Part 1: Machine Design Elements-Test 1

1. Device used to measure accurately speed: Answer : C

A. Speedometer
B. Dial indicator
C. Tachometer
D. Dial gauge

2. When the hole is smaller than the shaft, it will take pressure to put the parts the parts together.
The allowance is said to be negative and is termed: Answer D
A. Negative tolerance
B. Negative allowance
C. Negative fits
D. Interference of metal

3. When two elastic bodies collide, which following laws can be used to solve for the resulting
velocity? Answer: D
A. Dalton’s law
B. Avogadro
C. Conservation of energy
D. Conservation of momentum and conservation of energy

4. The ability of a metal to be deformed considerably without rupture is called: Answer: A

A. Plasticity
B. All of these
C. Ductility
D. Malleability.

5. Permanent deformation or strain may occur without fracture: Answer: C

A. Malleability
B. Elasticity
C. Ductility
D. Plasticity

6. It is a science of motion that can be solved in terms of scalar or vector algebra: Answer: A
A. Kinematics
B. Curvilinear translation
C. Projectiles
D. Acceleration

7. A system force in space is in equilibrium. If equal and opposite collinear forces are added,
which of the following if any is true? Answer: B
A. Equilibrium is destroyed
B. Equilibrium is maintained
C. None of these is true
D. An unbalanced of moment exist
8. Metal that assists lubrication or lubricant in itself: Answer: C
A. Zinc
B. Antimony
C. Babbitt
D. Lead

9. A mechanism which usually do the indexing in a machine tool: Answer: C

A. Universal chuck
B. Slotter
C. Dividing head
D. Indexing

10. It equalizes the energy exerted and the work done thus preventing excessive or sudden changes
of speed: Answer: C
A. Flywheel
B. Balance of wheel
C. All of these
D. Flywheel pulley

11. The smallest are at the point of rupture of a tensile specimen divided by the original area is
called: Answer: D
A. Percentage elongation
B. Izod test
C. Charpy test
D. Percentage reduction of area

12. The product of the resultant of all forces acting on a body and the time that the resultant acts:
Answer: C
A. Angular impulse
B. Angular momentum
C. Linear impulse
D. Linear momentum

13. Which of the following is not a structural class of steel? Answer: B

A. Low carbon steel
B. Tool and die steel
C. High chrome alloy steel
D. High strength low alloy steel

14. Poison’s ratio is the ratio of: Answer: C

A. Shear strain to compressive strain
B. Elastic limit to compressive strain
C. Lateral strain to longitudinal strain
D. Elastic limit to proportional limit

15. All are associated with the grade of steel except: Answer: D
A. SAE 43XX
B. SAE 13XX
C. SAE 10XX
D. SAE 74XX
16. A property of material which relates the lateral strain to the longitudinal strain: Answer: C
A. Stress
B. Strain
C. Poison’s ratio
D. Strength

17. The maximum stress to which a material may be subjected before failure occurs: Answer: B
A. Ultimate strength
B. Ultimate stress
C. Endurance limit
D. Tensile stress

18. Hypoid gear is a special type of gear like: Answer: D

A. Worm gear
B. Spur gear
C. Herringbone gear
D. Bevel gear

19. Considered a maximum safe center distance of sprockets should be ___ pitches. Very long
center distance cause catenary tension in the chain. Answer: B
A. 70
B. 80
C. 60
D. 50

20. Cold working of steel plates make the metal: Answer: C

A. Tougher
B. More ductile
C. Harder
D. More malleable

21. Recommended best cutting angle of drill for work on steel or cast iron is ___ degrees.
A. 48
B. 63
C. 59
D. 50

22. In shear pin or breaking pin design, we may use the data experienced by the link belt from 1/8
inch to 1 inch pins and the stress is ___ ksi. Answer: C
A. 40
B. 55
C. 50
D. 48

23. Deals only with the motion of bodies without reference to the forces that cause them:
Answer: D
A. Dynamics
B. Kinematics
C. Static
D. Kinematics
24. The property that characterizes a material ability to be drawn into wire: Answer: A
A. Ductility
B. Thermal conductivity
C. Tensile strength
D. Endurance limit

25. One of the causes of spur gear tooth breakage is the unbalanced load on one end of the tooth
that results in higher stresses than when the load is evenly distributed. To minimize this
problem, the face width “b” should not be greater than the thickness (or pitch ) of the tooth. In
the absence of test values, the following can be a guide: Answer: A
A. 2.5 Pc < b < 4 Pc
B. 2.0 Pd < b < 4 Pd
C. 2.5 Pd < b < 4Pd
D. 2.0 Pc < b < 4 Pc

26. The three moment of equation may be used to analyze: Answer: B

A. Tapered column
B. Continuous beam
C. Composite beam
D. Axially end loaded beam

27. What is the common shop practice to prevent solder from running away from surface to be
joined? Answer: A
A. All of these
B. Surrounded the work with clay
C. Introduced around the work rolled wet cloth
D. Put asbestos sheeting around the work

28. Non- ferrous filler metal is melted into roves or as fillet on the mother metal; the base metal is
not melted. This is commonly used for joining iron based machine parts or in repair works of
some materials. It is called: Answer: B
A. Spot welding
B. Braze welding
C. Brazing
D. Gas welding

29. It is advised that in rubber belts application/mounting, it should have an initial tension of ___
inch/ply. Answer: B
A. 18 to 24
B. 15 to 20
C. 12 to 15
D. 10

30. Normal stress relieving temperature for cast steel: Answer: D

A. 200 to 350o F
B. 400 to 500oF
C. 300 to 400oF
D. 450 to 550oF
31. Most effective alloying element for reducing brittleness of steel at very low temperature:
Answer: D
A. Manganese
B. Molybdenum
C. Silicon
D. Nickel

32. Statement that a given body is in static equilibrium means that the body cannot: Answer: A
A. Have any type motion
B. Be acted upon by more than one force
C. Undergo any displacement
D. Have any acceleration

33. Ordinary steel begin to lose strength and elasticity significantly at about ___ oF. Answer: D
A. 900 - 1000oF
B. 800 - 900oF
C. 750 - 850oF
D. 600 - 700oF

34. Clearance to a new boiler installation to the existing or old plant building should follow a
minimum clearance of ____ between top of the boiler proper and the ceiling as stated in the
PSME code. Answer: C
A. 2000 mm (max)
B. 1000 mm (max)
C. 2130 mm (max)
D. 2150 mm (max)

35. For a high corrosion resistant stainless steel, what minimum chromium content is required?
Answer: A
A. 8%
B. 4.3%
C. 1.1%
D. 5.8%

36. Name the type of chuck commonly used for holding work piece in a lathe operation? Example.
3-jaw universal chuck, 4-jaw independent chuck. Answer: D
A. Magnetic chuck
B. 2-jaw independent chuck
C. 8-jaw universal
D. Combination

37. V- belts operate efficiently at about speed (fpm): Answer: A

A. 4500
B. 4400
C. 4200
D. 3600
38. What type of gear is used for high speed operation? Answer: A
A. Helical
B. Spur
C. Bevel
D. Worm

39. In a pair of gears, ____ is the plane perpendicular to the axial plane and tangent to the pitch
surface. Answer: A
A. Pitch
B. pitch plane
C. pitch circle
D. pitch point

40. The phenomenon of continuous stretches under load even if the stress is less than the yield
point: Answer: D
A. Elasticity
B. Ductility
C. Plasticity
D. Creep

41. A machinery operation whereby done with the work accurately fastened has a reciprocating
(forward and backward) motion and the tool head is stationary. Answer: B
A. Shaping
B. planning
C. turning
D. reaming

42. The following pertain to joining of metals except: Answer: C

A. Welding
B. soldering
C. casting
D. brazing

43. Killed steel is always associated with: Answer: A

A. Silicon
B. Manganese
C. Phosphorous
D. Sulfur

44. The usual ratio of water to soluble oil as cutting fluid: Answer: D
A. 50% of water to 50% of oil
B. 2 water to 1 oil
C. 3 water to 1 oil
D. 4 to 80 water to 1 oil

45. The good deoxidizer in steel melting: Answer: C

A. Manganese
B. Silicon
C. All of these
D. Aluminum
46. Good stabilizer in stainless steel. Answer: C
A. Columbium
B. titanium
C. all of these
D. tantalum

47. What are the common cutting fluids used for cutting metals? Answer: A
A. all of these
B. water with soda or borax
C. light mineral oil
D. soluble oil

48. It is considered semi-solid lubricant: Answer: D

A. all of these
B. lube oil
C. graphite
D. grease

49. Metals are conductive because: Answer: A

A. the electrons are loosely bound to the nuclei and therefore mobile
B. having a characteristics metallic luster
C. they are on the left side for the periodic table
D. they have extra electrons as exhibited by normally possible balance slate

50. The yield strength of a regular yellow brass (65 to 75% Cu, 30 to 35% Zn) can be
increased/improved by: Answer: A
A. cold working
B. tempering
C. chill casting
D. heat treatment

51. Used in as cast condition steel casting with carbon content less than _____ % C. Answer: C
A. 0.26
B. 0.15 to 0.18
C. 0.20
D. 0.25

52. Liners normally made of: Answer: A

A. cast iron
B. alloyed bronze
C. alloyed steel
D. alloyed aluminium

53. Endurance strength is nearly proportional to the ultimate strength but not with ____. Answer: A
A. yield strength
B. design stress
C. shear stress
D. all of the above
54. A furnace in melting non-ferrous metals. Answer: B
A. Cupola furnace
B. Crucible furnace
C. Induction furnace
D. Tempering furnace

55. A furnace used in melting ferrous metals: Answer: C

A. Annealing furnace
B. Tempering furnace
C. Induction furnace
D. Normalizing furnace

56. In the gear design, total work must be equally shared by arms. Rim must be rigid to support
these arms and also the bead is recommended for its stiffening value. The assumption in the
detailed design of rim thickness and depth of bead is ____ circular pitch (PC). Answer: C
A. 0.65
B. 0.50
C. 0.56
D. 0.44

57. Tooth width measured along the chord at pitch circle: Answer: D
A. Flank
B. Face width
C. Width of space
D. Chordal thickness

58. The best instrument for measuring a thousand of an inch: Answer: A

A. micrometer
B. tachometer
C. caliper
D. pyrometer

59. All are associated with standard material specification except: Answer: C
A. American iron and Steel institute
B. Society of Automotive Engineers
C. Southeast Asia iron and Steel institute
D. American Society for Testing Materials

60. Machine tool used for laying straight lines on metal surfaces made of sharp toot steel is called:
Answer: A
A. plain scriber
B. a trammel
C. hermaphrodite caliper
D. divider
61. It is the difference of addendum and dedendum which is equivalent to the whole depth less
working depth. Answer: C
A. fillet space
B. fillet radius
C. clearance
D. backlash

62. A lathe machine threading mechanism: Answer: C

A. reverse gear and lever
B. spindle gear
C. all of these
D. change stud gear
63. Separate forces which can be so combined are called: Answer: D
A. non-concurrent forces
B. couple
C. combined forces
D. component forces

64. That property of matter which causes it to resist any change in its motion or state of rest:
Answer: C
A. brake
B. friction
C. inertia
D. impulse

65. Negative allowance is also called: Answer: A

A. interference of metal
B. fit
C. tolerance
D. allowance

66. Which of the following is not used to resemble the shape of tool bit? Answer: A
A. round nose
B. center cut
C. square nose
D. thread cutting

67. A kind of thread in which the width of the thread is approximately equal to the depth of the
thread and the space between threads are approximately equal. Answer: A
A. square thread
B. Acme thread
C. buttress thread
D. Whitworth thread

68. For moderate speed of mating gears, the ideal ratio of contact is: Answer: A
A. 1.25 - 4
B. 1.2 - 1.45
C. 1.0 - 1.3
D. 1.35 - 1.45
69. Ratio of unit lateral longitudinal deformation to unit longitudinal deformation: Answer: A
A. Poisson's ratio
B. strain
C. elongation
D. Modulus of Elasticity

70. A lathe with multiple cutting stations: Answer: A

A. Turret lathe
B. lathe
C. shaper
D. none of the above

71. Nominal diameter of bolts is the: Answer: A

A. major diameter
B. minor diameter
C. pitch diameter
D. base diameter

72. Major and minor diameters are commonly used in: Answer: A
A. screw thread
B. bolts
C. gear
D. all of these

73. The distance a helical gear or worm thread along its axis in one revolution if it were free to
move axially is called: Answer: D
A. length of action
B. line of action
C. land
D. lead

74. Length of contact between two mating parts in a screw and nut threads measured axially is
called: Answer: C
A. arc of contact
B. depth of engagement
C. length of engagement
D. axis of contact

75. It the velocity of a mass is small all the time during which motion takes place is called:
Answer: B
A. deceleration
B. uniform motion
C. acceleration
D. none of these

76. The property of material that relates the lateral strain to longitudinal strain: Answer: C
A. stress
B. strain
C. Poisson's ratio
D. endurance limit
77. Also called eccentrically loaded bearing is: Answer: B
A. full bearings
B. offset bearings
C. partial bearing
D. fitted bearings

78. In the selection of wire rope, regular lay means wires and strands are arranged in the following
manner. Answer: C
A. twisted in the same direction
B. twisted in any direction
C. twisted in opposite direction
D. twisted in along direction
79. In involute teeth, the pressure angle is often defined as the angle between the line of action and
the line of tangent to the pitch circle. It is also termed as: Answer: C
A. helix angle
B. angle of recess
C. angle of obliquity
D. arc of action

80. Height of tooth above pitch circle or the radial distance between pitch circle and top land of the
tooth. Answer: B
A. top root
B. addendum
C. land
D. hunting tooth

81. The function of clutch in the machine is: Answer: C

A. lowering of drive speed
B. alignment of drive shaft
C. to disconnect or connect the drive at will
D. to insure that two shafts line up at high speed

82. It is normally recommended and normal for a designer to add a hunting tooth to evenly
distribute the wear on meshing teeth like a 53 teeth gears with 30 teeth pinion. Find the rotation
of pinion to mesh with same pair of teeth again. Answer: D
A. 120
B. 81
C. 61
D. 53

83. The angle made by the helix of the thread (in a straight thread) at the pitch diameter with a
plane perpendicular to the axis is called: Answer: A
A. lead angle
B. truncation
C. lead
D. angle of thread
84. The rule of thumb in journal bearing the clearance ratio/clearance should be: Answer: C
A. 0.0090
B. 0.0042
C. 0.0010
D. 0.00120

85. The moment of inertia of a rectangle whose base is "b" and height "h" about its base is:
Answer: D
A. bh3/4
B. bh3/12
C. bh3/24
D. bh3/3

86. Cold rolled shafting is not available in diameter larger than ____. Answer: B
A. 6 inches
B. 5 inches
C. 6 1/2 inches
D. 5 1/2 inches

87. The cast iron flywheels designed with a factor of safety of ____. Answer: B
A. 14 to 15
B. 10 to l3
C. 8 to 9
D. 6 to 12

88. A pair of equal and opposite (not collinear) forces that tend to cause a rotation of a body.
Answer: A
A. couple
B. centroid
C. equilibrium
D. vector

89. The ratio of the pitch diameter in inches to the number of teeth. Answer: B
A. pitch circle
B. English module
C. module
D. pitch diameter

90. When the motion is diminished/decreasing instead of increasing is called: Answer: C

A. deceleration
B. uniform negative impulse
C. retarded motion
D. all of these

91. ____ is a unit of energy? Answer: A

A. ft-lb
B. hp
C. Btu/hr
D. Watt
92. When high strength and durability are a requirements for choosing gear materials it is preferable
to use ____ material. Answer: B
A. hardened bronze
B. steel
C. phenolic laminated
D. white iron

93. _____ forces when action are parallel. Answer: D

A. couple
B. non collinear
C. resultant
D. non concurrent

94. The product of the mass and the velocity of the center ol gravity of the body is called:
Answer: A
A. linear momentum
B. angular impulse
C. linear impulse
D. angular momentum

95. The distance between similar, equally spaced tooth surfaces in a given direction and along a
given line. Answer: C
A. pitch circle
B. pitch plane
C. pitch
D. pitch diameter

96. Could be defines as simply push or pull. Answer: D

A. power
B. inertia
C. work
D. force

97. Opposite directional forces equal in magnitude and parallel is called____. Answer: C
A. non coplanar
B. centro
C. couple
D. coplanar

98. Quantities such as time, volume and density are completely specified when their magnitude is
known are also called _____. Answer: D
A. couple
B. resultants
C. components
D. scalar

99. Designed 200 kw plant must be at least Answer: A

A. PME
B. CPM
C. ME and PME
D. none of these
100. The separate forces which can be so combined are called. Answer: D
A. concurrent forces
B. non concurrent forces
C. couple
D. component forces

101. The most known lubricants being utilizes in whatever category of load and speed are oil, air,
grease and dry lubricants like: Answer: D
A. bronze
B. lead
C. silicon
D. graphite

102. A coupling that allows axial flexibility movement in the operation. Made of alternate bolting of
steel, leather, fabric, and / or plastic material into two flanges. Answer: A
A. flexible disk coupling
B. flexible toroidal spring coupling
C. flexible Oldham coupling
D. elastic material bonded coupling

103. It consists of two cranks, a stationary piece called the line of centers the connecting rod is a:
Answer: D
A. five-bar linkage
B. four crank braces
C. three crank linkage
D. four bar linkage

104. Used to change rotary motion to reciprocating motion. Answer: A

A. rack gears
B. hypoid gears
C. helical gears
D. herringbone gears

105. The effective face width of a helical gear divided by gear axial pitch. Answer: A
A. Approach ratio
B. Arc of action
C. Arc of recess
D. Face overlap

106. Pitch diameter less the diameter of the roller chain is equal to: Answer: B
A. top land
B. bottom diameter
C. addendum
D. inside diameter

107. Generally applied due to large speed ratio. Answer: C

A. bevel gears
B. helical gears
C. worm gears
D. hypoid gears
108. If the shaft size is specified as diameter 2.00" max and 1.99" min in diameter then the 0.0l0"
could be defined as _____. Answer: D
A. allowance
B. fit
C. variance
D. tolerance

109. A material plane was subjected to a load. When the load was removed, the strain disappeared.
From the structural change, which of the following can be considered about this material?
Answer: D
A. it has high modulus of elasticity
B. it does not follow Hooke's law
C. it is plastic
D. it is elastic

110. Helix angle in the range of ____ degrees is recommended for wide-face helical gears.
Answer: A
A. less than 15
B. less than 20
C. 20 to 35
D. 20 to 22

111. Difference between maximum material limits of mating parts. Or it is a minimum clearance or
maximum interference between parts. Answer: D
A. tolerance
B. fits
C. variance
D. allowance

112. The concave portion of the tooth profile where it joins the bottom of the tooth. Answer: C
A. root circle
B. fillet radius
C. fillet curves
D. fillet

113. The changes in shape or geometry of the body due to action of a force on it are called
deformation or ______. Answer: D
A. shear stress
B. stresses
C. compressive stress
D. strains

114. For an evenly and uniform wear on each meshing gear tooth, the ideal design practice is to
consider a _____. Answer: D
A. wear resistance alloy addition to tooth gears
B. heat treatment of the gears
C. hardening of each tooth
D. hunting tooth addition
115. The reciprocal of a diameter pitch of the ratio of the pitch diameter to the no. of teeth.
Answer: B
A. lead
B. module
C. involute
D. clearance

116. Ability to resist deformation under stress. Answer: C

A. plasticity
B. all of these
C. stiffness
D. toughness

117. Flat leather belting not recommended for used in a speed in excess of ____ fpm. Answer: C
A. 3600
B. 4800
C. 6000
D. all of these

118. The angle included between the sides of the thread measured in an axial plane in a screw thread.
Answer: A
A. Angle of thread
B. Angle between thread or 40o
C. Helix angle thread
D. Half angle thread or 20o

119. An elastic body whose primary functions is to deflect under load: Answer: D
A. clutch
B. stopper
C. brake
D. spring

120. Poisson's ratio is the ratio of: Answer: D

A. elastic limit to yield strength
B. lateral deformation to the longitudinal deformation
C. shear strain to unit strain
D. elastic limit shear strength

121. Manganese steel standard designation, SAE ____. Answer: A

A. 13XX
B. 10XX
C. 11XX
D. 8XXX

122. One of these materials is not a structural steel? Answer: B

A. low carbon steel
B. tool and die steel
C. stainless and steel
D. medium carbon steel
123. The ratio of moment of inertia on cross-section of a beam to this section modulus is:
Answer: A
A. a measure of distance a section modulus
B. equal to the radius of gyration and compression
C. multiplied by the bending moment of inertia to determine the yield stress
D. equal to the area of the cross-section and tension

124. The SAE 2340 shafting contains ____ % nickel. Answer: C

A. 3.85 Ni
B. 4% Ni
C. 3.25 to 3.75% Ni
D. 3.84% Ni

125. Chromium steel standard designation, SAE ____. Answer: B

A. 92XX
B. 5XXX
C. 3XXX
D. 11XX

126. Alloy that improves strength of steel at high temperature application. Answer: D
A. aluminum
B. manganese
C. silicon
D. chromium

127. When the air entrainment agent is put into a concrete mix: Answer: B
A. the water/cement ratio must be reduced
B. the strength will decrease
C. minimal defect
D. the strength will suffer up to 50%

128. In general, an alloy with high nickel content retains toughness to quite low temperatures up to
____ oF. Answer: D
A. -380
B. 400
C. -260
D. -320

129. The differential of the shear equation is the ____. Answer: D

A. deflection of the of the beam
B. compressive strength of the beam
C. tensile strength of the beam
D. load on the beam

130. It is recommended not to have direct drive between driven and drive sprockets if the ratio of
their teeth exceeds Use 2 or more step combinations. Answer: A
A. 10 times
B. 8 times
C. 5 times
D. 6 times
131. The length of the hub should not be made lesser than the face width of the gear. Hub lengths
usually vary from 1.25 D to 2D, where D is the shaft diameter. The reasonable diameter of steel
hub should be: Answer: B
A. 2D
B. 1.8D
C. 1.55D
D. 1.20D

132. The sum of their addendum and dedendum. Answer: A

A. whole depth
B. full depth
C. width of space
D. working depth

133. It is recommended for high speed application that the minimum number of teeth in small
sprockets should be _____. Answer: D
A. 26 to 30
B. 12 to 16
C. 26 to 28
D. 18 to 24

134. Stresses that are independent of loads are called _____. Answer: B
A. working stress
B. residual stresses
C. simple stress
D. combined stress

135. Material having a high electrical resistance and should not be used as conductor of electrical
current. Answer: A
A. nickel
B. aluminum oxide
C. silicon base alloys
D. iron oxide

136. The best materials for brake drums is: Answer: B

A. aluminum
B. cast iron
C. steel material
D. wrought iron

137. The alloy materials used in the production of metal working tools. Answer: D
A. titanium, phosphorous
B. tungsten, silicon, hadfield mn.
C. vanadium, chromium, molybdenum
D. high carbon steel
138. Torsional deflection is a significant consideration in the design of shaft and the limit should be
in the range of _____ degree/foot of length. Answer: C
A. 0.4 to l
B. 0.1 to 1
C. 0.08 to 1
D. 0.6 to 1

139. If the pitch of a screw is 2/9 find the thread per inch. Answer: B
A. 0.34
B. 4.5
C. 5.4
D. 17

140. The property that characterizes a materials ability to be drawn into a wire: Answer: B
A. tensile strength
B. ductility
C. endurance limit
D. thermal conductivity

141. Which of the phases of steel elements has a face-centered cubic structure? Answer: B
A. pyrite
B. austenite
C. all of these
D. cementite

142. Steel spring material is usually hardened to 400 to 500 BHN and the carbon content is in the
range of _____. Answer: A
A. 0.50 to 0.90%
B. all of these
C. 0.45 to 0.48
D. 0.96 to 0.97

143. Principal stresses occur on this plane: Answer: B

A. which are subjected to ultimate tension
B. the shearing stress is zero
C. which are subjected to maximum compression
D. which are 45'apart

144. The property of material wherein the content is continuously distributed through its entire mass.
Answer: C
A. plasticity
B. malleability
C. homogeneity
D. all of these

145. The properties of metals to withstand load without breaking down is: Answer: B
A. elasticity
B. strength
C. plasticity
D. strain
146. Shafts readily available in the market are made in many ways and wide variety of material
composition. It is likely be cold drawn carbon steel in size smaller than ____ inches diameter.
Answer: A
A. 3.75
B. 4
C. 5
D. 5 ½

147. Plain carbon steel standard designation, SAE _____. Answer: C

A. 6XXX
B. 13XX
C. 10XX
D. 2XXX

148. The rigidity of polymer can be increased by: Answer: C

A. furnace melting
B. normalizing
C. crystallization
D. shot peening

149. The difference between cast steel and cast iron. Answer: C
A. all of these
B. cast steel has usually less than 1% C while cast iron has 2 % or 3.6 % carbon range
C. cast iron has lower strength more brittle and has lower ductility than cast steel
D. iron is usually the initial product alter purifying iron ore then further processing by
removal of more impurities and carbon content to be able to produce steel grade.

150. It is a general practice to use the following allowable stresses, 4000 psi for main transmitting
shaft and 8500 psi for small shafts short shafts and countershafts. For line shaft carrying pulley
it is ____ psi. Answer: C
A. 7800
B. 7000
C. 6000
D. 6500

151. Drilling machine cannot do: Answer: C

A. reaming
B. spot lacing
C. tapping
D. broaching

152. Material changes in foundry melting operation are composed of: Answer: A
A. limestone, foundry coke and silica sand
B. iron ore, quartz and charcoal
C. steel scrap, alloys and charcoal/foundry coke
D. scrap wood, alloys and limestone
153. _____ is a work supporting device which is bolted to the saddle of the lathe machine. lt travels
with the cutting tool. lt is a prevention of the springing away of the workpeice from cutting
tools. Answer: D
A. rubber-flex collets
B. tool post
C. follower rest
D. carriage stop

154. Almost always the soldering materials are a combination of the following alloys: Answer: B
A. all of these
B. lead and tin
C. tin and antimony
D. lead and antimony

155. The most popular of all soldering materials in use has composition of : Answer: B
A. 45/55% tin and lead
B. 50/50% tin and lead
C. all of these
D. 60/40% tin and lead

156. The relative strength of a butt welding could be safely assumes as _____ % efficiency.
Answer: C
A. 95
B. 98
C. 90
D. 92

157. Which of the following raw materials are used in the foundry moulding operation? Answer: A
A. silica sand, bentonite, flour/paste water
B. silica sand and paste
C. silica sand, paste, graphite electrode
D. silica sand, linseed oil, flour

158. The following are parts of a micrometer caliper except for: Answer: B
A. thimble
B. thread screw
C. spindle
D. anvil

159. To avoid brittleness of weld or the residual stress in the welding it is normally sires relieved of
____. Answer: B
A. normalizing
B. tempering
C. flame hardening
D. annealing
160. Steel with certain % carbon maximum can readily by welded by all process and the resulting
strength of the portion welded is as strong as the base material. Answer: D
A. 0.15% C max
B. 0.35% C max
C. 0.25% C max
D. 0.30% C max

161. Commonly used steel melter as deoxidizer because of its easy availability and cheap price.
Answer: B
A. silicon
B. aluminum
C. zinc
D. manganese

162. Curved formed by the path of a point on a straight line as it rolls along a convex base curve. The
base curve is usually a circle and generally used as the profile of gear tooth. Answer: B
A. axial plane
B. involute
C. arc of recess
D. arc of action

163. Several forces which can be combined are called: Answer: C

A. resultants
B. composition of forces
C. components
D. collinear force

164. Ideal herringbone gear helix is in the range of _____. Answer: A

A. 30 to 45
B. 35 to 50
C. 25 to 30
D. 15 to 20

165. The distance from a point on a screw thread to a corresponding point on the next thread to a
corresponding point on the next thread measure along axis. Answer: D
A. flank
B. lead
C. crest
D. pitch

166. As recommended the center to center distance between sprockets should not be less than _____
times the bigger sprocket. Answer: C
A. 2.26
B. 1 ¾
C. 1 ½
D. 2.59
167. Machine shop instrument for checking the flatness of plane surfaces to 10ths to thousands of a
centimeter. Answer: C
A. blade type micrometer
B. dial caliper
C. planimeter
D. micrometer

168. Tools usually used in wood pattern making a foundry shop. Answer: A
A. saws and chisels
B. band saw
C. knives and drills
D. drills machine

169. Recommended design practice for steel line shafting to limit the linear deflection to inch/foot of
length (maximum). Answer: B
A. 0.020
B. 0.010
C. 0.012
D. 0.150

170. Big chain sprocket wheels are designed with spokes/arms are generally elliptical in cross
section with major axis ______ times the minor axis. Answer: A
A. 2
B. 2 ½
C. 1 ½
D. 3

171. Molybdenum steel standard designation SAE _____. Answer: C

A. 88xx
B. 48xx
C. 40xx
D. 46xx

172. For acceptance ideal range of tightness which may result from application of specific
combination of allowance and tolerances. Answer: D
A. allowance limit
B. tolerance limit
C. interference
D. fit

173. A radian is equal to _____. Answer: C

A. 57.020o
B. 57.706 o
C. 57.296 o
D. 57.190 o
174. The absolute viscosity of the fluid divided by its density expressed in the same terms of units is
also called _____. Answer: B
A. centistokes
B. kinematic viscosity
C. Petroff’s equation
D. light petroleum oil

175. Improves red hardness of steel: Answer: C

A. silicon
B. lead
C. cobalt
D. manganese

176. It is required that pipes bigger than _____ mm should not be screwed but flanged. Answer: B
A. 76.2
B. 63.5
C. 2 ¼ inch
D. 68.5
177. Formed by the interaction of the adjacent flanks of adjacent threads when extended is called.
Answer: D
A. crest apex
B. all of these
C. sharp root
D. sharp crest

178. In designing the spoke or wheel arm if the flywheel, it is ideal to consider that the cross-
sectional area of the spoke at the rim side should not be less than _____ of the cross area at the
hub side. Answer: B
A. 80 %
B. 2/3
C. 90 %
D. 3/8

179. The cutting up to 70o is best for drilling extremely hard metals and for soft materials ______
degrees may be applied. Answer: C
A. 60
B. 45
C. 40
D. 48

180. Single forces which produces the same effect upon mass replacing two or more forces acting
together is called: Answer: B
A. vector
B. resultant
C. component
D. resolution
181. _____ is the process necessary to reduce the brittleness in alloy steel. Answer: D
A. martempering
B. carburizing
C. normalizing
D. tempering

182. The welded joints permit placing the added metal exactly where needed and produce an integral
structure which can develop _____ % efficiency on any thickness section especially for mild
steel materials. Answer: C
A. 95 %
B. 85 %
C. 100 %
D. 90 %

183. The lack of backlash in a spur gear design/operation may result to _____. Answer: A
A. overloading
B. jamming
C. all of these
D. overheating

184. _____ forces means when their lines of action can be extended to meet to one point. Answer: A
A. concurrent
B. centroids
C. collinear
D. resultants

185. Imaginary formed by the intersection of the flanks of a thread extended is called _____.
Answer: A
A. sharp
B. sharp root
C. root apex
D. all of these

186. Permissible variation of the manufactured or machined dimensions is called: Answer: D

A. intolerance fits
B. deviation
C. allowable
D. tolerance

187. Molybdenum-chromium-nickel steel designation: Answer: B

A. SAE 48xx
B. SAE 43xx
C. SAE 56xx
D. SAE 46xx

188. _____ is also called strain hardening. Answer: A

A. work hardening
B. quenching
C. annealing
D. normalizing
189. A major alloy in tool steel. Answer: A
A. Cr
B. FeN
C. Cobalt
D. Mn

190. Distance measured perpendicular to the axis between the crest of the thread and the root of its
mating thread in a thread assembly of screws. Answer: C
A. tolerance class
B. crest truncation
C. crest clearance
D. tolerance limit

191. Bearing surface that completely surrounds the journal is also called _____. Answer: B
A. offset bearing
B. full bearing
C. centrally loaded bearing
D. babbitt learning

192. The width of a tooth space exceeds the thickness of each of the engaging tooth on the pitch
circle _____. Answer: D
A. allowance
B. bottom land
C. top land
D. backlash

193. _____ addition imparts resistance to atmospheric corrosion in steel. etc. Answer: C
A. aluminum
B. manganese
C. copper
D. bronze

194. Should two equal and opposite collinear forces is added to the forces already in equilibrium,
which of the following statement is true. Answer: C
A. Unbalanced of moment is maintained.
B. Equilibrium is distributed.
C. Equilibrium is maintained.
D. It increases an unbalanced situation.

