DAY 1 Morning (Professional Practice, Building Laws, History and TAPP)

02 June 2023 8am – 1pm

PROFESSIONAL PRACTICE, HISTORY, THEORY AND PRICIPLES OF PLANNING

WARNING: If there are conflicts between a stated word and the number/amount/figure
described, the stated/spelled word shall prevail. Should there be conflicts between two (2.0)
stated quantities, the higher figure shall prevail.

1. The architect's responsibilities in relation to the people: He shall not use ____ advertisement,
nor use self-laudatory, exaggerated, or misleading publicity.
a. Free c. Sponsored
b. Paid d. Remunerated

2. The architect's responsibilities in relation to his/her client: The Architect's honesty of purpose
must be beyond reproach; he/she acts as ___________ to his/her client.
a. Mediator c. Representative
b. Professional Adviser d. Manager

3. The architect's responsibilities in relation to the contractor: He shall promptly inspect each
phase of the work completed and if found according to the terms of the Contract
Documents, issue the ___________________, respectively, to the Contractor.
a. Certificates of Payment c. Final Certificate of Completion
b. Compensation d. Both A and C

4. The architect's responsibilities in relation to manufacturers, dealers, and agents: He shall not
solicit ________ services from manufacturers or suppliers of building materials or equipment
when these are accompanied by an obligation detrimental to the best interest of the Client,
or which may adversely affect the Architect's professional opinion.
a. Complimentary c. Technical
b. Free d. Paid

5. The architect's responsibilities in relation to his/her colleagues: He shall not render

professional services without a __________. He/she shall neither offer nor provide preliminary
services on a conditional basis prior to definite agreement with the Client for the
commission of the project.
a. Contract c. Service agreement
b. Verbal agreement d. General condition

6. What is classical architecture?

a. Architecture that uses stone.
b. Architecture that uses wood instead of stone.
c. The architectural style of Italy in the 16th century.
d. The architectural styles of ancient Greece and Rome that created the foundations
of European styles.

7. Which of the following is an example of the Doric order?

a. The Pantheon c. The Parthenon
b. The Colosseum d. The Great Pyramid

8. What is the most distinguishing feature of the Doric entablature?

a. Tapered, fluted columns d. Alternating triglyphs and metopes
b. Wooden beams for support in the frieze
c. A highly decorative architrave
9. What is the entablature?
a. The frieze
b. Part of the column
c. Something not found in Ionic architecture
d. A horizontal section that rests on top of the column

10. What does the volute look like on an Ionic Column?

a. Leaves c. Sea-shells
b. Scrolls d. Long groves

11. The last phase in a Design-Build Service.

a. Construction Phase c. Bidding Document Phase
b. Post Construction Training d. Occupancy Permitting Phase

12. Where the Architect is engaged to render opinion or give advice, clarifications or
explanation on technical matters pertaining to his profession, the chargeable RPF shall not
be less than __________ per hour.
a. 1,000 c. 3,000
b. 2,000 d. 5,000

13. When the suspension of construction exceeds a period of _______, the fee for the remaining
works shall be doubled.
a. 3 months c. 1 year
b. 6 months d. 2 years

14. Additional service done by architects in design build

a. Post construction training c. Bidding phase
b. Construction administration d. Occupancy permitting phase

15. Extra copies of contract documents are chargeable to ____

a. Owner c. Bidder
b. Architect d. Contractor

16. The clearance between the established grade of the street and/ or sidewalk and the lowest
under surface of any part of the balcony shall not be less than, in meters.
a. 2.40 c. 3.00
b. 2.70 d. 3.20

17. A voluntary dispute resolution process in which one or more persons appointed to render
an award, appointed in accordance with the agreement of the parties, or rules promulgated
pursuant to this Act, resolve a dispute by rendering an award.
a. Arbitration c. Conciliation
b. Mediation d. Early Neutral Evaluation

18. How many safety inspectors are required in hazardous workplaces with 51-200 workers,
based on occupational safety and health standards?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. A safety inspector is not required for hazardous workplaces with 200 or fewer workers
19. Which of the following is classified as a hazardous workplace?
a. Hospital d. Hotel
b. Construction site e. Shopping center
c. Commercial building

20. Who issues the CEI?

a. OBO d. Meralco
b. Professional Electrical Engineer e. NGCP
c. Master Electrician

21. You are designing your dream home and plan to utilize an Ancient Greek trick of entasis.
What can you do to mimic this?
a. Place a small stone at the “sweet spot”.
b. Adorn the entablature with metopes.
c. Build columns that are larger at the bottom than at the top.
d. Install tiered benches along a long stade.

22. Greek theatres are famous for their:

a. Lavish design c. Use of columns
b. Seating capacity d. Acoustic perfection

23. Which statement correctly compares the columns of the Doric and Ionic Orders?
a. The Doric style consists of a scroll capital and a smooth drum while the Ionic style
features a leafy capital and a fluted drum.
b. They both have fluted drums but the Doric capital features a simple tapered disk
while the Ionic capital includes a scroll shape.
c. They both have fluted drums but the Doric capital features a simple tapered disk while
the Ionic capital includes elaborate leaves.
d. They both have elaborate, leafy capitals but the Doric style features a fluted drum while
the Ionic style has a simple smooth drum.

24. Greek city states established colonies in order to:

a. Control trade routes
b. Expand their influence
c. Relieve overpopulation by relocating citizens elsewhere
d. All answers are correct

25. Greek city states did not form kingdoms and empires like their Egyptian and Sumeria
counterparts because:
a. The Greeks had no written language to administer an empire.
b. The Greek fixation on competition led Greek city states to hate one another.
c. Greek culture was not as advanced as the Egyptians and Mesopotamians.
d. The Greek mountains and sea served as natural obstacles to unification.

26. Which is not included in the scope of services of Building and Facilities Administration?
a. Building Maintenance
b. Grounds and Landscaping Supervision
c. Post Construction Evaluation
d. Building Equipment Maintenance
e. Business Development and Maintenance
27. In this post-construction service, the architect evaluates the initial design program against
the actual use of the facility.
a. Post Construction Evaluation d. Building Utilization Study
b. Building Maintenance e. Design Program Review
c. Building Appraisal

28. When the owner hires an architect or a firm to coordinate the whole range of
Comprehensive Architectural Services, this constitutes
a. Project Management d. Construction Management
b. Project Coordination e. Architectural Services Coordination
c. Comprehensive Architectural
Services

Situation: Paulina is a 23-year-old architecture graduate from a prestigious university who is

preparing to take the Architects’ Licensure Examinations. She was asked by her grandfather to
design a new house that he was planning to construct in the province. Paulina came up with an
original floor plan but in order to save time, she mostly copied the façade of a house designed
by Architect Lenny, her college professor who gave his students copies of the plans of that
house for a class exercise. Paulina prepared the detailed plans and the specifications but since
she is not a licensed architect yet, she asked her cousin Ariel, who is a civil engineer, to sign and
seal the plans for the purposes of obtaining a building permit. A permit was eventually issued,
and construction of the house commenced.

