Indian Institute of Information Technology,

Design and Manufacturing Kancheepuram

MA1002 Linear Algebra
Solution Manual
Date : 04/10/2023 Quiz 2
Time : 09.30–10.30 Marks : 20

1. Let V be a vector space which is spanned by a finite set of vectors

β1 , β2 , . . . , βm . Then prove that any linearly independent set of vectors
in V is finite and contains no more than m elements. [4]
Proof: We have

V = span {β1 , β2 , . . . , βm } − − − −(i)

It is enough to prove that if {α1 , α2 , . . . , αn } ⊆ V is an arbitrary L.I. set, then

n ≤ m. We prove by method of contradiction. Assume that m < n.
By (i), α1 = A11 β1 + A21 β2 + . . . + Am1 βm α2 = A12 β1 + A22 β2 + . . . + Am2 βm
Xm
αj = A1j β1 + A2j β2 + . . . + Amj βm = Aij βi , j = 1, 2, . . . , n [1]
i=1
Consider the homogeneous system

x1 α1 + x2 α2 + . . . + xn αn = 0 − − − − − −(ii)
n n m
! m n
!
X X X X X
=⇒ xj αj = 0 =⇒ xj Aij βi = 0 =⇒ Aij xj βi = 0 [1]
j=1 j=1 i=1 i=1 j=1
n
X
Consider Aij xj = 0, i = 1, 2, . . . , m − − − −(iii)
j=1
The system (iii) is a homogeneous linear system with m equations and n variables.
Since m < n, the system (iii) has a non-trivial solution say x∗1 , x∗2 , . . . , x∗n (at least
n
X
∗
one xj 6= 0) such that Aij x∗j = 0, i = 1, 2, . . . , m − − − (iv) [1]
j=1
 m n
!
X X
x∗1 α1 + x∗2 α2 + . . . + x∗n αn = Aij x∗j βi (see (ii))
i=1 j=1
m
X
x∗1 α1 + x∗2 α2 + . . . + x∗n αn = (0) βi = 0 (see (iv))
i=1

Hence
x1 α1 + x2 α2 + . . . + xn αn = 0 − − − − − −(ii)
has a non-trivial solution x∗1 , x∗2 , . . . , x∗n (at least one x∗j 6= 0). A contradiction
to the assumption that {α1 , α2 , . . . , αn } is a L.I. set. Therefore, n ≤ m. This
completes the proof. [1]
2. Let F2 = {0, 1} be the field under congruence modulo two and let T =
{(x1 , x2 , x3 ) : xi = 0 or 1 for i = 1, 2, 3}. How many subsets of T are bases
for F2 3 over the field F2 ? Justify your answer. [3]
Solution : The equivalent problem is to find all 3 × 3 matrices which are row-
equivalent to I, using following columns. [1]

0 1 0 0 1 1 0 1
! ! ! ! ! ! ! !
0 , 0 , 1 , 0 , 1 , 0 , 1 , 1
0 0 0 1 0 1 1 1

0
!
Step 1: Let us find choices for the first column,say C1 . Only 0 is not a possible
0
option. So there are 23 − 20 = 7 choices are available.
Step 2: Let us find possible number of choices for the !second column, say C2 . Only
0
αC1 is not available where α ∈ {0, 1}. So C1 and 0 are not available. So there
0
3 1
are 2 − 2 = 6 choices are available for C2 .
Step 3 : Let us find possible number of choices for third column, say C3 . Note that
C3 is not αC1 + βC2 where α, β ∈ {0, 1}. So 0C1 + 0C2 , C1 + 0C2 , 0C1 + C2 , C1 + C2
are not possible options and in addition these options are distinct. So there are
23 − 22 = 4 choices are available for C3 . [1]
 No. of ordered bases of R3 over F2 using elements in T = No. of 3 × 3 matrices
using above columns which are row equivalent to I = 7 × 6 × 4

No. of bases of R3 over F2 using elements in T = 7×6×4

3!
= 28 [1]
3 3
Correction : Instead of F2 , we used R in the question paper. Any
logical attempt will get full marks
3. Let Mc = {(x, y) ∈ R2 : y = cx}. Prove or disprove that if W is a proper
(non-trivial) subspace of R2 over the field R, then W = Mc for some c ∈ R
or W = {(0, y) : y ∈ R}. [2]

Note that dim R2 = 2. Let W be a non-trivial subspec of R2 . Thus dim W = 1.

So W is the span of a single non-zero vector in R2 . [1]
=⇒ W = span {(x0 , y0 ) : (x0 , y0 ) 6= (0, 0)} = {(ax0 , ay0 ) : a ∈ R}
Case 1 : x0 = 0. So y0 6= 0 and thus W = {(0, y) : y ∈ R}
Case 2 : x0 6= 0. Let (x, y) ∈ W. =⇒ x = ax0 , y = ay0 for some a ∈ R and thus
y
x
= xy00 = c(say). W = {(x, y) : y = cx} = Wc [1]

4. Let W1 and W2 be subspaces of a vector space V such that W1 + W2 = V

and W1 ∩ W2 = {0}. Prove that for each vector α in V there exist unique
vectors α1 in W1 and α2 in W2 such that α = α1 + α2 . Give an example of
such V , W1 and W2 . Justify your answer. [3]
α ∈ V = W1 + W2 =⇒ α = α1 + α2 where αi ∈ Wi . To prove the uniqueness, we
assume that there exist βi ∈ Wi such that α = β1 + β2 . =⇒ α1 − β1 = β2 − α2 .
Clearly, α1 − β1 , β2 − α2 ∈ W1 ∩ W2 = {0}. =⇒ α1 = β1 , α2 = β2 [1]
W1 = {(x, 0) ∈ R2 : x ∈ R}, W2 = {(0, y) ∈ R2 : y ∈ R}. Note that W1 and W2
are subspace of R2 , W1 ∩ W2 = {0} and W1 + W2 = R2 [2]
5. Prove that the set S of all 2 × 2 real symmetric matrices with trace zero
is a subspace of R2×2 . Find a basis of S. (Hint : A matrix A = [aij ]n×n is
symmetric if aij = aji and trace of A = a11 + a22 + . . . + ann ) . [4]
    
a b 0 0
Note that S = : a, b ∈ R and ∈ S 6= φ [1]
b −a 0 0
     
a b x y ca + x cb + y
Note that c + = ∈ S and thus S is a
b −a y −x cb + y −(ca + x)
subspace of R2×2 [1]
        
1 0 0 1 1 0 0 1
S = span of , and , is L.I. [2]
0 −1 1 0 0 −1 1 0

6. Let W = {(1, −1, 2), (0, 5, −8), (3, 2, −2), (8, 2, 0)}. Find a basis B of span W
such that B ⊆ W . Justify your answer. [4]

1 −1 2 1 −1 2
   
0 5 −8 0 1 − 85 
A= ∼ =C
3 2 −2 0 0 0 
8 2 0 0 0 0

Hint : R3 ←− R3 − 3R1 − R2 , R4 ←− R4 − 4R1 − 2R2 , R2 ←− 51 R2 [2]

Note that span W = row space of A = row space of C =
span of {(1, −1, 2), (0, 1, − 85 )} [1]
So span of W = span of {(1, −1, 2), (0, 5, −8)} and {(1, −1, 2), (0, 5, −8)} is a L.I.
set. Thus B = {(1, −1, 2), (0, 5, −8)} ⊆ W is a basis for span W [1]