195. Iron based alloy containing 9-16 % chromium. Answer: C

A. Mn hadfield steel
B. chrome-alloy steel
C. stainless steel
D. high chrome steel

196. A rule of thumb, the speed limit of flywheel rim speed should be 6000 fpm for cast iron
material and for cast steel flywheel rim at _____ meter/min. Answer: A
A. 3050
B. 4500
C. 7000
D. 10000
197. The distance between rivet centers nearest each other is adjacent rows is called _____.
Answer: A
A. pitch
B. back pitch
C. margin
D. diagonal pitch

198. The purpose of lubrication is mentioned, EXCEPT: Answer: C

A. to lighten the load
B. prevent corrosion/adhesion
C. prevent adhesion
D. cool the moving parts

199. The process of peening the joint portion immediately after the welding greatly improves the
fusion structures, avoids possible cracking, avoids possible distortion, etc. Peening is also called
____ process at the same time. Answer: D
A. tempering
B. martempering
C. normalizing
D. annealing

200. Resultant of two or more component forces is called _____. Answer: B

A. component forces
B. resultant
C. component
D. collinear

201. For stable equipment foundation, the total combined engine, driven equipment and foundation
center of gravity must be kept below the foundations top that usually about ____ times the usual
total combined weight if the machine it is supposed to support. Answer: D
A. 3 to 4
B. 3 to 7
C. 2 to 4
D. 3 to 5

202. All associated with standard materials specification, EXCEPT: Answer: B

A. American Iron and Steel Institute
B. South East Asia and Steel Institute
C. Society of Automotive Engineers
D. American Society for Testing Materials

203. It is ideal for maximum quietness in sprocket drive operation to choose ____ or more teeth.
Answer: C
A. 24
B. 18
C. 27
D. 21
204. Shafting up to 3 inches in diameter is usually made from cold rolled steel and the common
biggest diameter of cold rolled steel is _____. Answer: D
A. 4 ¼ inches
B. 6 7/8 inches
C. 6 ¾ inches
D. 5 inches

205. Designated pipe color used in communication: Answer: D

A. silver gray
B. aluminum
C. bare
D. white

206. Not part and in fact should not be used in the steel melting process. Answer: A
A. coke
B. silicon
C. zinc
D. aluminum

207. It is rigid piece which serves to transmit force from a piece to another piece or to cause/control
motion. Answer: D
A. follower
B. crank
C. cam
D. link
208. Type of bolt commonly used in the construction in both ends. Answer: A
A. stud bolt
B. acme thread
C. hex bolt
D. square threaded bolts

209. The normal helix angles in helical gears are recommended in the range of _____ degrees.
Answer: C
A. less than 18
B. 20 to 35
C. 15 to 25
D. 20 to 30

210. The ratio of stress acting on an elastic substance to the decrease in volume per unit volume.
Answer: A
A. Bulk modulus
B. Modulus of resilience
C. elastic limit
D. modulus of elasticity

211. Rule of thumb in calculating the equipment foundation mass should be ____ times the weight
of the machinery it is supposed to support. Answer: A
A. 3-5
B. 3-6
C. 3-9
D. 2-4
212. The welding made along the edges of two parallel plates is called _____. Answer: C
A. groove joint
B. fillet joint
C. edge joint
D. corner joint

213. Class of material exhibiting decreased electrical conductivity with increasing temperature.
Answer: C
A. aluminum
B. p-type semiconductors
C. metals
D. n-type semiconductors
214. Cast iron flywheels are commonly designed with a factor of safety of: Answer: A
A. 10 to 13
B. 10 to 12
C. 10 to 14
D. 80 to 13
215. Stress relieving is also _____ for the purpose of reducing the internal stresses of steel
material/metal. Answer: B
A. tempering
B. normalizing
C. all of these
D. annealing

216. A ridge of uniform section in the form of a helix cut around the circumference of a cylinder and
advancing along the axis. Answer: C
A. thread roots
B. helix threads
C. screw threads
D. chamfers

217. Martensite (stainless steel) contains 4 to 26 % Cr and a maximum of _____ % nickel.

Answer: A
A. 2.5
B. 3.25
C. 3.5
D. 2.0

218. The design stress and factor of safety are related in the following manner: Answer: A
A. design stress = ultimate stress/factor of safety
B. ultimate stress = factor of safety/design
C. design stress = factor of safety/times stress
D. none of these

219. The material that can cut/wear substances subjected to: Answer: B
A. carbide
B. abrasive
C. tungsten
D. vanadium
220. A resulting factor that replace two or more forces acting together. Answer: C
A. vector
B. couple
C. resultant
D. equilibrant

221. Peculiar strength of the metal to resist being crushed. Answer: C

A. shear strength
B. ultimate strength
C. compressive strength
D. elastic limit

222. Which of the following is not a viscoelastic material? Answer: D

A. teflon
B. plastic
C. all of these
D. metal

223. Method of finishing/shaping a machine part of exceptionally high carbon or high chromium
steel parts (or very hand material). Answer: D
A. using oxygen lancing
B. machining using carbide insert
C. using abrasive grinding
D. machining high speed tool steel

224. In a certain chain drive design for large speed reduction it is preferable to use a double
reduction or compound type of transmission instead of single two sprockets transmission.
Drives should be so designed that the angle between two tight chain strands does not exceed
______ degrees. Answer: A
A. 45
B. 60
C. 55
D. 90

225. Steel springs are made of high carbon steel, heat treated and/or cold work to a high elastic limit
to get elastic deflection. In general the carbon content is at ______. Answer: C
A. 0.40 % or more
B. 0.65 % or more
C. 0.50 % or more
D. 0.66 % or more

226. The surface along the fillet curves or between the fillets radius of the two adjacent tooth gears.
Answer: A
A. bottom land
B. flank
C. fillet
D. top land
227. Not acceptable to welding due to low tensile strength and poor ductility, etc. Answer: C
A. copper parts
B. cast iron materials
C. aluminum parts
D. bronze parts

228. Plus or minus tolerance can also be called as _____. Answer: C

A. total tolerance
B. unilateral tolerance
C. bilateral tolerance
D. allowance

229. The total machinery weight plus the foundation weight should be well distributed in the
corresponding soil area which enough to cause a bearing stress within the safe bearing capacity
of the soil with a factor of safety of ______. Answer: D
A. 4.5
B. 3
C. 4.2
D. 5.0

230. ______ is the plane perpendicular to the axial plane and to the pitch plane. In gears the parallel
axes, and the plane of rotation coincide. Answer: C
A. tangent plane
B. straight plane
C. transverse
D. reference

231. The conical surface at the starting end of the thread is called ______. Answer: B
A. Pitch cone
B. chamfer
C. crest
D. flute

232. It is a good design practice for steel lineshafting to consider a limit to the linear deflection of
______ inch/foot length maximum. Answer: B
A. 0.050
B. 0.010
C. 0.020
D. 0.060

233. The five principal parts of a paper of a shaper are, the table, tool, slide, base, ram and _____.
Answer: A
A. column
B. vise
C. drive motor
D. apron
234. In designing gears for power transmission consider a efficiency of ______ as recommended.
Answer: D
A. 96 % or more
B. 89 % or more
C. 85 % or more
D. 98 % or more

235. Progressive change of position of a body is called: Answer: C

A. acceleration
B. momentum
C. motion
D. force

236. The ideal thickness of the cutter at the pitchline for cutting helical gears should be ______ of
the normal circular pitch. Answer: C
A. 3/8
B. ¾
C. ½
D. 5/1

237. In drilling soft materials use cutting angle as low as 40 degrees but for extremely hard material
up to ______ degrees is recommended. Answer: D
A. 80
B. 55
C. 75
D. 70

238. The surface of the gear between the fillets of adjacent teeth is called _______ . Answer: A
A. bottom land
B. flank
C. top land
D. flank tooth

239. An act of cutting out a piece of metal at a desired shape and size: Answer: B
A. broaching
B. blanking
C. slitting
D. drinking

240. A research agency handling assistance to all foundry, machine shop and metallurgical plant
operation. Answer: A
A. MIRDC
B. All of these
C. DOST
D. BOI
241. The soldering material in the range of ______ in steel readily responds to heat treatment.
Answer: C
A. 0.35 to 0.40 %C
B. 0.28 to 0.30 %C
C. 0.18 to 0.15 %C
D. 0.12 to 0.15 %C

242. Web is part of a drill and is usually thicker: Answer: B

A. beside the land
B. nearing the shank
C. close the flute
D. at the tip portion

243. It is a symbol that the work surface should be machined-finished and usually indicated in the
drawing and usually indicated in the drawing and placed on the line that represents the surface
to be machined. Answer: A
A. f
B. 15
C. 20
D. F.A.Q.

244. Safety features that must be placed and maintained at Machine, Blacksmith, Welding and
foundry Shops. Answer: C
A. walkaway guide
B. all of these
C. safety notices in markers/boards
D. safety goggles

245. Deflection of a beam is: Answer: C

A. proportional to the modulus of elasticity and moment of inertia
B. proportional to the load imposed and inversely to length squared
C. inversely proportional to the modulus of elasticity and moment of inertia
D. inversely proportional to the weight imposed times the length

246. The amount by which the dedendum in a given gear/pinion exceeds the addendum of its mating
pinion/gear. Also the radial distance between the top of tooth and the bottom of the mating tooth
space. Answer: C
A. tip relief
B. top land
C. clearance
D. space

247. Axially the top of a tooth and the bottom of the mating tooth space. Answer: A
A. keyseat
B. cotter pin seat
C. flute
D. set screw point
248. _____ indicates how many times a volume of material is heavier than an equal volume of
water. Answer: A
A. specific gravity
B. specific volume
C. specific weight
D. specific density

249. Commonly use /produced screws/bolts/nuts/ and for engineering applications is a series.
Answer: A
A. UNC
B. ANSI
C. withworth
D. UNF

250. Avoidance of vibration in equipment or machinery foundations, a mass of weight equal to

______ times the forces needed. Answer: A
A. 10 to 20
B. 8 to 15
C. 15 to 20
D. 8 to 10

251. ___________ is the name applied to reciprocating circular motion as that of a pendulum.
Answer: D
A. intermittent motion
B. reciprocating motion
C. momentum
D. oscillation

252. Nickel-chromium-molybdenum steel designation, SAE ______. Answer: C

A. SAE51xx
B. SAE74xx
C. SAE49xx
D. SAE64xx

253. Moment of inertia is also called: Answer: C

A. modulus of elasticity
B. weep strength
C. none of these
D. radius of gyration

254. It is hardening treating whereby a cast metal is being heated to very high temperature then
suddenly subjected to rapid cooling to improve hardenability or wear resistance is called:
Answer: D
A. annealing
B. normalizing
C. tempering
D. quenching
255. Surface connecting the crest and roots of the screw thread. Answer: D
A. lead angle
B. length of engagement
C. top land
D. flank

256. A good general purpose deoxidizer and promoted fine grain in steel: Answer: D
A. copper
B. magnesium
C. molybdenum
D. silicon

257. Treatment process that produces a residual compressive stress at the surface (which occupy
more volume) and residual tension on the inside that results in considerable increase in the
fatigue strength for members on torsional/bending. Answer: D
A. heavy oil quenching
B. partial quenching
C. quenching
D. shallow quenching

258. The flux that should be avoided in soldering electrical connection or commutator wires as it
tends to corrode the connections. Answer: D
A. sal ammoniac
B. zinc chloride
C. stearin
D. acid fluxes

259. The characteristics of tool steel to sustain shocks and major impacts is due to its: Answer: A
A. toughness
B. stiffness
C. ductility
D. machinability

260. Bevel gears subjected to corrosion and lightly loaded are usually made of _____. Answer: C
A. bronze
B. brass
C. all of these
D. duralumin

261. As a result of thumb the depth of foundation could be about 3.2 to ____ times the engine stroke.
Answer: A
A. 4.20
B. 4.0
C. 3.40
D. 3.80
262. The application of electrical current to the corrosion circuit to counter the corrosion reaction is
called: Answer: A
A. cathodic protection
B. sacrificial anodes method
C. chemical corrosion process
D. galvanic action

263. A major component of cast steel. Answer: B

A. silicon
B. iron
C. manganese
D. chromium

264. Normally cast iron contains 2 % carbon or more and silicon in the range of _____%. Answer: A
A. 1-3
B. 2-4
C. 2-3
D. 1-6

265. If a set of spur gears are made. Installed and lubricated properly, they normally may be
subjected to failures like: Answer: C
A. tooth palling
B. tooth spending
C. pitting
D. shearing
266. From experience specify the conventional limit of flywheel operations to be at 6000 ft/min for
cast iron and ______ ft/min for cast steel. Answer: D
A. 7000
B. 8000
C. 10000
D. 12000

267. What equation to use in computing the acceleration of the center of a rolling ball with a
diameter of 8 inches. Answer: B
A. 0
B. rw2
C. w2/r
D. v2/r

268. In a cutting tool the cutting end can also be generally called ______. Answer: B
A. edge cutting tool
B. nose
C. back nose
D. side rake

269. What factors can modify the recommended cutting speed of known work piece? Answer: D
A. rough cutting of work piece
B. modify the shape of the cutting tools
C. use correctly shaped tools
D. depth cut
270. The material for engine radiator is usually made of ______. Answer: A
A. yellow brass
B. silicon brass
C. admiralty brass
D. navy brass

271. What type of leather belting should be used at an ambient temperature above 140 oF and possible
acid liquid coming in contact with the belt? Answer: C
A. mineral tanned
B. combination of oak
C. none of these
D. oak tanned

272. A machine shop equipment that can flatten horizontally, vertically or angular plane. Answer: A
A. shaper machine
B. welding machine
C. drill machine
D. power saw

273. Petroleum by product used as electrodes in an electric arc furnace melting operation.
Answer: C
A. anthracite coke
B. foundry coke
C. graphite electrodes
D. bituminous coke
274. An example of rectilinear translation: Answer: C
A. locomotive wheels
B. rack gear
C. piston of an engine
D. jack

275. _______ does not affect the tensile strength of steel. Answer: D
A. sulfur
B. cobalt
C. phosphorous
D. baron

276. Which of the following is an unsafe condition in operating a lathe machine? Answer: B
A. wearing denim pants/safety shoes
B. wearing canvas apron
C. operating with safety gloves
D. wearing safety goggles/hearing aid

277. Relief angles of single point cutting test in cutting mild steel, cast iron and other average work
as recommended should be in the ranges of _____ degrees of high speed tools. Answer: A
A. 8 to 12
B. 10 to 15
C. 5 to 7
D. 12 to 16
278. Tap not used for cutting threads _____. Answer: A
A. tapping tap
B. bottoming tap
C. plugging tap
D. taper tip

279. Alloy steel axle under repeated load/stress will eventually fail if the load/stress is above the
endurance for the steel under consideration. The endurance for the steel under consideration.
The endurance limit of the steel is therefore: Answer: B
A. equal to allowable stress at the module of elasticity
B. equal to half the ultimate strength
C. equal to module of elasticity
D. equal to 80 % of the elastic limit

280. All terms and abbreviation deal with wire rope arrangement except this ______ which deals
with wire rope materials strength. Answer: C
A. preformed
B. IWRC
C. Mps
D. lang lay

281. Mirror finish has surfaces fineness of _____ rms. Answer: A

A. 1
B. 2 to 8
C. 1 to 3
D. 2 to 5
282. Chromium steel (to include heat and corrosion resistant) designation. Answer: B
A. SAE56xx
B. SAE514xx
C. SAE61xx
D. SAE9xxx

283. Non-metallic material for high melting temperature being used as furnace lining. Answer: B
A. quartz bricks
B. refractories
C. silica sand
D. dolomite clay bricks

284. For economical cost in the manufacturing large worm gears the following materials are usually
applied. Answer: A
A. bronze rim with cast steel spider
B. cast iron rim with bronze spider
C. cast steel rim with brass spider
D. alloyed aluminum rim with cast iron soider

285. In greater quantity, this element is harmful to the molten ferrous metal. Answer: D
A. silicon
B. aluminum
C. oxides
D. sulfur
286. _____ thread is used where the thread requires great strength and usually cut square on one side
and slanting on the other side. Answer: B
A. janno
B. buttress
C. square
D. double

287. Internal stress exerted by the fibers to resist the action of outside force is called ______.
Answer: A
A. shearing stress
B. tensile stress
C. ultimate stress
D. compressive stress

288. One of the following materials is not mentioned for wire rope pulleys/sheave applications.
Answer: A
A. plastic
B. iron
C. paper
D. copper alloy

289. ______ is the theoretical profile of the thread for length of one pitch in the axial palne on which
the design forms both the external threads are based. Answer: C
A. basic form of thread
B. effective thread
C. basic profile of thread
D. design form of external thread

290. A tool not belonging to the group: Answer: C

A. hermaphrodite caliper
B. divider
C. double VEE block
D. trammel

291. The maximum stress induced in a material when subjected to intermittent or repeated load
without causing failure is called: Answer: B
A. ultimate stress
B. endurance limit
C. ultimate torque
D. elastic limit

292. The factor of safety generally applied I wire rope design starts at 3-4 standing rope application,
5-12 for operating rope and _____ for hazard to life and property application like foundry
operation. Answer: A
A. higher values
B. 7-10
C. 8-10
D. 10-18
293. Silicon manganese steel designation, SAE _____. Answer: C
A. 72xx
B. 40xx
C. 92xx
D. 9xx

294. The recommended age limit of fire tube boilers. Answer: B

A. 35 years
B. 30 years
C. 40 years
D. 50 years

295. In machine shop, hand forging operation of lengthening a piece of stock while reducing the
cross-sectional area of work is called: Answer: B
A. bloating
B. upsetting
C. spreading
D. draining out

296. A watt is equivalent to: Answer: B

A. 42.4 BTU/min
B. 1 N-m/sec
C. 44.2 ft-lb/min
D. All of these

297. Which of the following services is not considered to be work machinist? Answer: C
A. reboring
B. grinding
C. overhauling
D. honing

298. Cold drawing is also called: Answer: A

A. hard drawn
B. cold lap steel
C. strain hardening
D. oxidized steel

299. The top and bottom for gears is similar formed as to crest and ______ for screw thread.
Answer: B
A. flank
B. root
C. flank of tooth
D. top land

300. Intermediate gear is also called _____ gear in a gear train arrangement. Answer: A
A. idler
B. pinion
C. third gear
D. mounted gear
301. The brittleness in steel at elevated temperature is ______. Answer: C
A. hard drawn
B. cold lap
C. red shortness
D. residual stresses

302. Material may be stretched and a still return to its form/condition upon the release of force is
called _____. Answer: D
A. plasticity
B. modulus of elasticity
C. ductility
D. elastic limit

303. Type of chuck wherein the piece with standard diameter or size could be attached fast and quick
specially small size work of mass production. Answer: C
A. lathe drive plate
B. clamp toe dog
C. collet attachment
D. steady center rest

304. Moment curve for simple beam with a concentrated load at middle span takes the shape of a:
Answer: A
A. triangle
B. rectangular
C. trapezoid
D. semi-eclipes

305. This particular cutting tool material could withstand cutting speed beyond those possible with
other cutting tool materials. Answer: D
A. titanium carbide
B. ceramic
C. carbide grade
D. cubic boron nitride

306. Common defects encountered in the foundry shop steel casting operating and also in welding
practices. Answer: D
A. cracks
B. cold shot
C. part line
D. blow/pin holes

307. Some experiments made at Cornell University showed that experience mechanic could break a
______ bolt due to nut tightening. Answer: B
A. 3/8 inch
B. 5/8 inch
C. ½ inch
D. 7/16 inch
308. The 3 most commonly used in production of precision work tools. Answer: C
A. chrome manganese
B. titanium
C. high speed
D. chrome-molybdenum

309. Type of carbon and alloy used in production of precision work tools. Answer: C
A. chrome-manganese
B. titanium
C. high speed
D. chrome molybdenum

310. Recommended hardness of pinion for helical/herringbone gear tooth should be ______ BHN
point to sustain life. Answer: C
A. 50-59
B. 48-65
C. 40-50
D. 30-60

311. Fast process of analyzing all elements and chemical components of steel casting. Answer: D
A. Pyrometer
B. Carbon analyzer
C. Wet analyzer
D. Spectrometer

312. In small quantity this alloy is effective for improvement strength at high temperature.
Answer: A
A. chromium
B. manganese
C. selenium
D. molybdenum

313. Which of the following is not a kind of madrel? Answer:

A. expanded
B. extended
C. contraction
D. taper

314. The arc of action to circular pitch or length of action to base pitch. Answer: B
A. approach
B. contact ratio
C. arc of action
D. arc of approach

315. A cutting tool angle between the side cutting edge and the plane perpendicular to direction of
free travel is ______ angle. Answer: D
A. side relief
B. side cutting edge
C. lead
D. side rake
316. The surface between the pitch circle and bottom land. Answer: B
A. coremaking
B. machining
C. fitting
D. pattern

317. Test showed that steel pulleys has less slippage than of cast iron pulleys in range of: Answer: B
A. 1.8-2.6
B. 1.8-2.8
C. 2.35-2.7
D. 2.0-2.8

318. The bottom surface joining two sides of thread in screw. Answer: C
A. pitch
B. crest
C. bottom land
D. root

319. Shear modulus is also: Answer: D

A. shear elasticity
B. poison’s ratio
C. modulus of elasticity
D. modulus of rigidity

320. To prevent leakage in dynamic seal. Answer: C

A. gaskets
B. seals
C. packing
D. felts

321. Top surface joining two sides of thread in screw. Answer: D

A. pitch
B. top flank
C. top land
D. crest

322. The frictional forces depends on coefficient of friction and Answer: C

A. torque
B. weights of object
C. normal force
D. moment

323. The number of cycles required to cause failure for given stream level. Answer: C
A. endurance
B. fatigue
C. fatigue life
D. rupture
324. The tool bit made of tool blank consists of face, nose, shank and ______. Answer: D
A. cutting edge
B. none of these
C. round nose
D. base

325. The cutting tool used the shaper are similar to turning tools of ______ machine. Answer: A
A. planer
B. broaching
C. boring
D. lathe

326. The blades of hack saw have number of teeth range of: Answer: B
A. 15-38 teeth/in
B. 14-32 teeth/in
C. 12-30 teeth/in
D. 12-32 teeth/in

327. The safeguard in minimum of _____ mm in height for the use as toe guard/toe board.
Answer: C
A. 165
B. 135
C. 150
D. 120

328. Not part of the head stock. Answer: C

A. back gear
B. spindle
C. anvil
D. motor

329. A lathe carriage part that bridge across the bed to carry the cross slide and tool rest. Answer: C
A. automatic
B. apron
C. compound rest
D. saddle

330. Screw thread projecting from a cylindrical surface. Answer: D

A. thread series
B. thread shear area
C. straight
D. taper thread

331. Vertex distance is a term used in _____ gearing. Answer: C

A. spiral
B. worm
C. bevel
D. zerol
332. The modulus of elasticity of steel E at 30 x106 psi iron at 10 x 10 6 psi but concrete is much
lower at _____ x106 psi but concrete is much lower at ______ x106 psi. Answer: B
A. 1
B. 2
C. 6
D. 3

333. Two more forces acting together could be placed by a single force with same effect in a mass.
Answer: C
A. couple of forces
B. resolution of forces
C. resultant
D. concurrent of forces
E.
334. What is recommended cutting speed range of bronze in fpm? Answer: B
A. 60/70
B. 200/250
C. 80/60
D. 100/110

335. The resultant of two or more forces is also called: Answer: D

A. equilibrium
B. momentum
C. concurrent forces
D. resolution of forces

336. Type of leather belt being applied with waterproof cement. Answer: C
A. combination of oak/mineral tanned
B. all of these
C. oak tanned
D. mineral tanned

337. Cam in general may be divided into two classes: uniform motion cam and _____ motion cam.
Answer: D
A. reverse
B. gravity
C. decelerated
D. accelerated

338. For ordinary turning, drilling and milling on low strength steel the cutting fluid applied have
soluble oil with consistency of 1 part oil to _____ parts water. Answer: D
A. 10 to 30
B. 10
C. 5 to 10
D. 10 to 20

339. It is associated with nickel steel. Answer: D

A. magnesium
B. lead
C. columbium
D. tin
340. Often called necking or grooving in the cutting of a groove next to a shoulder on a piece of
work is called in a machine shop practice. Answer: B
A. chamfering square
B. undercutting
C. corner
D. edge cutting

341. To prevent engine vibration to affect the surrounding area, it is a standard practice isolates the
engine and its foundation by at least _____ mm. Answer: C
A. 30
B. 20
C. 25
D. 36

342. It is the drill backbone which runs the entire length of the drill between plates and sides rigidity
to the entire drill. Answer: D
A. drill shaft
B. shank
C. tang
D. web

343. Grout material use under the machine bed and foundation surface should be: Answer: B
A. 1 part cement & ½ part green sand & ¼ part gypsum
B. 1 part cement & 1 part green sand
C. 1 part cement & 1 part screened sand & ¼ part gypsum
D. 1 part cement & 1 ½ part screened sand & ½ part stone.

344. The acceleration of the point of contact is: Answer: C

A. rv2
B. rw2
C. v2/r
D. w2/v

345. The recommended lubricants for the chain drive operation. Answer: B
A. SAE 4140
B. petroleum oil
C. moly slip
D. heavy grease

346. In the SAE identification code steel shafting the 3rd and 4ht digits represents the content of:
Answer: C
A. % of manganese in steel
B. % of alloy elements
C. % of carbon contents
D. % of chromium in the steel
347. The minimum recommended worm pitch diameter is ¼ in. and the maximum is _____ in.
Answer: D
A. 1 ¾ in.
B. 2 ¾ in.
C. 3 in.
D. 2 in.