29. Analyze Paulina’s acts. Did she practice architecture?

a. Yes, because designing and preparing the plans for a house constitute practice of
architecture.
b. No. Paulina is not a licensed architect so her acts cannot be considered as constituting
practice of architecture.
c. No, because she only prepared the plans, but she did not sign and/or seal them.
d. Yes, because she has already finished her architecture degree. Hence, her acts constitute
practice of architecture.
e. Both A and B

30. Paulina’s neighbor Santino, who is a physician, found out about what Paulina did and
wanted to report her to the authorities for the unauthorized practice of architecture. Who
may report such offenses?
a. Only licensed architects may file such a report
b. Only the public prosecutor may file such a report
c. Only persons who directly suffered losses or damages may file such a report
d. Anyone may file such a report
e. Both B and D

31. Assuming that Santino is authorized to report Paulina for the unauthorized practice of
architecture, to whom should he report her?
a. The PRC d. Either A or B
b. The PRBOA e. Either B or C
c. The Regional Trial Court

32. If Paulina were to be charged in Court, what would she be guilty of and what is the penalty?
a. Misdemeanor. Fine of P100k-P5M, or imprisonment of 6 months to 6 years, or
both, at the discretion of the Court
b. Malpractice. Fine of P100k-P5M, or imprisonment of 6 months to 6 years, or both, at the
discretion of the Court
 c. Illegal practice of a profession. Fine of P200k-P10M, or imprisonment of 6 months to 3
years, or both, at the discretion of the Court
d. Infringement. Fine of P200k-P10M, or imprisonment of 6 months to 3 years, or both, at
the discretion of the Court
e. Usurpation of office. Fine of P200k-P10M, or imprisonment of 6 months to 3 years, or
both, at the discretion of the Court

33. Architect Lenny later recognized that the façade design was copied from his own design.
Does he have the right to have the construction of the house stopped?
a. Yes, because his design was copied without his permission.
b. No, because the design is not 100% the same.
c. No, because even though the façade is mostly the same, the plans are different.
d. Yes, but only if he can prove that it was the whole design that was copied.
e. Yes, but only if he can prove that at least 50% of the façade design elements were
copied.

Colors carry deep meanings with them in every culture. Western, Far Eastern, Middle Eastern,
Indian, and African cultures have stark differences in the symbolism of colors within their
cultures.

34. What does purple stand for in Japan?

a. Nobility and spirituality c. Humility
b. Trust d. Respect and truth

35. What does red symbolize in China?

a. Love c. Anger
b. Luck d. Violence

36. What does green mean in Mexican culture?

a. Jealousy c. Passion
b. Luck d. Independence

37. In North American cultures, what two things can blue represent?
a. Loneliness and trust c. Trust and love
b. Balance and pain d. Loneliness and anger

38. Which among the following statements is NOT true about color schemes?
a. Triad color schemes are composed of three colors equally positioned on the wheel.
b. Triad colors form a square or a rectangle on the color wheel.
c. Tetrad color schemes are formed by two pairs of colors opposite each other on the color
wheel or four colors.
d. Complementary color schemes are two colors located directly opposite from each other
on the color wheel.

Situation: Charlie invited Anna, an architect, to meet over coffee to discuss a potential restaurant
project. They agreed on a fee payable to Anna for the time she will spend discussing the project
with Charlie. During the meeting, Charlie was impressed by Anna’s clear expertise in designing
restaurants and decided to commission Anna to design the restaurant for him. They signed a
service agreement and Anna started working on the design for Charlie. However, while Anna
was working on the design several months later, the COVID-19 pandemic broke out. Charlie
started to worry if the project was still a good idea, so he asked Frank, an accountant, to do a
feasibility study in order to help him decide on whether to continue with the project or not.
Frank submitted his report, recommending that Charlie cancel the project because of the market
conditions brought about by the pandemic. When Charlie informed Anna of his decision to
cancel the project, Anna was already in the middle of the Design Development Phase.

39. What service did Anna render when she met with Charlie over coffee to discuss the potential
restaurant project?
a. Consultation d. Space Programming
b. Feasibility Study e. Site Selection and Analysis
c. Pre-feasibility Study

40. For the service rendered in the preceding item, how should Anna charge Charlie?
a. She should charge Charlie based on the time spent
b. She should charge Charlie a lump sum amount
c. She should charge Charlie based on a percentage of the construction cost
d. Either A or B
e. Either B or C

41. What service did Anna render when she worked on the design of the proposed restaurant?
a. Schematic design service d. Predesign service
b. Regular design service e. Specialized architectural service
c. Architectural programming service

42. Assuming Anna had the capability to do so, could she have also done the feasibility study
despite not being an accountant?
a. Yes. This is a service rendered by architects covered by SPP 201.
b. Yes. This is a service rendered by architects covered by SPP 202.
c. Yes. This is a service rendered by architects covered by SPP 203.
d. No, only a trained accountant may do feasibility studies.
e. Both A and C

43. Is Charlie entitled to cancel the project considering Anna was already in the Design
Development Phase?
a. Yes, because the client is entitled to cancel the project at any phase.
b. Yes, because the client is only barred from cancelling the project when the Design
Development Phase has been completed.
c. Yes, because the client is only barred from cancelling the project when the Contract
Document Phase has been completed.
d. No. The service agreement was signed and cancelling the project is tantamount to a
breach of contract.
e. No, because the client is barred from cancelling the project once the Design
Development Phase has started.

44. Assuming that the estimated project construction cost was P10M, how much should she
charge Charlie for the design work that she performed?
a. About PHP 25K d. About PHP 100K
b. About PHP 50K e. About PHP 150K
c. About PHP 75K

45. Assuming that the estimated project construction cost was P10M, how much should she
charge Charlie had Anna been able to complete the contract documents?
a. About 100K d. About 400K
b. About 200K e. About 500K
c. About 300K
46. Assume that Charlie eventually changed his mind and decided to continue the project. He
repackaged it into a more delivery-oriented restaurant concept, and it became a roaring
success despite the pandemic. He decided to open a second branch back in his hometown in
Pampanga. He reused the same plans Anna produced for him and built the second branch,
based on the stipulation in the service agreement wherein Anna agreed to subsequent reuse
of the plans subject to payment of further fees. How much should he pay Anna for the
construction of the second branch?
a. About 50K d. About 200K
b. About 100K e. About 300K
c. About 150K

Frank Gehry, born Ephraim Owen Goldberg, is a Canadian-American architect known for his bold
and striking designs. His buildings were often visually striking and highly unusual,
deconstructing what people expect buildings to look like and playing with unusual shapes. In
1989, Gehry won the Pritzker Prize, one of the most prestigious awards for architects. He started
working as an architecture professor in his later life. In 2016, Gehry received the Presidential
Medal of Freedom from former President Barack Obama.

47. Frank Gehry practices what style of architecture?

a. Modern c. Classical
b. Neoclassical d. Postmodern

48. What drives Frank Gehry’s architectural philosophy?

a. Construction industry c. Chaos of our time
b. Global warming d. Modernist, box-like buildings

49. What university did Frank Gehry drop out of, but was later given an honorary doctorate
from?
a. Harvard University c. Stanford University
b. University of Southern California d. University of Toronto

50. What object does Frank Gehry’s design for the Guggenheim Museum in Bilbao (Spain)
resemble?
a. A fish c. A kite
b. A rainbow d. A boat

51. Where is Frank Gehry’s Experience Music Project Museum located?

a. Seattle, Washington c. Baltimore, Maryland
b. Omaha, Nebraska d. Portland, Oregon

52. What material was Frank Gehry's Experience Music Project Museum?
a. Stainless steel and aluminum c. Aluminum and copper
b. Iron and glass d. Glass only

53. In Frank Gehry’s design of the Louis Vuitton Foundation, how many concrete panels were
used?
a. 2,220 c. 19,000
b. 3,000 d. 100,000

Situation: Anna, Bea, and Claire are three undergraduate architecture students who decided to
make good use of their summer break by accepting ‘sideline’ work. Being architecture students,
they intentionally sought architecture-related small jobs in order to gain useful work experience
while earning money. Anna asked her mother to tell her amigas that she (Anna) offers
architectural services, specializing in the design of single-detached homes. Her mother, though
reluctant, complied with her daughter’s request. Bea, meanwhile, looked for
draftsman/apprentice job postings on Jobstreet and applied. Finally, Claire, being savvy with
social media, posted ads on Facebook Marketplace and other online listing platforms to
advertise her services, introducing herself as an “architecture student who can design many
types of buildings and can prepare complete contract documents for purposes of applying for
the building permit.” None of them, however, were hired or commissioned for any job or project
so they ended up not working at all the entire summer.

54. Did Anna violate the Architecture Act of 2004?

a. Yes. d. Both A and B.
b. No. e. Both A and C.
c. It depends.

55. Did Bea violate the Architecture Act of 2004?

a. Yes. d. Both A and B.
b. No. e. Both A and C.
c. It depends.

