Stern, R., 2022. Explaining Synthetic A Priori Knowledge
Stern, R., 2022. Explaining Synthetic A Priori Knowledge
transcendental idealism?.
Article:
Stern, R. orcid.org/0000-0003-2967-647X (2022) Explaining synthetic a priori knowledge :
the Achilles’ heel of transcendental idealism? Kantian Review, 27 (3). pp. 385-404. ISSN
1369-4154
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1
University of Sheffield, UK
Email: [email protected]
Abstract
This article considers an apparent ‘Achilles’ heel’ for Kant’s transcendental idealism,
concerning his account of how synthetic a priori knowledge is possible. The problem is that
while Kant’s distinctive attempt to explain synthetic a priori knowledge lies at the heart of
his transcendental idealism, this explanation appears to face a dilemma: either the explanation
version of the problem, which I argue has not yet received an adequate response. Instead, I
offer a way out of this dilemma by focusing on the normativity rather than the metaphysics of
My aim in this article is to consider a worry that might be seen as an ‘Achilles’ heel’ for
Kant’s transcendental idealism, concerning his account of how synthetic a priori knowledge
is possible. This worry is not original to me, having been raised on several occasions by
Kant’s critics; but while various related issues have been widely discussed, the worry as such
has not elicited much direct response from Kant’s defenders. 1 This is curious, as the issue
does not seem a trivial one, but rather could reveal a vulnerability that will allow Kant’s
critics to fatally wound his transcendental idealism, just as the weakness in Achilles’s heel
was ultimately to lead to his death. I think the worry is therefore serious enough to deserve an
2
explicit response: I will examine some options in what follows, including one that I will
The problem, put simply, is that while Kant’s distinctive attempt to explain synthetic
a priori knowledge lies at the heart of his transcendental idealism, this explanation appears to
face a dilemma which it cannot escape: either the explanation generates a problematic
regress, or the explanation it offers gives us no reason to favour transcendental idealism over
transcendental realism. I will first say something about how this problem relates to Kant’s
overall project (section 1), before going into the problem in more detail (section 2). I will
then consider some possible Kantian responses, one of which I think holds out some hope as
1, Kant’s project
While of course Kant’s project is multifaceted and many-sided, with a vast range, it can be
argued that at the heart of it lies the puzzle of synthetic a priori knowledge, and Kant’s
proposed explanation of how such knowledge is possible. This centrality is clear from the
priority Kant himself gives to this issue, both in the first Critique, 2 and also in the
Prolegomena, where it is presented as the key question that requires resolution; 3 and it is
correspondingly important to the success of that critical project, as Kant makes solving this
So how does Kant take this solution to work? The answer, of course, is his
‘Copernican revolution’: once we take the Copernican turn, and ‘assume that objects must
conform to our cognition’ (CPR Bxvi) rather than the other way round, then we can
understand how we can know a priori that e.g. ‘everything which happens must have a
Why? Because we know that causality is part of our cognitive framework, in the sense
that in so far as we experience an object, it must comply with the ‘rules’ of that framework,
and thus must conform to this principle of causality. Of course, it is possible that outside our
3
experience, there are objects that do not obey this principle – but then, we could never
experience them, and they are never going to falsify the principle as far as our experience is
concerned. We thus get the universality and necessity of our claim within the world as far as
we could ever experience it, which is enough to give us synthetic a priori knowledge of this
world. And while some may wish for more, and so feel disappointed with this result, these
transcendental realists are hankering for what is beyond us as finite knowers, which is
cognition of things as they appear to us, about which we can have securely grounded
synthetic a priori knowledge, based on the Copernican principle that ‘we can cognize of
things a priori only what we ourselves have put into them’ (CPR Bxviii). At the same time,
Kant’s position does not have to claim that everything in the world we experience is mind
dependent, but only the ‘formal’ structures of space and time and the categories, so the
‘material’ idealism of a Berkeley is thus avoided. The Copernican turn thus appears to
brilliantly explain how such synthetic a priori knowledge is possible, while avoiding the
pitfalls of either empirical idealism or transcendental realism, which would leave such
knowledge mysterious.
Now, it is difficult not to be charmed by the elegance of this solution to the problem
of synthetic a priori knowledge, and many have been. But critics claim to have found its
Achilles’ heel.
2. The problem
As I have said, I am not the first to identify this problem. In fact, it might be lurking in the
background of the various post-Kantian worries about Kant found in the work of the later
German idealists, 4 and other subsequent critics. But the clearest form in which I have found
the problem expressed is in this passage from G. E. Moore’s Some Main Problems of
Moore first sets out Kant’s solution to the problem of synthetic a priori knowledge,
What we are here concerned with is the answer which he gives in the case of one
Three angles of a triangle are always equal to two right angles … [H]is answer to this
question … is as follows.
He says that we could not possibly know them, if Space were anything else
than a mere form in which, owing to the constitution of our minds, things appear to
us. If our minds are so constituted that the angles of every triangle which appears to
us are always equal to two right angles, then we may be quite certain that every
triangle which ever does appear to us will have the sum of its angles equal to two
right angles.
This is, of course, true. But does this, in fact, explain at all, how we can know that this
always has been and always will be the case? Obviously, it does not, unless it first be
explained or be self-evident, how we can know that our minds are so constituted as
always to give this result. But this proposition, that our minds are so constructed as
precisely the sort with regard to which Hume pointed out the difficulty in seeing how
we can know them. When Kant assumes that we do know that our minds are so
constituted, he is assuming that each of us does know not only that his own mind
always has acted in a certain way, but that it always will do so; and not only this but
also that the minds of all other men always have acted and always will act in this way.
