API 510 Question Bank Sets G I 2

Professional Training and Consultation
SET G
API 510 Preparatory Course
1. The purpose of the WPS and PQR is to determine that:
A. the welder is qualified

B. the base metals are strong enough
C. the weldment has the desired properties
D. the skill of the welder
2. The WPS lists:
A. nonessential variables.
B. Essential variables
C. Ranges of 1 & 2 above
D. All of the above
3. The PQR must list:
A. essential variables
B. qualification test & examination results
C. supplementary essential variables (when notch
toughness is required )
4. What is the earliest Edition of Section IX recognized by the

current edition?
A. 1958
B. 1992
C. 1987
D. 1962
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5. New Welding Procedure Specifications must meet the _________

Edition and Addenda of Section IX.
A. 1962
B. current
C. 1986
D. 1995
6. Each _____________________________ shall conduct the tests

required by Section IX to qualify the WPS’s used during the
construction, alteration, or repair.
A. Welder or welding operator

B. Manufacturer or contractor
C. Inspector
D. All of the above
7. The records of procedure, welder and welding operator

qualification must be available to the __________.
A. Manufacturer
B. Welder
C. Authorised Inspector
D. Foreman
8. A welder qualifying with a groove weld in plate in the 4G position

is qualified to weld groove welds in plate and pipe over 24”O.D.
in at least the ________ positions.
A. Vertical
B. Flat & horizontal
C. Flat & overhead
D. Horizontal
9. A welder qualifying with plate fillet welds in the 3F and $f

positions is qualified to weld groove welds in plate in the
_____________ positions.
A. Flat only
B. Flat and horizontal
C. Flat and vertical

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D. None of the above
10. A welder qualifying by making a groove weld on pipe with an

O.D. of ¾” in the 5G position is qualified to weld groove welds
in:
A. ½” O.D. Pipe in the overhead position

B. 6” O.D. Pipe in the vertical position
C. ¾” O.D. pipe in the horizontal position
11. In general, qualification on groove welds also qualifies a welder

to make:
A. Stud welds
B. Overhand welds
C. Fillet welds
D. All of the above
12. Charpy V-notch tests are performed to determine a weldment’s:
A. Tensile strength
B. Ductility
C. Notch toughness
D. All of above
13. A welder making a groove weld using the SAW process on P1

materials may be qualified using radiography.
A. True
B. False
14. When a tensile specimen breaks in the base metal outside of the
weld or fusion line, the strength recorded may be at most ____
below the specified tensile and be accepted.
A. 3.5%
B. 0.5%
C. 5%
D. All of the above
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15. Guided-bend specimens shall have no open defects in the weld

or heat effected zone exceeding __________ measured in any
direction on the convex surface of the specimen after bending.
A. 1/16”
B. 3/32”
C. 1/8”
16. When using radiographs to qualify welder, the acceptance

standards used are found in:
A. ASME Section V
B. ASME Section IX
C. ASME Section VII
D. The referencing code
17. A WPS must describe:
A. Essential variables
B. Nonessential variables
C. Supplementary essential variable when
required for notch toughness
D. All of the above
18. A PQR must describe:
A. Nonessential variables
B. Essential variables
C. Results of Welder Qualification tests
D. Project description & NDE methods
19. The _______ must certify the PQR as accurate.
A. Inspector
B. Manufacturer or contractor
C. Welder
D. All of the above
20. For the SMAW process ___________________ is an essential

variables for the WPS.
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A. Groove design
B. Post Weld Heat Treatment
C. Root spacing
D. Method of cleaning
21. For the SAW process ________________________ is an

essential variable for the WPS.
A. Supplemental powdered filler metal (if used)

B. Filler metal diameter
C. Preheat maintenance
D. Addition or deletion of peening
22. The basic purpose of testing a welder is to establish the welder’s

____________________________.
A. Knowledge of welding requirements

B. Ability to deposit sound weld metal
C. Mechanical ability to operate equipment
D. General attitude toward welding inspectors
23. The record of a welder’s performance test is called a

___________________.
A. PQR
B. WQR
C. WPS
D. WPQ
24. If a welder qualified with the SMAW process on Jan. 1,1994 and
last welded with SMAW on March 15, 1994, would he still be
qualified on October 7, 1994?
A. Yes
B. No.
25. A welder qualifying with a groove weld welded from both sides is
qualified to weld ________________.
A. Without backing
B. With all base metals
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C. With backing only

