Mock CAT - 4 Test Booklet Serial Number: 7 7 0 3 6 2

INSTRUCTIONS
Before the Test:
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At the Start of the Test:
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How to answer:
1. This test has three sections which examine various abilities. These 3 sections have 75 questions in all with
each section having 25 questions. The marks allotted to each question is given in the parenthesis along side
each question. You will be given two and half hours to complete the test. In distributing the time over the
three sections, please bear in mind that you need to demonstrate your competence in all three sections.
2. Directions for answering the questions are given before some of the questions wherever necessary. Read
these directions carefully and answer the questions by darkening the appropriate circles on the Answer
Sheet. There is only one correct answer to each question.
3. Each wrong answer will attract a penalty of one-fourth of the marks allotted to the question.
4. Do your rough work only on the Test Booklet and NOT on the Answer Sheet.
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After the Test:
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leave the hall until the invigilator announces. “You may leave now.” The invigilator will make the announcement
only after collecting the Answer Sheets from all the candidates in the room.
2. You may retain this Test Booklet with you.
Candidates giving assistance or seeking/receiving help from any source in answering questions or copying
in any manner in the test will have their Answer Sheets cancelled.

MCT-0008/08 Test Form Number: 004

Space for rough work
 SECTION – I

Number of Questions = 25

DIRECTIONS for Questions 1 to 4: In each question, there are five sentences. The sentence labelled
A is in its correct place. The four that follow are labelled B, C, D and E, and need to be arranged in the logical
order to form a coherent paragraph. From the given options, choose the most appropriate option.

1. A. According to materialists, the universe was eternal, and therefore, there was no purpose or special
creation in it.
B. Claiming that everything came into being as the result of unconscious atoms assembling at random,
they believed that no matter how much complexity, balance and magnificent regularity was exhibited
by the external world, these were still the result of purposeless coincidences.
C. Materialists imagined that all the balances, equilibrium, harmony and order in the universe were
solely the results of chance.
D. Since materialism rejected the concepts of purpose and creation to the universe, it also denied the
existence of a Creator.
E. Materialist minds had held such preconceptions ever since the days of Ancient Greece.
(4 marks)
(1) CBED (2) EBDC (3) DBEC (4) DCEB (5) ECBD

2. A. It’s called My Beautiful Mommy, and it’s a children’s book published in the US next week. That all
sounds regular and above board, you think, until I tell you why mommy is so beautiful - it’s
because she has had extensive plastic surgery.
B. What do I know of the ways in which one might mess up one’s child? Nothing at all.
C. But some might say the book, by Florida plastic surgeon Dr Michael Salzhauer, and written for four
to seven year olds, is a step too far.
D. You can see why a book might be a good way to tackle the issue of plastic surgery with kids, since
how do you do it on your own?
E. Reconstructive surgery, you might call it, after the natural disaster - sorry, precious and awe-inspiring
miracle - that is having a child. And the beauty is, if you have a tummy tuck and breast implants in
one hit, you get a bonanza two-for-one offer on the therapy your child might need in the future.
Please don’t try to redeem this offer, I am just being supercilious. (4 marks)

(1) BCED (2) DCBE (3) BEDC (4) DEBC (5) EBDC

3. A. Charged by the longer days and the tease of warmth in the air, the sap is now flooding into previously
barren growth. You can practically hear it coursing towards the end of every branch and on into the
twigs to flesh out buds that have been tightly sealed for five months.
B. The fresh green of spring is like a high that I find myself chasing. I want more and I want to be
consumed by the deluge of newness that comes with it.
C. A beech wood is my favourite place to go at precisely this moment, not just to catch the violet wave
of bluebells but also to soak in the intense and luminous greens.
D. The colour is magnified, with one branch layered upon the next, filtering the spring sunshine from
way up in the canopy with the grandeur of a cathedral.
E. The scales protecting these buds litter the ground under beech trees and remind you to look up to
where the action is. (2 marks)

(1) BCDE (2) DCEB (3) ECBD (4) BDCE (5) ECDB

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4. A. An especially important barrier is the traditional stereotyping of leadership which has failed to
address the female perspective and its related qualities. Most of what is learned in administrative
leadership courses comes from male-based experiences.
B. Over 30 years ago, it was found through research that men tended to select careers based on interests,
aptitudes, and financial possibilities, while women, on the other hand, tended to be influenced in
career decisions by career role models or significant others
C. Historically, men have been encouraged towards management and women to instruction- For years,
male organizational leaders have supported and mentored each other in “a good old boy” network,
filling administrative positions with friends and proteges, while largely ignoring qualified women
for these positions.
D. Supported by a study which found that while female and male teachers identify the same qualities
as desirable in a principal regardless of the principal’s gender, male principals are viewed by females
as having legitimate authority based solely on the position, whereas both males and females say
that women must work to earn their authority.
E. Yet, others noted that while women are less able than men to influence others, they are more
effective at getting things done; however, there is another barrier related to ingrained cultural
perceptions of leadership and that is of sponsorship or networking. (4 marks)

(1) BCDE (2) DECB (3) EDBC (4) CDBE (5) BDCE

DIRECTIONS for Questions 5 to 7: Each of the following questions has a paragraph with one italicized
word that does not make sense. Choose the most appropriate replacement for that word from the options
given below the paragraph.

