Bacterial Classification, Morphology & Cell Structure

1.Teichoic acids
A- are found in the walls of many gram-positive bacteria
B- make up the outer wall of gram-negative bacteria
C- provide receptors for phages
D- cover receptors for phages
E- influence the permeability of the membrane.
2. The fine filamentous appendages arising from basal bodies in the cytoplasmic
membrane of many gram-negative bacilli are known as
A- flagella
B- pili
C- mesosomes
D- capsules
3. All of the following statements regarding bacterial spores are true EXCEPT
A- they are unusually dehydrated
B- they do not take ordinary stains
C- they are metabolically active
D- they are formed within certain gram-positive cells
E- they are more resistant than vegetative cells
4. The difference between gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria is shown to reside
in the
A- cell wall
B- nucleus
C- lamellae
D- cell membrane
E- mesosomes
5. All of the following statements are true regarding bacterial cell division EXCEPT
A- the cell elongates
B- a transverse cell membrane is formed and subsequently a new cell wall
C- the new transverse membrane and wall grow outward from the outer layers
D- the nuclei double preceding the division
E- the nuclei are distributed equally to the two daughter cells
6. Flagella distributed over the entire cell are known as
A- monotrichous
B- lophotrichous
C- peritrichous
D- amphitrichous
E- none of the above
7. Bacteria that grow at temperatures as high as 50°C to 55°C are known as
A. psychrophiles
B. thermophiles
C. mesophiles
D. cryophiles
E. halophiles
8. The simplest one-step fermentation reaction is
A- alcoholic
B- propionic
C- lactic
D- mixed acid (formic)
E- butylene glycol
9. Most bacteria are
A. psychrophiles
B. mesophiles
C. Cryophiles
D. Thermophiles
E. None of the above
10. Characteristics of a bacterial capsule include:
A- All bacteria have one
B- It is composed of peptidoglycan
C- It is an important mechanism for protecting a bacteria against ingestion by PMs
D- It is what causes the gram stain reaction
11. As a budding basic scientist you work in a research laboratory and discover a
chemical that removes the cell wall from bacteria but leaves the organism undamaged
otherwise. Things that the bacteria will lose because of this include:
A- The ability to stain gram positive: all will look gram negative
B- The ability to move
C- The ability to have a gram stain result
D- The ability to attach to other cells
12. Under the electron microscope you keep at home next to your MP3 player you look
at a single bacterium living in your mouth. You see a single polar flagellum stretching
off from one end looking very much like a tail. A characteristic of this organism should
be:
A. An ability to stay in one place for a very long time
B. An ability to move in the direction opposite the flagellum
C. An ability to avoid ingestion by PMNs
D. An ability to induce a large antibody response
13. Under the electron microscope you keep at home next to your MP3 player you look
at a single bacterium living in your mouth. You see a single polar flagellum stretching
off from one end looking very much like a tail. A characteristic of this organism should
be:
A. An ability to stay in one place for a very long time
B. An ability to move in the direction opposite the flagellum
C. An ability to avoid ingestion by PMNs
D. An ability to induce a large antibody response
14. On the same day the clinical laboratory identifies two strains of the same bacterial
species. One of these strains has pili on the surface; the other does not. In terms of the
clinical status of the two patients it is likely that:
A. The patient with the plated strain is il, the other patient is not
B. The patient with the plicated strain is not il, the other patient is
A. c. Both patients are ill since pili do not correlate with virulence
C. The patient with the piated strain is a child, the other patient is an adult

Review: Mark with true (T) or false (F)