D. With P1 backing only
26. Immediate retests of welders’ qualifications coupons:
A. Must use the same method

B. May use any method
C. Are not allowed
D. Require Inspector approval
27. Welder performance qualification records must describe all the

___________ variables specified.
A. Essential & nonessential

B. Nonessential
C. Essential
D. Brazing
28. A welder depositing 1/2" of weld metal with the SMAW process is
qualified to deposit up to ____________ of weld metal.
A. 8”
B. Max to be welded
C. 1”
D. ½”
29. “P” numbers are used to designate groups of:
A. Electrodes
B. Flux
C. Base metals
D. Joints
30. A welder qualifying by welding P-No. 21 to P-No.21 is qualified to

weld:
A. P-1- P-11 to P-1 – P –11

B. P-8 – P8
C. P-21 – P-25 TO P-21-P-25
D. P21 to P21 only
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31. Welding electrodes are grouped in Section IX by:
A. AWS class
B. ASME specification
C. SFA
D. “F” number
32. Ferrous weld metal chemical composition may be designated

using:
A. “P” number
B. Welder I.D.
C. “A” number
D. Page number
33. For welder qualifications with the SMAW process

______________________ is an essential variable.
A. Base metal thickness

B. Peening
C. P-number
D. Electrode diameter
34. Each welder must be assigned a(n):
A. P number
B. Unique identifier
C. Hood & gloves
D. Inspector
35. May a welder, qualified in the 2G position on ¼ inch thick plate,

weld a 1 inch outside diameter pipe, ¼ inch thick in the
horizontal position without re-qualification?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information provided
D. Yes, provided pipe is carbon steel, P#1
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36. What is the difference between gas metal arc-welding and gas
tungsten arc-welding processes?
A. GMAW uses a continuously fed fillet metal and

GTAW a tungsten electrode
B. The SFA specification of the filler metal
C. The F-number of the filler metal
D. GTAW is run with gas; gas is optional with
GMAW
37. A welder has been tested in the 6-G position, using as E-7018 F-
4 electrode, on 6” Sch 160 (0.718” nom) SA 106B pipe. Is this
welder qualified to weld a 2” 300# ANSI schedule 80 bore flange
to a 2” Schedule 80 SA 106 B nozzle neck?
A. Yes
B. No
D. Yes, provided a backing strip is provided in the
2” weld.
38. May a welder who qualified using a double-groove weld, make a

single V-groove weld without backing?
A. Yes
B. No
D. Yes, because backing is not an essential
variable for a welder
39. May a GTAW welder be qualified by radiography, in lieu of bend

tests? The test coupon will be P-22 material and the production
welds will be P-22 also.
A. Yes
B. No
D. Yes, provided the P-22 is welded with F-22
fillers
40. Who is responsible for qualification of welding procedures,

welders and welding operators?
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A. The Inspector
B. The A.I
C. The Shop Foreman
D. The Manufacturer of Contractor
41. A welding electrode has the marking E-6010. The “1” marking
indicates:
A. Flat position only

B. Horizontal position only
C. All positions
D. Only good for heat treated welds
42. May a FCAW welder qualified using UT, be used to weld in

production?
A. Yes, welder can be used

B. No welder cannot be used
C. Yes, if welder is using GMAW (Short Arc)
D. Yes, if welder is qualified with backing
43. A welder may deviate from the parameters specified in a WPS if

they are a nonessential variable.
True Or False (circle one)
44. What is the number of transverse guided bend tests required for
Performance Qualification in a 6G position?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 3
45. What positions are necessary to qualify a welder for all position
pipe welding?
A. 3G and 4G
B. 2G and 5G
C. 3G and 1G
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D. 4G and 5G
46. What ASME Code Section has welding electrode storage

requirements?
A. ASME IX
B. ASME VIII
C. ASME B31.1
D. ASME II Part C
47. A repair organization has a WPS which states it is qualified for P-

