Final Exam

OSHA 30 CONSTR
UCTION FINAL EX
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PDF-Document.1. A
n important air test
for any confined
space is for
the presence of
oxygen.
Theconcentration of
oxygen should be: A.
Between 15 and 25%
B. As high as possibl
e C. Between
19.5% and 23.5%
- an ideal level
is 21%
(correct answer) D. N
one of the above2. T
he common forms of
crystalline silica
include: A. Quartz (t
he most common) B.
Cristobalite C. Both
A and B (correct ans
wer) D. None of the a
bove3. A permit-
required confined
space will likely have
which of the
following
hazards? A. Exposur
e to high volumes of
traffic B. It may cont
ain a hazardous atmo
sphere (correct answe
r) C. It will always ha
ve rough walls and fl
oors D. None of the a
bove4. Which of
the following
industries has the
highest fatality rate
on an annual
basis (1,100workers
per
year)? A. The nuclear
industry B. The oil re
fining industry C. Th
e chemical manufact
uring industry
00:0603:39
D. The construction
industry (correct ans
wer)5. Hazards to be
assessed prior
to entry
include: A. Chemical
hazards B. Hazards t
hat may entrap/bury
C. Other
hazards (stored energ
y, mechanical hazard
s, temperature extrem
es, etc.) D. All of the
above (correct answe
r) OSHA 30 Constru
ction Final Exam (v.
2.0) Page 2 of277 6.
A
confined space entry
permit: A. Is mandate
d by OSHA B. Is a "t
ool" for safety C.
Is a checklist that ide
ntifies the hazards an
d presents protective
measures D. All of th
e above (correct answ
er) 7. The principle
means to control
silica dust from
jackhammer
operations is by
wetting thedust at the
point
of breaking or chippi
ng. What is the best
way to achieve this?
A. The use of jackha
mmers B.
Manual and semi-
automatic water-
feed devices directed
at the point of impact
(correctanswer) C. Sp
ray directed behind t
he operation followin
g a speed dry process
D. The use of masonr
y saws 8. Poisonous
plants in the U.S.
include poison ivy,
poison oak, &
poison sumac.
These plants
can: A. Cause allergi
c reactions if contact
with workers' skin B.
Be dangerous if burn
ed and toxins inhaled
by workers C. Be eat
en because they are n
ot a hazard when ing
ested D. Both A & B
r) 9. What is essential
in order to modify a
scaffold?
A. A medium pipe w
rench B. A competen
t person C. A trained
crew D. B and C (cor
rect answer) 10.
Employers are
responsible for
providing and paying
for most personal
protectiveequipment
including: A. Unifor
ms B. Logging boots
C. Prescription readi
ng glasses D. Hard h
ats (correct answer) 1
1. Scaffold frames
must be pinned or
secured together
whenever A. There i
s the potential for upl
ift B. There is a poten
tial for eccentric load
ing C. There will be a
n OSHA inspection t
hat day D. Scaffolds
are installed as a goo
d practice E. a, b and
d above (correct ans
wer) OSHA 30 Const
ruction Final Exam (
v. 2.0) Page 3of
277 12. In regards to
confined spaces why
may a permit be
required? A. Someti
mes the boss demand
s it B. Provides
a checklist that outlin
es the steps
that need to
be followed C. Autho
rizes entrance into a c
onfined space D. Bot
h B and C (correct an
swer) 13. The OSH
Act
covers: A. All private
sector employees B.
Manufacturing, const
ruction, longshoring,
agriculture, law, med
icine and others(corre
ct
answer) C. The self e
mployed D. Both a a
nd b above
14. The "Fat Cat"

report refers
to: A. A catalog of fa
tal injury potentials B
. A specialized piece
of heavy equipment
C. A table that
contains the weekly
summaries of
fatalities and
catastrophes (correcta
nswer) 15. Regarding
OSHA's Hazard
Communication
standard commonly
referred to
as "HazCom"or the
"Right to Know"
standard which
statement below is
true about the
hazards
of all chemicals? A.
They are
classified and
the info
transmitted to
employers and
employees. (correcta
nswer) B. Assures
that
chemical hazard infor
mation is sent
to plaintiff attorneys.
C. Does not require
that containers are
labeled and other
forms of warning are
provided. D.
Assures that SDSs/M
SDSs
and employee trainin
g are
a voluntary complian
ce element. 16.
Job site inspections
by a competent
person must cover
the following
issues A. Soil/ground
conditions B. Overhe
ad obstructions C. El
ectrical hazards D. S
pecial protection requ
irements for scaffolds
E. All of the above (c
orrect answer) 17.
An employer that
receives an OSHA
citation
must: A. Copy and m
ail the citation to each
worker B.
Contest the citation a
nd file the citation wi
th the court C.
Post the citation for 3
days or until the
violation is fixed
(correct
answer) D. Sign the c
itation and return it to
OSHA OSHA 30 Co
nstruction Final Exa
m (v. 2.0) Page 4 of2
77 18. Life-
threatening
symptoms of
heat illness
include: A. High bod
y temperature, & hot,
dry skin
B. Confusion C. Con
vulsions or Fainting
D. All of the above (c
orrect answer) 19.
OSHA's mission is
to: A.
Protect the safety and
health of the general
public B. Ensure that
workers receive the f
ederal minimum wag
e C. Ensure that work
ers receive the federa
l minimum wage D.
Protect the safety and
health of
America's workers (c
orrect answer) 20.
Which of the
following elements is
most important when
planning the erection
of asupported
scaffold on
a site? A. Who the co
ntact person is at the
site. B.
Soil conditions, open
holes and
obstructions to
safe installation. (cor
rect answer) C. Heig
ht and width of scaff
old. D. Material deliv
ery limitations 21.
Chronic symptoms
usually develop
slowly and
may result in lung
cancer,
asbestosis,mesothelio
ma from asbestos and
silicosis from
exposure
to crystalline silica.
How long can it
take? A. 6 to 9 month
s B. 3 to 5 years C. 1
5 to 20 years (correct
answer) D. None of t
he above 22. The
OSHA standards for
Construction and
General Industry are
also known
as: A. Construction a
nd GI Registers B. Pa
rt 1915 and Part 1917
C. Part 1926 and 191
0 (correct answer) D.
Codes 501 through 1
000 23. The CSE
Supervisor
must: A. Be an actual
supervisor/manager
B. Be a salaried empl
oyee C. Be on site at
all times
D. Complete,
authorize, sign off
on the entry permit
and close out the
permit
(correctanswer) OSH
A 30 Construction Fi
nal Exam (v. 2.0) Pag
e 5 of277 24.
Solvents
can: A. Irritate your e
yes, nose or throat B.
Make you dizzy,
sleepy, give you
a headache or cause
you to
pass out C. Affect yo
ur judgment or coord
ination D. Cause inte
rnal damage to your
body E. All of the ab
ove (correct answer)
25. Scaffold planks
must be removed
from service for
which of the
following reasons: A.
Cracks in
the plank extending 1
8 inches in a
10 foot span B. Cuts,
notches or saw cuts C
. Dry rot or chemical
damage D.
Deflection
greater than 1
1/2 inches under load
in a 7
foot span E. All of th
er) 26. When
the scaffold reaches
____ times the
narrowest base
dimension, security
of thestructure must
begin. A.
2 B. 4 (correct answe
r) C.
5 D. None of the abo
ve 27. Health hazards
to which construction
workers may be
exposed include: A.
Chemical Hazards su
ch as dusts, mist,
fumes, gases
and vapors B. Physic
al Hazards such as he
at, noise, and vibratio
n C.
Biological Hazards s
uch as plants,
insects, animals and
microorganisms D. A
ll of the above (corre
ct answer) 28. One of
the primary
responsibilities that
employers have
under the OSH Act is
to:
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A.
Immediately notify O
SHA of any workpla
ce injury or illness B.
Reduce air pollution i
n the environment C.
Provide training requ
ired by OSHA standa
rds (correct answer)
D. Conduct energy a
udits 29. The
principal health
effects of non-
ionizing radiation
include the
following: A. skin ca
ncer B. eye damage
C. premature skin agi
ng D. All of the abov
e (correct answer) OS
HA 30 Construction
Final Exam (v. 2.0) P
age 6 of277 30. Ergo
nomic Hazards can
lead to
musculoskeletal
disorders and
injuries including: A.
strains and sprains B.
tendonitis C. carpal t
unnel syndrome D. A
ct answer) 31.
Protection during
may include
blanking, flushing,
double block
and bleed and
which other importan
t action A. Lockout a
nd tagout (correct ans
wer) B. Double hook
and ladder C. None
of the above 32.
Protection during
may include
blanking, flushing,
double block
and bleed and
which other importan
t action? A. Lineout a
nd backup B. Lockou
t and tagout (correct
answer) C. Double h
ook and ladder D. N
one of the above
ADVERTISING
33. Certain
mandatory
documentation
should be kept on
site. Included
are: A. OSHA consul
tations B. Monthly &
annual inspection rep
orts for the
equipment and
wire rope (correct
answer) C. Before an
d after photos of all c
rane operations D. Al
l of the above E. Non
e of the above 34.
State OSHA plans
are plans authorized
by Federal OSHA;
what is true of these
stateoperated
plans? A. State plans
are authorized by Fed
eral OSHA B.
State plans must be at
least as stringent as
the Federal requirem
ents C.
State plan programs r
espond to
accidents and
employee complaints
, like
Federal OSHA D. All
of the above (correct
answer) 35.
Respiratory
protection is
required: A. At all ti
mes B. If dust
control measures (e.g
.,
wetting) are insuffici
ent (correct answer)
C. Whenever cutting
concrete D. None of t
he above OSHA 30 C
onstruction Final Exa
m (v. 2.0) Page 7 of2
77 36. Crystalline
Silica is a health
hazard in
construction. Which
of the following
workactivities would
most
likely not result in an
exposure to crystallin
e silica? A. Jack ham
mering, rock/well dri
lling B. Concrete mix
ing, concrete drilling
C. Brick and concrete
block cutting and sa
wing D.
Concrete sawing usin
g water attachment to
suppress dusts
(correct answer) 37.
The best method for
dust control where
crystalline silica
exposures
is: A. Respiratory pro
tection B. Wetting
to avoid respiratory p
rotection and
potential exposures (
correct answer)
C. Blowing dust aro
und with compressed
air D. None of the ab
ove 38. Bloodborne
pathogens are
infectious
microorganisms in
human blood that can
causedisease in
humans. These patho
gens include: A.
Hepatitis B (HBV),
hepatitis C (HCV)
and human immunod
eficiency virus (HIV)
(correct
answer) B. Hepatitis
G (HBG), SARS, Tu
berculosis C. Chlamy
dia, Syphilis, Gonorr
hea D. All of the abo
ve 39. The creation
of OSHA provided
which important right
to
workers: A. The right
to privacy B. The rig
ht to pension benefits
C. The right to
a safe and healthful
workplace (correct an
swer) D. The right to
equal employment op
portunities 40.
Risk controls for
hand & arm vibration
hazards
include: A. Mechaniz
e or automate the wor
k B. Make sure
equipment selected
for tasks is
suitable and can do
the work
efficiently C. Limit t
he use of high-
vibration tools where
ver possible D. Limit
the time exposed to v
ibration E. All of the
r) 41. The
most common type
of construction
related injuries
is: A. Overexertion B
. Chemical Exposure
C. Falls (correct ans
wer) D. Suffocation
OSHA 30 Constructi
on Final Exam (v. 2.0
) Page 8of 277 42.
If you feel that an
OSHA inspection
is needed to get
hazards corrected at
your workplace,
which is your
best A. File a compla
int online B. Complai
n to your Supervisor
C. Submit a written,
signed
complaint with
specific hazard infor
mation (correct answ
er) D. Submit an unsi
gned complaint form
to OSHA 43. Which
of the following is
true? A.
When access to
heights is required a
scaffold is always the
best choice. B.
Scissor lifts and
boom
lifts must always be u
sed before scaffolds.
C. Training for users
of all equipment used
to gain access
to heights is
mandatory.
(correctanswer) D. A
and C only. E. None
of the above. 44.
Which of the
following conditions
would be least
harmful to the
hearing of
an employee? A.
Excessive short
term and long term n
oise exposure above
85 dBA B. Prolonged
noise over days,
weeks,
months above OSHA'
s action level of 85
dBA C. Carrying on
a normal conversatio
n in a
quiet room. (correct a
nswer) D. Single
exposure to very high
noise exceeding 115
dBA and higher 45.
On continuous runs
of scaffold planks,
which of the
following statements
is
true? A. The planks
must overlap at least
12 inches. B. The pla
nk overlap cannot be
more than 18 inches.
C. Bearer overlap mu
st be at least 6 inches
D. Bearer overlap do
esn't matter if planks
overlap E. A, B and
C are true. (correct an
swer) 46. The space
between scaffold
planks on a fully
planked platform
shall
be: A. No more than
1" (correct answer) B
. No more than 6" C.
No less than 1/4" D.
No more than the wid
th of a person's foot 4
7. Which of the
following is a serious
lung disease known
to be caused by
crystalline
silica? A. Silicosis (c
orrect answer)
B. Silican disease C.
Silicitis D. None of t
he above OSHA 30 C
m (v. 2.0) Page9 of
277 48. Tubular
Welded Frame
Scaffold Frames may
be installed without
feet or
jacks: A. When they
were not delivered. B
. Whenever it is more
convenient to leave t
hem off. C. Never. (c
orrect answer) D. Wh
en the competent per
son says it's ok. 49.
It is acceptable to
climb the cross
braces of Tubular
Welded Frame
Scaffold: A. When n
o ladder has been inst
alled B. When you ar
e only going down on
e level C. When it's l
unch time D. Never (
correct answer) 50.
It is acceptable to
climb the cross
braces of tubular
welded frame
scaffolds: A. When n
o ladder has been inst
alled B. When you ar
e only going down on
e level C. When it's l
unch time D.
Never, because they
are not designed
to take climbing load
s (correct answer) 51.
Crane load charts
may provide data that
separates structural
values from stability
values.Either way,
making a critical lift
increases risk. A
critical lift is
one which
penetrates_____ of
the allowable loadcha
rt
value A. 50% B. 75%
(correct answer) C. 1
00% D. None of the a
bove
52. A confined space