5. It’s a bright, clear day in Milwaukee. The downtown shoreline shimmers under the radiance of a sun
that is dazzling in intensity. Its luminous glow lights up the visually stunning structure of gleaming steel
and concrete that is the Milwaukee Art Museum. Gracing the city’s downtown lakefront area, the
Museum is a marvel of architecture and engineering that owes its existence to the imagination and
crusganity of its creator, Santiago Calatrava. (4 marks)
(1) freshness (2) cognizance (3) ingenuity (4) rationality (5) quirkiness

6. Titian died 427 years ago in Venice, where he had lived and worked for most of his life. He was in his
late 80s. He had been apprenticed to be a painter at around the age of 10 - under Giovanni Bellini - and
continued working right to the end. He died as the richest painter in Venice, and his career, parricable
as well as in life, has seen no faltering in his reputation. (2 marks)

(1) posthumous (2) flourishing (3) winsome (4) prolific (5) unmarred

7. Thenot’s use of ‘enargeia’ is similar to Despair’s use of the device in the story of ‘The Faerie Queene’.
Like Thenot, Despair is an older man trying to persuade a younger man that his youthful self-satisfaction
is dangerous and should be disterputed. (4 marks)
(1) choked (2) liquidated (3) systematized (4) maneuvered (5) squelched

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DIRECTIONS for Questions 8 to 10: In each of the following questions a paragraph is given followed by
five summaries. Choose the option that best summarizes the paragraph

8. How many experts does it actually take to change a light bulb, specifically an eco light bulb? That has
been the question ever since Compact Fluorescent Lamps (CFLs) experienced a fall from sustainable
grace. This happened when some bright spark raised questions about their mercury content (admittedly
a neurotoxin) which might - so the concern went - pose a grave threat to our personal health. Previously,
changing your light bulbs seemed like the ideal low-hanging fruit for all of us eager to diminish our
hulking carbon footprint. Just to recap: CFLs use around 60 per cent less electricity than their conventional
incandescent counterparts; they last six to 15 times longer and save you from emitting some 170lbs of
CO2 emissions per bulb. So changing your bulbs can cut your CO2 burden by about 10 per cent.
Indeed, by the end of next year retailers will be banned (by law) from selling high-wattage incandescents.
(4 marks)
(1) CFLs were the ideal environmentally-friendly solution to high wattage incandescents until recently.
(2) We can no longer say that CFLs are the ideal environmental-friendly solution to high wattage
incandescents.
(3) The mercury content of CFLs has made them hazardous and poses a grave threat to human health.
(4) CFLs, which were considered an ideal eco-friendly solution to high wattage incandescents, have
been questioned as regards their mercury content.
(5) CFLs have experienced a fall from sustainable grace due to their high mercury content.

9. A Sense of Life differs from simple emotions. It is not an emotional evaluation of one’s metaphysical
views, whether implicit or explicit. A Sense of Life is not programmed by a single evaluation. It is an
integration of countless evaluations. Over the course of one’s life, it integrates emotions and value-
judgments related to all aspects of living. A Sense of Life is the sum of these emotions and value-
judgments. This is the method by which it acts as an emotional evaluation of the world. Not directly
through a concept of the world and an appropriate judgment, but a complex summation of judgments
about every aspect of the world one has made. (4 marks)
(1) A sense of life differs from simple emotions as it is not just a single evaluation.
(2) A Sense of life is a complex concept as opposed to simple emotions or a single evaluation or
judgement about the world.
(3) A sense of life is an integration of emotions and judgements about the world that one has made over
the course of one’s life.
(4) Emotions and value-judgements are part and parcel of a sense of life which can be attained only
over the course of one’s life.
(5) A sense of life is not easy to attain as it is a complex integration of evaluations about the world.

10. To forgive someone doesn’t mean condoning their actions. It just means absolving yourself of the hurt
and pain and getting back control over your own life and emotions. It means easing the burden of
revenge and hatred from your shoulders and getting on with life. You don’t forgive for another; you do
it for yourself — to come to terms with your emotions and to attempt a closure on an episode that
refuses to let go of you. If you don’t do that, years later you would still be smarting from an action,
stuck in a painful time zone, while the perpetrator of all that pain has moved on and put the incident
behind him. So, rather than him, you are the one living out the consequences of his action!
(4 marks)
(1) You forgive someone for yourself
(2) You forgive someone to ease the burden of revenge from your shoulders.
(3) There is no better way to get control over your life than forgiving someone.
(4) You forgive someone to avoid a lot of pain later on.
(5) The person whom you don’t forgive is least bothered about what you are going through.

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DIRECTIONS for Questions 11 to 13: The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose
the best answer to each question.

PASSAGE

OVER the past half century the United States and other economically advanced countries have made the shift
into what has been called an information society, the information age, or the post-industrial era. The futurist
Alvin Toffler has labeled this transition the “Third Wave,” suggesting that it will ultimately be as consequential
as the two previous waves in human history: from hunter-gatherer to agricultural societies, and from agricultural
to industrial ones.
A society built around information tends to produce more of the two things people value most in a modern
democracy - freedom and equality. Freedom of choice has exploded, in everything from cable channels to
low-cost shopping outlets to friends met on the Internet. Hierarchies of all sorts, political and corporate, have
come under pressure and begun to crumble.
People associate the information age with the advent of the Internet, in the 1990s but the shift from the
industrial era started more than a generation earlier, with the de-industrialization of the Rust Belt in the United
States and comparable movements away from manufacturing in other industrialized countries. This period,
roughly the mid-1960s to the early 1990s was also marked by seriously deteriorating social conditions in
most of the industrialized world. Crime and social disorder began to rise, making inner-city areas of the
wealthiest societies on earth almost uninhabitable. The decline of kinship as a social institution, which has
been going on for more than 200 years, accelerated sharply in the second half of the twentieth century.
Marriages and births declined and divorce soared; and one out of every three children in the United States and
more than half of all children in Scandinavia were born out of wedlock. Finally, trust and confidence in
institutions went into a forty-year decline. Although a majority of people in the United States and Europe
expressed confidence in their governments and fellow citizens during the late 1950s only a small minority did
so by the early 1990s. The nature of people’s involvement with one another changed as well - although there
is no evidence that people associated with one another less, their ties tended to be less permanent, looser, and
with smaller groups of people.
These changes were dramatic; they occurred over a wide range of similar countries; and they all appeared at
roughly the same period in history. As such, they constituted a Great Disruption in the social values that had
prevailed in the industrial-age society of the mid twentieth century. It is very unusual for social indicators to
move together so rapidly; even without knowing why they did so, we have cause to suspect that the reasons
might be related. Although William J. Bennett and other conservatives are often attacked for harping on the
theme of moral decline, they are essentially correct: the perceived breakdown of social order is not a matter of
nostalgia, poor memory, or ignorance about the hypocrisies of earlier ages. The decline is readily measurable
in statistics on crime, fatherless children, broken trust, reduced opportunities for and outcomes from education,
and the like.
Was it simply an accident that these negative social trends, which together reflect a weakening of social bonds
and common values in Western societies, occurred just as the economies of those societies were making the
transition from the industrial to the information era? The two were in fact intimately connected, and although
many blessings have flowed from a more complex, information-based economy, certain bad things also
happened to our social and moral life. The connections were technological, economic, and cultural. The
changing nature of work tended to substitute mental for physical labor, propelling millions of women into the
workplace and undermining the traditional understandings on which the family had been based. Innovations
in medical technology leading to the birth-control pill and increasing longevity diminished the role of
reproduction and family in people’s lives. And the culture of individualism, which in the laboratory and the
marketplace leads to innovation and growth, spilled over into the realm of social norms, where it corroded
virtually all forms of authority and weakened the bonds holding families, neighborhoods, and nations together.