But how can any of us know this? Obviously it is a question which requires an answer
just as much as any of those which Kant set out to answer, and yet he never even
5
attempts to answer it: it never seems to have occurred to him to ask how we can know
that all men’s minds are so constituted as always to act in a certain way. And once
this question is raised, I think the whole plausibility of his argument disappears…
It is not, in fact, a bit plainer how you can know universal synthetic
propositions about the action of the human mind, than how you could know them
about other things; and hence the argument that anything about which you can know
universal synthetic propositions must be due to the action of the human mind, entirely
2. But this claim about the necessary structure of our minds is itself a form of
3. But Kant does not face up to the difficulty of explaining how this knowledge of
have discussed.
Premise 2 also seems plausible: As a necessary claim about how our minds work, it
would on Kantian grounds appear to be a priori – for as Kant says ‘if a proposition is thought
along with its necessity, it is an a priori judgement’ (CPR B3). And it is hard to see how it
could be analytic – though this is a possible response to Moore’s objection which I will return
to in what follows.
6
Premise 3 is a textual claim, pointing to the fact that Kant never seems to pose for
himself the challenge that Moore raises, and try to deal with it explicitly, by asking how his
Copernican revolution might apply at a second-order level and hence explain how we can
have synthetic a priori knowledge of how the human mind is necessarily constituted. As far
as it goes, I think this claim is correct, in that Kant does not spell out Moorean concerns and
then attempt to deal with them directly. However, this in itself may not be a problem, as Kant
may have reasons to think such concerns just do not arise rather than have overlooked them,
so that this textual point may not tell us much taken on its own.
Premise 4 is a more systematic claim: that Kant’s approach makes it ‘no easier’ to see
how this second-order synthetic a priori knowledge of the necessary structure of our minds is
possible than is first-order synthetic a priori knowledge of the world outside our minds.
Moore does not really spell out his concern here, but I take it the issue is as follows:
Kant attempts to explain our first-order synthetic a priori knowledge by appeal to the
necessary structures of our minds; but this just involves a second-order synthetic a priori
knowledge concerning that structure. But how is that knowledge to be explained? It cannot
itself be explained by a further appeal to the structure of our minds, and so it is left just as
unexplained as the first order synthetic a priori knowledge was initially, so we have got no
consider in what follows possible responses to this point, when we consider Kantian replies
to Moore’s objection.
Finally, then, given these premises, there seems to be considerable force in Moore’s
concern – where as I see it, that force primarily concerns the issue of explanation: Kantian
idealism cannot answer its own ‘transcendental’ or ‘how possible?’ question concerning
synthetic a priori knowledge, given that it has to assume that knowledge at a key point (when
7
it comes to necessary features of our minds), but without being able to explain that
Premise 2 is the claim that Kant’s claim about the necessary structure of our minds is
a claim to synthetic a priori knowledge. I think the Kantian cannot avoid treating the claim as
a priori, as it looks unlikely to fit the profile common to the class of necessary a posteriori
knowledge highlighted by Kripke and others, which then makes it hard to claim it is a
posteriori at all. 8 But does the Kantian have to be committed to thinking that it is synthetic?
Of course, the whole distinction between analytic and synthetic is far from clear cut, 9 but on
the usual Kantian tests, how does it come out? I will consider two such tests: the logical
The first test is: if I assert p of X but I deny q, am I logically contradicting myself?
So, if I assert of X that X is human (or ‘humanly minded’), but deny that they experience the
world in accordance with the forms of intuition and the understanding, is this to assert a
would seem not: for it seems an issue that we can sensibly discuss and deliberate about, as
Perhaps, though, we are taking this test of contradiction too narrowly, and applying it
to cases that are too simple: perhaps (as some of the logical positivists argued) there are
failing the test, but which do so once considered a little more deeply, and the content of the
8
concepts involved are unpacked a little further. Thus, it might be claimed that when we
unpack the concepts of the human mind and human experience, we will see that in fact they
do logically entail the claims Kant wants to make, and we will then come to feel some logical
But this response in effect brings us to the second test that is relevant here, namely the
‘containment’ test: for this ‘unpacking’ metaphor suggests that in these cases, we can come to
see that (as Kant puts it) the one concept is ‘contained’ in the other (cf. CPR A6–7/B10–11).
And Kant’s test for this kind of containment is whether I need to ‘go beyond’ the one concept
to get to the other: if I do not, the relation is analytic, but if I do, then it is synthetic, as I need
some way of getting from the one to the other via a ‘third thing’ which thus involves more
Now, if we adopt this test, I think it is plausible to claim that by Kant’s own lights, the
connection he sees between human experience or consciousness and the forms of intuition
and understanding is synthetic, because when he himself explains this connection, he also
introduces a ‘third thing’ to make the link. This can be seen most clearly in the case of the
Transcendental Deduction: for there, it would seem, Kant grounds the claim that ‘All human
experience involves the categories’ by linking the subject and predicate of this claim via the
unity of the ‘I think’, which shows how the one requires the other. Kant thus offers a ‘third
thing’ to connect subject and predicate, in a way that suggests the connection is synthetic
rather than analytic. And insofar he also brings together the forms of intuition with the forms
of the understanding, he arguably in the end connects the former with human consciousness
It would appear, then, that on the evidence of Kant’s own procedure, we are justified
in taking the link between our experiences and the forms of that experience to be synthetic
rather than analytic. Of course, this does not absolutely rule out a Kantian claiming that Kant
9
was wrong, and that he should have treated this claim as analytic, in perhaps an ‘unobvious’
way: but I find it hard to see how this could be made plausible, without compromising the
whole analytic/synthetic distinction, in a way that in effect abandons the Kantian framework
altogether. 12
4, namely that objection that as Kant is making a synthetic a priori claim about the structure
of our minds, he cannot offer an adequate explanation of this claim within the terms of his
transcendental idealism?