entry permit
includes: A.
Identification of all
participants, the
space to be entered,
hazards and
emergency
resp(correct
answer) B. Equipmen
t, humidity and other
contractors in the are
a C. The name of
the client, the
Contractor name, and
the annual survey
results D. All of the a
bove 53. Users of
scaffolds must be
briefed on
the following items
before work
commences A. Times
for breaks, lunch and
quitting B. Locations
of toilets and break fa
cilities C.
Load capacities, fall
protection, falling obj
ect protection, and
electrical exposures(c
orrect answer) D.
Nature of work, time
required
to complete, shortcut
s to get around
the scaffold rules 54.
Symptoms of acute
exposures to
Hazardous materials
may: OSHA 30 Cons
truction Final Exam (
v. 2.0) Page 10of
277 A.
Appear immediately
or within a short time
following exposure B
. Death is possible fr
om some hazardous s
ubstances C. Acute
effects are typically f
rom sudden, short-
term, high concentrat
ions D. All of the abo
ve (correct answer) 5
5. Regarding
Radiation, which
statement is true? A.
Radiation may be def
ined as energy traveli
ng through time B.
None-ionizing radiati
on is essential to
life so
overexposure won't
cause tissue
damage C. Ionizing
radiation has
insufficient energy to
ionize atoms leading
to tissue damage. D.
Improperly
controlled radiation c
an be
potentially hazardous
to worker health.
(correctanswer) 56.
Regarding routes
of exposure,
chemicals can enter
the body
through: A. Inhalatio
n, Ingestion, Absorpti
on (correct answer) B
. Only through inhala
tion
C. Through debradin
g of the skin 57.
When the employer
receives an OSHA
citation, it must
be: A. Contested and
filed with the courts
B. Copied and mailed
to each worker C.
Posted for 3 days
or until the
violation is
fixed (correct answer
) D. Signed and retur
ned to OSHA 58.
The CFR Parts, such
as Part 1926 for
Construction, are
further broken down
into ___________,
which
group together specif
ic and detailed standa
rds. A. Bullets B. Pie
ces C. Slices D. Subp
arts (correct answer)
59. Which of the
following is a type of
OSHA
violation? A. Repeat
B. Serious C. Willful
orrect answer) OSHA
30 Construction Final
Exam (v. 2.0) Page 1
1 of277 60. What
are two US
government agencies
that are good
resources for safety
and
healthinformation? A
. DEA and DOJ B. F
BI and CIA C. IRS a
nd SCOTUS D. OSH
A and NIOSH (corre
ct answer) 61. What
section of the OSH
Act does
the Whistleblower
Program
reference? A. Section
7(a)
B. Section 8 C. Secti
on 11(c) (correct ans
wer) D. Section 21 6
2. The creation
of OSHA provided
this important right
to
workers: A. The right
to equal employment
opportunities B. The
right to pension bene
fits C. The right to pr
ivacy D.
The right to a safe
and
healthful workplace (
correct answer) 63.
When you've been
assigned a new job or
task, be sure to ask
about
the: A. Additional pa
y and benefits B. Tim
e it takes to drive to t
he nearest OSHA offi
ce C. Medical expens
es that all you co-
workers may have D.
Written
procedures and any
additional training th
at may
be required (correct a
nswer) 64. You can
request to remain
anonymous when
OSHA presents a
complaint to
youremployer. A. Tr
ue (correct answer) B
. False 65. Where
there is no specific
OSHA standard,
employers must
comply with the
OSH Act's: A. Catch-
All Standard B. Final
Notice C. General Du
ty Clause (correct ans
wer) D. General Indu
stry Standard 66.
What does OSHA
require employers to
post for 3
days? A. Employee o
f the month recogniti
on B. Grants received
for studies C. OSHA
citations and abateme
nt verification notices
(correct answer) D. V
PP awards OSHA 30
Construction Final E
xam (v. 2.0) Page 12
of277
67. What type
of OSHA inspection
is conducted when
immediate death or
serious harm
islikely? A. Complai
nt B. Imminent dange
r (correct answer) C.
Programmed D. Refe
rral 68. Workers
must be trained in
which of the
following? A. Locko
ut/tagout B. Fall haza
rds C. Bloodborne pa
thogens D. All of the
r) 69. Which of the
following is a way
that an employee can
contact
OSHA? A. Email B.
In person at a local of
fice C. Phone D. All
answer) 70. The
OSHA standards for
Construction and
General Industry are
found
in: A. Codes 501 thro
ugh 1000 B. Constru
ction and GI Register
s C. Parts 1915 and 1
917 D. Parts 1926 an
d 1910 (correct answ
er) 71. Employers
covered by
OSHA's standards
must display an "It's
the Law" poster.
Whatdoes this
poster address? A. E
mployee dress code
B. Hourly wages C.
Hours of operation D
. Safety and health in
formation (correct an
swer)
72. Which
of following would
be best to have
when consulting a
medical professional
about possible
exposure
to a harmful chemical
? A. Eye witness acc
ounts of the exposure
incident B. Photogra
phs of the chemical C
. Safety Data Sheet f
or the chemical (corr
ect answer) D. Sampl
e of the chemical OS
HA 30 Construction
age 13 of277 73.
OSHA requires that
employers pay for
which of the
following personal
protectiveequipment
(PPE)? A. Hard hats(
correct answer) B. Lo
gging boots C. Unifo
rms D. Weather-
related gear 74.
Among the rights
related to OSHA
recordkeeping,
workers have the
right to
review: A. All first ai
d treatment forms B.
All worker's compens
ation forms C. Medic
al and exposure recor
ds for all workers D.
OSHA
300 Logs and OSHA
300A Summaries (co
rrect answer) 75.
What is OSHA's
mission? A. To preve
nt injuries B. To prot
ect the health of Ame
rica's workers C. To s
ave lives D. All of th
er) 76. Which groups
do NOT come under
OSHA's
coverage? A. Public
workers who are emp
loyed by state agenci
es B. Self-employed
workers C. Workers
employed by constru
ction companies
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D. Both A and B (co

rrect answer) 77.
OSHA requires
employers to
maintain certain
records on and
report work-related
injuriesand illnesses.
Which of the followi
ng is used for this pro
cess? A. Injury and Il
lness Report (Form 3
01) B. Log of Work-
Related Injuries and
Illnesses
(commonly called the
OSHA
300 Log) C. Summar
y (OSHA Form 300A
) D. All of the above
Who does OSHA
recommend you first
bring a workplace
safety or health
concern
to? A. OSHA B. The
local police departme
nt C. Your employer
(correct answer) D. Y
our lawyer OSHA 3
4 of277 79. A worker
or worker
representative can
file a complaint
about a safety or
health hazard inthe
workplace. A. True (
correct answer) B. Fa
lse 80. One of the
main responsibilities
employers have, as
required by OSHA
standards,
is to: A. Conduct ene
rgy audits B. Notify
OSHA of any workpl
ace injury or illness.
C. Provide training(c
orrect answer) D. Re
duce air pollution in t
he environment 81.
What are two US
government agencies
that are good
resources for safety
and
healthinformation? A
. DEA and DOJ B. F
BI and CIA
C. IRS and SCOTU

S D. OSHA and NIO
SH (correct answer)
82. Typically, how
long does an
employee have to file
a complaint with
OSHA, when
theemployee has
been discriminated a
gainst for reporting a
safety or health hazar
d? A. 3 days B. 10 da
ys C. 30 days (correc
t answer) D. 60 days
83. OSHA standards
fall into four
categories (or Parts):
General Industry,
Construction,Maritim
e, and
Agriculture. A. True
(correct answer) B. F
alse 84. The right of
workers to be
safe and healthy
while on the job,
without fear
of punishmentis
spelled out
in: A. OSHA standar
ds B. Section 11(c) o
f the OSH Act (corre
ct answer) C. State la
ws D. The General D
uty Clause 85.
During an OSHA
inspection: A. Emplo
yers determine which
workers are interview
ed B. You have the
right to talk to
the inspector privatel
y (correct answer) C.
You may not
describe safety and
health concerns you
have to
the inspector D.
Worker representativ
es
are not permitted to a
ccompany the inspect
or OSHA 30 Constru
2.0) Page 15 of 277 8
6. OSHA standards
appear in the Code of
Federal Regulations
(CFR).
A. True (correct ans
wer) B. False 87.
IIPP is an acronym
for
_________________
_____. A. Incident Pr
ogram Plan B. Injury
and Impairment Plan
ning Program C. Inju
ry and Illness Prevent
ion Program (correct
he above 88.
OSHA recognizes
that the
implementation of a
safety and health
program as a way
ofdemonstrating ___
_________ in promot
ing workplace safety
and health. A. Good f
aith by an employer (
correct answer) B. A
voidance of an OSH
A citation C. That m
oney is being spent a
ppropriately D. None
of the above 89. The
order of precedence
and effectiveness of
hazard control is
which of the
following? A. Engine
ering Controls first, P
PE, Administrative/
Work Practice Contr
ols B. Use PPE first f
ollowing by Adminis
trative/Work Practice
Controls C. Engineer
ing controls are not r
equired on constructi
on sites D.
Engineering controls,
Administrative/Work
Practice Controls, PP
E (correct answer) E.
None of the above 90
. The risk assessment
code or RAC is
used to
evaluate: A. The prob
ability of a hazardous
event B. A degree of
hazard severity C. Th
e same as hazard D.
Both A and B above
OSHA's IIPP
Proposed Rule
includes which of the
elements
below? A. Managem
ent duties and emplo
yee participation B.
Hazard identification,
assessment and hazar
d prevention / control
C. Education, trainin
g and program evalua
tion D. All of the abo
ve (correct answer)
OSHA 30 Constructi
) Page 16 of277 92.
A Job Hazard
Analysis (JHA) is: A.
A technique that focu
ses on job tasks as a
way to
identify hazards B.
It focuses on
the relationship betw
een the worker,
the task, tools
and environment C.
Will always prevent i
njuries D. Both A an
d B above (correct an
swer) 93. Incident
investigation should
focus
on: A. Assigning bla
me B. Understanding
why the accident or n
ear miss occurred C.
What actions can be t
aken to preclude recu
rrence. D. Both B an
d C above (correct an
swer) 94. Which
of the following
incidents / accidents
require
investigation? A. Seri
ous injury incidents
B. Lost time injuries
and illnesses C. Near
miss incidents D.
All of the above shou
ld be investigated. (c
orrect answer) 95.
An effective
occupational safety
and health program
will include which of
the
followingelements?
A. Management com
mitment and employe
e involvement B. Wo
rksite analysis C. Haz
ard prevention and co
ntrol D. Safety and h
ealth training E. All t
he above (correct ans
wer) 96. Regardless
of the title (e.g. IIPP,
Safety and Health
Program, Accident
PreventionProgram),
the common
goal of these approac
hes is to __________
______________? A.
Save money
B. Appease the OSH
A inspector C.
Help employers redu
ce workplace injuries
and
illnesses through a
systematic process D.
Helps
employers proactivel
y address workplace
safety and health haz
ards E. Both C and D
The basic causes of
accidents/incidents
are: A. Unsafe acts (p
ersonnel related) B.
Unsafe conditions (su
bstances and the wor
k environment) C. Ne
ither A nor B D. Both
wer) OSHA 30 Const
v. 2.0) Page 17of
277 98. In order to be
effective
corrective/preventive
actions must
have: A. Acceptance
by workers B. Accept
ance by managers C.
Actions effective in
mitigating/
controlling the hazar
d D. All of the above
Who should be held
accountable for
meeting safety and
health program
responsibilities inthe
workplace? A. Empl
oyees B. Supervisors
C. Managers D. All o
f the above (correct a
nswer) 100. Which
of the following
should be part of
an effective Safety
and Health Program
orIIPP? A. Should be
in writing B. Should
identify the responsib
le person(s) for
implementing the pro
gram C. Should be re
viewed periodically a
nd updated D. All of
the above (correct an
swer) 101. Superviso
rs should receive
specific training to
________________.
A.
Familiarize themselv
es with the hazards in
their areas of
responsibility B. Kno
w the hazards his / he
r workers are expose
d to C. Know the co
mplete set of OSHA r
egulations D. Both A
and B (correct answe
r) 102. Three major
components of
a Personal Fall Arrest
System (PFAS)
include; anchor
andthe
anchorage connector;
full body harness; an
d: A. Optional body
belt B.
Connecting device (l
anyard with shock ab
sorber/retractable life
line, snap hooks)
(correct
answer) C. Anti-jerk
cord D. Any of the ab
ove 103. Every
supported scaffold
and its components
must support,
without failure, its
ownweight and at
least _______ the int
ended load. A. 2 time
s B. 3 times C. 4 time
s D. 6 times OSHA 3
8of 277 104.
Examples of fall
hazards that
have resulted in
deaths on the jobsite
include: A. Falls to th
e ground or lower lev
els B. Falls through e
xisting floor or roof o
penings C. Falls thro
ugh the floor or roof
surface D. Falls on th
e same level E. All th
er) 105.
OSHA requires fall
protection at different
heights for
construction and
general
industryhowever,
regardless
of the fall distance,
which of the followin
g is most correct?
A.
Fall protection must
be
provided when worki
ng over dangerous eq
uipment B. Fall
protection must be pr
ovided when working
over dangerous mach
inery C. Both A and
B are correct (correct
he above 106.
If there are defects
found during the
inspection of
personal fall
protection
equipment, orif the
equipment
has been used in an a
rrest, it must be: A.
Fixed on the spot
and tested
by twisting the
fabric or rope and
looking
for stress B. Turned i
n at the end of the shi
ft C. Removed imme
diately from service (
correct answer) D. N
one of the above 107.
How can YOU
prevent a fall from a
ladder? A. Choose th
e right ladder for the
job B. Tie the top
and bottom of
the ladder to fixed
points
when necessary C.
Don't carry tools
or other materials in-
hand while
climbing the
ladder D. All the abo
08. More than 33%
of fatalities in
construction are from
a combination of
falls
from: A. Slips and sli
des B. Tripping over
electrical wires and e
lectrical installations
C. Roofs (correct ans
bove 109. Preventing
fall hazards is
a critical part of the
construction planning
process. Controls
tomitigate fall
hazards include instal
ling which of the foll
owing? A. Guardrails
B. Walls C. Protectiv
e covers D. Parapets
orrect answer) OSHA
9of 277
110. Employees
must not work on
scaffold surfaces
until: A. It is
determined to have
strength
and structural integrit
y to
support intended load
s(correct
answer) B. OSHA ha
s visited the site and i
nspected the scaffold
C. The surface is co
mpletely dry D. All o
f the above 111.
From your choices
below, what would
you consider to be a
"major" fall hazard
inconstruction? A. R
oof edges and floor o
penings B. Steel erect
ion C. Improper scaff
old construction D. U
nsafe use of portable
ladders E. All the abo
12. OSHA requires
fall protection when
working near the
edge of a trench
or excavationthat is
_________or
more in depth. A. 4 f
eet B. 6 feet (correct
answer) C. 10 feet D.
20 feet E. None of th
e above. 113.
Climbing on
the cross braces of
scaffolds is
allowed: A. During t
he assembly of the sc
affold B. When
conditions are dry
and the
climbing can be done
safely C. Never (corr
ect answer) D. When
authorized by the sup
ervisor 114.
Horizontal lifelines
shall be designed,
installed, and used
under the supervision
of a
_______ as part of
a complete personal f
all arrest system, whi
ch maintains a
safety factor of at
least two. A. Register
ed Engineer B. OSH
A expert C. Qualified
Person (correct answ
er) D. Any of the abo
ve OSHA 30 Constru
2.0) Page 20of
277 115. When
using scaffolds, make
sure there is which of
the following? A. Saf
e and compliant acce
ss and egress B. Full
planking C. Stable fo
oting D. Guard railin
g E. All of the above
D-rings and snap-
hooks must have a
minimum tensile
strength
of: A. 500 pounds B.
1500 pounds C. 5,00
0 pounds (correct ans
wer) D. 25,000 poun
ds 117. Lock Out /
Tag Out refers to
_______. A.
A process for
locking tools and equ
ipment to
deter theft B.
A process that elimin
ates the chance of
unauthorized access t
o critical areas C. A
process that is
designed to protect
workers by
controlling hazardous
energies
(correctanswer) 118.
For effective Lock
Out / Tag Out
to occur, at a
minimum, all energy
sources must
beisolated in the
off position, zero en
ergy verified, and eac
h worker must apply
his/her individual loc
k on thelocking
device
and keep the key wit
h ___________.
A. Their Supervisor
B. Their Foreman C.
Their Safety represen
tative D. Himself/
herself (correct answ
er) 119. The term
electrocution
means? A. Injury by
electricity B. A sever
e electrical shock that
requires hospitalizati
on C. Death caused b
y exposure to electric
ity (correct answer)
D. None of the above
120. The three
most common types
of GFCIs used today
are: A. Circuit Break
er, Circuit Fixer, Circ
uit Finder B. Recept
acle, Power Unit, Fus
es C. Receptacle, Por
table, Circuit Breaker
(correct answer) D.
Wet, Dry, Damp OS
HA 30 Construction
age 21 of 277 121.
Fuses and circuit
breakers are intended
primarily for
the: A. Protection of
conductors and equip
ment (correct answer
) B. Prevention of ele
ctric shock C. Protec
tion of the public 122
. Underground
electrical hazards are
_______. A. Easy to i
dentify B. Hard to
find & pose a
serious risk
to laborers &
equipment operators
(correct
answer) C. Always m
arked exactly where t
hey are located D. Al
ways buried in red co
ncrete 123. GFCI is
an acronym that
stands for
____? A. Good For C
ircuit Installations B.
Grand Fuse Circuitry
Impulse C. Ground F
ault Circuit Interrupte
r (correct answer)
interruptions!
Start Free Trial
Cancel Anytime.
124. Flexible cords

must not _______. A.
Be run through holes
in walls, ceilings, or f
loors B. Be run throu
gh doorways, windo
ws, or similar openin
gs C. Be left unprote
cted in traffic ways D
. Be hidden in walls,
ceilings, floors, cond
uit or other raceways
E. All the above (corr
ect answer) 125.
Some examples of
the most common
causes of
electrocution
include: A.
Contact with undergr
ound and above grou
nd energized power li
nes. B. Failure
to properly Lock Out
and & Tag
Out energized power
sources. C. Failure
to use a Ground Fault
Circuit Interrupter (G
FCI) in wet
conditions. D.
Failure to maintain a
safe
distance from energiz
ed power sources. E.
All the above (correct
answer) 126.
A properly installed
and used standard
GFCI receptacle can
prevent
_____. A. Partial Ele
ctrocution B. Electric
al Shock (correct ans
wer) C. Circuit overl
oad OSHA 30 Constr
uction Final Exam (v.
2.0) Page 22 of277 1
27. Hazards are
created when flexible
(extension)
cords, cord
connectors,
receptacles, andcord
and
plug connected equip
ment are: A. Imprope
rly used and maintain
ed. (correct answer)
B. Made in foreign c
ountries. C. Rolled in
to a retractable syste
m. 128.
For protection from
electrical hazards and
arc flash, always
use the proper
rubberinsulating
gloves
and ensure they are cl
assified by ________
__: A. The size and s
hape of the glove
B. The particular kin