348. At a given section of an I beam the maximum bending stress occurs at the ______. Answer: D
A. maximum shear stress area
B. neutral axis
C. web joint near the flange
D. outer most fiber

349. What is 25 % of ½? Answer: C

A. 12 ½
B. 12.5
C. 1/8
D. ¼

350. The process of increasing the carbon content to the surfaces of steel by exposing it to hot
carbonaceous material above the transformation of 1650 to 1750oF. Answer: C
A. carbonitriding
B. casehardening
C. carburizing
D. induction hardening

351. What is the lightest known metal? Answer: D

A. mercury
B. steel
C. chromium
D. aluminum

352. Designated pipe color used in electricity. Answer: B

A. light blue
B. light orange
C. green
D. white

353. What is the value in degrees of 1 radian? Answer: C

A. 57.49o
B. 57.94o
C. 57.29o
D. 57.92o

354. What is the equivalent value of 1083oC in oF? Answer: B

A. 1198
B. 1981
C. 1918
D. 1891
355. The catwalk standard required for cleaning an engine can be found in any power plant or power
generating unit. Answer: B
A. 24 in.
B. 22 in.
C. 23 in.
D. 25 in.

356. It is ideal for maximum for maximum quietness in sprocket drive operation to choose _____ or
more teeth. Answer: C
A. 25
B. 26
C. 27
D. 28

357. Consider a maximum safe center distance of sprockets should be _____ pitches. Very long
center distance caused catenary tension in the chain. Answer: B
A. 70
B. 80
C. 90
D. 100
358. Extra flexible hoisting rope application is ______. Answer: B
A. 6 x 17
B. 6 x 37
C. 6 x 9
D. 6 x 21

359. Deals only with the motion of bodies without reference to the forces that cause them.
Answer: C
A. kinetics
B. motion
C. Kinematics
D. acceleration

360. Tooth width measurement along the chord at the pitch circle. Answer: C
A. chord space
B. chord clearance
C. chordal thickness
D. chordal length

361. The rule thumb is journal bearing design, the clearance ratio/clearance should be: Answer: D
A. 0.1001
B. 0.0101
C. 0.0110
D. 0.0010

362. The shaft that is used to connect or disconnect at will is called ______. Answer: A
A. clutch
B. bearing
C. brake shaft
D. lock shaft
363. It is recommended for high speed application that the minimum number of teeth in small
sprocket should be ______. Answer: B
A. 12 to 20
B. 18 to 24
C. 16 to 32
D. 14 to 28

364. Material having a high electrical resistance and should not be used as conductor of electrical
current. Answer: D
A. magnesium
B. copper
C. nickel
D. iron

365. Torsional deflection is a significant consideration in the design of shaft and the limit should be
in the range of _____ degrees/foot of length. Answer: B
A. 0.004 to 0.006
B. 0.08 to 1
C. 0.006 to 0.008
D. 0.008 to 1

366. The property that characterizes a materials ability to be drawn into a wire. Answer: C
A. plasticity
B. elasticity
C. ductility
D. utility

367. The distance from a point on a screw thread to a corresponding point on the next measure along
the axis. Answer: D
A. radial
B. module
C. thickness
D. pitch

368. Designated pipe color used in communication. Answer: C

A. green
B. light blue
C. white
D. light orange

369. Stress relieving is also _____ for the purpose of reducing the internal stress of steel
material/metal. Answer: B
A. quenching
B. normalizing
C. tempering
D. drawing
370. Martensite (stainless steel) contains 4 to 26 % Cr and a maximum of _____ %. Answer: C
A. 1.5
B. 3.5
C. 2.5
D. 4.5

371. Progressive change in position of a body is called: Answer: B

A. acceleration
B. motion
C. force
D. momentum

372. Compute the cutting speed in fpm of a workpiece with 2 inches diameter and running at 100
rpm. Answer: A
A. 52
B. 62
C. 25
D. 26

373. A body weighing 1000 lbs falls and stirkes a 2000 lb/in spring. The deformation of the spring is
______. Answer: C
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 5

374. To be responsible for the preparation of plans, design, investigations, valuation, technical
reports, specifications, project studies or estimates, he must be a ______. Answer: C
A. ME
B. CPM
C. PME
D. CPM, ME & PME

375. To teach professional subjects in mechanical engineering course, he must be a duly licensed
______ or a Master’s degree or Doctorate degree holder in Mechanical Engineering. Answer: C
A. ME and CPM
B. CPM
C. PME
D. ME

376. To operate, tend or maintain or be incharge of operation, tending or maintenance of any

mechanical works, projects or plants, of over 2,100 kW, he must be duly licensed ______.
Answer: C
A. ME
B. CPM
C. PME
D. CPM, ME and PME
377. Maximum plant capacity in which a licensed ME is allowed to operate, Tend or maintain.
Answer: C
A. 300 kW
B. 1000 kW
C. 2000 kW
D. 3000 kW

378. For a mechanical plant with capacity of 300 kW or over but not more than 2000 kW, the
personnel required must be at least. Answer: C
A. ME
B. PME
C. CPM, ME & PME
D. PME & ME

379. The only accredited national organization for Mechanical Engineers. Answer: C
A. PME
B. NME
C. PSME
D. POME

380. Divide 1/8 to 8. Answer: A

A. 1
B. 8
C. 2
D. 64

381. Which of the following product of combustion that has a property of resilience? Answer: C
A. grease
B. graphite electrode
C. rubber
D. graphite powder
Part 2: Machine Design Elements-Test 1

1. In pure torsion, the maximum torsional stress occurs at the center of the Answer: B
A. center
B. Long sides
C. medium sides
D. short sides

2. Modulus of elasticity for ordinary steel usually falls between _____ million pounds per square
inch. Answer: A
A. 28 to 31
B. 20-45
C. 26 to 28
D. 50-30

3. The modulus of elasticity is a measure of _____. Answer: C

A. accuracy
B. quality
C. stiffness
D. rigidity

4. The modulus of elasticity for most metals in compression is usually taken as that in _____.
Answer: A
A. tension
B. bearing
C. torsion
D. yield

5. The ration of Moment and stress. Answer: D

A. strain
B. Contraction
C. Proportional constant
D. section modulus

6. For a symmetrical cross-section beam, the flexural stress is when the vertical shear is maximum.
Answer: C
A. infinity
B. maximum
C. zero
D. minimum

7. When tested in compression, ductile materials usually exhibit _____ characteristics up to the yield
strength as they do when tested in tension. Answer: D
A. the same
B. less than
C. more than
D. approximately the same
8. As one example, the ASME code for riveted joints permits the design surface compressive stress to
be about _____ higher than the design tensile stress. Answer: C
A. 50 %
B. 40 %
C. 60 %
D. 70 %

9. In a pressure vessel, the ration of minimum strength of solid joint is known as Answer: D
A. efficiency
B. Performance factor
C. joint efficiency
D. relative strength

10. In a pressure vessel, the usual factor of safety may be taken as Answer: D
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 5

11. Is the permissible variation of the size of a dimension Answer: A

A. tolerance
B. fits
C. limits
D. none of these

12. If there is no fit, a liberal tolerance of the order of _____ in machining work could be permitted.
Answer: B
A. ±0.020
B. ±0.010
C. ±0.09
D. ±0.05

13. A tolerance where the size of a part is permitted to be either larger or smaller than the given
dimension Answer: A
A. bilateral
B. unilateral
C. lateral
D. none of these

14. A tolerance where the size of apart may be larger only, or smaller only, than the given dimension.
Answer: B
A. bilateral
B. unilateral
C. lateral
D. none of these
15. _____ are generally used on those dimensions involved in a fit such as a pin in a hole. Answer: B
A. bilateral
B. unilateral
C. lateral
D. none of these

16. The ASA fits are based on the ______. Answer: B

A. basic number system
B. basic hole system
C. basic size system
D. unit system

17. When the hole is smaller than the shaft; it will take force or pressure to put the cold parts together.
The allowance is said to be negative and is termed as the Answer: D
A. negative fits of metal
B. positive fits
C. intergeable
D. interference

18. Are the relative finely spaced irregularities of the surface? Answer: D
A. smoothness
B. lay
C. waviness
D. roughness

19. Are the irregularities or departures from the nominal surface of grater spacing than roughness.
Answer: C
A. smoothness
B. lay
C. waviness
D. roughness

20. Is the direction of predominant surface pattern Answer: B

A. smoothness
B. lay
C. waviness
D. roughness

21. The surface finish of micrometer anvils in rms Answer: A

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

22. The surface finish of heavy cuts and coarse feed Answer: D
A. 200 rms
B. 80 rms
C. 400 rms
D. 500 or greater rms
23. It has been said that 80 % of the failures of machine parts have been Answer: D
A. negligence
B. compression
C. torsion
D. fatigue failures

24. For wrought steel in its commonly met commercial forms, it is often assumed that the average
endurance limit for an average Su (50 % survival), the Brinell Hardness is limited to _____.
Answer: C
A. 350
B. 450
C. 400
D. 500

25. Cazaud quotes values for steel showing Sn/Su ratios, often called endurance ratio, from ______.
Answer: A
A. 0.23 to 0.65
B. 0.63 to 0.93
C. 0.34 to 0.87
D. 0.34 to 0.45

26. Is the discontinuity or change of section such as scratches, holes, bends or grooves, is a
Answer: D
A. stress relieving
B. stress functioning
C. stress caiser
D. stress raiser

27. The degree of stress concentration is usually indidcated by a Answer: D

A. power factor
B. stress factor
C. service factor
D. stress concentration factor

28. In a part at uniform temperature and not acted upon by an external load, any internal stresses that
exist are called Answer: A
A. residual stress
B. superposed stress
C. formed stress
D. control stress

29. Is a process of prestressing or over-stressing a hollow cylindrical member beyond the elastic
range by hydraulic pressure Answer: C
A. pressttage
B. stress relieving
C. autofrettage
D. countersinking
30. When two touching surface have contact pressure and when these surfaces have minute relative
motion, phenomenon called Answer: D
A. prestressing
B. friction
C. carving
D. fretting

31. Is the process that cold works a limited amount of material, thus giving a higher strength and it
leaves a surface compressive stress? Answer: D
A. surface finishing
B. smoothing
C. surfacing
D. surface rolling

32. When a hot part is cooled suddenly by temperature quenching, there is momentarily a high
temperature gradient that induces a stress gradient. Some metal parts under certain conditions
crack as a result; this phenomenon is called Answer: A
A. thermal-shock failure
B. thermal fatigue
C. honing
D. Quenching

33. Fatigue strength is increased by repeated loads just below the normal fatigue limit, followed by
small step by step increase of the loading, a process is called Answer: B
A. mixing
B. coaxing
C. axing
D. relieving

34. Is the diameter of the imaginary cylinder that bounds the crest of an external thread and the roots
of an internal thread. Answer: D
A. mean diameter
B. stress diameter
C. minor diameter
D. major diameter

35. Is the diameter of the imaginary cylinder that bounds the crest of an external thread and the roots
of an internal thread? Answer: A
A. lead
B. circular pitch
C. pitch
D. mean pitch

36. Is recommended for general use. Answer: A

A. UNC
B. UNEF
C. UNF
D. NC
37. Is frequently used in automotive and aircraft work Answer: C
A. UNC
B. UNEF
C. UNF
D. NC

38. Is particularly useful in aeronautical equipment. Answer: B

A. UNC
B. UNEF
C. UNF
D. NC

39. Is used on bolts for high-pressure pipe flanges, cylinder head studs etc. Answer: D
A. UNC
B. UNEF
C. UNF
D. 8 UN

40. The stress load induced by the tightening operation Answer: A

A. initial stress
B. residual stress
C. initial tension
D. none of these

41. For non-metallic gaskets, it has been found that they should have certain minimum amount of
compression as _____ for a certain cork gasket. Answer: A
A. 62 %
B. 68 %
C. 86 %
D. 76 %

42. Is a screw fastening with a nut on it Answer: A

A. bolt
B. rivet
C. fastener
D. none of these

43. Is one that has no nut and turns into a threaded hole. Answer: D
A. stud bolt
B. rivet
C. U-bolt
D. screw

44. An old name for an unfinished through bolts, comes with a square. Answer: B
A. coupling bolt
B. machine bolt
C. stud bolt
D. automobile bolt
45. Is a type of bolt finished all over, usually having coarse threads. Answer: A
A. coupling bolt
B. machine bolt
C. stud bolt
D. automobile bolt

46. Is a type of bolt distinguished by a short portion of the shank underneath the head being square or
finned or ribbed. Answer: D
A. coupling bolt
B. machine bolt
C. stud bolt
D. carriage bolt

47. Is a type of bolt threaded on both ends and can be used where a through bolt is impossible.
Answer: C
A. coupling bolt
B. machine bolt
C. stud bolt
D. carriage bolt

48. Is a cheap variety of bolt made in small sizes. Answer: C

A. stud bolt
B. carriage bolt
C. stove bolt
D. mini bolt

49. A large wood screw is used to fasten machinery and equipment to wooden base. Answer: A
A. lag screw
B. wood screw
C. log screw
D. none of these

50. The length of contact in a tapped hole should be a minimum of about _____ for cast iron.
Answer: B
A. D
B. 1.5D
C. 1.2D
D. 2D

51. When the location of bolts is such that it would normally be shear, it is better practice to use
Answer: D
A. dammy bolts
B. mid-pin
C. crank pin
D. dowel pins

52. Is a locking device used to maintain pressure between threads of the bolt and nut. Answer: C
A. lock nuts
B. gasket
C. lock washers
D. lokut
53. Provides excellent locking properties for light assemblies. Answer: A
A. Speed nut
B. an-cor-lox-nut
C. lock nut
D. Flexloc nut

54. Which of the following is not the use spring? Answer: D

A. absorbs energy
B. measure weight
C. source of energy in locks
D. measure the thickness

55. Is the ratio of mean diameter of coil over the diameter. Answer: C
A. Waahl factor
B. diameter ratio
C. spring index
D. lead angle

56. Is the overall length of the spring when it is compressed until all adjacent coils touched
Answer: D
A. compressed length
B. none of these
C. free length
D. solid height

57. Is the length of coil spring under no load. Answer: C

A. compressed length
B. none of these
C. free length
D. solid height

58. In general, steel spring are made of relatively high-carbon steel usually Answer: A
A. more than 0.5 %
B. 5 %
C. less than 0.5 %
D. 10 %

59. When heat treated wire is coiled cold, it should be stress relieved for bending stresses after
cooling by being heated at some _____. Answer: D
A. 400oF
B. 700oF
C. 600oF
D. 500oF

60. Is a Jow cost spring material, suitable where service is not severe and dimensional precision is not
needed. Answer: A
A. hard drawn wire spring
B. helical spring wire
C. stainless steel
D. helical tension spring wire
61. Is a hard drawn also (80 % reduction), but it is made of high grade steel. Answer: A
A. music wire
B. oil tempered
C. song wire
D. chromium-silicon

62. Is a spring wire with good quality for impact loads and moderately high temperatures. Answer: C
A. hard drawn wire spring
B. helical spring wire
C. chromium-silicon
D. helical tension spring

63. Is a type of coil where the helical coil is wrapped into a circle forming an annular ring Answer: D
A. volute spring
B. motor spring
C. hair spring
D. garter spring

64. A type of spring where thin flat strip wound up on itself as a plane spiral, usually anchored at the
inside end Answer: B
A. volute spring
B. motor spring
C. hair spring
D. garter spring

65. A type of spring made in the form of dished washer. Answer: D

A. volute spring
B. motor spring
C. hair spring
D. belleville spring

66. A type of failure due to unstability. Answer: C

A. Slender ratio
B. Buching hum
C. buckling
D. stability

67. Is the ratio of the length of the column and the radius of gyration of the cross-sectional area about
a central axis. Answer: D
A. power factor
B. contact ratio
C. constant ratio
D. slenderness ratio

68. Formula that applies to very slender column. Answer: D

A. column formula
B. moment formula
C. slender formula
D. Eueler’s formula
69. If two principal stress is zero, the sale of stress is Answer: B
A. biaxial
B. uniaxial
C. mono-axial
D. triaxial

70. If one principal stress is zero, the state of stress is Answer: A

A. biaxial
B. uniaxial
C. mono-axial
D. triaxial

71. If all the principal stresses have finite values, the system is Answer: D
A. biaxial
B. uniaxial
C. mono-axial
D. triaxial

72. Under theories of failure, static loading of ductile material, the design stress is Answer: A
A. Yield stress/factor of safety
B. Ultimate stress/factor of safety
C. Factor of safety/yield stress
D. Endurance strength/factor of safety

73. Under theories of failure, the value of shear stress is _____ that of tensile stress. Answer: C
A. equal
B. double
C. half
D. 3 times

74. The theory of mechanics of materials shows that the results from the octahedral shear stress
theory and those from the maximum distortion energy theory are Answer: C
A. relevant
B. less than
C. the same
D. more than

75. Is the distance measured axially, from a point on one thread to the corresponding point on an
adjacent thread. Answer: A
A. axial pitch
B. lead
C. z-pitch
D. lead angle

76. Is the angle between a tangent to the pitch helix and plane normal to the axis of the screw.
Answer: C
A. helix angle
B. tangent angle
C. lead angle
D. vertical angle
77. For ACME thread the pressure angle normal to the thread is Answer: B
A. 12.5o
B. 14.5o
C. 13.5o
D. 34o

78. If the thread surfaces are smooth and well lubricated, the coefficient of friction may be as low as
Answer: D
A. 0.12
B. 0.16
C. 0.14
D. 0.10

79. For the doughtful workmanship, the recommended coefficient of friction of thread is Answer: C
A. 0.120
B. 0.102
C. 0.125
D. 0.234

80. A screw that requires a positive torque to lower the load, or to load, or to loosen the screw if it has
been turned tight against a resistance. Answer: D
A. power screw
B. selt screw
C. lock screw
D. self-locking screw

81. Is a rotating member transmitting power Answer: C

A. axle
B. lineshaft
C. shaft
D. countershaft

82. Is a stationary member carrying rotating member transmitting power. Answer: A

A. axle
B. lineshaft
C. shaft
D. countershaft

83. A line shaft is also Answer: C

A. countershaft
B. line shaft
C. main shaft
D. head shaft

84. Is the shaft intermediate between a line shaft and driven shaft Answer: D
A. countershafts
B. jackshafts
C. headshafts
D. all of these
85. Shorts shaft on machines are often called Answer: C
A. medium shafts
B. core shafts
C. spindles
D. head shafts

86. For shafts, the shear due to bending is maximum at the neutral plane where the normal stress is
Answer: B
A. maximum
B. zero
C. minimum
D. constant

87. Criteria for the limiting tor torsional deflection vary from 0.08o per foot of length for machinery
shafts to _____ per foot. Answer: A
A. 1 degree
B. 3degrees
C. 2 degrees
D. 4 degrees

88. For transmission shafts the allowable deflection in a length of diameters. Answer: B
A. 10
B. 20
C. 15
D. 25

89. An old rule of thumb for transmission shafting is hta the deflection should not exceed _____ of
length between supports. Answer: A
A. 0.01 in per foot
B. 0.03 in per foot
C. 0.02 in per foot
D. 0.04 in per foot

90. In general, for machinery shafts, the permissible deflection may be closer to Answer: C
A. 0.02 in/ft
B. 0.01 in/ft
C. 0.002 in/ft
D. 0.03 in/ft

91. Gleason states that at bevel gears, sizes 5 in to 15 in, the gears should not be lift or depress more
than Answer: D
A. 0.01 in
B. 0.004 in
C. 0.002 in
D. 0.003 in
92. The speed at which the center of mass will equal the deflecting forces on the shaft; the shaft with
its attached bodies will then vibrate violently, since the centrifugal force changes its direction as
the shaft turns is Answer: B
A. mean speed
B. critical speed
C. geometric speed
D. unit speed

93. For shaft, the minimum value of numerical combined shock and fatigue factor to be applied in
every case to the computed bending moment is Answer: B
A. 1.0
B. 1.5
C. 1.3
D. 1.8

94. Most keys are Answer: D

A. flat keys
B. square keys
C. saddle keys
D. A & B

95. It is suggested that the design factor on the yield strength be about 1.5 for the smooth load, about
2 to 2.25 for minor shock loading, and up to _____ for severe shock loads, especially when the
loading reverses during operation. Answer: D
A. 3.0
B. 4.0
C. 3.5
D. 4.5

96. Typical hub lengths all between _____. Answer: A

A. 1.25D to 2.4D
B. 1.25D to 5D
C. 1.3D to 3.4D
D. D to 7D

97. A key that is square or flat and tapered with head. Answer: C
A. pin key
B. saddle keys
C. gib-head keys
D. none of these

98. A key may either straight or tapered. Its usually a drive fit. Answer: A
A. pin key
B. saddle keys
C. gib-head keys
D. none of these
 99. A key with one of several patented methods of keying. Is driven or depressed into a hole that is
small enough to close the slit, assembled in radial direction. Answer: C
A. fit key
B. saddle key
C. rollpin
D. pin key

100. Kennedy keys is also known as Answer: A

A. tangential keys
B. normal keys
C. saddle keys
D. rollpin

Part 2: Machine Design Elements-Test 2

1. A key that allows the hub to move along the shaft but prevents the rotation of the shaft.
Answer: B
A. Woodruff key
B. feather key
C. gibs key
D. square key

2. For involute spline, the type of fits used Answer : D

A. close fit
B. press fit
C. sliding fit
D. all of these

3. Used for permanent fits, are similar to involute splines except that the pressure angle is 14.5 o.
Answer : D
A. separation load
B. stub serrations
C. spline shaft
D. involute serrations

4. Are used as couplings or in addition to another coupling where, in case of overload, there is danger
off injury to machines or to material in process. Answer : B
A. involute serrations
B. shear pin
C. flange coupling
D. king pin

5. A coupling that transmits power via the friction forces induced by pulling the flanges toward each
other over slotted tapered sleeves. Answer : D
A. flange coupling
B. flexible compression coupling
C. rigid coupling
D. flanged compression coupling
6. A coupling used for absorbing some shock and vibration that may appear on one shaft and of
preventing the occurrence of reversed stresses caused by the shaft deflecting at the coupling.
Answer : B
A. rigid coupling
B. flexible coupling
C. flange coupling
D. none of these

7. For a single Hooke’s coupling, the shaft angle should not be greater than about _____.
Answer : B
A. 10o
B. 15o
C. 12o
D. 30o

8. Journal bearing composed of two principal pars, Answer : A

A. bearing and journal
B. clearance and fitted
C. shaft and babbit
D. shaft and cylinder

9. When the line of action of the load, bisects the arc of partial bearing. Answer : C
A. eccentrically loaded
B. fit loaded
C. centrally loaded
D. surface loaded

10. Is the difference in the radii in the radii of the bearing and the journal Answer : D
A. even clearance
B. clearance ratio
C. fit clearance
D. radial clearance

11. Is the difference in the radii of the journal and the bearing are the same. Answer : A
A. fitted bearing
B. partial bearing
C. full bearing
D. clearance bearing

12. The line that passes through the centers of the bearing and the journal is called the Answer : B
A. line of action
B. line of centers
C. under cut
D. line tangent

13. For hydrocarbon oils, the specific gravity will be closed to Answer : D
A. 0.34
B. 0.93
C. 0.74
D. 0.83
14. ______ length-diameter ratio was a good compromise for the general case of hydrodynamic
bearing s is approximately Answer : A
A. 1
B. 3
C. 2
D. 4

15. Operating temperature of oil film ranges ______, or less. Answer : D

A. 140o to 150o
B. 130o to 160o
C. 120o to 190o
D. 140o to 160o

16. At higher temperatures the oil oxidizes, more rapidly above Answer : D
A. 120oF
B. 140oF
C. 160oF
D. 140oF

17. A conclusion repeatedly verified by experiment is that the smoother the surface Answer : A
A. the greater the load capacity of the bearing
B. the lesser the capacity of the bearing
C. constant
D. none of these

18. The following are considered advantageous for bearing materials include Answer : D
A. conformability
B. embeddability
C. compatibility
D. all of these

19. For thrust bearing, the speed at moderate operating conditions is Answer : A
A. 50 < vm > 200 fpm
B. 50 < vm > 220 fpm
C. 50 < vm > 250 fpm
D. 50 < vm > 290 fpm

20. The 200 series bearing is called Answer : C

A. heavy
B. medium
C. light
D. none of these

21. The 300 series bearing is called: Answer : B

A. heavy
B. medium
C. light
D. all of these
22. A type of roller bearing in which the balls are assembled by the eccentric displacement of the
assembled of the inner ring. Answer : D
A. shallow-groove ball bearing
B. self-aligning ball bearing
C. filling-slot ball bearing
D. deep-groove ball bearing

23. Which of the following is not a type of ball bearing Answer : A

A. shallow-groove ball bearing
B. self-aligning ball bearing
C. filling-slot ball bearing
D. deep-groove ball bearing

24. Are toothed wheels whose tooth elements are straight and parallel to the shaft axis or used to
transmit motion and power between parallel shafts. Answer : D
A. helical gear
B. worm gear
C. bevel gear
D. spur gear

25. The density of a leather belt is _____. Answer : A

A. 0.035 lb/in3
B. 0.253 lb/in3
C. 0.046 lb/in3
D. 0.074 lb/in3

26. The density of flat rubber belt material is Answer : B

A. 0.055 lb/in3
B. 0.045 lb/in3
C. 0.0725 lb/in3
D. 0.0726 lb/in3

27. The breaking strength of oak-tanned belting varies from 3 to more than Answer : C
A. 5 ksi
B. 7 ksi
C. 6 ksi
D. 8 ksi

28. If the ends are joined by wire lacing with machine, the usual efficiency of joint is Answer : D
A. 100 %
B. 85 %
C. 75 %
D. 88 %

29. The tension in the belt due to centrifugal force increase rapidly above about ______. Answer : A
A. 2500 fpm
B. 3500 fpm
C. 3000 fpm
D. 4000 fpm
30. Experience suggest that the most economical designs are obtained for a belt speed of Answer : A
A. 4000 to 4500 fpm
B. 2000 to 3000 fpm
C. 3000 to 4000 fpm
D. 4000 to 5000 fpm

31. For leather belts, recommended speed is: Answer : C

A. 6000 to 7500 fpm
B. 2000 to 3000 fpm
C. 7000 to 8000 fpm
D. 4000 to 5000 fpm

32. For fabric belts, recommended speed is: Answer : D

A. 4000 to 4500 fpm
B. 2000 to 3000 fpm
C. 3000 to 4000 fpm
D. 2000 and more fpm

33. On high speed centrifugal blowers, it has been observed that the arc of contact reduced from 180 o
at rest to ______ in motion. Answer : D
A. 100o
B. 95o
C. 90o
D. 110o

34. The recommended initial tension of belt is ______. Answer : B

A. 75 lb/in of width
B. 71 lb/in of width
C. 73 lb/in of width
D. 80 lb/in of width

35. The recommended net belt pull for rubber belt is Answer : B
A. 11.34 lb/ply per inch of width
B. 13.75 lb/ply per inch of width
C. 16.35 lb/ply per inch of width
D. 20.34 lb/ply per inch of width

36. If two intersecting shafts are to be belt connected, ______ guide pulleys are to be used.
Answer: C
A. 1
B. 3
C. 2
D. 4

37. Two shafts at right angles to each other may be connected by the _____ arrangement. Answer : D
A. half turn
B. ¾ turn
C. one turn
D. quarter turn
38. The minimum number of teeth on the smaller sprocket for low speeds is Answer : A
A. 12
B. 16
C. 14
D. 18

39. The minimum number of teeth on the smaller sprocket of moderate speed is Answer : C
A. 15
B. 19
C. 17
D. 21

40. The minimum number of teeth on the smaller sprocket for high speeds is Answer : B
A. 19
B. 21
C. 23
D. 25

41. Wire ropes are made from cold drawn wires that are first wrapped into ______. Answer : C
A. layer
B. segment
C. strands
D. none of these

42. For maximum quietness, use sprockets with ______ or more teeth. Answer : D
A. 21
B. 25
C. 23
D. 27

43. A wire rope that wires and strands are twisted in opposite direction. Answer : C
A. long lay
B. lang lay
C. regular lay
D. performed

44. A wire rope that the wires and strands are twisted in the same direction Answer : B
A. long lay
B. lang lay
C. performed
D. non-performed

45. Ropes used for haulages, rigging, guard rails Answer : D

A. 6 x 35 IWRC
B. 6 x 25 IWRC
C. 7 x 8 IWRC
D. 7 x 7 IWRC
46. Used for general purpose rope Answer : C
A. 6 x 19 IWRC
B. 6 x21 IWRC
C. 6 x 19IWRC
D. 7 x 26 IWRC

