Situation

Nurse Jairo is admitting a patient with DM type I. In caring for patients with DM type I, it is imperative
that nurses must be knowledgeable about the different types of insulin and their respective duration to
promote safe patient care.

1. What is the duration of action of Humulin N?

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a. 18-24 hours

b. 20-22 hours
c. 21-23 hours
d. 16-20 hours

2. What is the duration of action of Lantus?

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a. >24 hours
b. 5-12 hours
c. 5-7 hours
d. 20-24 hours

Correct answer
a. >24 hours

3. What is the duration of action of Humulin R?

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a. 5-7 hours
b. 6-12 hours

c. 8-9 hours
d. 1-2 hours

Correct answer
a. 5-7 hours

4. What is the duration of action of Apidra?

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1/1

a. 3-5 hours

b. 6-7 hours
c. 6-9 hours
d. 6-8 hours

5. The nurse is administering the initial dose of a rapid-acting insulin to a client with DM type I.
The nurse should asses the client for hypoglycemia within:
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a. 3 hours

b. 0.5 hours
c. 1 hours
d. 2 hours
Situation
Mr. Ibarra is assigned to the triage area and while on duty, he assesses the condition of Mrs. Simon who
came in with asthma. She has difficulty breathing and her respiratory rate is 40 per minute. Mr. Ibarra is
asked to inject the client epinephrine 0.3mg subcutaneously

6. The indication for epinephrine injection for Mrs. Simon is to:

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a. Reduce anaphylaxis
b. Relieve hypersensitivity to allergen
c. Relieve respiratory distress due to bronchial spasm

d. Restore client's cardiac rhythm

7. When preparing the epinephrine injection from an ampule, the nurse initially:
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a. Taps the ampule at the top to allow fluid to flow to the base of the ampule
b. Checks expiration date of the medication ampule
c. Removes needle cap of syringe and pulls plunger to expel air
d. Breaks the neck of the ampule with a gauze wrapped around it

8. Mrs. Simon is obese. When administering a subcutaneous injection to an obese patient. It is

best for the nurse to:
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a. Inject needle at a 15 degree angle over the stretched skin of the client
b. Pinch skin at the injection site and use airlock technique
c. Pull skin of patient down to administer the drug in a Z track

d. Spread skin or pinch at the injection site and inject needle at a 45-90 degree angle

Correct answer
d. Spread skin or pinch at the injection site and inject needle at a 45-90 degree angle

9. When preparing for a subcutaneous injection, the proper size of syringe and needle would be:
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a. Syringe 3ml and needle gauge 21 to 23

b. Tuberculin syringe 1 ml with needle gauge 26 or 27
c. Syringe 2ml and needle gauge 22
d. Syringe l-3ml and needle gauge 25 to 27

10. The rationale for giving medications through the subcutaneous route is;
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a. There are many alternative sites for subcutaneous injection

b. Absorption time of the medicine is slower

c. There are less pain receptors in this area

d. The medication can be injected while the client is in any position
Situation
The use of massage and meditation to help decrease stress and pain have been strongly recommended
based on documented testimonials.
11. Martha wants to do a study on the topic. "Effects of massage and meditation on stress and
pain." The type of research that best suits this topic is:
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a. Applied research

b. Qualitative research
c. Basic research
d. Quantitative research

Correct answer
b. Qualitative research

12. The type of research design that does not manipulate independent variable is:
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a. Experimental design
b. Quasi-experimental design
c. Non-experimental design
d. Quantitative design

Correct answer
c. Non-experimental design

13. This research topic has the potential to contribute to nursing because it seeks to:
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a. Include new modalities of care

b. Resolve a clinical problem
c. Clarify an ambiguous modality of care
d. Enhance client care

14. Martha does review of related literature for the purpose of:
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a. Determine statistical treatment of data research

b. Orientation to what is already known or unknown
c. To identify if problem can be replicated
d. Answering the research question

Correct answer
d. Answering the research question

15. Client's rights should be protected when doing research using human subjects. Martha
identifies these rights as follows EXCEPT:
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a. right of self-determination
b. right to compensation

c. right of privacy
d. right not to be harmed
Situation
Patient Nicole was admitted to the communicable disease unit due to typhoid fever.

