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STUDY MATERIAL
[SPN 2023]
CLASS (XI)
Module - I
PHYSICS
CHEMISTRY
BIOLOGY
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Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
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Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
CONTENTS
Physics
1. Units and Measurements ---------------------------------------------------- 05
2. Motion in a Straight Line ---------------------------------------------------- 14
Chemistry
1. Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry-------------------------------------- 23
2. Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties ----------- 31
Biology
1. The Living World -------------------------------------------------------------- 40
2. Biological Classification------------------------------------------------------ 47
3. Animal Kingdom (Non-Chordata) ----------------------------------------- 56
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Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
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Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
PHYSICS
CHAPTER - 01
UNITS & MEASUREMENTS
QUESTIONS
[HOMEWORK]
1. Which of the following quantities has not been expressed in proper unit ?
1) Torque : Newton metre
2) Stress : Newton metre–2
3) Modulus of elasticity : Newton metre–2
4) Power : Newton metre second–1
5) Surface tension : Newton metre–2
2. Wave number has the dimensions of
1) length 2) length–1
3) a dimensionless physical quantity 4) None of these
3. If the units of mass, length and time are doubled, unit of angular momentum will be
1) doubled 2) tripled
3) quadruppled 4) 8 times of the original value
4. The force F is given by Stoke’s equation
F 6r
Then the dimension of viscosity coefficient are
1 1 1 1 1 1 2 1
1) ML T 2) MLT 3) M L T 4) ML T
5. If x at bt 2 , where x is the distance travelled by the body in kilometre while t is the time in second,
then the unit of b are
1) km/s 2) km-s 3) km/s2 4) km-s2
6. The number of significant figure in 6.25 105 is
1) 11 2) 6 3) 4 4) 3
7. Accuracy in the measurement of a physical quantity can be increased by using
1) less trials 2) more trials 3) siginificant digits 4) order of magnitude
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Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
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8. If E = energy, g = gravitational constant, I = impulse and M = mass, the dimensions of GIM are
E2
same as that of
1) time 2) mass 3) length 4) force
9. The percentage error in the measurement of mass and speed are 2% and 3%, respectively. how
much will be the maximum error in kinetic energy ?
1) 1% 2) 5% 3) 8% 4) 12%
10. Which one of the following represents the correct dimensions of the gravitational constant ?
1 3 2 1 1 2 2 2
1) M L T 2) MLT 3) ML T 4) ML T
11. The physical quantity that has no dimensions is
1) strain 2) angular velocity
3) angular momentum 4) linear momentum
12. What is the correct number of significant figures in 0.0003026 ?
1) four 2) seven 3) eight 4) six
13. Error in the measurement of radius of a sphere is 1%. Then error in the measurement of volume is
1) 1% 2) 5% 3) 3% 4) 8%
14. The density of material in CGS system of units is 4 g/cm3.
In a system of units in which unit of length
is 10cm and unit of mass is 100g, the value of density of material will be
1) 0.4 2) 40 3) 400 4) 0.04
15. Given that Y a sin t bt ct 2 cos t . The unit of abc is same as that of:
1) y 2) y/t 3) (y/t)2 4) (y/t)3
16. The world’s largest cut diamond is the first star of Africa (mounted in the British Royal Sculpture and
kept in the tower of London). Its volume is 1.84 cubic inch. What is the volume in cubic metre ?
1) 30.2 10 6 m 3 2) 33.28m 3 3) 4.8m 3 4) 3.02 10 6 m 3
17. Angle of elevation of the top of a tower is 45o from a point on the ground. On walking 1 km towards the
tower, angle is found to be 60o. Calculate the height of tower
1) 2.566 Km 2) 2.13 Km 3) 2.366 Km 4) 2.8 Km
18. Find the distance of moon from earth if the parallax angle as measured from two places at a distance
of 6.4 106 m on earth is 57 minutes of an arc
1) 3.858 108 m 2) 3.858 106 m 3) 3.85 103 m 4) 3.85 104 m
19. A gas bubble from an explosion under water oscillates with a time period T which is proportional to Pa
db Ec, where P is the pressure, d the density of water and E the total energy of the explosion. The value
a2
of will be
b3 c
50 25 75 100
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 3 3 3
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Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
20. A physical quantity x depends on quantities y and z as follows: x = Ay + B tan Cz, where A, B and C are
constants. Which of the following do not have the same dimensions ?
1) x and B 2) C and z–1
3) y and B/A 4) x and A
21. If E, M, J and G respectively, denote energy, mass, angular momentum, and gravitational constant,
then EJ2/M5G2 has the dimensions of:
1) Time 2) Angle 3) Mass 4) Length
22. If Young’s modulus Y, surface tension S and time T are chosen as the fundamental quantities, then
dimensional formula for density is
1) S2 Y3 T–2 2) S3 Y2 T–2
3) S–2 Y3 T2 4) S–2 Y2 T3
23. The displacement of a particle moving along x-axis with respect to time t is x = at + bt2 – ct3. The
dimensions of c are:
1) T–3 2) LT–2 3) LT–3 4) LT3
24. The dimensions of Stefan-Boltzmann constant can be written in terms of Planck’s constant’ss
Boltzmann constant KB and the speed of light c as hK BC . Here
1) 3, 4 and 3 2) 3, 4 and 2
3) 3, 4 and 2 4) 2, 3 and 1
25. The dimensions of the area A of a black hole can be written in terms of the universal constant G, its
mass M and the speed of light c as A GMc . Here
1) 2, 2 and 4 2) 2, 2 and 4
3) 3, 3 and 2 4) 3, 3 and 2
26. If the time period (T) of vibration of a liquid drop depends on surface tension (S), radius (r) of the drop
and density ( ) of the liquid, then the expression of T is
1) T K r 3 / S 2) T K 1/ 2 r 3 / S 3) T K r 3 / S1/ 2 4) None of these
27. The time period of a soap bubble is T which depends on pressure P, density d and surface tension s,
then the relation for T is
3 1 3 1
1) T Pds 2) T P 2
d 2s 3) T Pd2 s 2 4) T Pd2 s 3
28. The numbers 2.745 and 2.735 on rounding off to 3 significant figures is
1) 2.75 and 2.74 2) 2.74 and 2.73 3) 2.75 and 2.73 4) 2.74 and 2.74
29. The mean time period of second’s pendulum is 2.00s and mean absolute error in the time period is
0.05s. To express maximum estimate of error, the time period should be written as
1) 2.00 0.01 s 2) 2.00 0.025 s
3) 2.00 0.05 s 4) 2.00 0.10 s
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Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
30. While measuring acceleration due to gravity by simple pendulum, a student makes a positive error of
1% in the length of the pendulum and a negative error of 3% in the value of the time period. His actual
percentage error in the measurement of the value of g will be:
1) 2% 2) 4% 3) 7% 4) 10%
1
31. The least count of a stop watch is
second. The time of 20 oscillations of a pendulum is measured
5
to be 25 seconds. The maximum percentage error in the measurement of time will be:
1) 0.1% 2) 0.8% 3) 1.8% 4) 8%
32. The percentage errors in the measurement of mass and speed are 2% and 3%, respectively. How
much will be the maximum error in the estimation of KE obtained by measuring mass and speed?
1) 5% 2) 1% 3) 8% 4) 11%
33. The specific resistance of a circular wire of radius r, resistance R, and length is given by
r 2R / . Given : r 0.24 0.02cm , R 30 1 , and 4.80 0.01cm . The percentage error
in is nearly:
1) 7% 2) 9% 3) 13% 4) 20%
34. A thin copper wire of length l metre increases in length by 2% when heated through 10oC. What is the
percentage increase in area when a square copper sheet of length l metre is heated through 10oC
1) 4% 2) 8%
3) 16% 4) None of the above
35. A physical quantity is given by X = MaLbTc. The percentage error in measurement of M, L and T are
, and respectively. Then maximum percentage error in the quantity X is
1) a b c 2) a b c
a b c
3) 4) None of these
36. If the length of rod A is 3.25 0.01cm and that of B is 4.19 0.01cm , then the rod B is longer than rod
A by
1) 0.94 0.00cm 2) 0.94 0.01cm
3) 0.94 0.02cm 4) 0.94 0.005 cm
pq
37. A physical quantity A is dependent on other four physical quantities p, q, r and s as given by A . 2 3
r s
The percentage error of measurement in p, q, r and s are 1%, 3%, 0.5% and 0.33% respectively, then
the maximum percentage error in A is:
1) 2% 2) 0% 3) 4% 4) 3%
38. A wire of length l 6 0.06 cm and radius r 0.5 0.005cm and mass m 0.3 0.003g . The
maximum percentage error in density is
1) 4 2) 2 3) 1 4) 6.8
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Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
LEVEL - I
1. Velocity of a body v can be expressed as v pt 3 qt 2 , where t represents the time. Then the S.I. unit
of P is
1) ms 2 2) ms 3 3) ms 4 4) ms 5
b
2. The work done by a body W, varies with displacement s as W as (c s)2 , then the dimensional
formula for b is
1) M 2) L 3) M L4 T–2 4) M L T–2
3. If pressure P, velocity of light c, and acceleration due to gravity g are chosen as fundamental units,
then the dimensional formula for mass is
1) Pc3g–4 2) Pc–4g3
3) Pc4g–3 4) Pc4g3
4. If the speed of light C, Universal Gravitational Constant G and Plank’s constant h are taken as the
fundamental units in a new system. Then the dimensions of time in the new system would be
1 1 5 1 1 1
1) G 2 h 2 C 2 2) G 2 h 2 C 2
1 1 3 1 1 1
3) G 2 h 2 C 2 4) G 2 h 2 C 2
5. The internal and external diameters of a hollow cylinder are measured with the help of a Vernier Calipers.
Their values are 4.23 0.01cm and 3.87 0.01cm respectively. Then the thickness of the wall of the
cylinder is
1) 0.36 0.02cm 2) 0.18 0.02cm
3) 0.36 0.01cm 4) 0.18 0.01cm
a a t2
6. The dimensions of in the equation P where P is pressure, x is distance and t is time, are
b bx
2 3 2
1) M LT 2) MT
3 3 1
3) LT 4) ML T
7. In an experiment four quantities a, b, c and d are measured with percentage error 1%,, 2%, 3% and 4%
respectively. Qunatity P is calculated as follows:
a 3b 2
P %
cd
error in P is:
1) 10% 2) 7%
3) 4% 4) 14%
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Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
8. Select the incorrect statement
1) If the zero of vernier scale does not coincide with the zero of the main scale, then the vernier
callipers is said to be having zero error
2) Zero correction has a magnitude equal to zero error but sign is opposite to that of zero error
3) Zero error is positive when the zero of vernier scale lies to the left of the zero of the main scale
4) Zero error is negative when the zero of vernier scale lies to the left of the zero of the main scale
9. The vernier constant of a vernier callipers is 0.001 cm. If 49 main scale divisions coincide with 50
vernier scale divisions, then the value of 1 main scale division is
1) 0.1 mm 2) 0.5mm 3) 0.4mm 4) 1 mm
10. The tip of the screw of a screw gauge moves by 1mm when the screw rotates once. If there are 100
divisions on circular scale, the least count of screw gauge is
1) 0.01 mm 2) 0.02 mm 3) 0.01 cm 4) 0.1mm
11. The viscous force F on a sphere of radius a moving in a medium with velocity is given by F 6a .
The dimensions of are
3 2 1 1 1
1) ML 2) MLT 3) MT 4) ML T
12. Which of the following sets cannot enter into the list of fundamental quantities in any system of units ?
1) length, mass and density
2) length, time and velocity
3) mass, time and velocity
4) length, time and mass
13. From the point of view of significant figures, which of the following statements are correct.
(i) 10.2 cm + 8 cm = 18.2 cm (ii) 2.53 m – 1.2 m = 1.33 m
(iii) 4.2 m × 1.4 m = 5.88 m2 (iv) 3.6 m 1.75 s = 2.1 ms–1
1) (i) and (iv) only 2) (ii) and (iii) only
3) (i), (ii) and (iv) only 4) (iv) only
14. The pressure on a square plate is measured by measuring the force on the plate and the length of the
sides of the plate. If the maximum error in the measurement of force and length are respectively 4%
and 2%, the maximum error in the measurement of pressure is:
1) 1% 2) 2% 3) 6% 4) 8%
15. In a certain system of units, 1 unit of time is 5 sec, 1 unit of mass is 20kg and 1 unit of length is 10m.
In this system, one unit of power will correspond to
1
1) 16 watts 2) watts
16
1
3) 25 watts 4) watts
25
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Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
LEVEL - II
pq
1. A physical quantity A is dependent on other four physical quantities p, q, r and s as given by A . 2 3
r s
The percentage error of measurement in p, q, r and s are 1%, 3%, 0.5% and 0.33% respectively, then
the maximum percentage error in A is:
1) 2% 2) 0%
3) 4% 4) 3%
2. Choose the incorrect statement out of the following
1) Every measurement by any measuring instrument has some error
2) Every calculated physical quantity that is based on measured values has some error
3) A measurement can have more accuracy but less precision and vice versa
4) The percentage error is different from relative error
3. The value of 60 joule/min on a system which has 100g, 100 cm and 1 min as fundamental unit is
1) 2.16 104 2) 2.16 106
3) 2.16 103 4) 2.16 105
4. Suppose the kinetic energy of a body oscillating with amplitude A and at a distance x is given by
Bx
K
x A2
2
The dimensions of B are the same as that of
1) work / time 2) work distance
3) work / distance 4) work time
5. The speed of ripples on the surface of water depends on surface tension density and
wavelength . The square of speed proportional to
1) 2)
3) 4)
6. If the acceleration due to gravity is 10 ms –2 and the units of length and time are changed in kilometer
and hour respectively, the numerical value of the acceleration is
1) 360000 2) 72000
3) 36000 4) 129600
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Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
0
The position of a particle at time t is given by the relation x t 1 e , where 0 is a constant
t
7.