1. Following are organ wise function of bacteria
A- Fimbria for locomotion.
B- Ribosome for protein synthesis.
C- Cell wall for osmotic protection.
D- Mesosome for binary fission
E- Flagella for attachment
Q no. a b c d e
1 F T T T T
2. In gram negative bacteria
A- Outer leaflet of outer membrane is composed of lipopolysaccharide.
B- There is a thin layer of peptidoglycan giving it low tensile strength.
C- Exotoxins are not synthesized
D- Periplasmic space possesses porins and enzymes proteins. c)
E- Spores are not developed
Q no. a b c d e
2 T F T F T
3. Bacterial pili are virulence factor because
A- These helps in colonization at the site of infection
B- Some pili are able to inhabit phagocytic attached.
C- These can interfere with antibiotic action.
D- Special sex pili can transfer antibiotic resistance within bacteria
E- A few bacterial pili show hemolytic action.
 Q no. a b c d e
3 T T F T T
4. Criteria of a prokaryotic cell
A- True nucleus present
B- Contains single circular chromosome
C- Mitotic division occur
D- Membrane bound organelles such as
E- Mitochondria & Lysosome present
Q no. a b c d e
4 F T F F T
5. Following are essential component of a bacterial stricture
A- Cell wall
B- Spore
C- Ribosome
D- Cytoplasmic membrane
E- Plasmid
Q no. a b c d e
5 T F T T F
6. Gram negative bacterial cell wall contain following structure
A- Thick peptidoglycan
B- Periplasmic space
C- Teichoic acid
D- Lipopolysaccharide
E- Cytoplasmic membrane
Q no. a b c d e
6 F T F T T
7. Following are true or false in case of plasmid
A- Extra chromosomal, single stranded DNA molecule
B- Extra chromosomal RNA molecule
C- Responsible for antibiotic resistance
D- May be transmissible & non - transmissible plasmid.
E- Occur in both gram positive & gram-negative bacteria
Q no. a b c d e
7 F F T T T
8. Which statements are true
A- Human is prokaryote
B- Bacteria is prokaryote
C- Fungi are prokaryote
D- Blue green algae is prokaryote
E- Protozoa is eukaryote
 Q no. a b c d e
8 F T F T T
9.Which statements are correct about periplasmic space
A- Is approximately 20 % - 40% of the gram-positive bacterial cell volume
B- It is a gelatinous solution of proteins
C- It contain hydrolytic enzyme which brake down non transportable substrates in to
transportable
D- It contain detoxifying enzymes
E- It play role in osmoregulation
Q no. a b c d e
9 F T T T T
10.Each of the following sentences are appropriate about bacterial spores
A- Highly heat resistance
B- Metabolically inactive
C- Both gram positive and gram-negative bacteria have spores
D- Spores contain DNA so they can multiply
E- Spores can survive for many years in the soil
Q no. a b c d e
10 T T F F T
11. Spores are
A- Highly resistance structure in response to adverse condition
B- Are produced by both gram positive & gram-negative bacteria
C- Are formed when nutrients are depleted
D- Contained bacterial DNA & peptidoglycan
E- Resistance mediated by dipicolinic acid
Q no. a b c d e
11 T F T T T
12.Criteria of a prokaryotic cell
A- True nucleus present
B- Contains single circular chromosome
C- Mitotic division occur
D- Membrane bound organelles
E- Mitochondria & Lysosome present
Q no. a b c d e
12 F T F F T
13.Following are essential component of a bacterial cell
A- Cell wall
B- Spore
C- Ribosome
D- Cytoplasmic membrane
 E- Plasmid
Q no. a b c d e
13 T F T T F
14.Gram negative bacterial cell wall contain following structure
A- Thick peptidoglycan
B- Periplasmic space
C- Teichoic acid
D- Lipopolysaccharide
E- Cytoplasmic membrane
Q no. a b c d e
14 F T F T T
15.Each of the following sentences are appropriate about bacterial spores
A- Highly heat resistance
B- Metabolically inactive
C- Both gram positive and gram-negative bacteria have spores
D- Spores contain DNA so they can multiply
E- Spores can survive for many years in the soil
Q no. a b c d e
15 T T F F T
16.In case of gram-positive bacterial cell wall component
A- Teichoic acid present
B- Lipopolysaccharide present
C- Peptidoglycan layer is thicker
D- Periplasmic space is absence
E- It produces endotoxin
Q no. a b c d e
16 T F T T F
17. The following statement concerning the prokaryotic cell
A- it replicates by mitotic division
B- Mitochondria and lysosomes are present.
C- Cell wall contains peptidoglycan
D- Has a true nucleus.
E- Contains a single chromosome
Q no. a b c d e
17 F F T F T
18. Following are bacterial surface structure
A. Pili
B. Ribosome
C. Flagella
D. Chromosome
 E. Plasmid
Q no. a b c d e
18 T F T F F
19.Cell wall of gram-positive bacteria has
A. Peptidoglycan
B. Periplasmic space
C. Lipopolysaccharide
D. Teichoic acid
E. Porin protein
Q no. a b c d e
19 T F F T F
20. which statements are true for peptidoglycan
A. Provides rid support for a bacterial cell
B. Has a backbone composed of alternating unit of N- acetyl muramic acid N-acetyl
glucosamine &
C. Cross links between the tetra peptide involve O- alanine
D. Also presenting human cells
E. Is thinner in gram positive bacteria than in gram negative bacteria
Q no. a b c d e
20 T T T F F
21.The following non-essential structures of bacterial cell shows antigenic property
A. Capsule
B. Plasmid
C. Flagella
D. Spore
Q no. a b c d e
21 T F T T F
22. which of the following statement are correct for bacterial & human cells
A. Bacteria are prokaryotic
B. Nuclear division occur by binary fission in bacterial cell
C. Bacterial & human sells ribosome are same
D. Lysosome present in human cell & absent in bacterial cell
E. Oxidative phosphorylation occur in mitochondria for energy in both cells
Q no. a b c d e
22 T T F T F
23.Identify wrong statement's about 'L' form
A. Named after Lister institute of London
B. Developed in the presence of penicillin which interfere with the synthesis of cell wall
C. Resemble mycoplasma regarding morphology & type of growth on agar
D. None of the above
 E. All of the above
Q no. a b c d e
23 T T T F T
24.Application of medical microbiology includes
A. Diagnosis.
B. Prognosis
C. Guidance in antibiotic treatment
D. Source of infection
E. All of the above
Q no. a b c d e
24 T T T T T
25. Bacterial spores:
A. are resistant to antibiotics
B. allow the bacteria to multiple in adverse conditions
C. are usually formed by Gram negative bacteria
D. can be identified with Gram stains
E. are killed by temperature of 120° for 20 minutes
Q no. a b c d e
25 T F F F T
26.Prokcarvotic cells
A. has no nuclear membrane
B. possess single circular DNA
C. cytoplasmic membrane contains sterols
D. reproduces by both sexual and asexual method
E. Respiration is via cytoplasmic membrane
Q no. a b c d e
26 T T F F T
27. Prokaryotic nucleoid
A. can be seen with a light microscope.
B. Feulgen positive due to presence of DNA
C. nuclear region is filled with DNA
D. can be isolated by gentle lysis
E. bounded by nuclear membrane
Q no. a b c d e
27 F T T T F
28. Bacterial cell wall has
A. Thin peptidoglycan layer in gram-positive bacteria
B. Periplasmic space in gram-negative bacteria
C. Lps in gram-negative bacteria
D. Outer membrane in gram-positive bacteria
 E. Teichoic acid in gram-negative bacteria
Q no. a b c d e
28 F T T F F
29. Essential bacterial structures include
A. Capsule
B. Endospore
C. Cell membrane
D. Cytoplasm
E. Plasmid
Q no. a b c d e
29 F F T T F
30. Examples of motile bacteria
A. T. pallidum
B. Proteus vulgaris
C. Klebsiella pneumonia
D. B. anthracis
E. Clostridium tetani
Q no. a b c d e
30 T T F F T
31.Statements about spore-bearing organisms
A. they are anaerobic
B. produce very powerful exotoxins
C. may cause food poisoning
D. C. diphtheriae is a prototypical bacterium
E. pseudo membranous colitis as produced by spore bearing bacteria
Q no. a b c d e
31 F T T F T
32. Cell wall inhibitors antimicrobial agents are
A. Erythromycin
B. Streptomycin
C. Cephalosporin
D. Bacitracin
E. Choleramaphenocol
Q no. a b c d e
32 F F T T F
33.Regarding bacterial surface structures
A. Pilli mediate adhesion to mucosal epithelium
B. Glycocalyx is made of protein
C. Both gram-negative cocci and bacilli have LPS in their cell waft
D. Flagella are not antigenic in human
 E. Polysaccharide capsule retards phagocytosis
Q no. a b c d e
33 T F T F T
34. Bacteria spores:
A. are dormant form of bacteria
B. allow the bacteria to multiple in adverse condition
C. are usually formed by Gram-negative bacteria
D. can be identified with Gram stains
E. are killed by temperature of 120° for 20 minutes.
Q no. a b c d e
34 T F F F T

