NEET TEST SERIES 2022

TEST CODE : NT - 08
Candidate’s Name

A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A
B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B
C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C Important Instructions
D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D Darken one circle deeply for each questions in the OMR Answer Sheet,
E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E as faintly darkened, half darkened circle might be rejected by the
F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F Optical Scanner.
G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G Wrong Marking Correction Marking
H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H P
I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I
J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J
Use blue/black ball point pen to record the answer.
Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet.
K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K Please do not make any stray marks on the answer sheet.
L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L
M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M Contact No. (with STD Code)/Mobile Number
N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N
O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O
P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P
Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9

PHYSICS CHEMISTRY BOTANY BIOLOGY ZOOLOGY

Section A Section A Section A Section A
1 1 2 3 4 51 1 2 3 4 101 1 2 3 4 151 1 2 3 4
2 1 2 3 4 52 1 2 3 4 102 1 2 3 4 152 1 2 3 4
3 1 2 3 4 53 1 2 3 4 103 1 2 3 4 153 1 2 3 4
4 1 2 3 4 54 1 2 3 4 104 1 2 3 4 154 1 2 3 4
5 1 2 3 4 55 1 2 3 4 105 1 2 3 4 155 1 2 3 4
6 1 2 3 4 56 1 2 3 4 106 1 2 3 4 156 1 2 3 4
7 1 2 3 4 57 1 2 3 4 107 1 2 3 4 157 1 2 3 4
8 1 2 3 4 58 1 2 3 4 108 1 2 3 4 158 1 2 3 4
9 1 2 3 4 59 1 2 3 4 109 1 2 3 4 159 1 2 3 4
10 1 2 3 4 60 1 2 3 4 110 1 2 3 4 160 1 2 3 4
11 1 2 3 4 61 1 2 3 4 111 1 2 3 4 161 1 2 3 4
12 1 2 3 4 62 1 2 3 4 112 1 2 3 4 162 1 2 3 4
13 1 2 3 4 63 1 2 3 4 113 1 2 3 4 163 1 2 3 4
14 1 2 3 4 64 1 2 3 4 114 1 2 3 4 164 1 2 3 4
15 1 2 3 4 65 1 2 3 4 115 1 2 3 4 165 1 2 3 4
16 1 2 3 4 66 1 2 3 4 116 1 2 3 4 166 1 2 3 4
17 1 2 3 4 67 1 2 3 4 117 1 2 3 4 167 1 2 3 4
18 1 2 3 4 68 1 2 3 4 118 1 2 3 4 168 1 2 3 4
19 1 2 3 4 69 1 2 3 4 119 1 2 3 4 169 1 2 3 4
20 1 2 3 4 70 1 2 3 4 120 1 2 3 4 170 1 2 3 4
21 1 2 3 4 71 1 2 3 4 121 1 2 3 4 171 1 2 3 4
22 1 2 3 4 72 1 2 3 4 122 1 2 3 4 172 1 2 3 4
23 1 2 3 4 73 1 2 3 4 123 1 2 3 4 173 1 2 3 4
24 1 2 3 4 74 1 2 3 4 124 1 2 3 4 174 1 2 3 4
25 1 2 3 4 75 1 2 3 4 125 1 2 3 4 175 1 2 3 4
26 1 2 3 4 76 1 2 3 4 126 1 2 3 4 176 1 2 3 4
27 1 2 3 4 77 1 2 3 4 127 1 2 3 4 177 1 2 3 4
28 1 2 3 4 78 1 2 3 4 128 1 2 3 4 178 1 2 3 4
29 1 2 3 4 79 1 2 3 4 129 1 2 3 4 179 1 2 3 4
30 1 2 3 4 80 1 2 3 4 130 1 2 3 4 180 1 2 3 4
31 1 2 3 4 81 1 2 3 4 131 1 2 3 4 181 1 2 3 4
32 1 2 3 4 82 1 2 3 4 132 1 2 3 4 182 1 2 3 4
33 1 2 3 4 83 1 2 3 4 133 1 2 3 4 183 1 2 3 4
34 1 2 3 4 84 1 2 3 4 134 1 2 3 4 184 1 2 3 4
35 1 2 3 4 85 1 2 3 4 135 1 2 3 4 185 1 2 3 4
Section B (Attempt Any 10) Section B (Attempt Any 10) Section B (Attempt Any 10) Section B (Attempt Any 10)

36 1 2 3 4 86 1 2 3 4 136 1 2 3 4 186 1 2 3 4
37 1 2 3 4 87 1 2 3 4 137 1 2 3 4 187 1 2 3 4
38 1 2 3 4 88 1 2 3 4 138 1 2 3 4 188 1 2 3 4
39 1 2 3 4 89 1 2 3 4 139 1 2 3 4 189 1 2 3 4
40 1 2 3 4 90 1 2 3 4 140 1 2 3 4 190 1 2 3 4
41 1 2 3 4 91 1 2 3 4 141 1 2 3 4 191 1 2 3 4
42 1 2 3 4 92 1 2 3 4 142 1 2 3 4 192 1 2 3 4
43 1 2 3 4 93 1 2 3 4 143 1 2 3 4 193 1 2 3 4
44 1 2 3 4 94 1 2 3 4 144 1 2 3 4 194 1 2 3 4
45 1 2 3 4 95 1 2 3 4 145 1 2 3 4 195 1 2 3 4
46 1 2 3 4 96 1 2 3 4 146 1 2 3 4 196 1 2 3 4
47 1 2 3 4 97 1 2 3 4 147 1 2 3 4 197 1 2 3 4
48 1 2 3 4 98 1 2 3 4 148 1 2 3 4 198 1 2 3 4
49 1 2 3 4 99 1 2 3 4 149 1 2 3 4 199 1 2 3 4
50 1 2 3 4 100 1 2 3 4 150 1 2 3 4 200 1 2 3 4
 AIM NEET Part Test-08

TOPIC COVERED
Physics: Alternating Current, Electromagnetic Wave, Ray Optics and Optical Instruments, Wave Optics
Chemistry: Coordination Compounds, Haloalkanes and Haloarenes, Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers, Aldehydes, Ketones
and Carboxylic Acids
Botany: Microbes in Human Welfare Solutions, Organisms and Populations
Zoology: Human Health and Disease

