Previous Paper Document - 3
Previous Paper Document - 3
NOTE :
(i) - 31
Please check that this question paper contains 31 printed pages.
(ii) - - -
-
Q.P. Code given on the right hand side of the question paper should be written on the title
page of the answer-book by the candidate.
(iii) - 33
Please check that this question paper contains 33 questions.
(iv) -
Please write down the serial number of the question in the answer-book before
attempting it.
(v) - 15 -
10.15 10.15 10.30 -
-
15 minute time has been allotted to read this question paper. The question paper will be
distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m., the students will read the
question paper only and will not write any answer on the answer-book during this period.
(i) 33
(ii)
(iii) 1 16 (MCQ)
(iv) 17 21 (VSA)
(v) 22 28 (SA)
(vi) 29 30
(vii) 31 33 (LA)
(viii) 1 1
2 3
(ix)
IÊS> H$
1 16 16 1=16
1. Cg qbJ {ZYm©aH$ H«$mo_mogmo_ g_yh H$mo Mw{ZE, Omo Cggo g§~§{YV Ord Ho$ ghr qbJ H$mo B§{JV
H$aVm h¡ &
(a) g_`w½_Or qbJ H«$mo_mogmo_ (ZZ) n{j`m| _| _mXm qbJ {ZYm©aU H$aVo h¢
(b) XO àH$ma Ho$ qbJ H«$mo_mogmo_ {Q>È>m| _| Za qbJ {ZYm©aU H$aVo h¢
(c) _mZd _| Q>Z©a qgS´>mo_ _| nmB© OmZo dmbr XXY H$s pñW{V Za qbJ H$m {ZYm©aU H$aVr
h¡
(d) _| g_`w½_Or qbJ H«$mo_mogmo_ (XX) Za Ord CËnÞ H$aVo h¢
57/3/1 JJJJ Page 2
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
(i) This question paper contains 33 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) This question paper is divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii) In Section A Questions no. 1 to 16 are multiple choice (MCQ) type questions,
carrying 1 mark each.
(iv) In Section B Questions no. 17 to 21 very short answer (VSA) type questions,
carrying 2 marks each.
(v) In Section C Questions no. 22 to 28 are short answer (SA) type questions,
carrying 3 marks each.
(vi) In Section D Questions no. 29 and 30 are case-based questions carrying
4 marks each. Each question has subparts with internal choice in one subpart.
(vii) In Section E Questions no. 31 to 33 are long answer (LA) type questions
carrying 5 marks each.
(viii) There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in
1 question in Section B, 1 question in Section C, 2 questions in Section D and
3 questions in Section E. A candidate has to attempt only one of the
alternatives in such questions.
(ix) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labelled diagrams should be drawn.
SECTION A
1. Choose the set of sex determining chromosomes that indicates the correct
sex of the respective organism.
3. Cg {dH$ën H$mo nhMm{ZE Omo {ZåZ {MÌ _| {XImE JE Am°ñQ´>o{b`m Ho$ EH$ hr Amdmg _|
ahZo dmbo Xmo OÝVwAm| Ho$ {dH$mg Ho$ ghr àH$ma H$mo {Zê${nV H$aVm h¡ &
(ii) All bacteria contain hybrid DNA (N14 DNA and N15 DNA).
15
(iii) Bacteria grown in N medium for many generations.
15
(iv) All bacteria contain N DNA.
(v) Bacteria contain either all N14 DNA or all hybrid DNA.
3. Identify the option that gives the correct type of evolution exhibited by
the two animals shown, living in the same habitat in Australia.
