Prince Aviation

ATA 00
1. An AIPC revision are ?
a. Annually
b. Quatrerly
c. Monthly
ATA 05

2. After Maximum Flap Extended Speed we need to perform :

a. Unscheduled maintenance checks
b. Scheduled maintenance
c. TVC
ATA 06

3. Zone 100 is identifies as:

a. Upper half of the fuselage
b. Lower half of the fuselage
c. Middle half of the fuselage
ATA 07

4. During Partial Aircraft Jacking:

a. The emergency/parking brake set
b. The emergency/parking brake SW select ON
c.The emergency/parking brake released

ATA 08

5. To weigh the airplane refer to:

a. Weight and Balance Manual for the instructions
b. Aircraft Maintenance Manual and Loading Manual for the instructions
c. SRM and Loading Manual for the instructions

ATA 09

6. The maximum towing speed using a tow bar is :

a. 15 Km/h
b. 10 Km/h
c. 7 Km/h
ATA 10

7. Mooring/securing lines are designed to be used when ground winds are expected not to be
more than:
a. 45 knots
b. 60 knots
c. 65knots
ATA11

8. Aircraft Registration number is located:

a. In the nose section of the aircraft
b. In the tail section of the aircraft
c. In the line with the Emergency exits doors

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ATA 12

9. The fueling station is located on the:

a. LH wing leading edge
b. RH wing leading edge
c. LH & RH wing leading edge
ATA 20

10. Standard practices that apply to the basic engine are given in Chapter:
a. 61
b. 20
c. 70

ATA 50-57

11. Since the baggage door net is a mandatory item, it has tie-down straps installed at:
a. Four Position
B. Six Position
C. Eight Position

12. The ceiling and sidewall Cargo comp. panels are made of :
a. Of plastic sandwich panels with Nomex core.
b. Of dual aluminium panels with poliamid core.
c. Of fiberglass sandwich panels with Nomex core.

13. External drain holes and internal drain paths are provided to:
a. Prevent different types of fluids from collecting within the airplane which could become a
possible fire or corrosion hazard
b. Prevent ice creation and hydraulic fluids collecting within the airplane, which could become
a possible corrosion hazard
c. Prevent water and other fluids from collecting within the airplane which could become a
possible fire or corrosion hazard

14. The cargo doors are assisted in opening by

a. Two Hydraulic actuator
b. Two Torsion bars
c. Two gas spring actuator

15. Door Proximity Sensors and/or microswitches send signals to the?

a. MAU (Modular Avionics Unit).
b. SPDA (Secondary Power Distribution Assembly).
c. NIM (Network Interface Module)

16. Why is stainless steel used in the construction for frame 2 and 3 in the engine pylon?
a. due to strength required
b. due to possiblity of dis-similar metal corrosion
c. because of the possibility of skydrol

17. The trailing edge and elevator hinge structure is attached at the :
a. Rear spar.

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b. Middle spar
c. Front spar

18. The construction of control cabin windows No. 1 and No. 2 consists of a glass pane laminated
to each side of a polyvinyl butyral (vinyl) interlayer or core. The inner glass pane is the thicker
of the two and is the:
a. Secondary load carrying member
b. Primary load carrying member
c. Fail-safe load carrying member

19. How many sensor is necessary to operate the windshield heat system:
a. 1
b. 3
c. 2

20. Each wing root rib consists of :

a. Front and rear spar
b. Wing boxes
c. Solid stiffened web

21. To the wing trailing edge are hinged?

a. The flaps and aileron only
b. The flaps, aileron and MFW spoilers
c. The flaps and MFW spoilers only

22. The winglet improve the performance of the aircraft by :

a. Decreasing drag and consequently reducing fuel consumption.
b. Decreasing drag only.
c. Reducing fuel consumption only

23. The microswitch in the forward passenger door operates:

a.The back-up door indication
b.The courtesy light
c.The slide armed warning light

ATA 31/31A

24. How are red warning messages presented to the crew?

a. Master warning attention getter on glareshield with triple chime. The EICAS message will flash in
inverse video on the EICAS until acknowledged
b. Master warning attention getter on glareshield with triple chime. The EICAS message will flash in
inverse video on the EICAS for 5 secs then go steady.
c. Master warning attention getter on glareshield with triple chime. The EICAS message will be,
presented in inverse video on the EICAS and will remain in inverse video until either a new message
is generated or the condition no longer exists
25. The QAR (Quick Access Recorder) card is a standard PCMCIA (Personal Computer Memory
Card International Association) card (PC (Personal Computer) Card) capable of holding more
than:
a. 90 hours of aircraft operation.
b. 80 hours of aircraft operation.
c. 70 hours of aircraft operation.