47. Rope used in lines, hawsers, overhead, cranes, and hoist. Answer : D
A. 6 x 34 IWRC
B. 6 x 35 IWRC
C. 6 x 45 IWRC
D. 6 x 37 IWRC

48. The regular materials for wire rope are made of Answer : D
A. chromium
B. cast steel
C. wrought iron
D. high-carbon steel

49. The ultimate strength of improved flow steel (IPS) is between Answer : A
A. 240 and 280 ksi
B. 200 and 400 ksi
C. 230 and 230 ksi
D. 400 and 500 ksi

50. The minimum suggested design factors of wire ropes for miscellaneous hoisting equipment is
Answer : B
A. 2
B. 5
C. 3
D. 4

51. To avoid excessive wear rate the recommended limiting pressure for 6 x19 rope is _____ for cast
iron Answer : D
A. 200 psi
B. 400 psi
C. 300 psi
D. 500 psi

52. To avoid excessive wear rate the recommended limiting pressure for 6 x 19 rope is ______ for
cast steel Answer : C
A. 700 psi
B. 1000 psi
C. 900 psi
D. 1200 psi

53. To avoid excessive wear rate the recommended limiting pressure for 6 x 19 rope is _______ for
manganese steel. Answer : A
A. 2500 psi
B. 3000 psi
C. 2000 psi
D. 2300 psi
54. Friction devices used to regulate the motion of bodies and with clutches. Answer : B
A. roller
B. brakes
C. babbit
D. holders

55. Are friction devices used to connect shafts Answer : B

A. brakes
B. clutches
C. spring
D. holders
56. That part of the frictional energy that is stored in the brake parts, principally in the drum or disk,
has been variously estimated at _______. Answer : D
A. 56 %
B. 86 %
C. 90 %
D. 75 %

57. The effectiveness of the brake may greatly decrease shortly after it begins to act continuously.
Answer : C
A. vade
B. acted
C. fade
D. cade

58. The brake capacity to absorb energy is known as: Answer : D

A. energy
B. resistance brake
C. power
D. braking torque

59. If the band wraps partly around the brake wheel or drum, and braking action is obtained by
pulling the band tight onto the wheel. Answer : B
A. block brake
B. band brake
C. clutch
D. centrifugal brake

60. A clutch that has a disadvantage of heavier rotating masses. Answer : A

A. multiple disc clutch
B. disc clutch
C. cone clutch
D. none of these

61. The brake lining operating at temperature _______, sintered mixtures containing ceramics are
used. Answer : A
A. 750o to 1000oF
B. 560o to 900oF
C. 800o to 1200oF
D. 400o to 789oF
62. Are resistance welds, usually round, in the same form as the electrodes that press the sheets
together. Answer : C
A. edge joint
B. MIG welds
C. spot welds
D. TIG welds

63. Consist of short lengths (2-3 in long) of welds with space between, as 6 in on centers. Answer : A
A. intermittent weld
B. MIG welds
C. spot welds
D. TIG welds

64. Is an intermittent weld, lightly done to hold the members in position for assembly purposes or fro
principal welding. Answer : B
A. edge welds
B. tack welds
C. back welds
D. half welds

65. A welding operation that use hot flame and metal rod Answer : A
A. gas welding
B. arc welding
C. resistance
D. automatic welding

66. The arc is covered with a welding composition, and electrode wire is fed automatically.
Answer: B
A. resistance welding
B. submerged arc welding
C. induction welding
D. spot welding

67. The recommended coefficient of fluctuation of flywheels for punching, shearing, pressing
machines is Answer : A
A. 0.05-0.1
B. 0.03-0.05
C. 0.002
D. 0.01-0.02

68. For best running conditions of gear, the contact ratio should be about Answer : A
A. 1.25 to 1.4
B. 1.2 to 1.45
C. 1.34 to 1.56
D. 1.62 to 1.45
69. The ______ full depth teeth have the advantages of greater capacity and less interference trouble.
Answer : C
A. 14.5o
B. 24o
C. 20o
D. 30o

70. Is the average tangential force on the teeth, is then obtained from the horse power. Answer : D
A. total load
B. separation load
C. pressure load
D. tangential load

71. The service factor of a gear may be taken as _____ if an electric motor drives a centrifugal
blower. Answer : A
A. 1
B. 3
C. 2
D. 4

72. The kind of wear occurs because of a fatigue failure of the surface material as a result of high
contact stresses. Answer : B
A. slotting
B. pitting
C. involuting
D. curving

73. Is caused by foreign matter, such as grit or metal particles, or by a failure of the oil film at low
speed. Answer : C
A. auction
B. scoring
C. abrasion
D. corrosion

74. Occurs when oil film fails, but in this case, the load and speed are so high that the surface metal is
melted and the metal is smeared down the profile. Answer : D
A. abrasion
B. corrosion
C. spalling
D. scoring

75. Is a surface fatigue of greater extent than pitting; that is the flakes are much larger. This type of
failure occurs in surface-hardened teeth. Answer : C
A. abrasion
B. corrosion
C. spalling
D. scoring
76. Buckingham says that mating phenolic gears with steel of BHN less than ______ leads to
excessive wear. Answer : B
A. 200
B. 400
C. 300
D. 500

77. The extra tooth in gear which is use to distribute the wear more evenly. Answer : A
A. less than
B. equal
C. greater
D. none of these

78. The length of the hub should not be made ________ the face width of the gear. Answer : A
A. less than
B. equal
C. greater
D. none of these

79. _______ is a gear that has teeth cut on the inside of the rim instead of the outside. Answer : D
A. external gear
B. involute gear
C. stub gear
D. annular gear

80. To eliminate fouling, let the minimum differences in tooth numbers between the internal gear an
pinion, be ________ for 14.4o involute full-depth. Answer : C
A. 10 teeth
B. 14 teeth
C. 12 teeth
D. 16 teeth

81. The loss per pair of spur, helical, or bevel gears in an ordinary train should not exceed ________.
Answer : B
A. 4 %
B. 2 %
C. 6 %
D. 3 %

82. The typical helix angle ranges from ______ to ______. Answer : D
A. 12o to 15o
B. 10o to 12o
C. 14o to 20o
D. 15o to 25o

83. Is the advance of the tooth in the face width divided by circular pitch. Answer : A
A. face contact ratio
B. speed ratio
C. profile ratio
D. advance ratio
84. Is the distance between the teeth measured on the pitch surface along a normal to the helix.
Answer : D
A. lead
B. lead angle
C. pitch
D. normal circular pitch

85. The hardness of helical and herring bone teeth cut after heat treatment will generally fall between
the limits of Answer : A
A. 210 and 300 Brinell
B. 147 and 300 Brinnell
C. 230 and 320 Brinell
D. 220 and 320 Brinell

86. Helical gears mounted on non-parallel shafts are called Answer : B

A. open gear
B. crossed helical gear
C. closed helical gear
D. herringbone gear

87. Are used to connect intersecting shafts, usually but not necessarily at 90 o. Answer : D
A. spur gear
B. helical gear
C. worm gear
D. bevel gear

88. Bevel gear teeth are built with respect to a ______, rather than to a pitch cylinder as in spur gears.
Answer : C
A. pitch pedal
B. pitch profile
C. pitch cone
D. cylinder

89. The length of pitch cone in a bevel gear. Answer : A

A. cone center
B. lead
C. center distance
D. pitch

90. The cone formed by the elements of top lands Answer : A

A. face cone
B. root face
C. dial face
D. pitch face

91. The cone formed by the elements of bottom lands Answer : B

A. face cone
B. root cone
C. back cone
D. rake cone
92. Is an imaginary cone whose elements are perpendicular to the pitch cone elements at the ;arge end
of the tooth. Answer : C
A. front cone
B. side rake
C. back cone
D. rear cone

93. Is one whose tooth profiles consist of straight elements that converge to a point at the cone center.
Answer : B
A. circular bevel gear
B. straight bevel gear
C. path bevel gear
D. herringbone gear

94. The desired qualities in gears is: Answer : D

A. quietness
B. durability
C. strength
D. all of these

95. Straight and zerol bevels gears should not be used when the pitch line velocity is greater than
about _______. Answer : D
A. 800 rpm
B. 875 rpm
C. 850 rpm
D. 900 rpm

96. The spiral bevel gears and hypoid bevel gears are recommended when the pitch line speed
exceeds ______. Answer : D
A. 1100 fpm
B. 1500 fpm
C. 2000 fpm
D. 1000 fpm

97. When the pitch line speed is above 8000 fpm, the teeth should be _______. Answer : A
A. ground after hardening
B. should be cooled in air
C. should be quenched after hardening
D. none of these

98. _______ have curved line teeth, as in spiral bevels, but with zero spiral angles. Answer : B
A. spiral gear
B. zero bevel gear
C. zero bevel gear
D. straight bevel gear
 99. A gear that has an advantage of smoother tooth engagement, quietness of operation, greater
strength and higher permissible speeds. Answer : D
A. zero bevel gear
B. straight bevel gear
C. hypoid bevel gear
D. spiral bevel gear

100. Certificate of registration for practice of mechanical engineering shall be of ______ categories.
Answer : C
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Part 2: Machine Design Elements-Test 3

1. Are bevel gears mounted on intersecting shafts at angle of other than 90 o. Answer : D
A. right angle gears
B. half gears
C. inclined gears
D. angular gears

2. Is one in which the pitch angle is 90o; that is, the pitch cone has become a plane. Answer : B
A. atten gear
B. crown gear
C. cool gear
D. hiphap gear

3. Is used to transmit power nonintersecting shafts, nearly always between at right angle to each
other. Answer : D
A. spur gear
B. ordinary gear
C. bevel gear
D. worm gear

4. The two types of construction for the worm are: Answer : C

A. shell and cylindrical
B. shell and zigzag
C. shell and integral
D. tube and integral

5. The standard pressure angle for fine pitch gears is ______ degrees and is recommended for most
applications. Answer : C
A. 14.5o
B. 21 o
C. 20 o
D. 16 o
6. The contact ratio of a pair of mating spur gears must be well over ______ to insure a smooth
transfer of load from one pair of teeth to the next pair. Answer : A
A. 1.0
B. 3.0
C. 2.0
D. 4.0

7. As general rule contact ratio should not be less than about ______. Answer : D
A. 1.1
B. 1.3
C. 1.2
D. 1.4

8. Surface roughness on active profile surfaces on gear is about _____ pitch. Answer : C
A. 30
B. 34
C. 32
D. 36

9. Tooth breakage on gear is usually a ______. Answer : A

A. a tensile fatigue
B. a contact stress
C. a crack
D. none of these

10. AGMA means Answer : D

A. American German Manufacturers Association
B. Athletic Gear Main Association
C. American Gear Metal Association
D. American Gear Manufacturers Association

11. Which of the following does not belong to the group? Answer : D
A. tooth scoring
B. tooth breakage
C. pitting
D. toughing

12. Well proportioned commercial gears with a pitch line velocity of less than _____ will normally
not score it they have a reasonably good surface finish and are properly lubricated. Answer : B
A. 6000 fpm
B. 7000 fpm
C. 6500 fpm
D. 8000 fpm

13. Experimental data from actual gear unit measurements are seldom repeatable within a plus or
minus _____ band. Answer : A
A. 5%
B. 15%
C. 10%
D. 20%
14. Pitting is a function of the Hertzian contact stresses between two cylinders and is proportional to
the square root of the ______. Answer : A
A. applied load
B. the contact stress
C. the stress
D. impact

15. When an excitation frequency coincides with a natural frequency. Answer : B

A. unity
B. resonance
C. obliquity
D. sinusoidal

16. The average tooth stiffness constant of face is usually Answer : A

A. 1.5 to 2 psi
B. 5 to 6 psi
C. 3 to 4 psi
D. 7.5 to 10 psi

17. Cast iron shall not be used over Answer : D

A. 420oF
B. 430oF
C. 440oF
D. 450oF

18. When the number of teeth in a pair of meshing gears are such that they do not have a common
divisor. Answer : D
A. dummy
B. LCD
C. addit
D. hunting

19. For internal gears having a 20o pressure angle and full depth teeth, the difference between the
number of teeth in a gear and pinion should not be less than ______. Answer : C
A. 10
B. 14
C. 12
D. 16

20. Zero bevel gears of 20 degrees angle should have a pinion either no less than ______. Answer : B
A. 15 teeth
B. 17 teeth
C. 16 teeth
D. 18 teeth

21. _____ are machine elements that transmit notion by means of successively engaging teeth.
Answer : D
A. shaft
B. sprocket
C. spline
D. gear
22. Height of tooth above pitch circle or the distance between the pitch circle and the top of the tooth.
Answer : A
A. addendum
B. dedendum
C. total depth
D. root depth

23. The circle that bounds the outer ends of the teeth. Answer : C
A. root circle
B. pitch circle
C. addendum circle
D. dedendum circle

24. Arc of the pitch circle through which a tooth travels from the first point of contact with the mating
tooth to the pitch point. Answer : B
A. line of action
B. arc ol action
C. arc of circle
D. pitch arc

25. Is the angle through which the gear turns from the time a given pair of teeth are in contact at the
pitch point until they pass out the mesh. Answer : D
A. angle of contact
B. angle of approach
C. position angle
D. angle of recess

26. Is the angle through which the gear turns from the time a particular pair of teeth come into contact
until they go out the contact. Answer : B
A. pitch angle
B. angle of action
C. angle of approach
D. none of these

27. Is the angle through which the gear turns from the time a particular pair of teeth come into contact
until they are in contact at the pitch point. Answer : A
A. angle of approach
B. angle of recess
C. angle of contact
D. angle of tangent

28. Arc of the circle through which a tooth travels lrom the point ol contact with the mating tooth to
the pitch point. Answer : C
A. angle of arc
B. arch of contact
C. arc of approach
D. none of the above
29. The ratio of the arc of approach to the arc of action. Answer : C
A. ratio and proportion
B. contact ratio
C. approach ratio
D. arc ratio

30. In a pair of gears it is the plane that contains the two axes, in a single gear, it may be any plane
containing the axis and the given point. Answer : A
A. axial plane
B. pitch plane
C. surface plane
D. bottom land

31. Arc of the pitch circle through which a tooth travels from its contact with the mating tooth at the
pitch point to the point where the contact ceases. Answer : A
A. arc of recess
B. arc of approach
C. arc of contact
D. arc of intersection

32. The amount by which the width of the tooth space exceeds the thickness of the engaging tooth on
the pitch circles. Answer : B
A. clearance
B. backlash
C. difference
D. tooth difference

33. The circle from which an involute tooth is generated or developed. Answer : D
A. pitch circle
B. contact circle
C. addendum circle
D. base circle

34. The angle, at the base cylinder if an involute gear, that the tooth makes with the gear axis. Answer
:C
A. pitch angle
B. approach angle
C. helix angle
D. None of these

35. In an involute gear it is the pitch on the base circle or along the line of action. Answer : D
A. critical pitch
B. helix pitch
C. diametral pitch
D. base pitch

36. Is the base pitch in the normal plane. Answer : A

A. normal base pitch
B. tangential pitch
C. total pitch
D. intersecting pitch
37. Is the base pitch in the axial plane. Answer : A
A. axial base pitch
B. cone pitch
C. radial pitch
D. linear pitch

38. The distance between the parallel axes of spur gears and parallel helical gears, or between the
crossed axes of helical gears and worm gears. Answer : D
A. vertical distance
B. horizontal distance
C. displacement
D. center distance

39. In a worm gear this is a plane perpendicular to the gear axis and contains the common
perpendicular of the gear and the worm axis. Answer : B
A. Inner plane
B. central plane
C. pitch plane
D. angular plane

40. Length of the chord subtended by the circular thickness arc. Answer : D
A. chordal thickness
B. tooth thickness
C. space thickness
D. flank thickness

41. The height from the top of the tooth to the chord subtending the circular-thickness arc.
Answer : C
A. addendum height
B. tangential height
C. chordal addendum
D. addendum circle

42. Length of the arc of the pitch circle between the centers or other corresponding points of the
adjacent teeth. Answer : B
A. pitch arc
B. circular pitch
C. circular arc
D. contact arc

43. The smallest diameter on a gear tooth with which the mating gear makes contact. Answer : D
A. inside diameter
B. outside diameter
C. nominal diameter
D. contact diameter
44. The maximum compressive stress within the contact area between mating gear tooth profiles.
Answer : A
A. contact stress
B. hoop stress
C. bearing stress
D. tangential stress

45. The lowest permissible water level shall be at a point _____of the height of the shell. Answer : B
A. ½
B. 1/3
C. ¼
D. 1/5

46. Is the circular pitch in the normal plane. Answer : D

A. circular pitch
B. diametral pitch
C. pitch circle
D. normal circular pitch

47. Also known as tooth thickness or the length of the arc between the two sides of a gear tooth, on
the pitch circles unless otherwise specified. Answer : C
A. tooth thickness
B. space thickness
C. circular thickness
D. clearance thickness

48. The amount by which the dedendum exceeds the addendum of the mating tooth. Answer : B
A. difference
B. clearance
C. backlash
D. none of these

49. The smallest diameter on a gear tooth with which the mating gear makes. Answer : D
A. pitch diameter
B. circular diameter
C. tangential diameter
D. central diameter

50. The ratio of the arc of action to the circular pitch. Answer : D
A. approach ratio
B. conjugate ratio
C. approach ratio
D. contact ratio

51. Are the curves that satisfy the law of gearing. Answer : B
A. involute curve
B. conjugate curve
C. fillet curve
D. bottom land curve
52. The curved formed by the path of a point on a circle as it rolls along a straight line. Answer : D
A. epicycloid
B. trochoid
C. hypocycloid
D. cycloid

53. The depth of tooth space below the pitch circle or the radial dimension between the pitch circle
and the bottom of the tooth space. Answer : A
A. dedendum
B. addendum
C. total depth
D. pitch depth

54. Is also known as root circle or is the circle that bounds the bottoms of the teeth. Answer : C
A. pitch circle
B. addendum circle
C. dedendum circle
D. curve circle

55. The ratio of the number of teeth to the number of millimeters of pitch diameter. Answer : C
A. modula
B. circular pitch
C. diametral pitch
D. none of the above

56. Is the diametral pitch calculated in the normal plane and is equal to the pitch divided by the cosine
of helix angle. Answer : B
A. tangential diametral pitch
B. normal diametral pitch
C. flank pitch
D. none of these

57. That portion of the face width that actually comes into contact with mating teeth, as occasionally
one member of a pair of gears may have a greater lace width than the other. Answer : D
A. backlash
B. top land
C. pitch land
D. effective face width

58. The actual torque ratio of a gear set divided by its gear ratio. Answer : D
A. ratio and proportion
B. contact ratio
C. stress ratio
D. efficiency

59. When it rolls along the outer side of another circle. Answer : D
A. helix
B. involute
C. cycloid
D. epicycloid
60. A gear with teeth on the outer cylindrical surface. Answer : C
A. internal gear
B. central gear
C. external gear
D. worm gear

61. That surface of the tooth which is between the pitch circles to the top of the tooth. Answer : C
A. bottom land
B. top land
C. face of tooth
D. surface of tooth

62. The length of the teeth in axial plane. Answer : C

A. tooth thickness
B. clearance
C. face width
D. clearance

63. Is the surface of the tooth between the pitch cylinder and the addendum cylinder. Answer : B
A. surface
B. face
C. contact
D. none of the above

64. The concave portion of the tooth profile where it joins the bottom of the tooth space. The
approximate radius of this is called the curve fillet radius. Answer : A
A. fillet curve
B. conjugate curve
C. half curve
D. none of these

65. The maximum tensile stress in the gear tooth fillet. Answer : D
A. contact stress
B. bearing stress
C. hoop stress
D. fillet stress

66. That surface which is between the pitch circle and the bottom land. Answer : C
A. flank
B. surface finish
C. flank of tooth
D. none of these

67. Is the surface of the tooth between the pitch and root cylinders Answer : C
A. flank
B. surface finish
C. flank of tooth
D. none of these
68. Is the number of teeth in the gear divided by the number of teeth in the pinion. Answer : C
A. diametral pitch ratio
B. tooth ratio
C. gear ratio
D. none of these

69. The angle that a helical gear tooth makes the gear axis. Answer : C
A. pitch angle
B. worm angle
C. helix angle
D. none of the above

70. The effective face width of a helical gear divided by the gear axial pitch Answer : C
A. rivet overlap
B. welded overlap
C. helical overlap
D. none of these

71. When it rolls along the inner side of another circle Answer : A
A. hypocycloid
B. cycloid
C. trochoid
D. involute

72. The diameter of a circle coinciding with the tops of the teeth on an internal gear. Answer : A
A. internal diameter
B. external diameter
C. pitch diameter
D. none of these

73. A gear with teeth on the inner cylindrical surface. Answer : A

A. internal gear
B. external gear
C. involute gear
D. none of these

74. The curved formed by the path of a point on a straight line, called the generatrix, as it rolls along a
convex base curve. Answer : B
A. helix
B. involute
C. trochoid
D. pitch

75. Is the top surface of the tooth. Answer : A

A. top land
B. bottom land
C. surface land
D. island
76. Is the surface of the gear between the fillets of adjacent teeth. Answer : D
A. top land
B. common land
C. stress land
D. bottom land

77. The distance a helical gear or worm would thread along its axis one revolution of it were free to
move axially Answer : B
A. pitch
B. lead
C. speed
D. none of these

78. The path of contact in involute gears. It is a straight line passing through the pitch point and the
tangent to the base circles. Answer : B
A. contact action
B. line of action
C. approach action
D. approach contact

79. The distance on an involute line of action through which the point of contact moves during the
action of the tooth profile. Answer : B
A. distance of action
B. length of action
C. line of action
D. approach action

80. Is the ratio of pitch diameter in millimeter to the number of teeth, mm. Answer : B
A. diametral pitch
B. module
C. circular pitch
D. none of these

81. A plane normal to the tooth surfaces at a point of contact, and perpendicular to the pitch plane.
Answer : A
A. normal plane
B. pitch plane
C. x and y plane
D. tangential plane

82. The diameter of the outside circle. Answer : D

A. pitch diameter
B. inside diameter
C. inner diameter
D. outside diameter
83. The distance between similar, equally spaced tooth surfaces, in a given direction and along a
given curve or line. Answer : D
A. axial
B. arc
C. lead
D. pitch

84. Is the angle subtended by the arc on the pitch circle equal in the length to the circular pitch.
Answer : C
A. helix angle
B. contact angle
C. pitch angle
D. cone angle

85. The diameter of the pitch circle. Answer : D

A. addendum diameter
B. dedendum diameter
C. stress area diameter
D. pitch diameter

86. A circle the radius of which is equal to the distance from the gear axis to the pitch point.
Answer: D
A. addendum circle
B. dedendum circle
C. root circle
D. pitch circle

87. Of meshing gears is the point of tangency of the pitch circle. Answer: B
A. conjugate point
B. pitch point
C. west point
D. none of these

88. In a pair of gears it is the plane perpendicular to the axial plane and tangent to the axial plane and
tangent to the pitch surfaces. Answer: B
A. addendum plane
B. pitch plane
C. surface
D. none of the above

89. Any plane perpendicular to a gear axis. Answer: A

A. plane of rotation
B. axial plane
C. tangential plane
D. none of these
90. The angle between the tooth profile and a radical line at its pitch point. In involute teeth, the angle
between the line of action and the line tangent to the pitch circle. Answer: B
A. pitch angle
B. pressure angle
C. contact angle
D. helix angle

91. These are the pitch plane, axial plane, and traverse plane, all intersect at a point and mutually
perpendicular. Answer: C
A. reference plane
B. pitch plane
C. principal reference plane
D. contrast

92. A gear with teeth spaced along a straight line, and suitable for straight line motion. Answer: B
A. rock
B. rack
C. space width
D. none of these

93. The angle subtended at the center ol the base circle from teeth origin of an involute to the point of
tangency of the generatrix from any point on the same involute. Answer: D
A. pitch angle
B. helix angle
C. control angle
D. roll angle

94. A circle coinciding with or tangent to the bottoms of the tooth spaces. Answer: B
A. minimum circle
B. root circle
C. outside circle
D. none of these

95. A plane tangent to the surfaces at a point or line of contact. Answer: A

A. tangent plane
B. normal plane
C. control plane
D. none of these

96. An arbitrary modification of a tooth profile whereby a small amount of material is removed near
the tip of the gear tooth. Answer: C
A. tip
B. relief
C. tip relief
D. undercut

97. The width of tooth measured along the pitch circle. Answer: A
A. tooth thickness
B. space thickness
C. chordal thickness
D. none of these
 98. The space between the teeth measured along the pitch circle. Answer: D
A. three dimensional space
B. contact space
C. free space
D. tooth space

99. The actual width dimensions of a gear blank. Answer: B

A. difference face with
B. total face width
C. face width
D. none of these

100. Is the radial distance from the addendum circle to the working depth circle. Answer: C
A. whole depth
B. addendum depth
C. working depth
D. none of these

Part 2: Machine Design Elements-Test 4

1. The length of L, of a column divided by r is one of the terms in the equation for the buckling of a
column under compression loads. What does r stand for in the L/R ratio? Answer: B
A. radius of the column
B. radius of gyration
C. moment of inertia
D. slenderness

2. All of the following are nondestructive tests except Answer: D

A. ultrasonic tests.
B. infrared inspection tests.
C. Shore hardness tests.
D. Mohrs tests.

3. The machinery operation whereby done with the work accurately fastened has a reciprocating
(forward and backward) motion and the tool head is stationary. Answer: B
A. shaping
B. planing
C. turning
D. reaming

4. Finding the resultant of two or more forces is called: Answer: D

A. coplanar forces
B. non-coplanar forces
C. couple
D. composition force

5. The capacity of metal to withstand load without breaking is: Answer: A

A. strength
B. stress
C. elasticity
D. strain
6. Outstanding safety record contributes to: Answer: A
A. High productivity and quality of work
B. Outstanding performance that expects reward from management
C. Confidence in foreman's ability to perform well
D. Pride and enthusiasm to one-self

7. A type of coupling that allows slight amount of torsional/angular flexibility due to introduction
with some elastic material cylindrically wrapped around the bolts in the flange. Answer: B
A. Simple elastic bonded coupling
B. Elastic-material bushed coupling
C. Elastic material bonded coupling
D. All of these

8. In a uniformly loaded beam, the maximum vertical shearing force occurs Answer: D
A. at the center
B. at the section of maximum moment
C. at beam bottom fiber
D. at either end support

9. Copper and most of its alloy can be hardened by: Answer: B

A. patenting
B. cold working
C. case hardening
D. soaking

10. What happens to a drill if the operating speed is too fast? Answer: C
A. drill will crack
B. drill will become overheated and will bend
C. drill will become overheated and will be drawn from the steel
D. drill will become very dull and wear fast

11. All of the following are destructive hardness tests except Answer: C
A. Mohrs tests.
B. file hardness tests.
C. Shore hardness tests.
D. cutting hardness tests.