a. Either Kant offers at the second-order level the same explanation as he offers at the
first-order level, by appealing to a claim about the necessary structures of our minds;
but then this claim itself would also need to be explained, in which case there would
be a regress of such structures in a way that looks problematic in itself, and anyway
which does not rely on transcendental idealism, so that now the argument for this
idealism looks less compelling: for in effect this was an inference to the best
explanation, based on the claim that only such idealism can offer us an explanation of
synthetic a priori knowledge – but now it is not clear why the non-idealist
The trouble with the first horn (a) may be put as follows, using the terminology of a
‘third thing’ from Kant that we introduced earlier. For a synthetic a priori proposition, we
10
need some ‘third thing’ linking the subject term and the predicate term. Now, in the case of a
proposition like ‘every event has a cause’, that third thing or X is said to be the schematized
forms of the understanding and specifically the category of causality, which is said to be
required to make experience possible. We thus now have another synthetic a priori
proposition: ‘all human experience is structured by the category of causality’. Now, assuming
(as argued above) this is also a synthetic claim, what is the ‘third thing’ here? What is it that
One answer could be: a further necessary feature of human experience, so that what
makes it the case that we know that all human experience is structured by the category of
causality is that we could not have experience of human beings having experience for whom
this was not the case, so this second-order claim cannot be falsified within our experience any
more than the first-order one can. But then of course the question arises: how do we know
that? How do we know that we could not have experience of a human being who did not
experience the world using the category of causality? It looks like (on this horn of the
dilemma) the only answer could be the same move at the next level: but then of course we
will just get a regress. And I think the trouble with the regress is that firstly, the modal claims
involved look less and less plausible, or at least harder and harder to argue for or even make
intelligible; and secondly, it seems to compromise the explanatory hope with which we
began, which was (as Moore suggested) to ground this knowledge in something less
mysterious at the second-order level than was available at the first, but we seem to just be
In response, then, we might try the second horn (b), but this seems equally
problematic. For example, we might claim that we know all human beings must experience
the world in causal terms, because without this their experience would become disunified to
such a degree that they could not be experiencing selves at all. So here, the ‘third thing’
11
might be said to be ‘the unity of the self’ which links being a human experiencer or mind
with employing the categories in one’s experience. But now, on Kant’s account, what is the
explanation for our knowledge of this synthetic a priori claim? How does Kant know this to
be the case? One answer might be along the lines suggested above, but as we have seen, this
leads into difficulties. To avoid this, another approach might be: he knows this, because he
can just see the various metaphysical relations between these concepts, as a kind of
transcendental argument from the one to the other – without the unity imposed on our
impossible as it could not fall within the bounds of a unified self having that experience.
But then the question arises: how does he know about these metaphysical relations? If
the answer is: he just has a kind of metaphysical knowledge here, in tracing out various
necessary connections which explain how the one requires the other, then he has helped
himself to a kind of metaphysical knowledge that does not have any explanation in the terms
used by transcendental idealism to explain such knowledge. And if that answer works here,
why is transcendental idealism needed at all to explain how such knowledge is possible?
And if, in spite of the fact that it does not follow [from experience], you are able to
know that all men’s minds always have and always will act in this way; why should
you not be able to know that all triangles, even if triangles are not merely appearances
produced by the action of your mind, must have their angles equal to two right
But if, on the other hand, Kant deploys the explanatory machinery of transcendental idealism,
and so grounds this metaphysical knowledge in the necessary conditions for our experience
or mindedness, he would appear to be back onto the first horn of the dilemma, and the
At this point, one response to the problems posed by this dilemma might be to try to
make a distinction between the two levels, and claim there is a significant epistemic
difference between them. Namely, our knowledge of the necessary and universal features of
the world is one thing, and our knowledge of the necessary and universal structures of our
mind is another. For, it could be argued that while the former needs transcendental idealism
to explain it, the latter does not, as in the case of our own minds, we have access to those
features in some other way, perhaps through some direct metaphysical insight. This point
could be put in the terms of Kant’s famous letter to Herz of 1772, in which some of the key
motivations and thinking behind the ‘transcendental turn’ were initially sketched out: while
an account is needed of how our faculty of understanding achieves conformity with things
which avoids just assuming some deus ex machina to co-ordinate them (Kant Corr, 10: 131),
no such account is needed of how it is that we can grasp the necessary structures of our
minds, as precisely such structures are not ‘external’ to us in the same way, so that we can
However, while this is a possible response, I think it can be challenged. For, what
reason have we got, other than a lingering Cartesianism, to think that our own minds are
more metaphysically transparent to us than anything else? As Moore argues, if these claims
are based on our experience of how minds work, then they are no more able to give us
From no amount of experience, which you may have had as to how your mind acted
in the past, will it absolutely follow that it ever will do so again, or that it ever has
done so, except in the instances which you have actually observed; nor will it follow
that any other man’s mind ever has acted or ever will act in the way in which yours
On the other hand, if these claims are not based on experience, the question arises here
precisely as it does with respect to the world outside us: how could we possibly come to
know these claims are true? This question concerning how synthetic a priori knowledge of
our minds is possible seems no less pressing than how synthetic a priori knowledge of the
world outside those minds is possible. 14 And if Kant has an answer to this question, it seems
outlined above. But then, if transcendental idealism is not required to explain synthetic a
priori knowledge when it comes to the structure of our minds, why should it be required to
explain such knowledge regarding the world outside our minds – in which case, how has
Another way to put this point has been suggested by Dustin McWherter, who frames
it in terms of transcendental arguments, and the suggestion that Kant in effect offers a
transcendental argument that forms of intuition and the categories are necessary conditions
for the possibility of human experience. But then the question arises: how does Kant know
this argument holds? Either his knowledge comes through knowing further necessary
conditions for the possibility of experience; but then a regress threatens. Or his knowledge
does not depend on knowing about such conditions but instead on knowing certain
metaphysical facts about our minds; but then we have a realist transcendental argument, so
that it appears that we do not have to confine our modal claims within the conditions of
I will now consider two responses to this Moorean challenge. The first of these
suggests that Kant can meet the challenge by appeal to his account of transcendental
reflection (section 4.1); and the second response suggests he can do so by appeal to inference
This first response in effect claims that Kant himself provides grounds for treating our
knowledge of our minds and our knowledge of the world outside our minds as different; this
difference can then be used to explain how synthetic a priori knowledge of our minds might
come about without a Copernican explanation, while also showing why our synthetic a priori
knowledge of the world is more challenging, and therefore does require such an explanation.