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The complete story is, of course, much more complex than this, and differs from one country to another. But
broadly speaking, the technological change that brought about what the economist Joseph Schumpeter called
“creative destruction” in the marketplace caused similar disruption in the world of social relationships. Indeed,
it would be surprising if this were not true.

11. Based on the passage, which of the following cannot be inferred as a possible consequence of the
advent of the information age? (6 marks)
(1) Flat organizations with few levels between the junior employees and senior managers
(2) A rise in the number of nuclear families and day-care centers for children of such families
(3) Rising unemployment level for skilled and educated workers
(4) Redefining of market boundaries and increased innovation by companies
(5) A heightened nostalgia for earlier ages
12. Which of the following can be a possible topic for the paragraph immediately following the last para in
the passage? (6 marks)
(1) The construction of a new social order in the information age by the decentralized individual
(2) The industrial age and social organization in that age
(3) ‘Creative destruction’ in the marketplace in the information age
(4) Cynicism about institutions in the post-industrial age
(5) The ‘Third Wave’ by Alvin Toffler
13. With which of the following statements about the ‘Great Disruption’ is the author not likely to agree?
(6 marks)
(1) The roots of the Great Disruption can be traced to events that occurred even before the advent of the
Internet age
(2) Even though the Great Disruption coincided with the process of economies transitioning from the
industrial to the information age the two cannot be clearly linked
(3) The negative social trends like crime, divorces and lack of confidence in governments were symptoms
of the Great Disruption rather than its causes
(4) The Great Disruption was an indirect outcome of two things people valued in the information
age- freedom and equality
(5) The changes that characterized the Great Disruption were neither gradual nor restricted to certain
parts of the world

DIRECTIONS for Questions 14 to 16: Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which the last
sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the sentence that completes the paragraph in the
most appropriate way.
14. A converging set of powerful economic, technological, demographic and national security developments
requires a workforce that is far more internationally savvy and expert in foreign languages and cultures.
But the United States’ top business leaders and future workforce are woefully unprepared to meet the
challenges of globalization. In today’s global economy, foreign language skills have become vital to
our children’s future as members of the workforce and to our nation’s future success in the
world.___________________________________________ (4 marks)
(1) According to the U.S. Department of Commerce, one in five jobs is tied to international trade.
(2) In 2007, U.S. exports of goods and services rose by almost 13 percent from 2006.
(3) Over the past decade, this figure has increased by more than 78 percent and far outpaces the growth
of domestic profits by U.S. companies.
(4) It’s time for business leaders and concerned community members to heed the importance of teaching
foreign languages to our children.
(5) In this current climate of globalization, new skills are needed to achieve business and professional
success.

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15. The tests, apart from a few personal and anthropometric data included to make possible a comparison
between physical and mental endowment, fall naturally into (a) the senses, (b) the motor capacities, and
(c) the more complex mental processes. Certain general desiderata may, perhaps, be suggested as
applicable to each of these groups. It is well to have each test give information regarding a single or
very limited group of powers; specific typical tests are better than general ones. _________________
(4 marks)
(1) It is better to select, even if in part arbitrarily, one form of a certain sense capacity and to test that
sufficiently to yield a definite result.
(2) It is important to arrange a test so that it is definitely clear just what the capacity tested is.
(3) It is desirable that the form of capacity chosen shall be related to the activities of daily life.
(4) It is often best to choose, as the basis of tests, sense-impressions which are unfamiliar to all.
(5) The conditions of the tests should be simple, easily intelligible, and, if possible, interesting to induce
in the subject a natural attitude and a desire to do the best.

16. Surowiecki offers a multitude of examples that demonstrate how crowds have made eerily accurate
predictions. He points to the aftermath of the space shuttle Challenger disaster, for instance. The stock
market immediately began to punish one of the four main shuttle contractors more harshly than the
others. Six months later, it turned out that company was responsible for the disastrously defective
O-rings. ________________________________ (4 marks)
(1) The reason it’s so hard to beat the point spread in a sports bet is because you’re playing against the
hordes and the hordes know all.
(2) There are certain rules for optimum crowd success.
(3) The smartest crowds are diverse.
(4) Ideally, individuals in the group should evaluate the question or dilemma independently.
(5) A group is better at guessing the number of jelly beans in a jar than any one individual.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 17 to 19: The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose
the best answer to each question.

PASSAGE

Any type of psychology that treats motives, thereby endeavoring to answer the question as to why men
behave as they do, is called a dynamic psychology. By its very nature it cannot be merely a descriptive
psychology, content to depict the what and the how of human behavior. The boldness of dynamic psychology
in striking for causes stands in marked contrast to the timid, “more scientific,” view that seeks nothing else
than the establishment of a mathematical function for the relation between some artificially simple stimulus
and some equally artificial and simple response. If the psychology of personality is to be more than a matter
of coefficients of correlation it too must be a dynamic psychology, and seek first and foremost a sound and
adequate theory of the nature of human dispositions.