26. The power requirement for the MAU (Modular Avionics Unit) is :

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a. 350 watts at maximum rated output load.

b. 300 watts at maximum rated output load.
c. 250 watts at maximum rated output load.

27. Generic I/O modules in MAU (Modular Avionics Unit) contain a standard mix of :
a. Discrete and analog I/O interfaces.
b. ARINC 429, discrete and analog I/O interfaces.
c. ARINC 429 and analog I/O interfaces.

28. The ASCB is made up of :

a. two primary and two backup buses
b. one primary and two backup buses
c. one primary and one backup bus

29. When is the aural message “Take Off OK” generated?

a. When the thrust levers are advanced and all take off parameters are good
b. When the thrust levers are advanced or the T/O config test button is pushed and all take off
parameters are OK
c. Only when the T/O config test button is pushed and all take off parameters are OK

30. The MWF (Monitor Warning Function)s controls all avionics aurals except :
a. EGPWS(Enhanced Ground Proximity Warning System).
b. TCAS (Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System).
c. Cabin altitude

31. The Clock interfaces with the :

a. Generic I/O(Generic Input/Output) Module 2 in MAU(Modular Avionics Unit) 2 via an ARINC 429
Bus.
b. PROC 2 in MAU(Modular Avionics Unit) 2 via an ARINC 429 Bus.
c. NIC(Network Interface Controler) in MAU(Modular Avionics Unit) 2

32. The automatic declutter function operates only if all the conditions are valid and satisfied for
more than;
a. 50 sec
b. 60 sec
c. 30 sec

ATA 24

33. How does the RAT maintain a constant 400HZ?

a. A IDG & CSD
b. Variable pitch propeller blades
c. The Static Inverter
34. What power source can provide power to charge the batteries?
a. External DC power or any of the main IDG’s
b. Any AC power source including external AC Power
c. Any AC power source except external .

35. The CAS message “TRU1 FAIL” is inhibited during:-

a. Take off and landing
b. On the ground

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c. In flight

36. What happens in the event of a battery overheat?

a. Crew action is required to isolate the battery
b. The SPDA will take the battery off line automatically
c. The sensor will operate an overheat relay causing the battery to go off

37. What does the LED on the IDG switch indicate?

a. Low oil pressure only
b. High oil temp only
c. Low oil pressure and/or High oil temp

38. Under what circumstances is the Static Inverter commanded ON (but not actually supplying the
standby AC bus)
a. With all engines running and all generators on line
b. Only if all normal AC supplies fail
c. The SPDA1 will set the inverter to the ON status in case only one main AC source is available

39. The SSPCs (Solid State Power Contactors) or “virtual” circuit-breakers are controlled from:-
a. MFD CMC pages
b. MCDU
c. Laptop via LAN connection

40. Overcurrent protection will operate to de-energize the EPAC, GSTC, and the pin F output. The
pin F output will remain de-energized until the :
a. Software resets the pin F enable signal or until a power-up reset is applied to the EPM
b. Automatically restored when the overvoltage condition no longer exists.
c. Only power up reset

ATA 33

41. What prevents the light in the mid-avionic bay being left on in flight?
a. SPDA 2 will de-energise the system
b. A relay will de-energised controlled directly by the air/ground system
c. Directly from the MAU3

42. How many times does the ballast unit for the passenger lighting automatically restart?
a. Once
b. Twice
c. Three times

43. If the aircraft is on the ground with APU not running and no power available and aircraft de-
energized, will the courtesy lights operate?
a. No – Ground service bus must be energized
b. Yes - through the Hot bus protected by a 5 minute timer
c. Yes - through the Hot Bus but no

44. The power supply for the White Nav lights is:-
a. 7 VAC
b. 8.3 VAC
c. 28 VDC

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ATA 36

45. How is the Air Management System controlled?

a. By a dual channel computer in the SPDA 2.
b. By a dual channel computer in the fwd E-Bay.
c. By a single channel computer in MAU 2.
46. Where do you find displayed information of the bleed system status?
a. On the synoptic page only.
b. AMS control panel in the mid E-Bay.
c. On the EICAS , the synoptic page and the CMC.