and 0 . The dimensions of 0 and respectively
1) M0 L1 T–1 and T–1
2) M0 L1 T0 and T–1
3) M0 L1 T–1 and LT–2
4) M0 L1 T–1 and T
8. A liquid drop placed on a horizontal plane has a near spherical shape (slightly flattened due to gravity).
Let R be the radius of its largest horizontal section. A small disturbance causes the drop to vibrate with
frequency about its equilibrium shape. By dimensional analysis the ratio can be (here is
R 3
surface tension, is density g is acceleration due to gravity, and K is an arbitrary dimensionless constant)
KgR 2 KR 3
1) 2)
g
KR 2 K
3) 4) g
g
9. The length of a simple pendulum is about 100 cm, known to have an accuracy of 1 mm. Its period of
oscillation is 2s, which is measured by measuring the time for 100 oscillation using a clock of 0.1s
resolution what is the accuracy in determined value of g :
1) 0.2% 2) 0.5% 3) 0.1% 4) 2%
10. A student measures the distance traversed in free fall of a body, initially at rest in a given time. He uses
this data to estimate g, the acceleration due to gravity. If the maximum percentage errors in
measurements of the distance and the time are e 1 and e2 respectively, the percentage error in the
estimation of g is
1) e2 – e1 2) e1 + 2e2
3) e1 + e2 4) e1 – 2e2
11. You measure two quantities as A 1.0m 0.2m, B 2.0m 0.2m we should report correct value for
AB as
1) 1.4m 0.4m 2) 1.41m 0.15m
3) 1.4m 0.3m 4) 1.4m 0.2m
3
12. The mass and density of a solid sphere are measured to be 12.4 0.1 kg and 4.6 0.2 kg / m .
Calculate the volume of the sphere with error limits (in m3)
1) 2.7 0.3 2) 1.4 0.14
3) 2.69 0.14 4) 2.7 0.14
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Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
13. In the diagram shown in figure, find the magnitude and nature of zero error
MSD = 1mm, 10VSD = 9MSD
1) –0.05cm 2) +0.05cm
3) –0.05mm 4) +0.05mm
14. A public park, in the form of a square, has an area of 100 0.2 m2 . The side of park is:
1) 10 0.01 m 2) 10 0.1 m 3) 10 0.02 m 4) 10 0.2 m
aZ
15. In the relation p e k , p is pressure, Z is distance, k is Boltzmann constant and is the temperature.
The dimensional formula of will be
0 2 0 2 0 1 0 2 1
1) M L T 2) ML T 3) ML T 4) M L T
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Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
CHAPTER - 02
MOTION IN A STRAIGHT LINE
QUESTIONS
[HOMEWORK]
1. A car covers the first half of the distance between two places at a speed of 40 km/h and the second
half at 60 km/h. The average speed of the car is
1) 50 km/h 2) 100 km/h 3) 20 km/h 4) 48 km/h
2. Two bodies are allowed to fall from different height h1 and h2. Their final velocities are in the ratio :
h1 h2 h1 h2
1) 2) 3) 4)
h2 h1 h2 h1
3. Two buses A and B are travelling along a straight line in the same direction with speeds 50 kmph and
30 kmph. The velocity of A relative to B is :
1) 20 kmph 2) 30 kmph 3) 60 kmph 4) 50 kmph
4. A body moves from rest with a constant acceleration of 5 m/s2. Its instantaneous speed (in m/s) at
the end of 10 sec is
1) 50 2) 5 3) 2 4) 0.5
5. Speed of two identical cars are u and 4u at a specific instant. The ratio of the respective distance in
which the two cars are stopped from that instant is
1) 1 : 1 2) 1 : 4 3) 1 : 8 4) 1 : 16
6. A body starts from rest and travels with uniform acceleration of 2 m/s2. If its velocity is v after making
a displacement of 9 m, then v is
1) 8 m/s 2) 6 m/s 3) 10 m/s 4) 4 m/s
7. A body starts from rest and travels with an acceleration of 2 m/s2. After t second its velocity is 10 m/
s. Then t is
1) 10 s 2) 5 s 3) 20 s 4) 6 s
8. A body travels on a straight line with an initial velocity of 2 m/s. If its uniform acceleration is 1 m/s2, its
velocity at the end of 5 second is
1) 5 m/s 2) 7 m/s 3) 9 m/s 4) 6 m/s
9. The velocity acquired by a body moving with uniform acceleration is 30 ms–1 in 2s and 60ms–1 in 4s.
The initial velocity is
1) Zero 2) 2ms–1 3) 3ms–1 4) 10 ms–1
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Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
4 2
10. The distance travelled by a particle starting from rest and moving with an acceleration ms , in the
3
third second is
10 19
1) m 2) m 3) 6m 4) 4m
3 3
11. A particle move along a semicircle of radius 10 m in 5 seconds . The average velocity of the particle
is\
1) 2 ms 1 2) 4 ms 1 3) 2 ms 1 4) 4 ms 1
12. Free fall of an object (in vacuum) is a case of motion with
1) Uniform velocity 2) Uniform acceleration
3) Variable acceleration 4) Constant momentum
13. A car moves distance of 200 m. It covers first half of the distance at speed 60 kmh–1 and the second
half at the speed v. If the average speed is 40 kmh–1, the value of v is
1) 30 kmh–1 2) 12 kmh–1
3) 60 kmh–1 4) 40 kmh–1
14. A stone is shot straight upward with a speed of 20 m/s from a tower 200 m high. The speed with
which it strikes the ground is approximately
1) 60 m/sec 2) 65 m/sec
3) 70 m/sec 4) 75 m/sec
15. A particle starts its motion from rest under the action of a constant force. If the distance covered in
first 10 seconds is S1 and that covered in the first 20 seconds is S2, then
1) S2=3S1 2) S2= 4S1
3) S2=S1 4) S2= 2S1
16. The displacement time-graph for two particles A and B are straight lines inclined at angles of 30° and
60° with the time axis. The ratio of velocities of VA : VB is
1) 1 : 2 2) 1 : 3
3) 3 :1 4) 1 : 3
17. A car runs at a constant speed on a circular track of radius 100m, taking 62.8 sec on each lap. What
is the average velocity and average speed on each lap
1) 10 m/s, 10 m/s 2) 0, 10 m/s 3) 0, 0 4) 10 m/s, 0
18. A train is moving with a velocity of 30 m/s. When brakes are applied, it is found that the velocity
reduces to 10 m/s in 240 m. When the velocity of the train is zero, the distance travelled is
1) 270 m 2) 240 m 3) 250 m 4) 210 m
19. A stone falls freely from rest and the total distance covered by it in the last second of its motion equals
the distance covered by it in the first three seconds of its motion. The stone remains in the air for
1) 6 s 2) 5 s 3) 7 s 4) 4 s
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Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
20. Acceleration due to gravity on moon is 1.6 sec2. An inflated balloon is released on moon. It will
1) Move down with acceleration 1.6 m/s2
2) Move up with acceleration 1.6 m/s2
3) Move up with acceleration 9.8 m/s2
4) Move down with acceleration 9.8 m/s2
21. If body having initial velocity zero is moving with uniform acceleration 8 m/sec2, then the distance
travelled by it in fifth second will be
1) 36 metres 2) 40 metres 3) 100 metres 4) Zero
22. A boy walks to his school at a distance of 6 km with constant speed of 2.5 km/hour and walks back
with a constant speed of 4 km/hr. His average speed for round trip expressed in km/hour, is
1) 24/13 2) 40/13 3) 3 4) 1/2
23. A body travelling with uniform acceleration crosses two points A and B with velocities 20 ms –
1 and 30 ms–1 respectively. The speed of the body at the mid-point of A and B is nearest to
1) 25.5 ms–1 2) 25 ms–1 3) 24 ms–1 4) 10 6ms 1
24. A man is 45 m behind the bus when the bus starts accelerationg from rest with acceleration 2.5 m/s2.
With what minimum velocity should the man start running to catch the bus
1) 12 m/s 2) 14 m/s 3) 15 m/s 4) 16 m/s
25. A stone thrown upward with a speed u from the top of the tower reaches the ground with a velocity 3u.
The height of the tower is
3u 2 4u 2 6u 2 9u 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
g g g g
26. A car moving with a speed of 40 km/h can be stopped by applying brakes after at least 2m. If the
same car is moving with a speed of 80km/h, what is the minimum stopping distance
1) 8m 2) 2m 3) 4m 4) 6m
9h
27. A stone falls freely from rest from a height h and it travels a distance in the last second. The value
25
of h is
1) 145 m 2) 100 m 3) 122.5 m 4) 200 m
28. An aeroplane flies around a square field ABCD of each side 1000 km. Its speed along AB is
250 km h–1, along BC 500 km h–1, along CD 200 km h–1, and along DA 100 km h–1. Its average speed
(in km h–1) over the entire trip is
1) 225.5 2) 175.5 3) 125.5 4) 190.5
29. The distance travelled ‘S’ by an accelerated particle of mass M is given by the following relation (in
MKS units) S = 6t + 3t2. The velocity of the particle after 2 second is
1) 6 2) 12 3) 18 4) 24
30. From the top of a tower, a particle is thrown vertically downwards with a velocity of 10 m/s. The ratio
of the distances, covered by it in the 3rd and 2nd seconds of the motion is (Take g = 10 m/s2)
1) 5 : 7 2) 7 : 5 3) 3 : 6 4) 6 : 3
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Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
31. v-t graph for a particle is as shown. The distance travelled in the first 4s is
1) 12 m 2) 16m 3) 20 m 4) 24 m
32. The position of a particle moving along x - axis is expressed as x = at 3 + bt2 + ct + d. The initial
acceleration of the particle is :
1) 6a 2) 2b 3) (a + b) 4) (a + c)
33. A ball is dropped from the top of building 100m high. At the same instant another ball is thrown
upwards with a velocity of 40m/s from the bottom of the building. The two balls will meet after :
1) 5s 2) 2.5 s 3) 2s 4) 3s
34. Two bodies A and B starts from rest from the same point with a uniform acceleration of 2m/s2. If B
starts one second later then the two bodies are separated, at the end of next second by :
1) 1m 2) 2m 3) 3m 4) 4m
35. Two particles A and B get 4m closer each second while travelling in opposite direction. They get 0.4
m closer every second while travelling in same directions. The speeds of A and B are respectively
1) 2.2 m/sec and 0.4 m/sec
2) 2.2 m/sec and 1.8 m/sec
3) 4 m/sec and 0.4 m/sec
4) 2.2 m/sec and 0.2 m/sec
36. A body is droped from a height 122.5m. If its stopped after 3 seconds and again released the further
time of descent is
1) 2s 2) 3s 3) 4s 4) 5s
37. A car starts from rest and moves with constant acceleration. The ratio of the distance covered in the
nth second to that covered in n seconds is
2 1 2 1 2 1 2 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
n2 n n2 n n n2 n n2
38. A man walks on a straight road from his home to a market 2.5km away with a speed of 5 km/h. Finding
the market closed, he instantly turns and walks back home with a speed of 7.5 km/h. The average
speed of the man over the interval of time 0 to 40 min is equal to
25
1) 5 km/h 2) 4 km/h
30 45
3) km/h 4) km / h
4 8
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Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
39. Two boys are standing at the ends A and B of a ground where AB = a. The boy at B starts running in a
direction perpendicular to AB with velocity 1 . The boy at A starts running simultaneously with velocity
along a straight line and catches the other boy in a time t, where t is
a a2
1) 2
2
1
2) 2
12
a a
3) 1 4) 1
40. A body is thrown vertically upwards with velocity u. The distance travelled by it in the fifth and the sixth
seconds are equal. The velocity u is given by (g = 9.8 m/s2)
1) 24.5 m/s 2) 49.0 m/s
3) 73.5 m/s 4) 98.0 m/s
41. The position x of a particle with respect to time t along x-axis is given by x 9t 2 t 3 where x is in
meters and t in seconds. What will be the position of this particle when it achieves maximum speed
along the +x direction ?
1) 32 m 2) 54 m
3) 81 m 4) 24 m
42. A ball is dropped on the floor from a height of 10m. It rebounds to a height of 2.5m. If the ball is in
contact with the floor for 0.01 sec, the average acceleration during contact is
2
1) 2100 m / sec downwards
2
2) 2100 m / sec upwards
2
2) 1400 m / sec
2
4) 700 m / sec
43. All the graphs below are intended to represent the same motion. Select the incorrect graph
1) 2)
3) 4)
18
Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
LEVEL I
1. Two bodies A of mass 1 kg and B of mass 3 kg are dropped from heights of 16 m and 25 m, respectively.
The ratio of time taken by them to reach the ground is :
1) 1 : 1 2) 4 : 5 3) 5 : 4 4) 12 : 5
2. A particle moves with uniform velocity. Which of the following statements is true :
1) Its speed is zero 2) Its acceleration is zero
3) Its speed is variable 4) Its acceleration is opposite to velocity
3. A body is dropped from a height of 20 m. It reaches ground in time (g = 10 ms–2)
1) 2 s 2) 4 s 3) 6 s 4) 1 s
4. A body is dropped from a height of 5 m. Find the speed with which it hits ground
1) 10 ms–1 2) 20 ms–1 3) 15 ms–1 4) 25 ms–1
5. A stone dropped from the top of the tower touches the ground in 4 sec. The height of the tower is
about
1) 80 m 2) 40 m 3) 20 m 4) 160 m
6. The distance travelled by a body falling freely from rest in first, second and third seconds are in the
ratio
1) 1 : 2 : 3 2) 1 : 3 : 5
3) 1 : 4 : 9 4) 1 : 4 : 5
7. The graph between displacement and time for a particle moving with uniform acceleration is a
1) Straight line with a positive slope 2) Parabola
3) Ellipse 4) straight line parallel to time axis
8. The numerical ratio of displacement to the distance covered is always.
1) Less than one 2) Equla to one
3) Equal to or less than one 4) Equal to or greater than one
9. A body starts from rest and moves with uniform acceleration. Which of the following graphs repre-
sent its motion
1) 2) 3) 4)
10. A 150m long train is moving with a uniform velocity of 45 km/h. The time taken by the train to cross a
bridge of length 850m is
1) 56 sec 2) 68 sec 3) 80 sec 4) 92 sec
1
11. A particle moves in a straight line with a constant acceleration. It changes its velocity from 10 ms to
1
20 ms while passing through a distance 135 m in t second. The value of t is
1) 12 2) 9 3) 10 4) 1.8
19
Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
12. The displacement-time graph of moving particle is shown below
The instantaneous velocity of the particle is negative at the point
1) D 2) F 3) C 4) E
13. Two bodies of different masses ma and mb are dropped from two different heights a and b. The ratio
of the time taken by the two to cover these distances are
1) a : b 2) b : a
3) a: b 4) a 2 : b 2
14. A body freely falling from the rest has a velocity ‘ ’ after it falls through a height ‘h’. The distance it has
to fall down for its velocity to become double, is
1) 2h 2) 4h 3) 6h 4) 8h
LEVEL II
1. The position-time graph given below shows that body can be
1) Uniform motion 2) Body at rest
3) Uniform retardation 4) Uniform velocity
2. The position-time (x - t) graphs for two children A and B returning from their school O to their homes
P and Q respectively are as shown in the figure. Choose the incorrect statement regarding these
graphs.