56. Did Claire violate the Architecture Act of 2004?

a. Yes. d. Both A and B.
b. No. e. Both A and C.
c. It depends.

57. Does Anna’s mother incur any liability under the Architecture Act of 2004?
a. Yes. d. Both A and B.
b. No. e. Both A and C.
c. It depends.

Alvar Aalto was a 20th century Finnish modern architect who also designed furniture and was a
city planner. He was a great influence on the modern architecture scene, specifically in what is
known as international modernism. Aalto's work is best known for its use of local, natural,
materials and his attention to detail and the form of what he created.

58. What war made him drop out of school before being able to complete his degree?
a. World War II c. Finnish Civil War
b. The Cold War d. Spanish - American War

59. What is the other name for Alvar Aalto’s Viipuri Municipal library?
a. Vyborg Library c. The Finland-Russia Library
b. The National Library of Finland d. Library of the Free Finish

60. Which of the following architectural styles is Alvar Aalto well known for?
a. Restoration c. Postmodernism
b. Functionalism d. Gothic revival

61. How many years of experience in building design and construction are required before one
may become a Building Official?
a. 2 years d. 10 years
b. 5 years e. 20 years
c. 6 years
62. The administration and enforcement of the provisions of the National Building Code and its
IRR, including the imposition of penalties for administrative violations thereof, is vested in
whom?
a. The Building Official d. The members of the Board
b. The Secretary of the DPWH e. The local government unit
c. The Secretary of the DILG

63. Maximum imprisonment duration imposed by the IRR of RA 9266.

a. 2 years d. 10 years
b. 5 years e. 20 years
c. 6 years

64. Complete this sentence from the new Architect’s Credo: “I shall pursue moral and
professional excellence to the utmost level of integrity through industrious dedication and
meaningful application to my work that merits a reputation for quality of services worthy of
fair _____.”
a. Compensation d. Consideration
b. Remuneration e. Dealing
c. Salary

65. Which of the following may the landowner use as the best proof that he owns his parcel of
land?
a. TCT d. Deed of assignment
b. Deed of sale e. Building Permit
c. Zoning clearance

66. The new Architect’s Credo was adopted and promulgated through Professional Regulatory
Board of Architecture Resolution No. ____, Series of 2018.
a. 99 d. 88
b. 2 e. 53
c. 5

67. Effectivity date of the new Architects' Credo

a. June 5, 2018 d. April 5, 2017
b. June 04, 2018 e. September 24, 2019
c. June 21, 2018

68. Which section of RA 9266 provides that a duly licensed architect shall affix the seal
prescribed by the Board bearing the registrant’s name, registration number and title
“Architect” on all architectural plans, drawings, specifications, and all other contract
documents prepared by or under his/her direct supervision?
a. Section 10 d. Section 17
b. Section 15 e. Section 2
c. Section 20

69. A newly licensed architect shall _____ become a member of the IAPOA.
a. Automatically d. At his option
b. Be required to e. Ideally
c. Has an obligation to
70. Which method of compensation is frequently used when there is a continuing relationship
on a series of projects?
a. Professional fee plus expenses d. MDPE
b. Lump sum or fixed fee e. None of these
c. Per diem

Kenzo Tange was a Japanese architect whose work was highly influential in the latter half of the
twentieth century. Although he created buildings for countries around the world, most of his
most famous work is located in Japan. He is widely considered to have been one of Japan's most
significant architects.

71. Where was his birthplace?

a. Tokyo, Japan c. Kobe, Japan
b. Kyoto, Japan d. Osaka, Japan

72. For which building did he earn the Pritzker Architecture Prize in 1987?
a. University of Tokyo
b. St.Mary’s Cathedral
c. Tokyo Metropolitan Government Building
d. Yoyogi National Gymnassium

73. Why did he reenroll at the University of Tokyo for Postgraduate studies?
a. He didn’t want to serve in the military.
b. He never went back to school.
c. He had to in order to get his license to practice architecture.
d. He decided he wanted to teach architecture instead of design.

74. Who did he work under for his first job?

a. Kunio Maekawa c. Le Corbusier
b. Frank Gehry d. Togo Murano

75. What architectural movement did Japanese architect Kenzo Tange contribute to?
a. Metabolism c. Functionalism
b. Futurism d. Bauhaus

76. Which government agency governs the cutting down of trees present within the jobsite?
a. DENR d. HLURB
b. DPWH e. DOLE
c. Forest Management Bureau

77. The character of occupancy of existing buildings may be changed subject to the approval of
the Building Official and provided the new or proposed use is _____ than the existing use.
a. Less hazardous d. Equally or less hazardous
b. Equally hazardous e. None of these
c. More hazardous

78. Which is true of openings in a four-hour fire-resistive occupancy separation?

a. No openings are permitted in a four-hour fire-resistive occupancy separation
b. Openings in a four-hour fire-resistive occupancy separation shall be protected by a fire
assembly having a four-hour fire-resistive rating
c. Openings in a four-hour fire-resistive occupancy separation shall be protected by a fire
assembly having a three-hour fire-resistive rating
 d. Openings in a four-hour fire-resistive occupancy separation shall be protected by a fire
assembly having a two-hour fire-resistive rating
e. All of the above

79. When the project is not yet executed, what happens to the intellectual property of the
architect over the design/drawings?
a. The intellectual property for the design does not exist until the project is built
b. The intellectual property for the design is the owner’s until the project is built
c. The intellectual property for the design remains the same because the construction
of the project is irrelevant to intellectual property
d. The intellectual property for the design is still the architect’s because it only becomes
the owner’s AFTER the project is built
e. The design/drawings are not the intellectual property of the architect. These are
tangible, physical properties and not intellectual properties.

80. Architect Arno, a member of the PRBOA, had to resign from his post due to health reasons
after having served for a full year. Architect Hector was appointed to replace Architect Arno.
How many years shall Architect Hector serve?
a. 4 years d. 1 year
b. 3 years e. 6 months
c. 2 years

81. Which body has the power to hear and decide administrative cases involving violations of
RA 9266 and to issue subpoenas to secure witnesses and produce documents in connection
with such administrative cases?
a. The UAP d. The Regional Trial Court
b. The PRBOA e. The Court of Appeals
c. The PRC

82. The decision rendered in the preceding item for administrative cases may be appealed to
a. The PRBOA d. The Court of Appeals
b. The PRC e. The Supreme Court
c. The Regional Trial Court

83. This method of compensation is a variation of the percentage based on project construction
cost. The remuneration under this method is based on cost per square meter of the project,
which may be derived from historical data on the average construction cost per square
meter of a similar project.
a. Rough Estimation d. Professional Fee Plus Expenses
b. Unit Cost Method e. Both A and C
c. Value-Based Pricing

84. Any structurally attached portion of a building/structure that is outside its outermost walls
and which perform a utility or aesthetic function. Some examples are roof eaves, trellises,
canopies, balconies, and sunbreakers.
a. Projection d. Protrusion
b. Awning e. Overhang
c. Cantilever
Many great architects had interesting backgrounds, but perhaps Tadao Ando's is the most
unusual. His architecture would go on to pack a punch with it's unapologetic use of unadorned,
architectural, concrete walls.

85. Tadao Ando did not have any formal trainingl instead he pursued what career prior to his
architectural studies?
a. Chef c. Football player
b. Fisherman d. Boxer

86. He is from what country?

a. China c. Japan
b. South Korea d. USA

87. Tadao Ando’s architecture most commonly uses what building material?
a. Concrete c. Masonry
b. Timber Frame d. Bamboo

88. Tadao Ando went away from rectilinear geometry with what project?
a. Church of Light c. Gate of Creation
b. Matsumoto House d. Modern Art Museum of Fort Worth

89. This method of compensation is typically used for services which are not well-defined,
partial services, and additional services.
a. Lump Sum d. Unit Cost Method
b. Time-Based Fees e. Both B and D
c. Value-Based Pricing

90. In the multiple of direct personnel expenses method of compensation, a multiplier is used to
arrive at the professional fee to be charged to the client. Which is NOT an acceptable
multiplier to be used in such a computation?
a. 1.50 d. 3.00
b. 2.00 e. None of the above
c. 2.50

The Garden City movement was an urban planning concept that sought to incorporate the best
parts of both country and city living. A garden city was meant to be an ideal community
consisting of a small, centralized town. It would incorporate the services and facilities of large
cities combined with the country's natural surroundings. While the idea did not succeed in the
long term, its influence can still be seen in many areas of the world.

