REVISION 1, DEC 2021 DATS CAA PREPARATION TEST PAPER 1 ALL IN ONE 2

FLIGHT DISPATCH: CAA PREPARATION TEST PAPER 1

Preparation Test 2 (PT2)

Purpose: This test contains nine parts/lesson. The purpose of this mastery test is to:
 To check the trainee competency and readiness to attempt the CAA Flight
Dispatch paper 1 Examination

References: Refer to the following materials during this test:

 Only the test items booklet for Preparation Test 2, PT2 and the answer
sheet.

Instructions: There are 100 multiple – choice questions.

 Answer all questions because each carry 1 mark.
 Time Allowed: 50 Minutes
 Remember to stay clear of any document that will be used against you as an
exhibit.
 If you need more plain sheets, just raise up your hand and someone will
attend to you.

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 REVISION 1, DEC 2021 DATS CAA PREPARATION TEST PAPER 1 ALL IN ONE 2

1-A green landing gear warning light indicates that the landing gear is
A-Unsafe
B-In transit
C-Up and lock
D-Down and lock =

2-How is a Flight Release valid if the flight stops at intermediate point?

A) One hour for domestic flight; six hours for flag (international) flights =
B) 3 months
C) 3 hours for domestic and 24 hours for flag (international) flights
D) 24 hours for domestic and 48 hours for flag (international) flights

3-One of the requirements for dynamic stability is

A) a small C.G range
B) effective elevator
C) a large deflection range of the stabilizer Trim
D) positive static stability =

4-The aircraft is pressurized by:

A) controlling the amount of bleed air off the engine
B) controlling the amount of bleed air into the engine
C) controlling the rate that air floes out of the cabin
D) controlling the rate that air floes into the cabin =

5-On the retina, the rod cells are

A) Concentrated in the area of the fovea
B) Highly sensitive to colour changes particularly those at the red end of the spectrum
C) Highly sensitive to colour changes particularly those at the blue end of the spectrum
D) Sensitive to much lower light levels than the cone cells =

6-After decompression and descent, there will be enough supplementary oxygen available for flight
crew for all flight time above
A-15000
B-13000 =
C-25000
D-14000

7-At what altitude the supply of oxygen to the crew:

A) 25000 ft
B) 15000 ft
C) 13000 ft
D) 10000 ft =

8-Oxygen should be used after rapid decompression in an emergency descent until what altitude?
A-13000ft =
B-14000ft
C-15000ft
D-10000ft

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9-To what altitude during pressurization does the aircraft descent within 4 minutes?
A) 25000 ft
B) 15000 ft
C) 13000 ft =
D) 10000 ft

10-The manual for aircraft performance planning and aircraft loading and handling shall be
A. Specific to the aircraft category and group
B. Specific to the aircraft category
C. Specific to the aircraft type
D. Specific for the aircraft type and variant =

11-Hypertension is:
A) Elevated arterial blood pressure =
B) a pre-cursor to the unset of a heart attack
C) a cause of gout
D) a high state of stress

12-In case of an engine failure which is recognize at or above V1:

A) a height of 50 ft most be reached within the takeoff distance
B) the takeoff should be rejected if the speed is still below VR
C) the take-off must be continue =
D) the take-off must be rejected, if the speed is still below VLOF

13-a severe cold can cause problem with blocked sinuses and ear. This condition is commonly known
as ----
A) Barotrauma =
B) Otic barotrauma
C) Flu
D) Sinotic barotrauma

14-What are ICAO defined Instrument Approaches?

A) Precision CAT I, II, III
B) Instrument Precision and CAT II/III
C) Precision in general
D) Non-precision and CAT I/II/III precision =

15-Which color on a Tri-color VASI is on-course indication?

A) Green =
B) Amber
C) Yellow
D) Red

16-Longitudinal static stability is created by the fact that the-----

A) Wing surface is greater than the horizontal tail surface
B) Centre of gravity is located in front of the leading edge of the wing
C) Centre of gravity is located in front of the neutral point of the aeroplane =
D) Aeroplane possesses a large trim speed range

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17-To act as Pilot in command (PIC) of an aircraft you must have either a logbook endorsement
showing the satisfactory completion of flight review or a completion of a pilot proficiency check
within the preceding----
A) 6 calendar months =
B) 24 calendar months
C) 12 calendar months
D) 36 calendar months

18-At the alternate aerodrome the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a fuel
quantity (final reserve) sufficient for flying during-----
A) 30 minutes at cruise speed
B) 45 minutes at cruise speed
C) 45 minutes at holding flight speed at 1500ft
D) 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1500ft =