The type of dynamic psychology almost universally held, though sufficient from the point of view of the
abstract motives of the generalized mind, fails to provide a foundation solid enough to bear the weight of any
single full-bodied personality. The reason is that prevailing dynamic doctrines refer every mature motive of
personality to underlying original instincts, wishes, or needs, shared by all men. Thus, the concert artist’s
devotion to his music is sometimes ‘explained’ as an extension of his self-assertive instinct, of the need for
sentience, or as a symptom of some repressed striving of the libido. In McDougall’s hormic psychology, for
example, it is explicitly stated that only the instincts or propensities can be prime movers. Though capable of
extension (on both the receptive and executive sides), they are always few in number, common in all men,
and established at birth. The enthusiastic collector of bric-a-brac derives his enthusiasm from the parental
instinct; so too does the kindly old philanthropist, as well as the mother of a brood. It does not matter how

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different these three interests may seem to be, they derive their energy from the same source. The principle is
that a very few basic motives suffice for explaining the endless varieties of human interests. The psychoanalyst
holds the same over-simplified theory. The number of human interests that he regards as so many canalizations
of the one basic sexual instinct is past computation.

The authors of this type of dynamic psychology are concerning themselves only with mind-in-general. They
seek a classification of the common and basic motives by which to explain both normal or neurotic behavior
of any individual case. (This is true even though they may regard their own list as heuristic or even as
fictional.) The plan really does not work. The very fact that the lists are so different in their composition
suggests — what to a naïve observer is plain enough — that motives are almost infinitely varied among men,
not only in form but in substance. Not four wishes, nor eighteen propensities, nor any and all combinations of
these, even with their extensions and variations, seem adequate to account for the endless variety of goals
sought by an endless variety of mortals. Paradoxically enough, in many personalities the few simplified needs
or instincts alleged to be the common ground for all motivation, turn out to be completely lacking.

The second type of dynamic psychology, the one here defended, regards adult motives as infinitely varied,
and as self-sustaining, contemporary systems, growing out of antecedent systems, but functionally independent
of them. Just as a child gradually repudiates his dependence on his parents, develops a will of his own,
becomes self-active and self-determining, and outlives his parents, so it is with motives. Each motive has a
definite point of origin which may possibly lie in instincts, or, more likely, in the organic tensions of infancy.
Chronologically speaking, all adult purposes can be traced back to these seed-forms in infancy, but as the
individual matures the tie is broken. Whatever bond remains, is historical, not functional.

Such a theory is obviously opposed to psychoanalysis and to all other genetic accounts that assume inflexibility
in the root purposes and drives of life. (Freud says that the structure of the Id never changes!) The theory
declines to admit that the energies of adult personality are infantile or archaic in nature. Motivation is always
contemporary. The life of modern Athens is continuous with the life of the ancient city, but it in no sense
depends upon its present “go.” The life of a tree is continuous with that of its seed, but the seed no longer
sustains and nourishes the full grown tree. Earlier purposes lead into later purposes, and are abandoned in
their favor.

William James taught a curious doctrine that has been a matter for incredulous amusement ever since, the
doctrine of the transitoriness of instincts. According to this theory — not so quaint as sometimes thought —
an instinct appears but once in a lifetime, whereupon it promptly disappears through its transformation into
habits. If there are instincts this is no doubt of their fate, for no instinct can retain its motivational force
unimpaired after it has been absorbed and recast under the transforming influence of learning. Such is the
reasoning of James, and such is the logic of functional autonomy. The psychology of personality must be a
psychology of post-instinctive behavior.

Woodworth has spoken of the transformation of “mechanisms” into “drives.” A mechanism Woodworth
defines as any course of behavior that brings about an adjustment. A drive is any neural process that releases
mechanisms especially concerned with consummatory reactions. In the course of learning, many preparatory
mechanisms must be developed in order to lead to the consummation of an original purpose. These mechanisms
are the effective cause of activity in each succeeding mechanism, furnishing the drive for each stage following
in the series. Originally all these mechanisms were merely instrumental, only links in the long chain of processes
involved in the achievement of an instinctive purpose; with time and development, with integration and
elaboration, many of these mechanisms become activated directly, setting up a state of desire and tension for
activities and objects no longer connected with the original impulse. Activities and objects that earlier in the
game were means to an end, now become ends in themselves.

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Although Woodworth’s choice of quasi-neurological terminology is not the best, his doctrine, or one like it is
indispensable in accounting for the infinite number of effective motives possible in human life, and for their
severance from the rudimentary desires of infancy.

17. Which is the thematic highlight of this passage? (6 marks)

(1) The two kinds of dynamic psychology.
(2) The psychology of post- instinctive behaviour.
(3) The effective motives in human life.
(4) The transforming influence of learning.
(5) The logic of functional autonomy.

18. Dynamic psychology refers to (4 marks)

(1) The depiction of human behaviour.
(2) The accepting of why people behave in a certain manner.
(3) The understanding of human disposition vis-à-vis behaviour.
(4) The classification of human behaviour.
(5) The extension of the self.

19. According to the passage, the term “transitoriness of instincts” refers to (4 marks)
(1) The lingering nature of instincts.
(2) The lone appearance of instinct.
(3) The appearance and transformation of instinct.
(4) The transitory nature of habits.
(5) The transformational prowess of learning.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 20 to 22: In each question, there are four to five sentences or parts of sentences
that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) that is/are correct in terms of grammar
and usage. Then, choose the most appropriate option.