d of rubber material u
sed C. The level of
voltage and protectio
n they provide (corre
ct answer) D. The we
ather conditions 129.
Electrical burns
occur principally
because
of: A. The high energ
y of electrons B. Rad
iation pulses of the el
ectricity C. The heat
generated by the flow
of electrical current t
hrough the body
The sudden release of
electrical energy
through the air when
a high-voltage gap
existsand there is
a breakdown between
conductors is referred
to as an __________
_____. A. Arc Burst
B. Energized Air Bla
st C. Arc Flash (corre
ct answer) D. Energiz
ed Air Flash 131.
The best type of
ladder to use
when working
around any electrical
systems
is ________? A. A la
dder made of conduct
ive material B. A
ladder made from no
n-conductive material
(correct answer) C. A
ny ladder, just be car
eful not to get shocke
d 132. When
the injury is created
more as a result
of crushing between
objects, the
eventshould be
recorded
as ___________. A.
Caught (correct answ
er) B. Draught C. Str
uck D. Rolling OSH
e 23of 277 133.
Employers must
ensure exposed
moving parts
of power tools, such
as belts, gears,
shafts, and
pulleys: A. Have sign
s B. Are guarded (cor
rect answer) C. Are l
ubricated D. Workin
g 134. The majority
of the incidents
involving contact
with running
equipment and
machineryare due
to: A. Mechanical fai
lure B. Lack of OSH
A inspections C. Ung
uarded equipment (co
rrect answer) 135.
What major hazard
includes incidents
where a person
or part of a person
was injured by being
squeezed, crushed, pi
nched or
compressed between
two or
more objects, or
between parts of
anobject? A. Struck b
y hazards B. Caught i
n or between hazards
(correct answer) C. S
truck by falling objec
t 136. Although
mechanical failures
do occur, most
accidents while
working on
withmachinery can
be attributed
to: A. Bad luck B.
Failure to
properly lock and tag
out equipment (corre
ct answer) C. Bad sta
rt switch D. None the
above 137. Trench
protective systems
include which of the
following: A. Curling
, beaching, drilling B.
Sloping, Benching, S
horing, Trench box (c
orrect answer) C. Dir
t jacks and whalers D
. All of the above 138
. Improper gloves,
loose fitting clothing,
jackets, belts,
jewelry, hair,
or safety
equipmentsuch as fall
protection lanyards, c
an lead to horrible in
cidents if:
A. Worn improperly
B. Caught in moving
parts (correct answer)
C. Not kept clean OS
HA 30 Construction
age 24 of277 139.
Amputations can be
caused by allowing
your hands or limbs
to be caught in or
between: A. Operatin
g equipment B. Obje
cts C. Materials D. A
ll of the above. (corre
ct answer) 140.
Employers are
required to do which
of the following: A.
Provide protection fo
r workers during tren
ching and excavation
work. B.
Provide means to avo
id the collapse of
structures and scaffol
ds. C. Provide effecti
ve safety training for
workers. D. All of th
er) 141. Protect
yourself when
working
in excavations by
_____________. A.
Not working in
an unprotected trench
that is 5 feet or
more deep B.
Only entering a
trench or excavation
using a ladder, stairs
or properly designed
ramp. C. Never work
ing outside the confin
es of the protection s
ystem D. All the abo
42. Working between
the frame and dump
box of a dump truck
is an example of
exposureto
a: A. Struck by hazar
d B. Caught in or bet
ween hazard (correct
answer) C. Caught of
f guard hazard 143.
What actions and/or
safety equipment can
protect equipment
operators
from beingthrown
from
their equipment and
crushed during a tip o
ver?
A. Rollover Protecti
ve Structures (ROPS)
B. Using approved se
at belts C. Keeping al
l body parts within th
e protected cab area
orrect answer) 144.
To protect yourself
from being pinned
between equipment,
materials, or other
objects,you
should: A. Be aware
at all times of the
equipment around
you and stay a
safe distance from
it. B. Never get
between moving mat
erials and
a structure, vehicle, o
r stacked
materials. C. Stay
out of the swing radi
us of
cranes and other equi
pment D. All are effe
ctive protective meas
ures (correct answer)
OSHA 30 Constructi
) Page 25 of277 145.
What can be done to
prevent caught
between accidents
involving
equipment? A. Shut d
own equipment befor
e doing repairs or ins
pections B. Chock th
e wheels on any equi
pment that can roll C.
Never work under
equipment supported
only by a
hydraulic or
mechanical jack D.
All of the above (corr
ect answer) 146.
Competent person
must be designated
by the employer
for: A. Scaffold erect
ion B. Inspections of
excavations, adjacent
areas, & protective sy
stems C.
Engineering survey b
efore demolition &
continuing inspection
s during demolition
D. All the Above (co
rrect answer) 147.
To prevent a load
from slipping, all
loads raised
by cranes and other
hoisting devicesmust
_______. A.
Be rigged properly w
ith appropriate riggin
g (correct answer) B.
Be less than 5 tons C.
Be wrapped in nettin
g D.
Be weighted toward t
he bottom
so gravity will
prevent swinging
motion
148. The following
are examples
of struck-by hazards.
Which one is an
example of a
struck- by flying
object hazard? A.
Hit by a nail from a n
ail gun (correct answ
er) B. Hit by a load d
ropped from a crane
C. Run over by a veh
icle in a roadway wor
k zone 149. One way
to minimize crane
related struck-by
hazards is to: A. De-
rate all cranes by 25
% B. Ensure
crane operators are q
ualified or
certified (correct ans
wer) C. None of the a
bove D. Both A and
B 150. Common
safety measures that
can help you avoid
being involved in a
struck
by incidentare: A.
Do not exceed a
vehicle's rated load o
r lift capacity. B.
Do not
carry personnel unles
s there is a safe place
to ride with a seat
belt. C. Make sure
that all personnel
are in the clear before
using dumping or
lifting
device D. All of the a
bove (correct answer)
OSHA 30 Constructi
) Page 26of
277 151. Flying
object hazards are
especially dangerous
when using powder-
actuated
tools because: A.
The force behind the
fastener is low and
can fool you B.
The force behind
the fastener is
high and could go
through a worker
(correct
answer) C. The force
behind the fastener d
oesn't matter 152.
Falling objects have
the potential to cause
extreme injuries and
may A. Crush a work
er. B. Pin a worker (e
.g. to the ground). C.
All the above (correct
answer)
153. Safe
work practices to
avoid being struck by
heavy equipment
include which of
thefollowing A.
Staying away from h
eavy equipment whe
n it is operating. B.
Staying clear
of lifted loads and
never
working under a
suspended
load. C. Running qui
ckly to stay out of the
way D. Both A & B (
correct answer) 154.
To safely transport
cargo, you should use
________ to prevent
the load from
shifting,slipping,
rolling
or falling. A. Militar
y grade HD32C Twin
e B. Straps, chains, w
ebbing or wire rope (
correct answer) C. D
uct tape D. Both A &
C 155. Employers are
required to protect
employees from
struck-by hazards by
_________. A. Houn
ding them about the h
azards B. Providing
hazard awareness
training and
effective equipment s
pecific training (corre
ctanswer) C. Ensurin
g adequate breaks to
rest up D. All the abo
ve 156. Struck-by
injuries are produced
by forcible contact or
impact between the
injured person
and: A. An object B.
A piece of equipment
C. Either A or B (cor
rect answer) D. None
of the above OSHA 3
7 of277 157. Of all
the struck-by
incidents, being
_________ results in
the most severe and
disablinginjuries and
accounts for the high
est number of fataliti
es.
A. Struck by equipm
ent (correct answer)
B. Struck by nails C.
Struck by falling obje
cts D. Struck by flyin
g objects 158. As a
load is mechanically
lifted, the
materials A.
May strike workers if
the load swings, twist
s, or turns
(correct answer) B.
Will not be
affected by windy
conditions or bad
weather C.
Can weigh any
amount without
causing
a problem with the
equipment D. All the
above 159. Potential
struck-by hazards
include: A. Improper
rigging and rigging f
ailures (correct answ
er) B. Working on de
pressurized systems
C. Not wearing glove
s when handling shee
t metal D. All of the
above 160. A struck-
by hazard can be
described as any time
a worker
__________. A.
Falls from a height of
greater than 10 feet B
. Is hit by
a falling, swinging, fl
ying, or rolling object
(correct answer) C.
Can get any part of
his/her
body caught in
or between objects 1
61. The definition of
a Struck-by hazard
is: A.
An incident when the
impact alone
creates an injury
(correct answer) B.
When an injury is
a result of
the crushing force bet
ween two
objects. C. Both A &
B D. A fall
from elevation where
an employee is
killed by impact
with the ground 162.
How can eye injuries
be
prevented? A. Alway
s wear effective eye p
rotection. B. Eye wea
r must be appropriate
for the hazard encoun
tered C. Eyewear mu
st be properly fitted.
D.
Better training and ed
ucation can assure pr
oper use by
employees E. All of t
wer)
OSHA 30 Constructi
) Page 28 of277 163.
Regarding Hard Hats
and Safety Helmets,
which statement (s)
below are true: A.
Clean outer shell
in hot water,
scrub and rinse in
clear warm water;
inspect. B. Do not
store helmets in
direct sunlight and
extreme heat (rear
deck of an auto). C.
Helmets should be
stored in a clean and
dry location away
from heat,
etc. D. All are true (c
orrect answer) 164.
According to
the BLS survey, most
of the workers in
selected occupations
who sufferedfoot
injuries
were affected by the f
act that: A. They wer
e not wearing safety f
ootwear (correct ans
wer) B. OSHA does
not require safety foo
twear in construction
applications C.
Most of
their employers requi
red them to wear safe
ty shoes D. None of t
he above 165.
OSHA requires
approved head
protection. Currently
OSHA regulations
reference
asCompliance ANSI
Z-89.2- 1971 standar
d. A. Class A, B and
C (correct answer) B.
Class G, H and L C.
Type S, T and Y D.
6. Which statement
below is true
regarding eye
wash stations be
provided on a job
site? A.
OSHA has no
requirement for
eyewashes on
construction job
sites B.
Emergency eyewash
or
shower facilities mus
t meet ANSI
requirements. (correc
tanswer) C.
Emergency eye wash
and shower stations
must
be reachable within 1
0 minutes. D.
There should
be enough cold water
to
flush exposed surface
s for
45 minutes. 167. Res
piratory Protection is
required for
employees exposed
to hazardous
materials abovethe
permissible exposure
limit for particular ha
zardous materials and
engineering controls
cannot
effectively control
hazards. What are the
two general types of r
espirators? A. Air ex
pelling and Air dema
nding B. Cool lamina
r flow and pressure d
emand laminar flow
C. Air purifying and
Atmosphere supplyin
g (correct answer) D.
PAPR and UAPR 16
8. To protect eyes
and face against
flying particles,
metal sparks or
chemical
/biologicalsplashes
employees must wear
a ______in addition t
o safety glasses or ch
emical goggles? A. F
ace Shield (correct an
swer) B. Balaclava C
. Respirator D. Scarf
OSHA 30 Constructi
) Page 29of 277 169.
Before doing
work requiring use of
personal protective
equipment,
employees must
betrained to know: A.
When and what type
personal protective e
quipment is necessar
y B. What it is made
of C. What
its limitations are,
and
proper care, maintena
nce, useful life, and
disposal D. A and C
only (correct answer)
E. None of the above
170. What do we
know about the
inspection of hard
hat components, the
shell,
suspension,headband,
sweatband, and any a
ccessories? A.
They should
be visually
inspected daily
to include signs
of dents, cracks,
etc. (correctanswer)
B. If damage is
observed or
suspected, helmets sh
ould be patched C. A
ll of the above
171. What
contributes to eye
injuries
at work? A. Not wear
ing eye protection. B.
Wearing the wrong k
ind of eye protection
C. Stupidity/
Ignorance D. All of t
he above E. A & B o
nly (correct answer)
172. The first step in
a PPE program
is: A. Hazard Assess
ment (correct answer
) B. Hazard awarenes
s training C. Fitting a
nd maintenance D. Cl
eaning and serviceabi
lity 173. Regarding
Personal Protective
Equipment, which
statement (s)
is correct? A. PPE is
often referred to
as the 3rd line
of defense or the last
line of
defense (correctansw
er) B.
PPE can be used as
a substitute for engin
eering controls C.
PPE should never
be used
in conjunction with
engineering or
work practice control
s D. All of the above
174. Head injuries
are caused by falling
or flying objects, or
by bumping the
head against afixed
object. Hard
hats must do two thin
gs A. Resist
penetration and absor
b the shock of
a blow (correct answ
er) B. Look good and
remain clean C. Cont
rol environmental ex
posures from weather
and heat D. Have an
ANSI sticker and an
expiration date OSH
e 30 of277 175. Rega
rding hand protection
employers should: A.
Determine
duration, frequency,
degree of exposure
to hazards and
physical stress. B.
Know glove capabilit
y VS hazard
anticipated (exposure
to chemicals, heat,
or flames).
C. Before buying,
check
manufacturer data tha
t gloves
meet appropriate stan
dards. D. All of the a
176. High Visibility
Clothing is now
required when
working in traffic
zones and
aroundheavy
equipment. There
are 3 classes of
clothing, class 1,
2 and 3. Please
identify the correct st
atement belowregardi
ng high
visibility clothing. A.
Class 1 clothing
provides the highest
level of visibility for
employees B. Class
2 clothing must be
worn
in school zones and
at night C. Class 3
clothing
for inclement weathe
r and heavy
traffic conditions. (co
rrect answer) D. All
of the above 177. Inf
ormation and
Training topics for
the Hazard
Communication
training should
includewhich of the
following? A.
Methods and
observations
to detect the presence
or release of
a hazardous chemical
. B. Basics
of physical and
health hazards of
common
hazardous chemical c
lasses C.
Measures employees
can take to protect th
emselves from hazar
ds D.
Details of the employ
ers effective Hazard
Communication Prog
ram E. All of the abo
78. In most cases, the
responsibility for
hazardous chemical
evaluation belongs to
which ofthe
following? A. The ch
emical manufacturer
(correct answer) B. T
he chemical supplier
C. The employer D.
The employee 179.
From the list below,
what would be
considered a
PHYSICAL HAZAR
D
classification? A. Ac
ute toxin B. Skin corr
osive, irritant C.
Have the potential to
cause serious eye da
mage/eye irritation D
. Flammable (correct
answer) E. Respirator
y or skin sensitizer 1
80. What do we
know about GHS?
A. It is a regulation
passed by OSHA B. I
t is an old standard re
vived by OSHA C.
It is
a system adopted by
OSHA under
Hazard Communicati
on (correct
answer) OSHA 30 C
m (v. 2.0) Page 31 of
277 181. What do we
know about the
Hazard
Communication
Standard label
requirements? A.
There is
no standard format, j
ust required elements
(correct answer) B. T
here are 19 required e
lements C. There are
only 3 required elem
ents 182. Labels
under Hazard
Communication: A.
Are the same as alwa
ys. B. Are standardiz
ed and harmonized (c
orrect answer) C. Are
the same for all secto
rs/target audiences. D
. Will change signific
antly in 2017. 183.
Developing a
hazardous chemical
inventory at the
worksite is generally
theresponsibility
of: A. The chemical
manufacturer B. The
chemical supplier C.
The employer (correc
t answer) D. The emp
loyee 184. The
nine pictograms
under the HCS
labeling requirements
include those for
whichhazards? A. Ex
plosives, carcinogens
, irritants, flammable
s and gas cylinders B
. Weasels, spiders an
d snakes C. Oxidizers
, toxicity, environme
ntal toxicity, corrosiv
es D. All of the abov
e E. A and C only (co
rrect answer) 185.
Training and
information includes
training employees
on which of the
following?
A. Details of the em
ployers Hazard Com
munication Program
B. Address and
phone
number of the local
OSHA and EPA
offices C. Estimated
cost of the hazardous
chemical D. Where t
o find PPE requireme
nts on an SDS E. Bot
h A and D (correct an
swer) 186. Which
of the following
would be considered
an engineering
control? A.
Facility, equipment,
or process designed t
o remove the hazard.
B. A
hazard enclosed to pr
event exposure in nor
mal operations. C.
Local ventilation to
reduce exposure
to the hazard in
normal
operations. D. All of
swer) E. A and C onl
y OSHA 30 Construc
tion Final Exam (v. 2
.0) Page 32 of277 18
7. An effective
Hazard
Communication
program depends on
which of the
following? A. Credib
ility of management's
involvement B. Inclu
sion of employees in
safety and health deci
sions C.
Rigorous worksite an
alysis to
identify hazards and
potential hazards D.
Stringent prevention
and control measures
and training E. All of
swer) 188. Training
and information
following: A. Use of
audiovisuals and inte
ractive video B. Use
of classroom instructi
on C. Opportunity for
employees to ask que
stions to ensure unde
rstanding D. All of th
er) E. A and C only 1
89. A chemical
manufacturer or
importer for
chemicals is required
to classify
chemicals.What
about
employers? A. Yes B
. No, if they choose
to rely on the
manufacturer or
importer
classification (correct
answer)
190. Under
HAZCOM who is
responsible for
classifying chemicals
manufactured
ordistributed? A. Em
ployers who purchase
them B. Employees
who use them C. Che
mical manufacturers
and importers (correc
t answer) 191. Under
OSHA's HCS, there
are four fundamental
employer
responsibilities.
Which ofthese is
included? A.
Identify and list haza
rdous chemicals in th
eir workplaces. B.
Prepare labels
for containers and
more
detailed technical bul
letins called SDSs. C.
Develop and implem
ent a written hazard c
ommunication progra
m. D. All of the abov
e. E. A and C only (c
orrect answer) 192.
Which is not a
Hazard
Communication label
element? A. Product
name or identifier. B.
Color of the product (
correct answer) C. Si
gnal Word. D. Name
and address of user o
rganization OSHA 30
of277 193. Which
of the following is
not an element of
a Hazard
Communication
Program? A. Chemic
al Inventory of hazar
dous chemicals B. W
ritten Plan C.
Steps to take in
the event of
an earthquake or
flooding
(correct answer) D. L
abels and Safety Data
Sheets-SDSs E. Infor
mation and Training
194. Chemicals that
are explosive;
flammable; self-
reactive; pyrophoric
are classified interms
of the HCS as
a: A. Toxic Substanc
e
B. Physical Hazard (
correct answer) C. Su
bstantially Dangerou
s Hazard D. Public H
ealth Hazard 195.
All HCS changes to
Hazard
Communication
programs must be
implemented
by: A. 6/1/2012. B. 6
/1/2013. C. 6/1/2015.
D. 6/1/2016 (correct
answer) 196. The
safety data sheet
provides detailed
information above
and beyond the label
so thatthe user can
be informed about: A
. The many characteri
stics of the chemical.
B. What must be
done to safely use or
apply
the chemical. C. Whe
re to obtain the chemi
cal at the lowest price
. D. A and B (correct
answer) E. None of t
he above. 197. Under
HCS, signal words
on labels
include: A. Danger,
Warning & Caution
B. Danger and Cautio
n C. Danger and War
ning (correct answer)
D. Warning and Caut
ion 198. Under
HCS, Pictograms for
containers: A. Are th
e same for all packag
es. B. Are required to
be on container label
s (correct answer) C.
Are required for all c
ontainers, hazardous
or non-hazardous. D.
All of the above. OS
HA 30 Construction
age 34of
277 199. Environmen
tal hazards must be
evaluated and
classified
by manufacturers
and importers
of
chemicals. However,
this is not a major iss
ue in OSHA's hcs bec
ause: A.
Most chemicals are n
ot a threat to the envi
ronment. B.
Physical and health h
azards are far more i
mportant to regulate.
C. OSHA does not re
gulate environmental
issues (correct answe
r) 200. The
completed chemical
inventory list should
be kept
where? A. At the loc
al OSHA office B. In
the warehouse C.
With the written
program so it can be
amended as new
chemicals are
purchased
(correctanswer) D. Al
l of the above 201.
Under Hazard
Communication
(HCS), employees
have a right to
know: A.
The identities, hazard
s and
protective measures o
f chemicals they are
exposed
to B. The names of al
l local OSHA official
s C. That all workers
in all sectors
are covered by
OSHA's Hazard
Communication Stan
dard D. All of the ab
ove E. A and C only
The SDS under the
revised
HCS: A. Is exactly th
e same as OSHA's cu
rrent MSDS. B. Vari
es significantly and
will require updates.
(correct answer) C. Is
not intended to replac
e the MSDS. D. All o
f the above. 203.
Revisions
OSHA's HCS
incorporating GHC
guidelines is intended
to: A. Establish a
foundation
of programs to
ensure the safe use
of chemicals. (correct
answer) B. Support s
upervision. C. Create
more citations by OS
H D. Guarantee the h
iring of more H&S p
ersonnel. 204. Which
of the following is
considered an
element of OSHA's
HCS and should be
anelement of an
employer's written H
azard Communicatio
n Program?
A.
Hazard Recognition/c
ontrol, Hazard Analy
sis, SDSs
and Container Storag
e B.
Hazard Recognition/c
ontrol, Signs and Sig
nals, SDSs and
Information and Trai
ning C.
Hazardous Chemical
Inventory, Labeling
Containers, SDSs
and Information and
Training (correct
he above OSHA 30 C
m (v. 2.0) Page 35 of
277 205. Chemical
spill, equipment
failure, rupture of
containers, or failure
of control
equipmentwould be
considered which of t
he following? A. A "
Poor Event" B. Fores
eeable Emergency (c
orrect answer) C. Lev
el 1 Risk Event D. Im
mediate OSHA Repo
rtable Event 206.
What is important for
the employee to
know or to
be familiar with
about
HazardCommunicati
on? A. Understandin
g of Safety Data Shee
ts B. Understanding o
f label, signage and
warning requirements
C. How to respond
to a
hazardous chemical i
ncident (fire, leak,
rupture or spill) D.
Knowing how to acq
uire SDSs
of the product being
used E. All of the abo
07. When conducting
a chemical inventory,
the employer should
do which
of thefollowing? A.
Walk around the offi
ce, yard and project s
ites B. Record the pr
oduct names of all ch
emicals C.
Record the chemical
manufacturers'
names,
addresses and telepho
ne numbers D.
Identify estimated val
ue and quantity of the
hazardous chemicals
E. A, B and C (correc
t answer) 208.
Section 1 of the SDS
is focused on: A.
Identification of
the substance or
mixture and
of the supplier. (corre
ct answer)
B. The PEL/TLV li
mits. C. Whether or n
ot the substance is fla
mmable. D. First aid
measures in case of e
xposure. 209.
"Hazardous
chemical" means any
chemical which is
classified as a
physical hazard or
ahealth hazard
and which of the foll
owing: A.
A simple asphyxiant,
a combustible dust,
a pyrophoric gas
(correct answer) B. A
fall hazard or a caugh
t between hazard C.
An electrocution haz
ard D. All of the abo
ve 210. Which of the
following are true
about unprotected
sides and edges? A.
They are areas
where there is no
stair rail system
or wall 36 inches or
more in height B.
They are
not considered unprot
ected unless over ten
feet above the
adjacent surface. C.
They could be the
edge of a stairway
landing without
a wall
or guardrail system.
D. Both A and (corre
ct answer) OSHA 30
of277 211. Stairways
with ____ or more
risers shall be
equipped with
at least one handrail
and onestair rail
system on
all unprotected sides.
The handrail will
be installed at
a height of 30 to
37 inches measuredfr
om the tread to
top of the handrail. A
. 4 (correct answer) B
. 5 C. 6 D. 8 212. Job
made ladders: A.
May be built in a
manner acceptable to
a supervisor on
site B. Must be built
to a specific ANSI
standard
using quality material
s (correct answer)
C. May never be
used on any
construction site
when
manufactured ladders
are present 213.
Always inspect
a ladder before use.
What do you
look for? A. No more
than two bent rungs
B. Only limited amou
nts oil, grease, and ot
her slipping hazards
C. Are warning stick
ers clearly affixed? (c
orrect answer) D. All
of the above 214.
A ladder with the
following rating
should NOT be used
on the construction
site? A. Type IAA B.
Type IA C. Type II D
. Type III (correct an
swer) 215. Which
of the following
statements about
ladders is
true? A. Ladders are
complicated and diffi
cult to use. B.
Falls from ladders
are one of the leading
causes of work place
fatalities.
(correctanswer) C.
Ladder
use depends on
common sense;
no instructions are
provided by
manufacturers. 216.
Which of the
following are
common safety
devices for fixed
ladders over 24 feet
inheight? A. Cages,
wells,
landing platforms, sel
f-retracting life lines
(correct answer) B.
High visibility paint,
black & yellow
tape on
rungs, warning tape,
signs C. Slip-
resistant coatings on
side rails, access
gates,
self closing limit swit
ches D. All of the ab
ove OSHA 30 Constr
2.0) Page 37 of277 2
17. What are the four
common ladder
types? A. Straight, ex
tension, step, fixed (c
orrect answer) B. Co
mmercial, industrial,
household, hobbyist
C. Light duty, mid-
range, heavy duty, st
ep ladder
D. Short, long, medi
um, extra long E. Fix
ed, portable, industria
l, household 218.
Regarding ladders
which statements are
true? A. Inspect the l
adder for damage and
defects. B. Do not us
e a damaged ladder.
C.
Remove damaged eq
uipment from
the work area, and do
not leave it for your
co-worker D.
All warning stickers
should be
clearly affixed to
the ladder. E. All of t
wer) 219. Which
of the following
statements is
true? A. Wood ladder
s may be painted. B.
Aluminum ladders ar
e appropriate for wor
king around electricit
y C. Fiberglass
ladders
are susceptible to
damage by heat
or corrosives (correct
answer) D. Straight
ladders
are manufactured
to support 6 times
the maximum intende
d load 220. Pan stairs
are commonly used
in multi-story
building
construction. Until
the pans arefilled
with
finished concrete the
y present tripping haz
ards. Which of the
following must be do
ne to controlslipping
and
tripping hazards? A.
Fill the pans with stra
w bales B. The pans
and platforms must
be filled with
wood or other solid
material (correctansw
er) C. Delay
installing Stair rails b
ecause they will be in
the way D. All of the
above 221. Which
of the following is a
common ladder
material? A. Wood B
. Aluminum C. Fiber
glass D. All of the ab
OSHA 30 Constructi
) Page 38 of277
222. Temporary
stairs built on
construction sites
must be uniform in
run and rise
and mustalso be: A.
Installed at an angle
between 30 & 50 deg
rees B. Built so riser
height and depth
variation does
not exceed 1/4
" C. Built Free of haz
ardous projections D.
ect answer) 223.
Regarding use of the
ladder which
statements are
true? A.
Face the ladder and u
se both hands when c
limbing B.
Always use the 3
points of contact
and do not carry
materials or
tools while
climbing C. Secure th
e ladder to a rigid sup
port. D. Do not exten
d your body beyond t
he rails. E. All of the
r) 224. What is the
meaning of the 4 to 1
rule for straight and
extension ladders? A.
I must bring 4
ladders on the
truck for
1 simple job B.
For every 4 feet
vertical, the base
must be 1 foot away
from the structure
(correctanswer) C.
For every 1 foot up, I
must put the base
4 feet away from the
structure D.
That OSHA is interfe
ring in my normal wo
rk activities 225.
Hoists shall
be: A. Installed in ac
cordance with approp
riate standards. B.
Be installed and
dismantled under the
direct supervision of
a qualified individual
. C.
Operated and maintai
ned in compliance wi
th manufacturers spe
cifications. D. All of
the above. (correct an
swer) 226. There are
many types of cranes,
including: A.
Rough terrain, truck
mounted, crawler and
tower (correct answer
) B. Single operator a
nd multiple operator
C. None of the above
D. All of the above 2
27. The Operator of a
hoist may perform
other work:
A. At all times. B.
When hoisting equip
ment is not in operati
on. (correct answer)
C. Never. D. None of
the above. OSHA 30
of277 228. On board
computers on
cranes: A.
Will depict boom len
gth, radius angle and
capacity B. Will displ
ay the weight of the l
oad C. Obviates the r
equirement to be trai
ned and qualified D.
Both A and B (correc
t answer) 229. Minim
um clearance
distances from power
lines
include: A. Up to 50k
V AC = 10 feet B. O
ver 50kV AC to 200
kV = 15 feet C. All o
ther voltages = 75 fee
t D. Both A and B ab
E. All of the above 2
30. General
requirements for all
cranes include which
of
the following? A. Op
erator must stay withi
n the crane's design li
mits B. Always cons
ult the manufacturer's
manual C. The manuf
acturer's
manual must be kept
on each crane D. All
answer) 231.
Maintenance on
conveyors may
occur: A. Whenever
necessary. B. At any
time. C. Once all
hazardous energies ar
e locked and tagged
out. (correct
answer) D. When dir
ected by a supervisor.
232. What is one
major risk associated
with conveyors?
A. Chemicals. B. Gu
arding. (correct answ
er) C. Wetness. D. N
one of the above. 233
. Modified
equipment,
repaired/adjusted
equipment, and post-
assembly prior
to each use,must be
completed by: A. A q
ualified person (corre
ct answer) B. A com
petent person C. The
worksite supervisor
D. All of the above O
SHA 30 Construction
age 40 of 277 234.
The requirements for
riggers include which
of these? A.
Maneuvering the loa
d safely when the ope
rator cannot see it B.
Warning workers of
overhead exposure C.
Using a spring loade
d keeper for the hook
D. All of the above (
With respect
to cranes, which of
the following is
true? A.
Each configuration fo
r a crane has a load c
hart B. The load char
t must be visible to th
e operator C. Load
charts need adjusted f
or older equipment or
poor conditions D. Al
l of the above (correc
t answer) 236.
Hoists should be
inspected: A. Daily p
rior to use. (correct a
nswer) B. At least we
ekly. C. Never. D. M
onthly 237.
To ensure stability,
cranes must:
A. Be set up on firm,
stable ground B. Utili
ze outriggers/
stabilizers using solid
pads C. Be verified f
or level set up D. All
answer) 238. Who
is responsible for the
inspection and
certification of
cranes? A. Qualified
person B. Competent
person C. Either A or
B depending on the
type of
inspection (correct an
swer) D. None of the
above 239. Before
making
modifications to
cranes: A. Approval f
rom the manufacturer
is required B. OSHA
must review and appr
ove the modification
C.
Modifications must b
e done by an
authorized mechanic
or
facility D. Modificati
ons must meet or exc
eed original strength
E. A, C and D above
(correct answer) OS
HA 30 Construction
age 41 of277 240.
The leading cause
of worker fatality
cited in the new
OSHA crane
standard
is: A. Structural failu
re B. Boom failure C.
Struck by load (corre
ct answer) D. Low fl
ying planes 241.
Workers must
be trained: A. To rec
ognize and avoid haz
ards B. In a manner (
oral/written) that they
understand C. In a la
nguage that they und
erstand D. All of the
r) 242. Surrounding
hazards during crane
operation may
include what?
A. Contact with pow
er lines B. Contact wi
th other cranes or bui
ldings C. None of the
above D. Both A and
B above (correct ans
wer) 243. Soil can
be categorized based
on its characteristics.
Examples are
cemented,
cohesive,dry,
fissured
and granular. Soil
with a high clay
content that does
not crumble, can be
excavated withvertica
l side slopes,
and is plastic when m
oist most likely descr
ibes: A. Cemented so
il B. Cohesive soil (c
orrect answer) C. Dry
soil D. Fissured soil
E. Granular soil 244.
You are excavating a
10 foot deep trench
in soil that has been
tested and classified
astype You cannot
obtain a trench
box because it is
being used
in another trench. Wh
at are your options
for protecting
yourself
and other workers? A
. Slope the soil by
going 3/4 foot wide
for each foot deep B.
Slope the soil
by going 1
foot wide for
each foot deep C.
Slope the soil by
going 1 ½ feet
wide for each foot
deep (correct
answer) D.
Use aluminum hydra
ulic shoring since it i
s only
10 feet deep 245.
Soil can be de-
stabilized
by: A. Vibration B. C
hanges in loading C.
Weather conditions
orrect answer) OSHA
2 of 277
246. Which of the
is true about trenches
and/or
excavations? A.
A trench is any cut in
the earth which is
wider than it
is deep. B. A trench i
s never wider than 15
feet. C.
An excavation is
a cavity in
the earth's surface by
cutting/digging/remo
ving earth. D.
The dangers in each
are much different an
d must
be treated differently.
E. Both B and C are
correct (correct answ
er) 247. Soils may be
classified as
type: A. A, B and C (
correct answer) B. 1,
2 and 3 C. All of the
above D. None of the
above 248. What are
the Major Types of
excavation Hazards
in
Construction? A. Un
protected edges and f
all hazards B. Improp
er sloping, benching
or shoring C. Properl
y classifying soils D.
Spoils mismanageme
nt E. A, B and D (cor
rect answer) 249.
Which of the
following are
common test
methods used for soil
classification? A. Rib
bon and Thumb Pene
tration B. Dry Strengt
h and Sedimentation
C. Wet bulb and fing
er set spread D. None
of the above E. A and
B only (correct answ
er) 250. What is the
minimum distance
allowed between a
spoils pile and
trench's
edge? A. One foot B.
Two feet (correct ans
wer) C. Three feet D.
Four feet E. It is dete
rmined by the compe
tent person. OSHA 3
3of 277
251. With regards