19-Decision Altitude (DA) is referenced to

A) Mean sea level =
B) Runway threshold elevation
C) Standard level
D) Aerodrome elevation

20-DA is:
A) Decision altitude is Reference to mean sea level
B) A specified altitude in the precision to a runway at which a missed approach most be initiated if the
required visual reference to continue the approach has not been establish.
C) Both options are correct =
D) None of the options is correct

21-Following an emergency, how soon should dispatchers and pilots file a report?
A) Within 10 days =
B) As soon as possible, but no later than 3 days following the event
C) Within 7 days
D) Within 48 hours

22-A national air carrier flight (engage with international flight) lands at intermediate airport at 1105Z.
The latest time that it may depart without being redispatch is
A) 1705Z =
B) 2305Z
C) 0005Z
D) 2005Z

23-Anthrometric data used in the design of aircraft and flight decks. Data is taking from:
A) All options are correct
B) A general cross section of the general public
C) A selected cross - section of the general public
D) A specified population =

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24-If the airworthiness documents do not specify a correction for landing on a wet runway. The
landing distance most be increase by
A) 15% =
B) 10%
C) 25%
D) 20%
25-The mean aerodynamic chord (MAC) for a given wing of plan form is -----
A) a chord of a large rectangular wing
B) the average chord of the actual aeroplane
C) the chord of rectangular wing with some moment and lift =
D) the wing area divided by the wing span

26-An aeroplane that has positive static stability

A) is always dynamically stable
B) is always dynamically unstable
C) is never dynamically stable
D) can be dynamically stable, neutral or unstable =
27-A green landing gear warning light indicates that the landing gear is
A-Unsafe
B-In transit
C-Up and lock
D-Down and lock =
28-Which factor has the effect of increasing V1 speeds?
A) Low temperature
B) Dry cold air
C) Slush or standing water on the runway
D) High takeoff gross weight =
29-Where in the NCAR will you find detailed of flight crew duty rest period set out?
A) Schedule 11 =
B) Part 2
C) Part 7
D) ICAO Annex 1

Note: No correct option from No.29

30-Which of the following documents describe how a commercial air carrier will comply with various
applicable regulations and procedures?
A-Operations Specifications (OPSPEC) =
B-Minimum Equipment List (MEL)
C-Commercial Flight Manual
D-Airplane Flight Manual

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31-No person shall act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers by night unless he has
carried out, in an aircraft of the same class and category, not less than:
A. three take-offs and landings within six months of the flight.
B. five take-offs and landings within three months of the flight.
C. five take-offs and landings within six months of the flight.
D. three take-offs and landings within 90 days preceding the flight. =

32-Which equipment requirement must be meet by an air carrier that elects to use a dual Inertial
Navigation System (INS) on a proposed flight?
A-a dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS.
B-the dual system must consist of two operative INS units.
C-only one INS is required to be operative, if a Doppler radar is substituted for the other INS. =
D-ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS

33-What does the Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) Consist Of?
A-One Light Projector with Two Colors, yellow and green
B-One Light Projector with Two Colors, Red and White
C-Row of Four Lights Parallel to the Runway, White and Green
D-Row of Four Lights Perpendicular to the Runway; Red and White. =

34-One of the main functions of flaps during approach and landing is to:
A-permit a touchdown at a higher indicated airspeed
B-decrease lift, thus enabling a steeper than normal approach to be made
C-increase the angle of descent without increasing airspeed =
D-increase lift, thus enabling a steeper than normal approach to be made

35-Who make sure that the air transportation of an item of dangerous goods is not prohibited?
A) The loader
B) The shipper when completing the shipper’s declaration for dangerous goods
C) The captain, always using the list of prohibited aircraft items
D) The operator =

36-Donating blood by an operating flight deck crew member is:

A-Not permitted for aircrew who are actively flying
B-Permitted subject to at least 12 hours elapsing before one’s next flight
C-Permitted subject to at least 24 hours elapsing before one’s next flight =
D-Only permitted within 12 hours of one’s next flight when cleared by a qualified aviation doctor.