20. A. Freedom, straight understood is a fulfillment,

B. of the person, of the commanded events of his life.
C. A free person moves about a volunteer fashion,
D. exempts responsibly and plays his individual important role in a world
E. where definitive events pass through him and by his election and spontaneous will.
(2 marks)
(1) A, B, D (2) B, D, E (3) B only (4) D and E only (5) A, C, E

21. A. No greater good fortune can befall a child than to be born into a home where the best books are
read, the best music interpreted, and people enjoy the best talk.
B. For in these privileges, the richest educational opportunities are supplied. Many things are said to
which he lacks the key; but the atmosphere of such a home envelops him by the most receptive
years;
C. his imagination has been arrested by pictures, sounds, images and facts, which fall into it like seeds
into a quick soil;
D. his memory is stored without conscious effort. It is his greatest privilege that a life so large and rich
receives him with unstinted hospitality.
(2 marks)
(1) B and C (2) C and D (3) A, B and C (4) B, C and D (5) Only D

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22. A. Martin Scorsese is no stranger about rock music.
B. His film The Last Waltz on the rock group,
C. The Band, was hailed as one of greatest
D. concert films ever made. Now the director
E. has filmed on the Rolling Stones.
(2 marks)
(1) A, B and D (2) B, D, E (3) B only (4) B and D (5) D only

DIRECTIONS for Questions 23 to 25: The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose
the best answer to each question.

PASSAGE

Identifying Drucker’s greatest contribution is as easy as throwing a dart at a dartboard. Imagine the dartboard
contains the following labels: economist, historian, scholar, journalist, consultant, teacher. Any single one
might do as a label. But perhaps the one he might select would be teacher. In a Harvard Business Review
essay “Managing Oneself,” he admitted that before he could write about a subject he would have to teach it.
And so he taught generations about what management is and what it can be, first at Bennington College in
Vermont, later at New York University and finally at Claremont College. He did the same in his consulting
work when CEOs would gather at his home. One can imagine those sessions being something like ones
Socrates might have held. Drucker holding forth by posing ideas and questions, challenging assumptions and
getting his acolytes – some of the most powerful men in business – to think about issues and re think their
assumptions.

It is in his writings that we know Drucker best. He wrote some 40 books and thousands of articles. His initial
masterwork was The End of Economic Man, followed in short order by Concept of the Corporation, a study
of General Motors that Drucker admits influenced everyone except General Motors. Its publication in 1946
gave him the platform of authority and wisdom that lasted for the remainder of his long life.

Three great themes dominate Drucker’s library of works. The first is the concept of management as a discipline.
He developed the idea of “management by objective” which was a means of targeting what you wanted to do
and then putting people and systems in place to achieve it. Aligned with that concept is that businesses are in
business to serve their customers. The second theme is that people are a resource. Curiously, it was the
Japanese, in their quest to recover from the devastation of World War II, who embraced this concept most
readily. After all, a people with scant natural and economic resources had very little else but themselves. The
third theme is societal sustainability, how can we make the world as a better place. Toward this end, Drucker
not only wrote about management of non profits but put his own time and energy into working with such
organizations without fee. Over and above all of these is the concept that the Wall Street Journal aptly captured
in its tribute piece to him “It’s All About People.”

Drucker coined the phrase “knowledge worker,” and by doing so made people the central focus of organizations.
He wrote that organizations must learn to manage knowledge workers as if they were volunteers. Volunteers
possess a zeal and commitment for what they do and if they do not see results, they move on. The same,
Drucker believed, applies to knowledge workers in the for profit sector – give them a reason and show them
results or they will tune out. The irony of what Drucker taught us is this: This is all obvious as well as correct.
And with good reason — his ideas have become common currency, even when they are not practiced.

In his last essay for the Wall Street Journal, published in December 2004, he expounded on the role of the
CEO, making the twofold proposition that while it is the CEO’s job to set direction for the company, it is also
the company’s responsibility to help the CEO do his or her job. Reading the essay, I am struck by what always

004 9
impresses me about Drucker: his breadth of knowledge. Here in one piece are mentions of the Jesuits, Herbert
Hoover, Shakespeare, Alexander Hamilton and Siemens – all of whom are used to illustrate his arguments
and provide insight for his prescriptives. That essay was written when he was 95. But as with all teachers, the
greatest legacy is with their students. Those paying tribute to Drucker in a Wall Street Journal article published
on his death include executives and professors. Retired Intel CEO Andy Grove said that as “a young manager
[he was] very skeptical about management gurus and consultants.” All doubts melted with Drucker. Grove
said that Drucker’s words “spoke to me.”

23. The primary purpose of the author in this passage is to: (6 marks)
(1) Highlight that although there were many dimensions to Peter Drucker as a management guru he
was known best for his writings
(2) Emphasise that it is not easy to compartmentalize Peter Drucker as a management guru into any
specific slot
(3) Illustrate how, through his writings Peter Drucker made people the central focus of organizations
(4) Illustrate that teachers are best remembered through their students
(5) Describe the three great themes that pervaded Drucker’s writings.

24. Peter Drucker is most likely to agree with which of the following: (4 marks)
(1) A company needs to provide the right environment and support to its senior managers for them to
perform effectively.
(2) It is important to put people and systems in place before setting objectives to be achieved.
(3) Volunteers like knowledge workers persist in their tasks regardless of the outcomes or results
(4) Management principles cannot apply when it comes to running non-profit organizations.
(5) A good teacher need not necessarily make a good management writer

25. In para 4 when the author mentions that ‘…his ideas have become common currency, even when they
are not practiced’ he most probably implies that’ (4 marks)
(1) The management theories of Drucker were often esoteric truths rather than being obvious principles
easy to implement in practice
(2) Even if a company rarely follows the management principles put forth by Drucker it will still
acknowledge them to be useful
(3) Drucker’s ideas have been used by other management practitioners just as currency is commonly
used
(4) Drucker’s ideas can be compared to the capital that companies use to run their businesses
(5) Drucker’s ideas have usually been used by organizations other than the ones they were meant for

10 004
 SECTION – II

Number of Questions = 25

DIRECTIONS for Questions 26 to 29: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
CVM is an educational institution that provides training to the students for the IIT-JEE examination. The
students of the institution are divided into six different sections namely Jupiter, Earth, Venus, Mars, Pluto and
Saturn. A diagnostic test was conducted to check the intelligence level of the students across all the sections.
Based on the marks obtained in the diagnostic test, the students across all the sections were divided into seven
different categories namely Outstanding(O), Excellent(E), Very Good(V), Good(G), Average(A), Below
Average(B) and Poor(P). The following table provides information about the ratio of the number of the
students of each category in the different sections.