16. What is the usual range of incubation period of typhoid fever?

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a. 1-3 weeks
b. 7-14 days

c. 2-3 weeks
d. 4-7 weeks

Correct answer
a. 1-3 weeks

17. What are the principal vehicles of typhoid fever?

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a. Food and water

b. Mosquito
c. Rad
d. Typhoon
18. What are the sources of infection?
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a. Feces and urine

b. Blood
c. Semen
d. Saliva of mosquito

19. In an attempt to reduce the cases of typhoid fever in the community, SDG No. ___ will guide
the programs that will be created for this initiative.
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a. 4
b. 5
c. 6

d. 7

20. Which assessment finding would warrant the nurse to report to the physician?
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a. Bleeding from the rectum

b. Fever
c. Greenish stool
d. Muscle pain

21. The board of nursing is composed of how many members?

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a. 7
b. 6

c. 5
d. 4
22. The __________ is the appointing person of any vacancy in the Board of Nursing.
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a. PNA
b. President of the Philippines

c. Chairperson
d. DOH secretary

23. Who nominates, chooses and ranks the recommendees for a position in the boars?
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a. MCNAP
b. PRC
c. DOH
d. Accredited professional organization

Correct answer
a. MCNAP

24. The “term” of office for the board is ____ years?

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a. 6 years
b. 9 years
c. 10 years
d. 3 years

25. The board examination should be in accordance with RA 8981 or the _____.
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a. PRC Modernization Act

b. The Philippine Nursing Law

c. CMO 15, series of 2017
d. None of the above
Situation
Frenzy, a 42 year old patient, is hospitalized with a diagnosis of AKI resulting from the administration of
gentamicin sulfate for a Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection. Frenzy is acutely ill upon admission and
experiencing an altered level of consciousness.

26. The nurse notes that a patient who is retaining fluid had a 1-kg weight gain. Documentation
should indicate that it is equivalent to about how many ml?
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a. 250 ml
b. 500 ml

c. 750 ml
d. 1000 ml

Correct answer
d. 1000 ml

27. In the case of Frenzy, what should the nurse assigned to her do? Select all the apply.

a. Elevate the head of the bed 30-45 degrees

b. Call the admitting physician for prescriptions

c. Establish an IV access site

d. Contact the hemodialysis unit

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a. abcd
b. bcde
c. cdea

d. abce

Correct answer
a. abcd

28. Which of the following is the most common initial manifestation of acute renal failure?
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a. Dysuria
b. Anuria
c. Hematuria
d. Oliguria

29. Patient Frenzy who is in acute renal failure has an elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN). What
is the likely cause of this finding?
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a. Fluid retention
b. Reduced renal blood flow

c. Hemolysis of red blood cells

d. Below-normal metabolic rate

30. Patient Frenzy’s serum potassium level is elevated in acute renal failure, and the nurse
administers sodium polysterene sulfonate (Kayexalate). This drug acts to:
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a. Increase potassium excretion from the colon

b. Release hydrogen ions for sodium ions
c. Increase calcium absorption in the colon
d. Exchange sodium for potassium ions in the colon

Situation
Mrs. Simon is admitted to the emergency department with chest trauma following a car collision.