8 to P-8 material welded with either E308, E308L, E309, E316,
electrodes (SMAW process). The PQR, supporting this WPS,
states the weld test coupons were SA-240 Type 304L material,
welded with E308 electrodes. Is the WPS properly qualified for
the base material listed?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information given
D. Yes, if properly heat treated
48. May a GMAW, short circuit transfer, welding procedure be

qualified using real-time ultrasonics?
A. Yes
B. No
D. Yes, provided bend tests are done.
49. Three arc-welding processes are :

A. BMAW, SMAW, EFGAW
B. FCAW, SAW, ESW
C. SMAW, GTAW, PAW
D. PTAW, SLAW, PEAW
50. A welder was qualified with a P-1 test coupon using SMAW E
7018 electrodes. May the welder weld P-4 material using E8028
electrodes with backing in production? (Assume the P-4
procedure using E8028 electrodes has been qualified)
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A. Yes
B. No
51. Is a welding procedure qualified under the 1965 ASME Code

Section IX still applicable?
A. Yes
B. No, must be re-qualified
C. Is only applicable for 1965 pressure vessels
D. Cannot be used for new construction – repairs
only
52. What are the various positions in which a welder may qualify for
plate groove welds?
A. 1G
B. 3G
C. 4G
D. All of the above
53. You are reviewing a WPQ (QW-484) for a welder testing in the 6-
G position, on SA-53 grade B pipe (TS-60,000 psi). The test
results indicate the following:
No.1 Tensile developed 51,000 psi, broke in the weld

No.2 Tensile developed 56,900 psi, broke in base metal
No.1 Transverse root bend satisfactory
No.2 Transverse face bend satisfactory
Will these tests qualify the welder?
A. Yes
B. No
D. Tension test is acceptable but No. 1 is
unacceptable
54. What are the primary classifications of guided-bend tests

permitted by the Code?
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A. Side and Transverse

B. Face and Root
C. Transverse and Longitudinal
D. Side and Face
55. A welder qualified by welding in the 5G position is qualified for

what position on plate?
A. F,H,OH
B. F,V,OH
C. V,OH,SP
D. H,V,OH
56. Which of the following is a covered electrode?
A. E6010
B. E7018
C. E9028
D. All of the above
57. Applicable essential variables must be documented on which of

the following?
A. The WPS
B. The PQR
C. The WPQ
D. All of the above
58. In performance qualification of pipe welds to ASME Section IX,

which positions require more than two guided bend specimens
for qualification?
A. 5G and 6G
B. 2G and 4F
C. 4G and 5G
59. Name two defects that would cause visual rejection of a welder’s
test pipe or plate?
A. Porosity, underfill
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B. Lack of penetration/fusion
C. Slag, overlap
D. Any of the above
60. A variable that, when changed will cause a change in the

mechanical properties of the weldment is called a:
A. Essential variable
B. Non-essential variable
C. Supplementary essential variable
D. All of the above
61. The test that determines the ultimate strength of groove-weld

joints is a:
A. Notch Toughness Test

B. Tension Test
C. Fillet Weld Test
D. Guided-Bend Test
62. The procedure qualification test is used to determine:
A. The skill of the welder

B. That the proposed production weldment is
capable of having the required properties
C. The corrosion-resistance of the proposed
weldment
63. A change in a supplementary essential variable requires re-

qualification, when notch-toughness is a consideration.
64. When using Macro-examination of fillet weld tests, the weld and
the HAZ must not reveal cracks when magnified at:
A. 5X
B. 2X
C. 10X
D. No magnification is required – visual
examination is required, only
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65. A non-essential variable may be changes without re-qualification

because:
A. Nobody cares about non-essential variables

B. The welder is allowed to change variables at
his discretion
C. Non-essential variables do not affect the
mechanical or notch-toughness properties
D. Non-essential variables cannot be changes
without re-qualification
66. A WPS must only address essential and, if applicable,

supplementary essential variables.
67. The data recorded on a PQR (non-editorial) may be changed

provided:
A. The AI approves
B. The test data on a PQR is a record of what
occurred and should never be changed. Only
editorial information can be changed on a PQR.
C. The API 510 inspector approves
D. The date of the WPS is changed
68. Tension tests may be used in lieu of bend tests to qualify

welders or welding operators.
69. A groove weld bend test reveals a linear indication on the face of
the bend surface that measures exactly 1/8” long. No other
indications are seen. Does this coupon pass or fail?
A. Pass
B. Fail
70. Unless notch-toughness is a consideration, a qualification in any

position qualifies a welding procedure for all positions.
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71. The purpose of a WPS and PQR is to determine if a welder has

the skill necessary to make sound production welds.
72. Welders can be qualified by radiograph when using P 6X

materials?
73. It is permissible to sub-contract welding of coupons as well as

other work to prepare coupons.
74. Variable QW 402.4 for SMAW procedure qualification is a

