Final exam guide first class

Part I

1. The following is not a SIPOC component

A. Customer requirements

B. Inputs and outputs

C. Suppliers

D. Budgets

2. This is not a criterion of a project objective.

A. Be specific

B. Arbitrary

C. Real

D. With responsible

3. What are the methods to build process mapping?

A. Interview methods and plurality

B. Group and individual methods

C. Plurality methods

D. Interview methods and group meetings

4. In the project launch, which of the following is false?

A. Each project must have only one metric.

B. The primary metric must be congruent with the problem and objectives.

C. The project charter should include the problem statement and objectives.

D. Scope and project boundaries are one of the main risk factors

5. What is the purpose of SIPOC?

A. Summarize information on suppliers, inputs, process steps, outputs, customers, etc.

B. Summarize information on suppliers, inputs, process steps, outputs and customers.

C. Provide the basis for starting a Six Sigma project.

D. Help the team to find the root cause of a problem.

6. Which of the following is false in the creation of the problem statement for DMAIC?
A. A problem statement should answer: WHAT, WHEN, WHERE, HOW MUCH AND HOW FREQUENTLY

B. A problem statement should be short

C. A problem statement must be objective - facts only, not opinions.

D. A problem statement must be written to be read by executives.

7. This is not a market research tool

A. Model selection ok

B. Focus groups ok

C. Experimentation ok

D. Primary research

8. In the DMAIC methodology, which of the following is false?

A. The Champion is responsible for the selection, identification and launching of projects.

B. The Champion is responsible for Change Management in the Control phase.

C. Champion is not responsible for keeping the project on time according to plan.

D. The Green Belt is responsible for implementing the project

9. What is process mapping?

A. A way to visualize process steps, flow and decisions

B. A different way to create a value stream map

C. A way to understand the process and identify the problem

D. All of the above

10. What is the key factor for a good deployment of the DMAIC methodology based on Six Sigma?
A. To have certified Black Belts.

B. Well-paid Black Belts

C. Adequate definition of program policies

D. To have a Customer Service department

11. What is the main objective of QFD?

A. Identify customers

B. Assess the competitive situation

C. Evaluate the relationships between requirements and design variables.

D. Define requirements.
12. In which company did the Six Sigma methodology start?
A. Motorola

B. General Electric

C. Allied Sigma

D. Coca Cola

13. What are the two types of data that can be collected?
A. Ordinal and nominal.

B. Discrete and binary.

C. categorical and Binary

D. Variables and attributes

14. Whichprojects are initially selected for a Six Sigma program?

A. High investment projects

B. Projects focused on obvious and easily solvable problems

C. High complexity and high impact projects.

D. Projects focused on competition

15. What is the purpose of the cause-effect analysis matrix?

A. Identify the most important relationships

B. Identify the most important inputs

C. identify the most important requirements

D. Identify the most important outputs

16. In the DMAIC methodology, which of the following is false?

A. Pilot testing commonly occurs in the Measurement phase.

B. Pilot testing commonly occurs in the Improvement phase.

C. The pilot test must have its own plan and timetable.

D. The pilot test requires the same effort and dedication as the DMAIC project itself.

17. The deliverables of the MEASUREMENT stage are as follows

A. QFD and Project charter

B. Data collection plan and SIPOC

C. Pugh matrix and process map

D. Minitab analysis and brainstorming

18. Why did the Six Sigma model fail at Motorola?
A. Lack of management support

B. Only the Black Belts were given continuity

C. The training program was focused on quality only.

D. The voice of the customer was ignored

19. What is the purpose of the AMEF?

A. Calculate the RPN for each step of the process.

B. Qualitatively assess the risk of all failures at each step of the process.

C. Quantify the risk of failure at each process step

D. Identify solutions for each process step failure.

20. Which statement is false?

A. Project resources are typically customizable and can be changed

B. Every project should have a well-established schedule.

C. Ongoing meetings should be held to maintain the commitment of all those involved.

D. A responsibility matrix is very useful for calendar consensus.

21. Which VOC tools would you not apply to get VOC information from a small group of people (less
than 5)?

A. Interviews

B. Focus groups

C. Survey

D. Customer visits

22. What does Motorola's Six Sigma methodology mean?

A. Zero defects

B. Achieves approximately 99.9996 yields

C. Quality at any cost

D. Combine Lean tool with statistics.

23. There are four types of customers.

A. Long and short term, Loyal and Long Lasting

B. Loyalists, Mercenaries, Traitors and Prisoners.

C. Loyal, repurchase, satisfied and unsatisfied.

D. Type A, Type B, Type C and unclassified.

Which of the following is false regarding the Six Sigma initiative in the Motorola program?