37-The loading limitation shall includes:

A-All the options are correct
B-All limiting mass and center of gravity Center of gravity position, mass distributions and floor
loading =
C-All limiting mass and center of gravity Center of gravity position and floor loading
D-All limiting mass and center of gravity

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38-Information Obtained From Flight Data and Cockpit Voice Recorder Shall Be Used Only For
Determining.
A-Possible Causes of Accidents or Incidents =
B-Who Was Responsible For Any Accident or Incident.
C-Evidence for Use in Civil Penalty or Certificate Action
D-All options are correct

39-An Alternate Airport for departure is required:

A-When Destination Weather Is Marginal VFR (Ceiling Less Than 3000ft and Visibility Less than
5Sm)
B-If Weather Conditions Are Below Authorized Landing Minimums at the Departure Airport. =
C-When Destination Weather Is Marginal VFR (Ceiling Less Than 1000ft and Visibility Less than
2Sm)
D-When the Weather Forecast at ETD Is For Landing Minimum Only At the Departure Airport.

40-A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while you are still parked. The
reference document you used to decide would be?
A-the operations manual’s chapter “Abnormal and Emergency Procedures”.
B-the NCAR.
C-the minimum equipment list. =
D-the flight manual

41-No person shall act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers by night unless he has
carried out, in an aircraft of the same class and category, not less than:
A. five take-offs and landings within six months of the flight.
B. five take-offs and landings within three months of the flight.
C. three take-offs and landings within six months of the flight.
D. three take-offs and landings within 90 days preceding the flight. =

42-Rotation about the lateral axis is known as:

A. all options are wrong
B. rolling and is controlled with the ailerons
C. pitching and is controlled with the elevator =
D. yawing and is controlled with the ailerons

43-On arrival at an aerodrome the lowest height altitude at which the pilot in command of a turbojet or
large aircraft shall enter the traffic pattern until further descend is required for landing is?
A.1500ft AGL =
B.1500ft AMSL
C.500ft AMSL
D.1000ft AGL

44-After an accident, the operator of an airplane equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original
recordings for a minimum period of:
A-60 days. =
B-90 days.
C-45 days
D-30 days.

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45-The pilot in command shall prior to undertaking an IFR flight, obtain a weather forecast for the
destination and alternate aerodrome for duration of at least:
A. The ETA plus 2 hours in both aerodromes
B. One hour before and one after the ETA at both aerodromes =
C. The ETA plus 11/2 hours in both aerodromes
D. The fuel endurance of the aircraft

46-Who is responsible for furnishing the PIC while in flight, by appropriate means, with information
which may be necessary for the safe conduct of the flight:
A-second in command or co-pilot
B-Director of operations
C-Flight Engineer
D-Flight Dispatcher =

47-An aeroplane that has positive static stability:

A. is always dynamically stable
B. is always dynamically unstable
C. is never dynamically stable
D. can be dynamically stable, neutral or unstable =

48-The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is:
A. Limiting torque.
B. Limiting compressor speed.
C. Limiting speed.
D. Limiting exhaust gas temperature. =

49-Which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning glide slope deviation
alerting system?
A-Small turbine – powered airplane only
B-All Turbine Powered Airplanes
C-Passenger Carrying Turbine-Powered Airplanes only
D-Large Turbine Powered Airplanes only =

50-What restriction applies to a cargo bin in a passenger compartment? the bin:

A-Must withstand the load factor required of passenger seats, multiplied by 1.15, using the combined
weight of the bin and the maximum weight of the cargo that may be carried in the bin. =
B-Must be constructed of flame retardant material and fully enclosed.
C-Must withstand the load factor required of passenger seats, multiplied by 2.15, using the combined
weight of the bin and the maximum weight of the cargo that may be carried in the bin.
D-May have an open top if it is placed in front of the passengers and the cargo is secured by a cargo
net.

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51-The maximum numbers of hours that a flight crew member for an international flight using two pilots
and additional flight crew member may fly during 90 consecutive days is:
A. 300 hours =
B. 350 hours
C. 275 hours
D. 250 hours

52-In flight planning preparation, which of the following is not correct?

A. The PIC signing the operational flight plan shall have access to the applicable flight planning
information
B. The operational flight plan shall include the routing and fuel calculations with respect to the
meteorological and other factors expected, to complete the flight to destination only =
C. All approved flight planning software, systems, and/or procedures should be specified in Ops Specs
D. The flight planning data is legal to use in the dispatch of a commercial air flight

53-The Mach Number is:

A-All options are correct
B-The ratio of the aircraft’s IAS to speed of sound at the same atmospheric conditions
C-The ratio of the aircraft’s TAS to the speed of sound at the sea level
D-The ratio of the aircraft’s TAS to the speed of sound at the same atmospheric conditions =

54-What action should be taking by the pic of transport category aircraft if airborne weather radar
becomes inoperative en-route IFR flight, for which weather report indicates possible thunderstorms?
A-Proceed in accordance with approved instructions and procedures specified in the operations
manual for such an event =
B-Return to the departure airport if the thunderstorms has not been encounter, and there is enough fuel
remaining.
C-Request radar vectors from ATC to nearest suitable airport and land.
D-None of the options is correct

55-The angle of climb is proportional to:

A-The angle of attack of the wing
B-The amount by which the lift exceeds the weight
C-The amount by which the thrust exceeds the weight =
D-All options are correct

56-Which speed symbol indicates the maximum operating limit speed for an aircraft?
A.VMO/MMO =
B. VLE.
C. MLO.
D. VLO/MLO.