Directions: For each of the questions or incomplete statements below, ONE or MORE of
the answers or completions given is correct. Select A if only 1, 2 and 3 are correct, B if only
1 and 3 are correct, C if only 2 and 4 are correct, D if only 4 is correct, E if all are correct
1. Concerning bacterial capsules
1. bacteria may lose their capsules through mutations
2. loss of capsules through mutations is reflected in altered appearance of the colonies
3. encapsulated bacteria form more or less mucoid colonies
4. bacteria without capsules form relatively dry colonies with a rough surface
2. Regarding the bacterial endospore
1. it is more resistant than vegetative cell V
2. it is surrounded by a single-layer membrane a
3. it is cryptobiotic B
4. inside this membrane is the cortex
3. How may the several layers which surround the bacterial endospores be
distinguished?
1. The innermost layer is the thin spore wall or membrane
2. The thickest layer is the cortex, with clear areas between the layers
3. Outside the cortex is the coat, the most densely stained structure
4. Some spores are further loosely shrouded in a delicate exosporium
4. The cell wall
1. is thinner in gram-positive bacteria than in gram-negative bacteria
2. is thinner in gram-negative bacteria than in gram-positive bacteria
3. makes up about 50% of the dry weight of the cell
4. makes up 20-40% of the dry weight of gram-positive bacteria
5. Cocci may be classified as
1. micrococci if they appear singly and scattered at random
2. diplococci if they tend to occur in pairs 44
3. streptococci if they tend to occur in chains
4. staphylococci if they appear in irregular, grape-like clusters L
6. The bacterial flagellum
1. is more common among the bacilli
2. is not used for locomotion but for obtaining food
3. may be attached at either poles of the cells or may be distributed over the cell surface
4. cannot be antigenically distinguished from that of the cell proper
7. Regarding flagella
1. they have a characteristic amino acid composition
2. they cannot be separated easily from the bacterial cell
3. antibodies to them are specific /
4. their motion is not a hydrodynamic phenomenon
8. The cell wall of bacteria
1. has not been proven to exist
2. may be broken down, or lysed, by lysozyme
3. does not adsorb bacteriophage, but is digested by trypsin
4. consists of peptidoglycans
9. Spore formation
1. occurs only in response to adverse environmental conditions
2. occurs most readily under optimal conditions for growth of vegetative cell o
3. is a method of reproduction because more than one spore may be formed in each cell o
4. cannot be regarded as a method of multiplication L
10. Discrete nuclear bodies in bacteria have been recognized by means of
1. a DNA-specific Feulgen stain
2. selective hydrolysis of the RNA by HCL or RNase followed by staining with a basic
dye
3. electron microscopy
4. gram stain
11. Since bacteria lack discrete structures found in the nuclei of eukaryotic cells, the
nuclear region in bacteria is referred to by some as the
1. nucleus
2. nuclear body
3. karyosome
4. nucleoid
12. Bacterial spores
1. are unusually dehydrated
2. are highly refractile
3. do not take ordinary stains
4. are sensitive to disinfectants
13. Electron microscopic studies of nuclear bodies established the concept of bacteria as
prokaryotic cells lacking which of the following components found in eukaryotic cells?
1. Discrete chromosomes
2. Mitotic apparatus
3. Nucleolus
4. Histones
 Microbial Mechanisms of Pathogenicity
1. The removal of plasmids reduces virulence in which of the following organisms?
A- Clostridium tetani
B- Escherichia coli
C- Salmonella enterica
D- Streptococcus mutans
E- Clostridium botulinum
2. Which of the following is not a portal of entry for pathogens?
A- mucous membranes of the respiratory tract
B- mucous membranes of the gastrointestinal tract
C- skin
D- blood
E- parenteral route
3. All of the following can occur during bacterial infection. Which would prevent all of
the others?
A- vaccination against fimbriae
B- phagocytosis
C- inhibition of phagocytic digestion
D- destruction of adhesins
E- alteration of cytoskeleton
4. The ID50 for Campylobacter sp. is 500 cells, the ID50 for Cryptosporidium. is 100
cells. Which of the following statements is false
A- Both microbes are pathogens.
B- Both microbes produce infections in 50% of the inoculated hosts.
C- Cryptosporidium is more virulent than campylobacter.
D- Campylobacter and Cryptosporidium are equally virulent; they cause infections in the
same number of test animals.
E- Cryptosporidium infections are more severe than Campylobacter infections.
5. An encapsulated bacterium can be virulent because the capsule
A- resists phagocytosis
B- is an endotoxin.
C- destroys host tissues
D- interferes with physiological processes
E- has no effect, because many pathogens do not have capsules, capsules do not
contribute to virulence.
6. A drug that binds to mannose on human cells would prevent
A- the entrance of Vibrio enterotoxin
B- the attachment of pathogenic E.coli
 C- the action of botulinum toxin.
D- streptococcal pneumonia.
E- the action of diphtheria toxin.
7. The earliest smallpox vaccines were infected tissue rubbed into the skin of a healthy
person. The recipient of such a vaccine usually developed a mild case of smallpox,
recovered, and was immune thereafter. What is the most likely reason this vaccine did
not kill more people?
A- Skin is the wrong portal of entry for smallpox.
B- The vaccine consisted of a mild form of the virus.
C- Smallpox is normally transmitted by skin-to-skin contact.
D- Smallpox is a virus.
E- The virus mutated
8. Which of the following does not represent the same mechanism for avoiding host
defenses as the others?
A- Rabies virus attaches to the receptor for the neurotransmitter acetyl choline.
B- Salmonella attaches to the receptor for epidermal growth factor.
C- Epstein-Barr (EB) virus binds to the host receptor for complement.
D- Surface protein genes in Neisseria gonorrhea mutate frequently.
E- none of the above
9. Which of the following statements is true?
A- The primary goal of a pathogen is to kill its host.
B- Evolution selects for the most virulent pathogens.
C- A successful pathogen doesn't kill its host before it is transmitted.
D- A successful pathogen never kills its host.
 Antimicrobials
1. The tetracyclines are identical in their overall mechanism of action to
A- sulfonamides
B- penicillin
C- isoniazid
D- chloramphenicol
E- aminoglycosides
2. Which of the following mechanisms is a genotypic effect of mutation to drug
resistance?
A- Increased destruction of the drug
B- Decreased activation of the drug
C- Formation of an altered receptor
D- Decreased permeability
E- None of the above
3. The sulfones are most useful in the treatment of
A- tuberculosis
B- leprosy
C- gonorrhea
D- meningitis
E- streptococcal infections
4. Aminohydroxybenzoic acids are active against the
A- tubercle bacillus
B- rickettsia
C- polioviruses
D- Salmonella group
E- Treponema group
5. The sulfonamide compounds are relatively ineffective against
A- the plague bacillus
B- the dysentery bacillus
C- the typhoid bacillus
D- Streptococcus
E- Gonococcus
6. The most prolific source of chemotherapeutic antibiotics has been the
A- viruses
B- sporulating bacteria
C- licheniformin
D- higher fungi
E- rickettsia
7. Which of the following antibiotics is prepared from a Bacillus sp.?
A- Penicillin
B- Cycloserine
C- Vancomycin
D- Ristocetin
E- Bacitracin
8. All of the following penicillins have a lower activity against gram-positive bacteria
than penicillin G but are resistant to penicillinase EXCEPT
A- methicillin
B- nafcillin
C- penicillin V
D- oxacillin
E- dicloxacillin
9. Streptomycin
A- is rapidly absorbed after oral administration
B- is ineffective against the tubercle bacillus
C- rarely produces hypersensitivity
D- inhibits cell wall synthesis
E- is effective against gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria
10. The greatest disadvantage of prolonged administration of chloramphenicol is
A- that it causes severe nausea and vomiting