to soil, a competent
person must
know: A. General pro
tection requirements
B. Soil classifications
C. Protective systems
orrect answer) 252.
Which of the
following is true
about trenching? A.
37% of
all trenching incident
s occur at depths less
than 5
feet B. Most fatalities
occur in trenches 5-
15 feet deep C.
Employers
& Employees are
responsible to
ensure excavations ar
e safe before
entering D. All of the
r) 253. As soon as a
trench or excavation
reaches a depth of
_____ or more, fall
protectionmeasures
must
be implemented. A. 3
feet B. 6 feet (correct
answer) C. Fall prote
ction does not apply t
o excavations D. Non
e of the above. 254.
Lateral soil pressure
is the naturally
occurring force that
exists in the ground
that makesthe sides
of
an excavation want
to move, which leads
to cave-ins. This
lateral cave-
in pressure can
be asmuch as
____ pounds per squ
are foot in non-
cohesive or saturated
soils. A. 200 B. 500
C. 800 (correct answ
er) D. 4000 255.
A soil appears to be
Type A, is cohesive
and looks good.
What conditions
might cause it NOT
to be classified
as Type A? A. None,
if it looks like Type
A, it is
Type A B. If it is cra
cked or fissured C. If
it is subject to vibrati
on D. Both B and C a
re correct (correct ans
wer) 256. The
competent person
will classify soil
based on what kind
of
test? A. Electronic te
st and visual test B.
Visual and manual te
sts (correct answer)
C. Manual test and se
ismic test D. None of
the above OSHA 30
of 277 257. The
belief that a worker
can dig himself out
of a cave-in is: A.
Not likely true becau
se of the weight of so
il B. Probably true as
long as he is conscio
us C.
se of the soil
pressing on the
chest D.
se of dirt particles
clogging the nose,
mouth
and lungs E. All exce
pt B (correct answer)
258. Air monitoring
is required in
confined spaces,
including trenches
deeper than 4
feet, because they
present hazards such
as: A. Methane gas a
nd Flammable vapors
B. Air C. Carbon mo
noxide and various c
hemicals D. Both A a
nd C are correct (corr
ect answer) E. None o
f the above 259.
When digging
a trench, a gas line
hit can lead to an
explosion or contact
with buried
power cables can