Duration: 3 hr 20 min Max Marks: 720

Date: 29/05/2022
General Instructions:
• The test will contain 200 Questions of Physics, Chemistry, Botany, and Zoology & The test will be objective type.
(Attempt only 180).
• Every subject contains two Section A-35 Questions and Section B-15 Questions (Attempt only 10).
• All 35 Questions of Section-A are Compulsory to attempt.
• Time given for test is 200 minutes.
• Marking is +4 for every correct answer, –1 for every wrong answer.
• You can reattempt the test in case of any technical issue.
• Test will start at 2:00 pm and students can attempt test at any time of their own preferences

PHYSICS
SECTION - A
1. According to modified Ampere’s circuital law
(iD = displacement current)
 d 
(1)  B. dl = 0  iC + 0 E 
 dt 
d E 3 1
(2)  B. dl = 0 0 (1)
4
i (2)
4
i
dt
4
(3)  B. dl =  0 j (3) 3i (4)
3
i
 d E 
(4)  B. dl =  0  iC
 dt
+ iD 
 4. Velocity of electromagnetic waves in a medium is
(1) (00 )−1/2 (2) (0r0r )−1/2
2. Displacement current is set up between the plates +1/2

of a capacitor when the potential difference 8

 
(3) 3 × 10 m/s (4)  0 r 
across the plates  0 r 
(1) Maximum
(2) Zero 5. Which of the following is incorrect about a plane
(3) Minimum electromagnetic wave?
(4) Varying (1) The electric field and magnetic field have
equal average values
3. A parallel plate capacitor with circular plates of (2) The electric energy and the magnetic energy
radius R is being charged as shown. At the instant have equal average values
shown, the displacement current in the region (3) The electric field and magnetic field both
R oscillate in same phase
between the plates enclosed between and R is
2 (4) The electric field and magnetic field oscillate
given by in opposite phase

[1]
6. In a plane electromagnetic wave, which of the 14. A sinusoidal supply of frequency 10 Hz and
following has/have zero average value in one r.m.s. voltage 12 V is connected to a 2.1 F
complete cycle? capacitor. What is r.m.s. value of current?
(a) Magnetic field (b) Magnetic energy (1) 5.5 mA (2) 20 mA
(c) Electric field (d) Electric energy (3) 26 mA (4) 1.6 mA
(1) (a), (c) (2) (b), (c)
(3) (a), (d) (4) All of these 15. When 100 volt d.c. is applied across a solenoid, a
current of 1.0 A flows in it. When 100 volt a.c. is
7. If E and B represent the electric and magnetic applied across the same coil, the current drops to
field vectors of an electromagnetic wave, then the 0.5 A. If the frequency of a.c. source is 50 Hz the
direction of propagation of the electromagnetic impedance and inductance of the solenoid is
wave is in the direction of (1) 200 ohm and 0.55 henry
(2) 100 ohm and 0.86 henry
(1) E (2) B
(3) 200 ohm and 1.0 henry
(3) E × B (4) B × E (4) 100 ohm and 0.93 henry

8. If an electromagnetic wave propagating through 16. In a series RLC circuit, potential differences
vacuum is describe by Ey = E0 sin (kx – t); across R, L and C are 30 V, 60 V and 100 V
Bz = B0 sin (kx – t) then respectively as shown in figure. The e.m.f. of
(1) E0 k = B0  (2) E0 B0 =  k source (in volts) is

(3) E0  = B0 k (4) E0 B0 =
k

9. Electromagnetic wave is deflected by

(1) Electric field
(2) Magnetic field (1) 190 (2) 70
(3) Both (1) & (2) (3) 50 (4) 40
(4) Neither electric field nor magnetic field
17. In series LCR circuit, the phase difference
10. Out of the following, choose the ray which does between voltage across L and voltage across C is
not travel with the velocity of light
(1) Zero (2) 
(1) X-ray (2) Microwave

(3) -rays (4) -rays (3) (4) 2 
2
11. Red light differs from blue light in its
18. With increase in frequency of an a.c. supply, the
(1) Speed
impedance of an LCR series circuit
(2) Frequency
(1) Remains constant
(3) Intensity
(2) Decreases
(4) Amplitude
(3) Increases
(4) Decreases at first, becomes minimum and
12. A 110 V d.c. heater is used on an a.c. source, such then increases
that the heat produced is same as it produces
when connected to 110 V dc in same time-
intervals. What would be the r.m.s. value of the 19. At resonance, the value of the power factor in an
alternating voltage? LCR series circuit is
(1) 110 V (1) Zero (2) 1
(2) 220 V 1
(3) (4) Not defined
(3) 330 V 2
(4) 440 V
20. In an a.c. circuit, the instantaneous values of
13. The peak value of an alternating e.m.f. E = E0 e.m.f. and current are E = 200 sin 314 t (volt) and
sint is 10 volt and its frequency is 50 Hz. At a i = sin (314 t + /3) A. The average power
1 consumed in watts is
time t = , the instantaneous value of the (1) 100
600s
e.m.f. is (2) 200
(3) 50
(1) 1 volt (2) 5 3 volt (4) 25
(3) 5 volt (4) 10 volt

[2]
21. In an LCR circuit L = 8.0 henry, C = 0.5 F and R 29. A double slit interference experiment is carried
= 100 ohm are in series. The resonance angular out in air and the entire arrangement is dipped in
frequency is water. As a result
(1) 500 rad/s (2) 600 rad/s (1) The fringe width decreases
(3) 800 rad/s (4) 1000 rad/s (2) The fringe width increases
(3) The fringe width remains unchanged
22. In series LCR circuit voltage leads the current (4) Fringe pattern disappears
when (Given that 0 = resonant angular
frequency) 30. A parallel beam of monochromatic light of
(1)  < 0 (2)  = 0 wavelength 5000 Å is incident normally on a
(3)  > 0 (4) None of these single narrow slit of width 0.001 mm. The light is
focussed by a convex lens on a screen placed on
23. Power factor of an ideal choke coil (i.e., R = 0) is focal plane. The first minimum will be formed for
(1) Near about zero the angle of diffraction equal to
(2) Zero (1) 0° (2) 15°
(3) Near about one (3) 30° (4) 50°
(4) One
31. Monochromatic light of wavelength 580 nm is
24. Two waves having intensities in the ratio of 9 : 1 incident on a slit of width 0.30 mm. The screen is
produce interference. The ratio of maximum to 2m from the slit. The width of the central
minimum intensity is equal to maximum is
(1) 10 : 8 (2) 9 : 1 (1) 3.35 × 10–3 m (2) 2.25 × 10–3 m
–3
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 2 : 1 (3) 6.20 × 10 m (4) 7.7 × 10–3 m

