DBMS : A MCQ BOOK |

Code: RBMCQ0502

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Sixth Edition
Ravish Begusarai
 DBMS : A MCQ BOOK | Code: RBMCQ0502

Fundamental of DBMS 9) Architecture of the database can be viewed as

A. two levels
1) Which of the following is not a characteristic of a B. four levels
relational database model? C. three levels
A. Table D. one level
B. Tree like structure
C. Complex logical relationship 10) ........ introduced the relational database rules.
D. Records A. Atul kahate
B. James Gossling
2) Field is otherwise called as ......... of the record C. EF Codd
A. data item D. Dennies Rithchie
B. data type
C. value 11) In a relational model, relations are termed as
D. variable A. Tuples
B. Attributes
3) A table can have only one C. Tables
A. Secondary key D. Rows
B. Alternate key
C. Unique key 12) When the values in one or more attributes being
D. Primary key used as a foreign key must exist in another set of one
or more attributes in another table, we have created
4) A field can be called as ........... in relation context. a(n) ........
A. random file A. transitive dependency
B. direct file B. insertion anomaly
C. attribute C. referential integrity constraint
D. tuple D. normal form

5) In the relational modes, cardinality is termed as 13) In the architecture of a database system external
A. Number of tuples level is the
B. Number of attributes A. physical level
C. Number of tables B. logical level
D. Number of constraints C. conceptual level
D. view level
6) The ........ is used for creating and destroying table,
indexes and other forms of structures. 14) A functional dependency is a relationship between
A. data manipulation language or among .......
B. data control language A. tables
C. transaction control language B. rows
D. data definition language C. relations
D. attributes
7) The view of total database content is
A. Conceptual view 15) Related fields in a database are grouped to form a
B. Internal view A. data file
C. External view B. data record
D. Physical view C. menu
D. bank
8) The ............ refers to the way data is organized in
and accessible from DBMS. 16) .......... is, a table have more than one set of
A. database hierarchy attributes that could be chosen as the key
B. data organization A. foreign key
C. data sharing B. integrity key
D. data model C. relationship

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 DBMS : A MCQ BOOK | Code: RBMCQ0502

D. candidate key C) Relationship

D) Notation
17) The database environment has all of the following
components except. 24. DFD stands for
A. users
A) Data Flow Document
B. separate files
B) Data File Diagram
C. database
C) Data Flow Diagram
D. database administrator D) Non of the above

18) The operation of eliminating columns in a table 25. A top-to-bottom relationship among the items in a
done by ........ operation. database is established by a
A. Restrict A) Hierarchical schema
B. Project B) Network schema
C. Union
C) Relational Schema
D. Divide
D) All of the above
19) The way a particular application views the data
from the database that the application uses is a 26. ……………… table store information about database or
A. module about the system.
B. relational model A) SQL
C. schema B) Nested
D. sub schema C) System
D) None of these
20) ....... is a condition specified on a database schema
and restricts the data that can be stored in an instance
of the database. 27. …………..defines the structure of a relation which
A. Key Constraint consists of a fixed set of attribute-domain pairs.
B. Check Constraint A) Instance
C. Foreign key constraint B) Schema
D. integrity constraint c) Program
D) Super Key
21. DBMS is a collection of ………….. that enables user to
create and maintain a database. 28. ……………… clause is an additional filter that is applied
A) Keys to the result.
B) Translators A) Select
C) Program B) Group-by
D) Language Activity C) Having
D) Order by
22. In a relational schema, each tuple is divided into fields
called 29. A logical schema
A) Relations A) is the entire database
B) Domains B) is a standard way of organizing information into
C) Queries accessible parts.
D) All of the above C) Describes how data is actually stored on disk.
D) All of the above
23. In an ER model, ……………. is described in the database
by storing its data. 30. ………………… is a full form of SQL.
A) Entity A) Standard query language
B) Attribute B) Sequential query language

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 DBMS : A MCQ BOOK | Code: RBMCQ0502

C) Structured query language A. primary key

D) Server side query language B. secondary key
C. foreign key
31) A relational database developer refers to a record as D. none of the above
A. a criteria
B. a relation 38) Grant and revoke are ....... statements.
C. a tuple A. DDL
D. an attribute B. TCL
C. DCL
32) .......... keyword is used to find the number of values in D. DML
a column.
A. TOTAL 39) DBMS helps achieve
B. COUNT A. Data independence
C. ADD B. Centralized control of data
D. SUM C. Neither A nor B
D. Both A and B
33) An advantage of the database management approach
is 40) .......... command can be used to modify a column in a
A. data is dependent on programs table
B. data redundancy increases A. alter
C. data is integrated and can be accessed by multiple B. update
programs C. set
D. none of the above D. create

34) The collection of information stored in a database at a 41. The candidate key is that you choose to identify
particular moment is called as ...... each row uniquely is called ……………..
A. schema A) Alternate Key
B) Primary Key
B. instance of the database
C) Foreign Key
C. data domain
D) None of the above
D. independence
42. …………….. is used to determine whether of a
35) Data independence means table contains duplicate rows.
A. data is defined separately and not included in A) Unique predicate
programs. B) Like Predicate
B. programs are not dependent on the physical attributes C) Null predicate
of data
D) In predicate
C. programs are not dependent on the logical attributes of
43. To eliminate duplicate rows ……………… is
data used
D. both B and C A) NODUPLICATE
B) ELIMINATE
36) A ......... is used to define overall design of the C) DISTINCT
database D) None of these
A. schema
B. application program 44. State true or false
i) A candidate key is a minimal super key.
C. data definition language
ii) A candidate key can also refer to as surrogate key.
D. code A) i-true, ii-false
37) Key to represent relationship between tables is called B) i-false, ii-true

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 DBMS : A MCQ BOOK | Code: RBMCQ0502

C) i-true, ii-true B. DML and query language

D) i-false, ii-false C. Data dictionary and transaction log
D. Data dictionary and query language
45. DCL stands for
A) Data Control Language 53) The database schema is written in
B) Data Console Language A. HLL B. DML
C) Data Console Level C. DDL D. DCL
D) Data Control Level
54) The way a particular application views the data
46. …………………… is the process of organizing from the database that the application uses is a
data into related tables. A. module B. relational model
A) Normalization C. schema D. sub schema
B) Generalization
C) Specialization 55) The relational model feature is that there
D) None of the above A. is no need for primary key data
B. is much more data independence than some other
47. A ………………. Does not have a distinguishing database models
attribute if its own and mostly are dependent entities, C. are explicit relationships among records.
which are part of some another entity. D. are tables with many dimensions
A) Weak entity
B) Strong entity 56) Which one of the following statements is false?
C) Non attributes entity A. The data dictionary is normally maintained by the
D) Dependent entity database administrator
B. Data elements in the database can be modified by
48. …………….. is the complex search criteria in the changing the data dictionary.
where clause. C. The data dictionary contains the name and
A) Sub string B) Drop Table description of each data element.
C) Predict D) Predicate D. The data dictionary is a tool used exclusively by
the database administrator.
49. ………………… is preferred method for
enforcing data integrity 57) Which of the following are the properties of
A) Constraints B) Stored Procedure entities?
C) Triggers D) Cursors A. Groups B. Table
C. Attributes D. Switchboards
50. The number of tuples in a relation is called its
…………. While the number of attributes in a relation 58) Which database level is closest to the users?
is called it’s ……………….. A. External B. Internal
A) Degree, Cardinality C. Physical D. Conceptual
B) Cardinality, Degree
C) Rows, Columns 59) Which are the two ways in which entities can
D) Columns, Rows participate in a relationship?
A. Passive and active
51) The language that requires a user to specify the B. Total and partial
data to be retrieved without specifying exactly how to C. Simple and Complex
get it is D. All of the above
A. Procedural DML
B. Non-Procedural DML 60) ........ data type can store unstructured data
C. Procedural DDL A. RAW
D. Non-Procedural DDL B. CHAR
C. NUMERIC
52) Which two files are used during operation of the D. VARCHAR
DBMS?
A. Query languages and utilities

