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PRACTICE LINK: PNLE III for Care of Clients with Physiologic and Psychosocial
Alterations (Part 1) - RNpedia

1. Nurse Michelle should know that the drainage is normal 4 days after a sigmoid
colostomy when the stool is:
A. Green liquid
B. Solid formed
C. Loose, bloody
D. Semiformed
2. Where would nurse Kristine place the call light for a male client with a right-sided
brain attack and left homonymous hemianopsia?
A. On the client’s right side
B. On the client’s left side
C. Directly in front of the client
D. Where the client like
3. A male client is admitted to the emergency department following an accident. What
are the first nursing actions of the nurse?
A. Check respiration, circulation, neurological response.
B. Align the spine, check pupils, and check for hemorrhage.
C. Check respirations, stabilize spine, and check circulation.
D. Assess level of consciousness and circulation.
4. In evaluating the effect of nitroglycerin, Nurse Arthur should know that it reduces
preload and relieves angina by:
A. Increasing contractility and slowing heart rate.
B. Increasing AV conduction and heart rate.
C. Decreasing contractility and oxygen consumption.
D. Decreasing venous return through vasodilation.
5. Nurse Patricia finds a female client who is post-myocardial infarction (MI) slumped
on the side rails of the bed and unresponsive to shaking or shouting. Which is the
nurse next action?
A. Call for help and note the time.
B. Clear the airway
C. Give two sharp thumps to the precordium, and check the pulse.
D. Administer two quick blows.
6. Nurse Monett is caring for a client recovering from gastro-intestinal bleeding. The
nurse should:
A. Plan care so the client can receive 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep each
night.
B. Monitor vital signs every 2 hours.
 C. Make sure that the client takes food and medications at
prescribed intervals.
D. Provide milk every 2 to 3 hours.
7. A male client was on warfarin (Coumadin) before admission, and has been
receiving heparin I.V. for 2 days. The partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is 68
seconds. What should Nurse Carla do?
A. Stop the I.V. infusion of heparin and notify the physician.
B. Continue treatment as ordered.
C. Expect the warfarin to increase the PTT.
D. Increase the dosage, because the level is lower than normal.
8. A client undergone ileostomy, when should the drainage appliance be applied to the
stoma?
A. 24 hours later, when edema has subsided.
B. In the operating room.
C. After the ileostomy begin to function.
D. When the client is able to begin self-care procedures.
9. A client undergone spinal anesthetic, it will be important that the nurse immediately
position the client in:
A. On the side, to prevent obstruction of airway by tongue.
B. Flat on back.
C. On the back, with knees flexed 15 degrees.
D. Flat on the stomach, with the head turned to the side.
10.While monitoring a male client several hours after a motor vehicle accident, which
assessment data suggest increasing intracranial pressure?
A. Blood pressure is decreased from 160/90 to 110/70.
B. Pulse is increased from 87 to 95, with an occasional skipped beat.
C. The client is oriented when aroused from sleep, and goes back to sleep
immediately.
D. The client refuses dinner because of anorexia.
11.Mrs. Cruz, 80 years old is diagnosed with pneumonia. Which of the following
symptoms may appear first?
A. Altered mental status and dehydration
B. Fever and chills
C. Hemoptysis and Dyspnea
D. Pleuritic chest pain and cough
12. A male client has active tuberculosis (TB). Which of the following symptoms will
be exhibit?
A. Chest and lower back pain
B. Chills, fever, night sweats, and hemoptysis
C. Fever of more than 104°F (40°C) and nausea
D. Headache and photophobia
13. Mark, a 7-year-old client is brought to the emergency department. He’s tachypneic
and afebrile and has a respiratory rate of 36 breaths/minute and has a nonproductive
cough. He recently had a cold. Form this history; the client may have which of the
following conditions?
A. Acute asthma
B. Bronchial pneumonia
C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
D. Emphysema
14. Marichu was given morphine sulfate for pain. She is sleeping and her respiratory
rate is 4 breaths/minute. If action isn’t taken quickly, she might have which of the
following reactions?
A. Asthma attack
B. Respiratory arrest
C. Seizure
D. Wake up on his own
15. A 77-year-old male client is admitted for elective knee surgery.
Physical examination reveals shallow respirations but no sign of respiratory
distress. Which of the following is a normal physiologic change related to aging?
A. Increased elastic recoil of the lungs
B. Increased number of functional capillaries in the alveoli
C. Decreased residual volume
D. Decreased vital capacity
16. Nurse John is caring for a male client receiving lidocaine I.V. Which factor is the
most relevant to administration of this medication?
A. Decrease in arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) when measured with a pulse
oximeter.
B. Increase in systemic blood pressure.
C. Presence of premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) on a
cardiac monitor.
D. Increase in intracranial pressure (ICP).
17. Nurse Ron is caring for a male client taking an anticoagulant. The nurse should
teach the client to:
A. Report incidents of diarrhea.
B. Avoid foods high in vitamin K
C. Use a straight razor when shaving.
D. Take aspirin to pain relief.
18. Nurse Lhynnette is preparing a site for the insertion of an I.V. catheter. The nurse
should treat excess hair at the site by:
A. Leaving the hair intact
B. Shaving the area
C. Clipping the hair in the area
 D. Removing the hair with a depilatory.
19. Nurse Michelle is caring for an elderly female with osteoporosis. When teaching
the client, the nurse should include information about which major complication:
A. Bone fracture
B. Loss of estrogen
C. Negative calcium balance
D. Dowager’s hump
20. Nurse Len is teaching a group of women to perform BSE. The nurse
should explain that the purpose of performing the examination is to discover:
A. Cancerous lumps
B. Areas of thickness or fullness
C. Changes from previous examinations.
D. Fibrocystic masses
21. When caring for a female client who is being treated for hyperthyroidism, it
is important to:
A. Provide extra blankets and clothing to keep the client warm.
B. Monitor the client for signs of restlessness, sweating, and excessive weight
loss during thyroid replacement therapy.
C. Balance the client’s periods of activity and rest.
D. Encourage the client to be active to prevent constipation.
22. Nurse Kris is teaching a client with history of atherosclerosis. To decrease the risk
of atherosclerosis, the nurse should encourage the client to:
A. Avoid focusing on his weight.
B. Increase his activity level.
C. Follow a regular diet.
D. Continue leading a high-stress lifestyle.
23. Nurse Greta is working on a surgical floor. Nurse Greta must logroll a
client following a:
A. Laminectomy
B. Thoracotomy
C. Hemorrhoidectomy
D. Cystectomy.
24. A 55-year old client underwent cataract removal with intraocular lens
implant. Nurse Oliver is giving the client discharge instructions. These instructions
should include which of the following?
A. Avoid lifting objects weighing more than 5 lb (2.25 kg).
B. Lie on your abdomen when in bed
C. Keep rooms brightly lit.
D. Avoiding straining during bowel movement or bending at the waist.
25. George should be taught about testicular examinations during:
A. when sexual activity starts
 B. After age 69
C. After age 40
D. Before age 20.
26. A male client undergone a colon resection. While turning him, wound dehiscence
with evisceration occurs. Nurse Trish first response is to:
A. Call the physician
B. Place a saline-soaked sterile dressing on the wound.
C. Take a blood pressure and pulse.
D. Pull the dehiscence closed.
27. Nurse Audrey is caring for a client who has suffered a severe cerebrovascular
accident. During routine assessment, the nurse notices Cheyne- Strokes respirations.
Cheyne-strokes respirations are:
A. A progressively deeper breaths followed by shallower breaths with apneic
periods.
B. Rapid, deep breathing with abrupt pauses between each breath.
C. Rapid, deep breathing and irregular breathing without pauses.
D. Shallow breathing with an increased respiratory rate.
28. Nurse Bea is assessing a male client with heart failure. The breath
sounds commonly auscultated in clients with heart failure are:
A. Tracheal
B. Fine crackles
C. Coarse crackles
D. Friction rubs
29. The nurse is caring for Kenneth experiencing an acute asthma attack. The client
stops wheezing and breath sounds aren’t audible. The reason for this change is that:
A. The attack is over.
B. The airways are so swollen that no air cannot get through.
C. The swelling has decreased.
D. Crackles have replaced wheezes.
30. Mike with epilepsy is having a seizure. During the active seizure phase, the nurse
should:
A. Place the client on his back remove dangerous objects, and insert a bite
block.