_____________ variable.
A. Essential
B. Non-essential
C. Supplemental essential
75. Variable QW 404.24 for SAW procedure qualification is an

______________variable.
A. Essnetial
B. Non-Essential
76. Each manufacturer must certify the PQR (by signature)

indicating that the information given is true and correct.
77. Welder variable QW-405.1 (for welder qualifying with the SMAW
process) is a __________ variable.
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A. Essential
B. Non-essential
78. The purpose of a WPS and PQR is to determine if a proposed

weldment to be used in construction is capable of providing the
required properties for the intended application.
79. A qualification in a 4G position qualifies a welder for all groove

weld positions.
80. A WPS must address all applicable non-essential variables.
81. Groove weld coupons shall be tested by macro-examination

when qualifying a welding procedure.
82. A welding procedure must be qualified with impact tests only

when required by the applicable construction code, such as
ASME VIII Div.1.
83. A welder qualified to weld in the 2G position on pipe would have

to be qualified in which of the additional positions to qualify for
all position groove welding on pipe?
A. 1G
B. 2G
C. 5G
D. 6G
E. All of the above
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84. The maximum preheat temperature decrease allowed without re-

qualification of a GMAW groove weld procedure is:
A. 500F
B. 1000F
C. 1250F
D. 1500F
E. None of the above
85. A welder is qualified to weld all thick nesses of material when :
A. The test is any thickness above 3/8 inch

B. The test thickness was ½ inch
C. The test thickness was ¾ inch or over
D. The test pipe wall thickness was 5/8 inch and
nominal pipe size was over ½ inches
86. What is the maximum defect permitted on the convex surface of

a welder qualification bend test after bending except for corner
cracks and corrosion resistant weld overlay?
A. ¼ inch
B. 1/8 inch
C. 1/16 inch
D. 3/16 inch
E. No defects are allowed
87. What period of inactivity from a given welding process requires

the welder to re-qualify in that process?
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 9 months
D. 12 months
E. As stated by the AI
88. Notch-toughness requirements are mandatory:
A. For heat treated metals

B. For quenched and tempered metals
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C. For hardened and tempered metals

D. For annealed and tempered metals
E. When specified as required by the referencing
Code Section
89. A welder qualified for SMAW using an E7018 electrode is also

qualified to weld with:
A. E7015
B. E6011
C. E6010
D. E7024
E. All of the above
90. Macro examination of an etched fillet weld section for

performance qualification is acceptable if the examination
shows:
A. Complete fusion and freedom from cracks,

excepting linear indication not exceeding 1/32
inch at the root.
B. Concavity or convexity no greater than 1/16
inch
C. Not more than 1/8” difference in leg lengths
D. All of the above
E. Both B and C above
91. Each manufacturer or contractor is responsible for the welding or

brazing done by his organization. Whenever these words are
used in Section IX, they shall include:
A. Designer or architect
B. Designer or installer
C. Architect or installer
D. Installer or assembler
E. Assembler or designer
92. For P-11 materials, weld grooves for thick nesses

________________ shall be prepared by thermal processes,
when such processes are to be employed during fabrication.
A. Less than 5/8 inch

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B. 5/8 inch
C. 1 inch
D. 11/4 inches
93. A SWPs may be used in lieu of a manufacturer qualified WPS

when:
A. approved by the Inspector’s Supervisor

B. allowed by ASME V
C. one test coupon is tension tested per Article V
D. compliance to Article V and Appendix E of
ASME IX is shown
94. A change in a non-essential variable requires re-certification of

the PQR.
95. Reduced-section tensile test specimens conforming to QW-462.1

(b) may be used on all thicknesses of pipe having an outside
diameter greater than:
A. 2 inches
B. 21/2 inches
C. 3 inches
D. 31/2 inches
E. 4 inches
96. Groove weld test may be used for qualification of welders. Which
of the following shall be used for evaluation?
A. Only bend tests

