REVISION 1, DEC 2021 DATS CAA PREPARATION TEST PAPER 1 AIRCRAFT PERFORMANCE

FLIGHT DISPATCH: AIRCRAFT PERFORMANCE

Aircraft Performance Preparation Test 1 (PT1)

Purpose: This test contains nine parts/lesson. The purpose of this mastery test is to:
 To check the trainee competency and readiness to attempt the CAA Flight
Dispatch paper 1 Examination

References: Refer to the following materials during this test:

 Only the test items booklet for Preparation Test 1, PT1 and the answer
sheet.

Instructions: There are 100 multiple – choice questions.

 Answer all questions because each carry 1 mark.
 Time Allowed: 90 Minutes
 Remember to stay clear of any document that will be used against you as an
exhibit.
 If you need more plain sheets, just raise up your hand and someone will
attend to you.

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 REVISION 1, DEC 2021 DATS CAA PREPARATION TEST PAPER 1 AIRCRAFT PERFORMANCE

1-High temperature ---- the performance of aircraft

A-increase
B-decreases
C-has no clear effect

2-To enhance a better engine creep life of an aircraft, Maximum Takeoff Thrust may be cut back to ---
A-Maximum continuous thrust after 2nd segment
B-Minimum continuous thrust after 5 mins
C-Maximum continuous thrust after 5 mins limit is reached

3-Define the following (i) TORA (ii) EMDA (iii) TODA

A-(i) Takeoff Run Available (ii) Emergency Distance Available (iii) Takeoff Distance Available
B-(i) Takeoff Run Required (ii) Emergency Distance Available (iii) Takeoff Distance Available
C-(i) Takeoff Run Available (ii) Emergency Distance Available (iii) Takeoff Distance Required

4-One of the following is not amongst the properties of a clearway

A-A term related to the dimension of some runways; Abbreviated with CWY; An area beyond the
paved runway;
B-Free of obstructions; Under the control of the airport authorities; The length may be included in the
TODA
C- A term related to the dimension of some runways; Abbreviated with STPWY; A paved area beyond
the takeoff runway no less wide than the runway and Shared the same centerline of the runway

5-Define the following Vspeeds (i) V1 speed (ii) VR speed (iii) V2 speed
A-(i) Takeoff safety speed (ii) Rotation speed (iii) Decision speed
B-(i) Decision speed (ii) Rotation speed (iii) Takeoff safety speed
C-(i) Rotation speed (ii) Decision speed (iii) Takeoff safety speed

6-You are dispatching flight Ng 500 and identifies the airfield has high density altitude; What will you
include in your briefing to the pilot in command.
A-Captain! Note that you will have increased takeoff performance.
B-Captain! You will experience increased engine performance.
C-Captain! Watch out for reduce climb performance.
D-None of the above.

7-What is the resulting performance loss when one engine on a twin-engine airplane fails?
A. Reduction of cruise airspeed by 50 percent.
B. Reduction of climb by 50 percent or more.
C. Reduction of all performance by 50 percent.

8-Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed?
A. Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid.
B. Low gross weight.
C. High density altitude.

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9-A low friction runway surface will

A-increase the landing distance required
B-reduce the landing distance required
C-reduces aircraft climb gradient

10-A field is said to be balance if

A-TORA=TODA
B-ASDA/EMDA=TORA
C-ASDA/EMDA=TODA

11-Second segment flight is characterized by ---

A-Gears fully up and flap retraction initiated
B-Flaps retraction and aircraft levels out
C-Screen height is reached and gear up

12-The maximum gross height in the 3rd segment is ---

A-1500ft
B-400ft
C-500ft

13- Reduced field length weight to provide for obstacle clearance will lead to ---
A-Reference zero moving back from the obstacle as the TODR is reduced
B-Climb gradient is decreased
C-Poor performance

14-There are stages of takeoff segments. Identify the wrong segment.

A-Vlof to gears up
B-Gear up to 400ft 2nd segment gradient 2.4%
C-400ft to 700ft (gear down)
D-none of the above.

15-What effect does an uphill runway slope have upon takeoff performance?
A. Increases takeoff distance.
B. Decreases takeoff speed.
C. Decreases takeoff distance.

