Biology PQMS
Biology PQMS
Biology PQMS
General Instructions:
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) The question paper has five sections and 33 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(iii) Section–A has 16 questions of 1 mark each;
(iv) Section–B has 5 questions of 2 marks each;
(v) Section– C has 7 questions of 3 marks each;
(vi) Section– D has 2 case-based questions of 4 marks each; and
(vii) Section–E has 3 questions of 5 marks each.
(viii) There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some
questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
(ix) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.
Section A
Q.Nos. Questions Marks
1 During the pollen grain formation, the generative cell divides to give rise to 1
the two male gametes.
P) cleistogamous autogamy
Q) chasmogamous autogamy
R) geitonogamy
S) xenogamy
3 Arun thinks that identifying the exact mRNA sequence from the protein 1
sequence is difficult.
4 Crickets are insects that follow the XO type of sex determination. Which of 1
the following statements is ALWAYS TRUE about this type of sex
determination?
(a) Eggs that have an O chromosome will give rise to a male cricket.
(b) Eggs that have an X chromosome will give rise to a female cricket.
(c) Sperms that have an X chromosome will give rise to a male cricket.
(d) Sperms that have an O chromosome will give rise to a male cricket.
5 Oysters are generally either dark or light in colour. Dark oysters excel in 1
dark environments, while light oysters thrive in bright environments.
Intermediate-coloured oysters are disadvantaged, lacking effective
camouflage in either setting.
(a) directional
(b) stabilising
(c) disruptive
(d) (The phenomenon described does not exemplify natural selection.)
(a) P
(b) Q
(c) R
(d) S
(a) 25%
(b) 50%
(c) 75%
(d) 100%
(a) malting
(b) dilution
(c) distillation
(d) maturation
10 What does I in the restriction enzyme named 'Hin S2 I' indicate? 1
11 Sumi and Nisha said the following about somatic hybridization in plants. 1
12 Rupal says that in marine food chains where the pyramid of biomass is 1
inverted, the 10% rule of energy transfer is not applicable.
Question No. 13 to 16 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
13 Assertion (A): The coconut endosperm is multinucleate throughout its 1
development.
Reason (R): Some endosperms undergo free nuclear division without the
formation of distinct cell boundaries.
16 Assertion (A): Nuclear DNA extracted from a cell is visible to the naked eye 1
but unstained plasmid DNA running in an agarose gel is not.
Reason (R): Plasmid DNA is transparent but nuclear DNA is not.
Section B
17 Kavya says that the placenta produces relaxin which plays a crucial role during 2
pregnancy.
(a) Is she correct? Justify.
(b) Name TWO other hormones secreted by the placenta during pregnancy
(a) State the genotypic and phenotypic ratios of offspring born to a carrier mother and
a thalassemic father.
(b) Does the allele for thalassemia exhibit codominance? Justify.
19 Explain any TWO reasons why the treatment of AIDS is only partially effective. 2
20 Rati wants to grow a variant of the lactobacillus spps. in a bioreactor. Lactobacillus is 2
an anaerobic bacterium commonly used as a starter culture for diary products. Shown
below is a bioreactor she had in her laboratory.
(a) Identify ONE component that should definitely NOT be present in the reactor to
grow the lactobacillus spps. Justify.
(b) Explain TWO quantities that the sensors in the bioreactor should monitor.
21 Shown below is a food chain. 2
(a) Millipedes have a hard exoskeleton whose composition is different from that of the
leaves. Considering all other conditions to remain the same, which step is likely to be
slower between A to B and B to C and why?
(b) What would be the direction of the flow of energy in this food chain?
OR
(a) A coral reef can be regarded as an ecosystem. Mention any TWO reasons why.
(b) The net primary productivity (NPP) of a coral reef is approximately 2000 g
C/m2 /year and the gross primary productivity (GPP) is 4000 g C/m2 /year. 2
Section C
22 A biologist sees the following cells in a cross-section of the seminiferous tubule and 3
its surrounding tissues and counts the number of various kinds of cells.
(a) If the woman's period, which is regular, is scheduled to start on July 19, what was
the estimated date of ovulation for the previous cycle?
(b) Name the four important reproductive hormones and state whether their levels will
be high or low on the date identified in (a).
(a) What is the destination for blastomeres with a count of less than 8 cells and more
than 8 cells?