B- its slow and incomplete absorption from the gastrointestinal tract
C- its ineffectiveness when given by mouth
D- that it may cause aplastic anemia
E- its high toxicity
11. All of the following statements are true concerning tetracyclines EXCEPT
A- they are called broad-spectrum antibiotics
B- their antibacterial spectrum overlaps that of penicillin, streptomycin, and
chloramphenicol
C- they inhibit only rapidly multiplying organisms
D- resistance occurs rapidly
E- resistance can be attributed to alterations in cell membrane permeability or enzymatic
inactivation of the drug
12. Tetracyclines include all of the following EXCEPT
A- chloramphenicol
B- chlortetracycline
C- oxytetracycline
D- demethylchlortetracycline
E- none of the above
13. Synergistic effect of antibacterial drug combinations occurs if the activity of
A- Two drugs in combination is significantly greater than that obtained by doubling the
concentration of either alone
B- the combination is greater than that of either drug alone, but less than that obtained by
doubling the concentration of either
C- the combination is not greater than that of either drug alone
D- the combination is less than that obtained with either drug alone
E- none of the above
14. Which of the following is a disadvantage of tetracycline administration?
A- Highly toxic
B- Causes severe nausea
C- Causes severe vomiting
D- Causes enteritis
E- None of the above
15. Isoniazid has had a dramatic effect on
A. leprosy
A- Typhoid fever
B- staphylococcal infections
C- tuberculosis
D- none of the above
16. The mechanism of action of penicillin is its interference with
A- A membrane function
B- cell wall synthesis
C- protein synthesis
D- nucleic acid metabolism
E- intermediary metabolism
17. Penicillin is
A. activated by alcohol
B. unstable in the crystalline form
C. unaffected by the acidity of gastric juice
D. not readily soluble in water
E. very unstable in aqueous solution
18. Polymyxins
A. are characterized by good diffusibility
B. are not significantly toxic
C. C are designated from A to F all of which are currently used in clinical medicine
D. currently used in clinical medicine are B and F only
E. are effective against gram-positive organisms
19. Which of the following antimicrobial drugs Inhibit cell membrane functions?
A- Penicillins
B- Polymyxins
C- Chloramphenicol
D- Sulfonamides
E- None of the above
20. Concerning erythromycin
A. they are obtained from. Streptomyces Venezuela
B. they inhibit gram-positive organisms
C. they do not cause undesirable side effects
D. resistant mutants do not emerge
E. they are obtained from Streptomyces orientalis
21. Amphotericin B
A. is not produced by a Streptomyces species
B. appears to be the most effective agent for some of the systemic fungi
C. do not produce toxic effects
D. is given orally
E. None of the above
22. Bacitracin is a polypeptide obtained from a strain of
A. Bacillus polymyxa
B. Bacillus subtilis
C. Bacillus brevis
D. Bacillus cereus
E. Bacillus circulans
23. All of the following statements refer to bacitracin EXCEPT
A. it is mainly active against gram-negative bacteria
B. its best use is for topical application
C. it has no place in systemic therapy
D. it is toxic for the kidney
E. it is mainly bactericidal for gram-positive bacteria
24. Griseofulvin
A. is obtained from Streptomyces species
B. is effective against bacteria
C. suppresses dermatophytes
D. If effective against systemic fungi
E. Is given topically
25. All of the following statements regarding vancomycin are true EXCEPT
A. it is an antibiotic of low molecular weight
 B. it is derived from streptomyces orientalis
C. it is poorly absorbed by the intestine.
D. its primary use has been in the treatment of infections due to drug-resistant
staphylococci
E. drug-resistant strains do not emerge rapidly
26. All of the following statements regarding isoniazid are true EXCEPT
A. it is most effective against mycobacteria, especially M. tuberculosis
B. it is best employed in combination with other antimycobacterial agents
C. it is rapidly and completely absorbed from GIT
D. it freely diffuses into tissue fluids
E. it is effective against most bacteria
27. The tetracyclines
A. are effective only against gram-positive organisms
B. are derived from chloramphenicol
C. have dissimilar molecular structures
D. are called broad spectrum antibiotics
E. have dissimilar therapeutic range
Directions: For each of the questions or incomplete statements below, ONE or MORE of
the answers or completions given is correct. Select A if only 1, 2 and 3 are correct, B if only
1 and 3 are correct, C if only 2 and 4 are correct, D if only 4 is correct, E if all are correct
28. Factors affecting antimicrobial activity in vitro are
1. pH of environment
2. components of medium
3. size of inoculum
4. stability of drug
29. Concerning penicillin G
1. it has a limited antimicrobial spectrum
2. it is destroyed by acid
3. it is destroyed by penicillinase
4. it elicits allergic responses
30. Which of the following drugs are believed to act, at least in part, through inhibition
of protein biosynthesis?
1. Chloramphenicol
2. Puromycin
3. Streptomycin
4. Tetracyclines
31. Antibacterial agents may affect cells by
1. protein denaturation
 2. disruption of cell membrane or wall
3. removal of free sulfhydryl groups
4. chemical antagonism
32. Microorganisms might exhibit resistance to drugs by which of the following
mechanisms?
1. Microorganisms produce enzymes that destroy the active drug
2. Microorganisms change their permeability to the drug
3. Microorganisms develop an altered structural target for the drug
4. Microorganisms develop an altered metabolic pathway that bypasses the reaction
inhibited by the drug
33. Bacteria can become resistant to drugs by which of the following mechanisms?
1. Mutation
2. Recombination
3. Acquisition of plasmid carrying drug-resistance genes
4. Sensitization
Mark with true (T) or false (F)
44. The following drugs act by inhibiting cell wall synthesis of the microorganisms:
a. vancomycin
b. gentamicin
c. cefuroxime
d. amphotericin
e. erythromycin
Answer: a. T b. F c. T d. F e. F
45. Antibiotic resistance in bacteria occurs through:
a. mutation
b. conjugation
c. phagocytosis
d. plasmid transfer
e. spore formation
Answer: a. T b. T c. F d. T e. F
46. With regard to antibiotics:
a. vancomycin and penicillin inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis through the same
mechanisms.
b. vancomycin is poorly absorbed from the gut
c. metronidazole crosses the blood-brain barrier readily
d. sulphonamides crosses the blood-brain barrier readily
e. chloramphenicol is active against Pseudomonas bacteria
Answer. a. F b. T c. T d.T e. F
47. Prophylactic antibiotic is recommended in patient with cardiac murmur
undergoing:
a. orbital floor fracture repair
b. dacryocystorhinostomy
c. trabeculectomy
d. cataract extraction
e. pterygium excision
Answer: a. T b. T c. F d. F e. F
48. Antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis include:
a. cefuroxime
b. erythromycin
c. vancomycin
d. sulphonamides
e. benzylpenicillin
Answer: a. T b. F c. T d. F e. T
50. Aminoglycoside:
a. are active against streptococcus
b. acts on the bacterial cell wall
c. are useful against anaerobes
d. should not be used in patients with renal failure
e. damages the cochlear nerve
Answer: a. T b. F c. F d.T e. T
 Disinfection & Sterilization
1. Concerning antiseptics and disinfectants
A- they are the same
B- they destroy all bacteria
C- both are used for living tissue
D- both are highly toxic to living tissue
E- antiseptics are bacteriostatic or bactericidal; disinfectants are bactericidal
2. Strong mineral acids and alkalis
A- have an antiseptic effect
B- have a disinfectant effect
C- have no relationship to their dissociation in solution
D- are both contained in Lysol
E- none of the above
3. The quaternary ammonium compounds
A- have not been synthesized
B- are effective only against gram-negative bacteria
C- are effective only against gram-positive bacteria
D- are equally effective against gram-positive and gram- negative bacteria
E- are nonionic compounds
4. Oxidizing agents in the form of chloramines