B. Place the client on his side, remove dangerous objects, and insert a bite
block.
C. Place the client o his back, remove dangerous objects, and hold down his
arms.
D. Place the client on his side, remove dangerous objects, and protect
his head.
31. After insertion of a cheat tube for a pneumothorax, a client becomes hypotensive
with neck vein distention, tracheal shift, absent breath sounds, and diaphoresis. Nurse
Amanda suspects a tension pneumothorax has occurred. What cause of tension
pneumothorax should the nurse check for?
A. Infection of the lung.
B. Kinked or obstructed chest tube
C. Excessive water in the water-seal chamber
D. Excessive chest tube drainage
32. Nurse Maureen is talking to a male client, the client begins choking on his lunch.
He’s coughing forcefully. The nurse should:
A. Stand him up and perform the abdominal thrust maneuver from behind.
B. Lay him down, straddle him, and perform the abdominal thrust maneuver.
C. Leave him to get assistance
D. Stay with him but not intervene at this time.
33. Nurse Ron is taking a health history of an 84 year old client. Which information
will be most useful to the nurse for planning care?
A. General health for the last 10 years.
B. Current health promotion activities.
C. Family history of diseases.
D. Marital status.
34. When performing oral care on a comatose client, Nurse Krina should:
A. Apply lemon glycerin to the client’s lips at least every 2 hours.
B. Brush the teeth with client lying supine.
C. Place the client in a side lying position, with the head of the bed lowered.
D. Clean the client’s mouth with hydrogen peroxide.
35. A 77-year-old male client is admitted with a diagnosis of dehydration and change
in mental status. He’s being hydrated with L.V. fluids. When the nurse takes his vital
signs, she notes he has a fever of 103°F (39.4°C) a cough producing yellow sputum
and pleuritic chest pain. The nurse suspects this client may have which of the
following conditions?
A. Adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
B. Myocardial infarction (MI)
C. Pneumonia
D. Tuberculosis
36. Nurse Oliver is working in a out patient clinic. He has been alerted that there is an
outbreak of tuberculosis (TB). Which of the following clients entering the clinic today
most likely to have TB?
A. A 16-year-old female high school student
B. A 33-year-old day-care worker
C. A 43-yesr-old homeless man with a history of alcoholism
D. A 54-year-old businessman
37. Virgie with a positive Mantoux test result will be sent for a chest X-ray. The nurse
is aware that which of the following reasons this is done?
 A. To confirm the diagnosis
B. To determine if a repeat skin test is needed
C. To determine the extent of lesions
D. To determine if this is a primary or secondary infection
38. Kennedy with acute asthma showing inspiratory and expiratory wheezes and a
decreased forced expiratory volume should be treated with which of the following
classes of medication right away?
A. Beta-adrenergic blockers
B. Bronchodilators
C. Inhaled steroids
D. Oral steroids
39. Mr. Vasquez 56-year-old client with a 40-year history of smoking one to
two packs of cigarettes per day has a chronic cough producing thick sputum,
peripheral edema and cyanotic nail beds. Based on this information, he most likely
has which of the following conditions?
A. Adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
B. Asthma
C. Chronic obstructive bronchitis
D. Emphysema
Situation: Francis, age 46 is admitted to the hospital with diagnosis of
Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia.
40. The treatment for patients with leukemia is bone marrow transplantation. Which
statement about bone marrow transplantation is not correct?
A. The patient is under local anesthesia during the procedure
B. The aspirated bone marrow is mixed with heparin.
C. The aspiration site is the posterior or anterior iliac crest.
D. The recipient receives cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) for 4 consecutive days
before the procedure.
41. After several days of admission, Francis becomes disoriented and complains of
frequent headaches. The nurse in-charge first action would be:
A. Call the physician
B. Document the patient’s status in his charts.
C. Prepare oxygen treatment
D. Raise the side rails
42. During routine care, Francis asks the nurse, “How can I be anemic if this disease
causes increased my white blood cell production?” The nurse in-charge best response
would be that the increased number of white blood cells (WBC) is:
A. Crowd red blood cells
B. Are not responsible for the anemia.
C. Uses nutrients from other cells
D. Have an abnormally short life span of cells.
43. Diagnostic assessment of Francis would probably not reveal:
A. Predominance of lymhoblasts
B. Leukocytosis
C. Abnormal blast cells in the bone marrow
D. Elevated thrombocyte counts
44. Robert, a 57-year-old client with acute arterial occlusion of the left leg undergoes
an emergency embolectomy. Six hours later, the nurse isn’t able to obtain pulses in his
left foot using Doppler ultrasound. The nurse immediately notifies the physician, and
asks her to prepare the client for surgery. As the nurse enters the client’s room to
prepare him, he states that he won’t have any more surgery. Which of the following is
the best initial response by the nurse?
A. Explain the risks of not having the surgery
B. Notifying the physician immediately
C. Notifying the nursing supervisor
D. Recording the client’s refusal in the nurses’ notes
45. During the endorsement, which of the following clients should the on-duty nurse
assess first?
A. The 58-year-old client who was admitted 2 days ago with heart
failure, blood pressure of 126/76 mm Hg, and a respiratory rate of 22
breaths/minute.
B. The 89-year-old client with end-stage right-sided heart failure,
blood pressure of 78/50 mm Hg, and a “do not resuscitate” order
C. The 62-year-old client who was admitted 1 day ago with thrombophlebitis
and is receiving L.V. heparin
D. The 75-year-old client who was admitted 1 hour ago with new-onset atrial
fibrillation and is receiving L.V. dilitiazem (Cardizem)
46. Honey, a 23-year old client complains of substernal chest pain and states that her
heart feels like “it’s racing out of the chest”. She reports no history of cardiac
disorders. The nurse attaches her to a cardiac monitor and notes sinus tachycardia with
a rate of 136beats/minutes. Breath sounds are clear and the respiratory rate is 26
breaths/minutes. Which of the following drugs should the nurse question the client
about using?
A. Barbiturates
B. Opioids
C. Cocaine
D. Benzodiazepines
47. A 51-year-old female client tells the nurse in-charge that she has found a painless
lump in her right breast during her monthly self-examination. Which assessment
finding would strongly suggest that this client’s lump is cancerous?
A. Eversion of the right nipple and mobile mass
B. Nonmobile mass with irregular edges
 C. Mobile mass that is soft and easily delineated
D. Nonpalpable right axillary lymph nodes
48. A 35-year-old client with vaginal cancer asks the nurse, “What is the
usual treatment for this type of cancer?” Which treatment should the nurse name?
A. Surgery
B. Chemotherapy
C. Radiation
D. Immunotherapy
49. Cristina undergoes a biopsy of a suspicious lesion. The biopsy report classifies the
lesion according to the TNM staging system as follows: TIS, N0, M0. What does this
classification mean?
A. No evidence of primary tumor, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no
evidence of distant metastasis
B. Carcinoma in situ, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of
distant metastasis
C. Can’t assess tumor or regional lymph nodes and no evidence of metastasis
D. Carcinoma in situ, no demonstrable metastasis of the regional
lymph nodes, and ascending degrees of distant metastasis
50. Lydia undergoes a laryngectomy to treat laryngeal cancer. When teaching the
client how to care for the neck stoma, the nurse should include which instruction?
A. “Keep the stoma uncovered.”
B. “Keep the stoma dry.”
C. “Have a family member perform stoma care initially until you get used to
the procedure.”
D. “Keep the stoma moist.”
51. A 37-year-old client with uterine cancer asks the nurse, “Which is the
most common type of cancer in women?” The nurse replies that it’s breast cancer.
Which type of cancer causes the most deaths in women?
A. Breast cancer
B. Lung cancer
C. Brain cancer
D. Colon and rectal cancer
52. Antonio with lung cancer develops Horner’s syndrome when the tumor invades
the ribs and affects the sympathetic nerve ganglia. When assessing for signs and
symptoms of this syndrome, the nurse should note:
A. miosis, partial eyelid ptosis, and anhidrosis on the affected side of the face.
B. chest pain, dyspnea, cough, weight loss, and fever.
C. arm and shoulder pain and atrophy of arm and hand muscles, both on the
affected side.