The justification for attributing this approach to Kant could be said to come from the way in
which Kant himself seems to put self-knowledge of the sort found in transcendental
psychology on a different footing from our knowledge of the world – and this is perhaps why
it never occurred to him to think the problem of synthetic a priori knowledge that arises for
the latter arises in the same way for the former, and thus why he may not have felt he really
Now, it could certainly be said that a central point of Kant’s Paralogisms and his
criticism there of rational psychology is to argue that the transcendental subject is not to be
confused with an object in the world, and thus our investigation of it must be fundamentally
different. The question still arises, however, how we are to make claims about this subject, as
a matter of transcendental rather than rational psychology. Here is not the place to plumb the
full depths of this transcendental psychology and all that it implies, but one aspect of its
method that has attracted quite a lot of (mostly positive) attention recently, and which might
seem particularly relevant to our issue here is Kant’s notion of ‘transcendental reflection’,
and what that seems to involve. For, it could be argued, Kant precisely introduces this notion
in his Appendix to the Transcendental Analytic (‘On the Amphiboly of the Concepts of
Reflection Through the Confusion of the Empirical Use of the Understanding with the
Transcendental’) in order to give some epistemic account of how he has been proceeding in
the Analytic, and thus making the various synthetic a priori claims about the human mind that
he has been presenting in this key section of the Critique. Thus, for example, Kenneth
15
Westphal has argued that by taking what Kant says about transcendental reflection more
seriously, we can escape the kind of dilemma posed for transcendental arguments that we
However, while it is clear that Kant does give transcendental reflection a role that
might be used to make sense of aspects of his transcendental psychology, it is not initially
obvious that he uses it to explain the kinds of synthetic a priori claims about the mind that
interest us. Kant’s own definition of transcendental reflection is as follows: ‘The action
through which I make the comparison of representations in general with the cognitive power
in which they are situated, and through which I distinguish whether they are to be compared
transcendental reflection’ (CPR A261/B317). Kant thus states that the reflection is primarily
aimed at answering the fundamental question: ‘In which cognitive faculties do [our
representations] belong together? Is it the understanding or is it the senses before which they
are connected or compared?’ (A260/B316). Now undoubtedly, this is an important issue for
transcendental psychology in general, but it is not clear it is designed to address the issue that
Moore raises, namely to give us the kind of modal knowledge of the mind that seems
required to make sense of the Copernican revolution. It is true that Kant says that ‘This
transcendental reflection is a duty from which no one can escape if he would judge about
things a priori’ (A263/B319). But it is not obvious that Kant is claiming here that
transcendental reflection is how we do judge about things a priori, rather than just claiming
that unless we correctly identify the source and status of representations and so handle their
priori claims we make about them, as Leibniz for example is said to be (cf. A267/B323,
A271–5/B327–32) – but this is in its way just another statement of the Copernican revolution,
rather than an explanation of it, and so cannot help in addressing the Moorean challenge.
16
general manner, for the emphasis it places on the form/matter distinction, 17 and also for the
parallels it draws between logical and transcendental reflection, where the a priori status of
both logic and transcendental psychology is said to be based on their focus on form, which
reflection is then said to be able to reveal. In an influential article, Smit makes this parallel
Thus, just as logical reflection must distinguish the logical form of a thought from its
matter in order to determine the logical relation which concepts bear to each other in a
judgment, so too, transcendental reflection must distinguish the form and matter of
our cognition of an object in order to determine the real relations which the
On this basis, Smit then goes on to apparently address the issue that concerns us here:
We thereby isolate the form of our cognition of objects, and with it, certain
(descriptively) necessary laws which obtain among all possible objects of our
cognition (e.g., the principles of pure understanding) because they are constitutive of
the form of our cognition of others. And, we are capable of isolating this form priori,
so as to cognize universal and necessary laws governing all possible objects of our
cognition, because all our cognition of objects, including that which constitutes our
In this way, then, Kant’s conception of transcendental reflection and its ability to give us
access to the forms of cognition may seem to explain why synthetic a priori knowledge is
possible in this arena but not correspondingly possible for the kind of knowledge claimed by
the metaphysician, as the latter cannot appeal to the capacity for transcendental reflection to
17
ground this knowledge, as this kind of self-conscious reflection only extends to the mind and
However, it appears to me that Moore might legitimately remain dissatisfied with this
response: for this still seems to rest on what again looks like a synthetic a priori claim,
namely that to abstract from the matter of cognition and so focus on form thereby gives us
access to the ‘universal and necessary laws governing all cognition’, as it does not seem
analytic that the form we have hereby identified has these kinds of modal properties. How
does any process of abstraction in itself warrant the claim, for example, that such forms are
‘constitutive’ of cognition, and that they are also and thereby necessary and universal forms
of cognition? We thereby once again appear to come back to a synthetic a priori judgement
concerning the modal properties of this form which an appeal to transcendental reflection
itself seems unable to explain. Taken on its own, therefore, the appeal to transcendental
reflection would not seem to bridge the explanatory gap concerning our ability to acquire
modal knowledge concerning the transcendental subject, and without this knowledge the
premise, and how we can acquire synthetic a priori knowledge of our minds. On this
response, it can be argued that Kant is not using a transcendental argument to establish the
necessary structures of our minds, but is instead offering an inference to the best explanation
(IBE). That is, from the fact that we have synthetic a priori knowledge, he is inferring to the
best explanation of that fact, namely that our minds have certain necessary structures to
which experience must conform. 18 So Kant could then respond to Moore that this IBE
enables him to make the claim that the mind has certain necessary structures, where, as an
abductive argument, we can explain how it gives us knowledge without generating a regress
as such arguments do not rest on prior synthetic a priori knowledge; and he could respond to
18
McWherter along similar lines, arguing that the regress can be avoided, as he is not offering a
transcendental argument for the claim that our minds must have a particular structure, but an
IBE instead, as the best explanation for how synthetic a priori knowledge is possible.