kill. Always call your
local utility
locating service befor
e you dig, and get the
utilities marked.What
else do we know? A.
A broken water line c
an fill a trench in sec
onds. B. We must ha
nd dig to locate the li
nes safely. C. We can
dig with
a backhoe but only u
nder careful supervisi
on. D. All of the abo
ve E. A and B only (c
orrect answer) 260.
Aluminum hydraulic
shores must be
pumped to a
minimum of _______
of pressure, butmore
is
recommended. A. 300
pounds B. 750 pound
1000 pounds D. Non
e of the above 261. F
ederal regulations
require that certain
excavation activities
be designed,
inspected
orsupervised by
a competent person.
A competent person i
n excavations must h
ave certain qualificati
ons.Which of these
are included? A. Spe
cific training in soils
analysis B. Knowled
ge about protective s
ystems C.
Authority to take pro
mpt corrective measu
res to
eliminate hazards D.
ect answer) E. B and
C only OSHA 30 Co
m (v. 2.0) Page 45of
277 262. Shoring
an excavation or
trench is only
required if it
is A. 4 feet deep B. L
ess than 5 feet deep
C. More than 5 feet d
eep
D.
All of the above, if c
onditions warrant (co
rrect answer) 263.
Synthetic slings
should be inspected
by a competent
person for abnormal
wear, powdered fiber
between strands, bro
ken or cut fibers and
much more. What sh
ould also be permane
ntly affixed tothe
sling? A. Nothing, it
should be free of atta
chments B. A calibrat
ed wear indicator C.
ID tag stating size,
grade,
rated capacity and
manufacturer (correct
answer) 264. When
you can't avoid
lifting or carrying,
which of the
following should
you do? A. Break
load into smaller part
s or get
help (correct answer)
B. Carry full weight
above your shoulder
C. Keep load
extended away from t
he body to avoid foot
injuries D. Get rid of
the load as quickly as
possible 265.
Structural steel,
poles, pipe, bar stock,
and other cylindrical
materials, unless
racked,shall be: A.
Stacked and blocked
to
prevent spreading or
tilting. (correct answe
r) B. Laid only on on
e level on a firm leve
l surface C. Strapped
with banding in all ca
ses to prevent rolling
D. Stacked no higher
than average man's s
houlders 266.
Overexertion is the
#1 cause of
workplace injuries.
Overexertion is
caused by
exertingexcessive
effort
or force when: A. Dr
iving a forklift B. Ho
lding, carrying or Thr
owing C. Lifting, pus
hing or pulling D. Bo
th B and C (correct a
nswer) 267. Common
injuries resulting
from handling
materials
include: A. Fall from
elevation B. Back Inj
uries, crushing Injuri
es, cuts & lacerations
(correct answer) C. E
lectrocution D. Struc
k by motor vehicle
OSHA 30 Constructi
) Page 46of 277 268.
There are many
reasons and causes
that can result in
a back injury. One of
the mostcommon
is: A. Lifting improp
erly or too much wei
ght B. Materials plac
ed on flat concrete C.
Turning upper body
while lifting or carryi
ng D. Both A and C (
correct answer) E. N
Proper rigging
is critical for a safe
hoisting activity.
Who should inspect
loads for sharpedges
which
will require padding t
o prevent cutting of s
lings? A. The operato
r B. The superintend
ent C. The qualified r
igger (correct answer
) D. OSHA 270. As a
rule, grabs, hooks,
spreader-bars, or any
other rigging
attachments should
have alifting capacity
______ of the sling
being used. A. Equal
to or less than that B.
Equal to or greater th
an that (correct answ
er) C. Equal to one h
alf 271. The forklift
operator should
know weight of
materials to be
moved, limitations
ofequipment and
load capacity chart. T
he operator should al
so ensure that: A. He
is outdoors B. There i
s no one within 50 fe
et C. Surfaces
are level, free of
hazards,
and designed to
withstand load
When debris cannot
be handled by chutes,
the material may be
dropped into a
designated area.
What
is needed if this is do
ne? A. The drop zone
shall be enclosed wit
h barricades B.
Warning signs
shall be
posted at all debris la
nding areas C.
Warning signs
shall be posted
at each
level exposed to
falling
debris D. All of the a
273. A clean and
organized job site is a
safer jobsite. What
helps to achieve
this? A. Daily inspect
ions B. No work in ar
eas of non-
compliance C. Weekl
y clean up D. A and
er) OSHA 30 Constr
2.0) Page 47 of277 2
74. Conveyor
systems present
many hazards when
in operation.
However, when shut
downfor
maintenance,
what is especially im
portant? A. Sound a
warning for anyone a
round B. Jam a bar
in the conveyor to
keep it from moving
C. Lockout and tagou
t the system (correct
answer) 275. When
using hand trucks,
dollies, or
carts: A. Place heavy
objects on the bottom
B. Maintain clear line
of vision when movi
ng C. Securing load n
ot necessary D. Both
a & b (correct answer
) 276. When
inspecting a
wire rope sling, you
find that seven
wires in one strand
are broken.What
should you do? A.
Do not use the sling e
xcept for lifts less
than 5000 pounds B.
Use the sling but insp
ect it again after 3
cycles C. Dispose of
the sling (correct ans
wer)
277. Which of the