B. Only radiography
C. Both radiography and bend tests
D. Either bend tests or radiography
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97. Under which of the following conditions can a welder be qualified

during production work?
A. A 6” length of the first production groove weld

may be qualified by radiography
B. A bend test coupon may be cut from the first
12” length of weld
C. A macro examination may be taken from the
first 3” of weld length
98. Two plate tensile test specimens have been tested and found to
be acceptable. The characteristics of each specimen are as
follows :
Specimen 1: Width of 0.752”; thickness of 0.875”; ultimate

tensile value of 78.524 psi
Specimen 2: Width of 0.702”; thickness of 0.852”; ultimate

tensile value of 77,654 psi
What is the ultimate load for each specimen that was

reported on the laboratory report?
A. 51,668 & 46,445

B. 67,453 & 56,443
C. 78,524 & 77,654
99. Which of the following welding processes are currently not

permitted to be used with SWPs as referenced in Appendix E of
ASME IX?
A. GMAW
B. SAW
C. PAW
D. All of the above
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SET H
1. In the Barlow formula for determining pipe

thickness, the term S stands for:
a. internal design gage pressure of the pipe in

psi.
b. pressure design strength for internal pressure,
in inches
c. allowable unit stress at the design
temperature, in psi
d. maximum strain at the average operating
tenperature, in psi
2. At low pressures and temperatures, the thickness

determined by the Barlow formula may be so small
that the pipe would have _______ structural strength.
a. adequate
b. insufficient
c. ample
d. good
3. A seamless NPS 12, A-106 Grade A pipe operators at

300 degrees F and 941 psi. The allowable stress is
16000 psi. Using the Barlow Equation, determine the
thickness required for these conditions.
a. 0.375”
b. 0.750”
c. 0.353”
d. 0.706”
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4. A seamless NPS6, A-106 Grade A pipe operators at

16000 psi. The owner-user specified that the pipe
must have 0.1” allowed for corrosion allowance. Using
the Barlow Equation, determine the thickness required
for these conditions
a. 0.295”
b. 0.195”
c. 0.277”
d. 0.706”
5. A seamless NPS 8, A-53 Grade B pipe operators at

16500 psi. The pipe has been in service for 6 years.
The original wall thickness of the pipe was 0.375”. The
pipe wall now measures 0.30”. Considering no
structural requirements, estimate how long the piping
can continue to operate and not be below the
minimum thickness.
a. 4.68 years
b. 9.8 years
c. 0 years; pipe now below minimum
d. 10.42 years
6. An Inspector finds a thin area in the body of a NPS 8

(8.625” O.D.) 600# gate valve. The valve’s body is made
from ASTM A216 WCB material. The system operates at
700 psi and 750 degrees F. Using a corrosion allowance
of 0.125”, what thickness must be present in order to
continue to safely operate? Round to nearest hundredth.
a. 0.48”
b. 0.38”
c. 0.51”
d. 0.43”
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7. If corrosion or erosion is anticipated for a valve,

what should be done prior to installing the valve?
a. Severance thickness determinations

should be made when the valves are
installed so that the fretting rate and
metal ruination can be determined
b. Retirement thickness measurements
should be made after installation so
that the fatigue rate and metal loss can
be determined
c. Reference thickness measurements
should be made when the valves are
installed so that the corrosion rate and
metal loss can be determined
d. Retina measurements of the macula
should be made when the iris’ are
installed so the optical rate and losses
of perception can be determined
8. Which of the items listed below would NOT normally

be contained in inspection records or piping?
a. Original date of installation, the

specifications and strength levels of the
materials used.
b. Original vessel hydrotest pressures and
conditions that the tests were
performed under
c. Original thickness measurements and
the locations and dates of all
subsequent readings
d. Calculated retirement thicknesses
9. Accurate records of a piping system make possible

an evaluation of __________ on any piping, valve or
fitting
a. Computerisation
b. Security and continuity
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c. Cost and competency

d. Service life
10. You are working as an inspector. While reviewing a

tabulation of thickness data on a section of piping in
non-corrosive or very low corrosive service, you find
the initial thickess reading of an inspection point to
be 0.432” and marked nominal on a NPS 6 pipe. At
the next inspection 12 months later you find a
reading by ultrasonics of 0.378” at the same point.
Twelve months later UT readings were taken and the
thickness at the point was still 0.378”. what would
this mean to you?
a. No measurement was taken originally, the