An obvious reply to this response might be that it would seem to generate its own
sub-dilemma: on the one hand, if using IBE on its own is sufficient grounds on which to
make synthetic a priori claims about the necessary structure of the human mind, the realist
might wonder why we cannot hope to use IBE to make synthetic a priori claims elsewhere,
about the world beyond such minds; but on the other hand, if IBE is not a sufficient ground to
make such claims about the necessary structure of the human mind, we would then not have
escaped the main dilemma. However, here I think Kant could respond: his IBE from our
synthetic a priori knowledge takes us to transcendental idealism, as the best way to explain
that knowledge – but then, transcendental idealism shows our knowledge to be limited in
ways that show we cannot expect IBE to work for a realist metaphysics, as we then do not
know what a ‘best explanation’ outside the boundaries of our experience could mean.
Nonetheless, while this reply might seem adequate as far as it goes, I think Kant’s
critic can still raise other significant objections to the IBE response. First, it relies on taking
synthetic a priori knowledge for granted, as the given that needs to be explained. One
obvious difficulty is that while Kant might be confident that we have such knowledge in
arithmetic and geometry, as he took the validity of Euclidean geometry to be unassailable for
example, we cannot be so sanguine. But even more problematically, while Kant might think
he is entitled to take synthetic a priori knowledge in arithmetic and geometry for granted, 19
arguably even he isn’t that confident when it comes to knowledge that looks more
metaphysical, such as that ‘every event has a cause’. Indeed, it appears that the role of the
take it as a given 20 – and it is in the process of doing this that the dilemma then seems to
19
arise, as he uses his appeal to the necessary conditions of experience to warrant such
knowledge, rather than merely rely on it to make a further argument. 21 Second, if Kant is
operating with an IBE and thus an abductive argument, this is of course a weaker form of
argument than a transcendental argument, and can deliver only degrees of plausibility but not
certainty; but then it is not clear that it would not leave some room for doubt concerning the
status of transcendental idealism, thus leaving the door open for realist synthetic a priori
claims still to be made. And finally, in response to this worry, the Kantian might claim that
his IBE is stronger than the usual form of such argument, as really he is claiming that
transcendental idealism is the only possible explanation of our synthetic a priori knowledge,
as all other explanations would violate the conditions under which our minds must operate –
but then to strengthen the IBE in this manner based on a modal claim of this sort would in
effect bring us back to the original dilemma, and turn it into a form of transcendental
argument again. 22
premise, which claims that Kant does not explain how this knowledge of the necessary
structure of our minds is possible. As I noted above, while as a textual claim this seems true, I
now want to briefly explore whether the Kantian might adopt a strategy that Kant is happy to
use elsewhere, and so perhaps could be used by the Kantian here, namely to claim that there
are limits to human understanding and our capacities for explanation, and that at some
junctures of a philosophical inquiry, this just has to be accepted. For example, Kant famously
argues in the Groundwork that ‘reason would overstep all its limits if it ventured to explain
how pure reason can be practical, which would be the same as explaining how freedom is
possible’ (G, 4: 458–9), so that while we can know (on practical grounds) that we are free,
we cannot really understand how. Likewise, it could perhaps be said, we know that the
20
human mind does have universal and necessary structures, but this is a kind of knowledge we
cannot explain for reasons we have discussed – it just has to be accepted as being the case.
Now, some may find this kind of Kantian move objectionable in itself – as a kind of
‘cop out’ which means you can just duck hard philosophical questions by feigning incapacity.
However, I do not object to this kind of move in principle – but to be credible, it has
to be properly warranted, and cannot be used just in order to get yourself off the hook. In the
places where Kant generally uses it, he does offer a principled argument for our incapacity,
case of the Groundwork above, in playing on the kind of dualism between freedom and
necessity this implies, so that (as Kant nicely puts it) ‘although we do not comprehend the
incomprehensibility’ (G, 4: 463). However, the question in the case we are considering is
whether the Kantian is just claiming brute incomprehensibility, or has some way of helping
us ‘comprehend’ it – where the latter seems required, if this is not just to be an ad hoc way of
It seems to me that the difficulty in this case is that there are not the usual Kantian
grounds for drawing a limit to our capacities here: Given that we can know that the human
mind has such necessary structures, what grounds could the Kantian offer for making
plausible our incapacity to understand this necessity? Perhaps the answer could be: because
here we are coming to know something of how the noumenal world works, and we can never
explain how we have such knowledge, even though here we must assume we do. But if the
Kantian is allowed to play this card at this level, why cannot his opponent play the same card
at the first level, and say that our metaphysical knowledge also relates to the noumenal realm,
and therefore it too defies explanation for the same reason, but that this gives us no reason to
question it, any more than it does for Kant himself? Moreover, in other cases that Kant
21
discusses, the knowledge we find hard to explain comes from practical reason, where it is
then perhaps plausible to think (given Kant’s position) that this outstrips the capacities of
theoretical reason to fully comprehend it. But in this case, the knowledge is itself based on
theoretical reason, which also makes this move less plausible: to give us theoretical
knowledge, does not theoretical reason need to be able to understand how that knowledge is
possible?