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 DBMS : A MCQ BOOK | Code: RBMCQ0502

Database Normalization C) 4NF D) 3NF

9. Dependency preservation is not guaranteed in

1. A ..................... specifies the actions needed to A) BCNF B) 3NF
remove the drawbacks in the current design of C) 4NF D) DKNF
database.
A) 1 NF B) 2 NF 10. A relation is ................... if every field contains
C) 3 NF D) Normal form only atomic values that is, no lists or sets.
2. A relation is in ........................... if an attribute of a A) 1 NF B) 2 NF
composite key is dependent on an attribute of other C) 3 NF D) BCNF
composite key.
A) 2NF
C) BCNF
B) 3NF
D) 1NF Relational Algebra
3. Fifth Normal form is concerned with 1. Which of the following relational algebra operations do
A) Functional dependency not require the participating tables to be union-
B) Multivalued dependency compatible?
C) Join dependency A. Union
D) Domain key
B. Intersection
C. Difference
4. A table is in the ....................... if only candidate
keys are the determinants. D. Join
A) functional dependency
B) transitive dependency 2) Relational Algebra does not have
C) 4 NF A. Selection operator
D) BCNF B. Projection operator
C. Aggregation operator
5. In 2NF D. Division operator
A) No functional dependencies exist.
B) No multivalued dependencies exist.
C) No partial functional dependencies exist 3) Tree structures are used to store data in
D) No partial multivalued dependencies exist. A. Network model
B. Relational model
6. The normal form that is not necessarily dependency C. Hierarchical model
preserving is D. File based system
A) 2NF
B) 3NF 4) The rule that a value of a foreign key must appear as a
C) BCNF
value of some specific table is called a
D) 4NF
A. Referential constraint
RavishBegusarai B. Index
C. Integrity constraint
D. Functional dependency
7. The ................. is related to the concept of multi-
valued dependency.
A) fourth normal form 5) It is an abstraction through which relationships are
B) fifth normal form treated as higher level entities.
C) boyce codd normal form A. Generalization
D) third normal form B. Specialization
C. Aggregation
8. Which normal form is considered adequate for D. Inheritance
normal relational database design?
A) 2NF B) 5NF
6) The operation which is not considered a basic operation

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 DBMS : A MCQ BOOK | Code: RBMCQ0502

of relational algebra is B. Dashed lines

A. Join C. single line
B. Selection D. Triangle
C. Union
D. Cross product 14) Relationships among relationships can be represented
in an E-R model using
7) In SQL the statement select*from R,S is equivalent to A. Aggregation
A. Select * from R natural join S B. Association
B. Select * from R cross join S C. Weak entity sets
C. Select * from R union join S D. Weak relationship sets
D. Select * from R inner join S

8) When an E-R diagram is mapped to tables, the 15) Which of the following constitutes a basic set of
representation is redundant for operations for manipulating relational data?
A. Weak entity sets A. Predicate calculus
B. weak relationship sets B. Relational calculus
C. Strong entity sets C. Relational algebra
D. strong relationship sets D. SQL

9) If two relations R and S are joined, then the non 16) Relational calculus is a
matching ruples of both R and S are ignored in A. Procedural language
A. left outer join B. Non-Procedural language
B. right outer join C. Data definition language
C. full outer join D. High level language
D. inner join
17) Cartesian product in relational algebra is
10) Relational Algebra is A. a Unary operator
B. a Binary operator
A. Data Definition Language
B. Meta Language C. a Ternary operator
C. Procedural query Language D. not defined
D. None of the above
18) In an E-R diagram attributes are represented by
11) If an entity can belong to only one lower level entity A. rectangle
then the constraint is B. square
A. disjoint C. ellipse
B. partial D. triangle
C. overlapping
D. single 19) In an E-R diagram an entity set is represent by a
A. rectangle
B. ellipse
12) The common column is eliminated in C. diamond box
A. theta join D. circle
B. outer join
C. natural join 20) E-R model uses this symbol to represent weak entity
D. composed join set?
A. Dotted rectangle
13) In E-R diagram total participation is represented by B. Diamond
A. double lines

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 DBMS : A MCQ BOOK | Code: RBMCQ0502

C. Doubly outlined rectangle 7) A logical schema

D. None of these A. is the entire database.
B. is a standard way of organizing information into

Database Design accessible parts.

C. describes how data is actually stored on disk
D. both A and C
1) What is a data integrity?
A. It is the data contained in database that is non
8) Which of the operations constitute a basic set of
redundant.
operations for manipulating relational data?
B. It is the data contained in database that is accurate and
A. Predicate calculus
consistent.
B. Relational calculus
C. It is the data contained in database that is secured.
C. Relational algebra
D. It is the data contained in database that is shared.
D. None of the above

2) As per equivalence rules for query transformation,

9) Which of the following is another name for weak
selection operation distributes over
entity?
A. Union
A. Child
B. Intersection
B. Owner
C. Set difference
C. Dominant
D. All of the above
D. All of the above

3) In SQL the word 'natural' can be used with

10) Which of the following is record based logical model?
A. inner join
A. Network Model
B. full outer join
B. Object oriented model
C. right outer join
C. E-R model
D. all of the above
D. None of the above

4) Which of the following relational algebraic operations is

11) A file manipulation command that extracts some of
not from set theory?
the records from a file is called
A. Union
A. SELECT
B. Intersection
B. PROJECT
C. Cartesian Product
C. JOIN
D. Select
D. PRODUCT

5) An entity set that does not have sufficient attributes to

12) In E-R Diagram derived attribute are represented by
form a primary key is a
A. Ellipse
A. strong entity set
B. Dashed ellipse
B. weak entity set
C. Rectangle
C. simple entity set
D. Triangle
D. primary entity set
13) The natural join is equal to
6) In case of entity integrity, the primary key may be
A. Cartesian Product
A. not Null
B. Combination of Union and Cartesian product
B. Null
C. Combination of selection and Cartesian product
C. both Null and not Null
D. Combination of projection and Cartesian product
D. any value
14) In E-R diagram relationship type is represented by

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 DBMS : A MCQ BOOK | Code: RBMCQ0502

A. Ellipse 1. DML is provided for

B. Dashed ellipse A) Description of logical structure of database
C. Rectangle B) Addition of new structure in the database system.
D. Diamond C) Manipulation & processing of database
D) Definition of physical structure of database system
15) In E-R diagram generalization is represented by
A. Ellipse 2.'AS' clause is used in SQL for
B. Dashed ellipse A) Selection operation
C. Rectangle B) Rename Operation
D. Triangle C) Join operation
D) Projection Operation
16) A table joined with itself is called
A. Join 3. Count function in SQL returns the number of
B. Self Join A) values
C. Outer Join B) distinct values
D. Equi Join C) groups
D) columns
17) ........... means multiple copies of the same data items.
A. Data reduction 4. The statement in SQL which allows to change the
B. Data integrity definition of a table is
C. Data consistency A) Alter
B) Update
D. Data redundancy C) Cteate
D) Select

18) Different values for the same data item is referred to 5. Which of the following is correct.
as ....... A) A SQL query automatically eliminates duplicates
A. data consistency
B) SQL permits attribute names to be repeated in the
B. data inconsistency same relation
C. data integrity C) A SQL query will not work if there are no indexes on the
D. data duplication relations
D) None of the above
19) The .......... returns row after combining two tables
based on common values. 6. Which of the following operation is used if we are
A. difference interested in only certain columns of a table?
B. product A) PROJECTION
C. join B) SELECTION
D. union C) UNION
D) JOIN
20) The .......... can be used to ensure database integrity.
A. entity integrity 7. Which of the following is a legal expression in SQL?
B. database constraints A) SELECT NULL FROM EMPLOYEE;
C. referential integrity B) SELECT NAME FROM EMPLOYEE;
D. cardinality C) SELECT NAME FROM EMPLOYEE WHERE SALARY=NULL;
D) None of the above

Basic SQL 8. Which of the following is a valid SQL type?

