Lecture 5
Lecture 5
Theorem 5.1. If P is
• irreducible
• positive recurrent (i.e., iTi < ∞ for some or all states i. See [1, p. 307, (4.7)])
• aperiodic (i.e., g.c.d{n : Pn (i, i) > 0}=1)
then
lim Pn (i, j) = π j for all i, j
n→∞
µi P = µ i
X
i.e., µi ( j)P( j, k) = µi (k)
j
Proof. This proof is based on Exercise 4.6 in [1, p. 306]1 . It uses a duality idea which roughly says “P acting on
left versus right is like reversing time”. (The argument will be given just in the positive recurrent case, but can be
generalized to cover the null-recurrent case too.)
We are considering the equation µ = µP, where µ is a row vector. As we will see presently, it easier to deal with
equations of the form h = Ph, where h is a column vector. Since the row sums of P are one, h ≡ constant solves
h = Ph. In fact, for an irreducible and recurrent P, this is the only possibility as shown below:
1 See [1, p. 305, (4.4)] for another proof.
1
Asymptotic Behaviour of Markov Chains (continued) 2
Claim. For an irreducible and recurrent Markov chain, every non-negative harmonic function is a constant.
Proof of claim: (See also [1, p. 299, Exercise 3.9]) Consider (Xn ), a Markov chain with transition probability matrix
P. It is easy to check that h(Xn ) is a non-negative martingale. Non-negativity implies that this martingale converges
(by Martingale convergence theorem [1, p. 236, (2.11)]). But if ∃ i, j such that h(i) , h( j), then h(X n ) = h(i) i.o. and
h(Xn ) = h( j) i.o.. This is because the chain is irreducible and recurrent and therefore hits all the states infinitely often.
But since h(Xn ) converges, this implies that h(i) = h( j).
Now suppose µ is an invariant probability measure and consider the chain (X 0 , X1 , · · · , Xn ) under Pµ . If we define
µ(y)P(y, x)
P̂(x, y) =
µ(x)
then the reversal (Xn , Xn − 1, · · · , X0 ) is a Markov chain with a homogeneous transition probability matrix P̂. Note that
P̂ is a valid transition probabilty matrix since
P
y µ(y)P(y, x)
X
P̂(x, y) = = 1.
y
µ(x)
Also P̂(x, y) ≥ 0. Note that P̂ is well-defined since P irreducible ⇒ µ(x) > 0 as shown below:
P irreducible ⇒ ∀x, y ∃n : Pn (y, x) > 0. But, µ = µP ⇒ µ = µPn ⇒ µ(x) = y µ(y)Pn (y, x) ≥ µ(y)Pn (y, x). So either µ ≡ 0 or
P
Continuing to suppose that µ is a probability measure we can easily verify that the reversed chain is irreducible and
recurrent. If ν is anotherinvariant measure, let h(y) = ν(y)/µ(y). Then ν = νP is the same as h = P̂h. Since h has to be
constant by earlier discussion, µ is unique up to constant multiples.
Fact. If a Markov chain P is irreducible and it has a stationary probability measure then it is recurrent. Then by
previous discussion the stationary measure is unique.
P∞
Let Ny B n=0 1(Xn =y) be the number of hits on y. Then
∞
X
Eµ (Ny ) = Eu 1(Xn =y)
n=0
∞
X
= Pµ (Xn = y)
n=0
=∞ if µ(y) > 0
But X X
Eµ (Ny ) = µ(x)E x (Ny ) ≤ Ey (Ny ) = Pn (y, y)
x n
where the inequality follows from the fact that µ is a probability measure.
π(x) = 1/E x (T x )
But µ x (y) is the invariant measure with µ x (x) = 1. If π is the invariant probability measure
X
µ x (y) = π(y)/π(x) ⇒ E x T x = π(y)/π(x) = 1/π(x).
y
References
[1] R. Durrett. Probability: theory and examples. Duxbury Press, Belmont, CA, second edition, 1996.