25. If the light is polarised by reflection, then the 32. In Young’s double slit experiment shown in
angle between reflected and refracted light is figure. S1 and S2 are coherent sources and S is the
screen having a hole at a point 1.0 mm away from
(1) 
the central line. White light (400 to 700 nm) is
(2) /2 sent through the slits. Which wavelength passing
(3) 2 through the hole has strong intensity?
(4) /4

26. In an interference pattern produced by two

identical slits, the intensity at the site of the
central maximum is I. The intensity at the same
spot when either of the two slits is closed is Io,
then
(1) 400 nm
(1) I = Io
(2) 700 nm
(2) I = 2 Io
(3) 500 nm
(3) I = 4 Io
(4) 667 nm
(4) I and Io are not related to each other
33. An object is placed symmetrically between two
27. In Young’s double slit experiment, the separation plane mirrors, inclined at an angle of 72°, then the
between the slits is halved and the distance total number of images observed is
between the slits and screen is doubled. The new
(1) 5
fringe width is
(2) 4
(1) Unchanged
(3) 2
(2) Halved
(4) Infinite
(3) Doubled
(4) Quadrupled
34. A person 1.6 m tall is standing at the centre
between two walls three metre high. What is the
28. Two slits separated by a distance of 1 mm minimum size of a plane mirror fixed on the wall
are illuminated with the light of wavelength 6.5 × in front of him, if he is to see the full height of the
10–7 m. The interference fringes are observed on a wall behind him?
screen placed 1m from the slits. The distance
(1) 0.8 m
between the third dark fringe and the fifth bright
(2) 1 m
fringe on the same side of central maxima is
(3) 1.5 m
(1) 0.65 mm (2) 1.62 mm
(4) 2.3 m
(3) 3.25 mm (4) 4.88 mm
[3]
35. A concave mirror of focal length f produces an 42. If in a plano-convex lens, radius of curvature of
image n times the size of the object. If the image convex surface is 10 cm and the focal length of
is real then the distance of the object from the lens is 30 cm, the refractive index of the material
mirror is of the lens will be
 (n − 1)  (1) 1.5 (2) 1.66
(1) (n – 1)f (2)  f (3) 1.33 (4) 3
 n 
 (n + 1) 
(3)  f (4) (n + 1)f 43. At what angle will a ray of light be incident on
 n  one face of an equilateral prism, so that the
emergent ray may graze the second surface of the
SECTION - B prism ( = 2)?
(ATTEMPT ANY 10 QUESTIONS) (1) 30° (2) 90°
36. A convex mirror has a focal length f. A real (3) 45° (4) 60°
object is placed of a distance f in front of it, from
the pole. It produces an image at 44. A prism of refractive index 2 has a refracting
(1) Infinity (2) f angle of 60°. At what angle must a ray be incident
(3) f/2 (4) 2f on it so that it suffers a minimum deviation?
(1) 30° (2) 45°
37. The length of a vertical pole at the surface of a (3) 60° (4) 75°
 4
lake of water   =  is 24 cm. Then to an 45. An astronomical telescope has an objective of
 3
focal length 100 cm and an eye piece of focal
under-water fish just below the water surface the length 5 cm. The final image of a star is seen 25
tip of the pole appears to be cm from the eyepiece. The magnifying power of
(1) 18 cm above the surface the telescope is
(2) 24 cm above the surface (1) 20 (2) 22
(3) 32 cm above the surface (3) 24 (4) 26
(4) 36 cm above the surface
46. When a telescope is adjusted for normal vision,
38. A ray of light strikes a glass plate at an angle 60°. the distance of the objective from the eye-piece is
If the reflected and refracted rays are found to be 80 cm. The magnifying power of the
perpendicular to each other, the index of telescope is 19. What are the focal length of the
refraction of glass is lenses?
(1) 3 (2) 3/2 (1) 61 cm, 19 cm
(3) (3 / 2) (4) 1/2 (2) 40 cm, 40 cm
(3) 76 cm, 4 cm
(4) 50 cm, 30 cm
39. Two transparent media A and B are separated by a
plane boundary. The speed of light in medium A
is 2.0 × 108 ms–1 and in medium B is 2.5 × 108 47. The focal lengths of the objective and eye lens of
ms–1. The critical angle for which a ray of light a telescope are respectively 200 cm and 5 cm.
going from A to B suffers total internal reflection The maximum magnifying power of the telescope
is will be
(1) –40 (2) –48
(1) sin–1 ½ (2) sin–1 2/5
–1 (3) –60 (4) –100
(3) sin 4/5 (4) sin–1 3/4

40. Which of the following phenomenon of light 48. If radii of curvature of both convex surfaces is 20
cm, then focal length of the lens for an object
forms a rainbow?
placed in air in the given arrangement is
(1) Reflection of light
(2) Refraction
(3) Total internal reflection
(4) Reflection as well as refraction

41. Which of the following is possible application of

fibre optics?
(1) Endoscopy
(2) High speed internet traffic
(1) 10 cm (2) 20 cm
(3) Radio, TV & Telephone signals
(3) 40 cm (4) 80 cm
(4) All of the above
[4]
49. A fish looking up through the water sees the 50. In a medium of refractive index 1.6 and having a
outside world contained in a circular horizon. If convex surface has a point object in it at a
4 distance of 12 cm from the pole. The radius of
the refractive index of water is and the fish is curvature is 6 cm. Locate the image as seen from
3
12 cm, below the surface. The radius of the circle air
is (1) A real image at 30 cm
(2) A real image at 4.28 cm
(3) A virtual image at 30 cm
(4) A virtual image at 4.28 cm

16 26
(1) cm (2) cm
7 7
36 46
(3) cm (4) cm
7 7

[5]
 CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A
51. When benzyl alcohol is treated with treated with 55. Among the given substrates which will undergo
thionyl chloride the product formed is substitution reaction most easily by SN2
mechanism?
(1) (2) (1) CH3CH2 – Br
(2) CH3 – Br
CH 3 − CH − Br
(3) |
CH 3
(3) (4)
(4) (CH3)3C – Br