nominal thickness was listed and the piping
probably had an under-tolerance of 12.5”.
b. There was an error made by the inspector at
the installation or the inspector who UT’d the
piping at the next inspection made an error.
c. The UT machine that the inspector used during
the 12 month inspection after installation was
defective and not reading correctly.
d. The pipe contractor or the installer put the
wrong schedule piping in service.
11. You are working as an inspector. While reviewing a

tabulation of thickness data on a section of piping, you
find the letter “C” marked under a column headed by
the word METHOD. What does the “C” indicate?
a. The inspection temperature of the pipe was

COLD.
b. The thickness measurement was made by an
inspector with the I.D. OF “C”
c. The thickness measurement was taken with

calipers.
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d. The thickness measurement was CONFIRMED

by a second party.
12. Which of the following is not an important function of

an accurate sketch?
a. assist in determining future locations that

urgently require examinations
b. identifying systems and circuits in terms of
location, size, materials etc.
c. serve as field data sheets
d. none of the above
13. As soon as possible after completing an inspection,

the Inspector should:
a. review the inspection records and schedule the next

inspection
b. always require a hydrotest
c. sign all RT records
d. notify the Piping Engineer, so he can wake up and
go home
14. The Wenner 4-Pin methods, the soil bar, and the
soil box do not represent methods of determining:
a. holidays
b. pipe-to-soil potentials
c. cathodic protection acceptability
d. all of the above
15. The total resistivity for a Wenner 4-Pin test that

utilizes pins spaced 2 feet apart and a 6 “R” factor is:
a. 2298 ohm/cm
b. 3500 ohm/cm
c. 6000 ohm/cm
d. 8000 ohm/cm
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16. Which of the following is not a consideration when using

a soil bar?
a. using a standard prod bar

b. avoiding the addition of water
c. applying pressure on the soil bar after injection
d. none of the above
17. Which of the following is a consideration when using a

soil box:
a. depth of Pins less than 4% of spacing

b. ensuring the soil has dried out before testing
c. avoiding contamination of the sample during
handling and storage
d. all of the above
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SET I
1. The maximum depth and radial projection of an imperfection

(deeper than the bottom of the serration) on a NPS 14 raised
face flange is:
a. 0.31”
b. 0.018”
c. 0.18”
d. 0.25”
2. On an NPS 24, 600 Class flange, the thickness of the flange

(minimum) is:
a. 4 ½”
b. 3.00”
c. 6.0”
d. 4.0”
3. The allowable pressure (in psig) on a 100 0F, Class 150 8” flange
made from A-182 Grade F2 material is:
a. 170
b. 290
c. 300
d. 400
4. If a Class 1500 flange is to be made from A-182 F347 stainless

steel and will be used at 280 psig with a carbon content of .09%,
at what maximum temperature can this flange be used?
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a. 10000F
b. 13000F
c. 11800F
d. 20000F
5. What is the minimum wall thickness of a Class 900 fitting that is

NPS 16?
a. 1.56”
b. 6”
c. 2”
d. 1”
6. What is the rated working pressure of a flanged fitting that is a

400 Class with a material stress value of 16,200 psi?
a. 1000 psig
b. 1500 psig
c. 800 psig
d. 740 psig
7. What is the minimum wall thickness of a NPS 5 Class 1500

fitting?
a. 0.091”
b. 0.91”
c. 1.00”
d. 1.15”
8. What is the maximum system hydrostatic test pressure required

for a Class 300 flange that is made from Group 1.10 material?
a. 1125 psig
b. 450 psig
c. 1000 psig
d. None of the above
9. A local area has been thinned on the wall thickness of a flanged

fitting. The fitting is NPS 8 Class 400, and the local area has
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been thinned to 0.400”. Is this corrosion acceptable per