16-Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff?

A. Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation.
B. Lower-than-standard air density.
C. Increased headwind component.

17-What is the safest and most efficient takeoff and initial climb procedure in a light, twin-engine
airplane? Accelerate to
A. best engine-out, rate-of-climb airspeed while on the ground, then lift off and climb at that speed.
B. VMC, then lift off at that speed and climb at maximum angle-of-climb airspeed.
C. an airspeed slightly above VMC, then lift off and climb at the best rate-of-climb airspeed

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18-While calculating takeoff performance with obstacle, the most restrictive weight to be considered is
A-The least of WAT weight and Tyre speed limit weight
B-The least of WAT, Tyre speed limit and field length limiting weights
C-Field length limit weight

19-What is a speed bug card used for

A-a plastic indicate the speed without reference to the instrument.
B-A speed insect
C-An indication of error
D-Handled device used to check the speed setting

20-Define the following Vspeeds: (i) VMCG (ii) VMCA (iii) VMBE
A-(i) The minimum control speed on ground, with one engine inoperative (ii) The Minimum control
speed in the air ('airbourne') (iii) Minimum break energy speed.
B-(i) The Minimum control speed on the ground (ii) The Miminum control speed in the air
('airbourne') (iii) Minimum break energy speed.
C-(i) The minimum control speed on ground, with one engine inoperative (ii) Minimum break energy
speed (iii) The minimum control speed on ground, with one engine inoperative.

21-Choose the properties of a group ‘A’ aircraft classification from the information below
i-Multi-Engine Jets and some Turboprops ( > 5700kg or 9 seats)
ii-Small Propeller < 5700kg or < 9 seats
iii-Large Reciprocating engine-Propeller = 5700kg or 9 seats
A-2
B-3
C-1

22-The 4 basic segments of a flight are

A-First, Second, Third and Last segments
B-First, Second, Third and Fourth segments
C-First, Second, Third and Fifth Last segments

23-Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases, for a given runway?
A. Critical engine failure speed.
B. Rotation speed.
C. Accelerate-stop distance.

24-What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft
engines?
A. Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected.
B. Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP.
C. Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust.

25-What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft
engines?
A. Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected.
B. Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP.
C. Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust.

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26-What does the blue radial line on the airspeed indicator of a light, twin-engine airplane represent?
A. Maximum single-engine rate of climb.
B. Maximum single-engine angle of climb.
C. Minimum controllable airspeed for single-engine operation.

27-What is the resulting performance loss when one engine on a twin-engine airplane fails?
A. Reduction of cruise airspeed by 50 percent.
B. Reduction of climb by 50 percent or more.
C. Reduction of all performance by 50 percent.

28-What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a tailwind is
encountered?
A. Increase speed.
B. Maintain speed.
C. Decrease speed.

29-Which maximum range factor decreases as weight decreases?

A. Angle of attack.
B. Altitude.
C. Airspeed.

30-Which procedure produces the minimum fuel consumption for a given leg of the cruise flight?
A. Increase speed for a headwind.
B. Increase speed for a tailwind.
C. Increase altitude for a headwind, decrease altitude for a Tailwind.

31-At what speed, with reference to L/Dmax, does maximum range for a jet airplane occur?
A. A speed less than that for L/Dmax.
B. A speed equal to that for L/Dmax.
C. A speed greater than that for L/Dmax.

32-Maximum range performance of a turbojet aircraft is obtained by which procedure as aircraft

weight reduces?
A. Increasing speed or altitude.
B. Increasing altitude or decreasing speed.
C. Increasing speed or decreasing altitude.

33-What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of
modern aircraft engines?
A. Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected.
B. Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP.
C. Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust.

34-What performance should a pilot of a light, Twin-engine airplane be able to maintain at VMC?
A. Heading.
B. Heading and altitude.
C. Heading, altitude, and ability to climb 50 ft/min.

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35-Under what condition is VMC the highest?

A. Gross weight is at the maximum allowable value.
B. CG is at the most rearward allowable position.
C. CG is at the most forward allowable position.