T
Q
P
P. i. Anam
Q. ii. nrV qnS>
R. EM.gr.Or. iii. nr`yf J«§{W
S. àmoOño Q>oamoZ iv. A§S>me`
(a) P-i, Q-iii, R-ii, S-iv (b) P-i, Q-iv, R-iii, S-ii
(c) P-iii, Q-iv, R-i, S-ii (d) P-ii, Q-iii, R-i, S-iv
6. {ZåZ{b{IV ~rOm| _| go H$m¡Z-gm ~rO gdm©{YH$ g_` VH$ Or{dV (OrdZj_) ah gH$Vm
h¡ ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
T
Q
P
6. Which of the following seeds have remained alive for the longest period ?
(a) Phoenix dactylifera (b) Striga asiatica
(c) Mangifera indica (d) Yucca gigantea
(b)
(c)
(d)
10. :
(a) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(b) Propionibacterium sharmanii
(c) Monascus purpureus
(d) Penicillium notatum
MaU
MaU
MaU
Step
Step
Step
the parents of the child are given below. Select the option that shows the
correct actual parent/parents of the child.
(a) A{^H$WZ (A) Am¡a H$maU (R) XmoZm| ghr h¢ Am¡a H$maU (R), A{^H$WZ (A) H$s
ghr ì¶m»¶m H$aVm h¡ &
(b) A{^H$WZ (A) Am¡a H$maU (R) XmoZm| ghr h¢, naÝVw H$maU (R), A{^H$WZ (A) H$s
ghr ì¶m»¶m H$aVm h¡ &
(c) A{^H$WZ (A) ghr h¡, naÝVw H$maU (R) µJbV h¡ &
(d) A{^H$WZ (A) µJbV h¡, naÝVw H$maU (R) ghr h¡ &
13. (A) : _mZd _| g^r à^mdr Abrb (AABBCC) `wº$ OrZmoQ>mBn dmbo ì`{º$ H$s
ËdMm H$m dU© (a§J) g~go Jham hmoVm h¡ &
(R) : EH$ ~hþOrZr {deofH$ (bjU) _|, \$sZmoQ>mBn àË`oH$ Abrb H$m
AnZm-AnZm `moJXmZ n[ab{jV H$aVm h¡ &
14. (A) : B§½b¡ÊS> _| Am¡ÚmoJrH$aU Ho$ níMmV² ídoV n§Ir eb^m| H$s g§»`m _|
A^yVnyd© H$_r Am JB© &
(R) : B§½b¡ÊS> Ho$ J«m_rU joÌm| _| Am¡ÚmoJrH$aU H$m A{YH$ à^md XoIm J`m &
16. (A) : _o{S>Q>oao{Z`Z Am°{H©$S> H$m nm¡Ym _{jH$m H$s EH$ Om{V go namJU
(R) : joÌ Ho$ Vmn_mZ Ho$ AZwê$n _mXm _{jH$m AnZo dU© (a§J) _| n[adV©Z H$a
boVr h¡ &
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the
correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not
the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
13. Assertion (A) : In humans the genotype with all the dominant alleles
(AABBCC) will have the darkest skin colour.
Reason (R) : In a polygenic trait, phenotype reflects the contribution of
each allele.
14. Assertion (A) : The number of white winged moths decreased drastically
after industrialisation in England.
Reason (R) : Effects of industrialisation were more marked in rural
areas of England.
15. Assertion (A) : More and more children in metro cities of India suffer from
allergies and asthma due to sensitivity to the environment.
Reason (R) : Modern day lifestyle and a protected environment in early
life has resulted in lowering the immunity.
16. Assertion (A) : The Mediterranean orchid Ophrys uses sexual deceit to get
pollinated by a species of bee.
Reason (R) : The female bee changes its colour depending on the
temperature of the area.