12. The section modulus of a rectangle of base "b" and height "h" about its base is: Answer: A
A. bh2/6
B. bh3/3
C. bh2/12
D. bh3/12

13. A material that should be avoided in constructing wood pattern : Answer: A

A. sap wood
B. kiln dried wood
C. heart wood
D. core portion of wood
14. The gradual chemical reaction by other substances such that the metal is converted to an oxide or
other compounds: Answer: A
A. corrosion
B. cheaping
C. rusting
D. weathering

15. The center of gravity of a solid pyramid or cone with a total height of H is: Answer: A
A. ¼ H
B. 3/5 H
C. 1/3 H
D. 1/2 H

16. Which does not belong to foundry or metal casting shop? Answer: D
A. shake-out machine
B. molding machine
C. core-making
D. forging machine

17. What is the property of a material which resists forces acting to pull the material apart?
Answer: B
A. shear strength
B. tensile strength
C. torsional strength
D. compressive strength

18. Hardness tests measure Answer: C

A. ultimate strength
B. toughness
C. capacity of a surface to resist deformation
D. fatigue strength

19. What is the difference between brass and bronze? Answer: A

A. Brass is composed of copper and zinc while bronze is composed of copper and tin
B. Brass is composed of copper and zinc while bronze is basically copper and tin plus
nonferrous alloy such as manganese, aluminum, chromium.
C. Bronze is reddish in color white brass is a mixture of copper and antimony
D. Bronze is mostly an alloy of copper and tin while brass is a mixture of copper and
antimony

20. The first derivative with respect to velocity of kinetic energy is: Answer: C
A. power
B. energy
C. momentum
D. none of these
21. The board should submit to the Commission _____ the ratings obtained by each candidate within
days after the examination. Answer: C
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20

22. Types of V-belts to use in a driving pulley with speed of 360 rpm and transmitting 5 hp:
Answer: B
A. Type C belts
B. Type B belts
C. Type A belts
D. Type D belts

23. The grade of Mechanical engineering that could handle 250 kw. Answer: D
A. CPM
B. CPM & ME
C. PME
D. CPM, ME, PME

24. A liquid metal: Answer: A

A. mercury
B. lead
C. zinc
D. aluminum

25. An object thrown upward will return to earth with the rnagnitude of the termirral velocity equal
to: Answer: D
A. zero
B. one-half the initial velocity
C. twice the initial velocity
D. the initial velocity

26. Used in conjunction with circular cross sectional numbers to retain oil and prevent dirt, foreign
particles, moisture and to permit pressure differential between exterior and interior of the applied
part: Answer: A
A. seal
B. gasket
C. safety shield
D. packing

27. Commonly used in transmission especially when continuous section is essential as drives up to
12, 000 fpm: Answer: B
A. bevel gear
B. herringbone gear
C. spur gear
D. helical gear
28. The hardness of helical and herringbone gear teeth after heat treatment is 210 to 300 Brinell
Hardness, for gear and pinion is at: Answer: B
A. 360 Brinell min
B. 400 Brinell max
C. 340-350 normally
D. all of the above

29. One of the power and duties of the Board is to in connection with the successful examines
entering the practice of Mechanical Engineering. Answer: D
A. supervise
B. give duty
C. seal
D. administer oath

30. What is the difference between a shaper and a planer? Answer: A

A. the tool of the shaper moves while on the planer is stationary
B. the shaper can perform slotting operation while the planer cannot
C. the shaper handles large pieces while the planer handles only small pieces
D. the tool of the shaper moves in reciprocating motion while the tool in the planer
moves in rotary motion

31. What are the metal characteristics to withstand forces that cause twisting? Answer: A
A. torsional strength
B. modulus of elasticity
C. twisting moment
D. elasticity

32. In greater quantity this element is harmful to the ferrous metal: Answer: A
A. sulfur
B. silicon
C. zinc
D. aluminum

33. To prevent leakage in dynamic seal: Answer: D

A. gaskets
B. seals
C. felts
D. packings

34. It has molybdenum alloy except: Answer: B

A. SAE 43xx
B. SAE 41xx
C. SAE 6xxx
D. SAE 5xxx

35. A type of gear tooth cut inside a cylinder or ring: Answer: D

A. rack gear
B. ring gear
C. miter gear
D. internal gear
36. Flexible material used to seal pressurized fluids, normally under dynamic condition: Answer: D
A. nylon
B. seal
C. teflon
D. packing

37. Cast alloy steel for very high temperature application: Answer: C
A. manganese-nickel steel castings
B. high chrome steel casting
C. chrome-nickel steel casting
D. high manganese casting

38. What heat treatment process can cast steel materials of high chrome; high manganese etc. type
steel is subjected for the purpose of machining process? Answer: A
A. annealing
B. tempering
C. normalizing
D. quenching

39. Galvanized steel plate is a plate coated with: Answer: C

A. aluminum
B. tin
C. zinc
D. manganese

40. Major component of bronze casting: Answer: A

A. copper
B. manganese
C. zinc
D. lead

41. Split pulley or pulley made of separate sections bolted together at the rim, speed should be limited
to about _____ % maximum speed of solid pulley. Answer: C
A. 65 to 75 %
B. 45 to 50 %
C. 55 to 60 %
D. 8O to 90 %

42. Fillet radius in machine parts is usually introduced to: Answer: B

A. improve the look of the Parts
B. reduce concentration of stress and extend life of the parts
C. to avoid obstruction
D. necessary to lessen casting weights

43. Type of bolt commonly used in the construction that is threaded in both ends: Answer: A
A. stud bolt
B. acme threaded bolts
C. square threaded bolts
D. hex bolts
44. Allotropes have the same chemical composition but different Answer: D
A. crystalline structures
B. densities
C. electrical resistance
D. all of the above

45. A hydrostatic bearing is one which: Answer: A

A. the lube oil is supplied under pressure
B. lube oil is not pressurized
C. there is no lube oil
D. bearing is lightly loaded

46. One of the following materials is unsuitable as a bearing: Answer: B

A. teflon
B. low carbon steel
C. cast iron
D. nylon

47. Safety features that must be placed and maintained at machine, blacksmith, welding and foundry
shop: Answer: C
A. safety goggle
B. walkway guide
C. safely notices in markings
D. all of these

48. The angle, at the base cylinder of an involving gear that the tooth makes with the gear axis:
Answer: A
A. base helix angle
B. pressure angle
C. arc or recess
D. arc of approach

49. A kind of thread that is generally used: Answer: B

A. UNEC
B. UNC
C. UNF
D. UNEF

50. Which is not the generally used standard: Answer: C

A. ASTM
B. SAE
C. IPS
D. AISI

51. Alloy steel known for its resistance to corrosion, abrasion and wear that is usually ideal for mill
grinding of ore in cement and concentrator application. It is usally combined with molybdenum to
increase the depth hardening. Answer: B
A. manganese chromium steel
B. chromium molybdenum steel
C. chrome-nickel steel
D. manganese-moly steel
52. Commonly utilized/cheapest shaft material available in the market with carbon content of 0.28 to
0.34 %C. Answer: C
A. SAE 4132
B. SAE 4320
C. SAE 1030
D. SAE 4130

53. The buckling load of intermediate columns (too tall to be, but too short to be slender columns) can
be determined by Answer: C
A. the Euler load with fixed-end conditions
B. computing allowable stress from yield strength
C. computing allowable stress form the ultimate strength
D. the secant formula

54. Accident prevention is: Answer: C

A. an association of employers, organization and individuals
B. a job of a safety director
C. the foreman’s responsibility just as much as production
D. the responsibility of top management

55. Process to relieve the internal stresses in the manufacture of steel include all of the following
except Answer: D
A. full annealing processes
B. normalizing processes
C. tempering processes
D. carburizing processes

56. A type of welding whereby a wire or powder from the nozzle of a spray gun is fused by a gas
flame, arc or plasma jet and the molten particles are projected in a form of a spray by means of
compressed air or gas. Answer: D
A. electro-slug welding
B. electro-beam welding
C. plasma-arc welding
D. metal spray welding

57. The addition of steel to concrete is primarily to Answer: C

A. increase material density
B. increase torsional strength
C. increase tensile strength
D. increase abrasion resistance

58. A boiler that has a maximum allowable working pressure of 7.03 kg/cm2, 405 mm inside diameter
and 1,065 mm overall length. Answer: D
A. power boiler
B. locomotive boiler
C. steam boiler
D. miniature boiler
59. The length of arc between the two sides of a gear tooth on the pitch circle: Answer: A
A. circular thickness
B. axial plane
C. helix angle
D. chordal angle

60. It is hardening treatment whereby a cast metal is being heated to a very high temperature then
suddenly subjected to rapid cooling to improve hardenability or wear resistance is called:
Answer: A
A. normalizing
B. axial plane
C. quenching
D. annealing

61. To reduce cost in the manufacturing of large worm gears the materials to utilize: Answer: B
A. alloyed aluminum rim with cast iron spider
B. bronze rim with cast steel spider
C. all of these
D. cast iron with bronze spider

62. The purpose of re-crystallization of all metals is to Answer: C

A. increase hardness and ductility
B. increase the amount of alloying ingredient absorbed by the solid mixture
C. relieve stresses induced during cold working
D. reduce the temperature of the mixture below the eutectic line

63. SAE steel that responds to heat treatment Answer: B

A. SAE 1060
B. SAE1117
C. SAE 1030
D. SAE 1020

64. A circle bounding the bottoms of the teeth: Answer: D

A. addendum circle
B. addendum cylinder
C. pitch circle
D. dedendum circle

65. All of the following are characteristics of coarse-grained structures except Answer: D
A. less toughness
B. less ductility
C. more machinability
D. less corrosion resistance

66. An oil storage tank roof formed to approximately a spherical surface, supported only at its
periphery: Answer: A
A. self-supporting umbrella roof
B. self-supporting cone roof
C. self-supporting
D. supported cone roof
67. Test sometimes referred to as an upsetting test: Answer: A
A. Bend
B. Flaring
C. Flange
D. Crush

68. An oil storage roof formed to approximately the surface of a right cone, supported only at its
periphery: Answer: D
A. self-supporting umbrella roof
B. self-supporting dome roof
C. supported cone roof
D. self-supporting cone roof

69. Have the same thermal and minimum film thickness limitation as sleeve bearing: Answer: C
A. ball bearing
B. roller bearing
C. thrust bearing
D. oil whip

70. Test is designed primarily for application to electric-welded tubing for detection of lack of
penetration or overlaps resulting from flash removal in the weld: Answer: C
A. butt weld
B. paste
C. lap weld
D. double butt weld

71. Is a form of correction that develop on a highly localized areas on a metal surface: Answer: D
A. crevice
B. erosion
C. galvanic
D. apitting

72. The deterioration of organic coating characterized as completely: Answer: A

A. chalking
B. crusting
C. checking
D. fritting

73. Color code of air pipe Answer: A

A. light blue
B. black
C. violet
D. orange

74. A machine used for the testing of very thin steel or surface layers: Answer: D
A. charpy test
B. izod test
C. Description
D. Rockwell superficial
75. Schedule 80 pipe refers to Answer: A
A. extra strong wall pipe
B. extra standard
C. extra pressure
D. none of these

76. The temperature above which the alloy is liquid and will run: Answer: A
A. melting point
B. flow point
C. pour point
D. liquidus

77. A weld made to hold the parts of a weldment in proper alignment until the final welds are made:
Answer: B
A. butt weld
B. tack weld
C. fillet weld
D. full-fillet weld

78. Is used to enable milling machine to take climb milling cuts: Answer: A
A. helical driving mechanism
B. spindle
C. read out
D. backlash eliminator

79. The total amount of permanent extension of the gage length measured after the specimen has
fractured and is expressed as percentage increase of the original gage length: Answer: A
A. elongation
B. strain
C. stress
D. elastic limit

80. It refers to any layer or deposit of extraneous material on a heat transfer surface: Answer: C
A. low line
B. pressure drop
C. fouling
D. scaling

81. Steels containing large amounts of mild nickel and chromium: Answer: B
A. carbon steel
B. stainless steel
C. alloy steel
D. cast steel

82. The corrosion of iron or iron-base alloys: Answer: A

A. rusting
B. crazing
C. chalking
D. fritting
83. The ratio of stress to the corresponding strain below the proportional limit: Answer: C
A. stress-strain diagram
B. gage method
C. modulus of elasticity
D. tensile strength

84. A fillet weld whose size is equal to the thickness of the thinner joint member: Answer: D
A. butt weld
B. tack weld
C. Butt weld
D. full-fillet weld

85. A bevel gear of the same size mounted on shafts at 90 deg: Answer: D
A. crown gears
B. spur gears
C. angular gears
D. miter gears

86. Gearing in which the motion or power that is transmitted depends upon the friction between the
surface in contact: Answer: D
A. bevel cones
B. spur friction wheels
C. evans friction cones
D. friction gearing

87. Wheels are sometimes used for the transmission of high power when an approximately constant
velocity ratio is desired: Answer: C
A. bevel cones
B. friction gearing
C. spur friction wheels
D. evans friction cones

88. A corrosion occurs within the or adjacent to a crevice formed by contact with another piece of the
same or another metal: Answer: B
A. pitting
B. galvanic
C. erosion
D. crevice

89. A weld of approximately triangular cross-section that join two surfaces at approximately right
angles as in lap joint, tee joint, corner joint: Answer: B
A. single welded lap joint
B. fillet weld
C. tack weld
D. butt weld

90. An alloy of tin, copper, antimony, sometimes lead: Answer: B

A. gold
B. babbit
C. aluminum
D. cast iron
91. A weld place in a groove between two abuting members: Answer: C
A. full-fillet weld
B. tack weld
C. butt weld
D. fillet weld

92. A test for pipe used tor coiling in sizes 2 inches: Answer: D
A. Flaring
B. Crush
C. Flange
D. Bend

93. The follower reciprocates or oscillates in a plane parallel to the axis of rotation: Answer: B
A. cam curves
B. cylindrical cam
C. tangential cam
D. radial cam

94. Strength of a material that is of a stress intensity determined by considering the maximum test
load to act over the original area of the test specimens: Answer: B
A. yield point
B. ultimate strength
C. breaking strength
D. elastic limit

95. The follower reciprocates or oscillates in a plane perpendicular to the axis of rotation of the
Answer: A
A. radial cam
B. cylindrical cam
C. cam curves
D. tangential cam

96. Imparts of reciprocating motion to a single point cutting tool: Answer: B

A. dividing head
B. slotting attachment
C. circular pitch
D. circular milling attachment

97. A joint between two overlapping members in which the overlapped edge of one member is
welded with a fillet weld: Answer: A
A. a single welded lap joint
B. double-welded lap joint
C. a single-welded lap joint with backing
D. tack weld

98. Weld-metal impact specimen shall be taken across the weld with one lace substantially parallel to
and within: Answer: C
A. ¾ in
B. 1/32 in
C. ¼ in
D. 1/16 in
 99. The maximum stress which is reached during a tension test: Answer: D
A. stress
B. elasticity
C. strain
D. tensile strength

100. If gears cannot connect parallel shafts, they are called: Answer: A
A. cycloidal gears
B. helical gears
C. spur gears
D. toothed gears

Part 2: Machine Design Elements-Test 5

1. The size of an equal-leg length fillet weld shaft be based on the length of the largest: Answer: A
A. isosceles right triangle
B. square
C. right triangle
D. rectangle

2. Milling machine accessories are used to hold milling cutter in the milling machine: Answer: D
A. spindle-nose tooling
B. milling machine vise
C. vertical milling attachment
D. milling machine arbors

3. The cheapest and the most abundant engineering material: Answer: C

A. steel
B. aluminum
C. cast iron
D. babbit

4. They are usually the steel or steel casting: Answer: B

A. mild steel
B. carbon steel
C. firebox steel
D. drop-forge-dies

5. An important accessory of milling machines: Answer: B

A. milling machine vise
B. cutters
C. ram
D. vertical milling attachment

6. Gears used to transmit power between shafts axis of which intersects: Answer: B
A. spur gear
B. bevel gear
C. helical gear
D. straight bevel gear
7. An iron has physical closely resembling those of mild steel: Answer: A
A. malleable cast iron
B. malleable iron
C. white iron
D. gray iron

8. The space between the adjacent teeth: Answer: D

A. tooth
B. backlash
C. flank
D. width

9. An iron in which most of the carbon is chemically combined with the iron: Answer: C
A. cast iron
B. gray iron
C. white iron
D. malleable iron

10. A machine used in testing steel generally strike the specimen with an energy from 220 to 265 ft-lb
Answer: B
A. Izod test
B. Charpy test
C. Rockwell lest
D. Test blocks

11. The area in the machine shop whose metal is being melted to form a new shape is the: Answer: A
A. foundry area
B. tool and die
C. welding area
D. mass production area

12. Which of the following is not the work of the machinist: Answer: B
A. re-boring
B. overhauling
C. grinding
D. boring

13. The machine which can flatten surface on a horizontal, vertical or angular plane is: Answer: B
A. drilling machine
B. shaper machine
C. power saw
D. lathe machine

14. Which of the following is not pad of a lathe machine: Answer: A

A. fan
B. carriage
C. headstock
D. tailstock
15. One important skill that operators of machine tools must have an understanding of measurement
which demands: Answer: C
A. speed
B. neatness
C. precision
D. sociability

16. Which of the following metals is non-magnetic? Answer: A

A. manganese steel
B. cast steel
C. alloy steel
D. cast iron

17. Which tool does not belong to the group? Answer: B

A. vise grip
B. feeler gage
C. torque wrench
D. adjustable wrench

18. What process does not belong to the group? Answer: C

A. brazing
B. soldering
C. hardening
D. resistance welding

19. A machinery operation whereby the tool rotates while the feed is stationary: Answer: B
A. shaping
B. milling
C. turning
D. reaming

20. Which of the following is not a kind of cast iron? Answer: D

A. gray iron
B. white iron
C. malleable iron
D. lead iron

21. Which of the following is not used to temper steel? Answer: C

A. oil bath
B. brine/salt bath
C. steam bath
D. water bath

22. Which of the following is not a part of a headstock? Answer: A

A. anvil
B. spindle
C. motor
D. back gear
23. The ability of material or metal to resist being crushed is: Answer: D
A. fatigue strength
B. bending strength
C. torsional strength
D. compressive strength

24. Which of the chisel? Answer: D

A. alloy steel
B. manganese steel
C. stainless steel
D. cast iron

25. Ferrous metal amount of: Answer: B

A. manganese
B. carbon
C. sulfur
D. phosphorous

26. Which of the following is not a classification of iron ore: Answer: C

A. siderite
B. hematite
C. sulfurite
D. magnetite

27. All of the following materials are used in the quenching process for steel manufacturing except
Answer: C
A. air
B. brine
C. hydrogen
D. water

28. Hearingbone gears are gears which: Answer: B

A. do not operate on parallel shafts
B. have a line of contact between the teeth
C. tend to produce and trust on the shafts
D. consist of two left handed helical gears

29. Steel used as a wire in concrete is for Answer: C

A. increased material density
B. increased yield strength
C. shrinkage and expansion control
D. increased abrasion resistance

30. The internal stresses existing in a welded connection are Answer: C

A. relieved by x-ray analysis
B. may be relieved when the weld is peened
C. not relieved when the weld is peened
D. not relieved by heat treatment
31. In the usual spur gearing, the: Answer: D
A. pitch circle and base circle are the same
B. working depth includes the clearance
C. tooth outline are always cycloidal curves
D. tooth outline are usually involute curves

32. One of the following is not common terms relating to the classification of fits: Answer: D
A. tunking
B. snug
C. medium force lit
D. bound

33. The use of mixtures (hydrated lime, fly ash, etc.) with concrete is to Answer: C
A. reduce weight
B. increase durability
C. improve workability, hardening, or strength characteristics
D. accelerate curing

34. Stainless steel is obtained principally be the used of which alloying elements: Answer: A
A. chromium
B. nickel
C. carbon
D. tungsten

35. It is generally recommended and normal tor a designer to add a hunting tooth to evenly distribute
the wear on meshing teeth like a 53 teeth gears mesh with 30 teeth pinion. Find the rotation of
pinion to mesh with same pair of teeth again. Answer: D
A. 120
B. 81
C. 61
D. 53

36. A machining operation whereby the tool reciprocates and the feed is stationary is called:
Answer: B
A. Planing
B. Shaping
C. Turning
D. Reaming

37. One of the following metals which respond to heat treatment: Answer: C
A. cast iron
B. wrought iron
C. medium carbon steel
D. low carbon steel

38. Schedule 40 pipe refers to Answer: C

A. stress
B. low quality
C. standard wall pipe
D. standard diameter
39. Which of the following is not a strength property of metals? Answer: B
A. tensile strength
B. rocking strength
C. fatigue strength
D. torsional strength

40. A machine used in shaping metal by means of abrasive wheel or the removal of metals with an
abrasive is called: Answer: D
A. planer machine
B. power saw
C. shaper machine
D. grinding machine

41. Which of the following is not a kind of mandrel? Answer: C

A. expansion mandrel
B. taper mandrel
C. contraction mandrel
D. gang mandrel

42. The kind of center which is being attached meshed to the tailstock spindle which is also static
while the work is rotating is: Answer: A
A. dead center
B. live center
C. focal center
D. work center

43. Which of the following is the only allotropic alloy of steel? Answer: D
A. aluminum alloys
B. copper alloys
C. magnesium
D. iron-carbon alloys

44. During the quenching process in heat treating steel, agitation of the fluids used in the quenching
has what effect on the severity of the quenching? Answer: A
A. increases quenching severity
B. decreases quenching severity
C. has no effect on quenching severity
D. reverses quenching severity

45. The ratio of average shear stress to maximum shear stress for a circular section equal to:
Answer: D
A. 2
B. 2/3
C. 3/2
D. ¾
46. When a solid cube is subjected to equal normal forces of the same type on all its faces. The ratio
of volumetric strain/linear strain along any of the three axes will be equal to: Answer: D
A. 1
B. 2
C. √3
D. 3

47. The ratio of Bulk modulus to shear modulus for Poisson's ratio of 0.25 will be equal to:
Answer: C
A. 3/2
B. 5/6
C. 1
D. 6/3

48. The stress strain curve for a glass rod during tensile test is: Answer: D
A. A straight line
B. A parabola
C. A sudden break
D. An irregular curve

49. When shear force is zero along a section, the bending moment at that section will be: Answer: B
A. Zero
B. Minimum
C. Maximum
D. Minimum or maximum

50. The ultimate tensile stress of mild steel as compared to its ultimate compressive stress will be:
Answer: C
A. Same
B. More
C. Less
D. More or less depending on other factors

51. The intensity of stress that causes unit strain is known as: Answer: D
A. Unit stress
B. Bulk modulus
C. Modulus of rigidity
D. Modulus of elasticity

52. For steel, the ultimate strength in shear as compared to in tension is nearly: Answer: B
A. Same
B. Half
C. One-third
D. Two-third

53. Select the one that has no unit: Answer: D

A. Kinematics viscosity
B. Surface tension
C. Bulk modulus
D. Strain
54. When a part is constrained to move and heated, it develops: Answer: C
A. Principal stress
B. Tensile stress
C. Compressive stress
D. Shear stress

55. The tensile stress of a material is given by: Answer: A

A. Maximum load during test over original cross-sectional area
B. Average load during test over original cross-sectional area
C. Maximum load during test over Area at the time of fracture
D. Average load during the test over the area at the time of fracture

56. The size of hole that is drilled in plates for riveting is: Answer: D
A. Equal to the diameter of rivet shank
B. Slightly smaller than the diameter or rivet shank
C. 5 to 2 mm smaller than the diameter of rivet for rivets of 25 mm and above size
D. 1.5 to 2 mm larger than the diameter of the rivet for rivets of 25 mm and above size

57. The horsepower that can be transmitted by a shaft 60 mm diameter at 180 rpm with permissible
shear stress of 850 kg/cm2 shall be approximately: Answer: C
A. 30-35
B. 35-50
C. 50-60
D. 60-85

58. A column is called short column when: Answer: C

A. The length is more than 30 times the diameter
B. Slenderness ratio is more than 120
C. The length is less than B times the diameter
D. The slenderness ratio is more than 32

59. Which one is the correct statement about true stress-strain method? Answer: A
A. There is no such phenomenon like true stress or true strain.
B. True stress is load per unit area (actual) and similarly true strain is determined under
actual conditions.
C. This method can be used for compression test as well
D. It is more sensitive to changes in mechanical conditions.

60. The total strain energy stored in a body is called: Answer: A

A. Resilience
B. Proof resilience
C. Modulus of resilience
D. Toughness

61. A material that is capable of absorbing a large quantity of energy before fracture is called:
Answer: B
A. Ductility
B. Toughness
C. Resilience
D. Shock proof
62. Coaxing increases the: Answer: D
A. Strength by reversible cycling
B. Corrosion resistance by spraying
C. Hardness by surface treatment
D. Fatigue resistance by over-stressing the metal successively

63. Two shafts made up of mild steel one having circular cross section and the other being hollow
circular with inner diameter half of the outer diameter. The ratio of the torque that can be
transmitted in two cases given by: Answer: D
A. 2
B. 17/16
C. 1
D. 15/16

64. For a circular shaft subjected to torque the value of shear stress is equal to: Answer: D
A. Is uniform throughout
B. Has maximum value at the axis
C. Has maximum value at the surface
D. Is zero at the axis and linearly increases to a maximum value at the surface of the
shaft.

65. In laminated spring the strips are provided in different lengths for: Answer: D
A. Economy
B. Reduction in weight
C. Improved appearance
D. Equal distribution of stress

66. Select the one for which diamond riveted joint can be adopted; Answer: A
A. Butt joint
B. Lap joint
C. Double riveted lap joints
D. All types of joints

67. Hoop stress refers to: Answer: D

A. Circumferential tensile stress
B. Compressive stress
C. Radial stress
D. Longitudinal stress

68. Modulus of rigidity can be defined as the ratio of; Answer: C

A. Linear stress to longitudinal strain
B. Stress lo volumetric strain
C. Shear stress to shear strain
D. Stress to strain

69. 1 Meganewton per square meter is equal to: Answer: D

A. 1000,000 N/mm2
B. 10,000 N/mm2
C. 100 N/mm2
D. 1 N/mm2
70. The value of shear stress changes is induced in the shaft because of the applied couple that:
Answer: B
A. From maximum at the center to zero at the circumference
B. From zero at the center to maximum at the circumference
C. From maximum at the center to minimum at the circumference
D. From minimum at the center to maximum at the circumference

71. In the design of pulley, key and shaft: Answer: B

A. All three are design for same strength
B. Key is made weaker link
C. Pulley is made weaker
D. Shaft is made weaker

72. The radial pressure and hoop tension for a thick cylinder is: Answer: A
A. Maximum at inner surface and decreases towards outer surface
B. Minimum at inner surface arid increases towards outer surface
C. Minimum at inner and outer surface and maximum in middle
D. Maximum at inner and outer surfaces and minimum in middle

73. Auto frettage is the method of: Answer: C

A. Calculating stresses in thick cylinders
B. Relieving thick cylinders
C. Pre-stressing thick cylinders
D. Increasing life of thick cylinders

74. Ties are load carrying members that carry: Answer: C

A. Torsional loads
B. Axial compressive loads
C. Axial tension loads
D. Transverse loads

75. If the areas of cross sections of square and circular beams are same and both are put to equal
bending moment, then the correct statement is: Answer: B
A. The circular beam is more economical
B. The square beam is more economical
C. Both the beams are equally strong
D. Both the beams are equally economical

76. In actual machines: Answer: C

A. Mechanical advantage is unity
B. Mechanical advantage is less than unity
C. Mechanical advantage is less than velocity ratio
D. Mechanical advantage is equal to velocity ratio

77. The essential condition of equilibrium of a body is: Answer: D

A. The algebraic sum of horizontal components of all forces must be zero
B. The algebraic sum of vertical component of all forces must be zero
C. The algebraic sum of forces about a point must be zero
D. All of the above
78. Coulomb friction is: Answer: C
A. Friction between two electrically charged bodies
B. Friction between two bodies having relative motion
C. Friction between a solid and a liquid
D. Friction between two dry surfaces

79. The coefficient of friction is equal to: Answer: D

A. The angle between the normal reaction and the resultant of normal reaction and the
limiting friction
B. The tangent of the angle between the normal reaction and the resultant of the normal
reaction and the limiting friction
C. The tangent of the angle of the net resultant force with the direction of motion
D. The tangent of the angle between the normal reaction and direction of limiting
friction

80. The limiting force of friction is equal to: Answer: C

A. The value of friction force that stops the movement of the body
B. The value of friction force that cannot exceed under a given situation
C. The fricti6n force when the body is just about to move
D. The friction force acting on a body when it is in motion

81. Ice is slippery when a man walks on it because: Answer: D

A. It has a smooth surface
B. It has no friction
C. It is very chilly
D. Increase of pressure causes it to melt

82. One joule is the same as: Answer: B

A. 108 ergs
B. 107 ergs
C. 106 ergs
D. 105 ergs

83. Static friction is: Answer: A

A. Always greater than the dynamic friction
B. Always less than the dynamic friction
C. Always equal to the dynamic friction
D. Either greater or more than the dynamic friction

84. When two forces that act at a point are such that if the direction of one is reversed, the direction of
the resultant is turned through 90o the forces must be: Answer: A
A. Equal in magnitude
B. Inclined al less than 90o
C. Inclined at more than 90o
D. Acting at 180o

85. The curve of a catenary by nature is: Answer: D

A. Ellipse
B. Hyperbolic
C. Circular
D. Parabolic
86. If the only force acting on two bodies is their mutual interactions and if both bodies start from
rest, the distance traveled by each will be a: Answer: B
A. Proportional to the masses of the bodies
B. Inversely proportional to the masses of the bodies
C. Inversely proportional to the square of the masses of the bodies
D. Directly proportional to the square of the masses of the bodies

87. Which statement is correct? Answer: C

A. A body cannot have any energy without having momentum
B. A body can have kinetic energy without having momentum
C. A body in motion will always have kinetic energy more than the potential energy
D. None of the above

88. A man is standing near the edge of a uniformly rotating platform about an axis passing through its
center. The speed of rotation of the platform will decrease if he: Answer: B
A. Moves towards the axis of rotation
B. Accepts a heavy bag from one of its friends standing nearby and hold it in his hand
C. Extend his arms outwards
D. Jumps out from the Platform

89. A shaft revolving in bearing forms a: Answer: A

A. Lower pair
B. sliding Pair
C. higher pair
D. cylindrical pair
90. Select the one that is a higher pair: Answer: D
A. Thompson indicator mechanism
B. Harts straight line mechanism
C. Cross by indicator mechanism
D. Tooth gearing mechanism

91. The mechanism used to enlarge or reduce moments for reproducing drawings to different scales is
called: Answer: D
A. Clinograph
B. Tri-square
C. Graphometer
D. Bantograph

92. When a ship travelling in a sea, which of the effect is more dangerous? Answer: B
A. Rolling
B. Pitching
C. steering
D. All of the above