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 DBMS : A MCQ BOOK | Code: RBMCQ0502

A) CHARACTER C) Execute
B) NUMERIC D) Run
C) FLOAT
D) All of the above 16. Which command displays the SQL command in
the SQL buffer, and then executes it?
A) CMD
9. Which command is used to select distinct subject (SUB)
B) OPEN
from the table (BOOK)? C) EXECUTE
A) SELECT ALL FROM BOOK D) RUN
B) SELECT DISTINCT SUB FROM BOOK
C) SELECT SUB FROM BOOK 17. What is a DATABLOCK?
D) All of the above A) Set of Extents
B) Set of Segments
10. In SQL, which of the following is not a data definition
C) Smallest Database storage unit
D) Set of blocks
language commands?
A) RENAME 18. If two groups are not linked in the data model
B) REVOKE editor, what is the hierarchy between them?
C) GRANT A) There is no hierarchy between unlinked groups.
D) UPDATE B) The group that is right ranks higher than the group
that is to right or below it.
11. In SQL, which command is used to remove a C) The group that is above or leftmost ranks higher
stored function from the database? than the group that is to right or below it.
A) REMOVE FUNCTION D) The group that is left ranks higher than the group
B) DELETE FUNCTION that is to the right.
C) DROP FUNCTION
D) ERASE FUNCTION 19. Which of the following types of triggers can be
fired on DDL operations?
12. In SQL, which command is used to select only A) Instead of Trigger
one copy of each set of duplicate rows B) DML Trigger
A) SELECT DISTINCT C) System Trigger
D) DDL Trigger
B) SELECT UNIQUE
C) SELECT DIFFERENT 20. What operator performs pattern matching?
D) All of the above A) IS NULL operator
B) ASSIGNMENT operator
13. Count function in SQL returns the number of C) LIKE operator
A) Values D) NOT operator
B) Distinct values
C) Groups
D) Columns Embedded SQL
14. Composite key is made up of ................ 1) DROP is a ................ statement in SQL.
A) One column A. Query
B) One super key B. Embedded SQL
C) One foreign key
C. DDL
D) Two or more columns
D. DCL
15. What command is used to get back the privileges
offered by the GRANT command? 2) The keyword to eliminate duplicate rows from the
A) Grant query result in SQL is.
B) Revoke A. DISTINCT
B. NO DUPLICATE

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 DBMS : A MCQ BOOK | Code: RBMCQ0502

C. UNIQUE C. a SQL query will not work if there are no indexes on the
D. None of the above relations.
D. None of these.
3) Which of the following aggregate function does not
ignore nulls in its results? 11) Which of the following is a comparison operator in
A. COUNT B. COUNT(*) SQL?
C. MAX D. MIN A. = B. LIKE
C. BETWEEN D. All of the above
4) In SQL, testing whether a subquery is empty is done
using 12) To delete a particular column in a relation the
A. DISTINCT B. UNIQUE command used is.
C. NULL D. EXISTS A. UPDATE B. DROP
C. ALTER D. DELETE
5) ................ operator is used to compare a value to a list
of literals values that have been specified.
A. Like B. Compare
RavishBegusarai
C. Between D. In
13) The ............ operator is used to compare the value to
6) The language used in application programs to request a list of literals values that that have been specified.
data from the DBMS is referred to as the A. BETWEEN B. ANY
A. DML B. DDL C) IN D) ALL
C. VDL D. SDL
14) ............ function divides one numeric expression by
7) The DBMS language component which can be another and returns the remainder.
embedded in a program is A. POWER B. MOD
A. The data definition language(DDL) C. ROUND D. REMAINDER
B. The data manipulation language(DML)
C. The database administrator(DBA) 15) A data manipulation command the combines the
D. A query language record from one or more tables is called.
A) SELECT
8) A DBMS query language is designed to B. PROJECT
A. Support end users who use English-like commands. C. JOIN
B. Support in the development of complex applications D. PRODUCT
software.
C. Specify the structure of a database. 16) DDL stands for
D. All of the above A. Data definition language
B. Data description language
9) It is possible to define a schema completely using. C. Data design languages
A. VDL and DDL D. Database dictionary languages.
B. DDL and DML
C. SDL and DDL 17) The DDL is used to specify the ........
D. VDL and DML A. Conceptual schema
B. Internal schema
10) Which of the following is correct. C. Both
A. a SQL query automatically eliminates duplicates. D. None
B. SQL permits attribute names to be repeated in the
same relation. 18) Which is used for data retrieval from the database?

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 DBMS : A MCQ BOOK | Code: RBMCQ0502

A. DDL B. DML A) DEFAULT

C. SDL D. VDL B) CHECK
C) PRIMARY
19) Which is used to specify the user views and their D) UNIQUE
mappings to the conceptual schema?
A. DDL B. DML 6. The ..................... constraint defines a column or
C. SDL D. VDL combination of columns whose values match the primary
key of the same or another table.
20) Which command are included in a general purpose A) DEFAULT
programming languages? B) CHECK
A. DDL B. DML C) PRIMARY
C. DSL D. VDL D) FOREIGN KEY

SQL Server 7. The control-of-flow statement ..................... defines

conditional, and optionally, alternate execution when a
condition is FALSE.
1. ......................... are predefined and maintained SQL
A) WHILE
Server and users cannot assign or directly change the
B) WAITFOR
values.
C) IF........ELSE
A) Global variables
D) BEGIN.......... END
B) Local Variables
C) Integer Variables
8. In SQL Server, ..................... is based on relationships
D) Floating Variables
between foreign keys and primary keys or between
foreign keys and unique keys.
2. A local variable is shown ........................... preceding its
A) Entity integrity
name.
B) Domain integrity
A) One @ symbol
C) Referential integrity
B) Two @@ symbol
C) One # symbol
D) User-defined integrity
D) Two ## symbol

3. Constraint checking can be disabled on existing ........... 9. When a ................. clause is used, each item in the
and ............. constraints so that any data you modify or select list must produce a single value for each group.
add to the table is not checked against the constraint. A) ORDER BY
A) CHECK, FOREIGN KEY B) GROUP
B) DELETE, FOREIGN KEY C) GROUP BY
C) CHECK, PRIMARY KEY D) GROUP IN
D) PRIMARY KEY, FOREIGN KEY
10. MS SQL Server uses a variant of SQL called T-SQL, or
4. ................ and ................... are the Transact - SQL Transact SQL, an implementation of .................. with some
control-of-flow key words. extensions.
A) Continue, Stop A) MS SQL Server
B) Break, Stop B) Tabular Data Set
C) Continue, While C) SQL-92
D) While, Going to D) Tabular Data Stream

11. ........................ is the full form of SQL.