36-What is the resulting performance loss when one engine on a Twin-engine airplane fails?
A. Reduction of cruise airspeed by 50 percent.
B. Reduction of climb by 50 percent or more.
C. Reduction of all performance by 50 percent.

37-What criteria determines which engine is the "critical" engine of a Twin-engine airplane?
A. The one with the center of thrust closest to the centerline of the fuselage.
B. The one designated by the manufacturer which develops most usable thrust.
C. The one with the center of thrust farthest from the centerline of the fuselage.

38-If an engine failure occurs at an altitude above single-engine ceiling, what airspeed should be
maintained?
A.VMC.
B.VYSE.
C.VXSE.

39-What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring symmetrically near the
wing root of a sweptwing aircraft?
A. A high-speed stall and sudden pitch up.
B. A severe moment or "tuck under."
C. Severe porpoising.

40-Which is an effect of ice, snow, or frost formation on an airplane?

A. Decreased stall speed.
B. Decreased pitch up tendencies.
C. Decreased angle of attack for stalls.

41-Which is an effect of ice, snow, or frost formation on an airplane?

A. Increased stall speed.
B. Increased pitch down tendencies.
C. Increased angle of attack for stalls.

42-The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics
include decreased lift and
A. increased thrust.
B. a decreased stall speed.
C. an increased stall speed.

43-What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of
modern aircraft engines?
A. Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected.
B. Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP.
C. Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust.

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44-A low friction runway surface will

A-increase the landing distance required
B-reduce the landing distance required
C-reduces aircraft climb gradient

45-What effect does landing at high elevation airports have on groundspeed with comparable
conditions relative to temperature, wind, and airplane weight?
A. Higher than at low elevation.
B. Lower than at low elevation.
C. The same as at low elevation.

46-Under which condition during the landing roll are the main wheel brakes at maximum
effectiveness?
A. When wing lift has been reduced.
B. At high groundspeeds.
C. When the wheels are locked and skidding.

47-What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft
engines?
A. Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected.
B. Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP.
C. Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust.

48-What is the resulting performance loss when one engine on a twin-engine airplane fails?
A. Reduction of cruise airspeed by 50 percent.
B. Reduction of climb by 50 percent or more.
C. Reduction of all performance by 50 percent.

49-What procedure is recommended for an engine-out approach and landing?

A. The flight path and procedures should be almost identical to a normal approach and landing.
B. The altitude and airspeed should be considerably higher than normal throughout the approach.
C. A normal approach, except do not extend the landing gear or flaps until over the runway threshold.

50-What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring symmetrically near the
wing root of a sweptwing aircraft?
A. A high-speed stall and sudden pitchup.
B. A severe moment or "tuck under."
C. Severe porpoising.

51-What effect, if any, will landing at a higher-than-recommended touchdown speed have on

hydroplaning?
A. No effect on hydroplaning, but increases landing roll.
B. Reduces hydroplaning potential if heavy braking is applied.
C. Increases hydroplaning potential regardless of braking.

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52- What effect would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gas-turbine-engine
performance?
A. As air density decreases, thrust increases.
B. As temperature increases, thrust increases.
C. As temperature increases, thrust decreases.

53-What effect, if any, does high ambient temperature have upon the thrust output of a turbine engine?
A. Thrust will be reduced due to the decrease in air density.
B. Thrust will remain the same, but turbine temperature will be higher.
C. Thrust will be higher because more heat energy is extracted from the hotter air.

54-As outside air pressure decreases, thrust output will

A. Increase due to greater efficiency of jet aircraft in thin air
B. Remain the same since compression of inlet air will compensate for any decrease in air pressure.
C. C. Decrease due to higher density altitude

55-What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit?
A-lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed and least stability
B-highest stall speed, highest cruise speed and least stability
C-lowest stall speed, lowest cruise speed and highest stability

56-What characteristics should exist if an airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG range?
A-sluggish in aileron control
B-sluggish in rudder control
C-unstable about the lateral axis

57-What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the forward limit?
A-lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed and least stability
B-highest stall speed, highest cruise speed and least stability
C-lowest stall speed, lowest cruise speed and highest stability

58-Which is an effect of ice, snow, or frost formation on an airplane?