91. Which city planner conceptualized the Garden City movement?

a. Thomas Adams c. Gordon Cullen
b. Ebenezer Howard d. Richard Barry Parker

92. When did the Garden City movement originate?

a. The turn of the 18th century c. The turn of the 20th century
b. The turn of the 19th century d. The turn of the 21st century
Situation: Issa, a licensed architect, was commissioned to produce one set of contract
documents for the design of a house which was to be built several times in a housing project
involving the construction of several residential units under a DAEDS contract. The cost to
construct one house/unit is PHP 1M.

93. If the client built only 1 house using Issa’s design, how much should the client pay?
a. PHP 100K d. PHP 20K
b. PHP 60K e. None of these
c. PHP 50K

94. If the client built 10 houses using Issa’s design, how much should the client pay?
a. PHP 550K d. PHP 600K
b. PHP 330K e. None of these
c. PHP 1M

95. In the preceding item, how much of the total amount collected is Issa entitled to?
a. She is entitled to the total amount collected from the client.
b. She is entitled to 90% of the total amount from the client.
c. She is entitled to 60% of the total amount from the client.
d. She is entitled to 40% of the total amount from the client.
e. None of these

96. How much of the total amount collected must Issa allocate to pay for the engineering
consultants who worked on the project?
a. She must allocate 10% of the amount collected to pay for the engineering design
services rendered for the project.
b. She must allocate 40% of the amount collected to pay for the engineering design
services rendered for the project.
c. She must allocate 60% of the amount collected to pay for the engineering design
services rendered for the project.
d. She must pay what she thinks is fair and reasonable considering the time and effort
expended by the consultants, as well as the complexity of the project.
e. None of these

97. Kevin wanted to renovate his company’s offices in the city. Tilda, a licensed architect, was
commissioned to do the detailed planning and design of the indoor areas of the office
building. Tilda determined the size of the interior spaces, and the furniture layout, and
specified the finishes for the walls, floors, and ceilings as well as hardware and design of
signages. When the project was completed, the total cost of work (CoW) was PHP 1.50M.
How much should Tilda charge Kevin for the services she rendered?
a. PHP 50K d. PHP 300K
b. PHP 150K e. None of these
c. PHP 275K

98. In the preceding item, how much should Tilda’s first billing be?
a. She should collect 5% of the fee upon signing of the contract.
b. She should collect 30% of the fee upon submitting the preliminary design.
c. She should collect 50% of the fee upon submission of the final design.
d. There should be no first billing. She should collect the fee in bulk at the end of the
project.
e. All of the above
99. According to UAP Doc. 301, when should the contract time begin to run as a general rule?
a. 7 days after the contractor receives the Notice to Proceed
b. On the day the contractor receives the Notice to Proceed
c. 15 days after the agreement between the owner and the contractor is signed
d. On the day the contractor is able to mobilize
e. None of these

100. The Consulting Architect in this area of practice places value on the building/ structure
condition and defects, and on its repair and maintenance, including the required
improvements.
a. Building Appraisal d. Construction Appraisal
b. Quantity Surveying e. None of these
c. Building Valuation

101. In a design-build arrangement, who pays upfront for the costs of the labor and
materials?
a. The client d. The bank
b. The architect e. None of these
c. The suppliers

102. In a design-build arrangement with a guaranteed maximum project construction cost,

the PCC is guaranteed by the architect to not exceed ___ of the estimated PCC.
a. 5% d. None of the above
b. 10% e. Both A and B
c. 15%

103. In a design-build arrangement, the architect shall pay for any amount in excess of PCC +
the allowable percentage. Is there a limit to this penalty chargeable to the architect?
a. No. The architect must pay for any excess because it was he/she who guaranteed a
maximum PCC.
b. Yes. The limit is his entire administration fee.
c. Yes. The limit is his entire design fee.
d. Yes. The limit is his administration fee and design fee combined.
e. None of these

104. You entered into a design-build contract to design and build a house which, per your
estimate, will cost PHP 2M to construct. Since the client had many industry connections, the
design service was under a DADS arrangement only. You did not guarantee the project
construction cost. Assuming the house was completed at PHP 2M, how much should your
total fee be?
a. PHP 200K d. PHP 400K
b. PHP 260K e. None of these
c. PHP 320K

105. If in the preceding item, the actual cost exceeded your estimate and the house was
completed at the cost of PHP 2.5M, how much should your fee be?
a. PHP 150K d. PHP 400K
b. PHP 250K e. None of these
c. PHP 325K
106. How soon may the Board reinstate a revoked Certificate of Registration?
a. 6 months after revocation
b. 1 year after revocation
c. 2 years after revocation
d. 3 years after revocation
e. It depends on the gravity of the offense that led to the revocation

107. Foreign nationals who wish to render architectural services in the Philippines must first
secure a special/temporary permit. Where will they obtain this special/temporary permit?
a. From the UAP, subject to approval by the PRBOA
b. From the UAP, subject to approval by the PRC
c. From the PRBOA, subject to approval by the PRC
d. From the PRBOA, subject to approval by the UAP
e. From the PRC, subject to approval by the Office of the President

108. Which is not included in the TGFA?

a. Basement parking
b. Second floor
c. Roof deck
d. Covered areas used for parking
e. All of the above are included in the TGFA

109. Which is not included in the GFA?

a. Basement parking
b. Second floor
c. Balcony with an area of 7.50 sqm.
d. Mezzanine level
e. All of the above are included in the GFA

110. A building has a height of 15 meters. The horizontal distance from the OFB and the inner
edge of the sidewalk is 7.50 meters. The sidewalk is 1.20 meters wide. During construction,
what is required for the protection of pedestrians?
a. A 2.40-meter-tall fence only
b. A 2.40-meter-tall fence and a canopy
c. A 2.40-meter-tall fence and a net/screen extending from the uppermost part of the
construction to the ground level
d. A 2.40-meter-tall fence, a canopy, and a net/screen extending from the uppermost part
of the construction to the ground level
e. A canopy only

111. A building has a height of 15 meters. The horizontal distance from the OFB and the inner
edge of the sidewalk is 5 meters. The sidewalk is 1.20 meters wide. During construction, what
is required for the protection of pedestrians?
a. A 2.40-meter-tall fence only
b. A 2.40-meter-tall fence and a canopy
c. A 2.40-meter-tall fence and a net/screen extending from the uppermost part of the
construction to the ground level
d. A 2.40-meter-tall fence, a canopy, and a net/screen extending from the uppermost
part of the construction to the ground level
e. A canopy only
112. What is the maximum angle of inclination of an escalator?
a. 15 degrees from horizontal d. 30 degrees from horizontal
b. 20 degrees from horizontal e. None of these
c. 25 degrees from horizontal

113. According to the NBC definition of outermost limits of building projections, horizontal
projections like canopies, balconies, eaves, terraces, and the like must not exceed ___ of the
prescribed setback.
a. 30% d. 75%
b. 50% e. 90%
c. 60%

The White House is the official residence of the President of the United States and has been for
over 200 years. The White House is where the president conducts most of his business in
Washington D.C. The White House, with its neoclassical architecture, is an iconic image of the
presidency and the United States.