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57-The pilot in command of an airplane en route determine that icing condition can be expected that
might adversely affect safety of the flight. Which action is appropriate?
A-The flight may continue to the original destination airport, provided all anti-icing and deicing
equipment is operational and is used.
B-The flight may continue to the original destination airport, after climbing to a higher altitude.
C-The pilot in command shall not continue into the icing conditions. =
D-The flight may continue to the original destination airport, but at a lower altitude

58-An overstressed pilot may show the following symptoms:

1.Mental blocks, confusion and channelized attention
2.Resignation, frustration, rage
3.Deterioration in motor coordination
4.High pitch voice and fast speaking
A-1, 2, 3 and 4 are false
B-1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct =
C-1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
D-1 and 3 are correct, 2 and 4 are false

59-What information from the passenger manifest must the pilot in command of a domestic air carrier
operator carry to the destination airport?
A-cargo and passenger distribution
B-Name of the passengers =
C-passenger distribution
D-the maximum allowable weight for that flight

60-What is the landing distance required when on a wet runway as opposed to the normal dry length
required?
A-110%
B-130%
C-120%
D-115% =

61-Which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning glide slope deviation
alerting system?
A-Large Turbine Powered Airplanes only =
B-Passenger-carrying Turbine-Powered Airplanes only
C-All multi-engine powered airplane
D-All Turbine Powered Airplanes

62-Rule based behaviors are stored in the:

A-Short memory
B-Long term memory =
C-Episodic memory
D-Semantic memory

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 REVISION 1, DEC 2021 DATS CAA PREPARATION TEST PAPER 1 ALL IN ONE 2

63-Where is a list maintained for Routes that require special Navigation Equipment
A-International Flight Information Manual.
B-Airport Operations manual
C-Airline Operations Specifications =
D-Airplane flight Manual

64-Under normal operational condition the maximum certified altitude of a typical jet transport aircraft
is manufactured between:
A-Sea level and 13000ft
B-Sea level and 8000ft =
C-Sea level and 10000ft
D-Sea level and 15000ft

65-Drag is in the direction of ------and lift is perpendicular to

A-the chord line
B-relative wind/angle =
C-horixon
D-longitudinal

66-A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while you are still parked. The
reference document you used to decide would be?
A-MEL =
B-AFM
C-NCAR
D-Ops manual chapter of emergency and abnormal

67-DH is used in a:
A) Centered approach
B) Uncentred approach
C) Precision approach =
D) Non precision approach

68-Who ensure that Dangerous goods carried on board is not prohibited?

A) Operator =
B) PIC with reference with whats on the manual
C) the handler
D) the shipper

69-A wet runway can be increase by what percentage

A) 15% =
B) 10%
C) 20%
D) 22%

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70-Can an Aircraft abort it takeoff during emergency before V1

A) Yes, since is not VR yet
B) Yes, since is not VEF yet =
C) It can takeoff since is not up to VR
D) Since is not critical energy

71-Certification of release to service to be retain by owner

A) 6 months
B) 12 months =
C) 18 months
D) 3 months

72-Who is responsible for giving information appropriate to the PIC while in flight?
A) Aircraft dispatcher =
B) Second in command (co-pilot)
C) Flight engineer
D) ATC

73-V1, VR, V2 are type of

A) IAS =
B) TAS
C) CAS
D) GS

74-Category I minima
A) 50 ft
B) 200 ft =
C) 150 ft
D) 100

75-under normal operation, what is the highest/maximum altitude to be operated?

