CHN

1. Which is the primary goal of community health nursing?

A. To support and supplement the efforts of the medical profession
in the promotion of health and prevention of
B. To enhance the capacity of individuals, families and communities
to cope with their health needs
C. To increase the productivity of the people by providing them with
services that will increase their level of health
D. To contribute to national development through promotion of
family welfare, focusing particularly on mothers and children

2. CHN is a community-based practice. Which best explains this

statement?
A. The service is provided in the natural environment of people
B. The nurse has to conduct community diagnosis to determine
nursing needs and problems
C. The service are based on the available resources within the
community
D. Priority setting is based on the magnitude of the health problems
identified

3. Population- focused nursing practice requires which of the

following processes?
A. Community organizing .
B. Nursing, process
C. Community diagnosis
D. Epidemiologic process

4. RA 1054 is also known as the Occupational Health Act. Aside

from the number of employees, what other factor must be
considered in determining the occupational health privileges to
which the workers will be entitled?
A. Type of occupation,: agriculture, commercial, industrial
B. Location of the workplace in relation to health facilities
C. Classification of the business enterprise based on net profit
D. Sex and age composition of employees

5. A business firm must employ an occupational health nurse

when it has at least how many employees.
A. 21
B. 101
C. 201
D. 301

6. When the occupational health nurse employs ergonomic

principles, she is performing which of her roles?
A. Health care provider
B. Health educator
C. Health care coordinator
D. Environment manager

7. A garment factory does not have an occupational nurse. Who

shall provide the occupational health needs of the factory
workers?
A. Occupational health nurse at the Provincial Health Office
B. Physician employed by the factory
C. Public Health nurse of the RHU of their municipality
D. Rural Sanitary inspector of the RHU in their municipality

8. “Public health services are given free of charge”. Is this

statement true or false?
A. The statement is true; it is the responsibility of government to
provide haste services
B. The statement is false; people pay indirectly for public health
services
C. The statement may be true or false; depending on the Specific
service required
D. The statement may be true or false; depending on policies of the
government concerned.

9. According to C.E. Winslow, which of the following is the goal

of Public Health?
A. For people to attain their birthrights and longevity
B. For promotion of health and prevention and diseases
C. For people to have access to basic health services
D. For people to be organized in their health efforts

10. We say that a Filipino has attained longevity when he is able

to reach the average life span of Filipinos. What other statistic
may be used to determine attainment of longevity?
A. Age-specific mortality rate
B. Proportionate mortality rate
C. Swaroop’s index
D. Case fatality rate

11. Which of the following is the most prominent feature of

public health nursing?
A. It involves providing home care to sick people who are not
confined in the hospital
B. Services are provided free of charge to people within the
catchment area
C. The public health nurse functions as part of a team providing a
public health nursing service
D. Public health nursing focuses on preventive, not curative services

12. According to Margaret Shetland, the philosophy of public

health nursing is based on which of the following?
A. Health and longevity as birthrights
B. The mandate of the state to protect the birthrights of its citizens
C. Public health nursing as a specialized field of nursing
D. The worth and dignity of man

13. Which of the following is the mission of the Department of

Health?
A. Health for all Filipinos
B. Ensure the accessibility and quality of health
C. Improve the general health status of the population
D. Health in the hands of the Filipino people by the year 2020

14. Region IV Hospital is classified as what level of facility?

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Intermediate
D. Tertiary

15. What is true of primary facilities?

A. They are usually government-run
B. Their services are provided on an out-patient basis
C. They are training facilities for health professionals
D. A community hospital is an example of this level of health
facilities

16. Which is an example of the school nurse’s health care

provider function?
A. Requesting for BCG from the RHU for school entrance
immunization
B. Conducting random classroom inspection during measles
epidemic
C. Taking remedial action on an accident hazard in the school
playground
D. Observing places in the school where pupils spend their free
times

17. When the nurse determines whether resources were

maximized in implementing Ligtas Tigdas, she is evaluating:
A. Effectiveness
B. Efficiency
C. Adequacy
D. Appropriateness

18. You are a new B.S.N. graduate. You want to become a Public
Health Nurse. Where will you apply?
A. Department of Health
B. Provincial Health Office
C. Regional Health Office
D. Rural Health Unit