A- do not show disinfectant properties
B- show weak disinfectant properties
C- are only bacteriostatic
D- are represented by chloramine-T and dichloramine-T
E- have not been of value in the disinfection of deep wounds
5 . The most reliable method of sterilization is
A- freezing
B- heat
C- x-irradiation
D- sonic vibrations
E- filtration
6. The most effective method of sterilization by heat is
A- hot air
B- boiling
C- live steam
D- steam under pressure
E- pasteurization
7. Which of the following bacterial fillers is made of diatomaceous earth?
A- Seitz
B- Berkefeld
C- Selas
D- Chamberland
E- None of the above
8. All of the following are regarded as effective disinfectants EXCEPT
A- phenol
B- iodine
C- soap
D- quaternary ammonium compound
E- alcohol
9 . The phenol coefficient
A- refers to the solubility of phenol in water
B- refers to the anesthetic properties of phenol
C- is a method of comparing various bacteria
D- is a standardized method of comparing the efficiency of a given disinfectant to that of
phenol
E- is stable for a disinfectant despite the type of bacteria
10 . Hexachlorophene is a(an)
A- phenol derivative
B- mercuric compound
C- detergent
D- ineffective commercial product
E- none of the above
11. Which of the following is a highly effective alkylating agent?
A- Ethyl alcohol
B- Diethyl ether
C- Ethylene oxide
D- Carbon monoxide
E- Methyl alcohol
12. The LEAST important factor influencing disinfection is the
A- concentration of the disinfectant
B- presence of extraneous organic matter
C- temperature
D- presence of salts
E- pH
Directions: For each of the questions or incomplete statements below, ONE or MORE of
the answers or completions given is correct. Select A if only 1, 2 and 3 are correct, B if only
1 and 3 are correct, C if only 2 and 4 are correct, D if only 4 is correct, E if all are correct
13. Alkylating agents used as antibacterial agents include
1. formaldehyde
2. phenol
3. ethylene oxide
4. hydrogen peroxide
14. The chemical mutagens fall into which of the following groups?
1. Base analogs
2. Deaminating agents
3. Alkylating agents
4. Acridine derivatives
15. Electron microscopic studies of nuclear bodies established the concept of bacteria as
prokaryotic cells lacking which of the following components found in eukaryotic cells?
1. Discrete chromosomes
2. Mitotic apparatus
3. Nucleolus
4. Histones
16. Bacteria in food can be controlled by certain preservative measures such as
1. irradiation (UV)
2. low temperature
3. heat
4. salt
17. Pasteurization of milk may be carried out at
1. 37°C for 30 minutes
2. 62°C for 30 minutes
3. 65°C for 3-5 seconds
4. 74°C for 3-5 seconds
Directions: True of False
18. The following are true about disinfectants that can be used effectively for skin:
A- glutaraldehyde
B- chlorhexidine
C- ethyl alcohol with povidone-iodine
D- ethylene oxide
E- chloramphenicol drops
Answer: a. F b. T c. T d. F e. F
19. Options for sterilization include:
A- ethylene oxide
B- gamma irradiation
C- 160° C dry heat for 30 minutes
D- low temperature steam of 73° C for 20 minutes
E- high temperature steam of 134° C for 3 minutes
Answer: a. T b. T c. F d. T e. T
 Immunology
1. The predominant antibody for a secondary immune response is
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgE
E. IgD
2. Which of the following immunocompetent cells is concerned with cell mediated
immunity (T) and humoral immunity (B)?
A. Monocytes
B. Neutrophils
C. Eosinophils
D. Lymphocytes
E. Basophils
3. Anamnestic reaction refers to
A. Gradually rising antibody titers
B. True immunologic paralysis
C. A prompt, higher synthesis of antibody following subsequent encounter with the same
antigen
D. The lag period in antibody production following a single primary injection of antigen
E. Shorter persistence of antibody synthesis
4. The reaction that occurs when antibody and soluble antigen are mixed is
demonstrated by the
A. Agglutination test
B. Precipitin test
C. Adsorption test
D. Complement fixation test
E. Hemagglutination test
5. In the complement fixation test
A. Amount of complement isn’t important
B. Sensitized red cells are added to determine the presence of absence of fixation of
complement
C. Nature of antigen is important
D. Serum cholesterol isn’t necessary
E. The use of a control specimen isn’t necessary
6. The coomb’s test
A. Is of little clinical significance
B. Is performed by immunizing a rabbit with human gamma globulin
C. Utilized serum of rabbits immunized with red cells of rhesus monkeys
D. Is useful in demonstrating non agglutinating antibody in certain hemolytic diseases
E. Is a test for a direct reacting bilirubin
7. In comparison with the primary antibody response, the secondary response is
characterized by
 A. Higher threshold dose of immunogen
B. Longer lag phase
C. Longer persistence of antibody synthesis
D. Lower antibody titer
E. Lower rate of antibody synthesis
8. A unique class of antibody involved in immediate type hypersensitivity in man is
A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgG
D. IgE
E. IgD
9. Anaphylaxis is
A. The most rapid hypersensitivity reaction of the immediate type
B. Always systemic
C. Characterized by an explosive response occurring within hours of the challenging dose
D. Always localized (cutaneous)
E. None of the above
10.Of the many components of complement, the level of which of the following
components is tenfold greater than any other component
A. C1
B. C2
C. C3
D. C4
E. C5
11.Peripheral portions of the lobule (cortex) of the thymus are heavily infiltrated with
A. Neutrophils
B. Basophils
C. Eosinophils
D. Lymphocytes
E. Monocytes
12.Which of the following classes of immunoglobulin is often referred to as reaginic
antibody?
A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgG
D. IgE
E. IgD
13.The secondary manifestations of hyperactivity of cellular immunity (delayed
hypersensitivity) include all of the following EXCEPT
A. Graft rejection
B. Certain autoimmune diseases
C. Contract hypersensitivity
D. Tumor rejection
E. Arthus reaction
14.The secondary manifestations of the antigen antibody reaction include all of the
following EXCEPT
A. Agglutination
B. Precipitation
C. Neutralization
D. Complement dependent reactions
E. Immunofluorescence
15.When peritoneal exudates cells from sensitized animals are put into a capillary tube,
the macrophages that normally migrate peripherally from the end of the tube are
inhibited in the presence of the sensitizing antigen. This phenomenon is
A. Due to mitogenic factor
B. Species-specific
C. Due to the migration inhibitory factor (MIF)
D. Due to specific antibody
E. Due to antigen-antibody complex
16.Of the following substances, the establishment of tolerance is more difficult with
A. Proteins
B. Polysaccharides
C. Synthetic polypeptide
D. Particular antigens
E. Haptenic groups
17.Contact dermatitis is usually caused by all of the following EXCEPT
A. Plants (poison ivy)
B. Cosmetics
C. Detergents
D. Metals
E. Infectious agents
18.Following the invitro interaction of the sensitized lymphocyte with its specific
antigen, a substance is released which has the capacity to transfer delayed
hypersensitivity to another nonreactive individual this is referred to as
A. Migrations inhibitory effect
B. Transfer factor
C. Mitogenic factor
D. Skin-reactive factor
E. None of the above
19.An antigen detected in the area of patients with hepatitis known as hepatitis B
surface antigen was originally termed
A. HL-A antigen
B. Australia (AU/SH) antigen
C. Platelet (PI) antigen
D. Neutrophil (NA) antigen
E. None of the above
20.Which of the following is true concerning IgM?
A. It is reaginic antibody
 B. It is important in the first few days of the primary immune response
C. It peaks after IgG has reached its peak
D. It is the smallest of the immunoglobulin molecules
E. None of the above
21.Which of the following types of sensitivity takes at least three to four hours to reach
a maximum sensitivity reactions with punctuate hemorrhages?
A. Prausnitz-Kustner (PK)
B. Acute anaphylaxis
C. Passive cutaneous anaphylaxis
D. Arthus sensitivity
E. None of the above
22.Which of the following antibodies participate in specific immunity to respiratory