(b) What could be the reason behind transferring to the destinations identified in (a)?
(c) What techniques are used to transfer the blastomeres to the destinations identified
in (a)?
25 (a) State any FOUR phenomena in which the Hardy-Weinberg theorem may not hold 3
true.
(b) A population of 100 individuals has a frequency of allele A of 0.3 and a frequency
of allele a of 0.7. The frequency of the heterozygous genotype (Aa) is 0.49. Is this
population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? Justify.
26 State whether each of these statements given below is/are true or false. Justify your 3
answer.
OR
Today, many genetic disorders can be detected using a single cell from an
embryo. This helps in planning the child's health care in advance, and in some cases
even treating the disorder while the baby is still in the womb.
(a) Identify a biotechnological technique that can be used for this purpose. Give a
reason to support your answer.
(b) Can the technique identified in (a) be used to detect the presence of RNA viruses?
Justify.
Section D
29 Shown below is a cloning vector 'Z' that Kamla wants to use to create a 4
recombinant vector with her gene of interest.
The vector consists of sites for three restriction enzymes - ScaI, HindIII and
EcoRI. Restriction sites for the same enzymes are also present in the gene of
interest. There are two 'ori' sequences - one allows it to replicate in
Escherichia coli and another allows replication in Zymomonas mobilis. Apart
from this, the vector consists of two antibiotic resistance genes - one against
tetracycline (tet) and another against chloramphenicol (cml).
(a) What is the advantage of having two 'ori' sequences in the same vector?
Give a situation in which this would be particularly useful.
OR
If the vector was cut using HindIII, what would colonies growing on a
medium containing tetracycline DEFINITELY contain?
(b) Suggest which of the three restriction enzymes would be suitable for
insertion of the gene of interest. Give TWO advantages of using the enzyme
chosen by you.
(c) State ONE disadvantage of using the other two restriction enzymes not
chosen in (b).
30 Predator Y shown in the image below is a type of wild cat that inhabits the 4
forests and preys primarily on prey X which are herbivores. Shown below is
data on their respective populations over time.
(a) What is the likely cause for the pattern seen in the prey and predator
populations through the years?
(b) Hypothetically, if all the predators of the forests become extinct, what will
happen to the vegetation of the forest?
(c) Consider a situation where another similar species of predator immigrates
to the forest. What is likely to happen over time and why?
OR
Identify the type of ecological interaction between the black walnut and other
plants growing around it. Justify.
Section E
31 A Non-Government Organisation (NGO) aims to increase awareness against STDs. 5
(a) What could be the ideal target age group for the NGO?
(b) Mention any TWO potential long-term health-related complications of untreated
STDs that the NGO should educate the target age group about.
(c) Mention ONE contraceptive method that provides protection against the STD.
Justify.
(d) State TWO contraceptive methods that do not protect against STDs that they can
educate the group about.
OR
Amey and Lalita are expecting their first child, with Lalita being in her second month
of pregnancy with no known complications. Amey's family has a history of cystic
fibrosis while Lalita's family has a history of Down's syndrome, leading to a concern
that the baby may have one of these conditions.
(a) Suggest and explain a way of testing if their baby is at risk for any genetic
disorders.
(b) In case of the presence of one or both of the abnormalities and posing a risk to the
mother's health, mention one possible option for them to consider.
(c) Is the process mentioned in (b) safe for Lalita at the current gestational age?
Justify.
(d) Under what conditions is the process mentioned in (b) illegal?
32 Shown below is a pedigree of an individual X who is suffering from ocular albinism 5
which results in permanent vision loss. Use the pedigree to answer the questions that
follow:
OR
33 (a) Classify the following scenarios as active/passive immunity and justify your 5
answer.
(i) A fetus receives antibodies from its mother through the placenta.
(ii) A person accidentally gets cut by a blade and later receives a tetanus shot.
(iii) A person receives a blood transfusion from a donor who has been vaccinated
against a disease.
(b) Zoya is bitten by an infected Anopheles mosquito in the morning. In the evening,
another non-infected Anopheles mosquito bites Zoya and then bites Zaheer
immediately. How likely is Zaheer to get malaria? Justify your answer.
OR
A patient is suffering from fatigue, high fever, and weight loss, and has been
observing an increasing number and size of lumps in various regions of her body over
a very short time.