19. RA 7160 mandates devolution of basic services from the

national government to local government units. Which of the
following is the major goal of devolution?
A. To strengthen local government units
B. To allow greater autonomy to local government units.
C. To empower the people and promote their self-reliance
D. To make basic services more accessible to the people
20. Who is the Chairman of the Municipal Health Board?
A. Mayor
B. Municipal Health Officer
C. Public Health Nurse
D. Any qualified physician

21. Which level of health facility is the usual point of entry of a

client into the health care delivery system?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Intermediate
D. Tertiary

22. The public health nurse is the supervisor of rural health

midwives. Which of the following is a supervisory function of
the pubic health nurse?
A. Referring cases or patients to the midwife
B. Providing technical guidance to the midwife
C. Proving nursing care to cases referred by the midwife
D. Formulating and implementing training programs for midwives

23. One of the participants in a hilot training class asked you to

whom she should refer a patient in labor who develops a
complication. You will answer, to the;
A. Public health nurse
B. Rural health midwife
C. Municipal health officer
D. Any of these health professionals

24. You are the public health nurse in a municipality with a total
population of about 20,000. There are3 health midwives among
the RHU personnel. How many more midwife items will the
RHU need?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

25. If the RHU needs additional midwife items, you will submit
the request for additional midwife items for approval to the:
A. Rural Health Unit
B. District Health Office
C. Provincial Health Office
D. Municipal Health Board

26. As an epidemiologist, the nurse is responsible for reporting

cases or notifiable diseases. What law mandates reporting cases
of notifiable diseases?
A. Act 3573
B. RA.3753
C. RA 1054
D. RA 1082

27. According to Freeman and Heinrich, community health

nursing is a developmental service. Which of the following best
illustrates this statement?
A. The community health nurse continuously develops himself
personally and professionally
B. Health education and community organizing are necessary in
providing community health services
C. Community health nursing in intended primarily for health
promotion and prevention and treatment of disease.
D. The goal of community health nursing is to provide nursing
services to people in their own place of .residence

28. Which disease was declared through Presidential

Proclamation No. 4 as a target for, eradication in the
Philippines?
A. Pioliomyelitis
B. Measles
C. Rabies
D. Neonatal Tetanus

29. The public health nurse is responsible for presenting the

municipal health statistics using graphs and tables. To compare
the frequency of the leading causes of mortality in the
municipality, which graph will you prepare?
A. Line
B. Bar
C. Pie
D. Scatter diagram

30. Which step in community organizing involves training of

potential leaders in the community?
A. Integration
B. Community organization
C. Community study
D. Core group formation

31. In which step are plans formulated for solving community

problems?
A. Mobilization
B. Community organization
C. Follow-up/extension
D. Core group formation

32. The public health nurse takes an active role in community

participation. What is the primary goal of community
organizing?
A. To educate the people regarding community health problems
B. To mobilize the people to resolve community health problems
C. To maximize the community’s resources in dealing with health
problems

33. An indicator of success in community organizing is when

people are able to:
A. Participate in community activities for the solution of a
community problem
B. Implement activities for the solution of the community problem
C. Plan activities for the solution of the community problem
D. Identify the health problem as a common concern

34. Tertiary prevention is needed in which stage of the natural

history of disease?
A. Pre-pathogenesis
B. Pathogenesis
C. Predromal
D. Terminal

35. Isolation of a child with measles belongs to what level of

prevention?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Intermediate
D. Tertiary

36. On the other hand, Operation Timbang is_____ prevention?

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Intermediate
D. Tertiary

37. Which type of family-nurse contact will provide you with

the best opportunity to observe family dynamics?
A. Clinic consultation
B. Group conferences
C. Home visit
D. Written communication

38. The typology of family nursing problems is used in the

statement of nursing diagnosis in the care of families. The
youngest child of the delos Reyes family has been diagnosed as
mentally retarded. This is classified as:
A. Health threat
B. Health deficit
C. Foreseeable crisis
D. Stress point

39. The delos Reyes couple have 6-year old child entering
school for the first time. The delos Reyes family has a:
A. Health threat
B. Health deficit
C. Foreseeable crisis
D. Stress point
40. Which of the following is an advantage of a home visit?
A. It allows the nurse to provide nursing care to a greater number of
people
B. It provides an opportunity to do first hand appraisal of the home
situation
C. It allows sharing of experience among people with similar health
problems
D. It develops the family’s initiative in providing for health needs of
its members