Marshall (Marshall 2014). He does not argue that Kant might hold that some explanatory
matters are beyond our understanding, but rather that Kant might hold that some synthetic a
priori claims are ‘explanatorily basic’, and so require no explanation in the first place, where
such claims about the structure of the mind are said to fall into this category for Kant.
suggests that Kant held this view because he took such knowledge of our mind to be
intrinsically less mysterious than synthetic a priori knowledge about the world, as the former
is accessible to what Marshall calls ‘“short-range rationalist reflection”’ in a way that the
latter is not (p. 564). However, in claiming Kant adopts this approach, Marshall largely
appeals to ‘transcendental reflection’ along the lines discussed in section 4.1 above; but as
argued there, it is not clear that the Moorean would be satisfied with this response. Moreover,
Marshall admits that there are some potential costs to attributing this kind of rationalism to
Kant, as ‘many philosophers would deny we have even such a modest capacity (e.g. Hume),
or if they accepted it, might conclude that it yields different conclusions from what Kant
thought (e.g. Hegel)’ (p. 572); however, Marshall thinks these costs must be paid, as he does
not think there are any other interpretative options, once we reject other approaches, such as
holding that such claims are analytic, not synthetic, or that Kant can employ an inference to
the best explanation. As discussed above, I agree with Marshall over his negative arguments
22
against these approaches; but now I want to introduce a further option that Marshall does not
consider and suggest it is more promising than the proposals he rejects, and also thus more
premise to examine, namely premise 1: ‘Kant explains how synthetic a priori knowledge is
revolution: to explain the necessary structure of our experience, we turn to see how this
experience is grounded in the necessary structure of our minds, thus moving (as it were) from
the metaphysics of the world to the metaphysics of our minds. Thus, Moore himself talks
about Kant making a claim about ‘the constitution of our minds’, while other critics speak of
knowing a priori ‘how the mind operates’ or of facts concerning our ‘cognitive
constitution’. 23 But then, of course, the Moorean challenge is to question whether making
metaphysical claims about how our minds must work is any easier to understand than making
looking first premise is the right way to characterize the Copernican turn after all, and in
for of course, once this is accepted, it then gets hard to see why the realist cannot go back to
offering their ‘metaphysics of the world’, for the reason we have explored. The point of this
final response is therefore to question whether Kant is indeed offering a ‘metaphysics of the
mind’, namely making synthetic a priori claims concerning the necessary functioning of our
minds; for then if this is not what he is doing, the equivalence claim will fail.
But, if Kant is not conducting a metaphysics of the mind, what is he doing – indeed,
what else could he be doing? To see how there might be other options here, it is important to
23
focus not on the metaphysical questions we might raise regarding the mind, but rather
normative terms – that is, as having to meet various norms in order for it to possess
knowledge, justification, understanding and so on. Thus, to illustrate the distinction I have in
view, we might ask these two questions regarding memory, for example: first, ‘would a
person whose memory became radically unreliable lose their experience of time passing, as
they would then lack the information required to make this experience possible?’, which I
priori manner; and second, ‘would a person whose memory became radically unreliable be
able to acquire knowledge of past events?’, which I take to be a question in the normativity of
Now, it is admittedly the case that in the Transcendental Aesthetic it can seem that
addressing the problem of synthetic a priori knowledge. Thus, for example, it is this section
of the Critique that leads Bertrand Russell to adopt his famous (or notorious) ‘blue
spectacles’ analogy for space and time as the forms of intuition, which treats them as akin to
‘spectacles in the mind’ – so just as ‘if you always wore blue spectacles, you could be sure of
seeing everything blue’, so likewise ‘since you always wear spatial spectacles in your mind,
you are always sure of seeing everything in space’. 24 It is precisely this picture that invites
the Moorean challenge that we have been discussing. However, it becomes easier to see how
a more normative approach might work when Kant develops his more complete picture and
moves from intuition to judgement, and thus into the Transcendental Analytic, where we
might for example focus on the Second Analogy and Kant’s claims there about causality.
24
It is not possible here to dwell on this in any detail, but the core idea could be
representations and thus subsume them under a rule, we would have no justification for
distinguishing them from subjective experiences and thinking of them as having an objective
temporal order instead – and so could not take them to be events at all. Kant makes this
If, therefore, we experience that something happens, then we always presuppose that
something else precedes it, which it follows in accordance with a rule. For without
this I would not say of the object that it follows (daß es folge), since the mere
determined in relation to something preceding, does not justify any sequence in the
In this case, therefore, the claim that every event has a cause is derived from consideration of
what entitles or justifies us in taking our apprehension to be of an event in the first place,
which is an entitlement we cannot possess unless we are prepared to apply the concept of
cause to our experience: unless we apply the concept of cause, we would lack the criteria by
which to treat it as an experience of an event rather than as part of a subjective sequence, and
so could not claim to have any knowledge of it as an event to begin with. As Kant
immediately goes on to note after the passage above, this amounts to an instance of the
Copernican turn: rather than claiming that we first experience events, and then infer by
induction that all events have causes, which makes the latter claim contingent, the normative
basis of the argument above gives us grounds for taking the causal principle that every event
has a cause to be necessary and knowable a priori, based not on how the world is in itself, but
Likewise, in the First Analogy, Kant arguably also takes a normative approach, in
arguing that to know that a substance has come to be or ceased to be, this transition has to
involve a change in what is rather than being absolute; for if it were absolute (such as a
creation ex nihilo) we would not be able to judge it to be an event in time, as this precisely
requires relating it to what existed previously, for this is the only way we can put our
subjective temporal experiences into an objective temporal order. For, to judge on the basis
of your experiencing A now that A has just come into existence ex nihilo, you would have to
have some grounds for placing A’s coming into being at that temporal point, rather than A
having existed previously and you having only just noticed it, and so you must be entitled to
make the judgement that at some point of time it did not exist in any form; but in saying that
it is unrelated to anything that existed before it, you could not be warranted to make any
judgement about its place in time, as this precisely requires relating it to what existed