47. How is it guaranteed that no pressure from the bleed system will leak through the HP ground air
connection?
a.By a pressure regulated shut off valve.
b.By a mechanical check valve.
c.By an electrically operated shut off valve.

48. How does the cross-bleed valve operate?

a..It is torque motor controlled and pneumatically operated.
b. It is pneumatically controlled and electrically operated.
c. It is electrically operated in relation to the pressure switch inputs.

49. What happens if the crossbleed valve input signal will fail in an intermediate position?
a.It will open, as it is fail safe open.
b.It will close, as it is fail safe closed.
c.It will stop in the position of the failure

50.How is the temperature regulated downstream of the pre-cooler?

a.By the NAPRSOV (Nacelle Pressure Regulating Shut off Valve)
b.By the Fan Air control valve
c.By the HPSOV(High Pressure Shut off Valve)

ATA 21/21A/21B/21C

51.How does the AMS (Air Master System) Controller within the SPDA communicate with the MAU’s
(Modular Avionic Unit) to drive torque motors for the ECS valves?
a.ARINC 429 Bus
b.Discrete signals to MAU’s
c.Discrete Signals and RS 232 to MAU’s.

52.The recirculation fans are powered by the

a. Secondary Power Distribution Assembly 2.
b. Secondary Power Distribution Assembly 1.
c.CB

53.The emergency ram-air valve is tested each time the :

a. AMS (Air Management System) controller is powered up.
b. ECS (Environmental Control System) controller is powered up.
c. Air condition system is started

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54. How does the AMS(Air Management System) controller monitor the efficiency of the heat
exchanger?
a.By monitoring the temperature drop between the T1 & T2 Sensors
b.By monitoring the temperature drop between the T1 and T3 sensors
c.By monitoring the temperature drop between T1 and T5 sensors

55. During the LOW LIMIT BY-PASS VALVE IBIT , preconditions are - WONW ; Airspeed below
50knots; Channel in control and :
a. PACK ON
b. PACK OFF
c. Manifold pressure above 12psi

56.When is the “Take-off to Climb” mode of the pressurisation sequence enabled?

a.A signal to the CPCS (Cabin Pressurisation Control System) when the gear is up and locked
b.A signal to the CPCS when the gear is weight off wheels
c.A signal to the CPCS when the system detects an initial cabin positive rate of climb or FADECS
signal CLB selected whichever comes first

57.When is the CABIN HI warning generated (assume LFE set to 500’)?

a. Cabin alt 8000’
b. Cabin Alt 10000’
c. Cabin alt 12500’

58.The CPCS has a fail-safe software logic to close the outflow valve if the cabin pressure altitude
reaches 14500 ft. This function overrides the:
a. Normal AUTO mode only
b. MANUAL mode only
c. AUTO and MANUAL mode

59.Advisory PRESN AUTO FAULT will be displayed if :

a. If both channels FAIL
b. If one channel FAIL
c. If one channel FAIL after 2 sec time delay

60.Warning message HI CABIN ALT is generated from

a. Ambient pressure from MAU
b. Cabin pressure from CPCS
c. Altitude pressure switch

61.If the CPCS BIT logic detects a failure within a CPCS component:
a. CMC message is generated for later maintenance action.
b. CAS message is generated
c. No CMC or CAS message are generated

62.Climb external is used when a valid CRFL is received from the:

a. SPDA
b. CPCS
c. FMS

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ATA 25/25A

63.Pilot SEAT HEIGHT ELECTRICAL ADJUSTMENT is controlled with :

a. Momentary switch
b. Two position switch
c. Three position switch

64.For BACK UP Longitudinal Movement (Fore/Aft) of Pilot seat you must :

a. Pull both manual pins first
b. Pull the manual longitudinal backup handle first
c. Remove electrical motor first

65.High-pressure cylinder for Escape slides have :

a. GO – NO GO pressure gage
b. 1800 PSI gage
c. LED gage

66. ELT NAV unit receive GPS position from :

a. Generic I/O module from MAU 1
b. NIC from MAU 1
c. FMS

ATA 26

67.Which is a true statement regarding the baggage bay fire bottles?

a. The metering bottle has to be manually discharged
b. The metering bottle will automatically discharge after 1-mins but can also be manually discharged
c. The metering bottle fires at the same time as the high rate bottle but has a metering orifice to
reduce the flow rate.