17. (H$) EH$ Amd¥V~rOr (E|{O`moñn_©) _| Za `w½_H$moX²{^X Ho$ {dH$mg Ho$ àH«$_ H$s ì`m»`m
H$s{OE &
(I) Bgo Za `w½_H$moX²{^X Ho$ ? 2
18. (H$) àmW{_H$ ~{hòmd O~ {ÛVr`H$ CnMma g§`§Ì _| àdoe H$aVm h¡, Vmo BgHo$ nhbo
MaU H$m CëboI H$s{OE VWm BgHo$ à`moOZ H$m ^r CëboI H$s{OE &
(I) {ÛVr`H$ CnMma g§`§Ì _| ~r.Amo.S>r. H$m ñVa {H$gH$m ÚmoVH$ h¡ ? BgHo$ _hÎd H$m
CëboI H$s{OE & 2
19. Zm¡ Ordm| Ho$ Amhma Omb H$mo {ZåZ AmaoI Ûmam Xem©`m J`m h¡ &
(H$) Amhma Omb _| Xmo CËnmXH$m| VWm Xmo _m§gmhmar Ordm| H$mo nhMm{ZE &
(I) Bg Amhma Omb H$m {na¡{_S> ~Zm gH$Vo h¢ ?
AnZo CÎma Ho$ g_W©Z _| H$maU Xr{OE & 2
20. EH$ CXmhaU H$s ghm`Vm go g_PmBE {H$ ~mhar ({dXoer) Om{V`m| H$mo {H$gr joÌ _| à{dîQ>
H$amZm (H$aZm) ñWm{ZH$ Om{V`m| Ho$ {bE {H$g àH$ma AmH«$m_H$ hmo gH$Vm h¡ VWm ñWm{ZH$
Om{V`m|/Om{V Ho$ õmg H$m H$maU ~Z gH$Vm h¡ ? 2
an angiosperm.
18. (a) Write the first step the primary effluent undergoes when it enters
(a) Identify two producers and two carnivores shown in the food web.
AWdm
(I) {H$gr amoJ Ho$ Z¡Xm{ZH$ bjU Ho$ {XImB© XoZo go nhbo hr CgH$s nhMmZ _| à`wº$
nwZ`m©oJO S>rEZE àm¡Úmo{JH$s {H$g àH$ma ghm`H$ h¡, ì`m»`m H$s{OE & 2
IÊS> J
22. (H$) (i) {H$gr gwHo$ÝÐH$s H$mo{eH$m _| {H$VZo àH$ma Ho$ AmaEZE nm°br_aoµO nmE OmVo
h¢ ? -gm AmaEZE nm°br_aoµO {df_m§Jr
Ho$ÝÐH$s` AmaEZE (hnRNA) H$m AZwboIZ H$aVm h¡ &
(ii) mRNA Ho$ ê$n _| Ho$ÝÐH$ go ~mha AmZo go nyd© hnRNA _| hmoZo dmbo
~Xbmd {b{IE & 3
AWdm
(I) {H$gr ^r H$mo{eH$m _| H|$ÐH$ H$s n[a{_{V H$s Anojm CgHo$ A§Xa Ho$ S>rEZE H$s
b§~mB© ~hþV A{YH$ hmoVr h¡ & g_PmBE {H$ EH$ gwHo$ÝÐH$s (`yH¡$[a`mo{Q>H$) H$mo{eH$m
_| `h ~¥hV² S>rEZE H¡$go noHo$µÁS> hmoVm h¡ & 3
23. {ZåZ{b{IV g§{já g§Ho$Vm| H$m {dñV¥V nyam Zm_ {b{IE VWm g_PmBE {H$ Q>oñQ> Q>çy~ ~o~r
H$m`©H«$_ _| BZH$m Cn`moJ {H$g àH$ma H$aVo h¢ : 3
(H$) Or.AmB©.E\$.Q>r.
(I) OoS>.AmB©.E\$.Q>r.
(J) AmB©.`y.AmB©.
OR
SECTION C
22. (a) (i) How many types of RNA polymerases are there in a
eukaryote cell ? Mention which one of them transcribes
hnRNA.