114. Who designed the White House?

a. James Hoban c. William Thorton
b. Thomas Jefferson d. James Madison

115. What is the address of the White House?

a. 6000 Park Place c. 1600 Pennsylvania Avenue
b. 700 Main Street d. 1600 New York Avenue

116. The detailed analysis of the site which involves the identification of a site’s development
potentials through the proper utilization of land. The analysis covers the context of the site
as well as that of its surrounding environment and the development controls that apply to
the site and its environs.
a. Site Utilization and Land-Use Studies
b. Site Selection and Analysis
c. Space Management Studies
d. Architectural Research

117. This entails the formulation of site criteria, assistance to the Client in site evaluation as
well as analysis to determine the most appropriate site/s for a proposed project or building
program.
a. Site Utilization and Land-Use Studies
b. Site Selection and Analysis
c. Space Management Studies
d. Architectural Research

118. For competitive bidding/procurement, the architect furnishes complete sets of the bid
documents for purposes of bidding in as many sets as may be required to conduct a
successful bidding. These documents are paid in what way?
a. Free by architect
b. Included in the service of the architect
c. On loan to owner
d. On loan to the bidders

119. Which is not a recommended method of compensation for predesign services?

a. MDPE c. Percentage of PCC
b. Honorarium d. Time-based fee
120. Who is the Legal Adviser of the PRBArch and its RA 9266?
a. Supreme Court judge c. Court of Appeals
b. Professional Regulatory Commission d. BONUS: SECRETARY OF JUSTICE

121. In order to become a member of the UAP, what should you accomplish?
a. Pay the dues
b. Apply for membership
c. Take an Oath and receive your PRC ID
d. Pass the Board Exam

122. Who can file a complaint against the Architect?

a. Any person c. Clients
b. Architects d. The Building Official

123. A returning Filipino Architect who is registered outside of the Philippines is going to
have a project here in the Philippines. He applied for a TSP in the PRBArch and aside from
securing the permit, what other document should he secure?
a. Professional ID c. CoR
b. Liability insurance d. UAP membership

124. Who can change/add a category of occupancy in the National Building Code?
a. Building Official c. Supreme Court
b. DPWH Secretary d. President

125. The occupancy permit after application must be issued to the applicant within how many
days
a. 15 c. 60
b. 30 d. 120

126. In the case of the non- issuance, suspension or revocation of permits, the
applicant/permittee may file an appeal with whom?
a. Mayor c. Building Official
b. DPWH Secretary d. MMDA

127. In the case of the non- issuance, suspension or revocation of permits, the
applicant/permittee may file an appeal. Within how many days must the appeal be
responded to or acted upon?
a. 15 c. 60
b. 30 d. 120

128. To whom is the Building Permit granted?

a. Architect c. Contractor
b. Owner d. Engineer

The U.S. Capitol Building is the home of the United States Congress in Washington, D.C. This
building houses the Senate and House of Representatives meeting chambers as well as offices
for members of congress and related staff. The building dates back almost as far as the country's
own founding — with the cornerstone laid by then-President George Washington himself on
September 18, 1793. Initially, the headquarters for the United States' new government were
housed in Philadelphia (as well as other locations in New Jersey, Maryland, and Pennsylvania),
but when the center of government moved to Washington D.C., plans for building the
permanent home for various governmental businesses began.
129. What type of architectural design does the US Capitol Building showcase?
a. Gothic c. Victorian
b. Neoclassical d. Renaissance

130. Who designed the US Capitol Building?

a. James Hoban c. William Thorton
b. Thomas Jefferson d. Robert Adam

131. What does OFB stand for?

a. Outermost Faces of the Building d. Office of the Fire, Life, and Safety
b. Outer Finishes of the Building Bureau
c. Official Footprint of the Building

132. The architect registered and licensed under RA 9266, who is directly and professionally
responsible for the total design of the project for the client and who shall assume the civil
liability for the plans, specifications and contract documents he/she has signed and sealed
a. Architect of record c. Consulting architect
b. Architect in charge of construction d. Architect

133. An architect registered and licensed under RA 9266, who is directly and professionally
responsible and liable for the construction supervision of the project
a. Architect of record c. Consulting architect
b. Architect in charge of d. Architect
construction

134. The architect registered and licensed or permitted to practice under RA 9266, who is
professionally and academically qualified and with exceptional or recognized expertise or
specialization in any branch of architecture
a. Architect of record c. Consulting architect
b. Architect in charge of construction d. Architect

135. A person professionally and academically qualified, registered and licensed under R.A.
No. 9266 with a Certificate of Registration and Professional Identification Card issued by the
Professional Regulatory Board of Architecture and the Professional Regulation Commission,
and who is responsible for advocating the fair and sustainable development, welfare and
cultural expression of society’s habitat in terms of space, forms and historical context
a. Architect of record c. Consulting architect
b. Architect in charge of construction d. Architect

136. At least how much of the site must be vegetated with indigenous and adaptable species?
a. At least 50% of the TLA
b. At least 50% of the minimum USA
c. At least 50% of the minimum ISA
d. At least 50% of the TOSL
e. The Green Building Code does not require the planting of indigenous and adaptable
species

137. According to the Green Building Code, how much of the lighting in covered carparks
must be fitted with occupancy sensors?
a. At least 25% e. The Green Building Code does not
b. At least 50% require the installation of occupancy
c. At least 60% sensors in covered carparks
d. At least 75%
138. What is the minimum window area requirement of the Green Building Code?
a. Minimum window area is 10% of the room’s floor area, 100% of which must be
operable
b. Minimum window area is 10% of the room’s floor area, at least 50% of which must be
operable
c. Minimum window area is 5% of the room’s floor area, 100% of which must be operable
d. Minimum window area is 5% of the room’s floor area, at least 50% of which must be
operable
e. The Green Building Code does not have window area requirements

139. What is the minimum air space required for workshops, factories, and offices?
a. 3 cubic meters per person
b. 6 cubic meters per person
c. 12 cubic meters per person
d. 14 cubic meters per person
e. 18 cubic meters per person

140. What is the minimum air space required for habitable rooms?
a. 3 cubic meters per person
b. 6 cubic meters per person
c. 12 cubic meters per person
d. 14 cubic meters per person
e. 18 cubic meters per person

141. Volumetric forms generated by extending or rotating the primary shapes and which
creates a distinct, regular and easily recognizable forms.
a. Primary solids
b. Regular and Irregular forms
c. Surfaces
d. Size
e. Scale

142. A type of scale that refers not to the actual dimensions but rather how small or large an
object appears in relation to its normal size or the size of other things in its context.
a. Human Scale
b. Mechanical Scale
c. Visual Scale
d. Anthropometry
e. Ergonomics

143. Size or proportion of something relative to an accepted standard of measurement.

a. Human Scale
b. Mechanical Scale
c. Visual Scale
d. Anthropometry
e. Ergonomics
144. The articulation of the importance or significance of a form or space by its size, shape or
placement relative to other forms and spaces of the organization.
a. Axis d. Hierarchy
b. Symmetry e. Ken
c. Assymetry

145. The balanced distribution and arrangement of equivalent forms and spaces on opposite
sides of a dividing line or plane or about a center or axis.
a. Axis d. Hierarchy
b. Symmetry e. Ken
c. Assymetry

146. The principle that an architectural concept, structure or organization can be altered
through a series of discrete manipulations and permutations in response to a specific
context or set of conditions without a loss of identity or concept.
a. Rhythm d. Balance
b. Datum e. Proportion
c. Transformation

147. What primarily happens when an architectural form is articulated?

a. The form attains directionality.

b. The form becomes balanced.
c. The form becomes symmetrical.
d. The elements of the form are clearly defined

148. Which among the following were the first type of residential structure built in predynastic
and early dynastic periods in ancient Egypt?
a. Lean-to d. Merchant Homes
b. Reed Huts e. Stone Mansions
c. Mud brick houses

149. It is the path the viewer's eye takes through the work of art, often to focal areas.
a. Rhythm c. Movement
b. Symmetry d. Motion

150.Which among the following is NOT a type of megalithic tomb in Ireland?

a. Passage Tomb d. Wedge Tomb
b. Court Tomb e. Stone Circle
c. Portal Tomb
DAY 1 Afternoon (Structural, Building Technology and Building Utilities)
02 June 2023 2pm – 7pm

STRUCTURAL, BUILDING TECHNOLOGY AND BUILDING UTILITIES

WARNING: If there are conflicts between a stated word and the number/amount/figure
described, the stated/spelled word shall prevail. Should there be conflicts between two (2.0)
stated quantities, the higher figure shall prevail.