68.The purpose of the integrity switch is in the responder unit is:-

a. To provide a fire warning signal
b. To provide a fail signal if the fire detector becomes damaged
c. To provide a warning of an “average” overheat

69.The fire detectors are electrically connected in two loops, A and B, with 4 detectors for each loop,
to the :
a. MAU 1 and MAU 2
b. MAU 2 and MAU 3
c. MAU 1 and MAU 3

70.If the aircraft is on the ground (WOW (Weight-on-Wheels) = true) and fire is detected in the APU
compartment, the MAU sends a shutdown command to the APU control system after:
a. 15 sec
b. 20 sec
c. 10 sec

71.If an engine fire detection loop fails the changeover to the alternative loop is achieved:-
a. by pilot selection
b. automatically by the control module in the MAU
c. automatically by the SPDA

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ATA 27

72.Which component in the system provides analogue outputs to the elevator and rudder actuators
a.Flight Control Modules
b.P-ACE’s
c.FS-ACE

73.For CAT II aircraft the Yaw Damper function of the autopilot is carried out by:-
a.A independent autopilot servo
b.An input from the AFCS to the FCM via the ASCB
c.An input into the trim actuator

74.What is the purpose of the pressure reducer valve in the rudder PCU?
a.Selects active/standby and damping mode
b.Reduces pressure when airspeed > 135 kts
c.Engages the Thrust Asymmetry Compensation

75.The lower Rudder PCU is powered from the :-

a.No1 Hydraulic system
b.No2 Hydraulic system
c.No3 Hydraulic system

76. When going from Flap Position 3 to 0 what is the correct sequence?
a. Slats will fully retract followed by the flaps
b. Flaps will fully retract followed by slats
c. The flaps and slats will retract together and arrive at 0 at the same time

77.How does the change over of the HS-ACE channels occur?

a.The FCM will command the HS-ACE to change channels
b.The HS-ACE changes channels through internal logic
c.The pilot has to select which channel to use

78.When going from Flap Position 5 to 4 happens?

a.No movement of the flaps or slats will occur but the go-around logic is accomplished
b.The flaps will move to position 15 degrees
c.The flaps and slats will retract together and arrive at 15 degrees at the same time

79.If one channel of the flap system fails?

a.The flaps will stop functioning but the slats will continue to operate as normal
b.Flaps and Slats will operate at half normal speed
c.Flaps will operate at half normal speed but slats continue unaffected.

80.Ground Spoilers are deployed with a signal from:-

a.The FCM when aircraft on ground, thrust levers at idle and Wheels speed > 45kts IAS>60kts
b.A selection by the pilot
c.A direct signal from the FADEC

81.How many P-Ace Units are installed?

a.3 – each with two channels
b.4 – each with two channels
c.2 – each with three channels

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82.In the roll control circuit there are the following main components controlling roll?
a.An Aileron P-ACE and Spoiler ACE within the Flight Control Modules
b.A Spoiler-ACE which is within the Flight Control Modules
c.An Aileron P-ACE which also contains a Spoiler-ACE

83.The position of the ground spoiler panels is determined by:-

a.Feed-back LVDT within the actuator feeding into the Flight Control Module
b.Proximity switches on the panels feeding into the PSEM
c.Proximity switches on the panels feeding into the Flight Control Module

84. The pilot reports that the speedbrakes failed to deploy and an advisory SPD BRK LVR DISAG
message was presented. What is the most likely cause?
a.There is unlikely to be a fault. This is an operator problem. Check CMC for other messages not
reported by crew.
b.Failure of the Speed brake lever transducer or the Spoiler ACE
c.Failure of the Air Data input or Speed brake lever transducer failure

ATA 28/28A

85.The fuel message “FUEL EQUAL – X-FEED” will be illuminated when the fuel imbalance reaches;-
a.<45kgs for 4 secs
b.360 kgs
c.0 kgs

86.The AC pump low pressure switch is monitored by:-

a.The SPDA for pump control logic
b.The Generic I/O module in the MAU. The switch status is passed to the SPDA from the MAU via a
data bus
c.The MAU, which controls the pump logic.

