOLCOM, and it
is being used a as a device in the compilation of
accurate data on the occurrence of crimes in the
country.
A. Crime Population and Density (CPD)

B. National Crime Reporting System (NCRS)

C. Crime Mapping and Crime Statistics (CMCS)

D. Comparative Crime Statistics (CCS)

53. Current processes are reviewed and recommendations

for improvement are made, although the police planning
really should be conducted to be use wisely as
condition change.
A. tactical plan B. operational planning
C. auxiliary plan D. procedural plan

54. Normally, it is the first step in the sequence of

planning process.
A. to recognize the need to plan
B. analyzing alternatives solutions
C. setting of goals and objectives
D. identifying the problems

55. This is a type of police plan according to range

with a life span of three (3) years or more, and a
typical example of this plan is the strategic plan.
A. mid-term plan B. sort term plan
C. all of these D. long range plan
56. It is the science, which deals with the
collection, interpretation, analysis and presentation
of quantitative crime data useful in police operational
activities.
A. comparative crime
statistics
B. crime mapping
C. statistical data
D. crime statistics

57. Are those serious crime that are readily reported,

and that occur with sufficient regularity and frequency
as to be sued as an actual level of criminality.
A. indictable crimes B. non-index crimes
C. index-crimes D. crime volume

58. It refers to the training required to make the

temporary appointment of a new PNP member permanent.
A. career management program
B. mandated career course
C. basic recruit course
D. field training program

59. It pertains to the authority of the local chief

executive to direct, superintend, and overseeing the
daily performance of police functions at the local
level to ensure the effective conduct of crime
investigation, traffic control and crime prevention
activities.
A. employment and deployment
B. physical and organized movement
C. operational control and supervision
D. program coordination

60. An officer or non-officer who is permanently and

totally disabled as a result of injuries or sickness
shall be entitled to one year's salary and to pension
equivalent to _________ of his last salary.
A. 80% B. 50%
C. 90% D. all of these

61. It is valid for five years unless sooner revoked

by the issuing authority.
A. interim clearance B. final clearance
C. security clearance D. none of the above

62. This consists of initial briefing on security, its

various aspects and its importance, and it is made to
the new personnel and employees.
A. security education B. security orientation
C. scty. indoctrination D. security
reminders
63. The process of making conclusions from integrated
intelligence and/or information.
A. integration B. assessment
C. evaluation D. deduction

64. It is the graphic representation of the current

enemy situation.
A. intelligence journal B. intelligence
files
C. situation map D. intelligence
workbook

65. Individuals who are simultaneously employed by two

or more friendly intelligence collection intelligence
agencies and usually motivated by economic gains.
A. dual agents B. double agents
C. informers D. informants

66. A form of open surveillance in which the subject’s

vehicle is closely followed.
A. tech. surveillance C. tailgaiting
C. directional finder D. protective custody

67. It is the visual inspection of an area,

installation or building to determine its suitability
for operational activities.
A. surveillance B. casing
C. stake out D. mustard plaster

68. It is one of the principal activities of police

intelligence operations, and limited activities on this
will usually produce a limited intelligence product.
A. news clipping B. liaison activities
D. de-briefing C. counter-intelligence

69. The intelligence operatives are being asked about

his personal experiences and observations while
conducting intelligence operations.
A. news clipping B. liaison activities
C. de-briefing D. counter-intelligence

70. It is an important method of gathering

intelligence data, and this is an excellent source of
highly valuable material.
A. news clipping B. liaison activities
C. de-briefing D. counter-intelligence

71. It is the product resulting from the collection,

evaluation, analysis, integration, and interpretation
of all available information which is significant to
planning.
A. intelligence B. police intelligence
 C. information D. military
intelligence

72. It is an evaluated material of every description

including those derived from observation, reports,
rumors, imagery, and other sources from which
intelligence are derived.
A. classified matters B. classified documents

C. information D. reports and records

73. The reliability of the source is “highly reliable”

and the accuracy of information is “confirmed
information,” what is the evaluation rating of the
information.
A. A-1 B. B-2
C. C-3 D. D-4

74. He is the father of organized military espionage.

A. Akbar B. Frederick the
Great
C. Genghis Khan D. Alexander the Great

75. It is the observation of a person, place or thing,

generally—but not necessarily—in unobtrusive manner.
A. informant operation B. undercover operation