1) A lives closer to the school than B 2) A starts from the school earlier than B
3) A walks faster than B 4) A and B reach home at the same time
20
Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
3. An athlete completes one round of a circular track of radius R in 40 sec. What will be his displacement
at the end of 2 min. 20 sec
1) zero 2) 2R 3) 2R 4) 7R
4. Select the incorrect statements from the following
S1 : Average velocity is path length divided by time interval
S2 : In general, speed is greater than the magnitude of the velocity
S3 : A particle moving in a given direction with a non-zero velocity can have zero speed
S4 : The magnitude of average velocity is the average speed
1) S2 and S3 2) S1 and S4 3) S1, S3 and S4 4) All four statements
5. The average velocity of a body moving with uniform acceleration travelling a distance of 3.06m is
0.34 ms 1 . If the change in velocity of the body is 0.18 ms 1 during this time, its uniform acceleration is
2 2 2 2
1) 0.03 ms 2) 0.02 ms 3) 2 ms 4) 1 ms
6. Consider the acceleration, velocity and displacement of a tennis ball as it falls to the ground and
bounces back. Directions of which of these changes in the process
1) Velocity only 2) Displacement and velocity
3) Acceleration, velocity and displacement 4) Displacement and acceleration
7. A particle moves along a straight line OX. At a time t (in seconds) the distance x (in meters) of the
particle from O is given by x 40 12t t 3
How long would the particle travel before coming to rest
1) 24 m 2) 40 m 3) 56 m 4) 16 m
8. Which of the following graphs can not possibly represent one dimensional motion of a particle
1) I and II 2) II and III
3) II and IV 4) All four
9. A 210m long train is moving due North at a speed of 25 m/s. A small bird is flying due South a little
above the train with speed 5 m/s. The time taken by the bird to cross the train is
1) 6s 2) 7s 3) 9s 4) 10s
2
10. A bus begins to move with an acceleration of 1 ms . A man who is 48m behind the bus starts running
1
at 10 ms to catch the bus. The man will be able to catch the bus after
1) 6s 2) 5s 3) 3s 4) 8s
21
Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
11. A body is thrown vertically up with a velocity u. It passes three points A,B and C in its upward journey
u u u
with velocities , and respectively. The ratio of the separations between points A and B and
2 3 4
AB
between B and C i.e. is
BC
10 20
1) 1 2) 2 3) 4)
7 7
12. The initial velocity of particle is u (at t = 0) and the acceleration f is given by at. Which of the following
relation is valid ?
t2
1) u at 2 2) u a 3) u at 4) u
2
13. At a metro station, a girl walks up a stationary escalator in time t1. If she remains stationary on the
escalator, then the escalator take her up in time t2. the time taken by her to walk up on the moving
escalator will be
t1 t 2 t 1t 2 t 1t 2
1) 2) t 2 t1 3) t 2 t1 4) t1 t 2
2
14. Water drops fall at regular intervals from a tap which is 5m above the ground. The third drop is leaving
the tap at the instant the first drop touches the ground. How far above the ground is the second drop
at that instant
1) 2.50 m 2) 3.75 m 3) 4.00 m 4) 1.25 m
15. A particle starts from rest. Its acceleration (a) versus time (t) is as shown in the figure. The maximum
speed of the particle will be
1) 110 m/s 2) 55 m/s 3) 550 m/s 4) 660 m/s
16. A car, starting from rest, accelerates at the rate f through a distance S, then continuous at constant
f
speed for time t and then decelerates at the rate to come to rest. If the total distance traversed is 15
2
S, then
1 2 1 2 1 2 1 2
1) S ft 2) S ft 3) S ft 4) S ft
2 4 72 6
22
Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
CHEMISTRY
CHAPTER - 01
SOME BASIC CONCEPTS OF CHEMISTRY
QUESTIONS
[HOMEWORK]
1. Which of the following is a homogeneous mixture ?
1) concrete 2) milk
3) sugar solution 4) oil and water
2. “If a chemical reaction takes place in a sealed vessel, that permits no matter to enter or escape the
mass of the vessel and its contents after the reaction will be identical to its earlier mass”. This statement
is related to
1) Law of conservation of mass
2) Law of definite proportions
3) Law of multiple proportions
4) Avogadros law
3. The formation of PbO, PbO2 and Pb3O4, reveals that the masses of oxygen combined with 1 g of Pb
is a simple whole number ratio. This illustrates
1) Law of conservation of mass
2) Law of definite proportions
3) Law of constant proportions
4) Law of multiple proportions
4. Which of the following is the standard for atomic mass ?
1) 11 H 2) 12
6 C 3) 16
8 O 4) 14
7 N
5. 1 amu is equal to
1) 12 g 2) 1.66056 × 10-24 kg
3) 1.66056 × 10-24 g 4) 1.66056 × 10-24 amu
6. One dozen apple = 12 apple
One pair pen = 2 pen
So one mole of wheat grains is equal to
1) 6.022 × 1023 wheat grains 2) 1.66056 × 1023 wheat grains
3) 1.66056 × 10-23 wheat grains 4) cannot predicted
23
Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
7. The molecular mass of x is 28. x cannot be
1) CO 2) N2 3) C2H4 4) O2
18
8. Mass of one molecule of water is g
6.022 1023 . The mass of one mole of water is
1) 18 amu 2) 18 g 3) 1.8 amu 4) 1.8 g
9. Volume of 17 g of NH3 at NTP will be
1) 2.24 L 2) 22.4 L 3) 4.48 L 4) 44.8 L
10. Which of the following has more number of atoms ?
1) 1 mole of neon gas 2) 1 mole of oxygen gas
3) 1 mole of ozone 4) 1 mole of carbon monoxide
11. 20 L of H2 gas at STP weigh about
1) 44.8 g 2) 12.2 g 3) 1.8 g 4) 20 g
12. Number of atoms present in 52 g of Helium is ?
1) 26 × NA 2) NA 3) 52 × NA 4) 13 × NA
13. Atomic mass of silicon is 28 g, how many silicon atoms are there in 1.00 g of silicon ?
1) 2.14 × 1022 atoms 2) 1.75 × 1025 atoms
3) 1 atom 4) 0.0356 atoms
14. The mass percent of carbon present in glucose is
1) 40 % 2) 56 % 3) 5.06 % 4) 17 %
15. 20 kg of N2 and 3 kg of H2 are mixed to produce NH3 gas. The amount of NH3 formed is
1) 17 kg 2) 23 kg 3) 34 kg 4) 56 kg
16. The volume of O2 required at STP for the complete combustion of 39 g of benzene (C6H6)
1) 0.84 L 2) 8.4 L 3) 84 L 4) 22.4 L
17. Amount of water produced by the combustion of 16 g of methane is
1) 34 g 2) 32 g 3) 30 g 4) 36 g
18. What is the weight of one equivalent of sulphuric acid ?
1) 98 g 2) 49 g
3) 28.5 g 4) 14.25 g
19. Normality is defined as
1) Number of moles of solute per litre of the solution.
2) Number of gram equivalents of solute per litre of the solution.
3) Amount of solute present in 100 g of solution.
4) Number of moles of solute per 100 g of solution.
20. How many moles of NaCl should be dissolved in 100 ml of water to get 0.2 M solution ?
1) 0.2 2) 0.02 3) 0.01 4) 0.1
24
Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
21. A solution is prepared by adding 2 g of a substance ‘A’ to 18 g of water. Mass percent of solute A will be
1) 15 % 2) 20 % 3) 10 % 4) 25 %
22. Calculate the molality of a solution of ethanol in water in which molefraction of ethanol is 0.040 ?
1) 2.31 m 2) 0.231 m 3) 0.0213 m 4) 23.1 m
23. The number of moles of electrons which weigh one kg is
1 23
23
1) 6.02 10 2) 9.108 10
6.02 1054 108
3) 4)
9.108 9.108 6.02
24. Number of moles of urea (NH2CONH2) in 6 g of urea is same as that present in
1) 6 g of glucose (C6H12O6)
2) 6 g of acetic acid (CH3COOH)
3) 6 g of sucrose (C12H22O11)
4) All the above
25. Number of atoms in 558.5 g Fe (at. mass 55.85) is
1) 6.022 × 1022 2) half in 8 g He
3) twice that in 60 g carbon 4) 558.5 × NA
26. 7.5 grams of a gas occupy 5.6 litres of volume at STP. The gas is
1) NO 2) N2O 3) CO 4) CO2
27. Number of atoms of oxygen present in 10.6 g of Na2CO3 will be
1) 6.02 × 1022 2) 12.04 × 1022 3) 1.806 × 1023 4) 31.80 × 1028
28. How many moles of Mg3(PO4)2 will contain 0.25 mol of oxygen atoms?
1) 0.02 2) 3.125 102
3) 1.25 102 4) 2.5 10 2
29. Mass of 6.022 × 1022 molecules of CO2 is about ?
1) 1.4 g 2) 2.2 g 3) 4.4 g 4) 12 g
30. Number of Nitrogen atoms present in 1.4 g of N2 is ?
1) 3.012 × 1022 2) 3.012 × 1023
3) 6.023 × 1022 4) 6.023 × 1023
31. The number of atoms of oxygen present in 10.6 g of Na2CO3 is
1) 6 1022 2) 12 1022 3) 1.8 1023 4) 3 102
32. The maximum number of molecules is present in
1) 15 L of H2 gas at STP 2) 5L of N2 gas at STP
3) 0.5 g of H2 gas 4) 10g of O2 gas
25
Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
33. Empirical formula of an organic compound is CH and its molecular mass is 78 g/ mol. What is its
molecular formula
1) C2H2 2) C2H4 3) C2H6 4) C6H6
34. Which of the following represents the formula of a compound which contains 26 % nitrogen and 74 %
oxygen ?
1) N2O 2) NO 3) NO2 4) N2O5
35. A hydrocarbon contains 92.3 % carbon by mass. Vapour density with respect to hydrogen is 13. The
molecular formula of hydrocarbon is
1) C2H2 2) C3H6 3) C2H4 4) C4H8
36. What mass of silver nitrate is required to react with 5.85 g of sodium chloride to produce 14.35 g of
silver chloride and 8.5 g of sodium nitrate?
1) 10.7 g 2) 17.0 g 3) 23.0 g 4) 45 g
37. The number of moles of water present in 1 L of water is
1) 55.5 moles 2) 1 mole 3) 0.045 moles 4) 27.75 moles
38. A mixture of gases contains H2 and O2 in the ratio of 1 : 4 (w/w). What is the molar ratio of the two
gases in the mixture?
1) 16 : 1 2) 2 : 1 3) 1 : 4 4) 4 : 1
39. A gaseous hydrocarbon gives 0.72 g of water and 3.08 g of CO2 upon combustion. The empirical
formula of hydrocarbon is
1) C2H4 2) C3H4 3) C6H5 4) C7H8
40. Cortisone is a molecular substance containing 21 atoms of carbon per molecule. The mass percentage
of carbon in cortisone is 69.98%. It’s molar mass is
1) 176.5 gmol–1 2) 252.2 gmol–1
3) 287.6 gmol–1 4) 360.1 gmol–1
41. 1g urea (NH2CO NH2), 1 g acetic acid (CH3 COOH) and 1g of formaldehyde (HCHO) will have H-
atoms in the ratio.
1) 2 : 2 : 1 2) 1 : 1 : 2 3) 1 : 1 : 1 4) 1 : 2 : 1
42. Common salt obtained from sea-water contains 95% NaCl by mass. The approximate number of
formula units present in 10 g salt is:
1) 1021 2) 1022 3) 1023 4) 1024
43. The volume of H2 evolved at STP when 0.9 g of Al (molar mass : 27 g mol–1) is dissolved in excess of
dilute H2SO4 is
1) 0.58 L 2) 1.12 L 3) 2.40 L 4) 2.9 L
44. The vapour density of a mixture containing NO2 and N2O4 is 38.3 at 27oC. Calculate the number of
moles of NO2 in100 g mole mixture:
1) 76.6 mole 2) 3.348 mole
3) 334.8 mole 4) 33.48 mole
45. 10 g of CO on burning in air gives the product which have the number of nucleons
1) 9.47 × 1023 2) 94.7 × 1023 3) 947 × 1023 4) 947 × 1024
26
Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
46. Chlorine gas is prepared by reaction of H2SO4 with MnO2 and NaCl. What volume of Cl2 will be produced
at STP if 50 g of NaCl react with excess amount of MnO2 and H2SO4?