ASME B 16.5?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Cannot be calculated from information given
d. Wall thicknesses may not be less than that shown in B16.5
10. In question No.9, what is the maximum circular area of sub-

minimum thickness allowed, in square inches?
a. 2.75
b. 0.74
c. 1.85
d. 0.431
11. From problem No.9 and No.10 above, if two areas of sub-
minimum thickness are observed on the fitting, what is the
minimum distance between the edges of these circles?
a. a. 3.0”
b. 2.70”
c. 8.0”
d. 3.70”
12. What is the maximum system hydrostatic test pressure

required for a Class 600 flange in a flanged joint made from
Group 3.5 material?
a. 2250 psi
b. 1500 psi
c. 1000 psi
13. A local area has been thinned on the wall of a flanged fitting.
The fitting is NPS 12 Class 900, and the local area has been
thinned to 0.945”. What is the minimum acceptable thickness
for this thinned area per ASME B 16.5?
a. 0.9375”
b. 1.250”
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c. 1.750”
d. Cannot be calculated from information given
14. From the information in Question No.13, what is the

maximum circular area of sub-minimum thickness allowed in
square inches?
a. 2.75”
b. 1.33”
c. 1.85”
d. 0.431”
15. Using the information in questions No.13, 14, if two areas of

sub-minimum thickness are observed on the fitting, what is
the minimum distance between the edges of these circles?
a. 3.0”
b. 2.70”
c. 6.52”
d. 4.70”
16. What would be the calculated thickness of a new NPS 14

flanged fitting with a 900 psi class designation?
a. 0.830”
b. 1.28”
c. 1.112”
17. A NPS flanged fitting is operating at a temperature of 650 0F

and has a pressure class rating of 600 psi. Using a stress
value of 17,400 psi, what would be the maximum permitted
rated working pressure?
a. 2000 psi
b. 1193 psi
c. 1175 psi
d. 1500 psi
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Professional Training and Consultation

1. The purpose of the WPS and PQR is to determine that:

A. the welder is qualified

2. The WPS lists:

3. The PQR must list:

4. What is the earliest Edition of Section IX recognized by the

5. New Welding Procedure Specifications must meet the _________

6. Each _____________________________ shall conduct the tests

A. Welder or welding operator

7. The records of procedure, welder and welding operator

8. A welder qualifying with a groove weld in plate in the 4G position

9. A welder qualifying with plate fillet welds in the 3F and $f

C. Flat and vertical

D. None of the above

10. A welder qualifying by making a groove weld on pipe with an

A. ½” O.D. Pipe in the overhead position

11. In general, qualification on groove welds also qualifies a welder

12. Charpy V-notch tests are performed to determine a weldment’s:

13. A welder making a groove weld using the SAW process on P1

15. Guided-bend specimens shall have no open defects in the weld

16. When using radiographs to qualify welder, the acceptance

17. A WPS must describe:

18. A PQR must describe:

19. The _______ must certify the PQR as accurate.

20. For the SMAW process ___________________ is an essential

21. For the SAW process ________________________ is an

A. Supplemental powdered filler metal (if used)

22. The basic purpose of testing a welder is to establish the welder’s

A. Knowledge of welding requirements

23. The record of a welder’s performance test is called a

C. With backing only

26. Immediate retests of welders’ qualifications coupons:

A. Must use the same method

27. Welder performance qualification records must describe all the

A. Essential & nonessential

29. “P” numbers are used to designate groups of:

30. A welder qualifying by welding P-No. 21 to P-No.21 is qualified to

A. P-1- P-11 to P-1 – P –11

31. Welding electrodes are grouped in Section IX by:

32. Ferrous weld metal chemical composition may be designated

33. For welder qualifications with the SMAW process

A. Base metal thickness

34. Each welder must be assigned a(n):

35. May a welder, qualified in the 2G position on ¼ inch thick plate,

A. GMAW uses a continuously fed fillet metal and

38. May a welder who qualified using a double-groove weld, make a

39. May a GTAW welder be qualified by radiography, in lieu of bend

40. Who is responsible for qualification of welding procedures,

A. Flat position only

42. May a FCAW welder qualified using UT, be used to weld in

A. Yes, welder can be used

43. A welder may deviate from the parameters specified in a WPS if

True Or False (circle one)

46. What ASME Code Section has welding electrode storage

47. A repair organization has a WPS which states it is qualified for P-

48. May a GMAW, short circuit transfer, welding procedure be

49. Three arc-welding processes are :

51. Is a welding procedure qualified under the 1965 ASME Code

No.1 Tensile developed 51,000 psi, broke in the weld

Will these tests qualify the welder?