Jupiter Earth Venus Mars Pluto Saturn

O:E:V 1:2:1 1:3:1 2:3:1 1:1:1 3:1:2 2:1:1
V:G:A 1:4:1 2:2:1 1:3:2 1:1:4 2:1:3 1:1:1
A:B:O 1:2:1 1:1:2 2:3:2 8:1:2 1:3:1 1:1:2
O:B:P 1:2:1 2:1:5 2:3:5 2:1:2 1:3:4 2:1:1

For example, in the section Jupiter, 1:2:1 is the ratio of the number of students who were categorized as
Outstanding, Excellent and Very Good in that particular order.

Additional Information Given:

I. The number of students who are categorized as Very Good is maximum in the section Earth.
Number of students who are categorized as Outstanding in the section Venus 2
II. ≥ .
Number of students who are categorized as Outstanding in the section Pluto 9

26. Which of the following can be the total number of students in the section Pluto? (6 marks)
(1) 289 (2) 288 (3) 512 (4) 372 (5) 432

27. Which of the following cannot be the ratio of the total number of students in the section Earth to the
total number of students in the section Saturn? (4 marks)
(1) 19:8 (2) 1:1 (3) 2:1 (4) 8:1 (5) None of these

28. In how many sections, the number of students who are categorized as Poor is definitely less than the
number of students who are categorized as Poor in the section Earth? (4 marks)
(1) 3 (2) 0 (3) 2 (4) 1 (5) 4

29. If the total number of students in the section Venus is 608, then at most how many students are categorized
as Below Average in the section Pluto? (4 marks)
(1) 900 (2) 960 (3) 576 (4) 768 (5) 864

004 11
DIRECTIONS for Questions 30 to 32: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
‘KL Media’ is an organisation which is based out of Britain. It has only four verticals namely V1, V2, V3 and
V4 through which it does its business. The following pie charts provide information about the revenue generated
through each of these four mentioned verticals as a percentage of the total revenue generated by ‘KL Media’
in the years 2004 and 2007.

2004 2007
V3
V4 V4
(3%) V3
(2%) (2%)
(8%)
V2
(5%)

V1 V2 V1
(90%) (30%) (60%)

It is also given that the revenue generated through each of the mentioned verticals has grown by a minimum
of 10% each year over the period 2004 to 2007.

30. If the total revenue generated by ‘KL Media’ in the year 2004 is Rs.50 crores, then which of the
following could be the possible revenue(in Rs. crores) generated by ‘KL Media’ in the year 2007?
(4 marks)
(1) 75 (2) 87.5 (3) 95 (4) 120 (5) None of these

31. If growth in the revenue generated through vertical V2 is 100% more than the growth in the revenue
generated through vertical V1 over the period 2004 to 2007, then the percentage growth in the revenue
generated by ‘KL Media’ in the year 2007 over the year 2004 is (2 marks)
(1) 100% (2) 95% (3) 105% (4) 90% (5) Data Inconsistent

32. In the year 2008 the total revenue generated by ‘KL Media’ has grown by 30% over the year 2007.
Also, the revenue generated through the verticals V1, V2, V3 and V4 has grown by 20%, 25%, 50% and
100% respectively. If in the year 2008 there is another vertical V5 through which the organization does
its business, then what is the revenue generated through the vertical V5 as a percentage of the total
revenue generated by the organization in the year 2008? (4 marks)
(1) 2.5% (2) 3.5% (3) 1.5% (4) 4.5% (5) 5.5%

12 004
DIRECTIONS for Questions 33 to 37: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Rishi took four cubes and wrote one letter on each of the faces of the cubes such that all the letters written by
him are distinct. He neither wrote the letter ‘Q’ nor ‘X’. He played a game by throwing the cubes on the floor
and forming a word using the letters appearing on the top face of each cube. Following is the list of ten such
words that he made during the game.

CRAG FLEW WHIP FOUR GAZE

LAZY POLE ROAD TUCK MIKE

33. Out of the five other letters that are written on the same cube as the letter K, how many letters can be
uniquely determined? (6 marks)
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3 (5) 4

34. Which of the following words can be definitely formed using the given cubes? (2 marks)
(1) HOPE (2) FIRM (3) DRUM (4) CUBE (5) BODY

35. Which of the following words cannot be formed using the given cubes? (2 marks)
(1) DROP (2) DAME (3) WORD (4) MEAL (5) DOPE

36. If JUNK and SWAN can also be formed using the above mentioned cubes then which of the following
combination belongs to one of the cubes? (4 marks)
(1) S, I, U and Z (2) B, V, K and O (3) G, L, U and M
(4) K, F, P and Z (5) N, R, T and H

37. If JOIN and SAVE can also be formed using the above mentioned cubes then which of the following
words cannot be made using the given cubes? (4 marks)
(1) VASE (2) NOSE (3) JUNE (4) BRIM (5) SAGE

DIRECTIONS for Questions 38 to 41: Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Answer each
question using the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by using the statement A alone but not by using the statement B
alone.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using the statement B alone but not by using the statement A
alone.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using either of the statements alone.
Mark (4) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either of the
statements alone.
Mark (5) if the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.

38. If a, b and c are integers, then what is the value of (a2 + b2 + c2)? (6 marks)
A: 4a + 3b + 2c = 27 and 1 < a < b < c < 8.
B: a + b + c = 9 and 0 < a < b < c.