31. Which signs/symptoms indicate to the nurse the presence of pneumothorax?

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a. Unequal lung expansion and dyspnea

b. Frothy, bloody sputum and consolidation
c. Barrel chest and polycythemia

d. Bronchovesicular lung sound and bradypnea

Correct answer
a. Unequal lung expansion and dyspnea

32. The client had a right-sided chest tube inserted 1 hour ago for a pneumothorax. The nurse
should implement which action if the water-seal compartment does not show any fluctuation?
*
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a. Order for a STAT chest x-ray

b. Increase the amount of wall suction
c. Check the tubing for kinks or clots

d. Monitor the client’s pulse oximeter reading

33. Mrs. Simon refuses to take deep breaths because of pain. She has had a right-sided chest tube
for 6 hours now. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
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a. Medicate the client and help the client take deep breaths

b. Encourage the client to take shallow breaths to help with the pain
c. Explain deep breaths do not have to be taken at this time
d. Tell the client that he could die if she refuse to take deep breaths again

34. The nurse who is caring for Mrs. Simon has seen that the chest tube is accidentally pulled out
of the pleural space. Which action should the nurse implement first?
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a. Notify the health care provider

b. Instruct the client to take slow shallow breaths until the tube is reinserted
c. Do nothing
d. Tape a dry occlusive dressing on three sides to the insertion site

35. The nurse is presenting a class on chest tubes. Which statement best describes a tension
pneumothorax?
*
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a. A tension pneumothorax develops when an air-filled bleb on the surface of the lung ruptures
b. When a tension pneumothorax occurs, the air moves freely between the pleural space and the
atmosphere
c. The injury allows air into the pleural space but prevents it from escaping from the pleural space

d. A tension pneumothorax results from a puncture of the pleura during a central line placement
Situation
Georgia, a 30 year old woman, is diagnosed as having essential hypertension when serial blood pressure
recordings show her average reading to be 170/100 mmHg.

36. Which instruction should the nurse provide when discussing exercise?
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a. Walk at least 30 minutes a day on flat surfaces

b. Perform lightweight lifting three times a week

c. Recommend high-level aerobics daily
d. Encourage the client to swim laps once a week

37. The health-care provider prescribes an ACE inhibitor for the client. Which statement is the
best rationale for administering this medication.
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a. ACE inhibitors prevent beta receptor stimulation in the heart

b. This medication blocks the alpha receptors in the vascular smooth muscle
c. ACE inhibitors prevent vasoconstriction and sodium and water retention
d. ACE inhibitors decrease blood pressure by relaxing vascular smooth muscles

Correct answer
c. ACE inhibitors prevent vasoconstriction and sodium and water retention

38. Another patient is diagnosed with hypertension. Her blood pressure is 135/85 mmHg. Using
the blood pressure categories of the American Heart Association, the client is considered to
have?
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a. Elevated

b. Stage 1 hypertension
c. Stage 2 hypertension
d. Stage mom

Correct answer
b. Stage 1 hypertension

39. You are to measure the client's initial blood pressure reading by doing all of the following
EXCEPT:
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a. Take the blood pressure reading on both arms for comparison

b. Listen to and identify the phases of Korotkoff's sounds
c. Pump the cuff up to around 50 mmHg above the point where the pulse is obliterated
d. Observe procedures for infection control

Correct answer
c. Pump the cuff up to around 50 mmHg above the point where the pulse is obliterated

40. diagnosed with hypertension about following a low-calorie, low-fat, low-sodium diet. Which
of the following menu selections would best meet the client’s needs?
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a. Mixed green salad with blue cheese dressings, crackers and cold cuts
b. Ham sandwich on rye bread an an orange
c. Baked chicken, an apple, and a slice of white bread

d. Hot dogs, baked beans, and celery and carrot sticks

Situation
Mrs. Seva, 32 years old, asks you about possible problems regarding her elimination now that she is in the
menopausal stage.