5. The type of constraint ........................ specifies data
A) Standard Query Language
values that are acceptable in a column.
B) Sequential Query Language

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 DBMS : A MCQ BOOK | Code: RBMCQ0502

C) Structured Query Language A) ORDER BY

D) Server Side Query Language B) GROUP
C) GROUP BY
12. SQL Server 2005 NOT includes the following system D) GROUP IN
database .............
A) tempdb Database 19. .................. are predefined and maintained SQL Server
B) Master Database where users cannot assign or directly change the values.
C) Model Database A) Local Variables
D) sqldb Database B) Global Variables
C) Assigned Variables
13. SQL Server stores index information in the D) Direct Variables
..................... system table.
20. Microsoft SQL Server NOT uses which of the following
A) sysindexes operator category?
B) systemindexes A) Bitwise Operator
C) sysind B) Unary Operator
D) sysindexes C) Logical Operator
D) Real Operator
14. ..................... is a read-only database that contains
system objects that are included with SQL Server 2005.
A) Resource Database PL/SQL and Oracle
B) Master Database
C) Model Database 1. ........................ is a procedural extension of Oracle - SQL
D) msdb Database that offers language constructs similar to those in
imperative programming languages.
15. The SQL Server services includes ..................... A) SQL
A) SQL server agent B) PL/SQL
B) Microsoft distribution transaction coordinator C) Advanced SQL
C) Both a & b D) PQL
D) None of the above
2. .................... combines the data manipulating power of
16. ...................... is a utility to capture a continuous SQL with the data processing power of Procedural
record of server activity and provide auditing capability. languages.
A) SQL server profile A) PL/SQL
B) SQL server service manager B) SQL
C) SQL server setup C) Advanced SQL
D) SQL server wizard D) PQL

17. The query used to remove all references for the pubs 3. ................... has made PL/SQL code run faster without
and newspubs databases from the system tables is ..... requiring any additional work on the part of the
A) DROP DATABASE pubs, newpubs; programmer.
B) DELETE DATABASE pubs, newpubs; A) SQL Server
C) REMOVE DATABASE pubs, newpubs; B) My SQL
D) DROP DATABASE pubs and newpubs; C) Oracle
D) SQL Lite
18. ...................... clause specifies the groups into which
output rows are to be placed and, if aggregate functions 4. A line of PL/SQL text contains groups of characters
are included in the SELECT clause. known as .......................

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 DBMS : A MCQ BOOK | Code: RBMCQ0502

A) Lexical Units C) Internal Authentication

B) Literals D) External Authentication
C) Textual Units
11. ....................... are used to recreate if trigger already
D) Identifiers
exists.
5. We use ........................ name PL/SQL program objects A) Cursor
and units. B) Trigger
A) Lexical Units C) Keywords
B) Literals D) Replace
C) Delimiters
D) Identifiers 12. .............................. is used to define code that is
executed / fired when certain actions or event occur.
6. A .................... is an explicit numeric, character, string or A) Cursor
Boolean value not represented by an identifier. B) Trigger
A) Comments C) Keywords
B) Literals D) Replace
C) Delimiters 13. ................. provide a way for your program to select
D) Identifiers multiple rows of data from the database and then process
each row individually.
7. If no header is specified, the block is said to be an A) PL/SQL Cursors
...................... PL/SQL block. B) PL/SQL Trigger
A) Strong C) PL/SQL Select
B) Weak D) PL/SQL Process
C) Empty
D) Anonymous 14. ........................... cursor are declared by ORACLE for
each UPDATE, DELETE and INSERT SQL commands.
8. ............. is a sequence of zero or more characters A) Implicit
enclosed by single quotes. B) Explicit
A) Integers literal C) Internal
B) String literal D) External
C) String units
D) String label 15. ......................... cursors are declared and used by the
user to process multiple row, returned by SELECT
9. In ........................, the management of the password for statement.
the account can be handled outside of oracle such as A) Implicit
operating system. B) Explicit
A) Database Authentication C) Internal
D) External
B) Operating System Authentication
C) Internal Authentication 16. ....................... contain a pointer that keeps track of
D) External Authentication current row being accessed, which enables your program
to process the rows at a time.
10. In ............................ of Oracle, the database A) Tracker
administrator creates a user account in the database for B) Cursor
each user who needs access. C) Accesser
A) Database Authentication D) Trigger
B) Operating System Authentication

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17. ....................... a cursor enables you to define the 3. The Oracle Instance is made up of the ……………………….
cursor and assign a name to it. and the background processes.
A) Declearing A) System Global Area (SGA)
B) Stating B) Oracle Global Area (OGA)
C) Extracting C) Program Global Area (PGA)
D) Importing D) Private SQL Area (PSA)

18. In ................... the cursor advances to the next row in 4. The background processes of the Oracle instance are
the active set each time the fetch command is executed. responsible for performing …………………. I/O functions.
A) recreating process A) Synchronous
B) redefining process B) Asynchronous
C) iterative process C) Both of the above
D) None of the above D) None of the above

19. A ......................... is a database object that groups

logically related PL/SQL types, objects and subprograms. 5. The PGA is used to process ………………………… and to
A) Module hold logon and other session information.
B) Package A) SQL Statements
C) Body B) Server Processes
D) Name C) User Processes
D) Shared Statements
20. In the PL/SQL, the package specification contains
....................... declarations. 6. In SGA, the contents of the memory area are shared by
A) Public multiple users is called as …………………..
B) Private A) Redo Log Buffer
C) Friend B) Database Buffer Cache
D) Protected C) Shared Pool
D) Large Pool

Oracle and Distributed 7. In Oracle Database ………………….. Contain the data

Databases
dictionary and user created data.
A) Data Files
B) Control Files
1. The …………………… consists of physical files and memory C) Redo Log Files
components. D) Password Files
A) Oracle Client
B) Oracle Server 8. The ………………………….. keeps a record of the names,
C) Oracle Middleware size locations different physical files of the Oracle
D) Oracle Instance Database.
A) Data File
2. The ……………………… consists of the memory B) Control File
C) Redo Log File
components of Oracle and various background processes.
D) Password File
A) Oracle Parameter
B) Oracle Profile
9. In Oracle Database, ……………………………… is used to hold
C) Oracle Process
the names of privileged users who have been granted the
D) Oracle Instance
SYSDBA or SYSOPR roles.
A) Data File

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B) Control File 16. An Oracle ………………………..is a set of tables

C) Redo Log File and views that are used as a read-only reference about
D) Password File the database.
A) Database dictionary
B) Dictionary table
10. In Oracle, the end of the transaction is recorded in the C) Data dictionary
……………………….. files. D) Dictionary
A) Data
17. A data dictionary is created when a
B) Control
…………………. created.
C) Redo Log A) Instance
D) Password B) Segment
C) Database
11. ………………….. is the collection of memory D) Dictionary
structures and Oracle background processes that
operates against an Oracle database. 18. An Oracle object type has two parts the
A) Database …………………. and …………………….
B) Instance A) Instance and body
C) Tablespace B) Segment and blocks
D) Segment C) Specification and body
D) Body and segment
12. A ………………………… is a logical grouping
of database objects, usually to facilitate security, 19. By, default, Oracle object types are …
performance, or the availability of database objects A) INSTANTIABLE
such as tables and indexes. B) NOT INSTANTIABLE
A) tablespace C) FINAL
B) segments D) OVERRIDING
C) extents
D) blocks 20. A method modifier tells Oracle that new subtypes
may not override a method is called …………….
13. A tablespace is further broken down into ……… A) INSTANTIABLE
A) tablespace B) NOT INSTANTIABLE
B) segments C) FINAL
C) extents D) OVERRIDING
D) blocks