41. Which is CONTRARY to the principles in planning a home

visit?
A. A home visit should have a purpose of objective
B. The plan should revolve around the family health .needs
C. A home visit should be conducted in the manner prescribed by
RHU
D. Planning of continuing care should involve a responsible-family
member

42. The PHN bag is an important tool in providing nursing care

during a home visit. The most important principle in bag
technique states that it;
A. Should save time and effort
B. Should minimize if not totally prevent the spread of infection
C. Should not overshadow concern for the patient and his family
D. May be done in variety of ways depending on the home situation,
etc.

43. To maintain the cleanliness of the bag and its contents,

which of the following must the nurse do?
A. Wash his/her hands before and after providing nursing care to
the family members
B. In the care of family member’s, as much as possible, use only
articles taken from the bag
C. Put on an apron to protect her uniform and fold it with the right
side out before putting it back into the bag.
D. At the end of the visit, fold the lining on which the bag was
placed, ensuring that the contaminated side is on the outside.

44. The public health conducts a study on the factors

contributing to the high morality rate due to heart diseases in
the municipality where she works. Which branch of
epidemiology does the nurse practice in this situation?
A. Descriptive
B. Analytical
C. Therapeutic
D. Evaluation

45. Which of the following is a function of epidemiology?

A. Identifying the disease condition based on manifestations
presented by a client
B. Determining factors that contributed to the occurrence of
pneumonia in a 3 year old
C. Determining the efficacy of the antibiotic used in the treatment of
the 3 year old client with pneumonia
D. Evaluating the effectiveness of the implementation of the
Integrated Management of Childhood Illness

46. Which of the following is an epidemiologic function of the

nurse during an epidemic?
A Conducting assessment of suspected cases to detect the
communicable diseases
B. Monitoring the condition of the cases affected by the
communicable disease
C. Participating in the investigation to determine the source of
epidemic
D. Teaching the community on preventive measures against the
disease

47. The primary purpose of conducting an epidemiologic

investigation is to;
A. Delineate the etiology of the epidemic
B. Encourage cooperation and support of the community
C. Identify groups who are at risk of contracting the disease
D. Identify geographical location of cases of the disease in the
community

48. Which is a characteristic of person-to-person propagated

epidemic?
A. There are more cases of the disease than expected
B. The disease must necessarily be transmitted through a vector
C. The spread of the disease can be attributed to a common vehicle
D. There is gradual build up of cases before we epidemic becomes
easily noticeable

49. In the investigation of an epidemic, you compare the

present frequency of the disease with the usual frequency at
this time of the year in this community. This is done during
which stage of the investigation?
A. Establishing the epidemic
B. Testing the hypothesis
C. Formulation of the hypothesis
D. Appraisal of facts

50. The number of cases of Dengue fever usually increases

towards the end of the rainy season. This pattern of occurrence
of Dengue fever is best described as;
A. Epidemic occurrence
B. Cyclical variation
C. Sporadic occurrence
D. Secular occurrence

51. In the year 1980, the World Health Organization declared

the Philippines, together with some other countries in the
Western Pacific Region, “free” of which disease?
A. Pneumonic plaque
B. Poliomyelitis
C. Small pox
D. Anthrax

52. In the census of the Philippines in 1995, there were about

35,299,000 males and about 34,968,000 females. What is the
sex ratio?
A. 99.06:100
B. 100.94:100
C. 50.23%
D. 49.76%

53. Primary health care is a total approach to community

development. Which of the following is an indicator of success
in the use of the primary health care approach?
A. Health services are provided free of charge to individuals and
families
B. Local officials are empowered as the major decision makers in
matters of health
C. Health workers are able too provide care based on identified
health needs of the people
D. Health programs are sustained according to the level of
development of the community

54. Sputum examination is the major screening tool for

pulmonary tuberculosis. Clients would sometimes get false
negative results in this exam. This means that the test is not
perfect in terms of which characteristic of a diagnostic
examination?
A. Effectiveness
B. Efficacy
C. Specificity
D. Sensitivity

55. Use of appropriate technology requires knowledge of

indigenous technology. Which medical herb is given for fever,
headache and cough?
A. Sambong
B. Tsaang gubat
C. Akapulko
D. Lagundi