D. hoarseness and dysphagia.
53. Vic asks the nurse what PSA is. The nurse should reply that it stands for:
 A. prostate-specific antigen, which is used to screen for prostate cancer.
B. protein serum antigen, which is used to determine protein levels.
C. pneumococcal strep antigen, which is a bacteria that causes pneumonia.
D. Papanicolaou-specific antigen, which is used to screen for cervical cancer.
54. What is the most important postoperative instruction that nurse Kate must give a
client who has just returned from the operating room after receiving a subarachnoid
block?
A. “Avoid drinking liquids until the gag reflex returns.”
B. “Avoid eating milk products for 24 hours.”
C. “Notify a nurse if you experience blood in your urine.”
D. “Remain supine for the time specified by the physician.”
55. A male client suspected of having colorectal cancer will require which diagnostic
study to confirm the diagnosis?
A. Stool Hematest
B. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
C. Sigmoidoscopy
D. Abdominal computed tomography (CT) scan
56. During a breast examination, which finding most strongly suggests that the Luz
has breast cancer?
A. Slight asymmetry of the breasts.
B. A fixed nodular mass with dimpling of the overlying skin
C. Bloody discharge from the nipple
D. Multiple firm, round, freely movable masses that change with
the menstrual cycle
57. A female client with cancer is being evaluated for possible metastasis. Which of
the following is one of the most common metastasis sites for cancer cells?
A. Liver
B. Colon
C. Reproductive tract
D. White blood cells (WBCs)
58. Nurse Mandy is preparing a client for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
to confirm or rule out a spinal cord lesion. During the MRI scan, which of the
following would pose a threat to the client?
A. The client lies still.
B. The client asks questions.
C. The client hears thumping sounds.
D. The client wears a watch and wedding band.
59. Nurse Cecile is teaching a female client about preventing osteoporosis. Which of
the following teaching points is correct?
A. Obtaining an X-ray of the bones every 3 years is recommended to detect
bone loss.
 B. To avoid fractures, the client should avoid strenuous exercise.
C. The recommended daily allowance of calcium may be found in a
wide variety of foods.
D. Obtaining the recommended daily allowance of calcium requires taking a
calcium supplement.
60. Before Jacob undergoes arthroscopy, the nurse reviews the assessment findings
for contraindications for this procedure. Which finding is a contraindication?
A. Joint pain
B. Joint deformity
C. Joint flexion of less than 50%
D. Joint stiffness
61. Mr. Rodriguez is admitted with severe pain in the knees. Which form of arthritis is
characterized by urate deposits and joint pain, usually in the feet and legs, and occurs
primarily in men over age 30?
A. Septic arthritis
B. Traumatic arthritis
C. Intermittent arthritis
D. Gouty arthritis
62. A heparin infusion at 1,500 unit/hour is ordered for a 64-year-old client
with stroke in evolution. The infusion contains 25,000 units of heparin in 500 ml
of saline solution. How many milliliters per hour should be given?
A. 15 ml/hour
B. 30 ml/hour
C. 45 ml/hour
D. 50 ml/hour
63. A 76-year-old male client had a thromboembolic right stroke; his left arm
is swollen. Which of the following conditions may cause swelling after a stroke?
A. Elbow contracture secondary to spasticity
B. Loss of muscle contraction decreasing venous return
C. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) due to immobility of the ipsilateral side
D. Hypoalbuminemia due to protein escaping from an inflamed glomerulus
64. Heberden’s nodes are a common sign of osteoarthritis. Which of the
following statement is correct about this deformity?
A. It appears only in men
B. It appears on the distal interphalangeal joint
C. It appears on the proximal interphalangeal joint
D. It appears on the dorsolateral aspect of the interphalangeal joint.
65. Which of the following statements explains the main difference
between rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis?
A. Osteoarthritis is gender-specific, rheumatoid arthritis isn’t
B. Osteoarthritis is a localized disease rheumatoid arthritis is systemic
 C. Osteoarthritis is a systemic disease, rheumatoid arthritis is localized
D. Osteoarthritis has dislocations and subluxations, rheumatoid
arthritis doesn’t
66. Mrs. Cruz uses a cane for assistance in walking. Which of the
following statements is true about a cane or other assistive devices?
A. A walker is a better choice than a cane.
B. The cane should be used on the affected side
C. The cane should be used on the unaffected side
D. A client with osteoarthritis should be encouraged to ambulate without the
cane
67. A male client with type 1 diabetes is scheduled to receive 30 U of 70/30 insulin.
There is no 70/30 insulin available. As a substitution, the nurse may give the client:
A. 9 U regular insulin and 21 U neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH).
B. 21 U regular insulin and 9 U NPH.
C. 10 U regular insulin and 20 U NPH.
D. 20 U regular insulin and 10 U NPH.
68. Nurse Len should expect to administer which medication to a client with gout?
A. aspirin
B. furosemide (Lasix)
C. colchicines
D. calcium gluconate (Kalcinate)
69. Mr. Domingo with a history of hypertension is diagnosed with
primary hyperaldosteronism. This diagnosis indicates that the client’s hypertension
is caused by excessive hormone secretion from which of the following glands?
A. Adrenal cortex
B. Pancreas
C. Adrenal medulla
D. Parathyroid
70. For a diabetic male client with a foot ulcer, the doctor orders bed rest, a wetto- dry
dressing change every shift, and blood glucose monitoring before meals and bedtime.
Why are wet-to-dry dressings used for this client?
A. They contain exudate and provide a moist wound environment.
B. They protect the wound from mechanical trauma and promote healing.
C. They debride the wound and promote healing by secondary intention.
D. They prevent the entrance of microorganisms and minimize
wound discomfort.
71. Nurse Zeny is caring for a client in acute addisonian crisis. Which laboratory data
would the nurse expect to find?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Reduced blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
C. Hypernatremia
 D. Hyperglycemia
72. A client is admitted for treatment of the syndrome of inappropriate
antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which nursing intervention is appropriate?
A. Infusing I.V. fluids rapidly as ordered
B. Encouraging increased oral intake
C. Restricting fluids
D. Administering glucose-containing I.V. fluids as ordered
73. A female client tells nurse Nikki that she has been working hard for the last
3 months to control her type 2 diabetes mellitus with diet and exercise. To determine
the effectiveness of the client’s efforts, the nurse should check:
A. urine glucose level.
B. fasting blood glucose level.
C. serum fructosamine level.
D. glycosylated hemoglobin level.
74. Nurse Trinity administered neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) insulin to
a diabetic client at 7 a.m. At what time would the nurse expect the client to be most at
risk for a hypoglycemic reaction?
A. 10:00 am
B. Noon
C. 4:00 pm
D. 10:00 pm
75. The adrenal cortex is responsible for producing which substances?
A. Glucocorticoids and androgens
B. Catecholamines and epinephrine
C. Mineralocorticoids and catecholamines
D. Norepinephrine and epinephrine
76. On the third day after a partial thyroidectomy, Proserfina exhibits
muscle twitching and hyperirritability of the nervous system. When questioned, the
client reports numbness and tingling of the mouth and fingertips. Suspecting a
lifethreatening electrolyte disturbance, the nurse notifies the surgeon
immediately. Which electrolyte disturbance most commonly follows thyroid surgery?
A. Hypocalcemia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypermagnesemia
77. Which laboratory test value is elevated in clients who smoke and can’t be used as
a general indicator of cancer?
A. Acid phosphatase level
B. Serum calcitonin level
C. Alkaline phosphatase level
D. Carcinoembryonic antigen level
78. Francis with anemia has been admitted to the medical-surgical unit.
Which assessment findings are characteristic of iron-deficiency anemia?