A. I include the concept of Black Belt and Green Belt focused on projects.

B. All engineers were Green Belt certified.

C. I involve training for all employees.

D. Under his leadership, the Six Sigma Research Institute was instituted.

25. This tool helps to foresee the different failure modes and how to prevent them.

A. FTA

B. AMEF

C. XYZ

D. CDM

26. According to the DMAIC methodology, which of the following is false?

A. The FEA is used in the measurement stage and in the control stage.

B. Control charts in the definition stage.

C. Linear regression is a tool used in the analysis stage.

D. The project charter is carried out at the definition stage.

27. An MEFA uses 3 estimates to calculate the risk priority number (RPN), which are?

A. Severity, Occurrence and Detention.

B. Severity, Detection and Prevention.

C. Mean, Median and Mode

D. Risk, Priority and Non-Added Value

Which statement is false?

A. Every project must have at least one primary and two secondary metrics.

B. Primary and secondary metrics should be selected to cover cost, time and quality.

C. Redundant primary metrics are useful.

D. Project metrics should have objectives

29. What are the best predictors of customer loyalty?

A. Customer satisfaction

B. Repurchase Rate, Recommendation Rate and Perception of Value

C. Perception of value

D. Customer satisfaction and perception

30. Which statement is false?

A. Well-defined project scope ensures project success

B. The scope of the project should include what is in and what is out of scope.

C. The scope of the project can be used to limit resource expenditures.

D. A good definition of the scope of the project should be agreed upon by everyone involved in the
project.

31. What are the three types of MEFAs that can be created?

A. Design, Production and Operations

B. Systems, Process and Production

C. L1, L2 and Processes

D. Systems, Process and Design

General Electric contributed a lot to Six Sigma Which of the following is NOT a contribution of General
Electric? GE?

A. Voice of the customer VOC through your GE capital services company

B. Make public the term Six Sigma in their annual reports.

C. To promote the Six Sigma methodology and its benefits within the industry.

D. Process capability

What is the purpose of the requirements matrix within a QFD?

A. Synthesizing VOC information and requirements

B. Provide input to VOC information

C. To display and weigh those factors that are important to the client.

D. None of the above.

34. In the DMAIC methodology, which of the following is false?

A. Change management is the key risk factor for the control phase.

B. Scope is the key risk factor for the definition phase.

C. Correctly assessing the current situation is the key factor in the measurement stage.

D. Not having a well-designed experiment is the key risk factor for the improvement phase.

35. What is the error tree also known as?

A. Failure analysis

B. Systematic analysis

C. 5 Whys Techniques

D. Failure mode analysis

36. What does the concept of the hidden factory mean?

A- Each process must be searched for its components.

B-All manufacturing concepts can be applied

C- In every process there are costs that are not directly visible.

D- Any process can be analyzed with Six Sigma.

37. The deliverables of the definition stage are as follows

A- Project Charter and problem definition

B- Budget definition and data collection

C- Process mapping and solution analysis

D- Pugh Matrix and Project Charter

38. What are the three types of projects?

A- Costs, Workforce and Time

B- Cost, Quality and Time

C- Costs, Quality and Defect Reduction

D- Resource, Cost and Quality Reduction

39. Which of the following is not part of the definition of objectives in Six Sigma?
A- The project objectives must be realistic.

B- The project objectives must be more than what we can accomplish.

C- Project objectives must be measurable.

D- Project objectives must have a time component.