C. surveillance D. intelligence
activities

76. It is an individual who openly or secretly

obtained or who assist in obtaining information for
intelligence and counter-intelligence purposes.
A. informants B. source
C. eye witness D. intelligence asset

77. It is an inquiry into the loyalty, integrity,

character, morale, and discretion of an individual
because of the sensitive position he holds, or is about
to assume.
A. personnel security investigation
B. complete background investigation
C. partial background investigation
D. national and local agency checks

78. When a surveillant’s behavior causes the subject to

surmise or know that he or she is under surveillance.
A. be made
B. burn the surveillance
C. burn out
D. all of the above

79. A properly trained and cleared individual who

assist the head of the department in discharging the
responsibilities of safeguarding classified documents
and materials.
A. operatives B. undercover agent
C. security officer C. confidential agents

80. It is the term given to the requirement to those

persons whose official duty requires knowledge of
possession thereof.
A. compartmentation B. need-to-know
C. cleared individual D. security
officer

81. It is a physical security applied to business

groups engaged in industries, like manufacturing,
assembling, research and development, processing,
warehousing and even agriculture.
A. operational security B. industrial
security
C. physical security D. special types

82. It is the broadest branch of security which is

concerned with the physical measures to prevent
unauthorized access.
A. operational security B. industrial
security
C. physical security D. special types

83. Are the acts or conditions affecting the safe

operation of the facility caused by human action,
accidental or intentional.
A. security hazards B. man-made hazard
C. natural hazard D. all of the above

84. It is the importance of the firm with reference to

the national economy and security.
A. relative criticality B. relative
vulnerability
C. all of the above D. none of the above

85. One who steals with pre-conceived plans and takes

away any of all types of items or supplies for economic
gain.
A. pilferer B. casual pilferer
C. systematic pilferer D. intruder

86. A medium of structure which defines the physical

limits of an installations to restrict or impede access
thereto.
A. natural barrier B. man-made barrier
C. perimeter barrier D. physical security

87. It is an additional overhang barbed wire placed on

vertical perimeter fences facing upward and outward
with a 45 degree angle with three to four strand of
barbed wire.
 A. topping B. top guard
C. all of the above D. none of the above

88. It is a fact finding probe to determine a plant’s

adequacy and deficiency in all aspects of security,
with corresponding recommendations.
A. security inspections B. security survey
C. special survey D. supplemental survey

89. It is an authenticated list of personnel given to

security allowing entry to a compound or installation
thereof.
A. controlling B. access list
C. exclusion area D. controlled area

90. A term applied to a device or system that in the

event of failure or a component, the incapacity will be
signaled.
A. doppler effect B. duress code
C. Peterman D. fail safe

91. It is a practical test of a plan or any activity

to test its validity it is also an operational
readiness exercise.
A. dry run B. run through
C. controlling D. fire drill

92. Private Security Agencies must be registered at

what government agency.
A. DTI B. PNP
C. SEC D. LGU

93. The City or Municipal Mayors has the power to

muster or _________ the members of the agency in case
of emergency or in times of disasters or calamity.
A. organize B. incorporate
C. utilize D. deputize

94. A conference or dialogue between the survey team

and management officials or plant before security
survey is conducted.
A. security survey B. special survey
C. entrance conference D. exit conference

95. A type of code system so that security personnel

when force by armed men to enter an installation can
give alarm by the use of certain words in casual
conversation.
A. doppler effect B. duress code
C. Peterman D. fail safe

96. A heavily constructed fire and burglar resistant

container usually a part of the building structure used
to keep and protect cash.
A. file room B. vault
 C. safe D. filing cabinets

97. It is one of the most important interrelated

functions in a plant security system, and it is as
important as in a business organizations as physical
security.
A. emergency planning B. run through
C. disaster preparation D. fire drill

98. He is in charge with the effective implementation

of RA 5487, and has the power to issue or revoke
license issued to PSA, PDA, PSG, and PD.
A. Chief, PNP B. SAGSD
C. PADPAO, Inc. D. Security Managers

99. This is an Act to Regulate the Organization and

Operation of Private Detective, Watchman or Security
Guards Agencies.
A. PD 1919 B. EO 393
C. RA 5487 D. PD 100

100. It is the age requirement for the operator or

manager of PSA, PDA, CSF, and GSU.
A. 25 years B. 30 years
C. 35 years D. 20 years

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