following are
material handling
equipment rules of
the
road? A. No riders un
less equipped with ap
proved seat B. Drive
slowly, with eyes on
the road C. Pedestria
ns always have the ri
ght-of-way! D. All of
swer) 278. Scaffold
Grade Planks
Are nominally
2''x10'' lumber
and: A. Are select lu
mber B.
Are scaffold grade
and bear
a lumber grading sta
mp (correct answer)
C. Say OSHA approv
ed D. Come brand ne
w off the lumber deli
very truck 279.
Light trade scaffolds
must be built to
support loads not
exceeding: A. 30 pou
nds per square foot B
. 75 pounds per squar
e foot C. 25 pounds p
er square foot (correc
t answer) D. 50 poun
ds per square foot OS
HA 30 Construction
age48 of 277 280.
Scaffold frames may
be used as a means
of access only if
they: A.
Are specifically desig
ned by
the manufacturer and
constructed for use
as ladder
rung(correct
answer) B. Have no l
oose parts that could
interfere with climbin
g C. Have alignment
coupling pins D. Hav
e cross braces fully in
stalled 281.
OSHA requires that
scaffold users be
trained about which
hazards: A.
Electrical exposures,
Falling object protect
ion, Fall
protection, Load
capacities (correctans
wer) B.
Rolling resistance, Sc
affold height limits,
OSHA
Regulations, soil
classification C. Engi
neering standards, ins
pections, ladders, tieb
acks
282. Makeshift
devices such
as boxes and barrels
shall not be used on
top of
scaffold platforms to
increase
the working level hei
ght of employees bec
ause: A. It shows lac
k of planning B. Ther
e is no rental charged
for these items C.
It is
unsafe and may caus
e an
accident (correct ans
wer) D. Good barrels
are hard to find 283.
Frame Scaffolds
exceeding 125 feet
shall be: A. Guyed
or braced more secur
ely than scaffolds bel
ow that height B. Des
igned by an engineer
(correct answer) C. I
nspected more freque
ntly D. Reviewed by
a qualified OSHA ins
pector before use 284
. Scaffold plates
on which feet or
jacks rest must be a
minimum
of: A. 4"x4" nominal
lumber B.
10"x10"x 1 1/8 inch
plywood or
10"x10xx2" lumber (
correct answer) C. A
ny material which lo
oks decent 285.
Scaffolds must bear
on adequate firm
foundations such
as: A. Boxes or barre
ls B. Bricks or concre
te blocks C. Base plat
es under each leg (co
rrect answer) D.
Loose
materials piled up to
reach the level of the
upright OSHA 30 Co
m (v. 2.0) Page49 of
277 286. Scaffolds
must
be erected: A. In any
fashion to get the wor
k done B.
Plumb, level, &squar
e; secure to structure
when higher than
4x narrowest basedi
mension (correct
answer) C. Under the
direction of
an OSHA inspector
qualified in scaffold
erection.
D. With the consent
and approval of all us
ers. 287. Tubular
Welded Frame
Scaffold Frames may
be installed without
feet or
jacks: A. When they
were not delivered B.
Whenever it is more
convenient to leave t
hem off C. Never (c
orrect answer) D. Wh
en the competent per
son says it's ok 288.
Frame scaffolds
which exceed 4 times
their narrowest base
dimension shall
be: A. Climbed caref
ully B. Secured to the
building or structure
(correct answer) C. C
overed to prevent ma
terials from falling of
f D. Equipped with s
tair towers instead of
ladders 289.
Guardrails or
fall arrest protection
are required on all
scaffolds: A. 6 feet or
higher B. 7 ½ feet or
higher C. 8 feet or hi
gher D. 10 feet or hi
gher (correct answer)
290. Scaffolds and
scaffold components
must be inspected for
visible defects by a
competent person A.
Before work shift
and after any
occurrence affecting
scaffold's structural i
ntegrity(correct
answer) B. At the em
ployer's discretion C.
At least every 30 day
s D. At regular interv
als 291. Scaffolds
and scaffold
components must be
inspected for visible
defects by a
competent person
before each A.
After any
occurrence which
could
affect scaffold's struc
tural integrity. (corre
ct answer) B. At the e
mployer's discretion
C. At least every 30 d
ays D. At regular inte
rvals OSHA 30 Cons
v. 2.0) Page 50
of 277 292. Scaffold
Grade Planks
are nominally 2"x10"
lumber
and: A. Are select lu
mber B.
Are scaffold grade
and bear
a lumber grading sta
mp (correct answer)
C. Say OSHA approv
ed D. Come brand ne
w off the lumber deli
very truck 293.
Scaffolds shall
be erected, moved,
dismantled or altered
only under the
supervision
anddirection
of: A. Foreman B. Gr
oup of individuals w
ho must work on the
scaffold C.
Competent person
qualified in scaffold
erection, moving,
alteration or
dismantling(correct
answer) D.
Person who has done
it at least once before
294. Prior to working
on equipment: A.
It must be locked and
tagged out (correct an
swer) B. It must be di
smantled C. All of th
e above D. None of t
he above 295. Precast
concrete wall units,
structural framing,
and tilt-up wall
panels: A.
Must be supported un
til permanent connect
ions are completed (c
orrect answer) B. Do
not require support C
. All of the above D.
6. When cutting
cement and
concrete: A. Always
use dry methods for c
utting B. Always use
wet methods for cutti
ng C. If working dry
wear a respirator wit
h a HEPA cartridge
D. All of the above E
. Both b and c above
(correct answer)
297. Reinforcing
steel (i.e. rebar)
protruding from
concrete: A.
Must be guarded whe
n employees can fall
on them (correct ans
wer) B. Must be pain
ted yellow C. Must b
e approved by a Supe
rvisor D. All of the a
bove OSHA 30 Cons
v. 2.0) Page 51 of 27
7 298. Employees
may ride on concrete
buckets: A. Only whe
n authorized B. At an
y time C. Never (corr
ect answer) D. None
of the above 299. Wh
en using concrete
pumping
equipment: A.
Discharge pipes must
have pipe supports fo
r 100% overload B.
Discharge pipes must
be 6" in diameter C.
Compressed air hoses
must have fail-safe jo
int connectors D. Bot
h a and c above (corr
ect answer) E. None
of the above 300.
Cement dust,
especially when wet
and trapped inside
clothing can cause
burns due
to: A. The presence o
f granite B. The prese
nce of lime (correct a
nswer) C. The presen
ce of oil D. None of t
he above 301. Allergi
es/sensitization to
cement: A.
Can occur in some
workers over a
period
of time (correct answ
er) B. Never occur C
. Always occur D. N
one of above
the
302. Bulk cement
storage: A. Must be i
n conical or tapered b
ottom vessels B. Mus
t have mechanical or
pneumatic means of s
tarting flow C. Both
a and b above (correc
t answer) D. None of
the above 303.
Employees may work
under concrete
buckets that are being
raised
or lowered: A. When
ever necessary B. Wh
en properly trained C
. When authorized D.
None of the above (c
orrect answer) OSHA
2 of277 304.
Unrolled wire mesh
can recoil presenting
hazards to workers in
the area. What
measurescan be taken
to prevent the unrolle
d wire from recoiling
? A. Do not use dama
ged shoring equipme
nt B. Secure each end
of the roll C. Turn
the roll over
so that the recoiling e
nds turn down D. Eit
her B or C (correct a
nswer) E. None of th
e above. 305.
Breathing cement
dust can
cause: A. Chronic br
onchitis B. Silicosis f
rom crystalline silica
or quartz C. Laryngiti
s D. All of the above
E. Both a and b abov
e (correct answer) 30
6. To protect yourself
from concrete and
masonry health
hazards: A. Read all l
abels B. Read MSDS
s
C. Wear appropriate
PPE D. All of the abo
07. Powered concrete
troweling machines
that are manually
guided: A. Must be o
perated only on 120 v
olt electricity B. Mus
t operate on pneumati
cs C.
Must be equipped wit
h a "dead-
man" control switch (
correct answer) D. Al
l of the above E. Non
e of the above 308. C
ement may contain
hazardous substances
including: A. Silica B
. Lime C. Nickel, cob
alt and or chromium
compounds D. Any o
r all of the above (cor
rect answer) OSHA 3
3 of277 309.
Regarding all hand
and power tools, the
employer
must: A. Ensure that
tools are inspected be
fore use B. Ensure th
at proper PPE (Perso
nal Protective Equip
ment) is used C.
Ensure
that guards are in
place and in good rep
air D. Ensure that
employees are
trained in the proper
use and
safe handling techniq
ues E. All of the abov
0. If you wear gloves
when you use a hand
tool, you may
need: A. Glove clean
ers B. A thicker hand
le (correct answer) C.
A thinner handle D.
No handle 311.
Regarding hand tools
which of the
is true? A.
The employer is
responsible for
inspection and
maintenance of
all tools (correct
answer) B.
Employees have limit
ed personal responsib
ility for all tools they
use C. If a tool crib
is used on the
site, the employee
accepts
responsibility for
tools 312. Regarding
hand tool inspections
which statement is
true? A. Daily
inspection not
needed, but
periodic inspections s
atisfy OSHA/compan
yrequirements B.
Damaged hand tools
may be
reissued if damage is
considered minor C.
If a hand tool
is damaged or
defective, keep it
in your tool kit,
you may need it D.
Tools must
be immediately
repaired or
made unusable or
be disposed of.
(correctanswer) 313.
What is true about
Safeguards? A. The S
afeguard must be Sec
ure and tamper-
resistant B. Guards
and
safety devices should
be made of
durable material C. S
afeguards should Cre
ate no new hazards or
interference D. All of
swer) 314. Regarding
Powder Actuated
Tools the three basic
PPE requirements for
operation
are: A. Gloves, high
visibility vests, safety
glasses B. Respirator
s, chemical splash go
ggles, hearing protect
ion C. Ear, eye and fa
ce protection (correct
answer) D. Steel-toed
boots, fall protection,
hearing protection O
SHA 30 Construction
age 54 of277 315.
Regarding airless
spray guns A.
They atomize paints
and fluids
at pressures of 1,000
pounds or more per
square inch B.
Must have safety
devices to prevent
trigger from being
pulled until the safety
released C.
Pneumatic tools
require eye
protection (head, hear
ing, face protection r
ecommended) D. All
answer) 316. Electric
tools must have
a three-wire cord
with ground, and be
plugged into
a groundedreceptacle
, OR:
A. Be double insulat
ed B. Be powered by
a low-voltage isolatio
n transformer C. Be
run on direct current
D. A or B (correct an
swer) E. None of the
above 317.
To provide adequate
protection, PPE
selected must always
be: A. Hazard-
specific B. Maintaine
d in good condition C
.
Properly stored when
not in use,
to prevent damage or
loss D. Kept clean an
d sanitary E. All of th
er) 318. To prevent
hazards associated
with the use of power
tools: A.
Bundle tools and the
n carry by the cord or
hose B. Yank the cor
d to disconnect it fro
m the receptacle C. D
isconnect tools when
not in use (correct an
swer) 319.
To prevent needless
injuries with tools
employees need to
follow basic safety
rules.Which of these
is
included in the list of
basic safety rules A.
Keep all tools in goo
d condition with regu
lar maintenance. B.
Use the right tool for
the Job including PP
E C. Examine each
tool
for damage before us
e and do not use
damaged tools D. Fol
low manufacturer's in
structions E. All of th
er) 320. Before
allowing a worker to
use a chain
saw, employers
must: A. Ensure the
worker has
appropriate knowledg
e experience and trai
ning B.
Provide eye and heari
ng protection, hardha
t/face shield, cut-
resistant chaps, boots
. C. Ensure that saws
are maintained and c
hains kept sharp D. A
ct answer) OSHA 30
of 277
321. What is the
problem with using
an impact tool with
a mushroomed
head? A. Exposure to
fungus and parasites
B. The head might sh
atter on impact (corre
ct answer) C. There i
s no problem D. Non
e of the above 322.
All hand-held
gasoline-powered
chain saws must be
equipped
with: A. Smooth, slo
wly rotating chains B
. Constant pressure s
witch (correct answer
) C. Kickout/lockout
23. Which of
the following safety
precaution statements
applicable to powder-
actuated toolsis
true: A. Tool may be
used
in an explosive or
flammable atmospher
e B. Inspect tool
before use to
make sure it is clean
and all moving
parts operate
freely(correct
answer) C.
Some shields, guards,
and attachments
may be removed as
they are cosmetic D.
Do not leave a loaded
tool unattended for
more than
15 minutes 324.
After use portable
fire
extinguishers: A. Mu
st be recharged B. M
ust be disposed of C.
Must be recertified D
. Both a and c above
If personnel are
going to fight
fires: A. A fire protec
tion program must be
developed/implement
ed B. Firefighting eq
uipment must be pro
vided C. Training mu
st be provided D. All
answer) 326.
OSHA hot work
requirements include:
A. Move objects to
a safe location or use
welding blankets B.
Notify the fire depart
ment C. Ensure that
a fire watch
is available for
30 minutes after the
hot work
ends D. Both a and c
r) OSHA 30 Constru
2.0) Page 56 of 277 3
27. Before you begin
to fight a fire: A.
Make sure everyone
has left, or is leaving
building B. Make sur
e fire department has
been notified C.
Make sure fire is
small and
you're trained in PFE
use D. Make sure yo
u have unobstructed
escape route E. All of
swer) 328. Leading
causes of jobsite
fires include: A. Plea
se select the best ans
wer B. Easily ignitab
le flammable materia
ls (e.g. paint) C. Easil
y ignitable combustib
le materials (e.g. pap
er and cardboard) D.
The use of a hot wor
k permit E. Both a an
d b above (correct an
swer) 329. In order to
properly address job
hazards and controls
for fire hazards: A.
The job should be
evaluated
by qualified and
or competent persons
. (correct
answer) B. Ask the P
lant Manager C. Alw
ays avoid fire generat
ing activities D. All o
f the above 330. With
regards to chemical
storage: A.
Flammable chemical
s should not be stored
with oxidizers/corros
ives B. Acids and bas
es must be appropriat
ely segregated in stor
age C. All chemicals
may be stored in com
mon containment D.
Both a and b above (
The site emergency
response plan should
include:
A. Team members, n
otification numbers,
and roles/duties B. S
hutdown procedures
and communication p
rocedures C. Home a
ddresses for responde
rs D. Both a and b ab
332. The
PASS approach to
firefighting refers
to: A. Pull, act, scree
n and spray B. Pull th
e pin, aim, squeeze a
nd sweep (correct ans
wer) C. All of the ab
ove D. None of the a
bove OSHA 30 Cons
v. 2.0) Page 57of
277 333.
Housekeeping: A. Ca
n create extreme haza
rds with regards to fir
es B. Large amounts
of combustibles
in rooms
and buildings can
contribute to large
fires C. Keep waste p
iles in an area from i
gnition sources D. Al
t answer) 334. OSHA
and NFPA require
the use of a hot
work permit-
why? A. The hot
work permit is
a good check for
operations and
the fire watch B. The
hot
work permit can mini
mize the risk of
fire C. The hot
work permit requires
issuing someone that
examines the
worksite D. All of th
er) 335. When
hot work is
performed in
enclosed spaces: A.
Shut off gas supply
leading to torches
outside
of enclosed spaces
when not in use B.
Remove torch
and hose from
the enclosed spaces a
t the end of the
shift C.
Remove hoses from e
nclosed spaces when
disconnected from th
e torch D. All of the
r) 336. Classes of fire
extinguishers
include: A. A, B, C,
D and K (correct ans
wer)
B. B, S, E, and R C.
All fire extinguishers
cover all classes D. N
When dealing with
oxygen cylinders: A.
The use of oil
or grease on oxygen
valves should be
avoided due to
flammability(correct
answer) B. Should al
ways be in the color
of yellow C. Must be
stored at temperature
s
less than room tempe
rature D. None of the
above 338. Hot work
includes: A. Welding
, Grinding and Solder
ing B. Flame cutting
and brazing C. Space
heaters and other kno
wn ignition sources
orrect answer) OSHA
8 of277 339.
A positioning device
system must limit
free fall distance to
no more
than: A. 2 feet (corre
ct answer) B. 3 feet C
. 6 feet D. 12 feet 340
. The top rail of a
guardrail system
must be within plus
or minus 3 inches
of ____ inchesin
height. A. 30 B. 36 C
. 42 (correct answer)
D. 49 341. A pre-
shift visual
inspection of cranes
must be performed
by:
A. Any worker B. A
visual inspector C. A
competent person (co
rrect answer) D. Non
e of the above 342.
Connectors working
between _____ and
_____ feet high must
use fall arrest or
restraintdevices or
systems. A. 10,15 B.
10,30 C. 15,30 (corre
ct answer) D. 20,40 3
43. Training
associated with steel
erection activities
must include
procedures for
________fall
protection systems. P
lease select the best a
nswer A. Identifying
, protecting and repor
ting B. Erecting, mai
ntaining, disassembli
ng and inspecting (co
rrect answer) C. Ident
ifying, buying and sel
ling D. All of the abo
ve E. None of the abo
ve 344. During steel
assembly,
the employer shall
ensure that the
weight of a bundle
of joist bridging shall
not
exceed a weight of _
___ pounds. A. 500
B. 700 C. 1000 (corre
ct answer) D. 1200 O
SHA 30 Construction
age 59of 277 345.
Rigging components
must have a ____ to
1 safety factor A.
2 B. 3
C.
4 D. 5 (correct answe
r) 346. During steel
floor assembly, shear
connectors will be
installed _____ metal
decking isin
place. A. Before B. N
ever C. After (correc
t answer) D. Any of t
he above 347.
In steel erection
activities, OSHA
identifies
components of a
site specific erection
planto
include: A. Daily wor
k hour schedules B. S
equence of erection a
ctivity C. Description
of steel erection activ
ities and procedures
E. B and C only (corr
ect answer) 348.
When placing solid
web members for
beams/columns, the
load shall not be
releaseduntil the
members
are secured with at le
ast _____ bolts per c
onnector. A.
r) C. 5 D. 7 349.
For steel assembly
there should not be
more than _____
stories between the
erectionfloor and the
uppermost permanent
floor: A.
r) C. 11 D. 19 350.
A personal fall
restraint system
consists
of: A. An anchorage
point
B.
A body harness appr
opriate to the worker
and their equipment
C. A fall protection l
anyard D. All of the a
OSHA 30 Constructi
) Page 60of
277 351. In steel
erection activities,
for crane selection
and placement, the
site specific
erection plan needs to
consider: A. Crane si
ze and capacity B. B
oom length C. Work
crew size D. All of th
e above E. A and B o
nly (correct answer)
352. Multiple lift
rigging or Christmas
tree rigging: A.
Must follow certain c
riteria for safety of th
e lift and personnel B
. Can only use manuf
actured multiple lift r
igging assemblies C.
Can only be done in
December D. A and
er) E. None of the ab
ove 353. All hoisting
operations must be
pre-planned to ensure
that loads are not
hoisted
overworkers: A. Whe
never specified for th
e specific site by OS
HA B. For all hoistin
g operations (correct
answer) C. When req
uired by the Safety M
anager D. None of th
e above 354. Means
of access to barges
have which of the
following
requirements A.
Provision of ramps
for
vehicles with adequat
e strength and side ra
ils B. Provision of
hand rails at the
top of bulwark of
nominal 33 inched in
height C.
Must be adequately il
luminated for the full
length of
access D. All of the a
355. Motor vehicles
operating on an off-
highway jobsite
(other than
earthmoving
equipment) A.
Must have a service b
rake system and park
ing brake system B.
Must have rear view
access,
a backup alarm or
an observer for
signaling C. Must ha
ve foglamps D. All o
f the above E. Only
A and B above (corre
ct answer) 356.
When heavy
machinery,
equipment or parts
thereof are held aloft
by slings, hoists
or jacks A. Must be b
locked or cribbed (co
rrect answer) B. Are
safe for workers to w
ork under or between
them C. Need no spe
cial handling D. Non
e of the above OSHA
1 of 277 357. Motor
vehicles in use A.
Must be
equipped with
fenders or mud flaps
(for rubber tired
equipment) B.
Must be inspected pri
or to use to
ensure safe operation
C. Must have defects
identified corrected p
rior to operation D. B
oth A and B E. All of
A, B and C (correct a
nswer) 358. The
minimum clearance
between power lines
and any part of a
crane or load
is A. 10 feet for lines
rated 50 kV or below
B. 5 feet for lines rate
d 50 kV or below C.
10 feet plus 0.4
inches for each 1 kV
over 50
kV D. Both A and C
(correct answer) E. A
ll of the above 359.
Proper battery
use, handling and
charging
requires A. Appropri
ate ventilation B.
The use
of personal protective
equipment including
face shields, aprons
and gloves
C. Immediately avail
able eyewash equipm
ent D. All of the abov
0. Earthmoving
equipment must be
equipped with seat
belts and they
must be
used A. When the saf
ety manager decides t
hat it is needed B. W
hen directed by the Si
te Foreperson C. On
all covered equipmen
t (correct answer) D.
All of the above 361.
When working
on barges employees
are not permitted
to: A. Smoke on deck
B. Maintain and clea
n the decks C.
Pass fore and
aft, over or around
deck-loads without
safe passage (correct
he above 362.
Protection for
workers when pile
driving
include A. Overhead
protection and stop bl
ocks (correct answer)
B. Rubber gloves C.
Medical monitoring
D. All of the above O
SHA 30 Construction
age 62 of277 363.
Powered industrial
trucks may only
be operated by
currently certified
operators or
by atrainee under
direct supervision of
a person who: A. Is n
ot related to them B.
Has the
knowledge, training,
and experience to
train
and evaluate their co
mpetence(correct
answer) C. Was a for
mer operator D. Non
e of the above 364.
Haulage vehicles
(cranes, shovels,
loaders, etc.)
ADVERTISING
A. Must be painted y
ellow B. Must be ow
ned by the contractor
C. Must have a
cab shield or canopy
to protect the
operator (correct ans
bove 365.
For equipment that is
left unattended,
adjacent to a highway
or construction
are A. Must have app
ropriate lights B. Mu
st have appropriate re
flectors C. Must have
barricades with lights
or reflectors D. Any
answer) 366. Bulldoz
er, scraper blades,
end-loader buckets
and similar
equipment,
when beingrepaired
or when not in use A.
Should be left off the
ground so as to
avoid rust B. Should
be fully lowered C. S
hould be blocked D.
Either B or C (correct
answer) 367.
Accident prevention
tags A.
Must be used tempor
arily to warn employ
ees of hazards B. Are
seldom required C.
Must not be used in p
lace of accident preve
ntion D. Both A and
C above (correct ans
wer) E. All of the abo
ve 368. When
performing site
clearing
operations A. Worker
s need to be protected
from toxic plants B.
Consideration must
be given
to feral animals, inse
cts and homeless
people C. Equipment
must be equipped wit
h roll over guards D.
Both A and B above
orrect answer) OSHA
3 of277
369. Light hazards
may exist
when welding which
could
include: A. Infrared li
ght (radiation) which
may damage skin tiss
ue B.
Ultraviolet light (radi
ation) which cause
severe burns
and damage the
eyes C. Visible light
(intense) which can d
amage the eyes D. Al
t answer) 370. Unless
routinely utilized,
oxygen and acetylene
must be
stored: A. At least 20
feet apart B.
Separated by
a noncombustible bar
rier at least five feet
height C. Be stored o
n an oxygen/
acetylene welding rac
k D. Either a or b (co
rrect answer) 371.
When transporting,
moving or storing
gas cylinders: A.
Make certain that the
cylinder cap is in pla
ce B. Always move c
ylinders in a vertical
position C. When sto
red cylinders should
be properly chained/
secured D. All of the
r) 372. The primary
hazards related to the
handling of gas
cylinders used in
welding include: A.
Cylinders are subject
to
DOT inspection on a
periodic basis B.
Heat, fire, or tough
handling
can detonate gas
cylinders
with extreme force
(correctanswer) C. La
beling is not required
373.
Welding: A. Is comm
only used to join vari
ous metal parts B. Us
es high heat to fuse
metals in a permanen
t bond C. Includes
various types
of welding dependent
on the types
of metals and
otherconditions D. Al
t answer) 374. Other
hot work includes the
use of arc, plasma
and oxy-gas cutters
which: A. Use heat
from an
arc, ionized gas
(plasma) or gases
to cut and trim metal
(correctanswer)
B. Are an alternative
to welding C. Are an
alternative to solderin
g and brazing D. Non
e of the above OSHA
4 of277 375. Prior to
welding or hot work
the work area should
be: A. Be cleared of
flammable and
or combustible mater
ials for a 25 foot
radius B.
Be cleared of
flammable and or
combustible
materials for a 35
foot radius
(correctanswer) C. B
e inerted with nitroge
n D. All of the above
376. Welding hazards
following? A. Fire, e
xplosions, welder's fl
ash, shock and noise
B. Radiation and bur
ns C. Exposure to lea
d, fumes, gases and o
ther respiratory conta
minants D. All of the
r) 377. The
most significant
hazard(s) when
welding in confined
spaces
is/are: A. A build up
of fumes, gases and h
eat B. Oxygen deficie
ncy due to carbon dio
xide generation C. Th
e darkness in the conf
ined space D. Both a
and b above (correct
answer) 378. Types
of ventilation for
welding/hot work
include: A.
Natural ventilation,
mechanical local exh
aust ventilation, force
d ventilation B. Use
of an air-purifying re
spirator C. General a
ir mechanical ventilat
ion D. Both a and c a
379. Welding, cutting
and brazing should
only occur
when authorized by
a: A. Confined Space
Entry Permit
B. Safe Driver's Per
mit C. Hot Work Per
mit (correct answer)
380. Welding
includes: A. Directly
fusing two pieces of
metal B. Using additi
onal metal to make th
e weld C. Both a and
b above (correct ans
bove OSHA 30 Cons
v. 2.0) Page 65 of277
381. Welding, cutting
or heating of metals
coated with lead-
bearing paint can
create harmfullead
fumes. What
is one preventive acti
on to take to reduce t
he hazard? A. Flush t
he area with cold wat
er B. Strip paint
back at least 4 inches
from the area of heat
application (correct a
nswer) C. Use the sp
ecial bead-laying tec
hnique D. All of the a
bove 382. For arc
welding and
cutting: A. Never use
damaged cables (corr
ect answer) B. Utilize
electrical tape to fix d
amaged cables C. Do
uble ground the equi
pment until it can be
repaired D. All of the
above 383. Soldering
and
brazing: A. Are the s
ame as welding B.
Differ in that
the metal added is
the only
metal melted (correct
answer) C. Are used
predominantly to atta
ch heavy steel to stee
l D. None of the abov
e 384.
Communications
system equipment to
be used in confined
spaces may include
which ofthe
following?
A.
Hand signals, walkie
talkies, radios, and pa
gers (correct answer)
B. Satellite phones C.
Photo ion detectors D
. All of the above 385
. Which of the
following might be a
found in a permit
space? A. Hazardous
atmosphere B. Engul
fment hazard C.
Obstacles that interfe
re with any attempt t
o exit the space D. B
oth A and B E. All th
ree, A, B, and C (corr
ect answer) 386.
A hazardous
atmosphere may be
detected
by: A. Specially train
ed dogs B. Superviso
rs only C. Entrants o
nly D. Any member
of the CSE team (cor
rect answer) OSHA 3
6 of277 387.
For occupancy of a
confined space, when
must hazard
evaluation tests be
conducted? A. Before
entry B. During occu
pancy C. Within 30
minutes after exit D.
Both A and B (correc
t answer) E. All three
, A, B, and C 388.
The CSE attendant
remains outside the
space
until: A. The end of s
hift B. Relieved by a
nother attendant (corr
ect answer) C. Nightf
all D. All of the abov
e
389. Before
work begins, the
competent
person: A. Contacts
OSHA B.
Identifies all confine
d spaces where empl
oyees may work
(correct answer) C. F
lushes the confined s
paces D. All of the ab
ove 390. A confined
space rescue team
may consist
of: A. Outside contra
ctor B. Internal team
C. Community fire a
nd rescue emergency
responders D. All of t
wer) E. None of the a
bove 391. Each year,
how many confined
space deaths and
injuries
occur? A. None or ve
ry few B. About ten
C. Hundreds (correct
answer) D. About fou
r million 392.
Controls for a
confined space
physical hazard may
include blanking,
double block
and bleed,
and ______________
______. A. Lineout a
nd backup B. Lockou
t and tagout (correct
answer) C. Double h
ook and ladder D. N
one of the above OS
HA 30 Construction
age 67 of277 393.
PPE should be
considered for use
before using
engineering or
work practice
controls. A. True B.
False (correct answer
)
394. What two inert
gases are often used
to purge flammable
or explosive vapors
from aconfined
space? A. Pure oxyge
n or hydrogen B. Car
bon dioxide or nitrog
en (correct answer) C
. Hydrogen sulfide or
carbon gas D. None o
f the above 395.
Which of the
following is an
example of a
confined
space? A. Pipeline B.
Sewer C. Manhole D
. All of the above (co
rrect answer) 396.
The
attendant: A. Has a vi
tal role B. Must be tr
ained C. Must recogn
ize possible effects of
exposure D. All of th
er) 397. According to
OSHA standards in
Subpart AA,
1926.1204, when
must a written
permitspace program
be
made available to em
ployees or their repre
sentatives? A. Prior t
o operations (correct
answer) B. Only after
operations have cease
d C. After submittal t
o OSHA D. When au
thorized by OSHA 3
98. Permit-required
confined space work
is potentially
hazardous: A. Usuall
y B. Never C. At tim
es D. Always (correct
answer) OSHA 30 C
m (v. 2.0) Page 68 of
277
399. Which of the
following is a reason
why a confined space
permit is
required ? A. Someti
mes the boss demand
s it B. Provides
a checklist that outlin
es the steps
that need to
be followed C. Autho
rizes entrance into a c
onfined space D. Bot
h and (correct answer
) E. All three, A, B, a
nd C 400. What is an
employer required to
do when a permit
space is present at a
worksite, eventhough
employees
do not need to enter t
he space? A. Notify
OSHA of the employ
ees' presence B.
Take steps
to prevent employees
from entering the
space
(correct answer) C. T
est for atmospheric h
azards D. Both A and
B E. All three, A, B,
and C 401. The
entrant should notify
the attendant
whenever the
entrant: A. Recognize
s warning sign of exp
osure B. Detects a pr
ohibited condition C.
Sees someone becom
es confused or lose c
ontrol D. All of the a
402. Why are
confined space
accidents rarely
preventable? A.
Confined spaces usua
lly comprise a
large part of the jobsi
te B. Confined spaces
always involve comp
licated situations C.
Actually, confined sp
ace accidents are mos
tly preventable (corre
ct answer) D. Both A
and B 403. Which
of the following
should be considered
when choosing a
communications
system? A. Lighting (
correct answer) B. C
ost C. Confusion
D. Training 404.
Employer-approved
rescue services must
be informed of
hazards in advance
by: A. CSE entrants
B. OSHA C. Email D
. The employer (corre
ct answer) OSHA 30
of 277 405.
A permit-required
confined space will
often have which of
the following
hazards? A. Exposur
e to high volumes of
traffic B. Hazardous
atmosphere (correct a
nswer) C. Rough wal
ls and floors D. All th
ree A, B, and C E. N
A confined space
entry permit
is: A. Mandated by O
SHA B. A safety tool
C. A
checklist that identifi
es hazards with prote
ctive measures D. Bo
th A and B E. E. All t
hree, A, B, and C (co
rrect answer) 407. Th
e key distinction
between supplied-air
and air-purifying
respirators is: A.
One supplies air with
oxygen, the other
filters out
contaminants (correct
answer) B. One suppl
ies oxygen, the other
removes it C. One is
approved by OSHA, t
he other is not 408.
CSE permit
equipment
includes: A. Air testi
ng and monitoring eq
uipment B. Ventilatio
n and lighting C. App
ropriate PPE
D. All of the above (
In a confined space,
hot work may
be performed, but
_________________
_. A. Requires a spec
ial permit (correct an
swer) B. Does not re
quire a special permit
C. Is restricted to coo
l areas only 410. The
attendant may leave
the opening of the
confined
space: A. To use the r
estroom B. To perfor
m other duties C. In o
rder to accept a cell p
hone call D.
Only when relieved b
y another attendant (c
orrect answer) OSHA
0 of277 411. The
attendant may leave
the opening of the
confined
space: A. They need t
o use the restroom B.
They need to perform
other duties C. In ord
er to accept a cell pho
ne call D.
Only when relieved b
y another attendant (c
orrect answer) 412.
Additional training is
required whenever
there is evidence that
permit space
entry procedures
have
changed. A. True (co
rrect answer) B. Fals
e 413. Which of the
following is an
employer
responsibility with
regard to training
employees? A.
Training records
must be submitted to
OSHA within 30
days
of completion B.
Training records
must be available to
employees during the
ir
employment (correct
answer) C. Training i
s optional, but highly
recommended D. Bot
h A and B E. All thre
e, A, B, and C
414. Which of the