A. Nights sweats, weight loss, and diarrhea
B. Dyspnea, tachycardia, and pallor
C. Nausea, vomiting, and anorexia
D. Itching, rash, and jaundice
79. In teaching a female client who is HIV-positive about pregnancy, the nurse would
know more teaching is necessary when the client says:
A. The baby can get the virus from my placenta.”
B. “I’m planning on starting on birth control pills.”
C. “Not everyone who has the virus gives birth to a baby who has the virus.”
D. “I’ll need to have a C-section if I become pregnant and have a baby.”
80. When preparing Judy with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
for discharge to the home, the nurse should be sure to include which instruction?
A. “Put on disposable gloves before bathing.”
B. “Sterilize all plates and utensils in boiling water.”
C. “Avoid sharing such articles as toothbrushes and razors.”
D. “Avoid eating foods from serving dishes shared by other family members.”
81. Nurse Marie is caring for a 32-year-old client admitted with pernicious anemia.
Which set of findings should the nurse expect when assessing the
client?
A. Pallor, bradycardia, and reduced pulse pressure
B. Pallor, tachycardia, and a sore tongue
C. Sore tongue, dyspnea, and weight gain
D. Angina, double vision, and anorexia
82. After receiving a dose of penicillin, a client develops dyspnea and hypotension.
Nurse Celestina suspects the client is experiencing anaphylactic shock. What should
the nurse do first?
A. Page an anesthesiologist immediately and prepare to intubate the client.
B. Administer epinephrine, as prescribed, and prepare to intubate the client if
necessary.
C. Administer the antidote for penicillin, as prescribed, and continue
to monitor the client’s vital signs.
D. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter and begin to infuse I.V. fluids
as ordered.
83. Mr. Marquez with rheumatoid arthritis is about to begin aspirin therapy to reduce
inflammation. When teaching the client about aspirin, the nurse discusses adverse
reactions to prolonged aspirin therapy. These include:
A. weight gain.
B. fine motor tremors.
C. respiratory acidosis.
 D. bilateral hearing loss.
84. A 23-year-old client is diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus
(HIV). After recovering from the initial shock of the diagnosis, the client expresses a
desire to learn as much as possible about HIV and acquired
immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). When teaching the client about the immune
system, the nurse states that adaptive immunity is provided by which type of white
blood cell?
A. Neutrophil
B. Basophil
C. Monocyte
D. Lymphocyte
85. In an individual with Sjögren’s syndrome, nursing care should focus on:
A. moisture replacement.
B. electrolyte balance.
C. nutritional supplementation.
D. arrhythmia management.
86. During chemotherapy for lymphocytic leukemia, Mathew develops
abdominal pain, fever, and “horse barn” smelling diarrhea. It would be most important
for the nurse to advise the physician to order:
A. enzyme-linked immunosuppressant assay (ELISA) test.
B. electrolyte panel and hemogram.
C. stool for Clostridium difficile test.
D. flat plate X-ray of the abdomen.
87. A male client seeks medical evaluation for fatigue, night sweats, and a 20-
lb weight loss in 6 weeks. To confirm that the client has been infected with the human
immunodeficiency virus (HIV), the nurse expects the physician to order:
A. E-rosette immunofluorescence.
B. quantification of T-lymphocytes.
C. enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA).
D. Western blot test with ELISA.
88. A complete blood count is commonly performed before a Joe goes into surgery.
What does this test seek to identify?
A. Potential hepatic dysfunction indicated by decreased blood urea nitrogen
(BUN) and creatinine levels
B. Low levels of urine constituents normally excreted in the urine
C. Abnormally low hematocrit (HCT) and hemoglobin (Hb) levels
D. Electrolyte imbalance that could affect the blood’s ability to
coagulate properly
89. While monitoring a client for the development of disseminated
intravascular coagulation (DIC), the nurse should take note of what assessment
parameters?
 A. Platelet count, prothrombin time, and partial thromboplastin time
B. Platelet count, blood glucose levels, and white blood cell (WBC) count
C. Thrombin time, calcium levels, and potassium levels
D. Fibrinogen level, WBC, and platelet count
90. When taking a dietary history from a newly admitted female client, Nurse
Len should remember that which of the following foods is a common allergen?
A. Bread
B. Carrots
C. Orange
D. Strawberries
91. Nurse John is caring for clients in the outpatient clinic. Which of the
following phone calls should the nurse return first?
A. A client with hepatitis A who states, “My arms and legs are itching.”
B. A client with cast on the right leg who states, “I have a funny feeling in my
right leg.”
C. A client with osteomyelitis of the spine who states, “I am so nauseous that I
can’t eat.”
D. A client with rheumatoid arthritis who states, “I am having
trouble sleeping.”
92. Nurse Sarah is caring for clients on the surgical floor and has just received report
from the previous shift. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?
A. A 35-year-old admitted three hours ago with a gunshot wound; 1.5 cm area
of dark drainage noted on the dressing.
B. A 43-year-old who had a mastectomy two days ago; 23 ml
of serosanguinous fluid noted in the Jackson-Pratt drain.
C. A 59-year-old with a collapsed lung due to an accident; no drainage noted
in the previous eight hours.
D. A 62-year-old who had an abdominal-perineal resection three days ago;
client complaints of chills.
93. Nurse Eve is caring for a client who had a thyroidectomy 12 hours ago
for treatment of Grave’s disease. The nurse would be most concerned if which of
the following was observed?
A. Blood pressure 138/82, respirations 16, oral temperature 99
degrees Fahrenheit.
B. The client supports his head and neck when turning his head to the right.
C. The client spontaneously flexes his wrist when the blood pressure
is obtained.
D. The client is drowsy and complains of sore throat.
94. Julius is admitted with complaints of severe pain in the lower right quadrant of the
abdomen. To assist with pain relief, the nurse should take which of the following
actions?
 A. Encourage the client to change positions frequently in bed.
B. Administer Demerol 50 mg IM q 4 hours and PRN.
C. Apply warmth to the abdomen with a heating pad.
D. Use comfort measures and pillows to position the client.
95. Nurse Tina prepares a client for peritoneal dialysis. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Assess for a bruit and a thrill.
B. Warm the dialysate solution.
C. Position the client on the left side.
D. Insert a Foley catheter
96. Nurse Jannah teaches an elderly client with right-sided weakness how to use cane.
Which of the following behaviors, if demonstrated by the client to the nurse, indicates
that the teaching was effective?
A. The client holds the cane with his right hand, moves the can
forward followed by the right leg, and then moves the left leg.
B. The client holds the cane with his right hand, moves the cane
forward followed by his left leg, and then moves the right leg.
C. The client holds the cane with his left hand, moves the cane
forward followed by the right leg, and then moves the left leg.
D. The client holds the cane with his left hand, moves the cane
forward followed by his left leg, and then moves the right leg.
97. An elderly client is admitted to the nursing home setting. The client
is occasionally confused and her gait is often unsteady. Which of the following
actions, if taken by the nurse, is most appropriate?
A. Ask the woman’s family to provide personal items such as photos
or mementos.
B. Select a room with a bed by the door so the woman can look down the hall.
C. Suggest the woman eat her meals in the room with her roommate.
D. Encourage the woman to ambulate in the halls twice a day.
98. Nurse Evangeline teaches an elderly client how to use a standard
aluminum walker. Which of the following behaviors, if demonstrated by the client,
indicates that the nurse’s teaching was effective?
A. The client slowly pushes the walker forward 12 inches, then takes small
steps forward while leaning on the walker.
B. The client lifts the walker, moves it forward 10 inches, and then
takes several small steps forward.
C. The client supports his weight on the walker while advancing it
forward, then takes small steps while balancing on the walker.
D. The client slides the walker 18 inches forward, then takes small steps while
holding onto the walker for balance.
99. Nurse Deric is supervising a group of elderly clients in a residential home setting.
The nurse knows that the elderly are at greater risk of developing sensory deprivation
for what reason?
A. Increased sensitivity to the side effects of medications.
B. Decreased visual, auditory, and gustatory abilities.
C. Isolation from their families and familiar surroundings.
D. Decrease musculoskeletal function and mobility.
100. A male client with emphysema becomes restless and confused. What step should
nurse Jasmine take next?
A. Encourage the client to perform pursed lip breathing.
B. Check the client’s temperature.
C. Assess the client’s potassium level.
D. Increase the client’s oxygen flow rate.
Answers and Rationales
1. Answer: (C) Loose, bloody. Normal bowel function and soft-formed stool
usually do not occur until around the seventh day following surgery. The
stool consistency is related to how much water is being absorbed.