87.The output from the Fuel Conditioning Unit to the Generic I/O in the MAU is?
a.On an ARINC 429 Data bus
b.On the Controller Area Network Bus
c.On the ASCB bus

88.When does the DC fuel pump normally operate?

a.Continuously at all times with engines running
b.During engine start only
c.During engine start or in the event of AC pump failure

89. The MAU 3 monitors the :

a. AC auxiliary pump 1 pressure switch and transmits the data on the ASCB for EICAS display and
control functions.
b. AC auxiliary pump 2 pressure switch and transmits the data on the ASCB for EICAS display and
control functions.
c. AC auxiliary pump 3 pressure switch and transmits the data on the ASCB for EICAS display and
control functions.

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90.Which is a true statement:-

a.The left low level sensor feeds into the right quantity channel
b.The left low level sensor feeds directly to the SPDA
c.The left low level sensor feeds into the left channel of the FCU

91.The fuel message “FUEL IMBALANCE” will be illuminated when the fuel imbalance reaches;-
a. approximately 320 kg between the left and right wing tanks occurs for a period longer than
approximately 10 seconds
b. approximately 380 kg between the left and right wing tanks occurs for a period longer than
approximately 10 seconds
c. approximately 360 kg between the left and right wing tanks occurs for a period longer than
approximately 10 seconds

ATA 29/29A

92. What is the function of the pump unload valve in the No3 hydraulic system?
a. To switch off AC pump B
b. To reduce the pressure in pump A if the RAT is deployed
c. To reduce the load on the PTU

93. AUTO selection will :

a. provide the ground signal AUTO selected to MAU 1, but also signal to SPDA 2, towards the auto
logic
b. direct DC 28V power to the contactor in RICC
c. on direct DC 28V power to the contactor in SPDA 2

94. The EDP incorporates a :

a. 2-position, 3-way solenoid valve to reduce the discharge pressure and input torque required during
engine windmill relights
b. 3-position, 3-way solenoid valve to reduce the discharge pressure and input torque required during
engine windmill relights
c. 1-position, 2-way solenoid valve to reduce the discharge pressure and input torque required during
engine windmill relights

95. What would happen in the event of a hydraulic system 3 overheat >125˚C?
a. The 3A pump will stop running 3B will continue as normal
b. Both pumps will stop, they will automatically resume when the system temperature falls below
100˚C
c. Both pumps will stop and will remain isolated until aircraft power down.

96. HYD 3 ELEC PUMP A FAIL (CAS) is:

a. CAUTION message
b. WARNING message
c. ADVISORY message

ATA 32/32A

97. What happens when electrical overide for gear extension is selected?
a. The overide switch signals an alternative PSEM (Proximity Switch Electronic Module) module to
control the gear
b. A direct electrical link is established between the bus bar and the normal gear selector handle
c. A direct electrical is established between the bus bar and the gear selector valve

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98. What is the range of movement of the NWS through the hand-tiller
a. 86 degrees with a speed limitation.
b. 7 degrees with a speed limitation.
c. 76 degrees with a speed limitation.

99. The Touch Down Protection System allows brake pressure to be applied only when.
a. The brake pedals position is greater than 20% input.
b. The Auto-Brake control system has been selected ON.
c. Wheel spin-up has exceeded 50 knots or 3 seconds after ground mode has been established.

100. The Landing gear is electronically controlled by using:

a. Two Proximity Sensor Evaluation Modules, two brake control modules and an Auto-brake control
module.
b. A single Proximity Sensor Electronics Unit with dual channel processing.
c. A Modular Avionics Unit and local Area Network bus.

101.The landing gear aural warning logic is processed in the:

a. Monitor Warning 1 and Monitor Warning 2 simultaneously, which are located on the NIC1/MAU1
and NIC2/MAU2 respectively
b. Monitor Warning 1 and Monitor Warning 2 simultaneously, which are located on the PROC1/MAU1
and PROC2/MAU2 respectively
c. Monitor Warning 1 and Monitor Warning 2 simultaneously, which are located on the NIC1/MAU2
and NIC2/MAU3 respectively

ATA 35

102.Oxygen Temperature sensor sand data to:

a. SPDA 2 (Secondary Power Distribution Assembly) , Left AMS
b. SPDA 1 (Secondary Power Distribution Assembly) , Right AMS
c. SPDA 1 (Secondary Power Distribution Assembly), Left AMS