40. What are the two types of definition statements used in Six Sigma?

A- Problem statement for DFSS and opportunity statement for DMAIC

B- Problem statement for DFSS and situation statement for DMAIC

C- SWOT analysis for DFSS and situational SWOT for DMAIC

D- Problem statement for DMAIC and opportunity statement for DFSS

41. Questions answered by a problem statement?

A- Why? When? How much? And what?

B- How much does it cost? Why? When? So what?

C- What? Where? When? How much? How do I know?

D- How? Why? When? and how much?

WERE NOT INCLUDED IN THE EXAM

When analyzing a survey design, how do you assess repeatability and redundancy?

a) Through tukey's test and Chebycheff's theorem

b) Through Levene's test and Barlett's test
c) Through Anderson's test and Darling's index
d) Through the Cronbrach alpha coefficient and the discrimination index.
What is the alternative hypothesis of an ANOVA?

a) That the sample means are the same for all groups
b) That population means are the same for all groups
c) At least one sample mean is different from the rest.
d) At least one half of the population is different from the rest.

These are examples of continuous probabilities:

a) Uniform, log-normal and Beta

b) Log-normal, Normal and Poisson
c) Anderson Darling, Gumbel and Normal
d) Triangular, Tukey and Ji-Square

The ones marked in green are examples of continuous probabilities...

What is the Tukey test used for?

a) To evaluate the interrelationship between different discrete variables

b) To discard those variables that are not significant
c) To assess normality in a sample
d) To evaluate whether there are differences in the means of two populations

Part II

Circle the correct answer:

1. What is the method used to test linearity in a measurement system?
a. Step-by-step regression
b. Multiple linear regression
c. Simple linear regression
 d. Non-linear regression
2. What file types does minitab handle?
a. Word and project management
b. Powerpoint and graphics
c. Worksheets, graphs, and project sheets
d. Autocad
3. What is the null hypothesis for an ANOVA?
a. That the means of all samples are different from each other.
b. That population averages are the same for all groups.
c. That at least one stocking is different from the rest
d. That at least one variance is different
4. In measurement systems analysis, beta risk is defined as the...
a. The probability of passing a correct unit ("good")
b. The probability of rejecting a reworked unit
c. The probability of rejecting a good unit
d. The probability of passing a bad unit.
5. In an unacceptable measurement system with a high degree of variation, what result should be
expected from a Gage R&R analysis?
a. % specification > 30% D > 2.0
b. % specification < 30% D > 2.0
c. % specification < 30% D < 2.0
d. % specification > 30% D < 2.0

If D < 2.0, the measurement system is insufficient.