41. Instruction on health promotion regarding urinary elimination is important. Which would you
include?
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a. Hold urine, as long as she can before emptying the bladder to strengthen her sphincters muscles
b. If burning sensation is experienced while voiding, drink pineapple-juice
c. After urination, wipe from anal area up towards the pubis
d. Tell client to empty the bladder at each voiding
42. Mrs. Seva also tells the nurse that she is often constipated. Because she is aging, what
physical changes predispose her to constipation?
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a. inhibition of the parasympathetic reflex

b. weakness of sphincter muscles of the anus

c. loss of tone of the smooth muscles of the colon
d. decreased ability to absorb fluids in the lower intestines

Correct answer
c. loss of tone of the smooth muscles of the colon

43.The nurse understands that one of these factors contributes to constipation:

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a. excessive exercise
b. high fiber diet
c. no regular time for defecation daily

d. prolonged use of laxatives

Correct answer
d. prolonged use of laxatives

44.Mrs. Seva asked for instructions for skin care for her mother who has urinary incontinence
and is almost always in bed. Your instruction would focus on prevention of skin irritation and
breakdown by ____.
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a. Using thick diapers to absorb urine well

b. Drying the skin with baby powder to prevent or mask the smell of ammonia
c. Thorough washing, rinsing and drying of skin area that get wet with urine
d. Making sure that linen are smooth and dry at all times

Correct answer
c. Thorough washing, rinsing and drying of skin area that get wet with urine
45. Over the years, Mrs. Seva was confined to bed (1). Upon assessment, the nurse notes that the
patient responds only to painful stimuli (2). The perineal is kept moist by urine as dampness is
detected every time the patient is moved (1). In addition, she can not make even a slight change
in her body position without assistance (1) but can maintain a relatively good position in bed
most of the time but occasionally slides down (2). Her daughter revealed that she rarely eats
meal (2). The nurse scores Mrs. Seva’s risk for pressure sore using the Braden Scale with?
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a. 7
b. 8

c. 9
d. 10

Correct answer
c. 9
Situation
Nurse Rivera witnesses a vehicular accident near the hospital where she works. She decides to get
involved and help the victims of the accident.

46. Her priority nursing action would be to:

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a. Assess damage to property

b. Assist in the police investigation since she is a witness
c. Report the incident immediately to the local police authorities
d. Assess the extent of injuries incurred by the victims, of the accident

47. Priority attention should be given to which of these clients?

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a. Linda who shows severe anxiety due to trauma of the accident

b. Ryan who has chest injury, is pale and with difficulty of breathing

c. Noel who has lacerations on the arms with mild-bleeding

d. Andy whose left ankle swelled and has some abrasions
48. In the emergency room, Nurse Rivera is assigned to attend to the client with lacerations on
the arms, while assessing the extent of the wound the nurse observes that the wound is now
starting to bleed profusely. The most immediate nursing action would be to:
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a. Apply antiseptic to prevent infection

b. Clean the wound vigorously of contaminants
c. Control and reduce bleeding of the wound
d. Bandage the wound and elevate the arm

49. The nurse applies pressure dressing on the bleeding site. This intervention is done to:
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a. Reduce the need to change dressing frequently

b. Allow the pus to surface faster
c. Protect the wound from micro organisms in the air
d. Promote hemostasis

50. After the treatment, the client is sent home and asked to come back for follow-up care. Your
responsibilities when the client is to be discharged include the following EXCEPT:
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a. Encouraging the client to go to the, outpatient clinic for follow up care

b. Accurate recording, of treatment done and instructions given to client
c. Instructing the client to see you after discharge for further assistance

d. Providing instructions regarding wound care

Situation
Nurse George has worked a lot in the slums of Tondo, Manila and the life there is very... it's poor and it's
very sad. And he had always taught himself to look for the beauty in it; to look in the beauty in the faces
of the children, and to be grateful.Unfortunately, last week, Nurse George has witnessed a large fire that
consumes the almost the houses and almost killed thousands of lives in Tondo, Manila. Nurse George was
tasked to classify the different types of burn according to depth in the emergency department.