56. Which among the following will exist as a pair of

52. Total number of optically active isomers of 2, 3– enantiomers?
dibromobutane will be (1) CH3CH2CH2 – OH
(1) 2
(2) CH3CHCH3
(2) 3 |
(3) 4 OH
(4) 1 (3) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 – OH
(4) CH 3CH 2 CHCH 3
53. The compound having least dipole moment is |
OH
(1) CH3 – Br
(2) CH3 – F
(3) CH3 – Cl 57. Consider the following reactions
(4) CH3 – I

54. Consider the following reaction

Products A and B are respectively

(1)
Major product (P) is

(1)
(2)
(2)

(3)
(3)

(4)
(4)

[6]
58. Major product (P) of the following reaction is 62. Incorrect statement among the following is
CH3 (1) In SN1 reaction carbonium ion intermediate is
| formed
CH3 – C – CH = CH 2 ⎯⎯⎯
HBr
→(P) (2) In SN2 reaction a five membered transition
|
CH3 state is formed
(3) SN1 reaction is accelerated in polar protic
solvent
CH3
| (4) DMSO is polar protic solvent
(1) CH3 – C – CH 2 – CH 2 – Br
| 63. When 2-bromobutane is heated with alcoholic
CH3 KOH, the major product formed is
(1) 1-butene
CH3 (2) 2-butene
| (3) 1, 3-butadiene
(2) CH 3 – C – CH – CH 3
| | (4) 2-butanol
CH3 Br
64. Out of the given nucleophiles, choose the one
which gives different substituted products on
reaction with R–X because of presence of two
(3) nucleophilic centres.
(1) Alkoxide
(2) Hydroxyl
(3) Cyanide
(4) (4) Ammonia

65. Benzylidene chloride is

59. In Finkelstein reaction the reagent used is (1) C6H5CH2Cl
(1) NaBr (2) NaCl (2) C6 H 5 − CH = CH
(3) Nal (4) Hgl2 |
Cl
60. Which among the following will undergo (3) C6H5CHCl2
substitution reaction most readily via SN1 mode? (4) C6H5CCl3
(1)
66. When isopropyl bromide is reacted with AgCN
then the product formed is
(2) (1) Isoproyl cyanide
(2) Isopropyl isocyanide
(3) Pentanenitrile
(3) (4) Propane isonitrile

67. The alkyl halide that shows least boiling point is

(4)
(1) CH3(CH2)2CH2Cl
(2) CH3CH 2 CH − Cl
|
CH3
61. Among the given compounds the one which will
boil is highest temperature is (3) (CH3)3CCl
CH 3 CH3
| |
(1) CH 3 – C – CH 3 (4) CH3 − CH − CH 2 − Cl
|
Br 68. IUPAC name of neopentyl bromide is
(1) 1‫–ؘ‬Bromo–4, 4–dimethylpentane
CH3CH 2 CH CH3 (2) 1–Bromo–3–methylbutane
|
(2) (3) 1–Bromo-2, 2–dimethylpropane
Br
(4) 2–Bromo–2methylbutane
(3) CH3CH2CH2CH2Br
(4) CH3CH2CH2Br
[7]
69. For metal-carbon bond in the metal carbonyls 75. IUPAC name of phthalic acid is
which is/are correct? (1) Benzene -1, 4-dicarboxylic acid
(1) M-C  bond is formed by the donation of lone (2) Benzene-1, 2-dicarboxylic acid
pair of electrons on the carbonyl carbon into a
vacant orbital of metal (3) 2-Hydroxy benzoic acid
(2) The M–C  bond is formed by the donation of (4) 4-Hydroxy benzoic acid
a pair of electrons from a filled orbital of metal
into the vacant antibonding * orbital of 76. Correct order of reactivity of the following
carbon monoxide carboxylic acid towards esterification reaction is
(3) M–C  bond is formed by the donation of a (1) HCOOH < CH3COOH < C2H5COOH
pair of electrons from a filled orbital of metal
(2) CH3COOH < HCOOH < C2H5COOH
intothe vacant antibonding * orbital of
carbon monoxide (3) C2H5COOH < HCOOH < CH3COOH
(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) C2H5COOH < CH3COOH < HCOOH

70. The coordination compound that can be used for 77. Rosenmund reduction is used for the preparation of
the hydrogenation of alkene is (1) Ketone (2) Aldehyde
(1) [Ag(S2O3)2]3–
(3) Carboxylic acid (4) Alcohol
(2) [(Ph3P)3RhCl]
(3) [PtC2H4Cl3]–
(4) [Au(CN)2]– 78. IUPAC name of the linkage isomer of
[Co(NH3)5(ONO)]Cl2 will be
71. Consider the given reaction (1) pentaamminenitrito–O–cobalt(III) chloride
() 2 6
CH 3 – CH = CH 2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → 'X ' ( major ) .
i B H /THF (2) pentaamminenitrito–N–cobalt(III) chloride
( ii ) H O /OH –
2 2
(3) cobalt(III) pentaamminenitrito–O–chloride
Major product (X) will be
(4) pentaamminenitrito–N–cobalt(III) dichloride
(1) CH3 – CH2 – CH2BH2
(2) (CH3 – CH2 – CH2)2BH
(3) (CH3 – CH2 – CH2)3B 79. Which of the following is not  -acid ligand ?
(4) CH3CH2CH2OH (1) CN (2) SH
+
72. The final product for the given reaction is (3) CO (4) N O
CH3 – O – CH2CH3 + HI →
(1) CH3 – CH2 – I + CH3CH2OH 80. [Co(NH3)4Br2]Cl can show
(2) CH3 – I + CH3 – CH2 – OH (1) Geometrical isomerism only
(3) CH3I + CH2 = CH2 (2) Both geometrical and optical isomerism
(4) CH3 – CH2 – I + HCHO (3) Both geometrical and ionizational isomerism
(4) Both optical and ionizational isomerism
73. Final product (B) obtained in the followed
sequence of reactions is
() i DIBAL –H 81. Which of the following is tetrahedral complex?
CH 2 = CH – CH 2 – CN ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
( ii ) H2 O → A
(1) [Ni(CO)4] (2) [Ni(CN)4]2–
() 2 2
⎯⎯⎯⎯
( ii ) KOH ⎯
→B
i NH NH
(2) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]2+ (4) [Cu(NH3)4]2+
(1) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3
(2) CH2 = CH – CH3 82. Which of the following metal carbonyl can act as
(3) CH2 = CH – CH2 – CH3 oxidising agent ?
(4) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3 (1) [Ni(CO)4] (2) [Mn(CO)6]
(3) [V(CO)6] (4) [Mn2(CO)10]
74. Which of the following compounds will form
yellow precipitate when treated with alkaline I2
83. Which is incorrectly matched ?
solution?
(1) C2H5CHO (2) CH3 – O – CH3 (1) [Ni(CO)4] : sp3
(2) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ : d2sp3
O O (3) [Fe(CN)6]4– : d2sp3
|| ||
(3) CH3 – C – CH3 (4) Ph – C – H (4) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ : sp3
[8]
84. In complex, CFSE depends on 93. Select the ligand having highest trans–effect
(1) O.S. of metal ion (1) H2O (2) CN–
(2) Strength of ligand
(3) CH3− (4) OH–
(3) Series (3d or 4d or 5d) of transition metal of
different metal of same group
(4) All of these
Dryether
94. C6H5MgBr + ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ A
85. The correct order of wavelength of absorption in
visible region for the following complex H O+
(I) [Ni(H2O)6]2+ (II) [Ni(NH3)6]2+ ⎯⎯⎯→
3 (B) Find product formed ‘B’ in the
(III) [Ni(NO2)6]4– above reaction is
(1) I < II < III (2) I = II = III
(1)
(3) III < II < I (4) III < I < II