56. What law created the Philippine institute of Traditional and

Alternative Health Care?
A. RA 8423
B. RA4823
C. RA 2483
D. RA 3482

57. In traditional Chinese medicine, the yielding, negative and

feminine force is termed:
A. Yin
B. Yang
C. Qi
D. Chai

58. What is the legal basis of Primary Health Care approach in

the Philippines?
A. Alma Ata Declaration of PHC
B. Letter of Instruction No 949
C. Presidential Decree No. 147
D. Presidential Decree 996

59. Which of the following demonstrates inter-sectoral

linkages?
A. Two-way referral system
B. Team approach
C. Endorsement done by a midwife to another midwife
D. Cooperation between PHN and public school teacher

60. The municipality assigned to you has a population of about

20/000. Estimate the number of 1-4 year old children who be
given Retinol capsule 200.000 every 6 months.
A. 1,500
B. 1,800
C. 2,000
D. 2,300
61. Estimate the number of pregnant women who will be given
tetanus toxoid during an immunization outreach activity in a
barangay with a population of about 1,500.
A. 265
B. 300
C. 375
D. 400

62. To describe the sex composition of the population, which

demographic tool may be used?
A. Sex ratio
B. Sex proportion
C. Population pyramid
D. Any of these maybe used

63. Which of the following is a natality rate?

A. Crude birth rate
B. Neonatal mortality rate
C. Infant mortality rate
D. General fertility rate

64. You are computing the crude rate of your municipality, with
a total population o about 18,000 for last year. There were 94
deaths. Among those who died, 20 died because of diseases of
the heart and 32 were aged 50 years or older. What is the crude
death rate?
A. 4.1/1000
B. 5.2/1000
C. 6.3/1000
D. 7.3/1000
65. Knowing that malnutrition is a frequent community health
problem, you decided to conduct nutritional assessment. What
population is particularly susceptible to protein energy
malnutrition (PEM)?
A. Pregnant women and the elderly
B. Under 5 year old children
C. 1-4 year old children
D. School age children

66. Which statistic can give the most accurate reflection of the
health status of a community?
A. 1-4 year old age-specific mortality rate
B. Infant mortality rate
C. Swaroop’s index
D. Crude death rate

67. In the past year, Barangay A had an average population of

1655. 46 babies were born in that year, 2 of whom died less
than 4 weeks after they were born. They were 4 recorded
stillbirths. What is the neonatal mortality rate?
A. 27.8/1000
B. 43.5/1000
C. 86.9/1000
D. 130.4/1000

68. Which statistic best reflects the nutritional status of a

population?
A. 1-4 year old age-specific mortality rate
B. Proportionate mortality rate
C. Infant mortality rate
D. Swaroop’s index
69. What numerator is used in computing general fertility rate?
A. Estimated midyear population
B. Number of registered live births
C. Number of pregnancies in the year
D. Number of females of reproductive age

70. You will gather data for nutritional assessment of a purok.

You will gather information only from families with members
who belong to the target population for PEM. What method of
delta gathering is best for this purpose?
A. Census
B. Survey
C. Record Review
D. Review of civil registry

71. In the conduct of a census, the method of population

assignment based on the actual physical location of the people
is termed;
A. De jure
B. De locus
C. De facto
D. De novo

72. The Field Health Services and information System (FHSIS) is

the recording and reporting system in public health) care in the
Philippines. The monthly field health service activity report is a
form used in which of the components of the FHSIS?
A. Tally report
B. Output report
C. Target/client list
D. Individual health record
73. To monitor clients registered in long-term regimens, such as
the Multi-Drug Therapy, which component will be most useful?
A. Tally report
B. Output report
C. Target/client list
D. Individual health record

74. Civil registries are important sources of data. Which law

requires registration of births within 30 days from the
occurrence of the birth?
A. PD 651
B. Act 3573
C. RA 3753
D. RA 3375

75. Which of the following professionals can sign the birth

certificate?
A. Public health nurse
B. Rural health midwife
C. Municipal health officer
D. Any of these health professionals