viral diseases?
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgE
E. IgD
23.Which class of antibodies is primarily stimulated in the case of highly productive
acute types of bacterial infection?
A. IgM
B. IgG
C. IgA
D. IgD
E. None of the above
24.When IgG is split by papain the result is
A. Two monovalent fractions with antibody activity (Fab)
B. Two fractions devoid of antibody activity
C. Fab pieces that contain all the variable (V) sections of only H chain
D. Fab pieces that contain all the variable (V) sections of only L chain
E. None of the above
25.Which of the following subgroups of IgG is fairly variable from person to person?
A. IgG1
B. IgG2
C. IgG3
D. IgG4
E. None of the above
26.Reaginic antibodies
A. Can pass the placenta
B. Can passively sensitize the human skin
C. Can fix complement
D. Play no role in defense against infection
E. Play a minor role in allergy
27.In mammals, the definitive structure with equivalent function of the bursa of
Fabricius is
A. Bone marrow
B. The appendix
C. The tonsils
D. The lymph nodes
E. None of the above
28.Which of the following human immunoglobulins has the slowest rate of
degradation?
A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgG
D. IgD
E. IgE
29.All of the following test for T-cell functions EXCEPT
A. Skin test for delayed type hypersensitivity
B. Lymphocyte transformation by incubation with mitogens
C. Release of macrophage-inhibition factor (MIF) by incubation of lymphocytes with
respective antigen
D. Serum Ig levels
E. Lymphocyte transformation induced by incubation with allogeneic lymphocytes
30.Neonatally thymectomized mice have
A. Increased number of blood lymphocytes
B. Depleted T cell areas in lymph nodes and spleen
C. Increased ability to reject allografts
D. Large amount of antibody produced in response to many antigens
E. Large amount of antibody of the IgG class
31.In the double diffusion precipitin reaction, if solutions of A and B antigens are
placed in two adjacent wells and the corresponding antisera anti-A and anti-B are
placed in the center well, the two precipitin bands form independently of each other
and cross. This pattern
A. reaction of identity.
B. reaction of nonidentity
C. reaction of partial identity
D. a cross-reaction
E. none of the above
32.All of the following concerning IgM are true EXCEPT
A- its molecular weight is about 900,000
B- it is split by papain at 37°C into a variety of heterogenous fragments
C- it loses its agglutinating activity after reduction with 2-mercaptoethanol
D- it is almost always formed early in immune response
E- it is formed at very high levels
33.The principal immunoglobulin in exocrine secretions (e.g., milk, saliva, tears)
A. IgG
 B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgE
E. IgD
34.Passive transfer of delayed hypersensitivity in man is mediated by
A- interferon
B- skin reactor factor
C- lymphotoxin
D- Transfer factor
E- Lymphocyte chemotactin
35.Bulky immune complexes that fix complement and attract polymorphonuclear
leukocytes that eventually cause tissue damage are indicative of
A. Delayed hypersensitivity
B. Anaphylaxis
C. Arthus reaction
D. Cutaneous anaphylaxis
E. None of the above
36.All of the following are general characteristics of cross-reactions EXCEPT
A. An antiserum precipitates more copiously with its immunogen than with cross-
reacting antigens
B. The mutual cross reactions between a pair of antigens are usually not quantitively
equivalent
C. Cross-reacting ligands tend to be bound more strongly by antibodies with high affinity
than by those with low affinity for the homogenous ligand
D. Cross-reacting ligands tend to be bound more strongly by antibodies with low affinity
for the homogenous ligand
E. Different antisera to a given immunogen may vary in their cross-reactions with diverse
heterologous antigens
37.If a solution of pure antigen (A) is placed in two adjacent wells and the homologous
antibody(Anti-A) is placed in the center well, the two precipitin bands join at their
contiguous ends and fuse. This pattern is known as
A. Reaction of identity
B. reaction of nonidentity
C. reaction of partial identity
D. a cross-reaction
E. none of the above
38.Of the following methods used as routine assays for measuring antibody activity, the
most sensitive method is the
A. Bacterial agglutination
B. Passive hemagglutination
C. Precipitin reactions in liquid media
D. Precipitin reactions in agar gel
E. Complement fixation
39.In most hyperimmune individuals, what percentage of the immunoglobulins is IgG?
 A. 10%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%
E. Over 85%
40.The allergy-mediating antibodies in man represent a special class of
immunoglobulins called
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgE
E. IgD
41.The molecular weight of IgG immunoglobulin is
A. Close to 10,000
B. Close to 50,000
C. Close to 150,000
D. Unknown
E. None of the above
42.The complement system consists of group of which of the following number of
proteins that normally exist in serum
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 11
E. More than 15
43.in general, after the injection of immunogen, IgM anti-bodies are usually detectable
A. Within the first week
B. After 2 to 3 weeks
C. After 3 to 4 weeks
D. After 1 month
E. None of the above
44.The clonal selection theory of antibody formation was proposed by
A. Ehrlich
B. Haurowitz
C. Mudd
D. Burnet
E. Taliaferro
45.All of the following are true with respect to IgM antibodies EXCEPT which one
A. they fix complement
B. they occur on the surface of lymphocytes
C. they predominate in the primary response to antigen
D. they are glycoproteins
E. they mediate allergic reaction
46.One principal function of complement is to
A- inactivate perforins
B- Mediate the release of histamine
C- Bind antibodies attached to cell surfaces and to lyse these cells
D- phagocytize antigens
E- cross link allergens
47.Which of the following immunoglobulins is present normally in plasma at the
highest concentration?
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgD
E. IgE
48.The immunoglobulin Joining chain (J-chain) is
A. only produced by T-Cells
B. only produced by neutrophils
C. associated with only multimeric forms of lgM and IgA
D. associated with IgE for histamine release
E. only produced by mast cells
49.The immunoglobulin class which is the least abundant in the normal adult is
A. IgG
B. IgA
C. IgM
D. IgD
E. IgE.
50.Each of the following is a characteristic of antibodies, EXCEPT which one?
A. they are proteins with variable and constant regions
B. they contain carbohydrates
C. they are only secreted by T-cells
D. they can combine very specifically with antigen
E. they are structurally organized in globular domains
51.Antibodies are
A- Immunoglobulins
B- composed of variable and constant region domains
C- made of heavy and light chains
D- Glycoproteins
E- All of the above
52.Which immunoglobulin is the principal one found in secretions such as milk?
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgD
E. IgE
53.Which of the following statements best characterizes an antibody?
A. An antibody contains high molecular weight RNA as its basic structure.
 B. An antibody is composed of protein and cannot be distinguished from the albumin
fraction of the serum proteins.
C. An antibody is composed of four identical protein subunits which may be caused to
dissociate by treatment with urea.
D. An antibody contains protein as its major chemical component and its synthesis may
be elicited by the administration of a foreign protein or polysaccharide.
E. An antibody contains mucopolysaccharides as its major chemical component and the
synthesis of these may be elicited by the administration of a foreign protein or
polysaccharide.
54.The class of an immunoglobulin
A. is determined by Class I and Class II major histocompatibility complex proteins
B. is determined by the carbohydrate attached to the light chain is
C. determined by the antigen
D. is determined by the heavy chain type
E. Is determined by the J-chain
55.Complement component C3 is cleaved by:
A. C3b
B. C3bBb
C. Factor B
D. Factor D
E. Factor H