(ii) Write the changes that hnRNA undergoes before it leaves the
nucleus as mRNA. 3
OR
(b) The length of DNA in any cell is far greater than the dimension of
its nucleus. Explain how this enormous DNA is packaged in a
eukaryotic cell. 3
(a) GIFT
(b) ZIFT
(c) IUI
25. (H$) S>m{d©Z Ho$ àmH¥${VH$ daU Ho$ {gÕmÝV H$mo ì`mnH$ ê$n go ñdrH$ma {H$`m J`m h¡,
naÝVw AmYw{ZH$ Ord{dkmZ{dXm| Zo BgH$s Hw$N> gr_mAm| H$s nhMmZ H$s h¡ & nhMmZr
JB© BZ gr_mAm| H$m CëboI H$s{OE &
(I) AmYw{ZH$ H$mb _| {dH$mg Ho$ g~go ñdrH¥$V {gÕmÝV H$m Zm_ {bIH$a CgH$m
CëboI H$s{OE &
(J) S>m{d©Z Ho$ {dH$mgdmX _| nhMmZr JB© gr_mAm| H$mo AmYw{ZH$ Ord {dkmZ Ûmam
g_PmZo Ho$ {H$Ýht Xmo VarH$m| H$m CëboI H$s{OE & 3
57/3/1 JJJJ Page 20
24. Given below is a diagrammatic sectional view of a seminiferous tubule.
State the developmental process of : 3
(a) (i) .
(ii) .
(iii) .
(b) .
25. (a) Da
limitations have been identified by modern biologists. Mention the
limitations identified.
(b) Name and state the most accepted theory of evolution in modern
times.
(H$) Cn`w©º$ amgm`{ZH$ g§aMZm H$m {Zê$nU H$aZo dmbo S´>J Ho$ g§dJ© H$m Zm_ {b{IE &
(I) `{X BgHo$ _o{Wb g_yh H$mo Eogr{Q>b g_yh go à{VñWm{nV H$a {X`m OmE Vmo h_| EH$
27. (H$) Cg gyÌH¥${_ H$m d¡km{ZH$ Zm_ {b{IE Omo V§~mHy$ Ho$ nm¡Ym| H$mo g§H«${_V H$aVm h¡ &
nm¡Yo Ho$ Cg ^mJ H$m Zm_ ^r {b{IE {Ogo `h g§H«${_V H$aVm h¡ &
(I) Bg H¥${_ Ho$ AmH«$_U go gwajm Ho$ {bE H$m Cn`moJ H¡$go H$aVo h¢ ? 3
28. àË`oH$ Ho$ EH$ CXmhaU H$s ghm`Vm go {ZåZ{b{IV g_pîQ> nmañn[aH$-{H«$`mAm| H$s ì`m»`m
H$s{OE : 3
(d) State the harmful effects of this class of drugs on the human body. 3
27. (a) Write the scientific name of the nematode that infests the tobacco
plants and the part that it infests.
28. Explain the following population interactions with the help of one
example each : 3
29.
MmQ>© Ûmam Xem©`m J`m h¡ & MmQ>© H$m AÜ``Z H$s{OE VWm CgHo$ ZrMo {XE JE àíZm| Ho$ CÎma
{b{IE &
II
III
(ii) h¡ ? 1
(iv) (H$) `{X ñÌr EH$ gm_mÝ` nwéf go {ddmh H$aVr h¡, Vmo CZH$s nwÌr Ho$ Bg
{dH$ma go J«ñV hmoZo H$s g§^mì`Vm {H$VZr h¡ ? 1
AWdm
(iv) (I) `{X _m± B Bg {dH$ma H$s g§dmhH$ h¡, Vmo CZH$s nwÌr Ho$ Bg amoJ go J«ñV
? 1
The following questions are case-based questions. Read the cases carefully and
answer the questions that follow.
29. The following pedigree chart shows the inheritance of a genetic disorder
up to three generations of a family. Observe the chart and answer the
questions that follow.