2. Answer: (A) On the client’s right side. The client has left visual field
blindness. The client will see only from the right side.
3. Answer: (C) Check respirations, stabilize spine, and check
circulation. Checking the airway would be priority, and a neck injury
should be suspected.
4. Answer: (D) Decreasing venous return through vasodilation. The
significant effect of nitroglycerin is vasodilation and decreased venous
return, so the heart does not have to work hard.
5. Answer: (A) Call for help and note the time. Having established, by
stimulating the client, that the client is unconscious rather than sleep, the
nurse should immediately call for help. This may be done by dialing the
operator from the client’s phone and giving the hospital code for cardiac
arrest and the client’s room number to the operator, of if the phone is not
available, by pulling the emergency call button. Noting the time is
important baseline information for cardiac arrest procedure.
6. Answer: (C) Make sure that the client takes food and medications
at prescribed intervals. Food and drug therapy will prevent the
accumulation of hydrochloric acid, or will neutralize and buffer the acid
that does accumulate.
7. Answer: (B) Continue treatment as ordered. The effects of heparin are
monitored by the PTT is normally 30 to 45 seconds; the therapeutic level is
1.5 to 2 times the normal level.
8. Answer: (B) In the operating room. The stoma drainage bag is applied in
the operating room. Drainage from the ileostomy contains secretions that
are rich in digestive enzymes and highly irritating to the skin. Protection of
the skin from the effects of these enzymes is begun at once. Skin exposed
to these enzymes even for a short time becomes reddened, painful,
and excoriated.
9. Answer: (B) Flat on back. To avoid the complication of a painful spinal
headache that can last for several days, the client is kept in flat in a supine
position for approximately 4 to 12 hours postoperatively. Headaches are
believed to be causes by the seepage of cerebral spinal fluid from the
puncture site. By keeping the client flat, cerebral spinal fluid pressures are
equalized, which avoids trauma to the neurons.
10.Answer: (C) The client is oriented when aroused from sleep, and goes back
to sleep immediately. This finding suggest that the level of consciousness
is decreasing.
11.Answer: (A) Altered mental status and dehydration. Fever, chills,
hemortysis, dyspnea, cough, and pleuritic chest pain are the common
symptoms of pneumonia, but elderly clients may first appear with only an
altered lentil status and dehydration due to a blunted immune response.
12.Answer: (B) Chills, fever, night sweats, and hemoptysis. Typical signs and
symptoms are chills, fever, night sweats, and hemoptysis. Chest pain may
be present from coughing, but isn’t usual. Clients with TB typically have
low-grade fevers, not higher than 102°F (38.9°C). Nausea, headache, and
photophobia aren’t usual TB symptoms.
13.Answer:(A) Acute asthma. Based on the client’s history and symptoms,
acute asthma is the most likely diagnosis. He’s unlikely to have bronchial
pneumonia without a productive cough and fever and he’s too young to
have developed (COPD) and emphysema.
14.Answer: (B) Respiratory arrest. Narcotics can cause respiratory arrest if
given in large quantities. It’s unlikely the client will have asthma attack or
a seizure or wake up on his own.
15.Answer: (D) Decreased vital capacity. Reduction in vital capacity is a
normal physiologic changes include decreased elastic recoil of the lungs,
fewer functional capillaries in the alveoli, and an increased in residual
volume.
16.Answer: (C) Presence of premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) on
a cardiac monitor. Lidocaine drips are commonly used to treat clients
whose arrhythmias haven’t been controlled with oral medication and who
are having PVCs that are visible on the cardiac monitor. SaO2,
blood pressure, and ICP are important factors but aren’t as significant as
PVCs in the situation.
17.Answer: (B) Avoid foods high in vitamin K. The client should avoid
consuming large amounts of vitamin K because vitamin K can interfere
with anticoagulation. The client may need to report diarrhea, but isn’t
effect of taking an anticoagulant. An electric razor-not a straight razor-
should be used to prevent cuts that cause bleeding. Aspirin may increase
the risk of bleeding; acetaminophen should be used to pain relief.
18.Answer: (C) Clipping the hair in the area. Hair can be a source of infection
and should be removed by clipping. Shaving the area can cause skin
abrasions and depilatories can irritate the skin.
19.Answer: (A) Bone fracture. Bone fracture is a major complication of
osteoporosis that results when loss of calcium and phosphate increased the
fragility of bones. Estrogen deficiencies result from menopause-not
osteoporosis. Calcium and vitamin D supplements may be used to support
normal bone metabolism, But a negative calcium balance isn’t a
complication of osteoporosis. Dowager’s hump results from bone fractures.
It develops when repeated vertebral fractures increase spinal curvature.
20.Answer: (C) Changes from previous examinations. Women are instructed
to examine themselves to discover changes that have occurred in the breast.
Only a physician can diagnose lumps that are cancerous, areas of thickness
or fullness that signal the presence of a malignancy, or masses that are
fibrocystic as opposed to malignant.
21.Answer: (C) Balance the client’s periods of activity and rest. A client with
hyperthyroidism needs to be encouraged to balance periods of activity and
rest. Many clients with hyperthyroidism are hyperactive and complain of
feeling very warm.
22.Answer: (B) Increase his activity level. The client should be encouraged to
increase his activity level. Maintaining an ideal weight; following a low-
cholesterol, low sodium diet; and avoiding stress are all important factors
in decreasing the risk of atherosclerosis.
23.Answer: (A) Laminectomy. The client who has had spinal surgery, such as
laminectomy, must be log rolled to keep the spinal column straight when
turning. Thoracotomy and cystectomy may turn themselves or may be
assisted into a comfortable position. Under normal
circumstances, hemorrhoidectomy is an outpatient procedure, and the client
may resume normal activities immediately after surgery.
24.Answer: (D) Avoiding straining during bowel movement or bending at
the waist. The client should avoid straining, lifting heavy objects,
and coughing harshly because these activities increase intraocular
pressure. Typically, the client is instructed to avoid lifting objects weighing
more than 15 lb (7kg) – not 5lb. instruct the client when lying in bed to lie
 on either the side or back. The client should avoid bright light by
wearing sunglasses.
25.Answer: (D) Before age 20. Testicular cancer commonly occurs in men
between ages 20 and 30. A male client should be taught how to perform
testicular selfexamination before age 20, preferably when he enters his
teens.
26.Answer: (B) Place a saline-soaked sterile dressing on the wound. The nurse
should first place saline-soaked sterile dressings on the open wound to
prevent tissue drying and possible infection. Then the nurse should call the
physician and take the client’s vital signs. The dehiscence needs to be
surgically closed, so the nurse should never try to close it.
27.Answer: (A) A progressively deeper breaths followed by shallower breaths
with apneic periods. Cheyne-Strokes respirations are breaths that
become progressively deeper fallowed by shallower respirations with
apneas periods. Biot’s respirations are rapid, deep breathing with abrupt
pauses between each breath, and equal depth between each breath.
Kussmaul’s respirations are rapid, deep breathing without pauses.
Tachypnea is shallow breathing with increased respiratory rate.
28.Answer: (B) Fine crackles. Fine crackles are caused by fluid in the alveoli
and commonly occur in clients with heart failure. Tracheal breath sounds
are auscultated over the trachea. Coarse crackles are caused by secretion
accumulation in the airways. Friction rubs occur with pleural inflammation.
29.Answer: (B) The airways are so swollen that no air cannot get
through. During an acute attack, wheezing may stop and breath
sounds become inaudible because the airways are so swollen that air can’t
get through. If the attack is over and swelling has decreased, there would
be no more wheezing and less emergent concern. Crackles do not
replace wheezes during an acute asthma attack.
30.Answer: (D) Place the client on his side, remove dangerous objects,
and protect his head. During the active seizure phase, initiate precautions
by placing the client on his side, removing dangerous objects, and
protecting his head from injury. A bite block should never be inserted
during the active seizure phase. Insertion can break the teeth and lead to
aspiration.