56.The membrane attack complex in the complement pathway consists of:

A. C3b3b,Bb
B. C5b,6,7,8,9
C. Colicins
D. OH.
E. Properdin

57.Complement component C3b:

A. directly injures bacteria.
B. is an anaphylatoxin.
C. is chemotactic.
D. is the inactive form of C3.
E. opsonizes bacteria.
58.A complement component that is strongly chemotactic for neutrophils is:
A. C3
B. C3b
C. C5a
D. C5b
E. C9
59.The initial complement component that is bound by complement-fixing antibodies
is:
A. C1q
B. C1s
 C. C3b
D. C5a
E. C9
60. Several of the complement components are:
A. Antibodies
B. Cytokines
C. Enzymes
D. Glycolipids
E. Hormones
61.The classical and alternative pathways meet at complement component:
A. C3
B. C4
C. C4b
D. C5
E. Factor D
62.One principal function of complement is to:
A. bind antibodies attached to cell surfaces and to lyse these cells
B. cross-link allergens
C. inactivate perforins
D. mediate the release of histamine
E. phagocytize antigens
63.The major role of the complement system is to work in conjunction with
A. antibodies to lyse cells via the C8 and C9 components
B. antibodies to lyse cells via the perforin molecules
C. antibodies to opsonize cells
D. the major histocompatibility complex for cell recognition
E. the T-cell receptor for production of lymphokines
64.Complement fixation:
A. can be modified by the cholera toxin
B. has intrinsic guanylate cyclase activity
C. can be desensitized by phosphorylation
D. is an effector function of IgG and IgM following antigen binding

65. Specific immunity can be acquired either naturally or artificially and involves
A) all of the below.
B) antibodies.
C) antigens.
D) the classical complement pathway.