RavishBegusarai Distributed Transaction

14. ……………………….. is a contiguous group of 1) If the transaction is rolled back, all the database
blocks allocated for use as part of a table, index, and changes made inside the transaction are ......
so forth. A. made permanent
A) tablespace B. made temporary
B) segment C. copied to the log
C) extent D. undone
D) block
2) Which of the following is not a property of
15. ……………… is the smallest unit of allocation in transactions?
an Oracle database. A. Atomicity
A) Database B. Concurrency
B) Instance C. Isolation
C) Tablespace D. Durability
D) Database Block

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3) A ......... ensures that transactions are performed as C. Concurrency control component of DBMS
expected. D. Recovery management component of DBMS
A. transaction processing monitor
B. transaction procedure monitor 11) ........ means that a transaction must make its
C. isolation monitor changes permanent to the database ends.
A. isolation
D. transaction log B. locking
C. durability
4) A transaction that completes its execution D. consistency
successfully is said to be .......
A. committed 12) Throughput means
B. rolled back A. number of transactions that are committed in one
C. partially committed hour
D. Aborted B. number of operations in a transaction
C. number of transaction that can be aborted in a
5) ........ means that a transaction must execute exactly given amount of time
once completely or not at all. D. number of transaction that can be executed in a
A. durability given amount of time
B. consistency
C. atomicity 13) ........ deals with individual transactions.
D. isolation A. isolate transactions
B. transaction recovery
6) Assume transaction A holds a shared lock R. If C. system recovery
transaction B also requests for a shared lock on R. D. media recovery
A. It will result in a deadlock situation
B. It will immediately be rejected 14) The part of a database management system which
C. It will immediately be granted ensures that the data remains in a consistent state is
D. It will be granted as soon as it is released by A A. authorization and integrity manager
B. buffer manager
7) ........... means that when it ends, a transaction must C. transaction manager
leave the database in a consistent state. D. file manager
A. Data isolation
B. Data duration 15) ......... protocol is used to perform multiple
C. Data consistency transactions that execute on different database.
D. Data non-reputability A. commit
B. two phase lock
8) The number of transactions executed in a given C. two phase commit
amount of time is called ......... D. locking
A. utilization
B. execution rate 16) A transaction can do read and write operation on a
c. throughput data item when it acquires ......
D. atomicity A. read mode
B. exclusive mode
9) Isolation means ...... C. shared mode
A. transaction must not interfere with each other D. write mode
B. transaction must interfere with each other
C. transaction must be in consistent state 17) In .......... one transaction overwrites the changes
D. transaction must be executed immediately of another transaction.
A. uncommitted read problem
10) Which of the following ensures the atomicity of B. lost update problem
the transaction? C. update lost problem
A. Transaction management component of DBMS D. dirty read problem
B. Application Programmer

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18) Isolation of the transactions is ensured by A. write

A. Transaction management B. insert
B. Application programmer C. execute
C. Concurrency control D. read
D. Recovery management
26) The node where the distributed transaction
19) In dirty read problem ....... originates is called the .......
A. one transaction reads an uncommitted value of A. local coordinator
another transaction B. starting coordinator
B. one transaction reads the committed value for C. global coordinator
another transaction D. originating node

C. one transaction reads another transaction 27) If a transaction obtains an exclusive lock on a
D. one transaction commits another transaction. row, it means that the transaction wants to ....... that
row.
20) A transaction can do only read operation and not A. select
write operation on a data item when it acquires ....... B. update
lock. C. view
A. read mode D. read
B. exclusive mode
C. shared mode 28) If a transaction acquires exclusive lock, then it can
D. write mode perform .......... operation.
A. read
21) In the ............, one transaction inserts a row in the B. write
table while the other transaction is half way through C. read and write
its browsing of table. D. update
A. transaction read problem
B. one way read problem 29) ........ is a specific concurrency problem wherein
C. serial read problem two transactions depend on each other for something.
D. phantom read problem A. phantom read problem
B. transaction read problem
22) Transaction processing is associated with C. deadlock
everything below except. D. locking
A. producing detail, summery, or exception reports
B. recording a business activity 30) If a database server is referenced in a distributed
C. confirming an action or triggering a response transaction, the value of its commit point strength
D. maintaining data determines which role it plays in the .........
A. two phase commit
23) .......... helps solve concurrency problem. B. two phase locking
A. locking C. transaction locking
B. transaction monitor D. checkpoints
C. transaction serializability
D. two phase commit 31) Transaction .......... ensures that the transaction are
being executed successfully.
24) If a transaction acquires a shared lock, then it can A. concurrency
perform .......... operation. B. consistency
A. read C. serialisability
B. write D. non serialiasability
C. read and write
D. update 32) The situation in which a transaction holds a data
item and waits for the release of data item held by
25) If a transaction obtains a shared lock on a row, it some other transaction, which in turn waits for
means that the transaction wants to ..... that row. another transaction, is called .......

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A. serialiable schedule
B. process waiting 40) In a two-phase locking protocol, a transaction
C. concurrency release locks in ......... phase.
D. deadlock A. shrinking phase
B. growing phase
33) ............ protocol grantees that a set of transactions C. running phase
becomes serialisable. D. initial phase
A. two phase locking
B. two phase commit 41) Commit and rollback are related to ..........
C. transaction locking A. data integrity
D. checkpoints B. data consistency
C. data sharing
34) The global coordinator forgets about the D. data security
transaction phase is called .........
A. Prepare phase 42) The transaction wants to edit the data item is
B. Commit phase called as .......
C. Forget phase A. Exclusive Mode
D. Global phase B. Shared Mode
C. Inclusive Mode
35) In two phase commit, .......... coordinates the D. Unshared Mode
synchronization of the commit or rollback operations.
A. database manager 43) For committing a transaction, the DBMS might
B. central coordinator discard all the records.
C. participants A. after image
D. concurrency control manager B. before image
C. log
36) In two-phase locking protocol, a transaction D. redo log
obtains locks in ........phase.
A. shrinking phase 44) A sophisticated locking mechanism known as 2-
B. growing phase phase locking which includes Growing phase and .......
C. running phase A. Shrinking Phase
D. initial phase B. Release phase
C. Commit phase
37) A transaction processing system is also called as D. Acquire Phase
........
A. processing monitor 45) A Transaction ends
B. transaction monitor A. only when it is Committed.
C. TP monitor B. only when it is Rolled-back
D. monitor C. when it is Committed or Rolled-back
D. only when it is initialized
38) After the nodes are prepared, the distributed
transaction is said to be ...... 46) In .........., each transactions there is a first phase
A. in-doubt during which new lock are acquired.
B. in-prepared A. Shrinking Phase
C. prepared transaction B. Release phase
D. in-node C. Commit phase
D. Growing Phase
39) In .........., we have many mini transactions within
a main transaction. 47) A transaction processing system is also called as
A. transaction control A. processing monitor
B. chained transaction B. transaction monitor
C. nested transaction C. TP monitor
D. calling transaction D. monitor

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 DBMS : A MCQ BOOK | Code: RBMCQ0502