31.Answer: (B) Kinked or obstructed chest tube. Kinking and blockage of the
chest tube is a common cause of a tension pneumothorax. Infection and
excessive drainage won’t cause a tension pneumothorax. Excessive water
won’t affect the chest tube drainage.
32.Answer: (D) Stay with him but not intervene at this time. If the client is
coughing, he should be able to dislodge the object or cause a complete
obstruction. If complete obstruction occurs, the nurse should perform the
 abdominal thrust maneuver with the client standing. If the client is
unconscious, she should lay him down. A nurse should never leave a
choking client alone.
33.Answer: (B) Current health promotion activities. Recognizing an
individual’s positive health measures is very useful. General health in the
previous 10 years is important, however, the current activities of an 84 year
old client are most significant in planning care. Family history of disease
for a client in later years is of minor significance. Marital status
information may be important for discharge planning but is not as
significant for addressing the immediate medical problem.
34.Answer: (C) Place the client in a side lying position, with the head of
the bed lowered. The client should be positioned in a side-lying position
with the head of the bed lowered to prevent aspiration. A small amount
of toothpaste should be used and the mouth swabbed or suctioned
to remove pooled secretions. Lemon glycerin can be drying if used
for extended periods. Brushing the teeth with the client lying supine may
lead to aspiration. Hydrogen peroxide is caustic to tissues and should not
be used.
35.Answer: (C) Pneumonia. Fever productive cough and pleuritic chest pain
are common signs and symptoms of pneumonia. The client with ARDS has
dyspnea and hypoxia with worsening hypoxia over time, if not treated
aggressively. Pleuritic chest pain varies with respiration, unlike the
constant chest pain during an MI; so this client most likely isn’t having an
MI. the client with TB typically has a cough producing blood-tinged
sputum. A sputum culture should be obtained to confirm the nurse’s
suspicions.
36.Answer: (C) A 43-yesr-old homeless man with a history of
alcoholism. Clients who are economically disadvantaged,
malnourished, and have reduced immunity, such as a client with a history
of alcoholism, are at extremely high risk for developing TB. A high school
student, daycare worker, and businessman probably have a much low risk
of contracting TB.
37.Answer: (C ) To determine the extent of lesions. If the lesions are large
enough, the chest X-ray will show their presence in the lungs. Sputum
culture confirms the diagnosis. There can be false-positive and false-
negative skin test results. A chest X-ray can’t determine if this is a primary
or secondary infection.
38.Answer: (B) Bronchodilators. Bronchodilators are the first line of treatment
for asthma because broncho-constriction is the cause of reduced airflow.
Beta adrenergic blockers aren’t used to treat asthma and can cause
 bronchoconstriction. Inhaled oral steroids may be given to reduce the
inflammation but aren’t used for emergency relief.
39.Answer: (C) Chronic obstructive bronchitis. Because of this extensive
smoking history and symptoms the client most likely has chronic
obstructive bronchitis. Client with ARDS have acute symptoms of hypoxia
and typically need large amounts of oxygen. Clients with asthma and
emphysema tend not to have chronic cough or peripheral edema.
40.Answer: (A) The patient is under local anesthesia during the
procedure. Before the procedure, the patient is administered with drugs that
would help to prevent infection and rejection of the transplanted cells such
as antibiotics, cytotoxic, and corticosteroids. During the transplant, the
patient is placed under general anesthesia.
41.Answer: (D) Raise the side rails. A patient who is disoriented is at risk of
falling out of bed. The initial action of the nurse should be raising the side
rails to ensure patients safety.
42.Answer: (A) Crowd red blood cells. The excessive production of white
blood cells crowd out red blood cells production which causes anemia to
occur.
43.Answer: (B) Leukocytosis. Chronic Lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) is
characterized by increased production of leukocytes and lymphocytes
resulting in leukocytosis, and proliferation of these cells within the bone
marrow, spleen and liver.
44.Answer: (A) Explain the risks of not having the surgery. The best initial
response is to explain the risks of not having the surgery. If the client
understands the risks but still refuses the nurse should notify the physician
and the nurse supervisor and then record the client’s refusal in the nurses’
notes.
45.Answer: (D) The 75-year-old client who was admitted 1 hour ago
with new-onset atrial fibrillation and is receiving L.V. dilitiazem
(Cardizem). The client with atrial fibrillation has the greatest potential
to become unstable and is on L.V. medication that requires close
monitoring. After assessing this client, the nurse should assess the client
with thrombophlebitis who is receiving a heparin infusion, and then the
58- year-old client admitted 2 days ago with heart failure (his signs
and symptoms are resolving and don’t require immediate attention).
The lowest priority is the 89-year-old with end stage right-sided heart
failure, who requires time-consuming supportive measures.
46.Answer: (C) Cocaine. Because of the client’s age and negative medical
history, the nurse should question her about cocaine use. Cocaine
increases myocardial oxygen consumption and can cause coronary artery
spasm, leading to tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, myocardial ischemia,
 and myocardial infarction. Barbiturate overdose may trigger
respiratory depression and slow pulse. Opioids can cause marked
respiratory depression, while benzodiazepines can cause drowsiness and
confusion.
47.Answer: (B) Nonmobile mass with irregular edges. Breast cancer tumors
are fixed, hard, and poorly delineated with irregular edges. A mobile mass
that is soft and easily delineated is most often a fluid-filled benign cyst.
Axillary lymph nodes may or may not be palpable on initial detection of a
cancerous mass. Nipple retraction — not eversion — may be a sign of
cancer.
48.Answer: (C) Radiation. The usual treatment for vaginal cancer is external
or intravaginal radiation therapy. Less often, surgery is
performed. Chemotherapy typically is prescribed only if vaginal cancer is
diagnosed in an early stage, which is rare. Immunotherapy isn’t used to
treat vaginal cancer.
49.Answer: (B) Carcinoma in situ, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no
evidence of distant metastasis. TIS, N0, M0 denotes carcinoma in situ, no
abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant metastasis. No
evidence of primary tumor, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no
evidence of distant metastasis is classified as T0, N0, M0. If the tumor and
regional lymph nodes can’t be assessed and no evidence of metastasis
exists, the lesion is classified as TX, NX, M0. A progressive increase in
tumor size, no demonstrable metastasis of the regional lymph nodes, and
ascending degrees of distant metastasis is classified as T1, T2, T3, or T4;
N0; and M1, M2, or M3.
50.Answer: (D) “Keep the stoma moist.” The nurse should instruct the client
to keep the stoma moist, such as by applying a thin layer of petroleum jelly
around the edges, because a dry stoma may become irritated. The nurse
should recommend placing a stoma bib over the stoma to filter and warm
air before it enters the stoma. The client should begin performing stoma
care without assistance as soon as possible to gain independence in self-
care activities.
51.Answer: (B) Lung cancer. Lung cancer is the most deadly type of cancer
in both women and men. Breast cancer ranks second in women, followed
(in descending order) by colon and rectal cancer, pancreatic cancer, ovarian
cancer, uterine cancer, lymphoma, leukemia, liver cancer, brain cancer,
stomach cancer, and multiple myeloma.
52.Answer: (A) miosis, partial eyelid ptosis, and anhidrosis on the
affected side of the face. Horner’s syndrome, which occurs when a lung
tumor invades the ribs and affects the sympathetic nerve ganglia, is
characterized by miosis, partial eyelid ptosis, and anhidrosis on the affected
 side of the face. Chest pain, dyspnea, cough, weight loss, and fever are
associated with pleural tumors. Arm and shoulder pain and atrophy of the
arm and hand muscles on the affected side suggest Pancoast’s tumor, a
lung tumor involving the first thoracic and eighth cervical nerves within
the brachial plexus. Hoarseness in a client with lung cancer suggests that
the tumor has extended to the recurrent laryngeal nerve; dysphagia
suggests that the lung tumor is compressing the esophagus.
53.Answer: (A) prostate-specific antigen, which is used to screen for
prostate cancer. PSA stands for prostate-specific antigen, which is used
to screen for prostate cancer. The other answers are incorrect.
54.Answer: (D) “Remain supine for the time specified by the physician.” The
nurse should instruct the client to remain supine for the time specified by
the physician. Local anesthetics used in a subarachnoid block don’t alter
the gag reflex. No interactions between local anesthetics and food occur.