following is a
specific element
included in a
confined space
permit? A. Superviso
r experience, in years
B. Testing requireme
nts (correct answer)
C. Name of OSHA re
presentative D. All of
the above 415. The
list of hazards to
assess prior to entry
into a confined space
includes: A. Air cont
amination B. Engulf
ment C. Stored energ
y D. Temperature ext
remes E. All of the a
416. Excavations
involving vapors and
storage tanks are
examples of a permit-
requiredconfined
space
because both have __
_________________
_. A. The potential fo
r claustrophobia B. T
he potential for anim
al infestation C. The
potential to contain a
hazardous atmospher
e (correct answer) D.
No potential hazard
OSHA 30 Constructi
) Page 71 of 277 417.
Which of the
following is true
about confined
spaces? A.
Large enough to perf
orm work with restric
ted entry or exit B. N
ot designed for ongoi
ng occupancy C. We
ather proof D. Both
wer) E. All three, A,
B, and C 418. For
confined space
operations, off-site
emergency rescue
services: A. May not
be used at any time B
. May be used but are
not required to respo
nd quickly C. May be
used if qualified and t
rained (correct answe
r)
419. What
does blanking
mean? A. Erasing evi
dence of any hazard
B. Disconnecting
or capping lines that
may empty into
the permit space
(correct
answer) C. Forgetful
ness resulting from e
xposure to a confined
space D. None of the
above 420. When
may the attendant
enter a confined
space? A. Only after
it has been blanked B
. When the entrant is
having a problem C.
When it appears that
there are no hazards
present D. None of th
er) 421. Who
is required to provide
an entry permit for a
permit-required
confined
space? A. Competent
person B. Employee r
epresentative C. Emp
loyer (correct answer
) D. OSHA 422. Who
may enter a permit
space? A.
In the case of an eme
rgency, anyone in the
area B. Those authori
zed by the entry supe
rvisor (correct answe
r) C. If it's
a permitted confined
space, anyone
physically able may
enter D. Both A and
B OSHA 30 Constru
2.0) Page 72 of277 4
23. The confined
space permit is: A.
A way to guarantee t
he safety of every wo
rker B.
An authorization and
a checklist to identify
hazards and
precautions (correct a
nswer) C. Only neede
d if hot work is requi
red D. All of the abo
ve
424. The term IDLH
refers to: A.
Immediately dangero
us to life or health va
lues (issued by
NIOSH) B. Exposure
that may cause irreve
rsible, adverse health
effects C.
A dangerous atmosph
ere that may
impair an
individual's ability to
escape D. All of the a
425. Changing
conditions in
a permit-required
confined space
may require: A. A ne
w permit B. Reclassif
ication as a non-
permit space C. Recl
assification for new c
onditions D. All of th
er) 426. Monitoring
equipment in
confined spaces must
measure which of the
followinghazards? A.
Vibration B. Oxygen,
flammable gases and
vapors, toxic and
other
air contaminants
(correct
answer) C. Smell D.
Size E. All of the abo
ve 427. The confined
space entry team
following? A. Entry s
upervisor, entrant an
d attendant B. OSHA
inspector C. Emerge
ncy response personn
el D. All of the above
E. A and C only (corr
ect answer) 428.
Even if an employee
is not part of a CSE
team, the employee
may enter a
confinedspace on
some
occasions. When? A.
When it
is apparent that some
thing is wrong
in the space B. When
the employee has pre
vious experience on
a CSE team C. Never
(correct answer) OS
HA 30 Construction
age 73 of277
429. The CSE
supervisor
must: A. Be an actual
supervisor or manage
r B. Be a salaried em
ployee C. Be on site
at all times D. Author
ize and sign the entry
permit (correct answe
r) E. All of the above
430. Even though
the employer is
responsible for
providing confined
space training, the
costof the training is
paid by the employee
. A. True B. False (co
rrect answer) 431.
An employer must
ensure the following
for entry into a
permit
space: A. Air space c
oordination B. Infor
med "time over flam
mability" C.
Safe methods for ent
ering and exiting the
space (correct answer
432. Which of the
following is
considered a
confined space
hazard? A. Entrapme
nt or engulfment B. F
ire or explosion C. St
arvation D. Both A a
nd B (correct answer)
E. All three, A, B, an
d C 433. Which
of the following is
required before
entering a confined
space? A. Water testi
ng B. Atmospheric te
sting (correct answer)
C. Soil testing D. All
of the above E. None
of the above
434. To safely use
air monitoring
equipment in a
confined space, an
operator
must _____________
___. A.
Be in the safest part o
f the confined space
B. Be OSHA trained
and certified C. Abso
lutely guarantees entr
ant safety (correct an
swer) D. Use instinct
ual senses E. All of t
he above OSHA 30 C
m (v. 2.0) Page 74 of
277 435. A permit
does each of the
following
EXCEPT: A. Lists co
nfined space hazards
B. Establishes conditi
ons for safe entry C.
Absolutely guarantee
s entrant safety (corre
ct answer) D. Establi
shes rescue procedur
es 436. Each person
serving as an
attendant must be
listed on the confined
space
permit. A. True (corr
ect answer) B. False
437. Each member of
the confined space
emergency rescue
team must practice
emergencyskills: A.
Daily B. As needed
C. No more than onc
e annually D. At least
annually (correct ans
wer) 438.
Excavations with
sloughing walls,
grain silos, and
trenches are
examples of
permitrequired
confined
spaces because each
contains materials tha
t: A. May have a bad
odor B. Have the
potential for caving-
in or
engulfment (correct a
nswer) C. May invol
ve quicksand
D. None of the abov
e 439. What
is required when a
confined space job is
completed? A. Secur
e space, cover plates,
and doors (correct an
swer) B. Leave flaggi
ng and barriers in pla
ce C. Disband the CS
E team permanently
D. Conduct a site visi
t regularly 440.
Which of the
following is true for
a CSE entrant? A.
Enters
confined space and m
ust be trained in CSE
(correct answer) B.
May only leave the s
pace when relieved C
. Maintains a written
account of other entra
nts D.
Leaves only with sup
ervisor permission ev
en if hazard arises O
SHA 30 Construction
age 75 of 277 441.
Which of the
following is a
requirement prior to
entry into a permit
space? A. Atmospher
ic test for flammable
gases and vapors B.
Atmospheric test for
oxygen C.
Elimination of
any hazard making it
unsafe to remove an
entrance cover D. B
oth A and B E. All th
ree, A, B, and C (corr
ect answer) 442.
Aside from chemical,
oxygen, and
entrapment hazards,
confined spaces may
behazardous due
to: A. Stored energy
hazards B. Noise/tem
perature hazards C. A
nimal hazards D. All
answer) 443. If self-
evacuation of
an entrant is not
possible, the
attendant
should: A. Call for he
lp B. Use an extractio
n device (correct ans
wer) C. Enter the con
fined space to size up
situation
D. Do nothing 444.
Which of the
following is a duty of
the CSE
supervisor? A. Remai
ns outside space at all
times B. Ensures safe
entry conditions are
met and completes/si
gns entry
permit C. Coordinate
s rescue services D.
B and C (correct ans
wer) 445. PPE
protects
the: A. Head B. Resp
iratory System C. Fee
t D. All of the above
Confined spaces are
dangerous
because: A. They can
appear deceptively ha
rmless B. Gases and
vapors may not be se
en or smelled C. In a
n emergency, exiting
quickly may be diffic
ult D. All of the abov
e (correct answer) OS
HA 30 Construction
age 76 of277 447.
In addition to posting
danger signs on
a permit space, an
employer must
informemployee
representatives
and the controlling c
ontractor of the locati
ons of any permit spa
ce. A. True (correct a
nswer) B. False 448.
An example of a
confined space
structure in which
someone can become
trapped orsuffocate
is: A. A storage tank
with inward-sloping
walls (correct answer
) B. A building with
many floors C. An op
en excavation
49. A permit-
required confined
space may have an
interior shape that
could: A. Cause shin
gles B. Trap or asphy
xiate (correct answer)
C. Keep an entrant a
wake D. None of the
above 450. Confined
space entrants may
exit a space when
approved by the CSE
supervisor.However,
they must exit
a space whenever: A.
There are no warning
signs or symptoms of
exposure B. They det
ect prohibited conditi
ons (correct answer)
C. Work is nearly co
mpleted D. All is nor
mal 451. Testing
for the presence of
oxygen is important
for any confined
space.
Theconcentration of
oxygen in
a confined space sho
uld be: A. Between 1
5% and 25%, ideally
15.5% B. As high as
possible C. Between
19.5% and 23.5%, id
eally 21% (correct an
swer) D. None of the
above 452.
Authorizes entrance
into a confined
space A. Hazards in t
he confined space B.
Emergency rescue pr
ocedures C. Equipme
nt, humidity, and oth
er contractors in the a
rea D. Both A and B
(correct answer) E. A
ll three, A, B, and C
OSHA 30 Constructi
) Page 77 of277 453.
A confined space:
A. Has limited mean
s of access and exit B
. Is large enough to al
low entry C. Is not de
signed for continuous
human occupancy D.
Occurs only below gr
ound E. A, B, and C
r) 454. A confined
space: A. Is large eno
ugh to allow entry B.
Has limited access an
d egress C. Is not des
igned for continuous
human occupancy D.
Occurs only below gr
ound E. All of a, b an
d c above (correct an
swer) 455. Bleeding,
ventilation, and
flushing are all
examples
of: A. Medical safegu
ards B. Confined spa
ce hazard controls (c
orrect answer) C. Co
nfined space emergen
cies D. Compressed s
pace protocols 456.
Emergency rescue
personnel for
confined spaces
may: A.
Be an internal group
of
personnel that are ap
propriately trained B.
Be an external group
with previous arrange
ments C. Not be requ
ired for permit confin
ed space entry D. Bot
h A and B (correct an
swer) 457.
An employer must
provide the
opportunity for
anyone affected by a
permit space
toobserve monitoring
of
the permit space. A.
True (correct answer)
B. False 458.
Most back disorders
caused by
_________. A. An ac
ute short term injury
B. Chronic exposures
or long term injury (c
orrect answer) C. Ost
eoporosis
D. None of the abov
e OSHA 30 Construc
tion Final Exam (v. 2
.0) Page 78of
277 459. Which
statement below is
accurate for Personal
Protective Equipment
(PPE) controls? A.
Should be
considered only after
engineering and / or
administrative contro
ls (correctanswer) B.
Are always the best c
ontrol strategy C. Are
always the most cost
effective and long las
ting D. All of the abo
ve 460. This illness /
injury occurs when
the blood vessels
of the hand are
damaged as a resultof
repeated
exposure to vibration
for long periods of ti
me? A. Raynaud's Sy
ndrome B. "White Fi
ngers" C. Jacksons D
isease D. Trigger fing
er E. Both A and B (
Musculoskeletal
injuries currently
account for about
_____ of all
occupational
injuriesand illnesses
reported to the BLS.
A. 10% B. One quart
er C. One third (corr
ect answer) D. Very f
ew 462. You have an
increased risk
ergonomic related
injury/illness if
you often: A.
Carry heavy loads,
work on your knees
and twist your
hands or
wrists (correct answe
r) B. Usually work at
chest level C. Use we
ll designed tools D.
All of the above E. N
one of the above
463.
Body movement
where "energy is
exerted to cause
movement"? A. Moti
on B. Force (correct a
nswer) C. Kinetics D.
4. Which statement
below is most
accurate when
discussing awkward
postures? A.
Are created by the lo
ss of calcium in the b
ody B. Can always b
e prevented by the us
e of back belts C.
Create stress and fati
gue on the musculo-
skeletal system (corre
ct answer) D. All of t
he above OSHA 30 C
m (v. 2.0) Page 79 of
277 465. Effects
of Ergonomic
Injuries may
include: A. Pain, Ach
es, Numbness, Tingli
ng B. Restricted mov
ement C. Both of the
r) D. None of the abo
ve 466. These type
controls include
designing work
stations, tools, and
equipment to
minimizerepetition,
forces
and posture problems
. A. Engineering Con
trol (correct answer)
B. Administrative Co
ntrol C. MSD Work
Practice control D. P
ersonal Protective Eq
uipment Control 467.
Workers who must
do which of
the following are at
greatest risk from
experiencingwork
related musculoskelet
al disorders?
A. Lift, stoop and kn
eel B. Twist, grip and
stretch C. Reach over
head D. Work in othe
r awkward positions
E. All the above (corr
ect answer) 468.
Good ergonomics
attempts to
___________. A.
Fit or adapt the job to
the worker (correct a
nswer) B. Force the
worker to fit the job
C. Shorten
the workday so
employees can leave
when the work
is done D. None of th
e above 469. Which
statement below is
most accurate when
discussing awkward
postures? A.
Are created by the lo
ss of calcium in the b
ody B. Can always b
e prevented by the us
e of back belts C.
Create stress and fati
gue on the musculo-
skeletal system (corre
ct answer) D. All of t
he above 470.
Breaking up the work
schedule to minimize
repetitive tasks,
which involves
doingdifferent things
with different muscle
s is an example of wh
at type of control? A.
Engineering Control
B. Administrative Co
ntrol (correct answer)
C. MSD Work Practi
ce control D. Persona
l Protective Equipme
nt Control OSHA 30
of277 471. Back
disorders
are frequently caused
by the cumulative
effects of faulty
bodymechanics such
as which of
the following? A. Ex
cessive twisting B. B
ending and reaching
C.
Carrying, moving, or
lifting loads that are t
oo heavy or off-
balance D. All of the
r) E. A and B only 47
2. Ergonomic-related
disorders principally
following? A. Muscu
loskeletal Disorders (
MSDs) B. Cumulativ
e Trauma Disorders
C. Repetitive Motion
Injuries D. Back injur
ies and strains / sprai
ns E. All of the above
Many factors play a
role in ergonomics.
Which of the
following is most
correct? A. Body pos
ture B. Movement C.
Environmental factor
s D.
Athletes generally do
n't need to improve th
eir ergonomics E. A,
B and C (correct ans
wer) 474. The
scheduling
of maintenance and
other high exposure
operations for times
when fewworkers are
present (such as even
ings, weekends) is an
example of: A. Engin
eering controls B. Ha
zard elimination C. A
dministrative control
(correct answer) D. P
PE 475. Federal
OSHA requires
contractors to initiate
and maintain safety
and health
programsto ensure a
safe
and healthful place of
employment. A. Fede
ral OSHA does not h
ave this authority B. f
or state funded contra
cts only. C. for gover
nmental agencies onl
y. D. None of the abo
ve (correct answer) O
SHA 30 Construction
age 81 of277
476. JHA is an
acronym for which of
the
following A. Justifie
d Health Assessment
B. Joint Hazard Asse
ssment C. Job Hazard
Analysis (correct ans
wer) D. Any of the a
bove 477. Necessary
training topics for
employees include
the workplace plan in
case of a fire orother
emergency, general si
te hazards and hazard
s unique to a workers
activity, when and w
here PPE isrequired
and: A. Company bu
dgeting techniques B.
Chemicals used in th
e workplace (correct
answer) C. Operation
al readiness factors D
. All of the above E.
8. Safety and health
programs require
which of the
following? A. Freque
nt and regular inspect
ions and training B.
Prohibiting the use of
unsafe
machinery, tools, mat
erials, or
equipment C.
Provision
of personal protective
equipment (PPE) to
ensure safety at the
jobsite D. All of the a
479. Hierarchy of
controls for hazard
mitigation follow a
determined sequence
for
maximumeffectivene
ss.
After elimination an
d substitution, which
sequence below shou
ld be followed? A. E
ngineering Controls f
irst, PPE, Administra
tive/Work Practice C
ontrols B. Use PPE fi
rst following by Adm
inistrative/Work Prac
tice Controls C. Engi
neering controls are n
ot required on constr
uction sites D.
Engineering controls,
Administrative/Work
Practice Controls, PP
E (correct answer) E.
None of the above. 4
80. An effective
safety and health
program will
investigate which of
the following
incidentsto uncover
the "root cause"?
A. First aid cases an