B. Processes
48) The transactions are always ......... if it always C. shared_Pool_size
locks a data item in shared mode before reading it. D. buffers
A. well formed
B. well distributed 56) The ............is responsible for ensuring correct
C. well locked execution in the presence of failures.
D. well shared A. Database Manager
B. Transaction Manager
49) .......... servers which is widely used in relational C. Recovery Manager
database systems. D. Executive Manager
A. Data servers
B. Transaction servers 57) A distributed transaction can be ............. if queries
C. Query servers are issued at one or more nodes.
D. Client servers A. fully read-only
B. partially read-only
50) If a distributed transactions are well-formed and C. fully read-write
2-phasedlocked, then ................ is the correct locking D. partially read-write
mechanism in distributed transaction as well as in
centralized databases. 58) The distributed transaction can be completely
A. two phase locking read-only and the transaction is started with a ..........
B. three phase locking READ ONLY statement.
C. transaction locking A. DISTRIBUTED_TRANSACTIONS
D. well-formed locking B. TRANSACTION
51) ......... property will check whether all the C. SET TRANSACTION
operation of a transaction completed or none. D. READ TRANSACTION
A. Atomicity
B. Consistency 59) The initialization parameter ................. controls
C. Isolation the number of possible distributed transactions in
D. Durability which a given instance can concurrently participate,
both as a client and a server.
52) The total ordering of operations across groups A. DISTRIBUTED_TRANSACTIONS
ensures ...........of transactions. B. TRANSACTION
A. serializability C. SET TRANSACTION
B. synchronizability D. CONTROL TRANSACTION
C. atomicity
D. durability 60) A database administrator can manually force the
COMMIT or ROLLBACK of a local ............
53) In which state, the transaction will wait for the distributed transaction.
final statement has been executed? A. in-force
A. Active B. in-doubt
B. Failed C. in-local
C. Aborted D. in-manual
D. partially committed

54) The ORDER concurrency control technique is Backup and Recovery

based on the property.
A. ordering mechanism 1) Which of the following is not a recovery
B. inherent ordering technique?
C. total ordering A. Deferred update
D. partial ordering B. Immediate update
C. Two-phase commit
55) Transactions per rollback segment is derived from D. Recovery management
A. Db_Block_Buffers

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 DBMS : A MCQ BOOK | Code: RBMCQ0502

2)Checkpoints are a part of 10) A ........... is a block of Recovery

A. Recovery measures Manager(RMAN)job commands that is stored in the
B. Security measures recovery catalogue.
C. Concurrency measures A. recovery procedure
D. Authorization measures B. recovery block
C. stored block
3) ....... deals with soft errors, such as power failures. D. stored script
A. system recovery
B. media recovery 11) In log based recovery, the log is sequence of ......
C. database recovery A. filter
D. failure recovery B. records
C. blocks
4) ........... is an essential part of any backup system. D. numbers
A. Filter
B. Recovery RavishBegusarai
C. Security
D. Scalability 12) The enrolling of a database in a recovery
catalogue is called .........
5) Media recovery deals with ........... A. set up
A. disk errors B. registration
B. hard errors C. start up
C. system errors D. enrolment
D. power failures
13) .......... is an alternative of log based recovery.
6) For a backup/restore system, ............. is a A. Disk recovery
prerequisite for service in a enterprise. B. Shadow paging
A. Filter C. Dish shadowing
B. Recovery D. Crash recovery
C. Security
D. Scalability 14) Most backup and recovery commands in ...........
are executed by server sessions.
7) Failure recovery and media recovery fall under ... A. Backup Manager
A. transaction recovery B. Recovery Manager
B. database recovery C. Backup and Recovery Manager
C. system recovery D. Database Manager
D. value recovery 15) ........ systems typically allows to replace failed
disks without stopping access to the system.
8) The .......... consists of the various applications and A. RAM
database that play a role in a backup and recovery B. RMAN
strategy. C. RAD
A. Recovery Manager environment D. RAID
B. Recovery Manager suit
C. Recovery Manager file 16) An ......... is an exact copy of a single datafile,
D. Recovery Manager database archived redo log file, or control file.
A. image copy
9) In which the database can be restored up to the last B. datafile copy
consistent state after the system failure? C. copy log
A. Backup D. control copy
B. Recovery
C. Both 17) .......... known as memory-style error correcting-
D. None code(ECC) organization, employs parity bits.
A. RAID level 1

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B. RAID level 2 B) Can be assigned to any field only during design

C. RAID level 3 time.
D. RAID level 4 C) Can be assigned to any variable or field during run
time.
18) The remote backup site is sometimes called the D) Can be assigned to a local variable.
.......... site.
A. primary 5. What are the different events in Triggers?
B. secondary A) Define, Create
C. ternary B) Drop, Comment
D. None of the above C) Insert, Update, Delete
D) Select, Commit
19) EXP command is used ...........
A. to take Backup of the Oracle Database 6. Which is the subset of SQL commands used to
B. to import data from the exported dump file manipulate Oracle Database Structures, including
C. to create Rollback segments tables?
D. to create Schedule. A) Data Definition Language
B) Data Manipulation Language
20) The simplest approach to introducing redundancy C) Data Described Language
is to duplicate every disk is called ..... D) Data Retrieval Language
A. mirroring
B. imaging 7. The SQL statement SELECT
C. copying SUBSTR('123456789', INSTR('abcabcabc','b'), 4)
D. All of the above FROM EMP; prints
A) 6789 B) 2345

DBMS set-1 C) 1234 D) 456789

8. Which of the following SQL command can be used

1. In SQL, which command is used to issue multiple to modify existing data in a database table?
CREATE TABLE, CREATE VIEW and GRANT A) MODIFY B) UPDATE
statements in a single transaction? C) CHANGE D) NEW
A) CREATE PACKAGE
B) CREATE SCHEMA 9. When SQL statements are embedded inside 3GL,
C) CREATE CLUSTER we call such a program as ..........
D) All of the above A) nested query
B) nested programming
2. In SQL, the CREATE TABLESPACE is used C) distinct query
A) to create a place in the database for storage of D) embedded SQL
scheme objects, rollback segments, and naming the
data files to comprise the tablespace. 10. ................ provides option for entering SQL
B) to create a database trigger. queries as execution time, rather than at the
C) to add/rename data files, to change storage development stage.
D) All of the above A) PL/SQL
B) SQL*Plus
3. Which character function can be used to return a C) SQL
specified portion of a character string? D) Dynamic SQL
A) INSTR
B) SUBSTRING 11) The RDBMS terminology for a row is
C) SUBSTR A. tuple B. relation
D) POS C. attribute D. degree

4. Which of the following is TRUE for the System 12) To change column value in a table the .........
Variable $date$? command can be used.
A) Can be assigned to a global variable. A. create B. insert

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C. alter D. update C. foreign key

D. super key
13) The full form of DDL is
A. Dynamic Data Language
B. Detailed Data Language DBMS set-2
C. Data Definition Language
D. Data Derivation Language 1. ............... joins are SQL server default
A) Outer B) Inner
14) To pass on granted privileges to other user the ...... C) Equi D) None of the above
clause is used
A. create option
2. The ..................... is essentially used to search for
B. grant option
C. update option patterns in target string.
D. select option A) Like Predicate
B) Null Predicate
15) A set of possible data values is called C) In Predicate
A. attribute B. degree D) Out Predicate
C. tuple D. domain
3. Which of the following is/are the Database server
16) ......... is critical in formulating database design. functions?
A. row column order
i) Data management ii) Transaction management
B. number of tables
C. functional dependency iii) Compile queries iv) Query optimization
D. normalizing