SECTION - B
(ATTEMPT ANY 10 QUESTIONS) (2)
86. Which of the following complexes is an example
of inner orbital octahedral complex?
(1) [Fe(H2O)6]+3 (2) [FeF6]3– (3)
4–
(3) [Fe(CN)6] (4) [CoF6]3–

3− 3+
87. CFSE values of  Fe(CN)6  and  Fe(H 2 O)6 
(4)
respectively are
(1) 0 and 20 Dq
(2) –2 Dq and 0
(3) –20 Dq and –20 Dq 95. In Reimer–Tiemann reaction when phenol is
(4) 0 and 0 treated with cloloroform in presence of NaOH,
which of the following species act as reaction
88. Which of the following is the correct representation intermediate?
of spectrochemical series
(1) Cl– < NO2– < CN– CO (1) : CCl2 (2)
(2) Cl– < Br– < O–2 < OH–
(3) NO2– < CO < CN– < Cl–
(4) SCN– < Cl– < OH– < S–2
(3) (4) Both (1) and (2)
89. In which of the following coordination entities, the
magnitude of Δ0[CFSE in octahedral field] will be
maximum?
(1) [CoF6]3– (2) [Co(CN)6]3–
(3) [Co(NO2)6]3– (4) [Co(NH3)6]3+ 96. Find P: ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
o
2O
o→A
100 −130
90. The denticity of 1, 10 –phenanthroline ligand
is
(1) 4 (2) 5 O
H O−
(3) 2 (4) 6 ⎯⎯⎯→
2 P+ ||
CH3 − C − CH3
91. Which is a diamagnetic complex?
(1) [Fe(H2O)6]+3 (2) [Fe(H2O)6]+2 (1) (2)
(3) [Fe(CN)6]3– (4) [Fe(CN)6]4–

92. Among the following the one that is

ambidentate ligands (3) (4) (1) and (3)
(1) NO −2 (2) NO3−
(3) NO (4) C 2 O −4 1
[9]
 
97. ⎯⎯
→
99.

(1)
This reaction is called
(1) Benzilic acid rearrangement
(2) Claisen rearrangement (2)
(3) Fries rearrangement
(4) Schottenbaumann reaction

(3)
OH
CO2
98. KOH Major product
H+ (4)
The major product for the reaction is

100. Which of the following reagent can be used to

(1) (2)
oxidize 1° alcohol to aldehyde?
(1) KMnO4
(2) BCC
(3) H2O2
(4) PCC
(3) (4)

[10]
 BOTANY

SECTION - A 109. What type of human population is represented by

101. Kangaroo rat shows the following age pyramid?
(1) adaptation to water scarcity
(2) adaptation to cold
(3) warning colouration
(4) camouflage

102. Which of the following is characteristics of (1) Expanding

population? (2) Declining
(1) Density and natality (3) Stable
(2) Mortality and dispersal (4) None of these
(3) Age distribution and biotic potential
(4) All of these 110. The J-shaped growth form is represented by the
following exponential equation
dN K−N  N
103. Density of a population is expressed as (1) = rN   = rN 1 − 
(1) the total number of individuals per unit area dt  K   K
or volume at a given time dN
(2) = rN
(2) the total number of individuals per unit dt
volume only (3) Nt = N0 + B + I – D – E
(3) the total number of individuals migrated from (4) None of these
native place
(4) none of these 111. Which of the following stands for environmental
resistance?
104. The size of the population is determined by N
(1) Immigration (2) natality (1) rN (2) 1 −
K
(3) mortality (4) all of these
K−N
(3) rN   (4) none of these
105. Homeostasis is  K 
(1) Tendency to change with change in
environment 112. Which of the following have highest level of BOD
(2) Tendency to resist change (1) Primary effluent from sewage
(3) Disturbance in regulatory control (2) Secondary effluent from sewage
(4) None of these (3) River water
106. A population interaction where one species is (4) Freshly formed pond
harmed whereas the other is unaffected is called
as. 113. Relationship between epiphytes and trees is
(1) Mutualism (2) Competition (1) parasitism (2) proto-cooperation
(3) Predation (4) Amensalism (3) commensalism (4) amensalism

107. Which of the following expresses the population 114. Interaction between the two organisms in which
growth? one organism kills and feeds on the second
(1) Nt = N0 + B + I – D – E organism, is called
(2) Nt = N0 + B + E – D – E (1) scavenging (2) predation
(3) Nt = N0 + B – I – D – E (3) parasitism (4) mutualism
(4) Nt = N0 + B + I + D + E
115. Which of the following is host specific, smaller in
108. The maximum number of individuals of a size and have higher biotic or reproductive
population that can be sustained indefinitely in a potential compared to predators?
given habitat represents its (1) Parasite (2) Symbiont
(1) biotic potential (2) metapopulation (3) Commensals (4) Epiphyte
(3) carrying capacity (4) population density