A house is undergoing renovation. The owner would like to add a Home Theater where his
family and friends can enjoy watching movies as their way of bonding.of the var

1. For the wall, which of the following acoustic treatments shown in Figure 1 is the most
appropriate?
a. Sound Diffuser c. Sound Absorber
b. Sound Reflector d. Sound Buffer

2. Identify from among the illustrations shown in Figure 1 a Sound Diffuser

a. Figure D d. Figure C
b. Figure A
c. Figure B

3. Identify from among the illustrations shown in Figure 1 a Sound Barrier

a. Figure D c. Figure B
b. Figure A d. Figure C

4. Identify from among the illustrations shown in Figure 1 a Sound Absorber

a. Figure D c. Figure B
b. Figure A d. Figure C

5. Identify from among the illustrations shown in Figure 1 a Sound Reflector

a. Figure D c. Figure B
b. Figure A d. Figure C

6. Which of the following does not belong?

a. National Steel Corp. c. Pambansangbakal e. Rubicon Steel
b. Pagasa Steel d. SteelAsia

7. Which is the largest local cement manufacturer in the Philippines?

a. Big Boss c. Eagel e. Republic
b. Cemex d. Holcim

8. What is the dead load of 1/2” gypsum board?

a. 5 kg/m2 c. 15 kg/m2 e. 25 kg/m2
b. 10 kg/m 2
d. 20 kg/m2

9. Which is used for gabions?

a. Apple-size boulders c) G-2 e) Subbase course
b. Armour rock d) Head-size boulders

10. Which of the following manufactures only light-gauge steel products?

a. Capitol Steel c) Pagasa Steel e) SteelAsia
b. JEA Steel d) Power Steel
11. It is all concrete used for structural purposes, including plain and reinforced concrete.
a. Concrete c. Mass Concrete
b. Infrastructures d. Structural Concrete
12. Standard Specifications for Deformed and Billet-Steel Bars for Concrete Reinforcement.
a. ASTM A615M c. ASTM A934M
b. ASTM A184M d. ASTM A1022M

13. In the absence of PNS and ASTM Standards, Structural Welding Code Steel of the AWS is
declared to be part of this Code as if fully set forth. What is the acronym of AWS?
a. American Welding Standards c. Association of Welding Society
b. American Welding Society d. Association of Welding Steel
14. Standard Specifications for Carbon Structural Steel
a. A615MM c. A36/A36M-05
b. A752/A752-07 d. A1022M

For the Home Theater Ceiling Design, several options are being considered for the Lighting
Design to create an ambiance
15. To accentuate the cove lighting along the ceiling perimeter, what type of lighting fixture is
recommended?
a. Pinlight c. T8
b. Troffer d. Strip Lighting

16. Identify from among the illustrations shown in Figure 2 a Troffer Lighting
a. Figure D c. Figure B
b. Figure A d. Figure C
17. Identify from among the illustrations shown in Figure 2 a T8 light
a. Figure D c. Figure B
b. Figure A d. Figure C

18. Identify from among the illustrations shown in Figure 2 a Strip Lighting
a. Figure D c. Figure B
b. Figure A d. Figure C

19. Identify from among the illustrations shown in Figure 2 a Pin Lighting
a. Figure D c. Figure B
b. Figure A d. Figure C

20. From Figure 5, identify “B”

a. Clamp c. Spigot e. Standoff
b. Patch fitting d. Spider fitting

21. Which glass thickness has a weight of 30 kg/m2?

a. 8 mm c. 12 mm e. 20 mm
b. 10 mm d. 16 mm

22. The thickness of glass that can be used for spider fittings start at
a. 8 mm c. 12 mm e. 20 mm
b. 10 mm d. 16 mm

23. Deep foundations, whether prestressed or non-prestressed, include the following types.
Which of the following is not included?
a. Caissons c. Mat foundations e. Pile caps
b. Drilled piers d. Piles
24. The metal connector that is used to create an “all-glass” look.
a. Glass clamp c. Patch fitting e. Spigot
b. Glass mullion d. Spider fitting

25. It is a member with a ratio of height-to-least lateral dimension of 3 or greater used primarily
to support axial compressive load. For a tapered member, the least lateral dimension is the
average of the top and bottom dimensions of the smaller side.
a. Beam c. Footing
b. Column d. Slab
26. A material other than water, aggregate, or hydraulic cement used as an ingredient of concrete
and added to concrete before or during its mixing to modify its properties.
a. Admixture c. Concrete
b. Crushed rock d. Aggregates

27. The cantilever beam shown in Figure 3 is loaded with a concentrated load at its free end. If
the beam is made of reinforced concrete, the main reinforcement is located at the:
a.Tension Zone c. Middle of the beam
b.Compression Zone d.Anywhere
28. When do we get samples for ready-mixed concrete (RMC) for slump test per ASTM C172?
a. Beginning of mixer discharge c. End of mixer discharge
b. 50% of mixer discharge d. Anytime

29. Type of lighting that creates an intense, directional beam of light.

a. Hard Light c. Soft Light
b. Backlight d. Projector Light

30. A light that enhances depth of an object

a. Hard Light c. Soft Light
b. Backlight d. Projector Light

31. Light used to separate the object from the background creating more depth
a. Hard Light c. Soft Light
b. Backlight d. Projector Light

32. Focus more light at a point giving the impression of a brighter light.
a. Hard Light c. Soft Light
b. Backlight d. Projector Light

33. Strip lights are

a. General Lighting c. Task Lighting
b. Accent Lighting d. Daylighting

34. Which among the following Formwork Removal activities can be done after 3 days?
a. Removal of soffit formwork to beams
b. Removal of soffit formwork to slabs
c. Removal of props to beams
d. Removal of props to slabs spanning up to 4.5 meters
e. Removal of props to slabs spanning over 4.5 meters
35. Which of the following has the lowest required uniform live load?
a. Bleachers and grandstands d. Public parking and ramps
b. Call centers and BPO’s e. Retail stores
c. Dining rooms and restaurants
 36. What is the minimum wind load for an enclosed building as applied on a wall?
a. 20 kN/m2 c. 58 kN/m2 e. 96 kN/m2
b. 38 kN/m2 d. 77 kN/m2

37. What is the minimum wind load for an enclosed building as applied on a roof?
a. 20 kN/m2 c. 58 kN/m2 e. 96 kN/m2
b. 38 kN/m2 d. 77 kN/m2
38. A room with dimension 7m X 12m shall be installed with flooring finish. Two-thirds (2/3) of
the floor area shall be laid with 60x60 ceramic tiles while the rest with wood flooring.
Providing 5% allowance for serujo and wastage, how many tiles are needed?
a. 143 pcs c. 168 pcs e. 193 pcs
b. 156 pcs d. 179 pcs

39. For the above problem (Item 38), how many pieces will be needed for wood flooring using
dimension lumber KD 1 X 8 X 4? No allowance provided.
a. 100 pcs c. 118 pcs e. 132 pcs
b. 110 pcs d. 125 pcs

40. Which is not considered as a stainless steel finish?

a. Anodized d. Painted
b. Hairline e. Satin
c. Mirror

41. A column section is shown in Figure 4. Determine the total length of the lateral tie if the
column is not permanently in contact with the earth nor exposed to weather; hook is 135
degrees both sides.
a. 1000mm c. 1230mm
b. 1200mm d. 1250mm

42. Class A Concrete Mix is 1:2:4. What is the minimum required concrete strength in psi?
a. 3,500 psi c. 2,500 psi
b. 3,000 psi d. 4,000 psi