93. Slip in belt drive is: Answer: D

A. Loss power
B. Difference between the angular velocity of two pulleys
C. Difference between the velocities of two pulleys
D. Difference between the linear speed of the rim of pulley and the bell on it
94. In case of flat belt drive the length of belt in case of: Answer: C
A. Open belts depends on sum of the diameters of pulleys
B. Open belts depends on difference of the diameters of pulleys
C. Cross belts depends on the sum of the diameters of pulleys
D. Cross belts depends on the difference of the diameters of the pulleys

95. Kinematic pairs are those pairs that have: Answer: D

A. Point or line contact between the two elements when in motion
B. Surface contact between the two elements when in motion
C. Elements of pairs not held together mechanically
D. Two elements that allow relative motion

96. A cam with a roller follower would constitute which type of pair? Answer: B
A. Lower pair
B. Higher pair
C. Open pair
D. Close pair

97. The pitch point on a cam is: Answer: B

A. Any point on pitch curve
B. The point of cam pitch circle that has the maximum pressure angle
C. A point at a distance equal to pitch circle radius from the center
D. None of the above
98. The cam angle is: Answer: A
A. The angle of rotation of the cam for a definite displacement of the follower
B. Angle subtended by live portion of cam at the cam center
C. The angle subtended at the cam center by the portion of cam during which the
follower moves
D. The angle subtended by the cam at the cam center when the follower dwells

99. Module can be expressed in: Answer: A

A. mm
B. mm/no. of teeth
C. Dimensionless
D. None of the above

100. A reverted gear train is one in which: Answer: C

A. The direction of rotation of first and last gear is opposite
B. The direction of rotation of first and last gear is the same
C. The first and last gear are on the same shaft
D. The first and last gear are essentially on separate but parallel shafts
Part 2: Machine Design Elements-Test 6

1. In case of spur gears the flank of the tooth is: Answer: A

A. The part of tire tooth surface lying below the pitch surface
B. The curve forming lace and flank
C. The width of the gear tooth measure axially along the Pitch surface
D. The surface of the top of the tooth

2. In case of cross helical worm the axes of two shafts are: Answer: D
A. Parallel
B. Intersecting
C. Non-parallel
D. Non-parallel-non-intersecting

3. In case of gears the addendum is given by: Answer: A

A. One module
B. 2.157 x module
C. 1.57 x module
D. 1.25/module

4. Gears for watches are generally manufactured by: Answer: D

A. Die casting
B. Machining on hobber
C. Machining on a gear shaper
D. Slamping

5. In case of helical gears the axial plane is given by: Answer: D

A. Diametral pitch over sine of helix angle
B. Diametral pitch over cosine of helix angle
C. Diametral pitch over cotangent of helix-angle
D. Diametral pitch over tangent of helix angle

6. A cam wherein the follower reciprocates or oscillates in a plane parallel to the axis of the cam is
called: Answer: A
A. Cylindrical cam
B. Reciprocating cam
C. None of the above
D. Circular cam

7. Rope brake dynamometer uses: Answer: D

A. Oil as lubricant
B. Water as lubricant
C. Grease as lubricant
D. No lubricant
8. Which of the following dynamometer is widely used for absorption of wide range of powers at
wide range of speeds? Answer: A
A. Hydraulic
B. Belt transmission
C. Rope brake
D. Electric generator

9. In a balancing machine the units for unbalance measurements are: Answer: D

A. cps
B. gram
C. gm-cm-cps
D. gm-cm

10. The supply of working fluid to the engine to suit the load continuous can be controlled by:
Answer: D
A. expansion valve
B. slide valve
C. flywheel
D. Governor

11. The function of a governor is to: Answer: D

A. Store energy and give up whenever needed
B. Regulate the speed during one cycle of a prime mover
C. Increase variation of speed
D. Adjust the variation of speed by varying the input to the engine

12. According to law of gearing: Answer: D

A. Teeth should be involute type
B. Clearance between mating teeth should be provided
C. Dedendum should be equal to 1.157 m
D. None of these

13. Bevel gears are used to transmit rotary motion between two shafts whose axes are: Answer: D
A. Parallel
B. Non-coplanar
C. Non-intersecting
D. None of the above

14. If D and T are the pitch circle diameter and no. teeth of a gear, then its circular pitch: Answer: D
A. D/T
B. πT/D
C. T/D
D. πD/T

15. If D1 and T1 be the diameter and no. of teeth of gear 1 and D2 and T2 the corresponding values of
other gear in mesh, then speed ratio N1/N2 will be equal to: Answer: D
A. D1/D2
B. D1/D2 x T1/T2
C. T1/T2
D. D2/D1
16. Cold working: Answer: A
A. Increases the fatigue strength
B. Decreases the fatigue strength
C. Has no influence on fatigue strength
D. None of the above

17. The notch angle of the izod impact test specimen is: Answer: D
A. 20o
B. 30o
C. 10o
D. 45o

18. In Vickers hardness testing, the pyramid indentor apex is: Answer: A
A. 40 o
B. 136 o
C. 161o
D. 122o

19. In testing a material for endurance strength, it is subjected to: Answer: D

A. Static load
B. Impact load
C. Dynamic load
D. Completely reversed load

20. Select the correct statement: Answer: B

A. A member made of steel will generally be more rigid than a member of equal load
carrying ability made of cast iron.
B. A member made of cast iron will generally be more rigid than a member of equal
load carrying ability made of steel
C. Both will be equally rigid.
D. Which one is rigid will depend on several other factors.

21. In majority of machine members the damping capacity of the material should be: Answer: C
A. low
B. zero
C. high
D. could be anything

22. The crest diameter of a screw thread is same as: Answer: A

A. Major diameter
B. Pitch diameter
C. Minor diameter
D. None of the above

23. Muntz metal contains: Answer: B

A. Copper-nickel
B. Copper-zinc
C. Copper-tin
D. Copper-aluminum
24. A babbit is: Answer: D
A. a eutectic of iron and iron phosphide
B. a gadget for measuring volume
C. a measure of magnetic induction produced in a material
D. antimony bearing lead or tin alloy

25. Steel balls for ball bearings are manufactured by: Answer: D
A. Turning
B. Rolling
C. Casting
D. Cold heading

26. The blow off pressure of a safety valve is: Answer: D

A. slightly more than atmospheric pressure
B. half of the boiler working pressure
C. equal to boiler working pressure
D. 106% of boiler working pressure

27. In case of a knuckle joint the pin is most likely to fail in: Answer: D
A. compression
B. shear
C. tension
D. double shear

28. Splines are used when: Answer: D

A. the power to be transmitted is low
B. the power to be transmitted is high
C. the torque is high
D. axial relative motion between the shaft and hub is necessary

29. Splined shafts are generally used in: Answer: D

A. machine tools
B. aircraft
C. bicycles
D. automobiles

30. Which key normally used in wrist watch? Answer: D

A. kennedy key
B. tangent key
C. sunk key
D. none of the above

31. Universal coupling is: Answer: A

A. used for non-collinear shafts
B. rigid coupling
C. type of flange coupling
D. used for collinear shafts
32. A flange coupling is: Answer: B
A. used for non-collinear shafts
B. used for collinear shafts
C. flexible
D. used only on small shafts rotating at slow speeds

33. In flange coupling should be: Answer: D

A. Flange
B. Shaft
C. Bolt brush
D. Key

34. Turn buckle has: Answer: C

A. Left hand threads on both ends
B. Right hand threads on both ends
C. Left hand threads on one end and right hand threads on the other end
D. No threads

35. Elastic nut is locking device that has: Answer: C

A. One small nut is tightened over main nut
B. A slot is cut partly in middle of nut
C. Hard fiber or nylon cotter is recessed in the nut and becomes threaded as the nut is
screwed on the bolt causing tight grip
D. Through slots are made at top and cotter pin is passed through

36. Treating the welds as a line the moment of inertia about a center of gravity of a circular weld of
diameter would be: Answer: D
A. πd2/36
B. πd/6
C. πd3/36
D. πd3/4

37. A single ply leather belt running at a belt velocity of 300 ft/min is likely to transmit per inch of
width: Answer: C
A. 2.5 HP
B. 5.0 HP
C. 4.0 HP
D. 3.0 HP

38. For butt welding of two plates each of which is 25 mm thick, the best process would be:
Answer: D
A. TIG welding
B. MIG welding
C. Gas welding
D. Electro slag welding

39. The compression members tend to buckle in the direction of: Answer: D
A. Axis of load
B. Perpendicular to the axis of load
C. Minimum cross section
D. Least radius of gyration
40. The diameter of a washer is generally: Answer: B
A. Equal to the diameter of bolt
B. Slightly more than the diameter of the bolt
C. Slightly less than the diameter of the bolt
D. Of any size that suits the application

41. If the lead angle helix angle will be: Answer: C

A. 45o
B. 67 ½o
C. 90o
D. None of the above

42. A reinforced concrete beam is considered to be made up of: Answer: D

A. Clad material
B. Composite material
C. Homogenous material
D. Heterogeneous material

43. Rankine formula is valid up to slenderness ratio of: Answer: D

A. 80
B. 150
C. 60
D. 120

44. Slenderness ratio of a column is: Answer: D

A. Shaft diameter/Shaft length
B. Column height/Column cross section
C. Column height/least dimension of column cross section
D. Length of strut/least radius of gyration

45. In hydrodynamic bearings: Answer: A

A. The oil film pressure is generated only by the rotation of the journal
B. The oil film is maintained by supplying oil under pressure
C. do not need external supply of lubricants
D. Grease is used for lubrication

46. The rated life of bearing changes: Answer: C

A. Directly as load
B. Inversely as fourth power of load
C. Inversely as cube of load
D. Inversely as square of load

47. In oil less bearings: Answer: C

A. The oil film pressure is produced only by the rotation of the journal
B. The oil film is maintained by supplying oil under pressure
C. Do not need external supply of lubricant
D. Grease is needed to be applied after some intervals
48. Is the radial distance from the addendum circle to the working depth circle. Answer: C
A. whole depth
B. addendum depth
C. working depth
D. none of these

49. When motion is decreasing it is Answer: A

A. retard motion
B. accelerated motion
C. propelled motion
D. decreasing motion

50. The type of Cam used for low and moderate speed engines is generally: Answer: A
A. Harmonic cam
B. Tangent
C. Involute
D. Flat

51. The form coefficient of a spring is: Answer: D

A. The load/unit deflection
B. Load/spring area
C. Ratio of coil diameter to wire diameter
D. Its capability to store energy

52. Coriolis component of acceleration is found in: Answer: D

A. Four bar mechanism
B. Mechanism of steam engine
C. Lower pair
D. Wit worth-quick-return motion

53. Piping supports shall be placed ______ intervals or less Answer: B

A. 2000 mm
B. 3000 mm
C. 4000 mm
D. 5000 mm

54. All of the following are processes used to surface-harden steel except Answer: D
A. carburizing
B. cyaniding
C. flame hardening
D. tempering

55. Addendum of a cycloidal gear tooth is: Answer: B

A. Cycloid
B. Epicycloid
C. Straight rack
D. Involute
56. Spiral gears are suitable for transmitting: Answer: A
A. small power
B. no power but motion only
C. any power
D. huge power

57. As pump speed increases, its (NPSH) net positive suction head requirement: Answer: A
A. Increases
B. Remains the same
C. None of the above
D. Decreases

58. If pump NPSH requirements are not satisfied: Answer: D

A. It will not develop head
B. Efficiency will be low
C. It will consume excessive power
D. It will be cavitated

59. Which type of chain is used in motor cycle? Answer: A

A. Bush roller
B. Pintle
C. None of the above
D. Silent

60. Which of the following ropes will be most flexible? Answer: D

A. 6 by 9
B. 6 by 7
C. 8 by 19
D. 6 by 37

61. The working load (P) for a chain for crane application is expressed in terms of diameter of link
“d” in cm as follows: Answer: C
A. P=1.5d2
B. P = 50d2
C. P = 500d2
D. P = 25d2

62. If a square key and the shaft are to be of the same material and of equal strength, the length of key
would be (d = shaft diameter) Answer: D
A. d
B. 1.5d
C. 2d
D. 1.23d

63. In a standard coarse thread bolt the concentration is maximum at: Answer: A
A. Root
B. Flank
C. All over the surface
D. Top surface
64. Fatigue strength of a surface may be increased by: Answer: D
A. Making surface rough
B. Filling the surface
C. Applying concentrated hydrochloric acid on the surface
D. Polishing the surface

65. The maximum deflection allowed in gantry grinders is: Answer: D

A. L/200
B. L/500
C. L/300
D. L/1000

66. The maximum size of the fillet weld that can be used at: Answer: B
A. 2mm
B. 3mm
C. 7mm
D. 5mm

67. The maximum size of the fillet weld that can be made in single pass is: Answer: A
A. 6mm
B. 12 mm
C. 8mm
D. 3mm

68. A rolled steel flat designated as 50 ISF 8 means: Answer: B

A. The flat is 50 mm long and 8 mm thick
B. The flat is 50 mm wide and 8 mm thick
C. The flat has cross section 50 sq. mm and width 8 mm
D. The flat has cross section 50 sq. mm and depth 8 mm

69. The column splice is used for increasing: Answer: C

A. Strength of the column
B. Cross-sectional area of the column
C. Length of the column
D. All of the above

70. Zero axial thrust is experienced in: Answer: C

A. Helical gears
B. Spiral gears
C. Herringbone gears
D. Bevel gears

71. In order to realize the advantage of fluid friction, it is essential to have: Answer: A
A. Parallel oil film in bearing
B. converging oil film
C. no oil film
D. Diverging oil film
72. A shaft rotating in anti-clockwise direction at slow speed inside a bearing will be: Answer: B
A. At bottom most of bearing
B. Towards left side of bearing metal to metal contact
C. Towards left side of bearing and making no metal to metal contact
D. Towards right side of bearing and making no metal to metal contact

73. Points of arrest of iron correspond to: Answer: A

A. Stages at which allotropic form change
B. Stages at which further heating does not increase temperature for sometime
C. Stages at which properties do not change with increase in temperature
D. There is nothing like points of arrest

74. Delta iron occurs at temperature of: Answer: C

A. Room temperature
B. Above melting point
C. Between 1400oC to 1539oC
D. Between 1000oC to 1400oC

75. Gamma iron exists at following temperature: Answer: D

A. Room temperature
B. Near melting point
C. Between 1400oC to 1539oC
D. Between 910oC to 1400oC

76. Ferromagnetic alpha iron exists in temperature range of: Answer: A

A. Below 723oC
B. 700-910oC
C. 1000-1440oC
D. 1400-1539oC

77. Paramagnetic alpha iron changes to gamma iron at: Answer: B

A. 970oC
B. 910oC
C. 440oC
D. 1639oC

78. Fatigue failure occurs when a part is subjected to Answer: A

A. Compressive stress
B. Tensile stress
C. Torsion
D. Fluctuating stress

79. A body having identical properties all over it is called: Answer: A

A. Homogeneous
B. Elastic
C. Ductile
D. Isentropic
80. If a material recovers its original dimensions, when the load is removed it is called: Answer: B
A. Plastic
B. Elastic
C. Brittle
D. Annealed

81. A behavior of metals where in strength of a metal is increased and the ductility is decreased on
heating at a relatively low temperature after cold working, is called: Answer: D
A. Twinning
B. Solid solution hardening
C. Clustering
D. Strain aging

82. A ductile fracture is characterized by: Answer: D

A. Rapid rate for crank propagation
B. Negligible deformation
C. Fragmentation into more than two pieces
D. Appreciable plastic deformation prior to propagation of crack

83. The ability of a material to absorb energy when deformed elastically and to return to it when
unloaded, is known as: Answer: D
A. Creep
B. Fatigue strength
C. Hardness
D. Resilience

84. Machining properties of steel can be improved by adding: Answer: A

A. Sulphur, lead, phosphorous
B. Silicon, aluminum, titanium
C. Vanadium, aluminum
D. Chromium, nickel
85. Eutectoid steel the percentage of carbon is: Answer: D
A. 0.02%
B. 0.3%
C. 0.63%
D. 0.8%

86. A cold chisel is made of: Answer: D

A. Mild steel
B. HSS
C. Cast iron
D. High carbon steel

87. Cyaniding is the process of: Answer: C

A. Dipping the steel is cyanide bath
B. Reacting steel surface with cyanide salts
C. Adding carbon and nitrogen by heat treatment of steel to increase its surface hardness
D. Obtaining cyanide salts
88. The constituent that has a powerful softening effect on cast iron and its presence in cast iron
reduces the ability of the iron to retain carbon in chemical combination is: Answer: A
A. Silicon
B. Aluminum
C. Carbon
D. Sulphur

89. Tensile strength of common varieties of cast iron is in the range: Answer: C
A. 40-60 MPa
B. 150-180 MPa
C. 480-500 MPa
D. 1500-1600 MPa

90. In carbon steel castings: Answer: A

A. The percentage of carbon is less than 1.7%
B. The percentage of carbon is between 1.7% to 2%
C. The percentage of alloying elements is controlled
D. None of the above

91. Aluminum alloys for pressure die casting: Answer: A

A. Must possess considerable fluidity
B. Must not be free from hot shortness
C. Must have iron as one of the constituents
D. Must be light

92. Electro-foaming is especially valuable for: Answer: C

A. good conductors of electricity
B. decorative items
C. thin walled parts requiring a high order of accuracy and internal surface finish
D. Non-ferrous components

93. In powder metallurgy the process of heating the cold pressed metal powder is called: Answer: A
A. Sintering
B. Granulation
C. Deposition
D. Precipitation

94. Which one is different from the remaining? Answer: D

A. Cyaniding
B. Nitriding
C. Flame hardening
D. Electroplating

95. The hardness of steel increases if it contains: Answer: D

A. Austenite
B. Pearlite
C. All of the above
D. Martensite
96. The presence of sulphur in pig iron makes: Answer: D
A. It easily machinable
B. It hard
C. Increases the fluidity
D. The casting unsound

97. Compressive strength of gray cast iron in tonnes/cm2 is of the order of: Answer: D
A. 3-5
B. 7-10
C. 15-22
D. 5-7

98. Surface hardening to produce a hard outer surface with a ductile interior is desirable for metal
(steel) Products subjected to: Answer: C
A. high tensile loads
B. shock
C. fatigue
D. high compressive loads

99. Steel with 80% carbon and 100% pearlite is known as: Answer: A
A. eutectoid
B. Hyper-eutectoid
C. Austenite
D. Solidus

100. Martensite (stainless steel) contains 4 to 26 % Cr and a maximum of _____ %. Answer: C

E. 1.5
F. 3.5
G. 2.5
H. 4.5
Part 2: Machine Design Elements-Test 7

1. For steel shafting design in an average condition, the maximum distance in feet between bearing to
avoid excessive linear deflection is by formulas, L = 8.95 D2/3 for shaft subjected to no bending
except its own weight but for shafting with bending action of pulleys, etc. the formula then will
be L= _____. Answer: C
A. 4D2/3
B. 7.0 D2/3
C. 5.2 D2/3
D. 6.0 D2/3

2. The bending stress (flexural stress) of a beam is really Answer: A

A. a normal stress whose source is bending
B. a normal stress whose source is shear
C. due to internal pressure
D. a newly recognized stress from internal bending of the cross section

3. In calculation using standard structural shapes of l-beams, it is assumed that the shear stress is
carried by the Answer: B
A. entire cross-sectional area
B. web only
C. top flange only when in compression
D. flanges only

4. In a beam of rectangular cross section, the maximum shear stress when related to the average shear
stress is Answer: B
A. 150% higher
B. 50% higher
C. 33% higher
D. 50% lower

5. In a beam of circular cross section, the maximum show stress when related to the average shear
stress is Answer: C
A. 150% higher
B. 50% higher
C. 33% higher
D. 50% lower

6. The absolute viscosity of the fluid divided by its density expressed in the same terms of units is
also called Answer: B
A. centistokes
B. kinematic viscosity
C. Petroff’s equation
D. light petroleum oil

7. It improves red hardness of steel: Answer: C

A. silicon
B. lead
C. cobalt
D. manganese
8. It is required that pipes bigger than mm should not be screwed but flanged. Answer: B
A. 76.2
B. 63.5
C. 2 ¼ inch
D. 68.5

9. Formed by the intersection of the adjacent flanks of adjacent threads when extended is called.
Answer: D
A. crest apex
B. all of these
C. sharp root
D. sharp crest

10. In designing the spoke or wheel of a flywheel, it is ideal to consider that the cross-sectional area
of the spoke at rim side should not be less than _____ of the cross area at the hub side. Answer: B
A. 80%
B. 2/3
C. 90%
D. 3/8

11. The cutting up to 70o is best for drilling extremely hard metals and for soft materials _____
degrees may be applied. Answer: C
A. 60
B. 45
C. 40
D. 48

12. What is the material stress for brittle materials, in the calculation of allowable stress from the
formula? Allowable stress = material stress/factor of safety Answer: B
A. yield strength
B. ultimate strength
C. endurance strength
D. mean stress

13. Failure of slender columns occurs when Answer: D

A. applied stress exceeds yield strength
B. applied stress exceeds ultimate strength
C. allowable stress exceeds the factor of safety
D. the load exceeds the critical or Euler load (and the column buckles sideways)

14. What is the material stress for ductile materials, in the calculation of allowable stress from the
formula? Allowable stress = material stress/factor of safety Answer: A
A. yield strength
B. ultimate strength
C. endurance strength
D. mean stress
15. Opposite directional force equal in magnitude and parallel is called: Answer: C
A. non coplanar
B. centro
C. couple
D. coplanar

16. All of the following are recognized types of beam failure except Answer: D
A. excessive deflection
B. local buckling
C. rotational buckling
D. longitudinal buckling

17. The separate forces which can be so combined are called: Answer: D
A. concurrent forces
B. non concurrent forces
C. couple
D. component force
18. All of the following are feasible methods for calculating truss deflections of statically
indeterminate trusses except the Answer: C
A. strain energy method
B. virtual work method
C. unit load method
D. table look-up method

19. The method of superposition for calculating beam deflections due to multiple loads is valid as
long as Answer: C
A. none of the deflections are excessive
B. stresses are less than the yield strength
C. none of the deflections are excessive and stresses are less than the yield strength
D. deflections are negligibly small

20. The phosphor bronze worm gears should contain from 10 to 12 percent of _____. Answer: B
A. carbon
B. tin
C. steel
D. iron

21. The easiest, most straight-forward method for determining beam deflection is the Answer: D
A. double integration method
B. moment area method
C. strain energy method
D. table look-up method

22. The ratio of the worm speed to the worm gear speed may range from 1.5 or even less up to _____.
Answer: D
A. 25 or more
B. 50 or more
C. 75 or more
D. 100 or more
23. As a general rule, a ratio of is about the maximum recommended for a single worm and worm
gearing operation. Answer: C
A. 30
B. 40
C. 50
D. 60

24. The conjugate beam method of calculating beam deflection allows the deflection to be found by
drawing Answer: C
A. shear diagrams
B. Shear stress diagrams
C. moment diagrams
D. shear and moment diagrams

25. The number of threads on the worm ordinarily varies from one to Answer: A
A. 6 or 18
B. 8 or 10
C. 12 or 14
D. 14 or 16

26. An elastic body whose primary function is to deflect under load Answer: D
A. clutch
B. stopper
C. brake
D. spring

27. The strain energy method of calculating beam deflection at a point of load application equates the
total internal strain energy to the external Answer: D
A. deflection
B. force
C. moment
D. work

28. Manganese steel standard designation, SAE _____ Answer: A

A. 13xx
B. 10xx
C. 11xx
D. 8xxx

29. When an axial stress is applied eccentrically to a beam, the combined stress due to compression
(tension) and bending may be found by Answer: A
A. simple addition
B. combined stress theory
C. Mohr's circle
D. finite element analysis
30. Which of the following expression relating beam deflections slopes, moments, and the like, is not
correct? Answer: C
A. y = deflection
( )
B. =
C. V(x) = ∫M(x)dx
( )
D. =

31. When load is applied to a beam axially but not at the centroid of the cross section, the beam is
said to be loaded Answer: A
A. eccentrically
B. concentrically
C. dynamically
D. pseudostatically

32. The maximum bending stress a beam experiences occurs at the Answer: B
A. neutral axis
B. surface furthest removed from the neutral axis
C. end of the beam
D. middle of the beam

33. When load is applied lo a beam axially at the centroid of the cross section, the beam is said to be
loaded Answer: B
A. eccentrically
B. concentrically
C. dynamically
D. pseudostatically

34. A positive moment on a beam causes what kind of stress in the upper fibers of the beam?
Answer: A
A. compression
B. tension
C. shear
D. fatigue

35. Which of the following statements about shear diagram is not true? Answer: B
A. The shear at any point is equal to the sum of the loads and reactions from the point to
the left end
B. The magnitude of the shear at any point is equal to the slope of the moment line at
that point
C. Loads and reactions upward are positive
D. The shear diagram is straight and sloping over uniformly distributed loads

36. The strength of non-ferrous alloys is at maximum at room temperature while that of ferrous metal
has a maximum strength at ______oF. Answer: A
A. 400
B. 1200
C. 450
D. 350
37. The disadvantage of using the Goodman design criterion instead of the Soderberg design criterion
is that it Answer: D
A. Applies only for brittle materials
B. Is the more conservative of fluctuating stress theories
C. Is acceptable for metals only below their critical temperature
D. Requires the material's ultimate strength to be known

38. An alloy of copper and tin Answer: A

A. Bronze
B. Brass
C. Zinc
D. None of these

39. The stress in an elastic material is: Answer: C

A. inversely proportional to the material's yield strength
B. inversely proportional to the force acting
C. proportional to the displacement of the material acted upon by the force
D. inversely proportional to the strain

40. The slenderness ratio of a column is generally defined as the ratio of its: Answer: D
A. length of its minimum width
B. unsupported length to its maximum radius of gyration
C. length of its moment of inertia
D. unsupported length to its least radius of gyration

41. The relationship between the extension of a spring and the force required to produce the extension
is: Answer: D
A. F=ma
B. F=µN
C. F = mV2/R
D. F=kx

42. The linear portion of the stress-strain diagram of steel is known as the: Answer: D
A. modulus of elongation
B. plastic range
C. irreversible range
D. elastic range

43. The moment at a point on a loaded beam is Answer: A

A. algebraic sum of all moments and couples acting between the investigation point and
one of the ends.
B. sum of all vertical forces acting between the investigation point and one of the ends.
C. sum of all vertical stresses acting between the investigation point and one of the ends.
D. sum of the beam's reaction moments.
44. The shear at a point on a loaded beam is the Answer: B
A. algebraic sum of all the beam's reaction loads acting between the investigation point
and one of the ends.
B. sum of all vertical forces acting between the investigation point and one of the ends.
C. sum of all vertical stresses acting between the investigation point and one of lhe ends.
D. sum of the beam's reaction moments.