[11]
116. The microbe used in the preparation of butyric K−N
acid, is 125. dN / dt = rN   is the equation for
 K 
(1) Acetobacter aceti
(1) exponential growth
(2) Penicillium notatum
(2) negative growth
(3) Aspergillus niger
(3) logistic growth
(4) Clostridium butylicum
(4) death rate
117. Blood cholesterol lowering agent is obtained from 126. The population of an area tends to decrease by
(1) Monascus purpureus (1) Natality (2) Mortality
(2) Aspergillus (3) Immigration (4) none of these
(3) Candida lipolytica
(4) Trichoderma polysporum 127. Which of the following bacterium produces Citric
acid?
118. Secondary treatment of sewage (1) Aspergillus Niger
(1) Is physical process (2) Acetobacter aceti
(2) Involves formation of activated sludge (3) Lactobacillus
(3) Leads to the separation of primary sludge (4) None of these
(4) Involves process like sequential filtration
128. The most common fungal partner of mycorrhiza
119. If the age pyramid of population is declining. it are ………….. species.
will show (1) Frankia (2) Azotobacter
(1) high percentage of old (3) Azolla (4) Glomus
(2) high percentage of children
(3) low percentage of children 129. Which of these processes does not give off CO2
(4) none of these (1) Lactate fermentation
(2) Aerobic respiration
120. The association of roots of higher plants with (3) Alcoholic fermentation
fungi is (4) None of these above
(1) Predator (2) Mutualism
(3) Parasitism (4) Hyper-parasitism 130. High biological oxygen demand in a water body
means…………..
121. An interaction between two individuals where (1) Water is not polluted
one is harmed while the other is neither benefited (2) Water is polluted (More Organic Compound)
nor harmed is called as (3) Waterbody contains lots of lifeforms
(1) Predation (2) Symbiosis (4) None of the above
(3) Scavenging (4) Amensalism

122. Organisms which can tolerate and thrive in a wide 131. The guts of various ruminants contain ………….
range of temperature are called (1) Acidophiles
(1) Eurythermal (2) Halophiles
(2) Stenothermal (3) Methanogens
(3) Euryhaline (4) All of the above
(4) Stenohaline
132. Which of the following microbes are used for the
123. Birds and mammals are commercial production of Latic acid?
(1) conformers (2) suspenders (1) Xanthomonas (2) Asparagine
(3) regulators (4) cold blooded (3) Asparagus (4) Lacto Bacillus

124. In an expanding population maximum number of 133. Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used primarily for
individuals are (1) Baking
(1) pre reproductive (2) Bleaching
(2) reproductive (3) Biofuel
(3) post reproductive (4) None of the above
(4) pre or post reproductive

[12]
134. Match the following columns and select the 139. Which of the following organisms can increase
correct option: nitrogen content of the soil?
Column – I Column-II (1) Rhizobium and Glomus
(2) Bacillus anthracis and Salmonella
(a) Dragonflies (i) Biocontrol agents (3) Azospirillum and Azotobacter
of several plant (4) Boletus and Glomus
pathogens
140. Resource partioning is done to avoid -
(b) Bacillus (ii) Get rid of
thuringiensis mosquitoes (1) Predation (2) Parasitism
(3) Competition (4) Commensalism
(c) Glomus (iii) Narrow spectrum
insecticidal 141. Niche of population is
applications (1) set of interaction it has with other populations
(d) Baculoviruses (iv) Biocontrol agents (2) place of its living only
of lepidopteran (3) place of its living and manner of its
plant pests functioning
(4) none of these
(v) Absorb phosphorus
from soil 142. Group of organisms of the same species in a given
area at a particular time is called as
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(v), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(1) Community (2) Ecosystem
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(3) Biosphere (4) Population
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(v)
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(v), (d)-(iii)
143. Severe competition for food, shelter and space is
maximum in
135. Among the following pairs of microbes, which (1) closely related species occupying the same
has both the microbes that can be used as niche
biofertilizers?
(2) closely related species occupying the
(1) Aspergillus and Rhizopus different niche
(2) Rhizobium and Rhizopus (3) distantly related species occupying the same
(3) Cyanobacteria and Rhizobium habitat
(4) Aspergillus and Cyanobacteria (4) distantly related species occupying the
different habitat
SECTION - B
(ATTEMPT ANY 10 QUESTIONS) 144. If decomposers are cleaned totally from any
136. Higher plants and fungi are living together but one environment which of the following effect will
is producer and other is decomposer. Thus higher occur?
plants and fungi belong to (1) Blockage of mineral flow
(1) same habitat and same niche (2) Blockage of solar energy
(2) same habitat and different niche (3) Blockage of food energy
(3) same niche and different habitat (4) Rate of decomposition will increase
(4) different niche and different habitat
145. In increasing order of organizational complexity,
which one of the following is in the correct
137. Which acts as immunosuppressve agent is
sequence?
(1) Fusarium monoliform
(1) Population, variety, community, ecosystem
(2) Trichoderma polysporum
(2) Population, species, community, ecosystem
(3) Pencillium
(3) Species, population, community, ecosystem
(4) Clostridium butylicum
(4) Species, variety, ecosystem, population

138. Trichoderma species are used 146. In biotic community, which one of the following
(1) To control several root borne pathogens can be called protective device?
(2) To control of aphids and stem borer (1) Symbiosis (commensalisms)
(3) For control of aphids and stem borer (2) Camouflage
(4) For control of Klamath weed (3) Competition
(4) Parasitism
[13]
147. Which of the following utilizes inorganic 149. Select the true statement when population reaches
materials? carrying capacity
(1) Autotrophs (2) Decomposers (1) Mortality rate = Birth rate
(3) Saprophytes (4) Hetrotrophs (2) Mortality rate > Birth rate
(3) Mortality rate < Birth rate
148. Opuntia is a desert plant. It keeps its stomata (4) None of these
closed during daytime still it can perform
photosynthesis because it 150. Which is more stable from ecological point of
(1) performs C4 cycle view
(2) lacks leaves (1) Population (2) Organism
(3) performs CAM cycle (3) Community (4) Heads
(4) lacks photorespiration