A. Decreased stall speed.
B. Decreased pitch up tendencies.
C. Decreased angle of attack for stalls.

59-Which is an effect of ice, snow, or frost formation on an airplane?

A. Increased stall speed.
B. Increased pitch down tendencies.
C. Increased angle of attack for stalls.

60-The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics
include decreased lift and
A. increased thrust.
B. a decreased stall speed.
C. an increased stall speed.

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61-What effect does an uphill runway slope have upon takeoff performance?
A. Increases takeoff distance.
B. Decreases takeoff speed.
C. Decreases takeoff distance.

62-Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff?

A. Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation.
B. Lower-than-standard air density.
C. Increased headwind component.

63-Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases, for a given runway?
A. Critical engine failure speed.
B. Rotation speed.
C. Accelerate-stop distance.

64-What effect does landing at high elevation airports have on groundspeed with comparable
conditions relative to temperature, wind, and airplane weight?
A. Higher than at low elevation.
B. Lower than at low elevation.
C. The same as at low elevation.

65-Under which condition during the landing roll are the main wheel brakes at maximum
effectiveness?
A. When wing lift has been reduced.
B. At high groundspeeds.
C. When the wheels are locked and skidding.

66-What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a tailwind is
encountered?
A. Increase speed.
B. Maintain speed.
C. Decrease speed.

67-Which maximum range factor decreases as weight decreases?

A. Angle of attack.
B. Altitude.
C. Airspeed.

68-Which procedure produces the minimum fuel consumption for a given leg of the cruise flight?
A. Increase speed for a headwind.
B. Increase speed for a tailwind.
C. Increase altitude for a headwind, decrease altitude for a tailwind.

69-At what speed, with reference to L/Dmax, does maximum range for a jet airplane occur?
A. A speed less than that for L/Dmax.
B. A speed equal to that for L/Dmax.
C. A speed greater than that for L/Dmax.

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70-Maximum range performance of a turbojet aircraft is obtained by which procedure as

aircraft weight reduces?
A. Increasing speed or altitude.
B. Increasing altitude or decreasing speed.
C. Increasing speed or decreasing altitude.

71-What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft
engines?
A. Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected.
B. Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP.
C. Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust.

72-What does the blue radial line on the airspeed indicator of a light, twin-engine airplane represent?
A. Maximum single-engine rate of climb.
B. Maximum single-engine angle of climb.
C. Minimum controllable airspeed for single-engine operation.

73-What performance should a pilot of a light, twin-engine airplane be able to maintain at VMC?
A. Heading.
B. Heading and altitude.
C. Heading, altitude, and ability to climb 50 ft/min.

74-Under what condition is VMC the highest?

A. Gross weight is at the maximum allowable value.
B. CG is at the most rearward allowable position.
C. CG is at the most forward allowable position.

75-What is the resulting performance loss when one engine on a twin-engine airplane fails?
A. Reduction of cruise airspeed by 50 percent.
B. Reduction of climb by 50 percent or more.
C. Reduction of all performance by 50 percent.

76-What criteria determines which engine is the "critical" engine of a twin-engine airplane?
A. The one with the center of thrust closest to the centerline of the fuselage.
B. The one designated by the manufacturer which develops most usable thrust.
C. The one with the center of thrust farthest from the centerline of the fuselage.

77-Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed?
A. Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid.
B. Low gross weight.
C. High density altitude.

78-What is the safest and most efficient takeoff and initial climb procedure in a light, twin-
engine airplane? Accelerate to A. best engine-out, rate-of-climb airspeed while on the
ground, then lift off and climb at that speed.
B. VMC, then lift off at that speed and climb at maximum angle-of-climb airspeed.
C. an airspeed slightly above VMC, then lift off and climb at the best rate-of-climb airspeed.

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79-If an engine failure occurs at an altitude above single-engine ceiling, what airspeed should be
maintained?
A. VMC
B. VYSE
C. VXSE

80-What procedure is recommended for an engine-out approach and landing?

A. The flight path and procedures should be almost identical to a normal approach and landing.
B. The altitude and airspeed should be considerably higher than normal throughout the approach.
C. A normal approach, except do not extend the landing gear or flaps until over the runway threshold.