43. Which is the correct Modulus Elasticity of Structural Steel?

a. 150 pcf c. 200,000 Mpa
b. 2400 kg/m d. 200,000,000 Pa
3

44. It is a method of constructing concrete buildings by casting the floor or roof slab on top of
the previous slab and then raising the slab up with hydraulic jacks, so being cheaper and
faster as it does not need forms and shores as it is needed for cast-in-place slabs. It is more
economical than the conventional construction method when the building is vertically
uniform and the slab designs are repetitive.
a. Tilt-up construction c. Precast construction
b. Lift slab construction d. Pre-fabrication

45. The minimum size of a driven piles of uniform section shall have a nominal outside diameter
of not less than:
a. 100mm c. 200mm
b. 150mm d. 300mm
Acoustic Materials would be installed for the partition walls of the Home Theater. The following
materials are being considered:

46. This type of insulation is made from premium stone wool and can improve a building's
thermal and acoustic performance.
a. Glass Wool c. Drywall
b. Rockwool d. Mineral Wool

47. This insulation is a poor thermal conductor but has excellent flame-resistant
properties and also used as an acoustic dampener
a. Glass Wool c. Drywall
b. Rockwool d. Mineral Wool
48. It is an insulating material made from glass fiber arranged using a binder into a texture like
wool.

a. Glass Wool c. Drywall

b. Rockwool d. Mineral Wool

49. Identify from among the illustrations shown in Figure 6 a Rockwool

a. Figure D c. Figure B
b. Figure A d. Figure C

50. Identify from among the illustrations shown in Figure 6 a Mineral Wool
a. Figure D c. Figure B
b. Figure A d. Figure C

For Items 51 to 52, refer to Figure 7

51. Identify “C”
a. Glass Lites c. Pressure Plate e. Structural Sealant
b. Mullion Cap d. Spacer

52. Which of the identified parts is the Pressure Plate

a. B c. D e. F
b. C d. E

53. Use the defined formula for determining Moisture Content (MC) in wood as shown above.
If the weight of a piece of lumber is 3 kg and this same piece weighs 2.5 kg after it is fully
dried, how do you classify the wood?
a. Dry c. Kiln-dried e. S-Dry
b. Green d. Seasoned

54. Determine the R-value of a) 16-mm thick fiberboard, b) 1/8-inch thick glass sheet, and c) 3-
inch thick rockwool. The ρ-values of glass, plywood, and rockwool are 0.14, 2.4, and 3.5,
respectively.
a. 10 c. 12 e. 14
b. 11 d. 13
55. A reinforcing bar with orange color at both ends is designated as
a. Grade 33 c. Grade 60 e. Grade 80
b. Grade 40 d. Grade 75

56. The color assignment for Weldable Steel Bar Grade 60 is

a. Green and White c. White and Red e. Yellow and Red
b. Green and Red d. Green and Blue

57. The equivalent PNS grade for ASTM Gr. 60 is

a. PNS 230 c. PNS 350 e. PNS 520
b. PNS 280 d. PNS 420

58. 2,000 pieces of 12-mm dia. Deformed Reinforcing Bars at 9-meter lengths shall be
transported to the site. What is the total weight of the bars?
a. 8,000 kg c. 12,000 kg e. 16,000 kg
b. 10,000 kg d. 14,000 kg

59. If a flat-bed truck has a load capacity of 20 tons, how many pieces of 6-meter length 16-mm
dia. bars can fit in the truck for transport?
a. 1,200 pieces c. 2,100 pieces e. 2,900 pieces
b. 1,700 pieces d. 2,500 pieces
60. A steel element either cast into concrete or post-installed into a hardened concrete member
and used to transmit applied loads to the concrete.
a. anchor c. connector e. stud
b. bolt d. dowel

61. The part of the vertical structure below the ground is called:
a. Roof c. Superstructure
b. Roof Deck d. Substructure

62. The part of the vertical structure below the ground is called:
a. Roof c. Superstructure
b. Roof Deck d. Substructure

63. What should be used so that the construction would not affect the adjacent structures?
a. Caisson c. Fence
b. Strip footing d. Sheet Piles

64. The compression zone of the Cantilever Beam is

a. At the top
b. At the bottom
c. At the middle of the beam section
d. At the location of X-X section

65. If the minimum cross-sectional area of a tied column is

60,000 mm2, the minimum dimension of a square tied
column is:
a. 200mm
b. 250mm
c. 300mm
d. 350mm
66. Identify from among the illustrations shown in Figure 6 a Glass Wool
a. Figure D c. Figure B
b. Figure A d. Figure C

67. Identify from among the illustrations shown in Figure 6 a Drywall

a. Figure D c. Figure B
b. Figure A d. Figure C

68. If a 60” Smart TV is to be installed, what would be the best distance of the viewer to the TV
screen?
a. 2.50m c. 4.00m
b. 1.50m d. 3.00m

69. What would be the ideal AC HP for the Home Theater with an area of 4m x 5m?
a. 1.5 HP c. 0.75HP
b. 2.0HP d. 1.0HP

70. What type of AC is appropriate for the Home Theater?

a. WACU c. Split Type
b. Multi-Split d. Centralized AC

For the Electrical System of the Home Theater, Power Handling Equipment will be installed

71. An electrical safety device, a switch that automatically interrupts the current of an
overloaded electric circuit, ground faults, or short circuits.
a. Fuse c. ATS
b. Switch d. Circuit Breaker

72. A component of an electrical distribution system which divides electrical power feed into
branch circuits.
a. Rated Box c. ATS
b. Panel Board d. Fuse Box

73. The height of the Panel Board is set at

a. 1.50m c. 1.20m
b. 1.80m d. 2.10m

74. A device that automatically transfers a power supply from its primary source to a backup
source when it senses a failure or outage in the primary source.
a. Fuse c. ATS
b. Switch d. Circuit Breaker

75. What type of fire protection is appropriate for the Home Theater?
a. Dry Standpipe c. Smoke Detector
b. Fire Hose Rack d. Fire Extinguisher

76. As per Philippine Green Building Code for natural ventilation, operable windows or balcony
doors shall be provided in regularly occupied spaces. The size of the opening shall be equal
to at least how many percent of the floor area of the regularly occupied spaces?
a. 5% d. 20%
b. 10% e. 25%
c. 15%
77. As prescribed by the Philippine Green Building Code, buildings shall be provided with roof
insulation so that the average thermal resistance value (R-Value) of the roof is at least
a. R-3 d. R-11
b. R-5 e. R-13
c. R-8

78. Movement in a building component can be caused by several factors such as thermal
movement, elastic deformation, moisture movement, and creep, among others. Thermal
movement occurs in all materials at different behaviors. Which among the following
materials exhibits a greater tendency for thermal movement?
a. glass c. metals e. wood
b. masonry d. plastics

79. Figure 10 is an example of a

a. Control joint c. Isolation joint e. Separation joint
b. Expansion joint d. Seismic joint

80. Building separation joints in a long rectilinear building are generally located at every
a. 600 ft. (180 meters) on center d. 250 ft. (75 meters) on center
b. 500 ft. (150 meters) on center e. 150 ft. (45 meters) on center
c. 350 ft. (105 meters) on center

81. The width of a building separation joint is generally

a. ½ in. to 1 in. d. 3-½ in. to 4 in.
b. 1-½ in. to 2 in. e. 4-½ in. to 5 in.
c. 2-½ in. to 3 in.