17) A primary key if combined with a foreign key A) i, ii, and iv only
creates B) i, ii and iii only
A. Parent-Child relationship between the tables that C) ii, iii and iv only
connect them D) All i, ii, iii, and iv
B. Many to many relationship between the tables that
connect them 4. To delete a database ................... command is used
C. Network model between the tables that connect A) delete database database_name
them
B) Delete database_name
D. None of the above
C) drop database database_name
18) A ............. represents the number of entities to D) drop database_name
which another entity can be associated
A. mapping cardinality 5. .............. is a combination of two of more attributes
B. table used as a primary key
C. schema A) Composite Key
D. information B) Alternate Key
C) Candidate Key
19) Which two files are used during operation of the
D) Foreign Key
DBMS
A. Query languages and utilities
B. DML and query language 6. Which of the following is not the function of client?
C. Data dictionary and transaction log A) Compile queries
D. Data dictionary and query language B) Query optimization
C) Receive queries
20) A ........... is a set of column that identifies every D) Result formatting and presentation
row in a table.
A. composite key
7. ............. is a special type of stored procedure that is
B. candidate key

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 DBMS : A MCQ BOOK | Code: RBMCQ0502

automatically invoked whenever the data in the table is 14. …………. contains data assisting day to day activities of
modified. the organization.
A) Procedure A) Control database
B) Trigger B) Operational database
C) Curser C) Strategic database
D) None of the above D) Sequential database

RavishBegusarai 15. ………………… approach reduces time and effort

required for design and lesser risk in database
management.
8. ................. requires that data should be made available A) Single global database
to only authorized users. B) Top-down approach
A) Data integrity C) Multiple databases
B) Privacy D) None of the above
C) Security
D) None of the above 16. HSAM stands for ……….
A) Hierarchic Sequential Access Method
9. Some of the utilities of DBMS are ............. B) Hierarchic Standard Access Method
i) Loading ii) Backup iii) File C) Hierarchic Sequential and Method
organization iv) Process Organization D) Hierarchic Standard and Method
A) i, ii, and iv only
B) i, ii and iii only 17. SQL server stores index information in the …………
C) ii, iii and iv only system table
D) All i, ii, iii, and iv A) syst indexes B) system indexes
C) sysind D) sys indexes
10. ................. allows individual row operation to be
performed on a given result set or on the generated by a 18. The one guideline to be followed while designing the
selected by a selected statement. database is
A) Procedure B) Trigger A) A database design may be ambiguous.
C) Curser D) None of above B) Unrelated data should be in the same table so that
updating the data will be easy.
11. Processed data is called ……………….. C) It should avoid/reduce the redundancy.
A) Raw data B) Information D) An entity should not have attributes.
C) Useful data D) Source
19. Which of the following is not a logical database
structure?
12. …………….. is a utility to capture a continuous record of
A) Chain B) Network
server activity and provide auditing capability.
C) Tree D) Relational
A) SQL server Profile
B) SQL server service manager
20. ……………. is a preferred method for enforcing data
C) SQL server setup
integrity
D) SQL server wizard.
A) Constraints B) Stored procedure
13. Data items grouped together for storage purposes are C) Triggers D) Cursors
called a
A) record
C) list
B) title
D) string
DBMS set-3

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 DBMS : A MCQ BOOK | Code: RBMCQ0502

1. The relational model is based on the concept that data 9. ……………..specifies a search condition for a group or an
is organized and stored in two-dimensional tables called aggregate.
A) Fields B) Records A) GROUP BY Clause
C) Relations D) Keys B) HAVING Clause
C) FROM Clause
2. ……………….. contains information that defines valid D) WHERE Clause
values that are stored in a column or data type.
A) View B) Rule 10. Drop Table cannot be used to drop a table referenced
C) Index D) Default by a …………… constraint.
A) Local Key
3. Which of the syntax is correct for insert statement? B) Primary Key
i) insert into <table_name> values <list of values> C) Composite Key
ii) insert into <table_name> (column list) values <list of D) Foreign Key
values>
A) i-only
B) ii-only
C) Both of them
D) None of them
जीवन में कठिनाइयाॉ हमे बबााद करने नह ॊ आती है , बल्कक
4. ………………. First proposed the process of normalization.
यह हमार छुपी हुई सामर्थया और शल्ततयों को बाहर
A) Edgar. W
B) Edgar F. Codd ननकऱने में हमार मदद करती है | कठिनाइयों को यह जान
C) Edward Stephen ऱेने दो की आप उससे भी ज्यादा कठिन हो।
D) Edward Codd
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5. For using a specific database …………… command is used.
A) use database B) database name use
C) Both A &B D) None of them
दरू से हमें आगे के सभी रास्ते बॊद नजर आते हैं तयोंकक
6. Which of the following is not comparison operator? सफऱता के रास्ते हमारे लऱए तभी खऱ
ु ते जब हम उसके
A) <> B) < बबककुऱ कर ब पहुॉच जाते है |
C) =< D) >=

7. An outstanding functionality of SQL is its support for

automatic ………… to the target data. RavishBegusarai
A) programming B) functioning
C) navigation D) notification

8. ………………… is a special type of integrity constraint that

relates two relations & maintains consistency across the
relations.

Thank You
A) Entity Integrity Constraints
B) Referential Integrity Constraints
C) Domain Integrity Constraints
D) Domain Constraints
E) Key Constraints

Answer: dbms[rbmcq0502]
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 DBMS : A MCQ BOOK | Code: RBMCQ0502

Fundamental of DBMS 47. A. Weak entity

48. D. Predicate
49. A. Constraints
1) B. Tree like structure 50. B. Cardinality, Degree
2) A. data item 51. B. Non-Procedural DML
3) D. Primary key 52.C. Data dictionary and transaction log
4) C. attribute 53. C. DDL
5) A. Number of tuples 54. D. sub schema
6) D. data definition language 55. B. is much more data independence than some
7) A. Conceptual view other database models
8) D. data model 56. B. Data elements in the database can be modified
9) C. three levels by changing the data dictionary.
10) C. EF Codd 57. C. Attributes
11) C. Tables 58. A. External
12) C. referential integrity constraint 59. B. Total and partial
13) D. view level 60. A. RAW
14) D. attributes
15) B. data record
16) D. candidate key Database Normalization
17) A. users
18) B. Project 1 .D) Normal form
19) D. sub schema 2. B) 3NF
20) B. Check Constraint 3 .C) Join dependency
21. C) Program 4 .D) BCNF
22. B) Domains 5 .C) No partial functional dependencies exist
23. A) Entity 6 .A) 2NF
24. C) Data Flow Diagram 7 .A) fourth normal form
25. A) Hierarchical schema 8. D) 3NF
26. C) System 9 .A) BCNF
27. B) Schema 10.A) 1 NF
28. C) Having
29. B) is a standard .. accessible parts.
30. C) Structured query language Relational Algebra
31) C. a tuple
32) B. COUNT 1) D.Join
33) C. data is integrated and can be accessed by multiple 2) C. Aggregation operator
programs 3) C. Hierarchical model
34) B. instance of the database 4) A. Referential constraint
35) D. both B and C 5) C. Aggregation
36) A. schema 6) A. Join
37) C. foreign key 7) B. Select * from R cross join S
38) C. DCL 8) B. weak relationship sets
39) D. Both A and B 9) D. inner join
40) A. alter 10) C. Procedural query Language
41. B. Primary Key 11) B. partial
42. A. Unique predicate 12) C. natural join
43. C. DISTINCT 13) A. double lines
44. C. i-true, ii-true 14) A. Aggregation
45. A. Data Control Language 15) C. Relational algebra
46. A. Normalization
16) B. Non-Procedural language