76. Which criterion in priority setting of health problems is used

only in community health care?
A. Modifiability of the problem
B. Nature of the problem presented
C. Magnitude of the health problem
D. Preventive potential of the health problem
77. The Sentrong Sigla Movement has been launched to
improve health service delivery. Which of the following is/are
true of this movement?
A. This is a project spearheaded by local government units
B. It is a basis for increasing funding from local government units
C. It encourages health centers to focus on disease prevention and
control
D. Its main strategy is certification of health centers able to comply
with standards

78. Which of the following women should be considered as

special targets for family planning?
A. Those who have two children or more
B. Those with medical conditions such as anemia
C. Those younger than 20 years and older than 35 years
D. Those who just had a delivery within the past 15 months

79. Freedom of choice in one of the policies of the Family

Planning Program of the Philippines. Which of the following
illustrates this principle?
A. Information dissemination about the need for family planning
B. Support of research and development in family planning methods
C. Adequate information for couples regarding the different
methods
D. Encouragement of couples to take family planning as a joint
responsibility

80. A woman, 6 months pregnant, came to the center for

consultation. Which of the following substances is
contraindicated?
A. Tetanus toxoid
B. Retinol 200,000 IU
C. Ferrous sulfate 200mg
D. Potassium iodate 200 mg, capsule

81. During prenatal consultation, a client asked you if she can

have her delivery at home. After history taking and physical
examination, you advised her against a home delivery. Which of
the following findings disqualifies her for a home delivery?
A. Her OB score is G5P3
B. She has some palmar pallor
C. Her blood pressure is 130/80
D. Her baby is in cephalic presentation

82. Inadequate intake by the pregnant woman of which vitamin

may cause neural tube defects?
A. Niacin
B. Riboflavin
C. Folic Acid
D. Thiamine

83. You are in a client’s home to attend to a delivery. Which of

the following will you do first?
A. Set up a sterile area
B. Put on a clean gown and apron
C. Cleanse the client’s vulva with soap and water
D. Note the interval, duration and intensity of labor and contractions

84. In preparing a primigravida for breastfeeding, which of the

following will you do?
A. Tell her that lactation begins within a day after delivery
B. Teach her nipple stretching exercises if her nipples are everted
C. Instruct her to wash her nipples before and after each
breastfeeding
D. Explain to her that putting the baby to breast will lessen blood
loss after delivery

85. A primigravida is instructed to offer her breast to the baby

for the first time within 30 minutes after delivery. What is the
purpose of offering the breast this early?
A. To initiate the occurrence of milk letdown
B. To stimulate milk production by the mammary acini
C. To make sure that the baby is able to get the colustrum
D. To allow the woman to practice breastfeeding in the presence of
the health worker

86. In a mother’s class, you discuss proper breastfeeding

technique. Which of these is a sign that the baby has “lactated
on” the breast property?
A. The baby takes shallow, rapid sucks
B. The mother does not feel nipple pain
C. The baby’s mouth is only partly open
D. Only the mother’s nipple is inside the baby’s mouth

87. You explain to a breastfeeding mother that breastmilk is

sufficient for all of the baby’s nutrient needs only up to:
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 1 year
D. 2 years
88. What is given to a woman within a month after the delivery
of a baby?
A. Malunggay capsule
B. Ferrous sutfate l00mg O.D.
C. Retinol 200.000 IU 1 capsule
D. Potassium Iodate 200 mg, 1 capsule

89. Which biological used in EPI is stored in the freezer?

A. DPT
B. Tetanus toxoid
C. Measles vaccine
D. Hepatitis B vaccine

90. Unused BCG should be discarded how many hours after

reconstitution?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. At the end of the day

91. In immunity school entrants with BCG, you not obliged to

secure parental consent. This is because of which legal
document?
A. PD 996
B. RA 7864
C. Presidential Proclamation No. 6
D. Presidential Proclamation No. 46

92. Which immunization produces a permanent scar?

A. DPT
B. BCG
C. Measles vaccination
D. Hepatitis B vaccination

93. A 4 week old baby was brought to the health center for his
first immunization. Which can be given to him?
A. DPT1
B. OPV1
C. Infant BCG
D. Hepatitis B Vaccin

94. You will not give DPT 2 if the mother says that the infant
had?
A. Seizures a day after DPT1
B. Fever for 3 days after DPT1
C. Abscess formation after DPT1
D. Local tenderness for 3 days after DPT1