Generation I
Generation II
Generation III
(iii) . 1
(iv) (a)
probability of their daughter being a sufferer of this disease ? 1
OR
(i) Cg naOrdr H$m Zm_ {b{IE Omo nanmofr X go nanmofr Y _| ñWmZmÝV[aV hþAm h¡ & 1
(iii) O~ `h naOrdr bmb aº$ H$mo{eH$mAm| _| àdoe H$aVm h¡, Vmo Cg_| hmoZo dmbo
n[adV©Zm| H$m CëboI H$s{OE & 1
(iv) (H$) O~ nanmofr X g§H«${_V nanmofr Y go aº$ Amhma àmá H$aVm h¡, Vmo Cg_|
(nanmofr _|) hmoZo dmbo n[adV©Zm| H$m CëboI H$s{OE & 1
AWdm
(iv) (I) amoJOZH$ Ho$ OrdZ MH«$ H$s {H$g AdñWm _| nanmofr Y H$mo amoJ Ho$ bjUm|
H$m AZw^d hmoVm h¡ ? amoJ H$m Zm_ VWm BgHo$ bjUm| Ho$ {bE CÎmaXm`r
Am{df nXmW© H$m Zm_ {b{IE & 1
(i)
1
(iii) Write the changes the parasite undergoes when it enters the RBC. 1
(iv) (a)
1
OR
(iv) (b) At which stage during the life cycle of the pathogen does the
e ? Name the
disease and the toxic substance responsible for these
symptoms. 1
31. (a) Answer the following questions with respect to recombinant DNA
technology : 5
(i) Why is plasmid considered to be an important tool in rDNA
technology ? From where can plasmids be isolated ? (Any two
sources)
(ii)
vector.
(iii) -DNA technology cannot proceed without restriction
OR
(b) Answer the following questions based on Bt-crops : 5
(i) Why do farmers prefer to grow Bt cotton crop than genetically
unmodified cotton crops ?
(ii) Name any two insects that are killed by Bt toxin.
(iii) Explain the mechanism by which Bt toxin kills the insects but
not the bacterium which possesses the toxin.
32. (a) Protein synthesis requires the services of all three types of RNAs,
namely t-RNA, m-RNA and r-RNA. Explain the role of each of them
during the process of protein synthesis in prokaryotes. 5
OR
(b) A homozygous tall pea plant with green seeds is crossed with a
homozygous dwarf pea plant with yellow seeds.
(i) Write the possible phenotype and genotype of F1 generation.
(ii) State the laws of Mendel that are proved true by the F1
generation.
(iii) Mention the F2 phenotypic ratio along with their possible
phenotypes.
(iv) Write the genotypes of the male and female gametes produced
by F1 progeny. 5
d
b
c
(i) BgHo$ Am¡a ^mJm| H$mo nhMmZ H$a CZHo$ Zm_ {b{IE &
(ii) A§S>me` go {d_moMZ Ho$ g_` Bg A§S>mUw H$m AY©gyÌr {d^mOZ AnyU© ah
OmVm h¡ & `h AY©gyÌr {d^mOZ H$~, H$hm± Am¡a H¡$go nyam hmoVm h¡ ?
(iii) {ZfoMZ Ho$ g_` `h H¡$go gw{ZpíMV hmoVm h¡ {H$ A§S>mUw _| Ho$db EH$ hr
ewH«$mUw àdoe H$a gHo$ ? 5
AWdm
(I) (i) Xmoham {ZfoMZ g^r nwînr nmXnm| H$s EH$ AZyR>r KQ>Zm h¡ & Bg àH«$_ H$s
ì`m»`m H$s{OE &
d
b
c
(i) and .
(ii) This ovum is released from the ovary with incomplete meiotic
division. When, where and how is the meiotic division
completed ?
(iii) How does an ovum ensure the entry of a single sperm during
fertilisation ? 5
OR
(b) (i) Double fertilisation is an event unique to all flowering plants.
Explain the process.
General Instructions: -
1 You are aware that evaluation is the most important process in the actual and correct
assessment of the candidates. A small mistake in evaluation may lead to serious problems
which may affect the future of the candidates, education system and teaching profession.
To avoid mistakes, it is requested that before starting evaluation, you must read and
understand the spot evaluation guidelines carefully.