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 DBMS : A MCQ BOOK | Code: RBMCQ0502

17) B. a Binary operator 16.D) RUN

18) C. ellipse 17.C) Smallest Database storage unit
19) A. rectangle 18.C) The group that is above or leftmost ranks higher
20) C. Doubly outlined rectangle than the group that is to right or below it.
19.C) System Trigger

Database Design 20.C) LIKE operator

1) B. It is the data contained in database that is accurate Embedded SQL

and consistent.
2) All of the above 1) C. DDL 2) C. UNIQUE
3) A. inner join 3) B. COUNT(*) 4) D. EXISTS
4) D. Select 5) A. Like 6) A. DML
5) B. weak entity set 7) B. The data manipulation language(DML)
6) A. not Null 8) D. All of the above
7) A. is the entire database. 9) B. DDL and DML 10) D. None of these.
8) C. Relational algebra 11) D. All of the above 12) C. ALTER
9) Child 13) A. BETWEEN 14) B. MOD
10) A. Network Model 15) C. JOIN
11) A. SELECT 16) A. Data definition language
12) B. Dashed ellipse 17) A.Conceptual schema 18) B.DML
13) D. Combination of projection and Cartesian product 19) D.VDL 20) B.DML
14) D. Diamond
15) D. Triangle
16) B. Self Join SQL Server
17) D. Data redundancy
1. A) Global variables
18) B. data inconsistency
2. A) One @ symbol
19) C. join
3. A) CHECK, FOREIGN KEY
20) B. database constraints
4. C) Continue, While
5. B) CHECK
Basic SQL 6. D) FOREIGN KEY
7. C) IF........ELSE
1..C) Manipulation & processing of database 8. C) Referential integrity
2…B) Rename Operation 9. C) GROUP BY
3…A) values 10.C) SQL-92
4..A) Alter 11. C) Structured Query Language
5..D) None of the above 12. D) sqldb Database
6..A) PROJECTION 13. D) sysindexes
7..B) SELECT NAME FROM EMPLOYEE; 14. A) Resource Database
8..D) All of the above 15. C) Both a & b
9..B) SELECT DISTINCT SUB FROM BOOK 16. B) SQL server service manager
10.D) UPDATE 17. A) DROP DATABASE pubs, newpubs;
11.C) DROP FUNCTION 18. C) GROUP BY
12.A) SELECT DISTINCT 19. B) Global Variables
13.A) Values 20.D) Real Operator
14.D) Two or more columns
15.B) Revoke

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 DBMS : A MCQ BOOK | Code: RBMCQ0502

PL/SQL and Oracle 7) C. Data consistency

8) c. throughput
9) A. transaction must not interfere with each other
1. B) PL/SQL 2. A) PL/SQL 10) A. Transaction management component of DBMS
3. C) Oracle 4. A) Lexical Units 11) C. durability
5. D) Identifiers 6. B) Literals 12) D. number of transaction that can be executed in a
7. D) Anonymous 8. B) String literal given amount of time
13) B. transaction recovery
9. B) Operating System Authentication
14) C. transaction manager
10.A) Database Authentication
15) C. two phase commit
11. D) Replace 12. B) Trigger 16) B. exclusive mode
13. A) PL/SQL Cursors 14. A) Implicit 17) B. lost update problem
15. B) Explicit 16. B) Cursor 18) C. Concurrency control
17. A) Declearing 18. C) iterative process 19) A. one transaction reads an uncommitted value of
19. B) Package 20.A) Public another transaction
20) C. shared mode
21) D. phantom read problem
Oracle and Distributed 22) C. confirming an action or triggering a response
23) A. locking
Databases 24) A. read
25) D. read
1. B) Oracle Server 26) C. global coordinator
27) B. update
2. D) Oracle Instance
28) C. read and write
3. A) System Global Area (SGA)
29) C. deadlock
4. B) Asynchronous 30) A. two phase commit
5. A) SQL Statements 31) C. serialisability
6. C) Shared Pool 32) D. deadlock
7. A) Data Files 33) A. two phase locking
8. B) Control File 34) C. Forget phase
9. D) Password File 35) B. central coordinator
10. C) Redo Log
36) B. growing phase
37) C. TP monitor
11. B) Instance 38) A. in-doubt
12. A) tablespace 39) B. chained transaction
13. B) segments 40) A. shrinking phase
14. C) extent 41) B. data consistency
15. D) Database Block 42) A. Exclusive Mode
16. C) Data dictionary 43) B. before image
17. C) Database 44) A. Shrinking Phase
18. C) Specification and body 45) C. when it is Committed or Rolled-back
19. A) INSTANTIABLE 46) D. Growing Phase
20. C) FINAL 47) C. TP monitor
48) A. well formed
Distributed Transaction 49) B. Transaction servers
50) A. two phase locking
51) A. Atomicity
1) D. undone 52) A. serializability
2) B. Concurrency 53) D. partially committed
3) A. transaction processing monitor 54) C. total ordering
4) A. committed 55) B. Processes
5) C. atomicity 56) A. Database Manager
6) C. It will immediately be granted 57) B. partially read-only

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 DBMS : A MCQ BOOK | Code: RBMCQ0502

58) C. SET TRANSACTION connect them

59) A. DISTRIBUTED_TRANSACTIONS 18) A. mapping cardinality
60) B. in-doubt 19) C. Data dictionary and transaction log
20) D. super key
Backup and Recovery
1) C. Two-phase commit
DBMS set-2
2) A. Recovery measures
1. B) Inner
3) D. failure recovery
2. A) Like Predicate
4) C. Security
5) A. disk errors 3. A) i, ii, and iv only
6) D. Scalability 4. C) drop ....database_name
7) C. system recovery 5. A) Composite Key
8) A. Recovery Manager environment 6. B) Query optimization
9) B. Recovery 7. B) Trigger
10) D. stored script 8. C) Security
11) B. records 9. B) i, ii and iii only
12) B. registration
10. C) Curser
13) B. Shadow paging
14) B. Recovery Manager 11. B) Information
15) D. RAID 12. B) SQL server service manager
16) A. image copy 13. A) record
17) B. RAID level 2 14. B) Operational database
18) B. secondary 15. C) Multiple databases
19) A. to take Backup of the Oracle Database 16. A) Hierarchic Sequential Access Method
20) A. mirroring 17. D) sys indexes
18. C) It should avoid/reduce the redundancy.
DBMS set-1 19. A) Chain
20. A) Constraints
1. B) CREATE SCHEMA
2. A) to create a place in the database for storage of
scheme objects, rollback segments, and naming the data
DBMS set-3
files to comprise the table-space.
1. C) Relations 2. C) Index
3. C) SUBSTR
3. C) Both of them 4. B) Edgar F. Codd
4. B) Can be assigned to any field only during design time.
5. A) use database 6. C) =<
5. C) Insert, Update, Delete
7. C) navigation
6. A) Data Definition Language
8. B) Referential.....Constraints
7. B) 2345
9. B) HAVING Clause
8. B) UPDATE
10. D) Foreign Key
9. D) embedded SQL
10.D) Dynamic SQL
11) A. tuple
12) D. update
13) C. Data Definition Language
14) B. grant option
The End
15) D. domain
16) C. functional dependency
17) A. Parent-Child relationship between the tables that

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