82. Sometimes, it is necessary to create a control joint to anticipate shrinkage at a masonry wall
construction. Which element in this component shown in Figure 15 serves as a bond
breaker?
a. Asphalt-saturated paper d. Mortar filling
b. Concrete masonry unit e. Sealant and backer rod
c. Hollow core
83. Crushed rock up to 6mm size, used as structural bedding, pavement seal coat, fairways sand
cap, and asphalt mixes, fully conforming with DPWH Item 310 grading requirements.
a. G-1 d. S-2
b. G-3/8 e. S-3
c. S-1
84. The most commonly used sand in construction applications.
a. Blue sand d. Vibro sand
b. Dolomite e. White sand
c. S-3

85. Sand used for ready-mixed concrete, especially concrete mix requiring higher design
strengths.
a. Blue sand d. S-3
b. Dolomite e. Whitesand
c. S-1

86. This aggregate is used as ballast

a. G-3/8 d. G-2
b. G-3/4 e. G-3
c. G-1
87. A point in the moment diagram in which the beam has zero moments.
a. Deflection c. Maximum Moment
b. Elastic Limit d. Inflection Point

88. Materials that do not deform under load.

a. Rigid c. Ductile
b. Elastic d. Resilient

89. What is A in the Figure 8?

a. Battens c. Studs
b. Stiffeners d. Columns

90. What type of structural support is shown in Figure 9?

a. Fixed support c. Roller support
b. Hinged or Pinned support d. Welded connection

A Toilet and Bath would be placed adjacent to the Home Theater for Guest use. Fixtures and
Plumbing Appurtenances would be installed.

91. In Figure 11, which is a Bidet?

a. Figure A c. Figure C
b. Figure B d. Figure D
92. In Figure 11, which is a Bidet spray?
a. Figure A c. Figure C
b. Figure B d. Figure D

93. In Figure 11, which is a Rain Shower?

a. Figure A c. Figure C
b. Figure B d. Figure D

94. In Figure 11, which is a Telephone Shower?

a. Figure A c. Figure B
b. Figure C d. Figure D

95. What type of valve should be used for the water closet?
a. Gate Valve c. Globe Valve
b. Check Valve d. Angle Valve

96. Joint sealants are divided into 3 categories – preformed tapes, caulks, and elastomeric
sealants. Preformed tapes are available in rolls; they are commonly used in window glazing,
door jambs, and gypsum drywall. Caulks are dough-like materials and are the first
generation of sealing compounds. Glazing putty is an example of the earliest caulks used in
buildings. It consists of nearly 12% linseed oil and 88% chalk that hardens as it cures,
leading to cracking, loss of elasticity and hence loss of sealing ability. It is rarely used today.
Elastomeric sealants are synthetic materials (polymers) and are the ones most commonly
used in contemporary construction. The 5 commonly used synthetic sealants are:
Polyisobutylene, Acrylics, Polyurethane, Polysulfide, and Silicone.

Of the five sealants, which one has high strength and exceptional resistance to ultraviolet
radiation?
a. Polyisobutylene c) Polyurethane e) Silicone
b. Acrylics d) Polysulfide
 97. Of the five sealants, which one has excellent moisture resistance?
a. Polyisobutylene c. Polyurethane e. Silicone
b. Acrylics d. Polysulfide

98. Of the five sealants, which one has excellent chemical and weather resistance?
a. Polyisobutylene c. Polyurethane e. Silicone
b. Acrylics d. Polysulfide

99. This sealant has high abrasion resistance, has high compatibility with a wide variety of
substrates, and is thus the sealant of choice in horizontal joints subjected to foot traffic.
a. Polyisobutylene c. Polyurethane e. Silicone
b. Acrylics d. Polysulfide

100. Waterproofing that is applied to the inside of the basement (or retaining) walls is called
a. Positive-side waterproofing
b. Negative-side waterproofing
c. Blind-side waterproofing
d. Either positive-side or negative-side waterproofing
e. Either positive-side or blind-side waterproofing

101. Which of the following roof insulation has the lowest R-Value?
a. Hemp c. Open cell spray foam e. Vermiculite
b. Mineral wool d. Reflective bubble foil
102. Among the following basic colored coatings, which one has the highest Solar Reflectance
Index (SRI) value?
a. Blue c. Light to medium grey e. Terracotta red
b. Green d. Light to medium green
103. Among the following basic colored coatings, which one has the lowest Solar Reflectance
Index (SRI) value?
a. Blue d. Light to medium green
b. Green e. Terracotta red
c. Light to medium grey

104. The minimum Solar Reflectance Index (SRI) for metal roof surfaces as per Phil. Green
Building Code.
a. 30 d. 60
b. 40 e. 70
c. 50

105. The designation W 10 X 38 means that the

a. depth of the section is 10 in. and the weight is 38 lb/ft.
b. depth of the section is 10 in. and its width is 38 in.
c. nominal depth of the section is 10 in. and its weight is 38 lb/ft.
d. width of the section is 10 in. and the depth is 38 in.
e. width of the section is 10 in. and its weight is 38 lb/ft.

106. Which color does not pass as per SRI requirement of the Philippine Green Building Code?
a. Basic white d. Reflective white
b. Beige e. Tan
c. Light grey
107. What is the roofing material used in the Frank Gehry project Guggenheim Museum in
Bilbao, Spain?
a. Aluminum d. Stainless steel
b. Copper e. Titanium
c. Chromium

108. Occupancies and structures supporting toxic or explosive chemicals

a. Essential Facilities c. Standard Facilities
b. Hazardous Facilities d. Special Occupancy Category

109. When the shear stress on an object exceeds the maximum permissible shear stress, then
the object undergoes a failure known as _____. It can be defined as a failure that takes
place due to insufficiency of shear resistance available between the materials.
a. Crippling c. Crushing
b. Creeping d. Shear Failure
110. The weight of concrete ranges from 1500 kg/m to 2500 kg/m . The normal
3 3

concrete weight is:

a. 2000 kg/m c. 2300 kg/m
3 3

b. 2200 kg/m d. 2400 kg/m

3
3

111. If the mass density of steel is 7850 kg/m , what is its weight density in N/m ?
3 3

a. 77 kN/m3 c. 77,008 N/m3

b. 77000 kN/m3 d. 490 kN/m3
112. What is the maximum spacing of spirals in round /spiral columns?
a. 25 mm c. 75 mm
b. 50 mm d. 100 mm
113. This additive increases the effect of hardening and increasing the rate of
hydration process in concrete:
a. Retarder c. Air-entraining Agent
b. Accelerator d. Admixture

114. It is a method of pre-stressing in which tendons are tensioned before the

concrete is poured.
a. Post tensioning c. Pre-Stressed Concrete
b. Pre-tensioning d. Pre-stressing Force

115. The structural assembly shown in Figure 12 is composed of various parts.

Identify the part marked P.
a. Column c. Pedestal
b. Pier d. Pile
116. Lightweight aggregates weighs
a. 20 kg/m3 or less c. 2120 kg/m3 or less
b. 3120 kg/m3 or less d. 1120 kg/m3 or less
117. Concrete cast against and permanently exposed to earth must a minimum
concrete cover of:
a. 25 mm c. 75 mm
b. 50 mm d. 100 mm
118. What is the weight of a 1-meter-long No.4 deformed bar?
a. 0.500 kg c. 1.020 kg
b. 0.888 kg d. 0.598 kg
119. Slabs are designed
a. Per linear meter c. Per square foot
b. Per square meter d. Per inch
120. It is a fibrous, homogeneous panel made from lignocellulosic fibers (usually wood
or sugar cane bagasse) and having a density of less than 50kg/m3 but more than
160 kg/m3.
a. Flexible Element c. Fiberboard
b. Panel board d. Plywood
121. Which of the following roof insulation has the lowest R-Value?
a. Hemp d. Reflective bubble foil
b. Mineral wool e. Vermiculite
c. Open cell spray foam

122. As per Phil. Green Building Code, an escalator/moving ramp/walkway shall automatically
be put on a standby mode when no activity has been detected for a maximum of
a. 1-1/2 minutes d. 10 minutes
b. 3 minutes e. 15 minutes
c. 5 minutes

123. As per Philippine Green Building Code, lighting shall switch off after the elevator has
been inactive for a maximum of
a. 1-1/2 minutes d. 10 minutes
b. 3 minutes e. 15 minutes
c. 5 minutes
ILLUSTRATIONS

FIGURE 1

FIGURE 2

FIGURE 3
 FIGURE 4

FIGURE 5

FIGURE 6

FIGURE 7 FIGURE 8
FIGURE 9

FIGURE 10

FIGURE 11
FIGURE 12

FIGURE 15