previously, for this is the only way we have for legitimately putting our subjective temporal
experiences into an objective temporal order. Thus, we can never be in the position to judge
with any justification that a substance has come into existence ex nihilo; rather, if this
appears to be the case, we should question our experience, not endorse it. 26
Now I am not in any way trying to claim that the details of these arguments are
unproblematic. But my point here is a more general, strategic one: because Kant’s argument
revolves around a normative issue, it does not rest simply on a synthetic a priori claim
concerning the metaphysics of the mind, and so breaks the equivalence that Kant’s critics
exploit in objecting to his account. For, on this reading, Kant is basing his explanation of
judgements using certain concepts such as ‘event’ or ‘coming to be’, from which then
synthetic a priori claims about our experience follow. 27 It turns out, then, that the ‘third
thing’ which makes such first-order synthetic a priori propositions possible must be
26
understood in normative rather than modal terms. But then the a priori metaphysician is not,
and indeed cannot be, making an equivalent move, for the metaphysical claims about the
world they want to make are not derived from any normative pre-conditions, parallel to the
way in which Kant exploits the conditions necessary for knowledge, understanding,
judgement and the like in order to arrive at his modal claims regarding the nature of our
experience. Instead, metaphysicians are taking themselves to have some insight into the
necessary structure of what there is, which looked hard to challenge if Kantian were
themselves claiming insight into the necessary structure of mind as a component of what
there is; but if we take the normative approach outlined above, this parallel is broken as
Kant’s claims concern the mind as a normative entity rather than a metaphysical one. Thus as
a result, the Kantian and the metaphysical methods can no longer be treated as equivalent,
making it harder for the metaphysician to claim that however the Kantian explains synthetic a
priori knowledge with regard to the mind, they can do the same with respect to the rest of
what there is – for Kant’s approach turns out to depend on the normative features of the
rather than a modal context, some of the options we considered above now look more
On the first issue, Kant’s discussion of the categorical imperative in the Groundwork
shows that Kant did not think that moral norms governing practical reason are analytic (see
G, 4: 417–20, 445), and as a result he allowed that to explain it requires ‘special and arduous
toil’ (4: 420). Nonetheless, he also seems to treat this as a rather special case, and his way of
arguing that the instrumental norm is analytic could be extended to also argue that the
normative claims about the mind that concern us here are likewise analytic, which was harder
when that analyticity was meant to cover modal claims about the mind, not normative ones
27
(see section 3). That is, when the ‘must’ in question becomes a normative ‘must’ rather than a
modal one, it becomes easier to see how it could be claimed to be required for rational
judgement which is itself a normative matter, just as the instrumental norm is required for
rational agency.
And relatedly, on the second issue, insofar as in various writings on logic Kant treats
logical reflection as reflection on the normative laws of thinking in general (cf. Smit 1999:
214–5), 28 once the issues are reconceived in normative terms, then likewise the form of
normative rules of thinking about representations, and so be more effectively used to address
these questions than seemed possible above (section 4.1), before these normative
considerations were made central. Thus, if the proposals I have made in this article are
deemed worthwhile, a consideration of these options could be a fruitful next stage for the
discussion to take.
But my more limited claim here is just that however we answer these questions,
Kant’s arguments about the mind that are required to show how synthetic a priori knowledge
of the world is possible do not involve a kind of modal knowledge but a normative
knowledge; and while as we have seen, the metaphysician may reasonably wonder why if we
can have modal knowledge of the mind, we cannot equally have modal knowledge of the
world in the same way, there is no equivalent move from normative knowledge of the mind
to modal knowledge of the world, as the two are no longer on a par. Likewise, while it was
difficult on other strategies to claim that self-knowledge and worldly knowledge are
significantly different when both were taken to involve modal claims, this becomes easier
when the former concerns what is normative and the latter concerns the modal. Of course, it
is then perhaps a challenge to see how normative claims about the mind can yield modal
claims about the world: but then it is this challenge that transcendental idealism is designed to
28
address as the examples from the two Analogies above briefly illustrate, but now in a way
that is immune to the Moorean objection. To this extent, therefore, what appeared to be the
Achilles’ heel of transcendental idealism turns out to be adequately protected after all. 29
Notes
1
As McWherter (2016: 201–2) notes, there have been brief replies in Bird 2006 and Allais
2010, while a fuller response by Marshall 2014 is discussed further below. A wider but
related issue concerning the stability of Kant’s transcendental psychology has been much
more frequently considered, namely whether Kant’s claims about the latter overstep the
bounds of inquiry set by his transcendental idealism. As we shall see below, some of the
might also be said to apply to the issue here, although the two issues are not the same: one
following that it is unproblematic for this psychology to establish what Kant requires for his
synthetic judgments a priori possible?’ References to Kant are given in the standard form,
using A and B to refer to the first and second editions of the Critique of Pure Reason
respectively, and to the pagination of the Akademie edition for other works. Abbreviations
are used as follows: Corr = Correspondence (1999); CPR = Critique of Pure Reason
5
This text is based on lectures Moore gave at Morely College, London in the winter of 1910-
11, and thus not long after he also wrote ‘Kant’s Idealism’ (Moore 1903–4) in which he first
judgments a priori possible?” Kant asks himself – and what really is his answer? “By virtue
of a faculty (Vermöge eines Vermögens)” – but unfortunately not in five words … “By virtue
of a faculty” – [Kant] had said, or at least meant. But is that – an answer? An explanation? Or
is it not rather merely a repetition of the question? How does opium induce sleep? “By virtue
them with Moore and some not: see for example Bennett 1966: 16–18, Van Cleve 1999: 37–
43, Forster 2008: 61–70, Millican 2017: 59. Other reference to the literature on this issue are
given below.
8
This more a posteriori option has nonetheless been pursued by Derk Pereboom (e.g. 1990)
and Patricia Kitcher (e.g. 1994), who argue that Kant’s transcendental assertions about the
mind might be given some sort of empirical justification; but as Marshall 2014: 558–9 points
out, it is hard to see how any such justification can be sufficient to support the kind of modal
claims that seem to be required, for reasons Kant himself famously asserts at CPR A1/B3:
‘[Experience] tells us, to be sure, what is, but never that it must necessarily be thus and not
otherwise’. For Moore’s own worries about this approach, see Moore 1953: 154, which is
cited below. I will therefore set this option aside without further comment.