A) 15ft =
B) 8ft
C) 13ft
D) 10ft

76-Dark illusion for the cones and rods

A) 7 minutes and 30 minute =
B) 10 minutes and 30 minutes
C) 10 minutes and 45 minutes
D) 7 minutes and 45 minutes

77-How old a dispatcher should be

A) 18
B) 21 =
C)
D)
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78-All aircraft of MTOW of 27000 kg shall be equip with ----- flight data recorder.
A) Type I
B) Type II =
C) Type 1A
D)

79-After decompression at cruising altitude there will be enough supplemental oxygen available for
flight crew to descent to
A-13000 =
B-15000
C-25000
D-14000

80-How is a flight release if stop at intermediate points

A) 1 hour for domestic flight; 6 hours for flag international flight =
B) 3 months
C) 3 hours for domestic flight; 24 hours for flag international flight
D) 24 hours for domestic flight; 48 hours for flag international flight

81-One of the requirements for dynamic stability is

A) A small C.G range
B) Effective elevator
C) A large deflection of a stabilizer Trim
D) Positive static stability =

82-After decompression and descent there will be enough supplementary oxygen available for flight
crew for all flight time above
A) 15000 ft
B) 13000 ft =
C) 25000 ft
D) 14000 ft

83-Oxygen should be used after rapid decompression in an emergency descent until what altitude?
A) 15000 ft
B) 13000 ft =
C) 14000 ft
D) 10000 ft

84-Where is a list maintained for Routes that require special Navigation Equipment
A-International Flight Information Manual.
B-Airport Operations Manual
C-Airline Operations Specifications =
D-Airplane flight Manual

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85-The aircraft is pressurized by

A) controlling the amount of bleed air of the engine
B) controlling the amount of bleed air into the engine
C) controlling the rate that air flow out of the cabin
D) controlling the rate that air flows into the cabin =

86-On the retina, the rod cells are

A) Concentrating in area of the fovea
B) Highly sensitive to colour change particularly those at the red end of the spectrum
C) Highly sensitive to colour change particularly those at the blue end of the spectrum
D) Sensitive to much lower light levels than the cone cells =

87-Oxygen should be use after rapid decompression in an emergency descent until, what altitude?
A) 15000 ft
B) 13000 ft =
C) 14000 ft
D) 10000 ft

88-The manual for aircraft performance planning and aircraft loading and handling shall be
A) specific to the aircraft category and group
B) specific to the aircraft category
C) specific to the aircraft type
D) specific to the aircraft type and variant =

89-Hypertension is
A) elevated arterial blood pressure =
B) a precursor to the unset of a heart attack
C) a cause of gout
D) a high state of stress

90-In case of an engine failure, which is recognize at or above V1?

A) a height of 50 ft most be reach within the takeoff distance
B) the takeoff should be rejected, if the speed is still below VR
C) the takeoff must be continue =
D) the takeoff must be rejected, if the speed is still below VLOF

91-a severe cold can cause problem with blocked sinuses and ear. This condition is commonly known
as ----
A) Barotrauma =
B) Octic barotrauma
C) Flu
D) Sinuses barotrauma

92-What are ICAO defined Instrument Approach?

A) Precision Category i, ii, iii
B) Instrument Precision and Category ii and iii
C) Precision in general
D) Non-precision and Category i, ii, iii precision =
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93-Which color on a Tri-color VASI is on-course indication?

A) green =
B) amber
C) yellow
D) red

94-Longitudinal static stability is created by the fact that the-----

A) Wing surface is greater than the horizontal tail surface
B) Centre of gravity is located in front of the leading edge of the wing
C) Centre of gravity is located in front of the neutral point of the aeroplane =
D) Aeroplane poses a large trim speed range

95-To act as Pilot in command (PIC) of an aircraft you must have either a logbook endorsement
showing the satisfactory completion of flight review or a completion of the pilot proficiency check
within the preceding----
A) 6 calendar months =
B) 24 calendar months
C) 12 calendar months
D) 36 calendar months

96-Following an emergency how soon should dispatcher and pilot file a report?
A) Within 10 days =
B) As soon as possible after but not later than 3 days following the event
C) Within 7 days
D) Within 48 hours

97-A national air carrier flight (engage with international flight) land at intermediate airport at 1105Z.
The latest time it may depart without being redispatch is
A) 1705Z =
B) 2305Z
C) 0005Z
D) 2005Z

98-Anthropometry used in the design of aircraft and flight deck data is taking from----
A) All options are correct
B) General cross section of the general public
C) Selected cross section of the general public
D) A specify population =

99-If the airworthiness documents do not specify a correction for landing on a wet runway. The
landing distance most be increase
A) 15% =
B) 10%
C) 25%
D) 20%

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100-The mean aerodynamic chord (MAC) for a given wing of plan form is -----
A) a chord of a large rectangular wing
B) the average chord of the actual aeroplane
C) the chord of rectangular wing with some moment and lift =
D) the wing area divided by the wing span

END

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