6. What does the p-value in the Anderson-Darling test mean when selecting the best minitab
distribution?
a. The smallest value of P is the best distribution
b. The highest p value is the best distribution
c. Negative p value is the best distribution
d. The value of p is irrelevant
7. What is the purpose of the Turkey test?
a. To test the equivalence of the bipolar coordinates d Tukey
b. To prove that population means are different from each other.
c. To prove that Tukey's test works
d. To prove that averages are equal to each other
8. It helps to see the predominant factors affecting the process:
a. Scatter plot
b. Matrix plot
c. Box plot
d. Pareto Chart
9. What is the purpose of the residual plot in ANOVA analysis?
a. It is similar to a control chart
b. Allows to discard unrelated variables
c. Allows to identify the root cause
d. Evaluate ANOVA assumptions and look at interactions of variables.
10. Which method is used to test vias in a measuring device?
a. Perform measurement tests in different ranges of the process.
b. Perform measurement test of a part versus standard multiple times.
c. Perform measurement tests in different time periods.
d. Regression
11. What is the conclusion in an ANOVA analysis if the variance within groups is much smaller than
the variance between groups?
a. There is at least one significant variable
b. All variables are significant
c. There are no significant variables
d. It is not possible to conclude
12. In what type of distribution is it common to use the Z-transform?
a. Gumbel
b. Gamma
c. Binomial
d. Normal
13. What is the Anderson-Darling test used for?
a. To evaluate the interaction between different discrete variables
b. To discard those variables that are not significant
c. To assess normality in a sample
d. To evaluate if there are differences in the means of two populations.
14. What method is normally used to test the stability of a measurement system?
a. X-bar graphs with lead parts (non-standard)
b. X-bar graphs with "gold" (standard) parts in different operating ranges
c. Individual graphs with "gold" (standard) parts at different times
d. EWMA Charts
15. What is the purpose of the Barlett & Levine test?
a. It tells us whether the population means are equal.
b. Tells us whether the variances of the populations are equal across the same
populations.
c. Tells us if the populations are similar
d. Tells us whether the populations are significantly different
16. Which of the following is false?
a. Repeatability is commonly called precision
b. Bias is sometimes referred to as precision
c. Reproducibility includes operators or machines
d. Linearity of the deviation that exists over time.
17. What discrimination rate would you expect with a system with a high percentage of
measurement error?
a. Less than 2
b. Equal to 6
c. Between 2 and 4
d. Greater than 4
18. What are the 2 most important menus in minitab?
a. Editing, statistics
b. Archive and help
c. Statistics and graphics
d. Tools and calculation
19. Analyze a survey design with respectability and redundancy are evaluated.
a. Through tukey's test and Chebycheff's theorem
b. By means of Levene's test and Bartlett's test
c. Through Anderson's test and Darling's index
d. Through the Cronbach's alpha coefficient and the discrimination index
20. Which of the following is a characteristic of a decision tree?
a. Not useful in six sigma
b. It is useful because it makes the decision for us
c. Weigh probability by project costs
d. Helps to structure information for better decision making
21. What is the purpose of a two-variance test?
a. Validate that both variances are equal to a constant
b. A test to identify whether the variances of two samples are different.
c. Validate the confidence interval of both samples
d. Validate that the means of both variances are within the ranges of the confidence
interval.
22. What does the central limit theorem say?
a. Of a set of means, this distribution will tend to be normal even if the population is not.
b. The trend of a normal distribution can be estimated from the Z-transform.
c. The outcome of a measurement study is altered because the operators feel they are
being evaluated
d. The capabilities of a system can be evaluated if the data are transformed
23. Why is the 2-sample t-test used?
a. To evaluate the interaction between different discrete variables
b. To discard those variables that are not significant
c. To assess normality in a sample
d. To evaluate whether there are differences in the means of two populations
24. What is a Run chart for? (Execution graph)
a. To see the variation of the data with respect to time
b. To evaluate clustering, mixing, trending and oscillation.
c. To assess clustering, trend, linearity and respectability
 d. To assess reproducibility and respectability
Run Chart

 The run chart reveals evidence of patterns in the process data.

 Plots all individual observations versus the subgroup number, and draws a
horizontal reference line at the median.
 Performs two tests of non-random behavior.
 Detects trends, oscillation, blending and clustering in the data:
o "Special causes" - causes arising external to the process, which can
be corrected.
o "Common cause" - variation that is inherent or a natural part of the
process.

25. What is ANOVA used for?

a. To test the relationship between one or more categorical X's and a continuous response.
b. To test the relationship between an ordinal variable and a continuous response
c. To test the relationship between one or more categorical Xs and one or more
categorical answers
d. To test the relationship between a continuous X(s) and a categorical answer
26. These are examples of discrete probability models:
a. Binomial and Normal
b. Poisson and hypergeometric
c. Binomial and Gamma
d. Normal and Gumbel
27. What does a correlation coefficient equal to 0 indicate in a measurement study?
a. A perfect correlation between measurements
b. No relationship between measurements
c. There is an inverse correlation
d. Nothing can be concluded
28. In measurement systems analysis, the alpha risk is defined as...
a. The probability of passing a correct ("good") unit
b. Probability of rejecting a reworked unit
c. The probability of rejecting good unit
d. The probability of passing a bad unit
29. Which of the following is NOT a source of measurement error?
a. Linearity
b. Stability
c. Congeniality
d. Repeatability
30. It is defined as the fraction of the number of forms for an event among the total number of
possible exits:
a. Permutation
 b. Combination
c. Probability
d. Factorial
Theprobability of an event E is defined as the fraction between the number of
ways in which event E can happen and the total number of possible outcomes.