66.Which DOES NOT provide long-term immunity?

A) Artificially acquired active immunity
B) Artificially acquired passive immunity
C) Naturally acquired active immunity
D) None of the above

67.An epitope is
A) a B-cell.
B) a hapten.
 C) an antibody.
D) the antigen determinant site.

68.An immunoglobulin is a
A) carbohydrate.
B) fatty acid.
C) glycoprotein.
D) protein.

69.Isotypes refers to variations in the:

A) heavy chain constant region.
B) heavy chain variable region.
C) light chain constant region.
D) light chain variable region.

70.The Fc region mediates all of the below EXCEPT binding to

A) antigen.
B) lysosomes.
C) some phagocytic cells.
D) various cells of the immune system.

71.Which of the following is the major immunoglobulin in human serum, accounting

for 80% of the immunoglobulin pool?
A) IgA
B) IgD
C) IgG
D) IgM

72.Which immunoglobulin is the least prevalent?

A) IgA
B) IgD
C) IgE
D) IgM

73.Which of the following is useful to STIMULATE antibody production?

A) An adjuvant
B) A hapten
C) Antiserum
D) Purified antigen
E) Crude antigen

74.Compared to the secondary antibody response, the primary response

A) attains a higher IgG titer.
B) has a longer lag phase.
C) persists for a longer plateau period.
D) produces antibodies with a higher affinity for the antigen.

75.All of the following are true concerning IgM antibodies EXCEPT which one
 A.they are glycoprotein
B.they fix complement
C.they mediate allergic reaction
D.they occur on the surface of lymphocytes
E.they predominate in the primary response to antigen
76.All of the following are true concerning IgE molecules, EXCEPT which one?
A. They are involved in mediating anti-parasitic immune responses.
B. They are the least abundant immunoglobulin in the serum.
C. They are the principal immunoglobulin class involved in allergic reactions.
D. They can affect the release of histamine and other chemical mediators.
E. They will cross the placenta and fix the complement.
77.Which immunoglobulins are generally present in plasma at the highest
concentration?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgG
E. IgM
78.All of the following are true about antibodies, EXCEPT which one?
A. They are glycoproteins.
B. They are molecules with a single, defined amino acid sequence.
C. They fix complement.
D. They occur on the surface of B-lymphocyte
E. They predominate the primary immune response to antigen.
79.The major immunoglobulin family to which a particular immunoglobulin belongs
can be determined by sequential analysis of the 110 amino acids beginning from the
A. Amino terminus of the heavy chain.
B. Amino terminus of the light chain.
C. Carboxy terminus of the heavy chain.
D. Carboxy terminus of the light chain.
E. None of the above
80.The immunoglobulin Joining chain (J-chain) is
A. only produced by T-Cells
B. only produced by neutrophils
C. associated with only multimeric forms of IgM and IgA
D. associated with IgE for histamine release
E. only produced by mast cells
81.All of the following are true EXCEPT
A. an antigenic determinant is a paratope
B. An epitope is a small portion of a macromolecule
C. An IgG antibody is bivalent
D. The class of immunoglobulin is determined by its heavy chain
E. the variable region domains contain the antigen recognition site
82.Which immunoglobulin is the principal one found in secretions such as milk?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
 D. IgG
E. IgM
83.Which of the following statements best characterizes an antibody?
A. An antibody contains high molecular weight RNA as its basic structure.
B. An antibody is composed of protein and cannot be distinguished from the albumin
fraction of the serum proteins.
C. An antibody is composed of four identical protein subunits, which may be caused to
dissociate by treatment with urea.
D. An antibody contains protein as its major chemical component, and its synthesis may
be elicited by administering a foreign protein or polysaccharide.
E. An antibody contains mucopolysaccharides as its major chemical component, and
the synthesis of these may be elicited by administering a foreign protein or
polysaccharide.
84.The class of an immunoglobulin
A. is determined by Class I and Class II major histocompatibility complex proteins
B. is determined by the carbohydrate attached to the light chain is
C. determined by the antigen
D. is determined by the heavy chain type
E. Is determined by the J-chain

85. Which of the following antibody is an important host defense against encapsulated
bacteria?
a. IgG1
b. IgG2
c. IgG3
d. IgG4

86. Which of the following immunoglobulin is the most abundant immunoglobulin in

newborns?
a. IgA
b. IgM
c. IgG
d. IgD

87. Which of the following immunoglobulin is produced early in the primary response
to infection?
a. IgE
b. IgA
c. IgG
d. IgM

88. Which of the following immunoglobulin is the primary host defense against
parasitic infections?
a. Secretory IgA
b. IgG
c. IgM
d. IgE
89. Which of the following immunoglobulin has the highest avidity of the
immunoglobulins?
a. IgA
b. IgM
c. IgE
d. IgG

90. The order of percent of total immunoglobulin in serum is

a. IgM, IgA, IgG, IgD, IgE
b. IgG, IgA, IgM, IgE, IgD
c. IgG, IgA, IgM, IgE, IgD
d. IgG, IgA, IgM, IgD, IgE

91. Which of the following antibody is a prominent antigen receptor expressed on B

Cells?
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgE

92. The antibody which is found in secretions is:

a. IgD
b. IgE
c. IgG
d. IgA

93. Which of the following antibodies directly participate in the opsonization process?
a. IgM
b. IgG
c. IgA
d. IgE

94. Complement fixation is one of the most crucial host defenses against infections. The
complement is activated by;
a. IgM Only
b. IgG only
c. both IgM and IgG
d. all five classes of antibodies activate complements.

95. Which type of antibody is MOST effective in activating complement?

A) IgG1
B) IgG2
C) IgG3
D) IgM