95. A 2-month old infant was brought to the health center for
immunization. During assessment, the infant’s temperature
registered at 38.1 C. Which is the best course of action that you
will take?
A. Go on with the infants immunization
B. Give paracetamol and wait for his fever to subside
C. Refer the infant to the physician for further assessment
D. Advise the infant’s mother to bring him back for immunization
when he is well

96. A pregnant woman had just received her 4th dose of tetanus
toxoid. Subsequently, her baby will have protection against
tetanus for how long?
A. 1 year
B. 3 years
C. 10 years
D. Lifetime

97. A 4-month old infant was brought to the health center of

cough. Her respiratory rate is 42/minute. Using the IMCI
guidelines of assessment, her breathing is considered;
A. Fast
B. Slow
C. Normal
D. Insignificant

98. Which of the following signs will indicate that a young child
is suffering from severe pneumonia?
A. Dyspnea
B. Wheezing
C. Fast breathing
D. Chest indrawing

99. Using IMCI guidelines, you classify a child as having severe

pneumonia. What is the best management for the child?
A. Prescribe antibiotic
B. Refer him urgently to the hospital
C. Instruct the mother to increase fluid intake
D. Instruct the mother to continue breastfeeding

100. A 5-month old infant was brought by his mother to the

health center because of diarrhea occurring 4 to 5 times a day.
His skin goes back slowly after a skin pinch and his eyes are
sunken. Using the IMCI guidelines, you will classify this infant in
which category?
A. No signs of dehydration
B. Some dehydration
C. Severe dehydration
D. The data is insufficient

101. Based on the assessment, you classified a 3-month old

infant with the chief complaint of diarrhea in the category of
SOME DEHYDRATION. Based on the IMCI management
guidelines, which of the following will you do?
A. Bring the infant to the nearest facility where IV fluids can be given
B. Supervise the mother in giving 200 to 400 ml of Oresol in 4 hours
C. Give the infant’s mother instructions on home management
D. Keep the infant in your health center for close observation

102. A mother is using Oresol’ in the management of diarrhea

of her 3-year old child. She asked you what to do if her child
vomits. You will tell her to:
A. Bring the child to the nearest hospital for further assessment
B. Bring the child to the health center for IV therapy
C. Bring the child to the health center for assessment by the
physician
D. Let the child rest for 10 minutes then continue giving Oresol
more slowly

103. A 1 1/2 year old child was classified as having 3rd degree
of protein energy malnutrition, kwashjorkor. Which of the
following signs will be most apparent in this child?
A. Voracious appetite
B. Wasting
C. Apathy
D. Edema

104. Assessment of a 2-year old child revealed “baggy pants”.

Using the IMCI guidelines, how will you manage this child?
A. Refer the child urgently to a hospital for confinement
B. Coordinate with the social worker to enroll the child in a feeding
program
C. Make a teaching plan for the mother, focusing on the menu
planning for her child
D. Assess and treat the child for health problems like infections and
intestinal parasitism
105. During the physical examination of a young child, what is
the earliest sign of xerophthalmia that may observe?
A. Keratomalacia
B. Corneal opacity
C. Night blindness
D. Conjunctival xerosis

106. To prevent xerophthalmia, young children are given

Retinol capsule every 6 months. What is the dose given to
preschoolers?
A. 10, 000 IU
B. 20, 000 IU
C. 100, 000 IU
D. 200, 000 IU

107. The major sign of iron deficiency anemia is pallor. What

part is best examined for pallor?
A. Palms
B. Nailbeds
C. Around the lips
D. Lower conjunctival sac

108. Food fortification is one of the strategies to prevent

micronutrient deficiency conditions. RA 8976 mandates
fortification of certain food items. Which of the following is
among these food items?
A. Sugar
B. Bread
C. Margarine
D. Filled milk

109. What is the best course of action when there is a measles

epidemic in a nearby municipality?
A. Give measles vaccine to babies aged 6 to 8 months
B. Give babies aged 6 to 11 months one dose of 100,000 IU of
Retinol
C. Instruct mother to keep their babies at home to prevent disease
transmission
D. Instruct mothers to feed their babies adequately to enhance their
babies resistance