3 Evaluation is to be done as per instructions provided in the Marking Scheme. It should not
be done according to one’s own interpretation or any other consideration. Marking
Scheme should be strictly adhered to and religiously followed. However, while
evaluating, answers which are based on latest information or knowledge and/or are
innovative, they may be assessed for their correctness otherwise and due marks be
awarded to them. In class-X, while evaluating two competency-based questions,
please try to understand given answer and even if reply is not from marking scheme
but correct competency is enumerated by the candidate, due marks should be
awarded.
4 The Marking scheme carries only suggested value points for the answers
These are in the nature of Guidelines only and do not constitute the complete answer. The
students can have their own expression and if the expression is correct, the due marks
should be awarded accordingly.
5 The Head-Examiner must go through the first five answer books evaluated by each
evaluator on the first day, to ensure that evaluation has been carried out as per the
instructions given in the Marking Scheme. If there is any variation, the same should be
zero after delibration and discussion. The remaining answer books meant for evaluation
shall be given only after ensuring that there is no significant variation in the marking of
individual evaluators.
6 Evaluators will mark( √ ) wherever answer is correct. For wrong answer CROSS ‘X” be
marked. Evaluators will not put right (✓)while evaluating which gives an impression that
answer is correct and no marks are awarded. This is most common mistake which
evaluators are committing.
7 If a question has parts, please award marks on the right-hand side for each part. Marks
awarded for different parts of the question should then be totaled up and written in the left-
hand margin and encircled. This may be followed strictly.
9 If a student has attempted an extra question, answer of the question deserving more
marks should be retained and the other answer scored out with a note “Extra Question”.
10 No marks to be deducted for the cumulative effect of an error. It should be penalized only
once.
11 A full scale of marks 0-70 has to be used. Please do not hesitate to award full marks if the
answer deserves it.
12 Every examiner has to necessarily do evaluation work for full working hours i.e., 8 hours
every day and evaluate 20 answer books per day in main subjects and 25 answer books
per day in other subjects (Details are given in Spot Guidelines).
13 Ensure that you do not make the following common types of errors committed by the
Examiner in the past:-
● Leaving answer or part thereof unassessed in an answer book.
● Giving more marks for an answer than assigned to it.
● Wrong totalling of marks awarded on an answer.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the inside pages of the answer book to the title page.
● Wrong question wise totalling on the title page.
● Wrong totalling of marks of the two columns on the title page.
● Wrong grand total.
● Marks in words and figures not tallying/not same.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the answer book to online award list.
● Answers marked as correct, but marks not awarded. (Ensure that the right tick mark is
correctly and clearly indicated. It should merely be a line. Same is with the X for
incorrect answer.)
● Half or a part of answer marked correct and the rest as wrong, but no marks awarded.
14 While evaluating the answer books if the answer is found to be totally incorrect, it should
be marked as cross (X) and awarded zero (0)Marks.
15 Any un assessed portion, non-carrying over of marks to the title page, or totalling error
detected by the candidate shall damage the prestige of all the personnel engaged in the
evaluation work as also of the Board. Hence, in order to uphold the prestige of all
concerned, it is again reiterated that the instructions be followed meticulously and
judiciously.
16 The Examiners should acquaint themselves with the guidelines given in the “Guidelines
for spot Evaluation” before starting the actual evaluation.
17 Every Examiner shall also ensure that all the answers are evaluated, marks carried over to
the title page, correctly totalled and written in figures and words.
18 The candidates are entitled to obtain photocopy of the Answer Book on request on
payment of the prescribed processing fee. All Examiners/Additional Head Examiners/Head
Examiners are once again reminded that they must ensure that evaluation is carried out
strictly as per value points for each answer as given in the Marking Scheme.