[14]
 ZOOLOGY
SECTION - A 160. Which of the following immune response is
151. What is Drug Addiction? responsible for tissue graft rejection?
(1) Addiction to Food (1) Humoral mediated immunity
(2) Dependence on Drugs (2) Auto immunity
(3) Taking medicines with valid medical (3) Cell mediated immunity
prescriptions (4) Inflammatory immune response
(4) Not eating a balanced diet
161. Name the vaccine which is produced by using
152. In which age group, Drug addiction is a major Recombinant DNA technology?
problem? (1) OPV (2) BCG
(1) Childhood (3) Hepatitis B (4) Smallpox vaccine
(2) Adolescence
(3) Adulthood 162. After entering T-cell, HIV first forms
(4) Old Age (1) Double stranded DNA
(2) mRNA
153. Which type of antibodies are produced in allergy? (3) Single stranded DNA
(1) IgM (2) IgE (4) Double stranded RNA
(3) IgG (4) IgA
163. Choose the correct statement w.r.t. AIDS
154. Which of the following is not a common problem
of Adolescence? (1) It is caused by non-enveloped virus
(1) Spirituality (2) It is an non immunodeficiency disease
(2) Acne (3) Viral RNA genome is converted into copy
DNA by reverse transcriptase
(3) Post-traumatic Stress Disorder
(4) HIV selectively infects and kills B-
(4) Mood Swings
lymphocytes
155. Which one is not included in cannabinoids?
164. Which of the following is opportunistic disease
(1) Marijuana (2) Hashish
associated with HIV?
(3) Heroin (4) Charas
(1) Toxoplasma (2) Burkitt’s lymphoma
156. Which of the following infection spread in body (3) Leprosy (4) Tetanus
through mosquito:
165. Proto-oncogenes are also known as
(1) filariasis (2) malaria
(1) V-onc (2) C-onc
(3) amoebiasis (4) both 1 and 2
(3) Viral oncogenes (4) None of these
157. Antibodies are produced by
(1) B-lymphocytes (2) T-lymphocytes 166. Which technique uses non ionizing radiation to
(3) Neutrophils (4) basophils accurately detect pathological and physiological
changes in the living tissue?
158. Which cells are responsible in Humoral & cell (1) CT scan (2) MRI
mediated immunity, respectively (3) PET scan (4) Mamography
(1) B-cell, T-cell
(2) T-cell, B-cell 167. Cocaine is obtained from:
(3) T-cell, neutrophils (1) Datura (2) Erythroxylum coca
(4) Neutrophils, Basophils (3) Atropa (4) Opium

159. ‘NACO’ Full form is 168. MALT (Mucosal associated lymphoid tissue)
(1) Nation AIDS Control Organisation constitutes about _______ percent of lymphoid
(2) National AIDS Control Organisation tissue in human body.
(3) National AIDS Controller Organisation (1) 10 (2) 20
(4) None (3) 50 (4) 80

[15]
169. Which disease is matched by its correct symptom 177. Consider the following statements:
and test. (i) Innate immunity is non specific type of
(1) Typhoid – Stomach pain, constipation, defence, that is present at the time of birth.
Headache, loss of appetite, Test – widal test (ii) Acquired Immunity is pathogen specific and
(2) Pneumonia – Alveoli, filled with fluid, test - is characterized by memory.
widal test (iii) Memory based acquired immunity developed
(3) Syphilis – Diarrhea, Indigestion, Test – VDRL in higher vertebrates based on ability to
test distinguish self from non-self
(4) Tuberculosis – Cough, bloody sputum, test – Which of the following statements are true?
Schick test (1) (i) and (ii) only (2) (i) and (iii) only
(3) (ii) and (iii) only (4) (i), (ii) and (iii)
170. Which fish feeds on mosquito larvae?
(1) Rohu (2) Sardine 178. Which one of the following acts as a physiological
(3) Gambusia (4) Catla barrier to the entry of micro-organism in human
body?
171. Which of the following are Bacterial diseases (1) Tears
(1) Syphilis, Chicken Pox, Dysentery (2) Monocytes
(2) Syphilis, Dysentery, Typhoid (3) Skin
(3) Chicken Pox, Measles, Small Pox (4) Epithelium of Urogenital tract
(4) Typhoid, Chicken Pox, Dysentery
179. Salmonella is related to
172. Match the correct option regarding Malaria (1) Typhoid (2) Polio
p. Toxic substance 1. Sporozoite (3) TB (4) Tetanus
q. Infective stage 2. Plasmodium
r. Vector 3. Female Anopheles 180. Cytokines that provide non-specific immunity
mosquito against virus are-
s. Causative agent 4. Haemozoin (1) Interleukin
(2) Tumour necrosis
(1) p-1 q-2 r-3 s-4
(3) Colony stimulating factor
(2) p-4 q-1 r-3 s-2
(4) Interferon
(3) p-4 q-3 r-2 s-1
(4) p-3 q-1 r-2 s-4
181. When plants/animals are infected with virus, they
may produce an anti-viral substance that is capable
173. Which one of the following does not involve in
of inhibiting the multiplication of that virus.
infection of malaria in human?
Identify the substance-
(1) P. vivax (2) P. falciparum
(1) Virion (2) Antivirion
(3) P. ovale (4) Wuchereria bancrofti
(3) Antigen (4) Interferon

174. The rupture of RBC, is associated with release of

182. Which species of Plasmodium causes malignant
which toxic substance.
malaria?
(1) Haemoglobin (2) Hematin
(1) P. vivax (2) P. ovale
(3) Haemozoin (4) Haemocyanin
(3) P. falciparum (4) P. malariae

175. Enzyme responsible for replication of HIV in

183. Among non infectious diseases, which of the
macrophages is
following is most common cause of death?
(1) RNA polymerase
(1) AIDS
(2) DNA ligase
(2) Cancer
(3) DNA polymerase
(3) Malaria
(4) Reverse transcriptase
(4) More than one option is correct

176. The main site that get affected by elephantiasis

184. The type of immunoglobulin is present in the
(1) Head colostrum secreted by mammary glands
(2) Lower limbs & genital organs (1) IgD (2) IgG
(3) Eyes (3) IgE (4) IgA
(4) Neck & chest