110. A mother brought her daughter, 4 years old, to the RHU

because of cough and colds. Following the IMCI assessment
guide, which of the following is a danger sign that indicates the
need for urgent referral to a hospital?
A. Inability to drink
B. High grade fever
C. Signs of severe dehydration
D. Cough for more than 30 days
111. Management of a child with measles includes the
administration of which of the following?
A. Gentian violet on mouth lesions
B. Antibiotic to prevent pneumonia
C. Tetracycline eye ointment for corneal opacity
D. Retinol capsule regardless of when the last dose was given

112. A mother brought her 10 month old infant for consultation

because of fever which started 4 days prior to consultation. To
determine malaria risk, what will you do?
A. Do a tourniquet test
B. Ask where the family resides
C. Get a specimen for blood smear
D. Ask if the fever is present everyday

113. The following are strategies implemented by the DOH to

prevent mosquito-borne diseases. Which of these is most
effective in the control of Dengue fever?
A. Stream seeding with larva-eating fish
B. Destroying breeding places of mosquitoes
C. Chemoprophylaxis of non-immune persons going to endemic
areas
D. Teaching people in endemic areas to use chemically treated
mosquito nets

114. Secondary prevention for malaria includes?

A. Planting of neem or eucalyptus trees
B. Residual spraying of insecticides at night
C. Determining whether a place is endemic or not
D. Growing larva-eating fish in mosquito breeding places
115. Scotch tape swab is done to check for which intestinal
parasite?
A. Ascaris
B. Pinworm
C. Hookworm
D. Schistosoma

116. Which of the following signs indicates the need for sputum
examination for AFB?
A. Hematemesis
B. Fever for 1 week
C. Cough for 3 weeks
D. Chest pain for 1 week

117. Which clients are considered targets for DOTS category?

A. Sputum negative cavitary cases
B. Clients returning after default
C. Relapses and failures of previous PTB treatment regimens
D. Clients diagnosed for the first time through a positive sputum
exam

118. To improve compliance to treatment, what innovation is

being implemented in DOTS?
A. Having the health worker follow up the client at home
B. Having the health worker or a responsible family member
monitor drug intake
C. Having the patient come to the health center every month to get
his medications
D. Having a target list to check on whether the patient has collected
his monthly supply of drugs
119. Diagnosis of leprosy is highly dependent on recognition of
symptoms. Which of the following is an early sign of leprosy?
A. Macular lesions
B. Inability to close eyelids
C. Thickened painful nerves
D. Sinking of the nose bridge

120. Which of the following clients should be classified as a case

of mutibacillary leprosy?
A. 3 skin lesions, negative slit skin smear
B. 3 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear
C. 5 skin lesions, negative slit skin smear
D. 5 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear

121. In the Philippines, which condition is the most frequent

cause of death associated by schistosomiasis?
A. Liver cancer
B. Liver cirrhosis
C. Bladder cancer
D. Intestinal perforation

122. What is the most effective way of controlling

schistosomiasis in an endemic area?
A. Use of molluscicides
B. Building of foot bridges
C. Proper use of sanitary toilets
D. Use of protective footwear, such as rubber boots

123. When residents obtain water from an artesian well in the

neighborhood, the level of this approved type of water facility
is:
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV

124. For prevention of Hepatitis A, you decided to conduct

health education activities. Which of the following is Irrelevant?
A. Use of sterile syringes and needles
B. Safe food preparation and food handling by vendors
C. Proper disposal of human excreta and personal hygiene
D. Immediate reporting of water pipe leaks and illegal water
connections

125. Which biological used in EPI should not be stored in the

freezer?
A. DPT
B. OPV
C. Measles vaccine
D. MMR

126. You will conduct outreach immunization in a barangay

with a population of about 1500. Estimate the number of
infants in the barangay.
A. 45
B. 50
C. 55
D. 60

127. In IMCI, severe conditions generally require urgent referral

to a hospital. Which of the following severe conditions Does not
always require urgent referral to hospital?
A. Mastoiditis
B. Severe dehydration
C. Severe pneumonia
D. Severe febrile disease.