SECTION—A
4. (c) / Point Q 1 1
5. (c)/ P-iii,Q-iv,R-i,S-ii 1 1
(b)
• No ½
• Pyramid does not accommodate food web ½
// //
• Yes
½
• In the given food web no organism occupy more than 2
½
one trophic level
Introduction of Nile perch introduced into Lake Victoria, led eventually to the 1+1
20. extinction of more than 200 species of Cichlid fish
// //
African catfish / Clarias gariepinus, causes threat to indigenous catfish 1+1
// //
Parthenium/ carrot grass/ Lantana/ Water hyacinth/ Eicchornia sp.,causes 1+1 2
threat to native species
21 (a) Recombinant DNA/Desired DNA is inserted into the coding sequence of ½×4
an enzyme β-galactosidase, this results into inactivation of the gene for the
synthesis of this enzymes, presence of chromogenic substrate gives blue
coloured colonies if the plasmid in bacteria does not have the insert (Non
recombinants), but presence of insert (Recombinants) leads to the growth
of bacterial colonies with no colour.
OR
(b) A single stranded DNA or RNA tagged with a radioactive molecule
(probe), is allowed to hybridize with its complementary DNA in a clone ½×4
of cells, followed by detection using autoradiography, the clone having the
mutated gene will hence not appear on the photographic film.
//
//
Polymerase Chain Reaction/PCR is used to detect a disease even before
any clinical symptoms appears, involves denaturation, annealing, to ½×4
amplify DNA of the pathogen using pathogen specific primers
2
24 (a)
(i) ‘b’ (secondary spermatocytes) formed after first meiotic division/ ½
Meiosis -I in ‘a’ (primary spermatocytes)
(ii) ‘e’ (sperms) formed via a process called spermiogenesis/ ½
differentiation from ‘d’ (spermatids)
(iii) ‘d’ (Spermatids) formed after second meiotic division/ Meiosis- II from ½
‘b’ ( secondary spermatocyte).
(b) a – Primary spermatocyte ½
b – Secondary spermatocyte ½
c – Sertoli cell ½
3
25 (a) Darwin’s theory could not explain how the variations arose. 1
(b)
27 (a)
• Meloidegyne incognitia ½
½
• Roots
(b) When evolution of one species is tightly linked with the evolution of
other species ½
Plant pollinator interaction / fig species and wasp / any other relevant
1 3
example
SECTION-D
29 (i) •Sex linked disorder ½
‘c’ is affected allele, accept other symbols used for the same
(If any two genotypes are correct then award 1 mark)
1
(iv) (a) Probability 0%
OR
4
(iv) (b)Probability-50% 1
30 (i) Sporozoites. 1
(ii)Undergoes Asexual reproduction 1
(iii) The number increase asexually, parasites ultimately change into
gametocytes/ undergoes gametogenesis ½×2
SECTION-E
31 (a)(i)
• Can act as vector/can self-replicate to form multiple copies/ have 1
selectable markers/ small in size will facilitate insertion / presence of
‘Ori’
productivity
½ ×2
mRNA- Act as a template for protein synthesis, carries information in the form
of codon, It has the initiator codon /start codon /AUG to initiate the process, it ½×2
has the stop codon/UAA/UAG/UGA for termination of the protein synthesis
(Any two)
rRNA- rRNA organizes itself into ribosomes, there are two sites in the large
subunit in which one site is for binding the incoming t-RNA with the
½×4
corresponding amino acid second site for peptide bond formation, when the
small subunit of rRNA (ribosomes) encounters the mRNA the process of
translation begins, ribosome also acts as a catalyst for the formation of
peptide bond.
Female gametes of F1 TY Ty tY ty ½
5
33 (a)
(i)
a- Cells of corona radiata.
b- Zona pellucida /Perivitelline space ½×3
c- Haploid nucleus
(ii)
½
• Once the sperm enters the cytoplasm of the ovum
• The whole process is completed within the fallopian tube. ½
• Entry of sperm in the cytoplasm of the ovum induces the
completion of the 2nd meiotic division of the secondary oocyte, ½ ×2
(ii)
(1) Some of the nucellar cells surrounding the embryo start dividing and
protrude into the embryo sac to form embryos. 1
(2) In case of Cashew thalamus also contribute in fruit formation along
with ovary /development of fruit after fertilisation from the part other
than ovary, Guava fruit develops only from the ovary after fertilisation. ½ ×2 5