Local anesthetics don’t cause hematuria.
55.Answer: (C) Sigmoidoscopy. Used to visualize the lower GI tract,
sigmoidoscopy and proctoscopy aid in the detection of two-thirds of all
colorectal cancers. Stool Hematest detects blood, which is a sign of
colorectal cancer; however, the test doesn’t confirm the diagnosis. CEA
may be elevated in colorectal cancer but isn’t considered a confirming test.
An abdominal CT scan is used to stage the presence of colorectal cancer.
56.Answer: (B) A fixed nodular mass with dimpling of the overlying skin. A
fixed nodular mass with dimpling of the overlying skin is common during
late stages of breast cancer. Many women have slightly asymmetrical
breasts. Bloody nipple discharge is a sign of intraductal papilloma, a
benign condition. Multiple firm, round, freely movable masses that change
with the menstrual cycle indicate fibrocystic breasts, a benign condition.
57.Answer: (A) Liver. The liver is one of the five most common cancer
metastasis sites. The others are the lymph nodes, lung, bone, and brain. The
colon, reproductive tract, and WBCs are occasional metastasis sites.
58.Answer: (D) The client wears a watch and wedding band. During an MRI,
the client should wear no metal objects, such as jewelry, because the strong
magnetic field can pull on them, causing injury to the client and (if they fly
off) to others. The client must lie still during the MRI but can talk to those
performing the test by way of the microphone inside the scanner tunnel.
The client should hear thumping sounds, which are caused by the sound
waves thumping on the magnetic field.
59.Answer: (C) The recommended daily allowance of calcium may be
found in a wide variety of foods. Premenopausal women require 1,000 mg
of calcium per day. Postmenopausal women require 1,500 mg per day. It’s
often, though not always, possible to get the recommended daily
 requirement in the foods we eat. Supplements are available but not always
necessary. Osteoporosis doesn’t show up on ordinary X-rays until 30% of
the bone loss has occurred. Bone densitometry can detect bone loss of 3%
or less. This test is sometimes recommended routinely for women over 35
who are at risk. Strenuous exercise won’t cause fractures.
60.Answer: (C) Joint flexion of less than 50%. Arthroscopy is contraindicated
in clients with joint flexion of less than 50% because of technical problems
in inserting the instrument into the joint to see it clearly. Other
contraindications for this procedure include skin and wound infections.
Joint pain may be an indication, not a contraindication, for arthroscopy.
Joint deformity and joint stiffness aren’t contraindications for this
procedure.
61.Answer: (D) Gouty arthritis. Gouty arthritis, a metabolic disease, is
characterized by urate deposits and pain in the joints, especially those in
the feet and legs. Urate deposits don’t occur in septic or traumatic arthritis.
Septic arthritis results from bacterial invasion of a joint and leads to
inflammation of the synovial lining. Traumatic arthritis results from blunt
trauma to a joint or ligament. Intermittent arthritis is a rare, benign
condition marked by regular, recurrent joint effusions, especially in the
knees.
62.Answer: (B) 30 ml/hour. An infusion prepared with 25,000 units of heparin
in 500 ml of saline solution yields 50 units of heparin per milliliter of
solution. The equation is set up as 50 units times X (the unknown quantity)
equals 1,500 units/hour, X equals 30 ml/hour.
63.Answer: (B) Loss of muscle contraction decreasing venous return. In
clients with hemiplegia or hemiparesis loss of muscle contraction decreases
venous return and may cause swelling of the affected extremity.
Contractures, or bony calcifications may occur with a stroke, but don’t
appear with swelling. DVT may develop in clients with a stroke but is
more likely to occur in the lower extremities. A stroke isn’t linked to
protein loss.
64.Answer: (B) It appears on the distal interphalangeal joint. Heberden’s
nodes appear on the distal interphalageal joint on both men and women.
Bouchard’s node appears on the dorsolateral aspect of the proximal
interphalangeal joint.
65.Answer: (B) Osteoarthritis is a localized disease rheumatoid arthritis
is systemic. Osteoarthritis is a localized disease, rheumatoid arthritis
is systemic. Osteoarthritis isn’t gender-specific, but rheumatoid arthritis
is. Clients have dislocations and subluxations in both disorders.
66.Answer: (C) The cane should be used on the unaffected side. A cane
should be used on the unaffected side. A client with osteoarthritis should be
 encouraged to ambulate with a cane, walker, or other assistive device as
needed; their use takes weight and stress off joints.
67.Answer: (A) 9 U regular insulin and 21 U neutral protamine
Hagedorn (NPH). A 70/30 insulin preparation is 70% NPH and 30%
regular insulin. Therefore, a correct substitution requires mixing 21 U of
NPH and 9 U of regular insulin. The other choices are incorrect dosages for
the prescribed insulin.
68.Answer: (C) colchicines. A disease characterized by joint inflammation
(especially in the great toe), gout is caused by urate crystal deposits in the
joints. The physician prescribes colchicine to reduce these deposits and
thus ease joint inflammation. Although aspirin is used to reduce joint
inflammation and pain in clients with osteoarthritis and rheumatoid
arthritis, it isn’t indicated for gout because it has no effect on urate crystal
formation. Furosemide, a diuretic, doesn’t relieve gout. Calcium gluconate
is used to reverse a negative calcium balance and relieve muscle cramps,
not to treat gout.
69.Answer: (A) Adrenal cortex. Excessive secretion of aldosterone in the
adrenal cortex is responsible for the client’s hypertension. This hormone
acts on the renal tubule, where it promotes reabsorption of sodium and
excretion of potassium and hydrogen ions. The pancreas mainly secretes
hormones involved in fuel metabolism. The adrenal medulla secretes
the catecholamines — epinephrine and norepinephrine. The
parathyroids secrete parathyroid hormone.
70.Answer: (C) They debride the wound and promote healing by
secondary intention. For this client, wet-to-dry dressings are most
appropriate because they clean the foot ulcer by debriding exudate and
necrotic tissue, thus promoting healing by secondary intention. Moist,
transparent dressings contain exudate and provide a moist wound
environment. Hydrocolloid dressings prevent the entrance of
microorganisms and minimize wound discomfort. Dry sterile dressings
protect the wound from mechanical trauma and promote healing.
71.Answer: (A) Hyperkalemia. In adrenal insufficiency, the client has
hyperkalemia due to reduced aldosterone secretion. BUN increases as the
glomerular filtration rate is reduced. Hyponatremia is caused by reduced
aldosterone secretion. Reduced cortisol secretion leads to impaired
glyconeogenesis and a reduction of glycogen in the liver and muscle,
causing hypoglycemia.
72.Answer: (C) Restricting fluids. To reduce water retention in a client with
the SIADH, the nurse should restrict fluids. Administering fluids by any
route would further increase the client’s already heightened fluid load.
73.Answer: (D) glycosylated hemoglobin level. Because some of the glucose
in the bloodstream attaches to some of the hemoglobin and stays attached
during the 120-day life span of red blood cells, glycosylated hemoglobin
levels provide information about blood glucose levels during the previous 3
months. Fasting blood glucose and urine glucose levels only give
information about glucose levels at the point in time when they were
obtained. Serum fructosamine levels provide information about blood
glucose control over the past 2 to 3 weeks.
74.Answer: (C) 4:00 pm. NPH is an intermediate-acting insulin that peaks 8 to
12 hours after administration. Because the nurse administered NPH insulin
at 7 a.m., the client is at greatest risk for hypoglycemia from 3 p.m. to 7
p.m.
75.Answer: (A) Glucocorticoids and androgens. The adrenal glands have two
divisions, the cortex and medulla. The cortex produces three types of
hormones: glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and androgens. The
medulla produces catecholamines — epinephrine and norepinephrine.
76.Answer: (A) Hypocalcemia. Hypocalcemia may follow thyroid surgery if
the parathyroid glands were removed accidentally. Signs and symptoms of
hypocalcemia may be delayed for up to 7 days after surgery. Thyroid
surgery doesn’t directly cause serum sodium, potassium, or magnesium
abnormalities. Hyponatremia may occur if the client inadvertently received
too much fluid; however, this can happen to any surgical client receiving
I.V. fluid therapy, not just one recovering from thyroid surgery.