45. Structural steel elements to torsion develop. Answer: C

A. tensile stress
B. compressive stress
C. shearing stress
D. moment

46. The stress in an elastic material is: Answer: C

A. inversely proportional to the yield strength of the material
B. inversely proportional to the force acting
C. proportional to the displacement of the material acted upon by the force
D. proportional to the length of the material subjected to the force
47. The amount by which the width of a tooth space exceeds the thickness of the engaging tooth on
the pitch circle of the gear: Answer: C
A. clearance
B. tip relief
C. backlash
D. chordal addendum

48. An impact test for which the specimen is supported at one end as a cantilever: Answer: A
A. Izod test
B. Charpy test
C. Brinnel test
D. Endurance test

49. Permissible variation of size of a dimension: Answer: C

A. clearance
B. variation
C. tolerance
D. deviation

50. Heating or cooling of steel that produces a rounded form of carbide: Answer: C
A. normalizing
B. embrittleness
C. Spheroidizing
D. Annealing

51. Heating and slow cooling of metal: Answer: B

A. normalizing
B. annealing
C. surface hardening
D. cold rolling
52. Steel that has been deoxidized with a strong deoxidizing agent such as silicon or aluminum in
order to eliminate oxygen and carbon reaction during solidification: Answer: C
A. rimmed steel
B. stainless steel
C. killed steel
D. monel

53. A kind of gear used for heavy duty work where a large ratio of speed is required and are
extensively used in speed reducer. Answer: D
A. hypoid gear
B. cycloid gear
C. bevel gear
D. worm gear

54. A group of thin steel strip for measuring clearances: Answer: C

A. depth gage
B. line center gage
C. feeler gage
D. lay-out gage

55. An imaginary circle passing thru the points at which the teeth of0 meshing gears contact each
other. Answer: A
A. pitch circle
B. base circle
C. addendum circle
D. dedendum

56. A device for accurately measuring diameter: Answer: C

A. feeler gage
B. laser
C. micrometer
D. diametometer

57. A hand tool used to measure tension in bolts: Answer: B

A. tensometer
B. torque wrench
C. indexer
D. torsiometer

58. Distance from the center of one tooth of a gear to the center of the next consecutive tooth
measured on the pitch: Answer: C
A. diametral pitch
B. pitch circle
C. circular pitch
D. module
59. The process of heating a piece of steel to a temperature within or above the critical range and
cooling rapidly: Answer: C
A. annealing
B. normalizing
C. hardening
D. quenching

60. Vickers, Knoop, and Brinell are all names of: Answer: C
A. Nobel prize in winners in metallurgy
B. thermodynamic constants
C. hardness tests
D. magnetic constants

61. Which of the following is not a method by which a single lap rivet joint usually falls? Answer: D
A. The rivets shear
B. The plate fails in bearing
C. The plate fails in tension
D. The rivets fail in tension

62. Which of the following will work to some extent in all metals? Answer: C
A. austenitizing
B. annealing
C. work hardening
D. shot-peening

63. What db impact tests determine? Answer: A

A. toughness
B. yield strength
C. hardness
D. creep strength
64. The hardness of steel may be increases by healing to approximately 1500oF and quenching in all
or water if: Answer: B
A. the carbon content is above 3.0%
B. the carbon content is from 0.2% to 2.0%
C. the carbon content is below 0.2%
D. all carbon is removed and the steel contains only chromium, nickel, manganese, or a
combination of these

65. One of the main difference between cast iron and steel is that: Answer: D
A. steel has a higher silicon content
B. steel always contains alloying metals such as nickel, chromium, manganese and
vanadium
C. steel cannot be annealed whereas cast iron can
D. steel has a lower carbon content

66. Which of the following factors will affect the hardenability of steel? Answer: C
A. composition only
B. grain size only
C. composition and grain size
D. cooling rate
67. The mechanical deformation of a material at a temperature above its re-crystallization
temperatu.re is commonly known as: Answer: A
A. hot working
B. strain aging
C. grain growth
D. cold working

68. Under very slow deformation and at high temperature, its is possible to have some plastic flow in
a crystal at a shear stress lower than the critical shear stress. What is the phenomenon called?
Answer: C
A. slip
B. shear
C. creep
D. bending

69. Honing is used: Answer: D

A. to remove only a small amount of metal
B. to correct axial run-out of a bore
C. to correct out-of-roundness of a bore
D. on surfaces brought to high degree to surface finish

70. A special metal formed when two or more metals are melted together. Answer: A
A. alloy
B. compound
C. titanium
D. brass

71. A plane perpendicular to the axis plane and to the pitch plane Answer: A
A. transverse plane
B. pitch plane
C. angular plane
D. none of these

72. The curve formed by the path of a point on the extension of the radius of a circle as it rolls along
the curve or line. Answer: D
A. cycloid
B. copoid
C. tantroid
D. trochoid

73. A condition in generated gear teeth when any part of the fillet curve lies inside of a line drawn
tangent to the working profile as its lowest point Answer: D
A. overcut
B. supercat
C. tomcat
D. undercut
74. The total depth of a tooth space, equal to addendum plus dedendum, also equal to working depth
plus clearance Answer: A
A. whole depth
B. addendum depth
C. dedendum depth
D. none of these

75. The deflection of a beam is: Answer: C

A. directly proportional to the modulus of elasticity and moment of inertia
B. inversely proportional to the modulus of elasticity and length of the beam cubed
C. inversely proportional to the modulus of elasticity and moment of inertia
D. directly proportional to the load imposed and inversely to the length squared

76. Like the Soderberg criterion, the Goodman criterion should be used with all of the following
materials except Answer: D
A. steel
B. aluminum
C. titanium
D. cast iron

77. A vertically loaded beam, fixed at one end and simply supported at the other is indeterminate to
what degree? Answer: A
A. first
B. second
C. third
D. fourth

78. A thin walled pressurized vessel consists of a right circular cylinder with that ends. Mid way
between the ends the stress is greater in what direction? Answer: B
A. longitudinal
B. circumferential
C. radial
D. at an angle of 45o to the longitudinal

79. The bending moment at a section of a beam is derived from the: Answer: A
A. sum of the moments of all external forces on one side of the section
B. difference between the moments on one side of the section and the opposite side
C. sum of the moments of all external forces on both sides of the section
D. sum of the moments of all external forces between supports

80. The stress concentration factor: Answer: D

A. Is a ratio of the average stress on a section to the allowable stress
B. cannot be evaluated for brittle materials
C. Is the ratio of the areas involved in a sudden change of cross section
D. Is the ratio of the maximum stress produced in a cross section to the average stress
over the section
81. If Young's modulus for a steel cable is 10 x 1010 N/m2, the actual change in length of a 100 m
cable under a stress of 107 Pa is Answer: C
A. 1 mm
B. 1 cm
C. 10 cm
D. 1 m

82. Hooke’s Law for an isotropic homogenous medium experiencing one dimensional stress is:
Answer: A
A. Stress = E(Strain)
B. Strain = E(Stress)
C. Force(Area)= E(Change in length/length)
D. Strain energy = E(internal energy)

83. The modulus of rigidity of a steel member is: Answer: B

A. a function of the length and depth
B. defined as the unit shear stress divided by the unit shear deformation
C. equal to the modulus of elasticity divided by one plus Poisson's ratio
D. defined as the length divided by the moment of inertia

84. A thin homogenous metallic plate containing a hole is heated sufficiently to cause expansion. If
the coefficient of surface expansion is linear, the area of the will: Answer: D
A. Increase at twice the rate the area of the metal increases
B. Increase at the same rate as the area of the metal increases
C. stay the same
D. decrease at the same rate as the area of the metal increases

85. The maximum bending moment of a beam simply supported at both ends and subject to a total
load W uniformly distributed over its length L is expressed by the formula: Answer: B
A. WL/8
B. WL2/8
C. WL/2
D. WL2/2

86. Young's modulus is Answer: D

A. the ratio of lateral strain to axial strain
B. the percentage deformation under tension
C. a measure of force across a cross section
D. the ratio of stress lo strain

87. In a long column (slenderness ratio > 160) which of the following has the greatest influence on its
tendency to buckle under a compressive load. Answer: D
A. The modulus of elasticity of the material
B. The compressive strength of the material
C. The radius of gyration of the column
D. The length of the column
88. The area of the shear diagram of a beam between any two points on the beam is equal to the:
Answer: B
A. change in shear between the two points
B. total shear beyond the two points
C. average moment between the two points
D. change in moment between the two points

89. Poisson's ratio is principally used in: Answer: A

A. the determination of capability of a material for being shaped
B. the determination of capacity of a material for plastic deformation without fracture
C. Stress-strain relationships where stresses are applied in more than one direction
D. the determination of the modulus of toughness

90. Young's modulus of elasticity for a material can be calculated indirectly from which of the
following properties of the material? Answer: A
A. Temperature, coefficient of expansion and dielectric constant
B. Temperature, coefficient of expansion and specific heat
C. Density and velocity of sound in the material
D. Density and inter-atomic spacing in the material

91. The linear portion of the stress-strain diagram of steel is known as the: Answer: D
A. modulus of elasticity
B. plastic range
C. irreversible range
D. elastic range

92. Modulus of Resilience is: Answer: B

A. the same as the modulus of elasticity
B. a measure of a materials ability to store strain energy
C. the reciprocal of the modulus of elasticity
D. a measure of the deflection of a member

93. Imperfections within metallic crystal structures may be all of the following, EXCEPT: Answer: D
A. lattice vacancies or extra interstitial atoms
B. ion pairs missing in ionic crystals
C. displacement atoms to interstitial sites
D. linear defects, or slippage dislocations caused by shear.

94. All of the following statements about strain energy is correct, EXCEPT: Answer: C
A. It is caused by generation and movement of dislocation through shear or plastic
formation
B. It results from trapped vacancies in the crystal lattice
C. It is proportional to the length of dislocation. Shear modulus, and shortest distance
between equivalent lattice sites.
D. It is less for sites at grain boundaries than for internal sites within the crystal
structure.
95. When a metal is cold worked all of the following generally occur EXCEPT: Answer: D
A. Re-crystallization temperature decreases
B. Ductility decreases
C. Grains become equi-axed
D. Tensile strength increases

96. All of the following statements about strain hardenings are correct, EXCEPT: Answer: A
A. Strain hardening strengthens metals. Resistance to deformation increases with the
amount of strain present.
B. Strain hardening is relieved during softening, Annealing above the re-crystallization
temperature
C. Strain hardening is produced by cold working (deformation below the re-
crystallization temperature)
D. More strain hardening requires more time temperature exposure for relief.

97. All of the following processes strengthen metals, EXCEPT: Answer: B

A. Annealing above the recrystallization temperature
B. Work hardening by mechanical deformation below the re-crystallization temperature
C. Heat treatments such as quenching and tempering, for production of a finer
microstructure
D. Increasing the carbon content of low carbon steels

98. Intrinsic silicon becomes extrinsically conductive, with electrons as majority carriers, when doped
with which of the following? Answer: D
A. aluminum
B. antimony
C. boron
D. germanium

99. Steels can be strengthened by all of the following practices, EXCEPT: Answer: D
A. annealing
B. quenching and tempering
C. work hardening
D. grain refinement

100. If 1080 steel (0.80 wt. % C) is annealed by very slow cooling from 1000oC (1 832oF) to ambient
temperature, its microstructure will consist almost solely of: Answer: A
A. austenite
B. bainite
C. cementite
D. pearlito
Part 2: Machine Design Elements-Test 8

1. All of the following group of plastic are thermoplastic, EXCEPT: Answer: D

A. Polyvinylchloride (PVC) and polyvinyl acetate
B. Polyethelene, polypropylene, and polystyrene
C. Acrylic (Lucite) and polyamide (nylon)
D. Phenolics, melanine and epoxy

2. In the design of reinforced concrete structure, tensile strength of the concrete is normally:
Answer: C
A. Determined by split cylinder tests
B. Determined by beam tests
C. Neglected
D. Assumed to be 200 psi

3. All of the following statements about rusting of iron is correct, EXCEPT: Answer: D
A. Contact with water, and oxygen are necessary for rusting to occur
B. Contact with a more electropositive metal reduces rusting
C. Halides aggravate rusting, a process which involves electrochemical oxidation-
reduction reactions
D. Pitting occurs in oxygen-rich anodic areas, and the rust is deposited nearby

4. Select the correct statement: Answer: B

A. members made of steel will generally more rigid than a member of equal load-
carrying ability made of cast iron
B. a member made of cast iron will generally be more rigid than a member of equal load
carrying ability made of steel
C. both will be equally rigid
D. which one is rigid will depend on several other factors

5. On Mohr's circle for stress the extreme shear stresses are indicated by the ordinate at point
Answer: A
A. E
B. B
C. C
D. D

6. At quite low temperatures (say -75oC) the notched bar impact value of steel: Answer: B
A. increases significantly
B. decreases significantly
C. remains unchanged
D. depends on heat treatment carried out

7. All of the following shapes can lead to stress concentration except Answer: C
A. stepped shafts
B. plates with holes
C. gently tapered parts with large fillets and radii
D. shafts and keyways
8. Stress concentration factors are not normally applied to any of the following configurations except
Answer: D
A. static loading of ductile materials
B. applications with local yielding around discontinuities
C. applications where stresses are kept low by design
D. long grooves where the ratio of groove radius to shaft diameter is small

9. If the applied stress is known as a function of θ, then the principal stresses may be found by the
mathematical process of Answer: C
A. reduction by partial fractions
B. addition
C. differentiation
D. integration

10. A foundation bolt with a circular end is secured to the floor by means of a steel cotter. If the pull
on the bolt is 14000kg, the diameter of the bolt should be: Answer: D
A. 10 mm
B. 30 mm
C. 20 mm
D. 60 mm

11. In case of knuckle joint the pin is most likely to fail in: Answer: D
A. compression
B. shear
C. tension
D. double shear

12. In case of sunk key: Answer: A

A. The key is cut in both shaft and hub
B. The key way is cut in hub only
C. The key way is cut in shaft only
D. The key is helical along the shaft

13. Materials with low values of thermal expansion are desirable for Answer: A
A. Pyrex glassware
B. barometers
C. thermometers
D. railroad rails

14. Very low values of the coefficient of thermal expansion lead to Answer: A
A. very low values of thermal expansion
B. no thermal expansion
C. high values of thermal expansion
D. very high values of thermal expansion
15. The units or relative stiffness or rigidity are Answer: D
A. Newton
B. Newton/meter
C. Newton-meters
D. dimensionless

16. Individual rigidity values Answer: A

A. have no significance
B. indicate how much stronger one member is than another
C. are significant only for ductile materials
D. are significant only for brittle materials

17. The ratio of two rigidities Answer: A

A. have no significance
B. indicate how much stronger one member is than another
C. are significant only for ductile materials
D. are significant only for brittle materials

18. The sum of the strains in the three orthogonal directions (Єx, Єy, Єz ) in accordance with Poisson's
ratio is Answer: C
A. Hooke's law.
B. the modulus of elasticity
C. dilation
D. the shear modulus

19. The constant of proportionality relating the linear expansion of an object to its change in
temperature is called its Answer: D
A. modulus of elasticity
B. shear modulus
C. bulk modulus
D. coefficient of linear expansion

20. The constant of proportionality relating the volumetric expansion of an object to its change in
temperature is called its Answer: D
A. modulus of elasticity
B. shear modulus
C. bulk modulus
D. coefficient of linear expansion

21. The thermal stress in a bar that is expand allowed to freely when healed to a higher temperature is
Answer: C
A. large and positive
B. small and positive
C. zero
D. small and negative
22. Which of the following is not a method o, non-destructive testing of steel casting and forging?
Answer: C
A. radiography
B. magnetic particle
C. ultrasonic
D. chemical analysis

23. Compressive strength of fully cured concrete is most directly related to: Answer: B
A. sand-gravel ratio
B. fineness modulus
C. absolute volume of cement
D. water-content ratio

24. Steels containing nickel and chromium: Answer: B

A. carbon steel
B. stainless steel
C. alloy steel
D. cast steel

25. The amount of force required to cause a unit deformation (displacement) often called the spring
constant is the Answer: D
A. modulus of elasticity
B. normal stress
C. shear stress
D. stiffness

26. When more than one spring or resisting member shares the load, the relative stiffness is the
Answer: D
A. modulus of elasticity
B. normal stress
C. stiffness
D. rigidity

27. When steel is described as SAE 1320: Answer: D

A. it is plain carbon steel
B. it is nickel-chromium steel
C. it contains 18% to 23 % carbon
D. it contains 0.18% to 0.23% carbon

28. In roller chain drive, the chain should extend around at least _____ degrees of the pinion
circumference, and this maximum amount of contact is obtained for all center distances provided
the ratio is less than 3 ½ to 1. Answer: C
A. 90
B. 105
C. 120
D. 135
29. The circle form which an involute tooth of a gear is generated or developed: Answer: B
A. root circle
B. base circle
C. dedendum circle
D. Mohr's circle
30. Belt slip may take place because of: Answer: D
A. loose load
B. heavy belt
C. driving pulley too small
D. all of the above

31. Tooth width measured along the chord at the pitch circle Answer: D
A. flank
B. lace width
C. width of space
D. chordal thickness

32. It is the difference of addendum and dedendum with equivalent to the whole depth less working
depth: Answer: C
A. fillet space
B. fillet radius
C. clearance
D. backlash

33. Negative allowance is also called: Answer: A

A. Interference of metal
B. Tolerance
C. Fit
D. None of the above

34. Reinstalled or secondhand boilers shall have a minimum factor of safety of: Answer: A
A. 6
B. 5
C. 4
D. 3

35. An impact test is used to test a metal for: Answer: A

A. toughness
B. strength
C. ductility
D. hardness

36. Poisson's ratio is the ratio of the: Answer: A

A. unit lateral deformation to the unit of longitudinal deformation
B. unit stress to unit strain
C. elastic limit to proportional limit
D. shear strain to compressive strain
37. Creep is the term used in referring to the: Answer: D
A. elongation before yield Point
B. maximum stress of brittle materials
C. fatigue limit of ductile materials
D. continuous increase in the strain, or deformation, of any material subjected to stress

38. Ratio of the lateral strain to longitudinal strain when loaded longitudinally in tension. Answer: A
A. Poisson's ratio
B. Strain Modulus
C. Strain ratio
D. Tension ratio

39. A shaft is to be checked for concentricity. A suitable method of performing the check is by:
Answer: A
A. bench micrometer
B. snap gage
C. manometer
D. bench centers and dial indicator

40. The following pertain to joining of metals, EXCEPT: Answer: C

A. welding
B. soldering
C. casting
D. brazing

41. Creep strength of a material is the: Answer: B

A. maximum stress before yield point
B. constant stress to which a material is loaded, at a specified temperature and for a
specified time, that will causes a further elongation
C. maximum stress before fatigue limit
D. maximum stress before rupture of ductile materials

42. Which is not a heat treatment process? Answer: A

A. sintering
B. annealing
C. hardening
D. tempering

43. Which of the following steel contains chromium? Answer: C

A. SAE 2340
B. SAE 4230
C. SAE 5240
D. SAE 1230

44. Splines are used when: Answer: D

A. the power to be transmitted is high
B. the torque is high
C. the speed is high
D. axial relative motion between shaft and hub is necessary
45. Instrument used to analyze the composition of metals: Answer: A
A. spectrometer
B. radiometer
C. profilometer
D. ultimate analyzer

46. A machining operation whereby the tool reciprocates and the feed is stationary is called:
Answer: B
A. planning
B. shaping
C. turning
D. reaming

47. The clearance between tooth profiles of gear tooth Answer: D

A. rack
B. dedendum
C. addendum
D. backlash

48. The internal stresses existing in a welded connection are: Answer: B

A. Not relieved by heat treatment
B. Not relieved when the welded is peened
C. May be relieved when the weld is peened
D. Relieved by x-ray analysis

49. Which of the following is not a kind of mandrel? Answer: C

A. expansion mandrel
B. gang mandrel
C. contraction mandrel
D. taper mandrel

50. A non-ferrous all consists of nickel and copper. Answer: A

A. monel
B. bronze
C. tubing bronze
D. brass

51. One of the following is not a tap used for cutting threads in holes. Answer: A
A. Tapping tap
B. Plug tap
C. Taper tap
D. Bottoming tap

52. A material is to be drawn into a wire it must therefore possess the property of: Answer: B
A. Toughness
B. Ductility
C. Malleability
D. Hardness
53. When cast steels are used for the body of machine it is used because: Answer: B
A. It has non-magnetic properties
B. It has good-self lubricating properties
C. It is cheap
D. It is strong in tension

54. One of the following is unsuitable for bearings. Answer: A

A. White metal
B. Mild steel
C. Cast iron
D. Nylon

55. Arc of the pitch circle through which a tooth travels from the point of contact with the mating
tooth to the pitch point of a gear: Answer: C
A. Arc of recess
B. Arc of action
C. Arc of approach
D. Arc of relief

56. The process of working metals by the application of sudden blows on by a steady pressure.
Answer: B
A. Casting
B. Forging
C. Tempering
D. Peening

57. Herringbone gears are gears which: Answer: B

A. Do not operate on parallel shafts
B. Have a line contact between the teeth
C. Consist of two left handed helical gears
D. Tend to produce and trust on the shafts

58. An alloying element used principally to produce stainless steel Answer: D

A. Zinc
B. Tantalum
C. Titanium
D. Chromium

59. The maximum bending moment of a beam supported on both ends and subject to total load W
uniformly distributed over its length L is expressed by the formula: Answer: B
A. WL/8
B. WL2/8
C. WL/2
D. WL2/2

60. When machining nickel alloys the best type of cutting fluid is: Answer: A
A. sulfurized oil
B. straight mineral
C. soluble oil
D. all of these
61. Hardening the surface of iron based alloys by heating them below the melting point in contact
with the carbonaceous substance: Answer: C
A. Nitriding
B. Cyaniding
C. Carburizing
D. Quenching

62. Modulus of elasticity of a steel member is Answer: B

A. a function of the length and width
B. defined as the unit shear stress divided by the unit shear deformation
C. equal to the modulus of elasticity divided one plus Poisson's ratio
D. defined as the length divided by the moment of inertia

63. The maximum stress induced in a material when subjected to alternating or repeated loading
without causing failure: Answer: B
A. elasticity
B. endurance stress
C. yield stress
D. ultimate stress

64. A material that can wear away a substance softer than itself: Answer: B
A. tungsten
B. abrasive
C. corrosive
D. carbon

65. In a long column (slenderness ration < 60), which of the following has the greatest influence on
its tendency to buckle under a compressive load? Answer: B
A. Modulus of Elasticity
B. Radius of Gyration
C. Moment of inertia
D. None of the above

66. Materials, usually ceramics, employed where resistance to a very high temperature is required, as
for furnace linings and metal melting pots. Answer: B
A. Bricks
B. Refractories
C. Insulators
D. Conductors

67. Which process does not belong to the group? Answer: D

A. malleable iron
B. gray iron
C. white iron
D. head iron

68. Total deformation measured along in the direction of the line of stress: Answer: C
A. Stress
B. strain
C. elongation
D. yield line
69. An alloy of copper and zinc: Answer: A
A. brass
B. zinc
C. bronze
D. tin

70. Which of the following metals is easy to chisel? Answer: A

A. cast iron
B. alloy steel
C. cast steel
D. manganese steel

71. The commonly used joint in cast iron pipe Answer: A

A. Bell and Spigot joint
B. Compression joint
C. Expansion joint
D. None of the above

72. A machine tool used principally to machine flat or plane surfaces with a single pointed cutting
tool. Answer: A
A. shaper
B. planer
C. hack saw
D. drill

73. The maximum stress to which a material can be subjected to without a trace of any permanent set
remaining upon a complete withdrawal of the stress. Answer: B
A. yield strength
B. elastic limit
C. fracture
D. ultimate strength

74. Usually copper-tin alloy: Answer: B

A. brass
B. bronze
C. monel
D. inconel

75. A hollow shaft made of plain carbon steel contains 0.35% carbon is mounted on bearings 20 ft
apart. The material of the shaft will composed of: Answer: C
A. UNS G 1035
B. SAE 1030
C. AISI 1035
D. SAE 6150

76. Fluid film desire between two surfaces having relative sliding motion: Answer: B
A. grease
B. lubrication
C. margin
D. clearance
77. Which of the following is not a strength property of a material? Answer: D
A. endurance strength
B. tensile strength
C. torsional strength
D. elastic resilience

78. The method of cold working by compression Answer: B

A. reaming
B. piercing
C. turning
D. boring

79. Which of the following would most likely require a steel containing 0.67% carbon that has been
spheroidized, cold-drawn, and slightly tempered? Answer: D
A. a ball bearing
B. a bridge beam
C. a water pipe
D. a cutting tool

80. Poisson's ratio is the ratio of the: Answer: A

A. Unit lateral deformation to the unit longitudinal deformation
B. unit stress to the unit strain
C. Elastic limit to proportional limit
D. Elastic limit to ultimate strength

81. A structure has five unknown reactions acting on the structure. Three equation of static
equilibrium have been written. To analysis, which of the following equations be needed?
Answer: A
A. equations total dynamic equilibrium equations
B. three member deformation equations
C. three more static equilibrium equations
D. two member deformation

82. For most metals Poisson’s ratio lies in the range: Answer: D
A. 0.25 to 0.35
B. 0.30 to 0.40
C. 0.35 to 0.45
D. 0.40 to 0.50

83. An operation of sizing and finishing a hole by means of a cutting tool having several cutting
edges: Answer: B
A. Planning
B. Reaming
C. Boring
D. Drilling

84. A kind of chuck which has five reversible jaws which could be adjusted properly: Answer: D
A. universal chuck
B. live chuck
C. chuck connors
D. independent chuck
85. The linear portion of the stress-strain diagram of steel is known as: Answer: C
A. Modulus of Elasticity
B. Plastic Range
C. Elastic Range
D. none of the above

86. The area of the shear diagram of a beam between any two points of the beam ls equal to the:
Answer: C
A. change in shear between two points
B. average moment between the two points
C. change on moment between the two points
D. change in the deflection between the two points

87. In 18-4-1 high speed steel the maximum percentage is of: Answer: D
A. carbon
B. tungsten
C. chromium
D. iron

88. In compression, a prism of brittle material will break: Answer: C

A. into large number of pieces
B. by forming a bulge
C. by shearing along oblique plane
D. in a direction along the direction load

89. Hastelloy contains: Answer: D

A. nickel and copper
B. copper and aluminum
C. aluminum and nickel
D. nickel and molybdenum

90. Trimming is a process associated with: Answer: A

A. Forging
B. Electroplating
C. Press work
D. Machining of metals

91. Addition of lead and bismuth lo aluminum results in Answer: D

A. Improvement of casting characteristics
B. Improvement of corrosion resistance
C. One of the best known age and precipitation hardening system
D. Improving machinability

92. Which of the following has the highest specific strength of all structural materials? Answer: D
A. magnesium alloys
B. chromium alloys
C. none of the above
D. titanium alloys
93. Foundry crucible is made of: Answer: C
A. mild steel
B. lead
C. graphite
D. German silver

94. Age-hardening is related with Answer: D

A. stainless steel
B. cast iron
C. gun metal
D. duralumin

95. For heavy loads in aircraft bearings the materials used with lead to reduce the risk of seizure is:
Answer: B
A. tin
B. silver
C. zinc
D. iron

96. Compressive strength of woods is generally: Answer: A

A. more along the grains
B. more across the grams
C. equal in all directions
D. maximum at 45o to the direction of grains

97. Select the one that has highest specific gravity Answer: C
A. brass
B. high carbon steel
C. lead
D. aluminum

98. Super conductors: Answer: D

A. are non-crystalline
B. exist at temperatures below 10oK
C. are the purest forms of metals
D. are non-metallic substances
Part 2: Machine Design Elements-Test 9

1. The Phenomenon of “weld decay” is associated with: Answer: D

A. brass
B. manganese steels
C. aluminum alloYs
D. stainless steels

2. Which of the following timber is used for sports goods? Answer: A

A. mulberry
B. mahogany
C. sal
D. deodar

3. A knoop indenter is a diamond ground to a: Answer: B

A. Prismoidal form
B. Pyramidal form
C. Cylindrical form
D. Needle form

4. The Process commonly for thermoplastic materials is: Answer: B

A. die-casting
B. injection moulding
C. shell moulding
D. cold forming

5. The most important element that physical controls the properties of steel is: Answer: D
A. silicon
B. manganese
C. tungsten
D. carbon

6. The imperfection in the crystal structure of is known as; Answer: A

A. dislocation
B. slip
C. fracture
D. impurity

7. Polysters belong to the group of: Answer: D

A. thermoplastic plastics
B. phenolics
C. all of the above
D. thermosetting plastics
E.
8. The effect of alloying zinc to copper is: Answer: D
A. to increase hardness
B. to impart free-machining properties
C. to improve hardness and strength
D. to increase strength and ductility
9. Projection welding is: Answer: B
A. continuous spot welding process
B. multi spot welding process
C. used to form
D. used to make mesh

10. In resistance welding, the pressure released: Answer: C

A. just at the time of passing the current
B. during heating Period
C. after the weld cools
D. after the completion of currents

11. Grey cast iron is best welded by: Answer: D

A. MIG
B. submerged arc
C. TIG
D. oxy-acetylene

12. A plug gauge is used to measure Answer: D

A. taper bores
B. cylindrical bores
C. spherical holes
D. screw threads

13. Choose the one that will have the highest cutting speed. Answer: D
A. cast iron
B. tool steel
C. brass
D. aluminum

14. When large number of components are turned and parted off from a bar, the chuck generally used
is: Answer: D
A. four jaw chuck
B. two jaw chuck
C. collet chuck
D. magnetic chuck

15. Gear tooth vernier is used for measuring: Answer: A

A. gear tooth profile
B. module
C. pith line thickness of gear tooth
D. gear tooth thickness

16. Undercutting is: Answer: C

A. an operation of cutting extreme deep groove
B. an operation of cutting a groove next to a shoulder on a piece of work
C. cutting form the base of a work piece
D. an operation of cutting extreme wide threads
17. Laser welding is widely used in; Answer: D
A. Process industry
B. structural work
C. heavy industry
D. electronic industry

18. Unlike materials or materials of different thickness can be butt welded by: Answer: A
A. control of pressure and current
B. adjusting time duration of current
C. adjusting initial gap
D. all of the above

19. In arc welding operations the current value is decided by: Answer: C
A. thickness of plate
B. voltage across the plate
C. size of the electrode
D. length of welded portion

20. Arc blow takes place in: Answer: D

A. gas welding
B. arc welding when straight polarity is used
C. arc welding when reverse polarity is used
D. welding stainless steel

21. For a completely corrosion-resistant stainless steel, what minimum percentage of chromium in the
alloy is required? Answer: C
A. 3.2%
B. 7.3%
C. 11%
D. 15%

22. What for is a rammer used? Answer: D

A. a tool used in welding for cleaning purpose
B. a tool used in press work to lift the pressure components
C. a tool used in foundry to pack the sank in mould
D. a measuring tool

23. What for is a swab used? Answer: D

A. a tool used on shaper
B. a tool used in foundry for moistening the sand
C. the tool used in foundry for smoothening the mould
D. a tool used in foundry for repairing the mould

24. What for is a gagger used? Answer: C

A. a tool used in clearing welds
B. a tool used in clearing material before welding
C. a tool used in foundry for cleaning ol castings
D. a shaped metal accessory
25. What for are bellows used? Answer: D
A. Used in foundry in moistening the mould
B. Used in foundry for cleaning of castings
C. Used in foundry for blowing loose san-d
D. Used in foundry for smoothening and cleaning out depression in the mould