51. A patient who has burned arms characterize as shiny and moist with blisters that are painful.
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a. 3rd degree burn
b. 2nd degree burn

c. 1st degree burn

d. 4th degree burn

52. A patient whose burns are located at his back that are pink and painful.
*
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a. 1st degree burn

b. 2nd degree burn

c. . 3rd degree burn
d. 4th degree burn

53. A patient whose burns are located on his right thigh with blisters and weeps.
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a. 1st degree burn

b. 2nd degree burn
c. 3rd degree burn

d. 4th degree burn

Correct answer
b. 2nd degree burn

54. A patient whose burns are located on his left arm complaining of no pain to which the burns
are characterized as blackish leathery burns.
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a. 1st degree burn

b. 2nd degree burn
c. 3rd degree burn
d. 4th degree burn

Correct answer
c. 3rd degree burn
55. The nurse is monitoring a child with burns during treatment for burn shock. Which
assessment provides the most accurate guide to determine the adequacy of fluid resuscitation?
*
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a. Skin turgor
b. Level of edema at burn site
c. Adequacy of capillary filling

d. Amount of fluid tolerated in 24 hours

Situation
Management of nurse practitioners is done by qualified nursing leaders who have had clinical experience
and management experience.

56. An example of a management function of a nurse is:

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a. Teaching patient do breathing and coughing exercises

b. Preparing for a surprise party for a client
c. Performing nursing procedures for clients

d. Directing and evaluating the staff nurses

Correct answer
d. Directing and evaluating the staff nurses

57. Your head nurse in the unit believes that the staff nurses are not capable of decision making
so she makes the decisions for everyone without consulting anybody. This type of leadership is:
*
1/1

a. Laissez faire leadership

b. Democratic leadership
c. Autocratic leadership

d. Managerial leadership

58. When the head nurse in your ward plots and approves your work schedules and directs your
work, she is demonstrating:
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a. Responsibility

b. Delegation
c. Accountability
d. Authority

Correct answer
d. Authority

59. The following tasks can be safely delegated by a nurse to a non-nurse health worker
EXCEPT:
*
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a. Transfer a client from bed to chair

b. Change IV infusions

c. Irrigation of a nasogastric tube

d. Take vital signs

60. You made a mistake in giving the medicine to the wrong client. You notify the client's doctor
and write an incident report. You are demonstrating:
*
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a. Responsibility
b. Accountability

c. Authority
d. Autocracy
Situation
ediculosis is infestation with the human head-and-body louse, Pediculus humanus. There are two
subspecies, the head louse (P. h. capitis) and the body louse (P. h. humanus). In the Philippines, head lice
picking is one of the most enjoyed activities of many unemployed women in the streets. Hence, nurses
play a big role in ending this health, and at the same time societal problem.

61. Which of the following is true regarding the treatment of head lice?
*
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a. All household members and other close contacts should be checked.

b. Only the affected household member should be checked for head lice as the host may vary from person
to person.
c. Some experts believe that siblings of the affected person should be checked as this can be caused by
genetic predisposition.
d. None of the above.

62. Aling Nena, one of the residents of Baranggay Kababaihan asks the nurse the most
appropriate way to wash the clothes of her daughter with head lice 2 days just before treatment is
started. The best response of the nurse would be?
*
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a. Machine wash and dried using the hot water and hot air cycles

b. Do not wash yet because the head lice may fly and go to her
c. Wash only with bleach and then boil
d. Do nothing

63. Aling Nena was also advised to seal items that can not be laundered for ___ weeks in a
plastic bag to prevent it from crawling to another person.
*
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a. 3 weeks
b. 4 weeks
c. 5 weeks
d. 2 weeks

64. A pediculicide is prescribed to the daughter of Aling Nena. What important instruction
should the nurse impart to her?
*
1/1

a. 1-3 days
b. 1-4 days
c. 1-2 days

d. 1-5 days
65. After 1-2 days of not re-washing the hair, what instruction should the nurse give to aling
nena regarding the combs and brushes use?
*
1/1

a. Clean the combs and brushes with bleach

b. Soak them in cidex
c. Spray them with alcohol
d. Soak them in hot water for 5-10 minutes

Situation
Philippine nurses are encouraged to be well aware of the laws that affect their practice regardless of the
set-up and setting they wish to practice with.