d serious injury incid
ents B. Petty theft C.
Near miss incidents
D. Both A and C (cor
rect answer) E. None
of the above OSHA 3
2of 277 481. Which
of the following are
desirable
characteristics of an
effective Safety and
HealthProgram? A. S
tart with rules and en
d with policy stateme
nt B. In writing and
identify the
responsible person(s)
for implementing the
program (correctans
wer) C. Reviewed ev
ery 3 years by a regis
tered PE D. All of the
above E. None of the
above 482.
An effective
occupational safety
and health program
will include which of
the
followingelements?
A. Management com
mitment and employe
e involvement B. Wo
rksite analysis C. Haz
ard prevention and co
ntrol D. Safety and h
ealth training E. All o
f the above. (correct a
nswer) 483.
Complexity of
training depends on
which of the
following? A. The nu
mber of standards tha
t apply B.
Characteristics of
the hazards and
potential hazards at
the
site (correct answer)
C. The training budg
et D. All of the above
E. Both A and B 484.
Training for
Employees,
Supervisors and
Managers should
include which
of thefollowing?
A. Training
on specific safe work
practices before an
employee begins
work B. Safety traini
ng within 30 days of
starting the job C. Sa
fety and health traini
ng for new work proc
esses D. Safety and
health training when
accidents and near mi
sses occur E. All exc
ept B above. (correct
answer) 485.
OSHA recommends
that top management
be involved in
implementing the
safety andhealth
program so
that ____________.
A. They can better av
oid an OSHA citation
B. They can ensure
money is being spent
appropriately C.
Employees understan
d that management's
commitment is
serious
(correct answer) D. N
one of the above OS
HA 30 Construction
age 83 of277 486.
In an effective safety
and health program,
management regards
worker safety and
healthas which of
the following? A.
An overhead expense
that is
a wasteful part of
doing business B. A
fundamental value of
the organization (corr
ect answer) C. An im
pedance to business
487. Who should be
held accountable for
meeting safety and
health program
responsibilitiesin the
workplace? A. Empl
oyees, supervisors an
d managers (correct a
nswer) B. Employees
and Supervisors C. S
upervisors and Mana
gers D. None of the a
bove 488. What
is good source of
information on your
state's Safety
and Health
Programrequirements
?
A. The local health d

epartment B. OSHA
Consultation (correct
answer) C. The IRS
89. An event that is
unplanned undesired
and results in
personal injury,
property damage
oran impact to
the environment. A. I
ncident B. Accident (
correct answer) C. Inj
ury D. Illness E. Non
e of the above 490.
A positive safety
culture is the result of
which of the
following? A. Manag
ement and employee
attitude B. Policies a
nd procedures C. Sup
ervisory responsibilit
y and accountability
D. Safety planning E.
ect answer) OSHA 3
4 of277 491. In the
workplace,
regulatory liability
exists in the form
of: A. The Occupatio
nal Safety and Health
Administration (OSH
A) B. The Environme
ntal Protection Agenc
y (EPA) C. State OS
HA programs, Local,
City and County ordi
nances D. All of the a
492. As a supervisor,
you are responsible
for: A. Expectations
of the corporation B.
Regulatory liability C
. Personal liability
D.
Taking little short-
cuts to
bring the project in
on time. E. A, B and
C above (correct ans
wer) 493. Who
is legally responsible
for the safety and
health of employees
on a
work team? A. OSH
A inspector B. Build
ing inspector C. Uni
on representative D.
The supervisor (corre
ct answer) 494.
If you cannot fix a
serious hazard
immediately, you
should: A. Complain
to management B. Hi
de it C. Prevent empl
oyee exposure D.
Communicate the
hazard to the crew
and subs, use
signs and
barricades E. Both C
and D (correct answe
r) 495. Cold
Stress, heat stress,
vibration, ionizing
radiation, noise and
laser hazards
areexamples of what
category of hazard?
A. Physical safety ha
zards B. Physical hea
lth hazards (correct a
nswer) C. Biological
hazards D. Ergonomi
c type hazards 496.
OSHA citations must
be posted
where? A. On the wi
ndshield of the field t
ruck B. At or near th
e work area involved
(correct answer) C. I
nside the supervisors
work truck D. None
of the above is applic
able. OSHA 30 Const
v. 2.0) Page 85 of277
497. Accident
investigation should
be which of
the following?
A. Fact finding (corr
ect answer) B. Fault f
inding C. Both fact a
nd fault finding D. N
Which of the
following would be a
way to protect
yourself from
liability? A. Follow a
ll company policies
B. Control all potenti
ally serious and non-
serious hazards imme
diately C. Notify hig
her up managers of h
azardous situations D
. Ensure employees a
re trained properly E.
ect answer) 499. The
expectations of
a corporation usually
include: A.
Following only those
corporate health and
safety
policies that do
not cost
money B. Protecting
the project budget at
any and all cost C. N
otifying managers of
hazardous situations (
correct answer) D.
Taking little short
cuts are most
often no big deal
when it comes
to safety 500. Back
disorders, strains and
sprains, and carpal
tunnel syndrome are
examples of
whattype
injury? A. Chemical
exposures B. Ergono
mic related injuries (
correct answer) C. Bi
ological hazards D. N
Tools used to
communicate and
warn employees of
potential hazards
include which ofthe
following? A. Cableg
rams and memos B. R
adios, phones and Ipa
ds C. Color codes, po
sters, labels and signs
(correct answer) D. A
ll of the above 502.
The employer
is required to report
to the nearest OSHA
office within
__ anyfatalaccident
or one that results
in the hospitalization
of three or more empl
oyees.
A. 2 hours B. 8 hour
24 hours D. 40 hours
OSHA 30 Constructi
) Page 86 of277 503.
Employees have the
right of access to
which of the
following? A.
The exposure records
for all employees on t
he project B.
Their own
employee medical an
d
exposure records (cor
rect answer) C. The
medical records for a
ll employees on the p
roject D. Both A and
B above 504.
An explanation of the
project safety
requirements and
"zero tolerance"
details shouldtake
place when? A.
These details not
required by OSHA
so they really
don't need to be
explained B. These d
etails should be part
of the offer letter C.
Within 30 days after
the start of
the project when
things have
slowed down D.
During initial and per
iodic safety training (
A thorough look
around the jobsite for
unsafe conditions,
behaviors,
equipment,
and processes is an
example of which of
the following? A. Ha
rm Evaluation B. Ris
k Assessment (correc
t answer) C. Injury ca
tegorization process
506. Recognizing
safe behaviors on
a project
______________. A.
Is required by OSHA
regulation B. Is an
effective tool to
promote safety and
improve the safety
culture (correct
answer) C.
Not recommended
as studies have
shown
recognition programs
to
be ineffective D. Non
e of the above E. All
of the above
507. One way to

mitigate risk is with
a thorough risk
assessment of the
jobsite for
unsafe ___________.
A. Conditions, behav
iors, equipment and p
rocesses B. Work me
thods C. Supervisors
D. Both A and B abo
08. A risk is: A.
A combination of haz
ard and probability (c
orrect answer) B. Ne
ver preventable C. B
oth of the above D. N
one of the above OS
HA 30 Construction
age 87 of277 509.
OSHA's "General
Duty Clause"
requires
_______________ a
safe work
environmentfree
from
recognized hazards th
at are causing or are
likely to cause death
or serious physical ha
rm to
hisemployees. A. Pro
perty owners to main
tain B. OSHA to mai
ntain C. Employers t
o maintain (correct a
nswer) D. Employees
to maintain E. All of
the above 510. Succe
ssful safety leaders
generally possess
which of the
following
characteristics? A. St
ubborn personality B.
Advanced college de
gree C. Good commu
nication skills, vision
and passion (correct a
nswer) D. Ability to
consistently beat bud
get E. All of the abov
e 511. A key element
in recognizing and
preventing unsafe
behaviors is
understanding which
of the
following? A. The en
vironmental code for
the project B. All of
OSHA's construction
regulations C. How y
ou personally perceiv
e risk (correct answer
) D. None of the abov
e 512. Managing risk
effectively is
dependent on
following a simple,
5 step process. These
5steps include which
of the following? A.
Inspect, arrange, purs
ue, manage, report B.
Identify, assess, eval
uate, implement and
measure (correct ans
wer) C. Accumulate,
inform, report, follow
-up D. Report and fin
d fault E. All of the a
bove 513. The
requirement that
"each employee shall
comply
with occupational
safety
and healthstandards
and all rules,
regulations, and orde
rs issued pursuant to t
his Act which are app
licable to his
ownactions
and conduct" comes f
rom what? A. The Pr
esidential Order B.
OSHA's General Dut
y Clause (correct ans
wer) C. International
Labor Referendum D
. All of the above OS
HA 30 Construction
age 88 of277 514.
Employees can make
an impact in
promoting safety
on the jobsite by
which of
thefollowing? A. Part
icipate in safety com
mittees B. Develop n
ew safety programs
C. Provide feedback
on areas for improve
ment
D. Removing safety
devices that slow the
job down E. A, B and
C (correct answer) 51
5. Our "safety
paradigms" can be a
result
of A. Our previous t
eachings B. Our coac
hing and training C.
Our experiences D. A
ct answer) 516.
Which of the
following make up
OSHA's Focus
Four, highest risk
hazards? A. Falls, fly
ing rocks, nail guns, l
ifting B. Electrocutio
n, chemical exposure
s, heat illness, noise
C. Falls, electrocutio
n, struck-by, caught b
etween (correct answ
er) D. Heat illness, ra
diation, motor vehicl
e, lifting 517.
Negative motivators
that can cause us
to make poor safety
decisions may
include whichof the
following? A. Peer pr
essure and macho atti
tudes B. Good safety
training and toolbox
meetings C. Jobsite p
ressures D. Taunting
by co-workers E. All
except answer B (cor
rect answer) 518.
OSHA's "General
Duty Clause"
requires __________
to comply with
occupationalsafety
and health
standarts and rules, re
gulations and orders i
ssued pursuant to the
OSH Act A. Property
owners B. OSHA C.
Employers only D. E
mployees (correct an
swer) E. All of the ab
ove OSHA 30 Constr
2.0) Page 89of 277
519. You can get
valuable information
from benchmarking
with which of
the followingorganiz
ations? A. Competito
rs B. Trade organizati
ons and unions-- C.
Government agencies
(e.g. Fed & State OS
HA,
WORKSAFE BC) D.
Safety and Industrial
Hygiene Consultants
orrect answer) 520.
Some forward
thinking companies
have created safety
cultures
that _____________
______. A.
Don't accept injuries
as a cost of doing bus
iness B. Are based in
the belief that every
injury and incident is
preventable. C.
Believe that
incentive programs al
ways result in
the best safety
outcome. D. All of th
er) 521. To change a
stagnant or poor
construction safety
culture is likely to
involve positive
rolemodels, coaches
and mentors, standar
dized and effective tr
aining programs and:
A. Draconian discipli
ne programs B. Gene
rous incentives for no
t having any accident
s C. Safe work proce
dures (correct answer
522. Effective safety
training
should: A. Include fe
edback mechanisms f
or employees B. Add
ress the needs of emp
loyees C. Both A and
B (correct answer) D.
3. Most safety
professionals agree
that the most critical
element in the
prevention ofinjuries
and incidents
is _______________
__. A.
How much money is
available for
personal protective e
quipment B. The sup
port of management (
correct answer) C. Fr
equent OSHA inspect
ions D. None of the a
bove
524. When
establishing an injury
free culture one
must understand that
Injuries and
incidentsare not
accepted as a cost of
doing business, but
are,
in fact preventable. A
key
requirement requires:
A. Employees to be
engaged through holi
stic safety systems (c
orrect answer) B. A r
igorous punishment p
olicy for violators C.
A drug testing progra
m equal to DOT requ
irements OSHA 30 C
m (v. 2.0) Page 90of
277 525. Which
of the statements
below is
true? A. Most worker
fatalities occur on the
job B. 9 out of 10
worker deaths occurr
ed off the
job (correct answer)
C. Worker
fatalities occur about
50% at home and
50% on the
job D. None of the ab
ove 526. Coaching
and mentoring: A.
Requires giving posit
ive coaching as neede
d or requested B. Req
uests solicitation of f
eedback C. Both A a
nd B (correct answer)
527. The National
Safety Council
estimates that every
hour: A.
15 people will die du
e to injuries every ho
ur B.
4,440 people will req
uire medical treatmen
t every hour for
injury C. None of the
above D. Both A and
B are correct (correct
answer) 528. In order
to change the safety
culture we need
positive role models,
coaches and
mentors,safe
practices
and: A. OSHA inspec
tions B. Standardized
training requirements
(correct answer) C. S
hortcuts to success
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Final Exam

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OSHA 30 CONSTR

14. The "Fat Cat"

Start Free Trial

52. A confined space

Start Free Trial

D. Both A and B (co

C. IRS and SCOTU

Start Free Trial

124. Flexible cords

B. The particular kin

251. With regards

power cables can

277. Which of the

414. Which of the

A. First aid cases an

A. The local health d

507. One way to

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