31. What types of probability models do you have in statistics?

a. Of discrete and continuous variables
b. Of binomial and random variables
c. Of independent and discrete variables
d. Of continuous and constant variables
32. What is a paired T-test?
a. It is a test to identify if the mean of a sample is equal to a constant.
b. It is a test to identify whether the variances of two samples are different.
c. It is that test to identify if the means are equal regardless of the nature of both.
d. A test to identify whether the means are equal when the observations are identical.
33. What are two estimates of dispersion in a population?
a. Mean and Median
b. Mean and Standard Deviation
c. Range and average
d. Standard deviation and range

34. In an ANOVA analysis, what can be concluded when a P lower than the risk alpha is obtained?
a. There are no significant variables
b. There is at least one significant variable
c. The null hypothesis could not be rejected
d. No conclusion
p-value is the probability that the calculated F0 value is given due to
randomness (the area under the curve, beyondF0). If theP-Value is less than the
alpha risk (example: 0.05) that you are willing to accept, then the effect is
"significant" at100(1-α)% confidence level and you have at least one variable
that significantly affects the response.
 35. Theorem applicable to data of any standard distribution that allows to evaluate the set of
measurements within K deviations.
a. Tchebysheff
b. Anderson - Darling
c. Tukey
d. Gamma

P.L. Tchebysheff was a Russian mathematician, 1821-1894, who developed a

theorem applicable to data from any standard distribution. His theorem states
that for k ≥ 1, at least (1 - 1 ÷ k2) of a set of n measurements will be within k
standard deviations of the mean.

This theorem is very useful if we want to quickly identify the % of data that fall
within a certain number of standard deviations (σ).

PART 3

Circle the correct answer:

1) It is a Central tendency measurement:
a. Standard deviation
b. DPU
c. Variance
d. Average.
• Average: a measure of central tendency.

2) These are the process capability indices:

a. PPM
b. DPU
c. Cp and Cpk
d. Sigma
• Cp and Cpk: process capability indexes.

3) It is the statistical unit of measurement used to express aggregate efficiency.

a. PPM
b. DPU
c. Range
d. Sigma
• Sigma: the statistical unit of measurement used to express aggregate efficiency.

4) It is a measure of dispersion, except:

a. Standard deviation
b. Range
 c. Variance
d. Sigma

5) It is a measure of central tendency, except:

a. Standard deviation
b. Media
c. Median
d. Fashion
The measures of central tendency are as follows:

 Mean: the sum of the data value divided by the amount of data.
 Median: the central value of a group of ordered data. For an odd number of
points, the median is the central value; for an even number of points, the
median is the average of the two central data.
 Mode: the most frequent value in a set of data.

6) These are types of capacity analysis related to discrete variables, except:

a. Sampling of the process
b. Counting defective data
c. Calculate PPM
d. Calculate Cp

7) These are types of capability analysis related to continuous variables, except:

a. Review the specification
b. Sampling of the process
c. Estimate Cpk
d. Calculate Pp
8) It is an assumption of the capacity analysis concerning stability.
a. Assumes the data are normal when we calculate the standard measurements.
b. Assumes that the process is stable or under control with respect to changes or
movements made over time.
c. If the data are normal, you need more steps to assess the probability of compliance
and do not apply the standard measures.
d. Mean, mode and median are equal

Stability can be defined in the graph as the degree of variation that exists in a process
over time. Some processes tend to perform excellently in the short term, but as time goes
by, they degrade and, therefore, present certain variations that cause erroneous
readings.

9) It is an assumption of the capability analysis with respect to its normality:

a. Assumes that the process is stable or under control with respect to changes or
movements made over time.
b. If the data are not normal, you need more steps to assess the probability of
compliance and the standard measures do not apply.
c. Evaluate using SPC diagrams.
d. It is supported by control charts.
10) It is the capability index that shows the relationship of the process with respect to the
specification limits established by the customer:
a. Cpk
b. Sigma
c. DPU
d. Cp

As shown in the figure, the process capability index ( Cp) shows the
relationship of the process to the specification limits set by the
customer.