81-What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a tailwind is encountered?
A. Increase speed.
B. Maintain speed.
C. Decrease speed.

82-What effect, if any, will landing at a higher-than-recommended touchdown speed have on

hydroplaning?
A. No effect on hydroplaning, but increases landing roll.
B. Reduces hydroplaning potential if heavy braking is applied.
C. Increases hydroplaning potential regardless of braking.

83-Which is an effect of ice, snow, or frost formation on an airplane?

A. Decreased stall speed.
B. Decreased pitchup tendencies.
C. Decreased angle of attack for stalls.

84-Which is an effect of ice, snow, or frost formation on an airplane?

A. Increased stall speed.
B. Increased pitchdown tendencies.
C. Increased angle of attack for stalls.

85-The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics
include decreased lift and
A. increased thrust.
B. a decreased stall speed.
C. an increased stall speed.

86-Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed?
A. Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid.
B. Low gross weight.
C. High density altitude.

87-A low friction runway surface will

A-increase the landing distance required
B-reduce the landing distance required
C-reduces aircraft climb gradient

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88-Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff?

A. Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation.
B. Lower-than-standard air density.
C. Increased headwind component.

89-What is the safest and most efficient takeoff and initial climb procedure in a light, twin-engine
airplane? Accelerate to
A. best engine-out, rate-of-climb airspeed while on the ground, then lift off and climb at that speed.
B. VMC, then lift off at that speed and climb at maximum angle-of-climb airspeed.
C. an airspeed slightly above VMC, then lift off and climb at the best rate-of-climb airspeed.

90-Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases, for a given runway?
A. Critical engine failure speed.
B. Rotation speed.
C. Accelerate-stop distance.

91-What is the name of a plane beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can
be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered aircraft?
A. Clearway.
B. Stopway.
C. Obstruction clearance plane.

92-What is an area identified by the term "stopway"?

A. An area, at least the same width as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal
takeoff.
B. An area designated for use in decelerating an aborted takeoff.
C. An area, not as wide as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff.

93-Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff?

A. Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation.
B. Lower-than-standard air density.
C. Increased headwind component.

94-Which is a definition of V2 speed?

A. Takeoff decision speed.
B. Takeoff safety speed.
C. Minimum takeoff speed.

95-What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport
if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA?
A. 70 percent of the actual runway available, from a height of 50 feet over the threshold.
B. 115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway.
C. 115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway.

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96-When computing the takeoff data, what is the percentage of the reported headwind component that
may be applied to the "still air" data?
A. Not more than 150 percent.
B. Not more than 100 percent.
C. Not more than 50 percent.

97-When computing takeoff data, what is the percentage of the effective tailwind component which
may be applied to the "still air" data?
A. Not less than 150 percent.
B. Not less than 100 percent.
C. Not more than 50 percent.

98-What performance is required of a multiengine airplane with the critical engine inoperative, while
carrying passengers in IFR weather conditions?
A. Climb at least 100 ft/min at the highest MEA of the route to be flown or 5,000ft MSL, whichever is
higher.
B. Climb at least 50 ft/min at the MEA's of the route to be flown or 5,000 feet AGL, whichever is
higher.
C. C. Climb at least 50 ft/min at the MEA's of the route to be flown or 5,000 feet MSL, whichever is
higher.

99-Which performance requirement applies to passenger-carrying land airplanes being operated over
water?
A. Multiengine airplanes must be able to climb, with the critical engine inoperative, at least 50 ft/min
at 1,500 feet above the surface.
B. Single-engine airplanes must be operated at an altitude that will allow them to reach land in case of
engine failure.
C. Multiengine airplanes must be able to climb, with the critical engine inoperative, at least 100 ft/min
at 1,000 feet above the surface.

100-The weights and CG of an aircraft used in air taxi service must have been calculated from those
values established by actual weighing of the aircraft within what period of time?
A. Multiengine aircraft, preceding 36 calendar months.
B. Multiengine and single-engine aircraft, preceding 36 calendar months.
C. Multiengine aircraft, last 36 calendar months; single-engine, last 24 calendar months.

END

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