Hyperkalemia and hypermagnesemia usually are associated with reduced
renal excretion of potassium and magnesium, not thyroid surgery.
77.Answer: (D) Carcinoembryonic antigen level. In clients who smoke, the
level of carcinoembryonic antigen is elevated. Therefore, it can’t be used as
a general indicator of cancer. However, it is helpful in monitoring cancer
treatment because the level usually falls to normal within 1 month if
treatment is successful. An elevated acid phosphatase level may indicate
prostate cancer. An elevated alkaline phosphatase level may reflect bone
metastasis. An elevated serum calcitonin level usually signals thyroid
cancer.
78.Answer: (B) Dyspnea, tachycardia, and pallor. Signs of iron-deficiency
anemia include dyspnea, tachycardia, and pallor as well as fatigue,
listlessness, irritability, and headache. Night sweats, weight loss, and
diarrhea may signal acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS).
Nausea, vomiting, and anorexia may be signs of hepatitis B. Itching, rash,
and jaundice may result from an allergic or hemolytic reaction.
79.Answer: (D) “I’ll need to have a C-section if I become pregnant and have a
baby.” The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is transmitted
 from mother to child via the transplacental route, but a Cesarean
section delivery isn’t necessary when the mother is HIV-positive. The use
of birth control will prevent the conception of a child who might have HIV.
It’s true that a mother who’s HIV positive can give birth to a baby who’s
HIV negative.
80.Answer: (C) “Avoid sharing such articles as toothbrushes and razors.” The
human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which causes AIDS, is most
concentrated in the blood. For this reason, the client shouldn’t share
personal articles that may be blood-contaminated, such as toothbrushes and
razors, with other family members. HIV isn’t transmitted by bathing or by
eating from plates, utensils, or serving dishes used by a person with AIDS.
81.Answer: (B) Pallor, tachycardia, and a sore tongue. Pallor, tachycardia, and
a sore tongue are all characteristic findings in pernicious anemia. Other
clinical manifestations include anorexia; weight loss; a smooth, beefy red
tongue; a wide pulse pressure; palpitations; angina; weakness; fatigue; and
paresthesia of the hands and feet. Bradycardia, reduced pulse pressure,
weight gain, and double vision aren’t characteristic findings in pernicious
anemia.
82.Answer: (B) Administer epinephrine, as prescribed, and prepare to intubate
the client if necessary. To reverse anaphylactic shock, the nurse first
should administer epinephrine, a potent bronchodilator as prescribed.
The physician is likely to order additional medications, such as
antihistamines and corticosteroids; if these medications don’t relieve the
respiratory compromise associated with anaphylaxis, the nurse should
prepare to intubate the client. No antidote for penicillin exists; however, the
nurse should continue to monitor the client’s vital signs. A client who
remains hypotensive may need fluid resuscitation and fluid intake and
output monitoring; however, administering epinephrine is the first priority.
83.Answer: (D) bilateral hearing loss. Prolonged use of aspirin and other
salicylates sometimes causes bilateral hearing loss of 30 to 40 decibels.
Usually, this adverse effect resolves within 2 weeks after the therapy is
discontinued. Aspirin doesn’t lead to weight gain or fine motor tremors.
Large or toxic salicylate doses may cause respiratory alkalosis, not
respiratory acidosis.
84.Answer: (D) Lymphocyte. The lymphocyte provides adaptive immunity —
recognition of a foreign antigen and formation of memory cells against the
antigen. Adaptive immunity is mediated by B and T lymphocytes and can
be acquired actively or passively. The neutrophil is crucial to
phagocytosis. The basophil plays an important role in the release of
inflammatory mediators. The monocyte functions in phagocytosis and
monokine production.
85.Answer: (A) moisture replacement. Sjogren’s syndrome is an autoimmune
disorder leading to progressive loss of lubrication of the skin, GI tract, ears,
nose, and vagina. Moisture replacement is the mainstay of therapy. Though
malnutrition and electrolyte imbalance may occur as a result of Sjogren’s
syndrome’s effect on the GI tract, it isn’t the predominant problem.
Arrhythmias aren’t a problem associated with Sjogren’s syndrome.
86.Answer: (C) stool for Clostridium difficile test. Immunosuppressed clients
— for example, clients receiving chemotherapy, — are at risk for infection
with C. difficile, which causes “horse barn” smelling diarrhea. Successful
treatment begins with an accurate diagnosis, which includes a stool test.
The ELISA test is diagnostic for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
and isn’t indicated in this case. An electrolyte panel and hemogram may be
useful in the overall evaluation of a client but aren’t diagnostic for specific
causes of diarrhea. A flat plate of the abdomen may provide useful
information about bowel function but isn’t indicated in the case of “horse
barn” smelling diarrhea.
87.Answer: (D) Western blot test with ELISA. HIV infection is detected by
analyzing blood for antibodies to HIV, which form approximately 2 to 12
weeks after exposure to HIV and denote infection. The Western blot test —
electrophoresis of antibody proteins — is more than 98% accurate in
detecting HIV antibodies when used in conjunction with the ELISA. It isn’t
specific when used alone. Erosette immunofluorescence is used to detect
viruses in general; it doesn’t confirm HIV infection. Quantification of T-
lymphocytes is a useful monitoring test but isn’t diagnostic for HIV. The
ELISA test detects HIV antibody particles but may yield inaccurate results;
a positive ELISA result must be confirmed by the Western blot test.
88.Answer: (C) Abnormally low hematocrit (HCT) and hemoglobin
(Hb) levels. Low preoperative HCT and Hb levels indicate the client
may require a blood transfusion before surgery. If the HCT and Hb
levels decrease during surgery because of blood loss, the potential need for
a transfusion increases. Possible renal failure is indicated by elevated
BUN or creatinine levels. Urine constituents aren’t found in the
blood. Coagulation is determined by the presence of appropriate clotting
factors, not electrolytes.
89.Answer: (A) Platelet count, prothrombin time, and partial
thromboplastin time. The diagnosis of DIC is based on the results of
laboratory studies of prothrombin time, platelet count, thrombin time,
partial thromboplastin time, and fibrinogen level as well as client history
and other assessment factors. Blood glucose levels, WBC count, calcium
levels, and potassium levels aren’t used to confirm a diagnosis of DIC.
 90.Answer: (D) Strawberries. Common food allergens include berries,
peanuts, Brazil nuts, cashews, shellfish, and eggs. Bread, carrots, and
oranges rarely cause allergic reactions.
91.Answer: (B) A client with cast on the right leg who states, “I have a
funny feeling in my right leg.” It may indicate neurovascular compromise,
requires immediate assessment.
92.Answer: (D) A 62-year-old who had an abdominal-perineal resection
three days ago; client complaints of chills. The client is at risk for
peritonitis; should be assessed for further symptoms and infection.
93.Answer: (C) The client spontaneously flexes his wrist when the
blood pressure is obtained. Carpal spasms indicate hypocalcemia.
94.Answer: (D) Use comfort measures and pillows to position the client.Using
comfort measures and pillows to position the client is a non-
pharmacological methods of pain relief.
95.Answer: (B) Warm the dialysate solution. Cold dialysate increases
discomfort. The solution should be warmed to body temperature in warmer
or heating pad; don’t use microwave oven.
96.Answer: (C) The client holds the cane with his left hand, moves the
cane forward followed by the right leg, and then moves the left leg. The
cane acts as a support and aids in weight bearing for the weaker right leg.
97.Answer: (A) Ask the woman’s family to provide personal items such
as photos or mementos.Photos and mementos provide visual stimulation to
reduce sensory deprivation.
98.Answer: (B) The client lifts the walker, moves it forward 10 inches,
and then takes several small steps forward. A walker needs to be picked up,
placed down on all legs.
99.Answer: (C) Isolation from their families and familiar
surroundings. Gradual loss of sight, hearing, and taste interferes with
normal functioning.
100. Answer: (A) Encourage the client to perform pursed lip breathing. Purse
lip breathing prevents the collapse of lung unit and helps client control rate
and depth of breathing.