1) 1.915L 2) 22.4 L 3) 11.2 L 4) 9.57 L
47. Given that the oxidation state of sulphur is –2, calculate the gram equivalent wt. of sulphur.
1) 16 2) 8 3) 32 4) 64
48. A gaseous compound of nitrogen and hydrogen contains 12.5% (by mass) of hydrogen. The density
of the compound relative to hydrogen is 16. The molecular formula of the compound is:
1) NH2 2) N3H 3) NH3 4) N2H4
49. One litre of N/2 HCI solution was heated in a beaker. When the volume was reduced to 600 mL, 9.125
g of HCl was lost out, the new normality of solution is
1) 0.04 2) 0.8 3) 0.4 4) 0.2
50. Calculate the mass of calcium oxide required that reacts with 852 g of P4O10.
1) 2016 g 2) 1008 g 3) 504 g 4) 1800 g
LEVEL - I
1. The average molar mass of naturally occurring Argon. Calculated using the following data is
Isotope : Isotopic molar mass : Abundance
36Ar 35.96755 g.mol–1 0.337%
38Ar 37.96272 g. mol–1 0.063%
40Ar 39.9624 g.mol–1 99.600%
1) 39.2 gmol–1 2) 39.948 gmol–1 3) 38.948 gmol–1 4) 37.948 gmol–1
2. 20 L of H2 gas at STP weigh about
1) 44.8 g 2) 12.2 g 3) 1.8 g 4) 20 g
3. 2 moles of A and 3 moles of B react to form AB. A B AB
Identify the limiting reagent in the reaction ?
1) A 2) B
3) A as well as B 4) None
4. Normality is defined as
1) Number of moles of solute per litre of the solution.
2) Number of gram equivalents of solute per litre of the solution.
3) Amount of solute present in 100 g of solution.
4) Number of moles of solute per 100 g of solution.
5. Caffein has molecular weight of 194. It contain 28.9% by mass of nitrogen. Number of atoms of
nitrogen in one molecule of it is
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5
6. The molality of an H2SO4 solution is 9. The weight of the solute in 1 kg H2SO4 solution is:
1) 900.0 g 2) 469 g 3) 882.0 g 4) 9.0 g
27
Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
7. Calculate the concentration of nitric acid in moles per litre. The sample has a density, 1.41 g mL–1 and
mass percentage 69%
1) 15.44 M 2) 11.8 M 3) 19 M 4) 8 M
8. How many years it would take to spend Avogadro’s number of rupees at the rate 10 lakhs per second?
1) 1010 years 2) 1.8 109 years
3) 1.9 1010 years 4) 1.9 109 years
9. Air contains nearly 20% oxygen by volume. The volume of air needed for complete combustion of 100
ml of acetylene will be
1) 500 ml 2) 100 ml
3) 250 ml 4) 1250 ml
10. What is the empirical formula of vanadium oxide, if 2.74 g of the metal oxide contains 1.53 g of metal?
(Atomic mass of vanadium = 52 u )
1) V2O3 2) VO 3) V2O5 4) V2O7
11. The mass of one atom of silver atom (atomic mass of Ag = 108) in g is ?
1) 1.8 × 10-22 g 2) 1.8 × 10-23 g
3) 108 g 4) 6.023 × 1023 g
12. If Avogadro number NA, is changed from 6.022 × 1023 mol-1 to 6.022 × 1020 mol-1, this would change
1) the ratio of elements to each other in a compound
2) the definition of mass in units of grams
3) the mass of one mole of carbon
4) the ratio of chemical species to each other in a balanced equation
13. An aqueous solution of sodium carbonate is prepared in a standard flask as shown below
Then the molarity of aqueous solution of Na2CO3 will be
1) 2.5 M 2) > 2.5 M
3) < 2.5 M 4) 2.5 M
28
Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
14. Suppose the elements X and Y combine to form two compounds XY2 and X3Y2. When 0.1 mole of XY2
weighs 10 g and 0.05 mole of X3Y2 weighs 9 g, the atomic weights of X and Y are
1) 30, 20 2) 40, 30 3) 60, 40 4) 20, 30
15. When 22.4 litres of H2(g) is mixed with 11.2 litres of Cl2 (g), each at S.T.P. the moles of HCl (g) formed
is equal to
1) 1 mol of HCl (g) 2) 2 mol of HCl (g)
3) 0.5 mol of HCl (g) 4) 1.5 mol of HCl (g)
LEVEL-II
1. A weighed sample of a metal is added to liquid bromine and allowed to react completely. The product
is then separated from any leftover reactants and weighed. The experiment is repeated with several
masses of metals but with the same volume of bromine and results being plotted. If 20 g of each metal
and bromine are allowed to react, determine the approximate weight of compound that will be formed
1) 20 g 2) 21 g 3) 22 g 4) 23 g
2. 6.0 g of a sample of potassium chlorate (KClO3) gave 1.9 g of oxygen on strong heating. What is the
percentage purity of the sample ?
1) 80.8 2) 85.6 3) 90.1 4) 99.8
3. To make 2.5 kg of 0.25 molal aqueous solution, determine the mass of urea (NH2CONH2) that is
required
1) 37.5 g 2) 37 g 3) 36.2 g 4) 38 g
4. A solution is obtained by mixing 300 g of 25 % solution and 400 g of 40 % solution by mass. Then the
mass percentage of the resulting solution is
1) 33.57 % by mass of solvent 2) 66.43 % by mass of solute
3) 33.57 % by mass of solute 4) 33.00 % by mass of solvent
5. If 1.202 g mL-1 is the density of 20 % aqueous KI, then the molality and molarity of the solution respectively
are
1) 1.51; 1.45 2) 1.45; 1.51 3) 1.67 ; 1.60 4) 1.60 ; 1.67
6. 1. If 1/6 in place of 1/2, mass of carbon atom is taken to be the relative atomic mass unit, the mass of
one mole of a substance will be
1) decrease twice 2) increase two folds
3) remains unchanged 4) be a function of the molecular mass of element5.
29
Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
7. Match the expressions/statement in column I with expressions/statement in column II
Column I Column II
(no. of moles)
A) oxygen atoms in 0.5 mol Ca3(PO4)2 P) 8
B) Carbon atoms in 89.6 L CH3 at 1 atm and 273 K Q) 4
C) Sulphur atoms in 192 g of SO2 R) 5
D) ‘Cl’ in 15 × 1023 molecules Cl2O [take NA = 6 × 1023]
1) A P;B Q;C S; D T 2) A Q;B Q;C S;D R
3) A Q; B P;C S; D R 4) A P;B Q;C S;D R
8. From the following reaction sequence,
2CoF2 F2 2CoF3
CH2 n 4nCoF3 CF2 n 2nHF 4nCoF2
Calculate, how much F2 will be consumed to produce 1 kg of (CF2)n.
1) 1.26 kg 2) 1.38 kg 3) 1.52 kg 4) 1.86 kg
9. A mixture of 2.3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic acid is treated with conc. H2SO4. The evolved gaseous
mixture is passed through KOH pellets. Weight (in g) of the remaining product at STP will be
1) 2.8 2) 3.0 3) 1.4 4) 4.4
10. A 2B 3C
AB2 C3 . Reaction of 6g of A, 6 1023 atom of B, 0.036 mol of C yields 4.8 g of
compound AB2C3. If the atomic mass of A and C are 60 and 80 amu, respectively the atomic mass of
B is
1) 70 amu 2) 60 amu 3) 50 amu 4) 40 amu
11. Number of moles of NaOH required for the complete neutralisation of 50 mL 0.1 M HCl is
1) 5 × 10-3 mol 2) 10-4 mol 3) 5 × 10-4 mol 4) 5 mol
12. Nalorphene (C19H21NO3), similar to morphine is used to combat with dercoal symptoms in narxotic
users. Dose of nalorphene generally given is 1.5 mg. Calculate the mass of 1.5 × 10-3 m aqueous
solution required for the above close ?
1) 30 g 2) 3.6 g 3) 4.2 g 4) 4.8 g
13. A solution of urea in water is 3000 ppm by weight. If density of this solution is 1.04 g/mL, determine the
molar strength of this solution.
1) 0.046 M 2) 0.052 M 3) 0.061 M 4) 0.068 M
14. Determine volumetric composition in which a 5.0 N HCl solution is mixed with another 8.0 N HCl
solution in order to make one litre 6.0 N HCl solution ?
1) 386.62 mL 2) 555.55 mL 3) 666.67 mL 4) 782.86 mL
15. The density of a solution prepared by dissolving 120 g of urea (mol. mass = 60 u) in 1000 g of water is
1.15 g/ml. The molarity of this solution
1) 0.50 M 2) 1.78 M 3) 1.02 M 4) 2.05 M
30
Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
CHAPTER - 02
CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS
AND PERIODICITY IN PROPERTIES
QUESTIONS
[HOMEWORK]
1. Lothar Meyer obtained the curve indicating periodic variation in properties of elements by plotting
atomic volume of elements against
1) Atomic number 2) Atomic weight 3) Density 4) Melting point
2. The periodic law which states that the properties of elements are periodic functions of their atomic
weight was first published by
1) Lothar Meyer 2) Mendeleev 3) Vant Hoff 4) de-Chancourtois
3. Modern periodic law states that the physical and chemical properties of elements are periodic functions
of their
1) Atomic number 2) Atomic mass
3) Atomic volume 4) Atomic radius
4. The number of elements that are known at present including the recently discovered and officially
named man made element is
1) 106 2) 103 3) 116 4) 118
5. Name given to gallium by mendeleev was
1) Eka aluminium 2) Eka silicon 3) Eka zinc 4) Eka germanium
6. Which of the following pairs consists of metalloid elements?
1) Na and K 2) F and Cl 3) Ca and Mg 4) As and Si
7. The IUPAC symbol of the element 119
1) Uue 2) Unp 3) Uue 4) Uee
8. Which one of the following sets of ions represents the collection of isoelectronic species?
1) K , CI , Mg 2 ,Sc3 2) Na , Ca 2 ,Sc3 , F
3) K , Ca 2 ,Sc3 , Cl 4) Na , Mg 2 , Al3 , Cl
9. In group 17, the highest negative value of egH is observed with:
1) F 2) Cl 3) Br 4) I
31
Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
10. More than 78% of all the known elements are
1) metals 2) non metals 3) gases 4) metalloids
11. The element with atomic number Z = 100 is a/an
1) Transition metal 2) Inner transition metal
3) Alkaline earth metal 4) Alkali metal
12. The total number of elements present in the first three periods in the modern long form of the periodic
table is
1) 8 2) 18 3) 20 4) 36
13. The group 13 element recently discovered is
1) Gallium 2) Thallium 3) Nihonium 4) Moscovium
14. The element with atomic number (z) = 74 belongs to
1) Group 7, Period 5, p - block 2) Group 17, period 6, p - block
3) Group 6, period 6, d - block 4) Group 3, period 6, f - block
15. The element used in jewellery occupying the position 10th group of 6th period in the long form of the
periodic table is
1) Ag 2) Au 3) Cu 4) Pt
16. Vander waal radius is
1) Twice the bond length between two atoms of the same element
2) Half of bond length between two atoms of the same element
3) Almost equal to bond length between two atoms of the same element
4) Half the distance between nucleii of two non bonded atoms of the same element in collided state
17. Atomic radius of F, Li & Ne is in the order
1) Li>F>Ne 2) Li>Ne>F 3) F>Li>Ne 4) Ne>Li>F
18. Which pair of elements among the following have atomic radii very close to each other?
1) Li and Na 2) Ti and Zr 3) Zr and Hf 4) La and Hf
19. What would be the atomic number of next alkaline earth metal to be synthesised?
1) 118 2) 119 3) 120 4) 122
20. iH1 , iH 2 and iH 3 of an element ‘M’ are 750, 1500 and 7750 kJ mol-1 respectively. The stable for-
mula of its iodide would be:
1) MI 2) MI2 3) MI3 4) MI4
21. The correct order of negative electron gain enthalpy of the elements of oxygen family in the periodic
table is
1) O > S > Se 2) S > O > Se
3) S > Se > O 4) Se > O > S
22. For electron affinity of halogens which of the following is correct
1) Br> F 2) F>Cl 3) Br>Cl 4) F>I
32
Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
23. Electronegativity of an element depends on:
i) Oxidation state ii) Hybridisation state
iii) Effective nuclear charge iv) Covalent radius or bond length
1) (i) & (ii) 2) (i) & (iii) 3) (iii) & (iv) 4) (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)
24. Which of the following is/are related to electro negativity of an element?
i) Basic/acidic nature of oxides and hydroxides ii) Oxidising /reducing ability of an element
iii) Ionic character of a bond iv) Bond angle
1) i & ii 2) iv 3) i, ii & iv 4) i, ii, iii & iv
25. On Mullicken scale , the electro negativity value of an element ‘X’ is 11.2. The value of its electron
negativity on Pauling scale would be nearly
1) 2 2) 3.5 3) 2.7 4) 4
26. Which one of the following orders presents the correct sequence of the increasing basic nature of the
given oxides?
1) Na 2 O K 2 O MgO Al 2 O3
2) K 2 O Na 2 O Al2 O3 MgO
3) Al2 O3 MgO Na 2 O K 2 O
4) MgO K 2 O Al2 O3 Na 2 O
27. First number of each of the groups 1, 2, 13-17 differ in many respects from other members of their
respective groups because of
i) small size ii) high electronegativity iii) absence of d-orbitals in valence shell
iv) absence of isotopes
1) i & ii 2) iii 3) i, ii & iii 4) i, ii, iii & iv
28. The elements EKa aluminium and EKa solicon predicted by Mendeleev are
1) Se & Y 2) Ga & Ge 3) Ce & Fr 4) Ra & Ac
29. The heaviest halogen recently discovered is
1) Moscovium (Mc)
2) Tennessine (Ts)
3) Nihonium (Nh)
4) Livermorium (Lv)
30. The first and last element of fourth period of modern long form of periodic table are
1) Na & Ar 2) K and Kr 3) Rb and Xe 4) Mg and Kr
31. 71st electron of an element (X) with an atomic number 71 enters into the orbital
1) 4f 2) 6p 3) 6s 4) 5d
32. The element having highest difference between first and second ionisation energies is
1) Ca 2) Sc 3) Ba 4) K
33
Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
33. Assertion : Properties of Beryllium is similar to that of aluminium
Reason : Both the elements belongs to same group
1) both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
2) both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion
3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False
4) both Assertion & Reason are False
34. Considering the first 104 elements how many periods are there in the modern long form of periodic
table?