66. What is RA 7160?

*
1/1

a. Local Government Code

b. PRC Modernization Act

c. Anti-rabies law
d. Newborn screening law

67. What is RA 10354?

*
1/1

a. Anti-Rabies Law
b. Newborn screening law
c. The Responsible Parenthood and Reproductive Health Law

d. None of the above

68. What is RA 11223?

*
1/1

a. Universal Health Care Act

b. Data Privacy Act

c. Responsible Parenthood and Reproductive Health Law
d. None of the above

69. What is RA 10152?

*
1/1

a. Mandatory Infants and Children Health Act

b. Responsible Parenthood and Reproductive Health Law

c. Civil Registry Law
d. None of the above

70. What is RA 9288?

*
1/1

a. Mandatory Infants and Children Health Act

b. Civil Registry Law
c. Data Privacy Act
d. Newborn Screening Act

Situation
Nursing research develops knowledge about health and the promotion of health over the full lifespan, care
of persons with health problems and disabilities, and nursing actions to enhance the ability of individuals
to respond effectively to actual or potential health problems.

71. With a title "Effects of aromatherapy on the stress levels of businesswomen in an urban
community", the reader would know that this is a/an:
*
1/1

a. descriptive research
b. quantitative research
c. applied research

d. basic research

72. Which of these does NOT occur in a descriptive study?

*
1/1
a. manipulation of variable

b. explanation of relationships between two or more phenomena

c. investigation of a phenomena in real life context
d. exploration of relationships between two or more phenomena

73. A research group studied the trend in junk food consumption of a group of females over a 10-
year period using data they collected annually. This is an example of a/an:
*
1/1

a. case study
b. evaluative study
c. longitudinal study

d. cross-sectional study

74. In the research "The effect of listening to a relaxation tape on the anxiety levels of
preoperative patients," the independent variable is:
*
1/1

a. anxiety levels
b. preoperative patients
c. listening to a relaxation tape

d. relaxation tape

75. A well written plan would include the following, EXCEPT

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a .Research problem
b. Review of Related Literature and Theoretical/Conceptual Framework
c. Methods and Procedures

d. Research Findings

Correct answer
d. Research Findings
Situation
Nursing leadership plays a vital role in shaping outcomes for healthcare organizations, personnel and
patients. With much of the leadership workforce set to retire in the near future, identifying factors that
positively contribute to the development of leadership in nurses is of utmost importance.

76. Kathlyn as a unit manager, knows that performance appraisal consists of all the following
activities EXCEPT:
*
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a. Setting specific standards and activities for individual performance.

b. Using agency standards as a guide.

c. Determine areas of strength and weaknesses
d. Focusing activity on the correction of identified behavior.

Correct answer
d. Focusing activity on the correction of identified behavior.

77. Nurse Kathlyn should be well aware of that which of the following statements is NOT true
about performance appraisal?
*
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a. Informing the staff about the specific impressions of their work help improve their performance.
b. A verbal appraisal is an acceptable substitute for a written report

c. Patients are the best source of information regarding personnel appraisal.

d. The outcome of performance appraisal rests primarily with the staff.

Correct answer
c. Patients are the best source of information regarding personnel appraisal.

78. There are times when Katherine evaluates her staff as she makes her daily rounds. Which of
the following is NOT a benefit of conducting an informal appraisal?
*
0/1

a. The staff member is observed in natural setting.

b. Incidental confrontation and collaboration is allowed.

c. The evaluation is focused on objective data systematically.
d. The evaluation may provide valid information for compilation of a formal report.

Correct answer
c. The evaluation is focused on objective data systematically.

79. She conducts a 6-month performance review session with a staff member. Which of the
following actions is appropriate?
*
0/1

a. She asks another nurse to attest the session as a witness.

b. She informs the staff that she may ask another nurse to read the appraisal before the session is over.

c. She tells the staff that the session is manager- centered.

d. The session is private between the two members.