26. Permeability of foundry sand is: Answer: A

A. capacity to hold moisture
B. porosity to allow the escape of gases
C. distribution of binder in sand
D. fineness of sand

27. What for arc metal patterns used? Answer: D

A. precision castings
B. small castings
C. large castings
D. large scale production of castings

28. An important factor to be considered while designing a core print is: Answer: C
A. pattern material
B. type of mould
C. moulding sand characteristics
D. pouring temperature

29. Which of the following metals can be suitably welded by TIG welding? Answer: C
A. aluminum
B. magnesium
C. all of the above
D. stainless steel

30. Weld spatter refers to: Answer: D

A. welding electrode
B. filler material
C. shield
D. welding defect

31. A sprue is: Answer: A

A. a tool used in mould repairing
B. a process of cleaning castings
C. a chemical that is added to molten materials for sound castings
D. a vertical passage through the cope

32. What is a gate? Answer: D

A. a passage through which metal is poured into the mould
B. a passage through which metal rises when the mould is filled
C. a passage that finally leads molten metal from the runner into the mould cavity
D. a vent hole to allow for the hot gases to escape
33. What for are core prints provide? Answer: C
A. to form trademarks of company on castings
B. to produce castings with specific surface design
C. to form seal to support and hold the core
D. to direct the floe of molten material during pouring

34. The equipment that is used in pit for supply of air is known as: Answer: D
A. fan
B. hand blower
C. air cylinder
D. centrifugal blower

35. Tumbling is done so as to: Answer: A

A. clean the surface of small parts
B. stress reliever the components
C. get surface finish
D. to plate the surface

36. The purpose of inoculation is: Answer: D

A. to clean the casting
B. to decrease the melting temperature of a cast metal
C. to change the chemical composition of a cast metal
D. to modify the structure and properties of a cast metal

37. Least shrinkage allowance is provided in the case of which of the following? Answer: C
A. brass
B. cast iron
C. white cast iron
D. aluminum

38. The draft allowance on metallic pattern compared to wooden one is: Answer: C
A. more
B. same
C. less
D. more or less depending on size

39. Select one that is not an angle measuring device. Answer: D

A. bevel protector
B. sine bar
C. combination square
D. angle iron

40. Dilatometer is used to find out which property of moulding sand. Answer: C
A. permeability
B. hot strength
C. fineness
D. moisture content
41. The mould tor casting ferrous materials in continuous casting process is made of: Answer: D
A. low carbon steel
B. high carbon steel
C. medium carbon steel
D. copper

42. What for is rotameter used? Answer: D

A. rpm of engines
B. rotation of shafts
C. twist due to torque applied on shafts
D. flow of liquids and gases

43. The impedance of piezo-electric crystals is: Answer: C

A. negligible
B. low
C. high
D. very low

44. Hot wire anemometers are generally for: Answer: B

A. measuring pressure of fluids
B. measuring velocity of air stream
C. measuring temperature of moving fluid
D. measuring thermal conductivity of solids

45. Ornaments are cast by: Answer: C

A. die casting
B. pressed casting
C. gravity casting
D. continuous casting

46. During MIG welding the metal is transformed in the form of: Answer: B
A. continuous flow of molten metal
B. a line spray of metal
C. solution
D. electron beam

47. A collimated light beam is used for producing heat in: Answer: D
A. MIG welding
B. TIG welding
C. Plasma welding
D. laser welding

48. Wipping is the process of: Answer: C

A. cleaning the welded surface after the welding operation is over
B. applying flux during welding process
C. connecting load pipes by soldering alloy
D. low temperature welding
49. In which of the following process hydraulic fluid acts as transfer media? Answer: D
A. Electron beam machining
B. Electro-discharge machining
C. Iron beam machining
D. Water jet machining

50. Sweep pattern is used for moulding parts having Answer: B

A. rectangular shape
B. uniform symmetrical shape
C. complicated shape having intricate details
D. none of the above

51. Drossing Answer: D

A. a method of cleaning the castings
B. an inspection of method for casitngs
C. a method of deoxidation of molten metal
D. the formation of oxides on the molten metal surface

52. The usual value of helix angle of a drill is: Answer: C

A. 110o
B. 120o
C. 30o
D. 60o

53. A twist drill is specified by: Answer: D

A. its diameter and lip angle
B. its shank and diameter
C. shank, material and flute size
D. shank, material and diameter

54. Broaching operation is generally used in automobile industry as: Answer: C

A. it is an automatic machine
B. it is a mass production machine
C. semi-skilled operators can be employed
D. operations is completed in one stroke

55. Select the one that is gear finishing process: Answer: A

A. gear shaving
B. gear shaping
C. gear hobbing
D. gear milling

56. Formed milling operation of cutting gears can be used for cutting which type of gears? Answer: C
A. spur
B. worm
C. all of the above
D. bevel
57. Water should be run at a speed of Answer: D
A. 70 - 90 m/min
B. 40 to 120 m/min
C. 300 m/min
D. 90 - 180 m/min

58. A machine tool in which metal is removed by means of a revolving cutter with many teeth, each
tooth having a cutting edge which removes its share of the stock. Answer: A
A. milling machine
B. lathe
C. drill
D. grinder

59. Welding operation in which a non-ferrous tiller metal melts at a temperature below that of the
metal joined but is heated above 450oC. Answer: C
A. fillet weld
B. soldering
C. brazing
D. TIG welding

60. The process of checking or producing checkers on the surface of a piece by rolling checkered
depressions into the surface. Answer: B
A. Indexing
B. Knurling
C. Quenching
D. Soldering

61. Steels can be strengthened all of the following, EXCEPT: Answer: A

A. annealing
B. quenching and tempering
C. work hardening
D. age precipation

62. Modulus of resilience is: Answer: B

A. the same as the modulus of elasticity
B. a measure of the materials ability to store strain energy
C. reciprocal of modulus of elasticity
D. measure of the deflection of a member

63. Percentage reduction of area while performing tensile test on cast iron may be of the other of:
Answer: C
A. 50%
B. 25%
C. 0%
D. 15%

64. Belt slip may take place because of: Answer: D

A. loose load
B. driving pulley too small
C. heavy belt
D. all of the above
65. The curve that is generally used as the profile ot gear teeth: Answer: C
A. hypoid
B. epicyloid
C. involute
D. cycloid

66. In roller chain drive, the center-to-center distance between the sprockets, as a general rule, should
be between _____ times the pitch. Answer: A
A. 30 to 50
B. 45 to 65
C. 60 to 80
D. 75 to 95

67. A partial bearing is one in which: Answer: B

A. the bearing is supplied with less oil than full bearing
B. the bearing encloses less than 360 deg of the journal
C. the bearing is slightly loaded
D. the bearing is supplied with oil intermittently

68. Aluminum has a rake angle of Answer: A

A. 10 to 15 deg
B. 12 to 18 deg
C. 14 to 20 deg
D. l6 to 22 deg

69. In general the length of engagement is more than times the nominal diameter a 50 to 55 percent
thread is satisfactory. Answer: A
A. ½
B. ¾
C. 4/5
D. 2

70. Is recommended for the larger thread diameters and for some fine pitch threads Answer: A
A. Reaming
B. Piercing
C. Hobing
D. none of these

71. Broken tap can be removed by _____. Answer: D

A. chamfering
B. deleting
C. damaging
D. electro-discharge machine

72. Are conical gears, that is, gears in the shape of cones, and are used to connect shafts having
intersecting axes. Answer: B
A. helical gear
B. bevel gear
C. spur gear
D. worm gear
73. Bevel gears may be classified as being either of the straight-tooth type or the ____. Answer: A
A. curve tooth type
B. helical tooth type
C. square tooth type
D. none of these

74. The teeth of gears are curved but lie in the same general direction as the teeth of straight bevel
gears. Answer: C
A. straight bevel gears
B. worm gears
C. zerol bevel gears
D. helical gears

75. Is the same as spiral gears, except that the axis of the pinion is offset relative to the gear axis.
Answer: D
A. bevel gears
B. trochoid gears
C. ratchet gear
D. hypoid gear

76. Zerol bevel gears for maximum smoothness and quietness should be run at Answer: B
A. 900 fpm
B. 1000 fpm
C. 1200 fpm
D. 1400 fpm

77. For peripheral speeds above _____, ground gears should be used. Answer: C
A. 6000 fpm
B. 7000 fpm
C. 8000 fpm
D. 9000 fpm

78. Spiral bevel and hypoid gears are recommended for applications where peripheral speeds exceed
Answer: A
A. 1000 fpm
B. 1200 fpm
C. 1300 fpm
D. 1400 fpm

79. Hypoid gears are recommended for industrial applications: Answer: D

A. when maximum smoothness of operation is desired
B. for high reduction ratios where compactness of design, smoothness of operation, and
maximum strength are important
C. for non-intersecting shafts
D. all of these

80. ______ gears may be used for both speed reduction and speed-increasing drives. Answer: C
A. bevel gears
B. hypoid gears
C. A and B
D. worm gears
81. As a general rule, the amount of metal under the root should be equal to the Answer: B
A. partial depth of tooth
B. whole depth of tooth
C. twice the tooth
D. thrice the tooth

82. On webless type ring gears, the minimum stock between the root line and the bottom of tap drill
holes should be ____ of the tooth deep. Answer: B
A. ½
B. 1/3
C. ¼
D. ¾

83. Spiral bevel and hypoid gears should, in general, be mounted on anti-friction bearings in an ____
case Answer: B
A. water tight
B. oil tight
C. soluble tight
D. rubber tight

84. For both straddle mounted and overhung mounted gears the spread between bearings should never
be less than of the pitch diameter of the gear. Answer: B
A. 70%
B. 80%
C. 90%
D. 100%

85. On overhung mounted gears the spread should be at least ____ the overhung. Answer: B
A. ½ times
B. 2 ½ times
C. 3 times
D. 4 times

86. The basic pressure angle of bevel gears is Answer: D

A. 5 deg
B. 10 deg
C. 15 deg
D. 20 deg

87. For basic pressure angle of 20 degrees, the number ol teeth for no undercut are teeth in the pinion.
Answer: C
A. 14 or more
B. 15 or more
C. 16 or more
D. 17 or more
88. Spiral angle of spiral bevel gears is Answer: B
A. 30 deg
B. 35 deg
C. 40 deg
D. 45 deg

89. To assure successful operation, bevel gears must be rigidly mounted within the housing such that
the deflection of one gear relative to the other does not exceed either axially or tangential to the
pitch diameters. Answer: C
A. 0 004 in
B. 0.005 in
C. 0.006 in
D. 0.007 in

90. In general, the same tooth proportions used for Gleasons System spiral bevel gears may be used
for spiral bevel gears with spiral angle of from, say, 20 to ____. Answer: A
A. 45 deg
B. 60 deg
C. 14.5 deg
D. 90 deg

91. The direction of rotation of a bevel gear is determined as _____. Answer: A

A. clockwise direction
B. counter clockwise
C. opposite direction
D. the same direction

92. Spiral angle should be selected to give a face contact ratio of to assure smooth tooth action and
quiet gears. Answer: C
A. 1.10
B. 1.20
C. 1.25
D. 1.30

93. The axial thrust load produced on bearings of a bevel gear is equal to the axial component of the
normal load on the _____. Answer: B
A. tooth thickness
B. tooth surface
C. tooth angle
D. none of these

94. The material most commonly used in manufacture of bevel gears is Answer: D
A. alloy
B. stainless
C. wrought iron
D. steel
95. There are 8 cutters in the series for each diametral pitch to cover the full range from ____ pinion
to a crown gear. Answer: D
A. 18-looth
B. 16-tooth
C. 14-tooth
D. 12 tooth

96. Class A Bevel gears - Precision gears recommended for peripheral speeds above ____. Answer: B
A. 1000 fpm
B. 2000 fpm
C. 3000 fpm
D. 4000 fpm

97. The face width should not normally exceed one-third of the pitch cone distance or ____ the pitch.
Answer: B
A. 2 times
B. 3 times
C. 4 times
D. 5 times

98. Pressure angle of worm gears is _____. Answer: C

A. 10 degrees
B. 15 degrees
C. 20 degrees
D. 25 degrees

99. The minimum recommended worm pitch diameter is 0.25 inch and the maximum is _____.
Answer: B
A. 1 inch
B. 2 inch
C. 3 inch
D. 4 inch

100. The shape of the worm thread in the normal plane is defined as that which is produced by a
symmetrical double-conical cutter or grinding wheel having a straight elements and an included
angle of _____. Answer: C
A. 30 deg
B. 35 deg
C. 40 deg
D. 45 deg
Part 2: Machine Design Elements-Test 10

1. Is any substance that occupies space. Answer: D

A. inertia
B. air
C. substance
D. matter

2. Is a unit of power that has been adopted for engineering work Answer: B
A. kilowatts
B. horsepower
C. ft-lb/min
D. watts

3. Is a measure of a tendency of the force to rotate the body upon which acts about an axis.
Answer: A
A. torque
B. couple
C. momentum
D. inertia

4. Quantities such as time volume and density are called Answer: B

A. vector quantities
B. scalar quantities
C. dot quantities
D. magnitude

5. Quantities such as force, velocity, acceleration, moment and displacement are called Answer: C
A. resultant quantities
B. resultant
C. vector quantities
D. quality

6. Is the distance between the center of oscillation and the point of suspension. Answer: D
A. radius of gyration
B. radius of percussion
C. Oscillation
D. radius of oscillation

7. Is the resultant of all the forces on the body does not pass through the center of gravity but through
a point. Answer: B
A. center of gravity
B. center of percussion
C. metacenter
D. coplanar

8. Is the rate at which the velocity of a body changes in a unit of time. Answer: D
A. velocity
B. gravitational acceleration
C. reverse effective force
D. acceleration
9. Determines the effect of forces on the motion of a body it is necessary to resort. Answer: A
A. free body diagram
B. moment center
C. x and y plane
D. none of these

10. Includes kinetic energy and potential energy Answer: D

A. electrical energy
B. internal energy
C. kinetic energy
D. mechanical energy

11. A _____ is similar to a compound pendulum except that the weight suspended by the cord moves
at a uniform speed around the circumference of a circle. Answer: B
A. elliptical pendulum
B. conical pendulum
C. parabolic pendulum
D. spherical pendulum

12. Are produced by the action of gravity, by accelerations and impacts of moving parts. Answer: A
A. forces
B. resultant
C. component
D. impulse

13. Modulus of elasticity of aluminum is Answer: C

A. 7x106
B. 8x106
C. 9 x 106
D. 10 x 106

14. As a rule of thumb, materials having an elongation of less than ____ in a tensile test may be
regarded as brittle. Answer: A
A. 5%
B. 6%
C. 7%
D. 8%

15. Factor of safety for machine columns is 2 to for steady loads. Answer: B
A. 1.5
B. 2.5
C. 3.5
D. 4.5

16. The apparent fiber stress under which the different tubes failed varied from about 2000 psi for the
relatively thinnest to for the relatively thickest walls. Answer: D
A. 20,000 psi
B. 25,000 psi
C. 30,000 psi
D. 35,000 ps
17. The allowable stresses in that are generally used practice are: _____ for main transmitting shafts
Answer: A
A. 4000 psi
B. 4100 psi
C. 4200 psi
D. 4300 psi

18. Another rule that has been generally used in mill practice limits the deflection to in a length equal
to 20 times the shaft diameter. Answer: A
A. 1 deg
B. 2 deg
C. 3 deg
D. 4 deg

19. In maximum theories of failure the elastic limit of a ductile ferrous material in shear is practically
_____ its elastic tension Answer: A
A. one-half
B. three-halves
C. three-fourth
D. four-thirds

20. Recommended that shafts with keyways be designed on the basis of circular shaft using not more
than of the working stress recommended for the shaft Answer: A
A. 60%
B. 65%
C. 70%
D. 75%

21. A material may be considered to be brittle if its elongation in a 2 inches gauge is less than
Answer: D
A. 2%
B. 3%
C. 4%
D. 5%

22. A shaft may be safely operated either above or below its critical speed, good practice indicating
that the operating speed be at least _____ above or below the critical. Answer: B
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 40%

23. Is the most widely used of all spring materials for small spring materials operating at temperatures
up to about 250oF. Answer: C
A. tempered wire
B. hard drawn wire
C. music wire
D. core wire
24. Is used for many types of coil springs Answer: D
A. chrome wire
B. vanadium wire
C. chrome vanadium wire
D. oil-tempered spring

25. Is used for general purpose springs Answer: D

A. steel wire
B. copper wire
C. nicrome wire
D. hard-drawn wire

26. Is a spring used under conditions involving higher stresses Answer: A

A. chrome vanadium wire
B. reflex wire
C. steel wire
D. stainless wire

27. Is used for temperatures up to 550oF Answer: B

A. oil-tempered spring
B. stainless spring
C. cast spring
D. none of these

28. Is the least expensive of nickel-base alloy spring. Answer: D

A. alloy spring
B. tipped spring
C. cold drawn spring
D. monel

29. Includes springs subjected to static loads or small deflections and seldom used springs such as
those in bomb fuses, projectiles, and safety devices. This service is for 1,000 to 10,000
deflections. Answer: A
A. light service
B. medium service
C. moderate service
D. heavy service

30. The torsional modulus of elasticity for steel may be 11,200,000 psi at room temperature, but will
drop to 10,600,000 at ____. Answer: D
A. 300oF
B. 350oF
C. 450oF
D. 400oF

31. The spring index has the best proportion of 7 through ____. Answer: B
A. 8
B. 9
C. 10
D. 11
32. Wire rope materials are/is: Answer: D
A. iron
B. phosphor bronze
C. traction steel
D. all of these

33. Is largely used for low strength applications such as elevator ropes not used for hoisting, and for
stationary guy ropes. Answer: D
A. steel rope
B. cast steel rope
C. nylon rope
D. iron wire rope

34. Is used primarily as a hoist rope for passenger and freight elevators. Answer: A
A. traction steel wire rope
B. stainless rope
C. clolh rope
D. none.of these

35. Is used when the loads are not too great. Answer: B
A. rope
B. fiber
C. silk
D. rubber

36. Is used for small ropes. Answer: A

A. cotton
B. nylon
C. abacca
D. none of these

37. Class of rope used where resistance to wear, as in dragging over the ground. Answer: A
A. 6 x 7
B. 6 x 8
C. 6 x 9
D. 6 x 19

38. Wire rope used because of flexibility, for high speed operation with reverse bends. Answer: B
A. 7 x 9
B. 8 x 19
C. 7 x 11
D. 8 x 16

39. Factor of safety for standing rope usually range from _____ for operating rope, from 5 to 12
Answer: A
A. 3 to 4
B. 4 to 5
C. 5 to 6
D. 6 to 7
40. The main precaution to be taken in removing and installing wire ropes is to avoid ____ which
greatly lessens its strength. Answer: C
A. coiled
B. damage
C. kinking
D. none of these

41. Wire rope in use should be inspected ____ for, evidence of wear and damage by corroslon. At
normal temperature, some wire rope lubricants may be practically solid and will require thinning
before application. Answer: D
A. every month
B. every week
C. every year
D. periodically

42. Thinning may be dope by heating to 160 to ____ or by diluting with gasoline. Answer is: D
A. 170oF
B. 180oF
C. 190oF
D. 200oF

43. Is to equalize the energy exerted and the work done and thereby prevent excessive or sudden
changes in speed. Answer: D
A. flywheel
B. vibration
C. momentum
D. impulse

44. The allowable speed change varies considerably from 1 to 2 percent in steam engines while
punching and shearing machinery varies _____. Answer: D
A. 10%
B. 13%
C. 17%
D. 20%

45. Flywheels in diameters up to about are usually cast solid. Answers: C

A. 6 ft
B. 7 ft
C. 8 ft
D. 9 ft
46. When the rim sections of heavy wheels are balance held together by steel links type ____ into
place, an efficiency of may be obtained. Answer: B
A. 50%
B. 60%
C. 70%
D. 0%
47. By using a rim of box or I-section, a link type of joint connection may have an efficiency of
Answer is: D
A. 90%
B. 92%
C. 98%
D. 100%

48. Factor of safety for flywheels is. Answer: A

A. 10 to 13
B. 12 to 26
C. 18 to 45
D. 15 to 35

49. Joint efficiency of flywheel is ____for split rim bolted joint at arms Answer: D
A. 0.60
B. 0.65
C. 0.70
D. 0.75

50. Flywheel arms are usually of cross-section Answer: C

A. spherical
B. conical
C. elliptical
D. segmental

51. Cast iron wheels having solid rims burst at a rim speed of corresponding to a centrifugal tension
of about 15,600 psi. Answer: C
A. 385 ft/s
B. 390 ft/s
C. 395 ft/s
D. 400 ft/s

52. For wheel with tie-rods, it burst at a speed of 225 ft/s showing an increase of strength of from 20
to ____ over similar wheels without the tie rods. Answer: A
A. 40%
B. 45%
C. 50%
D. 55%

53. The conventional limit of flywheel operations 12,000 fpm for Answer: B
A. cast iron
B. cast steel
C. alloy steel
D. none of these

54. Application of rivets Answer: D

A. pressure vessel
B. structural
C. machine member
D. all of these
55. The plates being joined are the same plane. Answer: C
A. knuckle joint
B. bull joint
C. butt-joint
D. none of these

56. The spacing between rivet centers is called pitch and between row center lines are called:
Answer: B
A. front pitch
B. back pitch
C. half pitch
D. forward pitch

57. Rivet holes are usually made of _____ larger in diameter than the nominal diameter of the rivet
Answer: D
A. 1/8 inch
B. 1/32 inch
C. 1/64 inch
D. 1/16 inch

58. When holes are punched in heavy plate the diameter of punched will increase from 1/16 to
Answer: D
A. 1/2 in
B. ¾ in
C. 4/3 in
D. 1/8 in

59. Materials of rivets are usually made of wrought iron or Answer: B

A. hard steel
B. soft steel
C. malleable steel
D. wrought steel

60. For boiler construction, 55,000 psi in tensile, 44,000 psi in shearing, and in bearing stress,
Answer: A
A. 95,000 psi
B. 90,000 psi
C. 85,000 psi
D. 80,000 psi

61. A is an externally threaded fastener designed for insertion through holes in assembled parts and is
normally intended to be tightened or released by torquing a nut. Answer: A
A. bolt
B. nut
C. screw
D. none of these
62. Covers general specifications and dimensions of flat, round hole washers, intended for use in
general purpose applications. Answer: D
A. gasket
B. groove washer
C. lock nut
D. plain washer

63. The ends of the bolts and screws finished with may be either a 45-degree chamfer to a depth
slightly exceeding the depth of thread or a radius approximately equal to 1 1/4 times the of the
shank. Answer: D
A. pitch diameter
B. major diameter
C. minor di ameter
D. nominal diameter

64. Standard threaded lengths of bolts are for a nominal length over 125 mm up to 200 mm
Answer: A
A. 2d+6 mm
B. 2d+7mm
C. 2d+8mm
D. 2d+9mm

65. Bolts and screw heads have a chamfer of approximately ____ on their upper faces. Answer: D
A. 27 deg
B. 45 deg
C. 35 deg
D. 30 deg

66. Nuts are countershank at an included angle _____. Answer: B

A. 90 deg
B. 120 deg
C. 150 deg
D. 180 deg

67. Are used either to retain parts in a fixed position or to preserve alignment. Answer: D
A. dammy pins
B. high pins
C. low pins
D. dowil pins

68. Effective length of dowil must not be less than ____ of the overall length of the pin. Answer: D
A. 60%
B. 65%
C. 70%
D. 75%

69. The pins must have single shear strength of 102,000 psi minimum. Answer: A
A. 102,000 psi
B. 104,000 psi
C. 106,000 psi
D. 108,000 psi
70. These standard pins are sufficiently ductile to withstand being pressed into holes 0.0005 inch
smaller than the nominal pin diameter in hardened without cracking. Answer: A
A. 0.0005 in
B. 0.0007 in
C. 0.0008 in
D. 0.0009 in

71. The side of sharp V thread form an angle of with each other. Answer:
A. 30 deg
B. 50 deg
C. 60 deg
D. 70 deg

72. Is the prescribed difference between the design size and the basic size. Answer: B
A. shrinkage
B. allowance
C. fits
D. variance

73. Is that thread whose profile lies within the size limits. Answer: B
A. exact thread
B. complete thread
C. full thread
D. none of these

74. Is the surface of a thread which joins the flanks of the thread and is farther from the cylinder or
cone from which the thread projects. Answer: B
A. nose
B. crest
C. flanks
D. side cutting

75. Is either surface connecting the surface of the crest with the root. Answer: A
A. flank
B. top
C. land
D. none of these

76. Are the angles between the individual flanks and the perpendicular axis of the thread. Answer: C
A. approach angle
B. rake angle
C. flank angle
D. none ol these

77. Is the axial distance between the two consecutive points of intersection of a helix. Answer: A
A. lead
B. pitch
C. crest
D. none of these
78. Is the angle made by the helix of the thread at the pitch line. Answer: A
A. lead angle
B. back rake angle
C. dot angle
D. none of these

79. Is the cone that would bound the crest of an external laper thread and the roots of an internal taper
thread. Answer: A
A. minor cone
B. outside cone
C. nominal cone
D. major cone

80. Is an imaginary cone of such apex angle and location of its vertex and axis of its surface.
Answer: B
A. shank cone
B. pitch cone
C. center cone
D. outside cone

81. The surface of the thread which joins the flanks ol adjacent thread forms and is immediately
adjacent to the cylinder. Answer: C
A. crest
B. flank
C. roots
D. top

82. Refers to circular run out of major and minor cylinders with respect to the pitch cylinder.
Answer: B
A. run-in
B. runout
C. contrast
D. none of these

83. Is the apex formed by the intersection of the flanks of a thread when extended. Answer: B
A. standoff
B. sharp crest
C. run-out
D. fixed-out
E.
84. The axial distance between specified reference on the internal and external taper thread members.
Answer: C
A. pitch
B. lead
C. standoff
D. helix distance
85. A tit having limits of size so prescribed that either a clearance or an interference may result when
mating parts are assembled. Answer: A
A. transition fit
B. shrink fit
C. force lit
D. none of these

86. A _____ series is the standard metric screw thread series for general purpose equipment's thread
components design and mechanical fasteners. Answer: D
A. ACME thread
B. Butress thread
C. square thread
D. coarse thread

87. Lubrication for driving in ferrous material is a non-carbonizing type of lubricant such as
dispersion is suggested. Answer: D
A. rubber
B. water
C. oil I
D. rubber-in-water

88. Surface roughness of thread between 63 and _____ micro inch Ra is recommended
A. 115
B. 120
C. 125
D. 130

89. General purpose ACME threads may have the crest corner chamfered at an angle of ____ angle
with the axis. Answer: D
A. 30 deg
B. 35 deg
C. 40 deg
D. 45 deg

90. Method of taping is. Answer: C

A. by hand
B. by machine
C. by hand or by machine
D. none of these

91. Have a chamfer angle that reduces the height about 8 to 10 teeth. Answer: D
A. plain taps
B. side taps
C. corner taps
D. taper taps

92. Plug taps have a chamfer angle with ______ reduced in height. Answer: A
A. 3 to 5 threads
B. 4 to 6 threads
C. 5 to threads
D. 6 to threads
93. Plug taps is used to tap lor most whole tapping applications which is also most suitable for blind
holes where the tap drill hole is deeper than the required ______. Answer: A
A. thread
B. diameter
C. height
D. radius

94. Taper taps are used on materials where the chip load per tooth must be kept to a_____. Answer: D
A. maximum
B. acceptable value
C. attainable value
D. minimum

95. Surface treatment of high speed steel is by _____. Answer: D

A. carbon coating
B. second coating
C. zinc coating
D. oxide coating

96. Nitriding provides a very hard and wear resistant case on _____. Answer: B
A. low speed steel
B. high speed steel
C. moderate speed steel
D. none of these

97. Bake angle for ferrous and nonferrous materials is approximately _____. Answer: D
A. 3 to 5 deg
B. 4 to 8 deg
C. 2 to 5 deg
D. 5 to 7 deg

98. The rake angle of the tap should not exceed and for the harder materials a concentric top is
recommended. Answer: D
A. 2 deg
B. 3 deg
C. 4 deg
D. 5 deg

99. To reduce the rubbing of the lands, an eccentric or con-centric relieved land should be used and a
10 ____ degree rake angle. Answer: D
A. 12 deg
B. 13 deg
C. 14 deg
D. 15 deg

100. Titanium has a rake angle of 6 - 10 degrees and cutting speed of _____. Answer: C
A. 10 - 20 fpm
B. 20 - 30 fpm
C. 10 - 40 fpm
D. 30 - 50 fpm
101. Foundation bolts length should be at least _____ times the diameter of the anchor bolt.
Answer: D
A. 12
B. 14
C. 16
D. 18
102. No foundation bolts shall be less than ____ mm diameter Answer: B
A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 16