1) 5 2) 6 3) 7 4) 8
35. The Ist Ionisation enthalpy of Na, Mg and Si are 496, 737, 776kJmol–1 respectively then what will be the
Ist ionisaiton enthalpy of Al in kJmol–1
1) > 766 kJmol–1 2) > 496 and < 737 kJmol–1
3) > 737 and < 766 kJmol–1 4) >496 kJmol–1
36. Which one of the following arrangements represents the correct order of negative electron gain enthalpy
of the given atomic species
1) F<Cl<O<S 2) S<O<Cl<F 3) O<S<F<Cl 4) Cl<F<S<O
37. The first ionisaiton potential of Na is 5.1eV. The value of electron gain enthalpy of Na+ will be
1) –2.55eV 2) -5.1eV 3) -10.2eV 4) +2.55eV
38. Correct order of EN is
1) P<S<N<O 2) S<N<P<O 3) N<O<S<P 4) P=S=N<O
39. The element with 3d24s2 outer electronic configuration is placed in the which block of periodic table?
1) s- block 2) p-block 3) d-block 4) f-block
40. The element with which of the following electronic configurations is expected to have largest difference
between iH 2 and iH3 it is:
1) 1s 2 2s 2 2p1 2) 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s1 3) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 4) 1s 2 2s2 2p6 3s 2 3p6
41. A maximum difference between first ionisation enthalpy is observed for the pair:
1) Li & Na 2) Na & K 3) K & Rb 4) Rb & Cs
42. In which of the following arrangements the order is NOT according to the property indicated against it?
1) Al3 Mg 2 Na F - increasing ionic size
2) B<C<N<O-increasing first ionization energy
3) I<Br<F<Cl-increasing electron gain enthalpy (with negative sign)
4) Li<Na<K<Rb - increasing metallic radius
43. Which among the following is incorrect?
1) 57 La is a d-block element 2) 92 U is an f-block element
3) 80 Hg (Mercury) is an actinide 4) 88 Ra is an s-block element
34
Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
44. Which among the following is/are correct order of first ionisation energy?
i) Ag > Cu > Au ii) Sc > Y > La iii) Pd < Pt < Ni iv) Al Ga < B
1) i only 2) i and iii
3) ii and iv 4) ii, iii and iv
45. Which among the following statements is/are incorrect?
i) The electron affinity of Si is greater than that of C
ii) BeO is amphoteric while B2O3 is acidic
iii) The first ionisation energy of Tl is less than that of Al
iv) Ionisation energy of elements of copper series is less than that of the respective elements of zinc
group
1) i and iii 2) ii and iv
3) i, iii and iv 4) iii only
46. The element Z = 114 has been discovered recently. It belongs to which of the family/group and electronic
configuration ?
1) Carbon family [Rn] 5f14 6d10 7s2 7p2
2) Oxygen family [Rn] 5f14 6d10 7s2 7p4
3) Nitrogen family [Rn] 5f14 6d10 7s2 7p3
4) Halogen family [Rn] 5f14 6d10 7s2 7p5
[NEET - 2017]
47. The species Ar, K+ and Ca2+ contain the same number of electrons. In which order do their radii
increase ?
1) Ca2+ < K+ < Ar 2) K+ < Ar < Ca2+
3) Ar < K+ < Ca2+ 4) Ca2+ < Ar < K+
[AIPMT - 2015]
48. Which of the following ionic radii is correctly represented ?
1) H– > H > H+ 2) Na+ > F– > O2–
3) F– > O2- > Na+ 4) Al3+ > Mg2+ > N3-
[AIPMT - 2014]
49. A sudden jump between the values of second and third ionisation enthalpies of an element would be
associated with the electronic configuration
1) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 2) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p1
3) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p2 4) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2
[AIIMS - 2014]
50. Which of the following set has the strongest tendency to form anions ?
1) Ga, In & Tl 2) Na, Mg & Al
3) N, O & S 4) V, Cr & Mn
[AIIMS - 2013]
35
Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
LEVEL - I
1. Which among the following is not a Dobereiner’s triad ?
1) Li, Na, K 2) Ca, Sr, Ba 3) Cl, Br, I 4) Ti, Zr, Hf
2. The element Eka Aluminium and Eka Silicon predicted by Mendeleev are respectively
1) Gallium and Germanium 2) Gallium and Indium
3) Germanium and tin 4) Thallium and Germanium
3. Which among the following has the largest atomic radius ?
1) Li 2) F 3) Na 4) Cl
4. Among Mg, Mg2+, Al and Al3+ the largest and smallest species are respectively
1) Al and Mg 2) Mg and Al3+ 3) Al and Mg3+ 4) Mg2+ and Al3+
5. The correct order of first ionisation enthalpy is
1) Li < Be < B < C < N 2) N > C > B > Be > Li
3) N > C > Be > B > Li 4) C > N > Be > B > Li
6. Which pair of elements among the following exhibit diagonal relationship ?
1) Li and Na 2) Be and Na 3) Li and Mg 4) Mg and B
7. While moving from left to right across a period
1) non metallic character increases 2) ionisation enthalpy decreases
3) electronegativity decreases 4) atomic radius increases
8. Which oxide among the following is neutral in nature ?
1) Na2O 2) Cl2O7 3) Al2O3 4) N2O
9. Which of the following sets of atomic numbers correspond to only transition elements?
1) 11, 14, 22, 42 2) 13, 33, 54, 83 3) 24, 39, 74, 80 4) 19, 32, 51, 101
10. Which among the following gives the variation of atomic radius with atomic number across second
period?
1) 2)
3) 4)
36
Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
11. Five successive ionisation enthalpies of an element are 805, 2425, 3658, 25024 and
32818 kJmol-1 respectively. The number of valence electron in an atom of this element is:
1) 1 2) 3 3) 2 4) 4
12. The least metallic alkali metal and the most metallic halogen are respectively
1) Lithium and fluorine 2) Caesium and Fluorine
3) Lithium and Astatine 4) Caesium and Astatine
13. Electronic configurations of four elements A, B, C and D are given below
(i) 1s22s22p6 (ii) 1s22s22p4 (iii) 1s22s22p63s1 (iv) 1s22s22p5
Which of the following is the correct order of increasing tendency to gain electron
1) (i)<(iii)<(ii)<(iv) 2) (i)<(ii)<(iii)<(iv) 3) (iv)<(ii)<(iii)<(i) 4) (iv)<(i)<(ii)<(iii)
14. If the electronegativities of elements P, Q, R and S are respectively 0.8, 1.2, 1.8 and 2.5. The hydroxide(s)
that is/are basic is/are
i) P(OH) ii) Q(OH) iii) R(OH) iv) S(OH)
1) iv only 2) iii and iv 3) ii, iii and iv 4) i, ii and iii
15. The pair of amphoteric hydroxides is
1) Al(OH)3, LiOH 2) Be(OH)2, Mg(OH)2
3) B(OH)3, Be(OH)2 4) Be(OH)2, Zn(OH)2
LEVEL-II
1. The temporary three letter symbol alloted by IUPAC to a newly discovered element was Uuh. The
official name of the element is
1) Seaborgium 2) Coppernicium 3) Flerovium 4) Livermorium
2. Among the elements Ca, Mg, P and Cl the order of increasing atomic radii is
1) Cl < P < Mg < Ca 2) P < Cl < Ca < Mg
3) Ca < Mg < P < Cl 4) Mg < Ca < Cl < P
3. Choose the incorrect statement among the following
1) First ionisation enthalpy of Na is less than that of Mg
2) Third ionisation enthalpy of Mg is greater than that of Al
3) First ionisation enthalpy of Al is less than that of Mg
4) Second ionisation enthalpy of Nitrogen is greater than that of Oxygen
4. The endothermic processes among the following are
i) Na g Nag e ii) Cl g e Cl g
iii) N g e Ng iv) O g 2e O2g
v) P e Pg
1) i and iv 2) iii and iv 3) i, iii and iv 4) All except ii
37
Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
5. Electronegativity has no unit and EN of X and Y are 3.0 and 1.0 respectively. What is percentage ionic
character of XY
1) 46 2) 52 3) 38 4) 74
6. Match the element in column I with that in column II
Column I Column II
a) Copper i) Non metal
b) Fluorine ii) Transition metal
c) Silicon iii) Lanthanoid
d) Cerium iv) Metalloid
1) a - ii, b - iv, c - i, d - iii
2) a - ii, b - i, c - iv, d - iii
3) a - iv, b - iii, c - i, d - ii
4) a - i, b - ii, c - iii, d - iv
7. Identify the incorrect match
Name IUPAC official
a) Unnilunium i) Mendelevium
b) Unniltrium ii) Lawrencium
c) Unnilhexium iii) Seaborgium
d) Unununnium iv) Darmstadtium
1) a, i 2) b, ii 3) c, iii 4) d, iv
8. B has a smaller first ionisation enthalpy than Be. Consider the following statements
i) It is easier to remove 2p electron than 2s electron
ii) 2p electron of B is more shielded from the nucleus by the inner core of electrons than 2s-electron of
Be
iii) 2s-electrons has more penetrating power than 2p-electron
iv) Atomic radius of B is more than Be.
The correct statements are
1) i, ii and iii 2) ii, iii and iv
3) i, iii and iv 4) i, ii and iv
9. For the second period elements the correct increasing order of first ionisation enthalpy is
1) Li < Be < B < C < O < N < F < Ne
2) Li < Be < B < C < N < O < F < Ne
3) Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne
4) Li < B < Be < C < N < O < F < Ne
38
Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
10. The formation of oxide ion from oxygen atom requires first an exothermic and then an endothermic
step as shown below
O g e O (g) H 0 141kJ mol 1
O g e O2 (g) H 0 780 kJ mol1
Thus the process of formation of O2– ions in gas phase is unfavourable eventhough O2– is isoelectronic
with Neon. It is due to the fact that
1) oxygen is more electronegative
2) addition of electron in oxygen results in larger size of the ion
3) electron repulsion out weighs the stability gained by achieving noble gas configuration
4) O– ion has comparitively smaller size than oxygen atom
11. Match the following
Oxide Nature
a) CO i) Basic
b) BaO ii) Neutral
c) Al2O3 iii) Acidic
d) Cl2O7 iv) Amphoteric
1) a - i, b - ii, c - iii, d - iv 2) a - ii, b - i, c - iv, d - iii
3) a - iii, b - iv, c - i, d - ii 4) a - iv, b - iii, c - ii, d - i
12. One mole magnesium in vapour state absorb 1200 kJ energy. If the first and second ionisation enthalpies
of Mg are 750 and 1450 kJ mol–1 respectively. The final mixture contains
1) 69% Mg+ 2) 69% Mg2+ 3) 31% Mg+ 4) 59% Mg2+
13. X g X g e , H 720kJmol1
Calculate the amount of energy required to convert 110mg of ‘X’ atom in gaseous state into X+ ion.
(Atomic wt. for X = 7g/mol)
1) 10.4kJ 2) 12.3kJ 3) 11.3kJ 4) 14.5kJ
14. If bond length A2 molecules is 0.8A0, Cl2 molecule 1.98 A0 and EN of A & Cl differ by one unit the bond
length A–Cl is
0 0 0 0
1) 1.39 A 2) 1.30 A 3) 2.78 A 4) 2.60 A
15. Which among the following ions have radius greater than F– (not solvated ions)
i) H– ii) Cl– iii) Br– iv) I–
1) iii and iv 2) ii, iii and iv 3) i, ii, iii and iv 4) i and iv1.
39
Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
BIOLOGY
CHAPTER - 01
LIVING WORLD
QUESTIONS
[HOMEWORK]
1. Science of life forms and living processes is called :
1) Zoology 2) Botany 3) Biology 4) All of these
2. Select the incorrect statement from the following :
1) Plants growth is indefinite till the end of their life span
2) In animals there is no cell division after their maturity
3) Growth is a result of increase in mass and number of cells
4) Mountain and sand mounds also grow
3. Total number and type of organism present on earth constitute
1) Biodiversity 2) Ecosystem 3) Population 4) Community
4. True regeneration can be observed in
1) Hydra 2) Planaria 3) Fungi 4) Bacteria
5. Which of the following is absent in animals after attaining maturity :
1) Growth 2) Reproduction 3) Repair 4) Metabolism
6. Which of the following is defining character of living organism
1) Reproduction 2) Locomotion
3) Response to external stimuli 4) Growth
7. Taxonomical process involves
1) Identification 2) Classification and nomenclature
3) Characterisation 4) All the above
8. In the system of Binomial nomenclatutre , each living organism has
1) One name with three components
2) Two names, one Latin and other common
3) One scientific name with two components
4) Two scientific name with single components
40
Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
9. Which of the following scientific name is more correct
1) Mangifera indica 2) Mangifera Indica
3) Mangifera indica 4) Mangifera indica Linn.