[16]
185. Which of the following is not a component of 194. Which of the following diseases is caused by
innate immunity? bacteria?
(1) Interferons (1) Herpes and Influenza
(2) Inflammatory barriers (2) Cholera and tetanus
(3) Natural killer cells (3) Typhoid and smallpox
(4) Immunoglobulins (4) Tetanus and mumps

SECTION - B 195. Antivenom injection contains preformed

(ATTEMPT ANY 10 QUESTIONS) antibodies while polio drops contain drops that are
186. Interferon is a protein that administered into body contain
(1) Kills a virus (1) Gamma globulins
(2) Protects unattached cells from virus (2) Attenuated pathogens
(3) Prevents viruses from taking over the cellular (3) Activated pathogens
machinery (4) Harvested antibodies
(4) More than one option is correct
196. Entamoeba histolytica is transmitted through
187. The genome of HIV, the causative agent of AIDS (1) Insect bite
is made up of two copies of
(2) Sweat
(1) ssRNA (2) ssDNA
(3) Food and water contamination
(3) dsRNA (4) dsDNA
(4) Blood
188. The treatment of snake bite by antivenom is an
example of 197. At which stage of HIV infection does one usually
show symptoms of AIDS?
(1) Artificially acquired active immunity
(1) When viral DNA is produced by reverse
(2) Artificially acquired passive immunity
transcriptase
(3) Naturally acquired passive immunity
(2) When HIV replicated rapidly in helper T-
(4) Specific natural immunity lymphoctes and damage large number of cells
(3) Within 15 days of sexual contact with an
189. The sites where B and T lymphocytes mature and infected person
acquire their antigen specific receptors are
(4) When the infecting retrovirus enters host cells
(1) Secondary lymphoid organs
(2) Thymus gland
198. Which of the following is not a property of cancer
(3) Primary lymphoid organs cells?
(4) Bone marrow (1) They compete with normal cells for vital
nutrients
190. Find out the incorrect statement regarding AIDS (2) They do not remain confined in the area of
(1) Macrophages act as HIV factory formation
(2) Infection of Mycobacterium, Viruses, fungi (3) They divide in an uncontrolled manner
and Toxoplasma are common (4) They show contact inhibition
(3) Count of T lymphocyte decreases
(4) Anti retroviral drugs are completely effective 199. Drug called ‘Heroin’ is synthesized by
(1) Glycosylation of morphine
191. Ringworm in humans is caused by (2) Nitration of morphine
(1) Viruses (2) Bacteria (3) Methylation of morphine
(3) Fungi (4) Nematodes (4) Acetylation of morphine

192. If you are advised to get a ELISA test done for 200. Select the correct statement from the ones given
yourself, which disease is your doctor suspecting? below:
(1) AIDS (2) Cholera (1) Barbiturates, when given to criminals, make
(3) Pneumonia (4) Filariasis them tell the truth
(2) Morphine is often given to persons, who have
193. In which disease does mosquito transmitted undergone surgery, as a pain killer
pathogen cause chronic inflammation of lymphatic (3) Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure and
vessels? heart rate
(1) Elephantiasis (2) Amoebiasis (4) Cocaine is given to patients after surgery as it
(3) Ascariasis (4) Ringworm disease stimulates recovery
[17]
 PHYSICS

ANSWERS

Section-A
1. (1) 27. (4)
2. (4) 28. (2)
3. (1) 29. (1)
4. (2) 30. (3)
5. (4) 31. (4)
6. (1) 32. (3)
7. (3) 33. (2)
8. (1) 34. (2)
9. (4) 35. (3)
10. (4)
11. (2) Section-B
12. (1) 36. (3)
13. (3) 37. (3)
14. (4) 38. (1)
15. (1) 39. (3)
16. (3) 40. (4)
17. (2) 41. (4)
18. (4) 42. (3)
19. (2) 43. (2)
20. (3) 44. (2)
21. (1) 45. (3)
22. (3) 46. (3)
23. (2) 47. (2)
24. (3) 48. (3)
25. (2) 49. (3)
26. (3) 50. (3)
 CHEMISTRY

ANSWERS

Section-A
51. (3) 77. (2)
52. (1) 78. (1)
53. (4) 79. (2)
54. (3) 80. (3)
55. (2) 81. (1)
56. (4) 82. (3)
57. (4) 83. (4)
58. (3) 84. (4)
59. (3) 85. (3)
60. (2)
61. (3) Section-B
62. (4) 86. (3)
63. (2) 87. (2)
64. (3) 88. (1)
65. (2) 89. (2)
66. (2) 90. (3)
67. (3) 91. (4)
68. (3) 92. (1)
69. (4) 93. (2)
70. (2) 94. (1)
71. (4) 95. (1)
72. (2) 96. (1)
73. (3) 97. (2)
74. (3) 98. (2)
75. (2) 99. (4)
76. (4) 100. (1)
 BOTANY

ANSWERS

Section-A
101. (1) 127. (1)
102. (4) 128. (4)
103. (1) 129. (1)
104. (4) 130. (2)
105. (2) 131. (3)
106. (4) 132. (4)
107. (1) 133. (1)
108. (3) 134. (4)
109. (2) 135. (3)
110. (2)
111. (2) Section-B
112. (1) 136. (2)
113. (3) 137. (2)
114. (2) 138. (1)
115. (1) 139. (3)
116. (4) 140. (3)
117. (1) 141. (3)
118. (2) 142. (4)
119. (3) 143. (1)
120. (2) 144. (1)
121. (4) 145. (2)
122. (1) 146. (2)
123. (3) 147. (1)
124. (1) 148. (3)
125. (3) 149. (3)
126. (2) 150. (3)
 ZOOLOGY

ANSWERS

Section-A
151. (2) 177. (4)
152. (2) 178. (1)
153. (2) 179. (1)
154. (1) 180. (4)
155. (2) 181. (4)
156. (4) 182. (3)
157. (1) 183. (2)
158. (1) 184. (4)
159. (2) 185. (4)
160. (3)
161. (3) Section-B
162. (3) 186. (2)
163. (3) 187. (1)
164. (1) 188. (2)
165. (2) 189. (3)
166. (2) 190. (4)
167. (2) 191. (3)
168. (3) 192. (1)
169. (1) 193. (1)
170. (3) 194. (2)
171. (2) 195. (2)
172. (2) 196. (3)
173. (4) 197. (2)
174. (3) 198. (4)
175. (4) 199. (4)
176. (2) 200. (2)