9
It might also be said not to be exhaustive on some definitions of ‘synthetic’, but as Marshall
2014: 553 points out, in addition to some textual evidence suggesting Kant thought it was, the
problem with a priori knowledge arguably arises as soon as we move beyond just the analytic
10
Cf. also Sellars’s discussion of ‘illuminating’ analytic truths, which O’Shea has used to
order to compare it synthetically with another, then a third thing is necessary in which alone
A65–6/B90–1, where Kant introduces his ‘Transcendental Analytic’; but I would agree with
Marshall that here ‘Kant contrasts his project of analyzing the faculty of understanding with
the more common project of analyzing concepts’ (Marshall 2014: 577, n. 29). For another
example of where Kant seems to use analysis in this different sense, see A842/B870, when he
[P*: within the bounds of experience, P is the case] be accounted for? To offer the same
account that was originally offered for P would in effect require Kant to say that the mind so
operates as to make it true that: the mind so operates as to make it true that P*. It is doubtful
that this new claim even makes sense, but even if it does, the same question can be raised
about it, and so on ad infinitum, thus generating a regress that is clearly vicious.’
14
Forster 2008: 133, n. 13 suggests that in fact for Kant it is more pressing, given the
epistemic limits Kant puts on philosophical inquiry, and that the transcendental self is not
part of the phenomenal world: ‘Kant’s suggestion here [CPR, Axiv] of a Cartesian self-
transparency of the mind is indefensible within the framework of the critical philosophy, at
least if understood as a doctrine about the mind and its activities in themselves, as it would
have to be in order to explain our knowledge of the thesis of transcendental idealism.’ But for
15
Cf. McWherter 2016: 203: ‘In other words, it is not enough to simply appeal to Kant’s
priori. Instead, you also have to show that things in themselves cannot likewise be cognized a
priori as a result of transcendental arguments. For if they can, Kant loses his reason for
after all.’ McWherter uses the argument from Moore to suggest that it is hard for the Kantian
to resist the claim, made by Ralph Walker, that transcendental realists can also deploy
transcendental arguments.
16
Westphal comments that ‘Kant’s account of transcendental reflection, like his name for it,
are conspicuously rare, almost absent, from Kant scholarship’ (Westphal 2004: 2). He
overlooks Smit 1999, while more recently the issue has had quite wide discussion, e.g.
Marshall 2014, Merritt 2015, Balanovskiy 2018, De Boer 2020: chapter 7, while it is also
Reason, as it would muddy the distinction Kant himself draws between the synthetic method
of the Critique which Kant claims ‘takes no foundation as given except reason itself’, and
that of the Prolegomena which he says proceeds analytically by relying ‘on something
21
Cf. CPR Bxviii: ‘This [Copernican] experiment succeeds as well as we could wish … For
after this alteration in our way of thinking we can very well explain the possibility of
cognition a priori, and what is still more, we can provide satisfactory proofs of the laws that
are the a priori ground of nature, as the sum total of objects of experience – which were both
can offer a different IBE for transcendental idealism based on the dialectic of reason, with the
(CPR Bxx). It would take us too far afield to consider the adequacy of this argument, and
anyway our interest was in seeing whether the problem of synthetic a priori knowledge could
Second Analogy: ‘Note Kant’s remark [at Kant 1787/1998, A193/B238] that the function of
such a rule is that of justifying me in saying (or judging) of an empirical object that it contains
an objective succession. Here – and almost nowhere else – Kant precisely delineates just
what it means to call a principle such as that of causation a principle of the possibility of
experience. It is not to say that such a principle is one that constitutes an empirical object in
any ontological sense, nor that it is one which is somehow a psychological precondition for
object. Rather, to call a principle a condition of the possibility of experience is to say no more
and no less than that it is a necessary condition for the justification, verification, or
confirmation of the judgments about empirical objects that we make on the basis of our
sense, that of constituting the framework for our epistemic practices of judging about objects,
rather than that of constituting either the objects themselves or the psychological processes by
which we come to have images of or beliefs about them, that Kant means his statement that
the business of the understanding “is not that it makes our representations of objects distinct,
but that it makes the representation of an object possible at all” (A199/B244)’ (Guyer 1987:
245–6). For a more recent reading which also focuses on a normative account of the Second
Analogy, see Hutton 2019, who puts this approach in a wider context which includes Onora
O’Neill, Henry Allison, John McDowell, Konstantin Pollok and others (pp. 593–4). As far as
I know, none of these proponents of a normative approach have used it to address the issue I
position in the Sixth Meditation, which is also put in normative terms, concerning what we
have reason to believe: ‘[If] someone, while I was awake, quite suddenly appeared to me and
disappeared as fast as do the images which I see in sleep, so that I could not know from
whence the form came nor whither it went, it would not be without reason that I should deem
it a specter or a phantom formed by my brain [and similar to those which I form in sleep],
rather than a real man’ (Descartes 1964–76: VII, 89–90; cited Rosenberg 2005: 211–12).
27
I thus agree with Hutton when he argues against Pollok that Kant is not treating
propositions like ‘every event has a cause’ as synthetic a priori because they are themselves
norms for cognition, but that he explains the synthetic a priori status of these propositions
based on normative claims of the sort outlined above: see Hutton 2019: 606, where he is
acknowledged as the fundamental norms for our mathematical and empirical cognitions’.
28
There has of course been some controversy on this issue, provoked by Tolley 2006, but
that cannot be discussed further here. For one response, see Hutton 2019: §6.
34
29
Earlier versions of this paper were presented to conferences at the University of Cologne
and at Royal Holloway, University of London; I am grateful to audiences for their comments,
and also for comments separately by Fraser MacBride, Joe Saunders and Marcus Willaschek.
I am particularly grateful for extensive comments from Adrian Moore and Jessica Leech, and
also to Paul Franks for first suggesting to me that a normative approach to these issues might
be fruitful. Finally, the two anonymous referees for this journal also provided very helpful
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