10. Term systematics was derived from——— word “systema” which means ——-
1) Greek, Evolutionary classification
2) English, Taxonomy of organism
3) Latin, Systematics arrangement of organisms
4) Greek classification of organisms
11. Sceintific name of animals are standardised by :
1) ICBN 2) ICZN 3) ICNB 4) ICVN
12. Which of the following pair is wrongly matched about taxonomic arrangement of Humans
1) Scientific name- Homo sapiens 2) Family- Hominidae
3) Order- Diptera 4) Class- Mammalia
13. Which of the following include minimum number of organisms
1) Phylum 2) Family 3) Genus 4) Order
14. A taxonomic group of any rank is called
1) Taxon 2) Genus 3) Variety 4) Hierarchy
15. Label of a herbarium sheet doesn’t contain
1) Name of the collector 2) Height of the plant
3) Date of collection 4) Local name
16. Indian Botanical Garden is situated at
1) Dehradun 2) Chandigarh
3) Howrah 4) Lucknow
17. A taxonomic aid which provide index to the plant species found in a particular area
1) Flora 2) Fauna
3) Key 4) Monograph
18. A taxonomical aid which have collections of plants and animals in preserved, stuffed or skeletal form
1) Herbarium 2) Museum
3) Botanical garden 4) Zoo
19. Each statement in the taxonomic key is called as
1) Taxon 2) Couplet 3) Lead 4) Category
20. Taxonomical aid useful for providing information for identifying names of species found in an area :
1) Key 2) Monographs
3) Manuals 4) Catalogues
41
Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
21. Binomial nomenclature is given by
1) Theophrastus 2) Carolus Linnaeus
3) Jullian Huxelly 4) Bentham and Hooker
22. Which of the following process is basic to taxonomy
1) Characterization 2) Identification
3) Classification and Nomenclature 4) All the above
23. The author of ‘Systema Naturae’ is :
1) Linnaeus 2) John Ray
3) de Candole 4) Ernst Mayer
24. Solanum, Petunia and Datura includes family :
1) Solanaceae 2) Felidae 3) Canidae 4) Poaceae
25. Which of the following is not a taxonomical aid
1) Botanical garden 2) Biosphere reserve
3) Zoological park 4) Museum
26. In plant kingdom taxon phylum is replaced by
1) Order 2) Division 3) Class 4) Kingdom
27. Find the correct matching from the following :
a) Fungi i) Fragmentation
b) Hydra ii) Self - consciousness
c) Filamentous algae iii) Spore formation
d) Human being iv) Budding
1) a - iii, b - i, c - ii, d - iv 2) a - iii, b - iv, c - i, d - ii
3) a - iv, b - ii, c - i, d - ii 4) a - ii, b - iv, c - iii, d - i
28. The scientific name of human being is ‘Homo sapian’. In this ‘Sapian’ represent :
1) Genus 2) Species
3) Specific epithet 4) Family
29. Species like nigrum and melongena belong to the genus :
1) Triticum 2) Mangifera 3) Solanum 4) Musca
30. The taxonomic hierarchy ‘family’ is between :
1) Genus and species 2) Genus and order
3) Order and phylum 4) Class and kingdom
31. Aggregation of closely related species form :
1) Family 2) Genus 3) Order 4) Class
32. Name the taxonomical aid which serve as quick referral material :
1) Flora 2) Botanical garden 3) Herbaria 4) Monograph
42
Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
LEVEL I
1. Which of the following is a character common to both living and nonliving things :
1) Reproduction 2) Growth
3) Metabolism 4) Cell division
2. Which of the following is wrongly matched pair about organisms and its common reproductive
mechanism
1) Bacteria-Binary fission 2) Yeast-Fragmentation
3) Fungi- Asexual reproduction 4) Hydra- Budding
3. Select true statement from the following
1) All metabolic reactions are taking place only in living system
2) Isolated metabolic reaction can be conducted outside living system
3) Isolated metabolic reactions in vitro are living things and living reactions
4) All the above
4. Select wrong statement from the following :
1) The word ‘systematics’ is derived from Latin
2) ‘Systema’ means systematic arrangement of taxonomic categories
3) Systematics takes into account evolutionary relationship between organism
4) None of these
5. Which of the following statement is false
1) Biological names are generally in Latin and Printed in italics
2) Both the words in a biological name, when hand written are jointly underlined
3) The binomial system given by Linnaeus being practiced by biologist all over the world
4) In binomial system, first component is genus name and second word is specific epithet
6. Book written by Linnaeus as the authentic reference of binomial nomenclature
1) Genera plantrum 2) Origin of species
3) Systema nature 4) Historia plantrum
7. Systemic arrangement of taxonomic categories is
1) Taxonomy 2) Heirarchy
3) key 4) Classification.
8. Which is the correct order
1) Kingdom-Division-Class-Order- Family- Genus- Species
2) Kingdom- Class- Division- Order- Family- Genus- Species
3) Kingdom- Order- Class- Division- Family_ Genus- Species
4) Species-Genus-Order- Family- Class- Division- Kingdom
43
Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
9. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched
Common name Family Order
1) House fly Muscidae Diptera
2) Man Hominidae Primata
3) Cat Canidae Carnivora
4) Wheat Poaceae Poales
10. In case of plants, classes with a few similar characters are assigned to a higher category called
1) Kingdom 2) Order
3) Phylum 4) Division
11. Which of the following statement is wrong
1) Lion, Tiger and Leopard are belonging to same genus Panthera
2) Triticum aestivum come under the order Poales
3) An order include related Classes
4) Convolvulaceae , Solanaceae like families are belonging to the order Polymoniales based on
floral characters
12. Herbarium technique involve
1) Drying and Pressing
2) Mounting and Stitching
3) Labelling and storing
4) all the above
13. Statement not true for Keys
1) Taxonomical aid used for identification of both plants and animals
2) Separate Keys are used for each taxonomical category such as family, genus, and Species
3) Contrasting characters in a pair is called couplets
4) It is a scheme for the identification of plants only
14. The famous largest Botanical garden in the world is
1) Indian Botanical Garden
2) Royal Botanical Garden
3) National Botanical Garden
4) Tropical Botanical Garden and Research Institute
15. Place of protected area for wild animals outside their natural habitat is
1) herbarium
2) Museum
3) Zoological park
4) Wild life sanctuaries
44
Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
LEVEL II
1. Select correct statement for growth as one of the characters of living organism
1) Growth by increase in mass is a defining property of prokaryotic organisms only
2) Growth can be intrinsic or extrinsic for multicellular organisms
3) Intrinsic growth is a character of all living organisms
4) Non-living objects do not show growth by increase in mass
2. What do A ,B and C represent respectively in the given scientific name represented
Triticum aestivum Linn
C B A
1) Generic name, specific name and authors name
2) Specific name , generic name and authors name
3) Authors name, specific name and generic name
4) Generic name, authors name and specific name
3. Find out the mismatch
1) Systema Nature - Linneaeus
2) Genera plantrum - Benthem and Hooker
3) Species Plantrum - Huxley
4) Taxonomical aid key - John Ray
4. The total number of species that are known and discribed range between :
1) 17 - 18 million 2) 1.7 - 1.8 billion 3) 1.7 - 1.8 million 4) 0.17 - 0.18 million
5. The taxon having maximum morphological similarity is in :
1) Species 2) Genus 3) Family 4) Order
6. Taxonomic hierarchy refers to
1) A group of senior taxonomist who decide the nomenclature of plants and animals
2) Step-wise arrangement of all categories for classification of plants and animals
3) A list of botanists or zoologist who have worked on taxonomy of a species
4) Classification a species based on fossil record
7. Hebarium sheet contains the information about
1) Place,locality and name of collector 2) Date and time
3) Name and family of species 4) All the above
8. Zoological park is :
1) A taxonomic aid
2) It is the place for learning about animals, food habits and behaviour
3) An example of in vitro animal preservation
4) All of the above
45
Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
9. Select the mismatched pair
1) Plant collection – Botanical garden
2) Plant preservation - Herbarium
3) Preserved plant and animals- Museum
4) Actual account of habitat and distribution of a given area – Monograph
10. Live specimens are used for reference in taxonomic studies in
1) Botanical garden 2) Museum 3) Zoological park 4) Both 1 and 3
11. Families are characterised on the basis of :
1) Floral features 2) Vegetative features
3) Both vegetative and reproductive features 4) Only reproductive features
12. Order in which potato comes under is :
1) Sapindales 2) Poales 3) Diptera 4) Polymoniales
13. As we go from species to kingdom the number of common characteristics goes on :
1) increasing 2) decreasing 3) cannot change 4) not predictable
46
Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
CHAPTER - 02
BIOLOGICAL CLASSIFICATION
QUESTIONS
[HOMEWORK]
1. Two kingdom system of classification proposed by :
1) R. H. Whittakker 2) Carolus Linnaeus 3) Ernst Haekal 4) Aristotle
2. What was the criteria followed by Aristotle for classifying plants :
1) Presence or absence of flowers 2) Simple morphological characters
3) Mode of Nutrition 4) Presence or absence of cell wall
3. Five kingdom classification proposed in :
1) 1987 2) 1996 3) 1969 4) 1967
4. True bacteria are :
1) Archaebacteria 2) Halophiles 3) Eubacteria 4) Methanogens
5. Rod shaped bacteria are grouped under :
1) Cocci type 2) Bacilli 3) Vibrio 4) Spirillum
6. All single celled Eukaryotes are put under :
1) Monera 2) Protista 3) Fungi 4) Plantae
7. Name the protista having cell wall with stiff cellulose cell plate :
1) Euglenoids 2) Dinoflagellates 3) Protozoans 4) Slime moulds
8. Which among the following follows heterotrophic mode of nutrition :
1) Fungi 2) Animalia 3) Protista 4) All
9. Holozoic nutrition is the characteristic feature of :
1) Monerans 2) Plantae 3) Animalia 4) Fungi
10. The Fungus “Aspergillus” belongs to which class of fungi :
1) Phycomycetes 2) Ascomycetes 3) Basidiomycete 4) Deuteromycetes
11. Viroids are discovered by :
1) T.O. Diener 2) Louis Pasteur 3) Ivanovsky 4) Beijerinek
12. Symbiotic association of Algae and Fungi forms Lichens. Algal partner is known as :
1) Algobiont 2) Mycobiont 3) Phycobiont 4) None
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Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
13. The most primitive kingdom according to Whittaker classification is
1) Protista 2) Monera 3) Plantae 4) Both 1 and 2
14. According to Whittaker’s classification Chlamydomonas comes under the kingdoms
1) Plantae 2) Monera 3) Protista 4) Fungi
15. Classification based on evolutionary relationship is called
1) Phenetics 2) Phylogenetic 3) Cytotaxonomy 4) Chaemotaxonomy
16. Slime moulds and protozoans comes under the kingdom :
1) Monera 2) Plantae 3) Protista 4) Fungi
17. In three domain system kingdom monera is divided into
1) Three domain 2) Six kingdom 3) Two kingdom 4) Three kingdom
18. Which group of organism shows most extensive metabolic diversity
1) Diatoms 2) Euglenoids 3) Protozoans 4) Bacteria
19. A cell wall less monera is
1) Halophiles 2) Methanogen 3) Mycoplasma 4) Cyanobacteria
20. Choose the correct combination from the options given
i) Cholera - a) Xanthomonas
ii) Typhoid - b) Clostridium
iii) Tetanus - c) Vibrio
iv) Citrus cancer - d) Salmonella
1) i d,ii c,iii a,iv b 2) i c,ii d,iii b,iv a
3) i b,ii c,iii a,iv d 4) i a,ii b,iii d,iv c
21. Among the following which organisms have cell wall in their reproductive phase while it is absent in
vegetative phase
1) Diatoms 2) Slime mould 3) Euglenoids 4) Dinoflagellates
22. Match the following and choose the correct options given below
A B
1) Protista a) Impart red colour to the sea
Exclusive parasitic group without
2) Gonyolax b)
locomotory organ
Connecting link between Monera
3) Fungal protista c)
to other higher kingdom
Vegetative phase represent
4) Sporozoans d)
plasmodium
1) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b 2) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d 3) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a 4) 1-a, 2-d, 3-c, 4-b
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Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
23. Among the following the mismatched pair is
1) Pencillium - Blue green mould 2) Rhizopus - Bread mould
3) Aspergillus - Pink mould 4) Yeast - Pseudomycelium
24. Identify the odd one out with regard to reproduction
1) Alternaria 2) Agaricus 3) Colletotrichum 4) Trichoderma
25. Among the following which one shows symbiotic association :
1) Diatoms 2) Sporozoans 3) Lichens 4) Slime moulds
26. Find the incorrect statement
1) They are intracellular obligate parasite 2) Virus contain both DNA and RNA as genetic material
3) Most animal infecting virus are DNA virus 4) Fully matured inactive virus are called virons
27. Count the wrong statement among the following
a) Reproductive organs are absent in club fungi
b) Phycomycetes are the most primitive fungi
c) Reduction of sexuality is the advanced character in fungi
d) Secondary mycelium is haploid in basidiomycetes
1) 3 2) 4 3) 2 4) 1
28. The evolutionary history of a group of organism is termed as
1) Taxonomy 2) Phylogeny 3) Evolution 4) Phenetics
29. A, B and C in the below chart represent
1) (1) Monera (2) Complex multicellular (3) Symbionts
2) (1) Progenote (2) Simple unicellular (3) Decomposer
3) (1) Slime moulds (2) Simple unicellular (3) Decomposer
4) (1) Monera (2) Simple unicellular (3) Decomposer
49
Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
30. Bacterial cell wall is called’Maurine’ because of the presence of
1) Mucilage sheath 2) Glucose amine
3) Muramic acid 4) Both glucosamine and Muramic acid
31. The “living fossil” are
1) Cyanobacteria 2) Actinomycetes
3) Chaemotropic bacteria 4) Archaebacteria
32. Cyanobacteria cultivated as a source of protein
1) Nostoc 2) Anabaena 3) Aulosira 4) Spirulina
33. Scientists related to the discovery of mycoplasma is/are
1) Ehrenberg 2) Zinder and Lederberg
3) Roux and Nocard 4) Leewenhoek
34. In Whittakers classification, Eukaryotes where assigned to
1) Only two of the five kingdom 2) Only three of the five kingdom
3) Only four of the five kingdom 4) All the five kingdom
35. The archaebacteria, occuring in Marshes, Swamps, Rumens of cattles are
1) Halophiles 2) Methanogens
3) Thermoacidophiles 4) None of the above
36. In the sexual life cycle of fungi, the fusion of protoplasms between two motile or non-motile gametes
is called :