Correct answer
d. The session is private between the two members.

80. She checks the documentary requirements for the applicants for staff nurse position. Which
one is NOT necessary?
*
0/1

a. Certificate of previous employment

b. Record of related learning experience (RLE)
c. Membership to accredited professional organization

d. Professional identification card

Correct answer
b. Record of related learning experience (RLE)
Situation
Nurse Jessa has been assigned to provide care for four clients in her department.

81. Which among the patients will Nurse Jessa prioritize for assessment?
*
1/1

a. A client awaiting surgery for a hiatal hernia repair at 11 AM.

b. A client with suspected gastric cancer who is on nothing-by-nouth (NPO) status for tests.
c. A client with PUD experiencing a sudden onset of acute stomach pain

d. A client who is requesting pain medication 2 days after surgery to repair a fracture jaw.
82. Nurse Jessa received in her shift a patient who has just had an upper GI endoscopy. The
patient’s vital signs are ordered to be taken every 30 minutes for 2 hours after the procedure.
Nurse Jessa assigned a UAP to take the vital signs. One hour later, the UAP reports the client,
who was previously afebrile, has developed a temperature of 101.8oF (38.8oC). What should the
nurse do in response to these assessment data.
*
1/1

a. Promptly assess the client for potential perforation.

b. Tell the assistant to change thermometers and retake the temperature

c. Reassess the patient’s temperature
d. Asks the UAP to provide the client a tepid sponge bath as this is just an expected outcome

83. When nurse Jessa is obtaining a nursing history from a client with suspected gastric ulcer,
which signs and symptoms should the nurse assess? Select all that apply.

a. Epigastric pain at night

b. Relief of epigastric pain after eating

c. Vomiting

d. Weight loss

e. Melena
*
1/1

a. acd
b. cdb
c. ade
d. cde

84. Nurse Jessa is preparing to teach a client with a peptic ulcer about the diet that should be
followed after discharge. Nurse Jessa should explain that the client should eat which of the
following?
*
0/1

a. Bland foods

b. High-protein foods
c. Any foods that are tolerated
d. A glass of milk

Correct answer
c. Any foods that are tolerated

85. A client is taking a Magnesium hydroxide for treatment of PUD. Which of the following
statements best indicated that the clients understands how to correctly take the antacid?
*
0/1

a. ”I’ll take my antacids before I take my other medications.”

b. “I need to decrease my intake of fluids so that the effects of the antacid will not be diluted.”
c. “I’ll take my antacid depending on the frequency of my pain”
d. “It Is best for me to take my antacid 1 to 3 hours after meal.”

Correct answer
d. “It Is best for me to take my antacid 1 to 3 hours after meal.”
Situation
Nursing research has been a growing trend in the 21st century nursing practice.

86. Nurse Jeremy checks if his instruments meet the criteria for evaluation. Which of the
following criteria refers to the consistency or the ability to yield the same response upon its
repeated administration?
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a. Validity

b. Reliability
c. Sensitivity
d. Objectivity

Correct answer
b. Reliability

87. Which criteria refer to the ability of the instrument to detect fine differences among the
subjects being studied?
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a. Sensitivity
b. Reliability

c. Validity
d. Objectivity

Correct answer
a. Sensitivity

88. Which of the following terms refer to the degree to which an instrument measures what it is
supposed to be measure?
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a. Validity
b. Reliability
c. Meaningfulness
d. Sensitivity

Correct answer
a. Validity

89. Nurse Jeremy is interested to learn more about transcultural nursing because he is assigned at
the family suites where most patients come from different cultures and countries. Which of the
following designs is appropriate for this study?
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a. Grounded theory
b. Ethnography

c. Case study
d. Phenomenology

90. He plans to use a Likert Scale to determine

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a. degree of agreement and disagreement

b. compliance to expected standards

c. level of satisfaction
d. degree of acceptance
Situation
Mr. Woo is a 58-year-old Asian man who is scheduled for permanent pacemaker insertion treatment for a
tachydysrhythmia that does not respond to medication therapy. He is scheduled for an endocardial
implant.