128. A client was diagnosed as having Dengue Fever. You will

say that there is slow capillary refill when the color of the
nailbed that you pressed does not return within how many
seconds?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 8
D. 10

129. A 3-year old child was brought by his mother to the health
center because of fever of 4-day duration. The child had a
positive tourniquet test result. In the absence of other signs,
which of the most appropriate measure that the PHN may carry
out to prevent Dengue shock syndrome?
A. Insert an NGT and give fluids per NGT
B. Instruct the mother to give the child Oresol
C. Start the patient on IV Stat
D. Refer the client to the physician for appropriate management

130. The pathognomonic sign of measles is Koplik’s spot. You

may see Koplik’s spot by inspecting the:
A. Nasal Mucosa
B. Buccal mucosa
C. Skin on the abdomen
D. Skin on the antecubital surface
131. Among the following diseases, which is airborne?
A. Viral conjunctivitis
B. Acute poliomyelitis
C. Diphtheria
D. Measles

132. Among children aged 2 months to 3 years, the most

prevalent form of meningitis is caused by which
microorganism?
A. Hemophilus Influenzae
B. Morbillivirus
C. Streptococcus Pneumoniae
D. Neisseria meningitides

133. Human beings are the major reservoir of malaria. Which of

the following strategies in malaria control is based on this fact?
A. Stream seeding
B. Stream clearing
C. Destruction of breeding places
D. Zooprophylaxis

134. The use of larvivorous fish in malaria control is the basis

for which strategy of malaria control?
A. Stream seeding
B. Stream clearing
C. Destruction of breeding places
D. Zooprophylaxis .

135. Mosquito-borne diseases are prevented mostly with the

use of mosquito control measures. Which of the following is
NOT appropriate for malaria control?
A. Use of chemically treated mosquito nets
B. Seeding of breeding places with larva-eating fish
C. Destruction of breeding places of the mosquito vector
D. Use of mosquito-repelling soaps, such as those with basil or
citronella

136. A 4-year old client was brought to the health center with
chief complaint of severe diarrhea and the passage of “rice
water”. The client is most probably suffering from which
condition?
A. Giardiasis
B. Cholera
C. Amebiasis
D. Dysentery

137. In the Philippines, which specie of schistosoma is endemic

in certain regions?
A. S. mansoni
B. S. japonicum
C. S. malayensis
D. S. haematobium

138. A 32 year old client came for consultation at the health

center with the chief complaint of fever for a week.
Accompanying symptoms were muscle pains and body malaise.
A week after the start of fever, the client noted yellowish
discoloration of his sclera. History showed that he waded in
flood waters about 2 weeks before the onset of symptoms.
Based on this history/ which disease condition will you suspect?
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Tetanus
D. Leptospirosis

139. MWSS provides water to Manila and other cities in Metro

Manila. This is an example of which level of water facility?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV

140. You are the PHN in the city health center. A client
underwent screening for AIDS using ELISA. His result was
positive. What is the best course of action that you may take?
A. Get a thorough history of the client, focusing on the practice of
high risk behavior
B. Ask the client to be accompanied by a significant person before
revealing the result.
C. Refer the client to the physician since he is the best person to
reveal the result to the client
D. Refer the client for a supplementary test, such as Western blot,
since the ELISA result maybe false

141. Which is the BEST control measure for AIDS?

A. Being faithful to a single sexual partner
B. Using a condom during each sexual contact
C. Avoiding sexual contact with commercial sex workers
D. Making sure that one’s sexual partner does not have signs of
AIDS
142. The most frequent causes of death among clients with
AIDS are opportunistic diseases. Which of the following
opportunistic infections is characterized by tonsilllopharyngitis?
A. Respiratory candidiasis
B. Infectious mononucleosis
C. Cytomegalovirus disease
D. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia

143. To determine the possible sources of sexually transmitted

infections, which is the BEST method that may be undertaken
by the public health nurse?
A. Contact tracing
B. Community survey
C. Mass screening tests
D. Interview suspects

144. Antiretroviral agents, such as AZT are used in the

management of AIDS. Which of the following is not an action
expected of these drugs?
A. They prolong the life of the client with AIDS
B. They reduce the risk of opportunistic infections
C. They shorten the period of communicability of the disease
D. They are able to bring about a cure of the disease condition

145. A barangay had an outbreak of German measles. To

prevent congenital rubella, what is the BEST advice that you can
give to women in the first trimester of pregnancy in the
barangay?
a. Advice them on the sign of German Measles
b. Avoid crowded places, such as markets and moviehouses
c. Consult at the health center where rubella vaccine may be given
d. Consult a physician who may give them rubella immunoglobulin