39. If the HCF of three positive integers P, Q and R is 1, then what is the sum of P, Q and R? (4 marks)
A: Plog 400 5 + Qlog 400 2 = 400 log400 R .
B: Plog2005 + Qlog2002 = 2R.

004 13
40. The incircle of a triangle ABC touches the sides BC, CA and AB at the points X, Y and Z respectively.
What is the inradius of the triangle ABC? (4 marks)
A: The length of AB, BC and CA is 9 units, 8 units and 11 units respectively.
B: X, Y and Z are mid points of the respective sides of the triangle ABC and the area of the triangle
ABC is 64 square units.

41. The value of A, B, C, D and E is 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 not necessarily in that particular order. What is the value
of C? (2 marks)
A: D > B > E.
B: E < B and D < C.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 42 to 45: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
There are eight companies C1, C2, C3, C4, C5, C6, C7 and C8 in the market that manufacture furniture. The
furniture manufactured by these companies is sold in one or more than one of the five regions namely R1, R2,
R3, R4 and R5. Two companies are said to be ‘Competitors’ if there is at least one region where both the
companies sell their furniture. The following bar- graph provides information about the number of competi-
tors seven of these eight companies have. Assume that these are the only eight companies that sell furniture in
the mentioned regions.

8
Number of Competitors

7
6
5
4
3
2
1
0
C1 C2 C3 C4 C5 C7 C8
Companies

42. How many competitors does C6 have? (6 marks)

(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 2 (5) Cannot be determined

43. The number of companies selling furniture in one region is at most (4 marks)
(1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 6 (4) 7 (5) 5

44. Each region is given as many points as the number of companies who sold furniture in it. If there is
exactly one region where no company sold furniture, then the aggregate number of points given to all
the regions is (4 marks)
(1) 15 (2) 16 (3) 14 (4) 17 (5) Cannot be determined.

45. The number of regions in which the company C1 sold furniture is at most (2 marks)
(1) 1 (2) 5 (3) 2 (4) 3 (5) 4

14 004
DIRECTIONS for Questions 46 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
A limited overs cricket tournament was played between four teams. The first round was a round robin league,
where each team plays every other team once. The top two teams proceeded to the finals of the tournament.
The table below gives the net run rate of the teams at the end of their 1st, 2nd and 3rd matches in the first round.

1st Match 2nd Match 3rd Match

A + 0.8 A2 + 0.6
B B1 – 0.4 0.066
C +1 + 0.25 C3
D D1 – 0.5 D3

Net run rate for any team at the end of any match is defined as X – Y, where

 Total runs scored by the team till that match   Total runs scored against that team till that match 
X=   and Y =  
 Total number of overs played   Total number of overs played by all the opponents 

A team plays its second match only after every team has played its first match. Similarly, a team plays its third
match only after every team has played its second match.

If a team was allout within the stipulated 50 overs, it was deemed to have batted for 50 overs.

All the matches ended in a victory, except for one that was a tie. In these victories, all the teams that batted first
were the winners in all the matches except one which happened to be the last match played by C.

46. Which two teams were involved in a tie? (6 marks)

(1) A and D (2) A and B (3) B and C (4) B and D (5) Cannot be determined

47. What is the value of A2? (6 marks)

(1) + 1.3 (2) + 1.05 (3) + 0.65 (4) + 0.525 (5) Cannot be determined

48. Which of the following statements is true? (2 marks)

(a) A won all the three matches.
(b) A played D in his first match.
(c) C did not win any match.
(d) D did not win any matches
(1) a and d (2) Only a (3) a, b and c
(4) a, b, c and d (5) None

Additional information for questions 49 and 50:

C scored 300 runs but still lost its last match by one run, with the opponent reaching the target with 10 overs
to spare.

49. What is the approximate value of C3? (4 marks)

(1) – 0.15 (2) – 0.10 (3) – 0.85 (4) – 1.15 (5) Cannot be determined

50. How many runs (approximate) did A and D together score against B in its first two matches?
(4 marks)
(1) 450 (2) 440 (3) 425 (4) 400 (5) 380

004 15
 Space for rough work

16 004
 SECTION – III

Number of Questions = 25

51. Given that w, x, y and z are natural numbers such that 4w = xyz, 4x = wyz and 4z = wxy. Which of the
following is a possible value of (w + x + y – z)2? (2 marks)
(1) 25 (2) 9 (3) 36 (4) 1 (5) 49

52. How many integers exist such that not only are they multiples of 20082008 but also are factors of
2008 2020 ? (4 marks)
(1) 12 (2) 481 (3) 587 (4) 2008 12 (5) 637

53. The length, breadth and height of a cuboid are given by unique linear functions L(x), B(x) and H(x)
respectively (Here, ‘x’ is a real number). The volume of this cuboid is given by the cubic function
V(x) = – x3 – 4x2 + 31x + 70. Which of the following values of ‘x’ is permissible? (4 marks)
(1) 7 (2) – 3 (3) – 8 (4) 6 (5) 4

54. In the figure given below ABC is a triangle such that the measure of ∠ BAC = 90°. If AP = 4 units,
AQ = 8 units and BP : PQ : QC = 1: 2 :1 , then what is the length of BC? (6 marks)

B P Q C

(1) 6 2 units (2) 6 3 units (3) 8 2 units (4) 4 6 units (5) 8 3 units

55. A number when divided by 100 leaves a quotient (Q) and a remainder (R). How many three-digit
natural numbers are there such that Q + R is divisible by 11? (6 marks)
(1) 9 (2) 99 (3) 80 (4) 81 (5) 90

56. Rohan selected a shirt from a Veebok Outlet with a marked price of Rs.1600 but he wanted to buy it at
Rs.800. The shopkeeper then offered the same shirt at a price which was the average of Rs.800 and
Rs.1600. Denying that offer, Rohan proposed to pay Rs.1000 which was again the average of Rs.800
and the price offered by shopkeeper. This process continued till they agreed upon a particular price ‘P’.
What is the value of ‘P’? (4 marks)
3200 2800 2500
(1) Rs. (2) Rs. (3) Rs. (4) Rs.900 (5) They will never agree
3 3 3