1) Karyogamy 2) Apogamy 3) Autogamy 4) Plasmogamy
37. Select an asexual spore in fungi :
1) oospore 2) Basidiospore 3) Ascospore 4) Conidia
38. In Basidiomycetes and Ascomycetes, there is an intervening stage occurs called :
1) Dikaryon 2) Syncytium 3) Basidium 4) Ascus
39. Name the fungal group with aseptate and coenocytic mycelium :
1) Ascomycetes 2) Basidiomycetes
3) Oomycetes 4) Phycomycetes
40. The parasitic fungi on mustard is :
1) Mucor 2) Puccinia 3) Ustilago 4) Albugo
41. Which among the following is not a prokaryote?
1) Saccharomyces 2) Mycobacterium 3) Nostoc 4) Oscillatoria
42. Name the fungus group which reproduce only by asexual spores known as conidia :
1) Basidiomycetes 2) Ascomycetes
3) Morels 4) Deuteromycetes
43. Name the protists which have a cell wall with stiff cellulose plates on the outer surface :
1) Desmids 2) Sporozoans 3) Slime moulds 4) Dinoflagellates
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Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
44. The red tides caused by :
1) Noctiluca 2) Nostoc 3) Trypanosoma 4) Gonyaulax
45. Select the fresh water organisms found in stagnant water :
1) Slime moulds 2) Dinoflagellates 3) Euglenoids 4) Chrysophytes
46. After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores are produced exogenously in
1) Neurospora 2) Alternaria 3) Agaricus 4) Saccharomyces
47. Name the protist in which their body moves along decaying twigs and leaves engulfing organic food
material :
1) Protozoans 2) Slime moulds 3) Euglena 4) Sporozoans
48. Select which is an insectivorous plant :
1) Cuscutta 2) Loranthus 3) Parthenium 4) Bladder wort
49. The crystallisation of virus was done by :
1) M.W. Beijerinek 2) Twort
3) T.O. Diener 4) W.M. Stanley
50. W. M Stanley (1935) showed that virus could be crystallised and crystals consist largely of :
1) Protein 2) Lipids 3) Phospholipids 4) Nucleoproteins
51. Which of the following organisms are known as chief producers in the oceans?
1) Dinoflagellates 2) Diatoms 3) Cyanobacteria 4) Euglenoids
52. Identify the a, b, c, d marked in the given diagram.
1) A- Collar, B- Sheath, C-Head, D-Tail fibre
2) A- Head, B- Collar, C-Sheath, D-Tail fibre
3) A- Sheath, B- Collar, C-Head, D-Tail fibre
4) A- Head, B- Collar, C-Tail fibre, D-Sheath
53. Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in
1) using flagella for locomotion
2) having a contractile vacuole for removing excess water
3) using pseudopodia for capturing prey
4) having two types of nuclei
51
Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
54. Mixotrophic nutrition is found in :
1) Amoeba 2) Paramoecium 3) Plasmodium 4) Euglena
55. Viruses are not affected by antibiotics because:
1) They have no metabolism of their own
2) They have no cytoplasm and gentic material
3) They are nonliving entities
4) They are obligate superparasites
LEVEL - I
1. What was the main criteria used by R. H. Whittaker to make Five kingdom classification :
1) Body organisation 2) Mode of nutrition
3) Cell structure 4) All of the above
2. In five kingdom classification, chlamydomonas and chlorella coming under :
1) Kingdom Monera 2) Kingdom plantae 3) Kingdom Protista 4) Kingdom Animalia
3. Comma - shaped bacteria are known as :
1) Cocci type 2) Bacilli 3) Vibrio type 4) Spirillum type
4. Unicellular colonial or filamentous fresh water / marine or terrestrial prokaryotes are coming under :
1) Archaebacteria 2) Eubacteria 3) Cyanobacteria 4) Mycobacteria
5. Organisms commonly found in the guts of several ruminant animals like cow and buffaloes are :
1) Halophiles 2) Methanogens 3) Thermoacidophils 4) Mycoplasma
6. True nucleus is totally absent in :
1) Mucor 2) Volvox 3) Anabaena 4) Rhizopus
7. Which among the following is not a bacterial disease :
1) Citrus canker 2) Tetanus 3) Typhoid 4) Rust on wheat
8. Name the protists which are able to produce toxins and kills other marine animals :
1) Diatoms 2) Dinoflagellates 3) Euglenoids 4) Desmids
9. Saprophytic protists are :
1) Euglenoids 2) Dinoflagellates 3) Diatoms 4) Slime moulds
10. Find the mismatched pair from the following :
Column I Column II
1) Diatoms - Golden brown algae
2) Dinoflagellates - Red tide
3) Euglenoids - Mixotrophs
4) Slime moulds - Photosynthetic Protista
1) Both 1 & 2 are wrong 2) All are wrong
3) Only 4 is mismatch 4) 3 & 4 are wrong pairs
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Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
11. Rhizopus is a :
1) Ascomycetes 2) Phycomycetes
3) Basidiomycetes 4) Deuteromycetes
12. White rust of crucifers is caused by :
1) Phytophthora 2) Mucor
3) Rhizopus 4) Albugo
13. Asexual spores of Ascomycetes are nonmotile thin walled exogenously formed ones. They are :
1) Sporangiospores 2) Conidiospores
3) Zoospores 4) Aplanospores
14. The genetic material in virus is :
1) only RNA 2) only DNA
3) Either DNA or RNA 4) Protein and RNA
15. Bacteriophage is the name given to :
1) A bacterium that infects a virus
2) A virus which infects a bacterium
3) A bacterium which infects the animal cell
4) None
LEVEL - II
1. Which of the following are likely to be present in deep sea water?
1) Saprophytic fungus 2) Archaebacteria
3) Cyanobacteria 4) Eubacteria
2. Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis in :
1) Nostoc
2) Cycas
3) Chara
4) Green sulphur bacteria
3. Select the wrong statement from the following :
1) Cell wall is present in members of Fungi and Plantae
2) Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes
3) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding structures in Sporozoans
4) Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell in all kingdoms except Monera
4. Which of the following is a best source of many alkaloids and LSD?
1) Morels and Truffles 2) Claviceps 3) Pencillium 4) Agaricus
5. The imperfect fungi which are decomposers of litter and help in mineral cycling belong to :
1) Ascomycetes 2) Deuteromycetes 3) Basidiomycetes 4) Phycomycetes
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Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
6. Find the correct match from the table given below :
Name Feature Class
1) Ustilago Branched septate mycellium Basidiomycetes
2) Trichoderma Imperfect fungi Phycomycetes
3) Rhizopus Coenocytic mycellium Deutereomycetes
4) Penicillium Aseptate mycelium Ascomycetes
7. Which of the following statement is incorrect :
1) Morels and truffles are edible fungi
2) Conidia are produced exogenously and ascospores are produced endogenously
3) In club fungi (Basidiomycetes) karyogamy and meiosis takes place in the Basidium and produces
basidiospores exogenously
4) Yeasts have long filamentous bodies with aseptate hypha
8. Which of the following statement is correct?
1) Lichens do not grow in polluted areas
2) Algal component of Lichens is called Mycobiont
3) Fungal component of lichens is called Phycobiont
4) Lichens are not good pollution indicators
9. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
1) Viroids lack a protein coat
2) Viruses are obligate parasites
3) Infective constituent in viruses is the protein coat
4) Prions consists of abnormally folded proteins
10. Nucleic acids are totally absent in :
1) Virus 2) Bacteria
3) Viroids 4) Prions
11. In modern medicine certain infectious neurological diseases were found to be transmitted through
some organisms having abnormally folded protein - infectious proteins. They are :
1) Viroids 2) Virus
3) Prions 4) Mycoplasma
12. Which pair of disease is caused by virus :
1) Tetanus, cholera
2) Typhoid, sleeping sickness
3) Herpes, influenza
4) Rabies, Leprosy
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Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
13. Connecting link between plant and animals is :
1) Slime mould 2) Euglenoids 3) Mycoplasma 4) Paramoecium
14. Fungi cell wall is made up of :
1) Pectin 2) Chitin 3) Murin 4) Pseudomurine
15. In higher fungi a dikaryon is formed because :
1) Meiosis is arrested
2) The two haploid nuclei do not fuse immediately
3) Cytoplasm do not fuse
4) Their is no nuclear fusion
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Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
CHAPTER - 03
ANIMAL KINGDOM:
NON - CHORDATA
QUESTIONS
[HOMEWORK]
1. Cell aggregate body plan and cellular level of organisation is found in ;
1) Ctenophora 2) Protozoa
3) Porifera 4) Cnidaria
2. An intermediate host is present in;
1) Ancylostoma 2) Wuchereria
3) Enterobius 4) Ascaris
3. Which one of the following not related to Nemathelminthes
1) Exhibit sexual dimorphism
2) Free living, aquatic and terrestrial or parasitic in plants and animals
3) Internal fertilisation
4) Often males are longer than females
4. Select the common character found in largest and second largest phylum
1) All of them are triploblastic and exhibit internal fertilization only
2) Body is divisible into head, thorax and abdomen
3) All have a chitinous / calcareous exoskeleton
4) Mostly oviparous, coelomate, triploblastic animals with open circulation
5. Exclusively marine,spiny bodied, usually external fertilization, indirect development with free swimming
larva are the features related to;
1) Antedon, Cucumaria, Loligo, Aplysia, Dentalium
2) Pinctada, Balanoglossus, Asterias, Ophiura
3) Sea urchin, Sea cucumber, Sea fan, Sea pen, Sea star
4) Sea lilly, Sea urchin, Sea cucumber, Brittle star
6. Among the different phylums under non chordata, how many of them have, true coelom?
1) 3 2) 5
3) 4 4) 1
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Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
7. From the following which one is not relevant features of segmented /ringed worms
1) Hermaphrodites and External fertilization
2) Found in terrestrial, marine, fresh water habitat
3) Most of them have closed circulation with blood cells like RBCs
4) Nephridia for excretion and osmoregulation
8. Find the most diagnostic features of following group of animals
Ophiura, Antedon, Cucumaria
1) Presence of Cnidoblast on body wall and tentacles
2) Presence of water canal system
3) Calcareous spicules acts as endoskeleton
4) Water vascular system with terminal projections called tubefeet
9. Find the correct option regarding following organisms- Pila, Aplysia, Octopus, Sepia and Cuttle fish
1) Except Pila and Aplysia rest others have radial symmetry during adulthood
2) All of them are exclusively marine
3) Except Pila and Aplysia all others have a soft unsegmented body without a calcareous shell
4) All these animals posses bilateral symmetry in their whole life
10. Match the following group of organisms with their locomotory and respiratory organs
Column I Column II
A) Ctenoplana i) Setae and Moist skin
B) Pheretima ii) Paired wings and Trachea
Muscular foot and
C) Asterias iii)
Pulmonary sac
Comb plates and Body
D) Locust iv)
surface
Tube feet and Dermal
E) Pila v)
branchiae
ABCDE ABCDE
1) 2)
iv i iii ii v iv i v iii ii
ABCDE ABCDE
3) 4)
iv i v ii iii iv i ii v iii
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Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
11. How many of the following are correct and incorrect about the characteristics of pore bearing animals
a) Mostly sessile but some are free swimming
b) A primitive network of nervous system present
c) Water canal system helps for defence, prey capture and anchorage
d) Hermaphrodites, sexual reproduction, internal fertilisation and indirect development
e) Remarkable power of regeneration
1) 2 are incorrect but 3 are correct
2) 3 are incorrect but 2 are correct
3) 4 are correct but 1 is incorrect
4) 4 are incorrect but 1 is correct
12. Most molluscs have a soft spongy glandular layer of skin that covers the visceral hump, secrete ______?
1) Calcareous shell 2) Chitinous exoskeleton
3) Chitinous cuticle 4) Ctenidia
13. One among the following animal do not have an excretory organ / organ system.
1) Sacchoglossus 2) Antedon 3) Chiton 4) Loligo
14. Feather like gills or ctenidia present in;
1) Mantle cavity between shell and mantle
2) Pallial cavity between visceral hump and mantle
3) Mouth for feeding
4) Mantle cavity between shell and nacre
15. Brittle star, Sea urchin , Feather star are certain non chordate group of animals have an endoskeleton
of calcareous ossicles and spiny skinned body. Hence they are grouped under ;
1) Hemichordata 2) Mollusca 3) Arthropoda 4) Echinodermata
16. Locomotion, capture and transport of food and respiration are the functions performed through;
1) water canal system 2) water vascular system
3) Cnidoblast/cnidocytes 4) Haemocoelic circulation
17. Select the correctly matched organism with their common name and their most diagnostic feature
1) Echinus - Sea urchin and water canal system
2) Euplectella - Venus flower basket and water vascular system
3) Ctenoplana - Sea walnuts and comb plates
4) Adamsia - Sea fur and cnidoblasts
18. Identify the incorrect statement related with echinodermata
1) Digestive system is complete with dorsal anus and ventral mouth
2) All are sessile with free swimming larva.
3) Fertilisation is usually external
4) Head, brain and excretory system are absent
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Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
19. Those cnidarians which exist in both polyp and medusoid body forms exhibit;
1) Bioluminiscence
2) Alternation of generation or metagenesis
3) Ecdysis
4) Sexual dimorphism
20. In molluscs anterior head region has _____?
1) Mantle 2) Compound eyes
3) Sensory tentacles 4) Muscular foot
21. Excretory organ in Balanoglossus and Saccoglossus is:
1) Neural glands 2) Proboscis gland 3) Protonephridia 4) Malpighian tubules
22. From the following characteristics which one is not considered as a Non- chordate feature
1) Heart is dorsal, if present 2) Dorsal hollow, single nerve cord
3) Gill slits are absent 4) Post anal tail is absent
23. Select the incorrect feature about flatworms
1) Hooks and suckers are present in parasitic forms
2) Fertilisation is external and development is through single larva.