103.The mask comes with an :

a. Optional automatic microphone cut-off which deactivates the user’s microphone during inhalation,
providing clearer audio transmissions.
b. Automatic microphone cut-off which deactivates the user’s microphone during inhalation, providing
clearer audio transmissions.
c. Only microphone with manual switch on audio control panel

104.Caution message OXY CREW LO PRESS indicated if the 50 cubic feet pressure falls below:
a. 849psi
b. 749psi
c. 562psi

105.When the switch measures the increasing cabin altitude of 14000 +/- 500ft, a signal is sent to the
a. SPDA (Secondary Power Distribution Assembly) 1
b. SPDA (Secondary Power Distribution Assembly) 2
c. MAU ( Modular Aviaonocs Unit) 1

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ATA 30

106.What is the purpose of the temperature sensors in the wing/slat area?

a. To detect a wing anti-ice system leak
b. To act as secondary ice detectors
c. To allow the AMS (Air Master System) to modulate the wing anti-ice valves based on temperature

107. Which slat temp sensor is used for normal system control?
a. The middle skin temperature sensor.
b. The outboard skin temperature sensor.
c. The inner skin temperature sensor.

108. Which statement is correct concerning the NAI PRSOV?

a. The Valve is fail safe open.
b. The valve is fail safe closed.
c. The valve will stay in the position where it failed.

109. Advisory message ICE CONDITION is inhibited :

a. Below 2500 ft above airfield
b. Below 2000 ft above airfield
c. Below 1700 ft above airfield

ATA 38

110. The vacuum blower barometric switch opens when the altitude is above :
a. 16,000 feet
b. 14,000 feet
c. 10,000 feet

111. If the FCU is enabled, a flush cycle starts with the operation of :
a. Flush switch.
b. Toilet bowl.
c. Waste tank.

ATA 45

112. If the ARINC 429 Bus fails between a member system LRU and another member system LRU,
how does the CMC detect this?
a. A smart member system LRU will report that another smart (or non smart) member system has
failed via its own data bus
b. The CMC monitors the ARINC bus and it will detect it itself
c. It is possible that the fault will go undetected (by the CMC). The engineer must therefore not
assume a fault does not exist.

113. When using the ADMS (Aircraft Diagnostic Maintenance System) where can Fault Isolation
Manual be accessed?
a. Via the MFD if it is loaded onto the aircraft CMC application system
b. Via the laptop if it is loaded onto the laptop
c. Via the MCDU providing it is loaded onto the aircraft

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114. Where is CMC System Database installed, if NIC + PROCESSOR is equipped with Pentium II?
a. In MAU 2.
b. In NIC+PROCESSOR 4, in MAU 2.
c. In CMC module

115.What is the Remote Terminal?

a. It’s an optional user interface that can be connected to the aircraft at several locations.
b. It’s a DVD-ROM drive with PCMCIA card slot to upload the CMC.
c. It’s an additional LCD display installed in the cockpit to enter the CMC without disturbing pilots.

ATA 49

116. For starting the APU, the minimum battery voltage must be:
a.Both batteries at 21Vdc.
b.At least one battery at 24 Vdc.
c.Both batteries at 24 Vdc.

117. When the master control knob on the APU control panel is selected to off, what sequence of
events follows?
a.The APU is immediately shut down and FADEC remains energised for a further two minutes.
b.The AC generator will be taken off-line, the oil pump de-prime valve will be energised closed and
the engine will shut-down after a two minute cool down period.
c.The AC generator will remain on-line until the three minute cool down period has finished, then the
de-prime valve is de-energised open as the FADEC shuts down the engine

118. What inputs are required by FADEC to control the anti-surge valve for compressor stall
protection?
a.Turbine gas temperature, altitude and compressor P3 pressure.
b.Engine RPM, turbine gas temp and airspeed.
c.Total air temperature, altitude and airspeed from the air data computers.

119. What happens if the fuel filter on the APU fuel module becomes clogged?
a.At 8 PSID a message is triggered by the FADEC only.
b.At 8 PSID a message is triggered by the FADEC and the bypass valve will open.
c.At 8 PSID a message is triggered by the FADEC and at 12 PSID the bypass valve will open.

120. ON ACFT WITH APU FADEC SOFTWARE 4.00

AND ON The exciter continues to supply high voltage until de-energized by the FADEC:
a.at 25% engine speed.
b.at 45% engine speed.
c.at 55% engine speed.

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