57. g(P) represents the product of all the digits of P, e.g. g(45) = 4 × 5. What is the value of
g(67) + g(68) + g(69) + ..... + g(122) + g(123)? (4 marks)
(1) 1381 (2) 1281 (3) 1481 (4) 1181 (5) None of these

004 17
58. The HCF of (n + 3) and (7n + 48) is ‘k’, where ‘n’ is a natural number. How many values of ‘k’ are
possible? (4 marks)
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 1 (4) 2 (5) 3

59. The payment P(n) that a person receives is a function of the day ‘n’. If P(n) = 2 × P(n – 1) and the person
receives Rs.12 on the day two, then what is the total payment received by a person for 10 days starting
from the day one? (2 marks)
(1) Rs.6138 (2) Rs.5724 (3) Rs.5730 (4) Rs.6324 (5) Rs.6144

60. Given that Q = 1! + 2! + 3! + 4! + ...... + ( n − 1)! + n!. For how many values of ‘n’, Q is a perfect square?
(4 marks)
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (5) More than 4

61. Consider the following two curves in the x-y plane y = x2 – 6x + 8 and y = –x2 + bx + c. If the maxima
of one curve is the minima of the other curve, then what is the value of ‘b’? (2 marks)
(1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 3 (4) 8 (5) 7

Log729 ( 7−5x )
6
≥ ( x − 3 ) . The number of integral values of ‘x’ that satisfy the given inequality
2
62. Given that 3
is (6 marks)
(1) 0 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 7 (5) 8

63. Every year on the day of Janmashtami, both Mr. Deepak Patel and Mr. Radha Krishnan distribute
sweets free of cost at their respective shops. Last year on the day of Janmashtmi, there were a total of
1013 and 1057 people standing in two different queues in front of the shops of Mr. Deepak Patel and
Mr. Radha Krishnan respectively. If there are at least 3 women between any two men in each of these
two queues, then the total number of men in both the queues cannot be more than (4 marks)
(1) 519 (2) 619 (3) 576 (4) 666 (5) 517

64. How many three-digit numbers are there such that no two adjacent digits of the number are consecutive?
(6 marks)
(1) 592 (2) 516 (3) 552 (4) 600 (5) 596

65. In the figure given below ABCD is a rhombus and D is the center of the circle. What is the measure of
∠ AEC? (2 marks)

A C

(1) 45° (2) 50° (3) 60° (4) 70° (5) Cannot be determined

18 004
66. How many natural numbers ‘k’ exist such that (2k + 3) divides (24k2 + 201)? (4 marks)
(1) 4 (2) 0 (3) 6 (4) 7 (5) 8

67. In the figure below ABCD is an isosceles trapezium such that AD = BC. P is a point on the side AD such
PR
that PR || AB and AP:PD = DC:AB = 2:1. What is the value of ? (4 marks)
AB + DC
A B

P R
D C

4 2 3 6 5
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
7 3 5 11 9

68. In “Dairy”, milk is processed to produce “Pure Ghee” and “SNF”. One kg of milk should be processed
to produce 50 gms of pure ghee and 80 gms of SNF. Pure Ghee and SNF are sold at
Rs.120/kg and Rs.200/kg respectively. If the cost of processing the milk is Rs.6/kg and the fixed cost of
running the “Dairy” for a day is Rs.300, then which of the following can be the total quantity (in kgs)
of milk processed per day and the corresponding cost (in Rs./kg) of milk such that the “Dairy” makes
a profit of 10% per day? (4 marks)
(1) 120, 12 (2) 120, 10 (3) 150, 15 (4) 150, 12 (5) 150, 10

69. K is a set of five consecutive prime numbers such that the sum of all the elements in K is greater than
200 and less than 300. Which of the following cannot be the sum of the elements in the set K?
(4 marks)
(1) 221 (2) 263 (3) 243 (4) 271 (5) 287

70. In the ∆ ABC shown below, AB = AC = 20 cm and BC = 10 cm. If BC = BD, CD = DE and CE = EF,
then what is the length of EF? (4 marks)

B E C

(1) 5 cm (2) 3 cm (3) 2.5 cm (4) 5 cm (5) Cannot be determined

004 19
DIRECTIONS for Questions 71 and 72: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The employees of IHG Limited are given one out of the three different designations namely Executives,
Analysts and Managers. Each executive has worked with exactly four analysts and exactly three managers.
Each manager has worked with exactly two executives and exactly five analysts and each analyst has worked
with exactly three managers.

71. Which of the following can be the total number of executives and analysts in IHG Limited?
(4 marks)
(1) 63 (2) 147 (3) 210 (4) 49 (5) 196

72. If the total number of employees in IHG Limited is 920, then what is the number of executives in the
company? (2 marks)
(1) 230 (2) 184 (3) 165 (4) 372 (5) Cannot be determined

DIRECTIONS for Questions 73 and 74: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
There are 5 distinct real numbers. All triplets are selected and the numbers are added. The different sums that
are generated are: (– 8, 1, 3, 5, 7, 8, 10, 16, 19 and 23).

73. The smallest number among the 5 numbers is (6 marks)

(1) – 10 (2) – 9 (3) – 8 (4) – 7 (5) – 6

74. The third largest number is (2 marks)

(1) – 1 (2) 0 (3) 1 (4) 2 (5) 7

75. In the figure given below PQ and RS are two chords of equal length such that PQ || RS. Another chord
AD cuts the chords PQ and RS at B and C respectively. Given that PB: BQ = 3 : 1, RC : CS = 3 : 5 and
AB : BC = 1 : 4. What is the ratio of area of the ∆ ABQ to the area of the ∆ CDS? (6 marks)

(1) 3 : 10 (2) 1 : 3 (3) 1 : 4 (4) 2 : 5 (5) 1 : 2

20 004
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