3) Some are showing high power of regeneration
4) Mostly endoparasites in animals
24. In segmented worms, their body surface is distinctly marked out into segments or metameres, hence
the phylum is named as;
1) Arthropoda 2) Mollusca
3) Aschelminthes 4) Annelida
25. In Arthropods their body can be divisible into distinct regions such as;
1) Head, Thorax, Abdomen 2) Proboscis, Collar and Trunk
3) Head, Visceral hump and Muscular foot 4) Head, Trunk and Tail
26. Soft, spongy glandular layer of skin covering the visceral mass is called
1) Radula 2) Ctenidia 3) Mantle 4) Nacre
27. In some animals the body is externally and internally divided into segments with a serial repetition of at
least some organs. It is found in;
1) Annelida, Arthropoda and chordata
2) Aschelminthes, Annelida and Arthropoda
3) Annelida, Arthropoda and Mollusca
4) Platyhelminthes, Annelida and Arthropoda
28. Select the correctly matched organism with their locomotory organ
1) Hydra - combplates 2) Pila - Tubefeet
3) Nereis - Parapodia 4) Pheretima - paired wings
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Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
29. Hemichordata was earlier considered as
1) subclass under chordata 2) Division under chordata
3) Subphylum under non- chordata 4) Subphylum under chordata
30. Identify the incorrect character about spiny skinned animals
1) Development is direct with free swimming larva
2) Exclusively marine and benthic forms
3) Larva is bilaterally symmetrical but adults are radially symmetrical
4) Most distinctive feature is water vascular system.
31. A vector mosquito which spreads yellow fever and Dengue fever is;
1) Female culex 2) Female Anopheles
3) Aedes 4) Musca domestica
32. Identify the correct set of animals which possess closed circulation
1) Pheretima, Devil fish, Leech and Lepisma
2) Loligo, Sepia, Octopus and Pheretima
3) Pila, Aplysia, Pheretima and Periplaneta
4) Nereis, Pheretima, Doliolum and Dentalium
33. In coelenterates the cnidoblasts or cnidocytes are present in their;
1) Tentacles only 2) Body surface only
3) Tentacles and body 4) Nematocysts
34. Ectoderm, Endoderm and Mesoderm are three germ layers formed around the embryonic gut at the;
1) Gastrula stage 2) Blastula stage
3) Morula stage 4) Blastocyst stage
35. Flagellated collared cells lining the walls of canals and spongocoel are;\
1) Pinacocytes 2) Collar cells
3) Trophocytes 4) Archaeocytes
36. From the following phylums which one is not considered as both eucoelomates and triploblastic
1) Aschelminthes 2) Annelida
3) Arthropoda 4) Mollusca
37. Select the correct statement related with soft unsegmented bodied animals
1) These are exclusively marine and benthic forms
2) Feather like gills for respiration and locomotion
3) Body is covered with calcareous shell in all forms
4) Mouth contains file like rasping organ for feeding called radula.
38. A structure similar to notochord, seen in hemichordates is;
1) Proboscis 2) Collar 3) Stomochord 4) Proboscis gland.
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Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
39. Match the following
A) Pinctada 1) Feather star
B) Antedon 2) Connecting link
C) Fasciola 3) Pearl oyster
D) Limulus 4) Liver fluke
E) Balanoglossus 5) Living fossil
A BCDE A BCDE A BCDE A BCDE
1) 314 2 5 2) 314 5 2 3) 31 54 2 4) 3 5 12 4
40. How many of the following phylums exhibit sexual reproduction only
Porifera, cnidaria, ctenophora, platyhelminthes, Arthropoda, Mollusca
1) 4 2) 3 3) 2 4) 4
41. Connecting link between non -chordata and chordata is ;
1) Hemichordata 2) Echinodermata 3) Mollusca 4) Urochonrdata
42. Most of the triploblastic animals are;
1) Eucoelomates and Dioecious 2) Acoelomates and monoecious
3) Acoelomates and Monoecious 4) Pseudocoelomates and Dioecious
43. Bilateral symmetry, Acoelom, Triploblastic condition are first appeared in
1) Round worms 2) Ringed worms 3) Flatworms 4) Pore bearing animals
44. Correct path of water canal system in sponges is;
1) Osculum Spongocoel Ostia outside
2) Spongocoel Osculum Ostia Outside
3) Ostia Canals Spongocoel Osculum Outside
side
4) Ostia Coelenteron Osculum Outside
45. Haemocoel is found in;
1) Annelida and Arthropoda only 2) Arthropoda and Mollusca
3) Platyhelminthes and Aschelminthes 4) Mollusca and Annelida
46. File like rasping organ present in mollusca is for;
1) Locomotion 2) Sensory function 3) Feeding 4) Excretion
47. Paired ganglia and double ventral solid nerve cords are the parts of nervous system in;
1) Annelida 2) Arthropoda 3) Mollusca 4) All of these
48. Find the most diagnostic features of following group of animals
Ophiura, Antedon, Asterias
1) Cnidoblast /Cnidocytes on body wall and Tentacles
2) Water canal system
3) Water vascular system
4) Jointed appendages
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Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
49. In segmented /ringed worms, organ which helps for both excretion and osmoregulation is;
1) Renette cells 2) Malpighian tubules 3) Protonephridia 4) Nephridia
50. Typical chordate character found in Hemichordates
1) Dorsal heart 2) Stomochord 3) Pharyngeal gills 4) Proboscis gland
LEVEL - I
1. Characters which not related with animal kingdom are ;
i) Members of animal kingdom exhibit eukaryotic and multicellular condition
ii) Classification helps to assigning a systematic position to newly described species
iii) Over a billion species of animals have been described till now
iv) Cnidarians are the only animal group exhibit tissue grade of organisation
1) i, ii, iii 2) iii, iv 3) ii, iii 4) i, ii
2. Digestive system has a single opening to the outside of the body that serves as both mouth and anus
found in ;
1) Round worms 2) Segmented worms
3) Flatworms 4) Ringed worms
3. Undifferentiated layer present between the two germ layers of diploblastic animals are;
1) Mesoglea 2) Mesoderm
3) Ectoderm 4) Endoderm
4. Select the mismatched pair from the following
1) Acoelom - Platyhelminthes
2) Eucoelom - Arthropoda and Mollusca
3) Pseudocoelom - Ctenophora
4) Segmentation - Annelida
5. Which of the following is not a function of water transport or canal system in poriferans
1) Food gathering 2) Respiratory exchange
3) Removal of waste 4) Locomotion
6. Poison filled stinging capsule inside the cnidoblasts are;
1) Hypostome 2) Coelenteron
3) Nematocyst 4) Corals
7. In ctenophores their body bears eight external rows of ciliated .....(a)....for .....(b).... Here ‘a’ and ‘b’
respectively as;
1) a - Cnidoblast, b - Locomotion
2) a - Comb plates; b - Defence and prey capture
3) a - Comb plates; b - Locomotion
4) a - Comb plates; b- Anchorage
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Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
8. Select the incorrectly matched option
1) Fasciola - Fascioliasis
2) Schistosoma - Taeniasis
3) Wuchereria - Dioecious
4) Ancylostoma - Hook worm
9. Aquatic annelids like Nereis possess lateral appendages for swimming and respiration is;
1) Nephridia 2) Setae 3) Parapodia 4) Moist skin
10. Match the following
A) Limulus 1) Excretion
B) Malpighian tubules 2) Respiration
C) Book gills and Book lungs 3) Living fossil
D) Statocyst 4) Silkworm
E) Bombyx 5) Balancing organ
A BC D E A BC D E A BC D E A BC D E
1) 2) 3) 4)
31 2 45 31 2 54 31 4 25 4 2 1 53
11. Respiratory organ present in the space between visceral hump and mantle is;
1) Radula 2) Pallium 3) Haemocyanin 4) Feather like gills
12. Which one of the following is not a function of water vascular system in Asterias, Echinus, Antedon etc
1) Locomotion 2) Copulation 3) Transport of food 4) Respiration
13. From the given features below, identify the incorrect one related with the organisms included in
Hemichordata
1) Exclusively marine and open circulation
2) External fertilisation and indirect development
3) Proboscis gland for excretion and hormone secretion
4) Body is elongated worm like without segmentation
14. Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate animals are exemplified by :
1) Ctenophora 2) Platyhelminthes 3) Aschelminthes 4) Annelida
15. Match the following genera with their respective phylum
a) Ophiura i) Mollusca
b) Physalia ii) Platyhelminthes
c) Pinctada iii) Echinodermata
d) Planaria iv) Coelenterata
Select the correct option
1) a - iv, b - i,c - iii, d - ii 2) a - i, b - iii, c - iv, d - ii
3) a - iii, b - iv, c - i, d - ii 4) a - iii, b - iv, c - ii, d - i
63
Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
LEVEL - II
1. How many of the following are correct about pore bearing animals
i) All are sessile without any exception
ii) Mostly marine but some are freshwater
iii) A central cavity present in body called coelenteron
iv) Body is supported with calcareous ossicles
v) Dioecious , Internal fertilisation and direct development
1) 3 2) 2 3) 4 4) 5
2. Which of the following is incorrect about the characteristics of cnidarians
1) Polyps are sessile, cylindrical form like Hydra, Adamsia etc
2) Polyp produce medusa sexually while medusa forms polyp asexually
3) Exhibit intracellular and extracellular digestion
4) Corals have skeleton composed of calcium carbonate
3. From the following how many features are common in Cnidaria and Ctenophora
i) Tissue grade of organisation
ii) Exhibit bioluminiscence
iii) Sexual reproduction only
iv) Colloblast for food capturing
v) External fertilisation and indirect development
1) 3 2) 4 3) 5 4) 2
4. Find the features not applicable to flatworms
1) First triploblastic , acoelomate invertebrate with organ level of organisation
2) Mostly endoparasites with hooks and suckers
3) Reproduce both sexually and asexually
4) Blind sac body plan and radial symmetry
5. Circular in cross- section, excretory tube with excretory pore, dioecious condition and internal fertilisation
are the features related to;
1) Ascaris, Planaria, Sea fan, Sea pen
2) Taenia, Fasciola, Ancylostoma, Wuchereria
3) Pleurobrachia, Pheretima, Nereis, Ascaris
4) Ascaris, Enterobius, Ancylostoma, Filarial worm
6. Which of the following is an irrelevant feature related to segmented / ringed worms
1) Marine , Freshwater, terrestrial and sometimes parasitic
2) Longitudinal and circular muscles aid in locomotion
3) Neural system consists of paired ganglia and single dorsal nerve cord
4) Exhibit sexual reproduction and external fertilisation
64
Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
7. Find the irrelevant feature related to the largest phylum is;
1) Constitute over two third of all named species on earth
2) Body is covered by calcareous exoskeleton
3) Nervous system comprise of nerve ring and double, solid, ventral nerve cord
4) Fertilisation is usually internal
8. How many of the following are related with soft unsegmented bodied or shelled animals
i) Body is divisible into head, thorax and abdomen
ii) Posterior head region has sensory tentacles
iii) Mouth contains a fle like rasping organ for feeding
iv) Usually dioecious , oviparous with indirect development
v) Mantle formed as a spongy layer covers the shell
1) 3 2) 2 3) 4 4) 5
9. Which one of the following is a characteristic feature of spiny bodied animals
1) Calcareous ossicles as exoskeleton and bilateral symmetry in adults
2) Absence of head, brain and excretory system
3) Digestive system is complete with lower or ventral anus and dorsal / upper mouth
4) Exclusively marine, sessile and indirect development with sessile larva.
10. Consider the following statements regarding Hemichordata and choose the right option
i) Triploblasty, Radial symmetry and pseudocoelom
ii) Closed circulation with blood and lymph
iii) Earlier considered as a subphylum under non-chordata
iv) Respiration takes place through gill slits
v) Body is elongated worm like that divisible into proboscis, collar and trunk
1) i, ii, iv, v are correct 2) iv and v are correct
3) iii, iv, v are correct 4) Only v is correct
11. Find the correct option regarding following organisms Taenia, Ascaris, Nereis, Periplaneta
1) Except Taenia, rest all have a complete digestive system
2) Ascaris and Nereis have internal fertilisation
3) Except Ascaris all others show metamerism
4) Periplaneta has compound eyes, rest others have simple eyes
12. Select the correctly matched organism with their excretory and respiratory structures respectively
1) Limulus Coxal glands and Trachea
2) Periplaneta Trachea and Malpighian tubules
3) Pila Ctenidia and book gills
4) Balanoglossus Proboscis gland and pharyngeal gills
65
Class (XI) - [SPN 2023 - Module - I]
13. Select the correct statement from the following
1) In roundworms mesoderm present as scattered pouches between ectoderm and endoderm
2) All flatworms exhibit metamerism
3) Most of the triploblastic animals are acoelomates
4) Sponges are radially symmetrical animals
14. Match the following columns and select the correct option
Column I Column II
a) Gregareous polyphagous pest i) Asterias
b) Adult with radial symmetry but larva with bilateral symmetry ii) Scorpion
c) Book lungs iii) Ctenoplana
d) Bioluminiscence iv) Locusta
a b c d
1) i iii ii iv
2) iv i ii iii
3) iii ii i iv
4) ii i iii iv
15. Consider the following features
i) Organ system level of organisation
ii) Bilateral symmetry
iii) True coelomates with segmented body
Select the correct option of animal groups which possess all the above characteristics
1) Annelida, Arthropoda and Mollusca
2) Arthropoda, Mollusca and chordata
3) Annelida, Mollusca, Chordata
4) Annelida, Arthropoda and Chordata
66
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