91. Nurse Beejay is reading the cardiac monitor and notes that the patient’s heart rhythm is
extremely irregular and there are no discernible P waves. The ventricular rate is 90 beats per
minute, and the patient is hemodynamically stable. The nurse realizes that the patient is suffering
from:
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a. Atrial fibrillation
b. Atrial flutter
c. Atrial flutter with rapid ventricular response

d. Junctional escape rhythm

Correct answer
a. Atrial fibrillation

92. Nurse Jerry should understand that in a third-degree AV block:

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a. Every P wave is conducted to the ventricles.

b. Some P waves are conducted to the ventricles
c. None of the P waves are conducted to the ventricles

d. The PR interval is prolonged

93. The nurse is attempting to determine the ventricular rate and rhythm of a patient’s telemetry
strip. What should the nurse examine to determine this part of the analysis?
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a. PP interval
b. QT interval
c. RR interval

d. TP interval
94. The nurse notes on the cardiac monitor that the PR interval is very irregular and that there are
more P waves than QRS complexes. PP interval and RR interval are regular. The nurse should
suspect that the patient is suffereing from:
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a. Third-degree atrioventricular block

b. Second-degree atrioventricular block

c. Sinus tachycardia
d. Sinus bradycardia

Correct answer
a. Third-degree atrioventricular block

95. Which among the following statements correctly describes cardioversion?

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a. Cardioversion is the immediate and unsynchronized delivery of current.

b. Cardioversion is the delivery of the electrical current synchronized with the patient’s electrical events

c. Either a or b
d. None of the above
Situation
Your director of nursing wants to improve the quality of health care offered in the hospital. As a staff
nurse in that hospital you know that this entails quality assurance programs.

96. A legislative enactment that serves as a defense to malpractice is the Good Samaritan
statute. The following statements are correct, except:
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a. It protects health care provides from civil liability that may be incurred in stopping to render aid at the
scene of an accident.
b. It also applies to hospital care given to a client as long it is of an emergency nature
c. Health care professionals may still be sued by an injured victim for gross negligence.

d. Health care provides should not charge the patient during an emergency if they want to be covered by
the statute.

Correct answer
b. It also applies to hospital care given to a client as long it is of an emergency nature
97. Standards of nursing practice serve as guide for:
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a. Nursing practice in the different fields of nursing

b. Proper nursing approaches and techniques

c. Safe nursing care and management

d. Evaluation of nursing cared rendered

Correct answer
c. Safe nursing care and management

98. You are taking care of critically ill client and the doctor in charge calls to order a DNR (do
not resuscitate) for the client. Which of the following is the appropriate action when getting DNR
order over the phone?
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a. Have the registered nurse, family spokesperson, nurse supervisor and doctor sign
b. Have two nurses validate the phone order, both nurses sign the order and the doctor should sign his
order within 24 hours.
c. Have the registered nurse, family and doctor sign the order

d. Have 1 nurse take the order and sign it and have the doctor sign it within 24 hours

Correct answer
d. Have 1 nurse take the order and sign it and have the doctor sign it within 24 hours

99. To ensure the client safety before starting blood transfusion the following are needed before
the procedure can be done EXCEPT:
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a. take baseline vital signs

b. blood should be warmed to room temperature for 30 minutes before blood transfusion is administered
c. have two nurses verify client identification, blood type, unit number and expiration date of blood
d. get a consent signed for blood transfusion

100. Part of standards of care has to do with the use of restraints. Which of the following
statements is NOT true?
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a. Doctor's order for restraints should be signed within 24 hours

b. Remove and reapply restraints every two hours

c. Check client's pulse, blood pressure and circulation every four hours
d. Offer food and toileting every two hours

Correct answer
c. Check client's pulse, blood pressure and circulation every four hours