11) It is the capability index that shows the relationship of the process with respect to the
specification limits:
Would you be able to solve the problem?
a. Cpk
b. Pp
c. Ppk
d. Cp
Process capability index Cpk:
In order to evaluate the centering variable with respect to the specification limits, the
process capability index (Cpk), which is shown in the following figure, is available
12) It is the long-term capacity of the process:
a. Cpk
b. Cp
c. Pp
d. Sigma
• Pp is the "long-term" capacity of the process.

13) It is a Linear Regression assumption, except:

a. The variance of the error components is constant for all values of x, this implies that
the variance is a constant, usually denoted by s2.
b. The data are normal when you calculate the standard measurements.
c. The error components are randomly distributed observations from a normal
distribution with zero mean and variance s2.
d. The errors associated with either of the two observations are unrelated or
independent.

Linear regression assumptions:

1. The mean of the error components is zero, this implies that: E(y)= b0 + b1x
2. The variance of the error components is constant for all values of x, this implies
that the variance is a constant, usually denoted by s2.
 3. The error components are randomly distributed observations from a normal
distribution with zero mean and variance s2.
4. The errors associated with either observation are unrelated or independent.

14) This coefficient tells the percentage of variability of the predicted values explained by a
regression model:
a. r
b. r squared
c. Cp
d. Cpk
R-squared(coefficient of determination) tells the percentage of total variability of
the predicted values that you were able to explain in the model.

15. A portfolio management goal that tells us that many organizations will seek to allocate
resources to maximize the value of the portfolio in terms of some company objective such
as long-term profitability or return on investment:
a. Stability
b. Strategic direction
c. Value maximization
d. Increases in product value

 Value maximization: many organizations will seek to allocate resources to

maximize the value of the portfolio in terms of some company objective,
such as long-term profitability or return on investment.

16) Portfolio management goal that tells us that some organizations seek to achieve some desired
portfolio stability in terms of long-term vs. short-term projects, high-risk vs. low-risk projects,
market mixes, diverse technologies, or types of projects:
a. Increase in the value of the product
b. Value maximization
c. Stability
d. Strategic direction

 Stability: some organizations seek to achieve some desired portfolio

stability in terms of long term projects vs. short term projects, high risk
projects vs. low risk projects, market mixes, diverse technologies or types
of projects.

17) Portfolio management goal that tells us that the final portfolio must be truly aligned with the
organization's strategic plan:
a. Stability
b. Increased product value
 c. Strategic direction
d. Value maximization

 Strategic direction: the final portfolio must be truly aligned with the
organization's strategic plan.

18) It is a very effective tool in the generation of ideas. It helps to find and identify a large
number of possible ideas.
a. Pugh matrix
b. Brainstorming
c. Ranking process
d. Pros and cons matrix

 Brainstorming is a very effective tool in idea generation. It helps to find and

identify a large number of possible ideas.

19) When a DOE should be applied:

a. A multivariable system needs to be optimized
b. You are able to do only a couple of executions
c. Does not give importance to developing new knowledge
d. Not even close to the correct operating range

20) Its purpose is to make an adequate selection of the best concept according to an established
methodology.
a. Pugh matrix
b. Cause and effect matrix
c. Pros and cons matrix
d. Priority matrix
The purpose of the Pugh matrix concept is to make an appropriate selection of
the best concept according to an established methodology.

21) They are critical indicators of success, except:

a. The capital
 b. Income
c. Margins
d. ROI
CSI Critical success indicators are typically a mix of hard financial figures:

 Income
 Margins
 ROI

22) Measurement of performance against the standard, assuming that the standard was set based
on the desired performance.
a. Capacity
b. Efficiency
c. Effectiveness
d. Of cost
Effectiveness
Measure of performance against the standard, assuming that the
standard was set based on the desired performance.
23) A measure that uses statistical performance characteristics to estimate the probability of
conformance to the standard (or some equivalent metric).
a. Capacity
b. Effectiveness
c. Efficiency
d. Of cost
Capacity
A measure that uses statistical performance characteristics to estimate the
probability of conformance to the standard (or some equivalent metric).
24) Measure that estimates operating costs, resource utilization, cycle times.
a. Capacity
b. Effectiveness
c. Of cost
d. Efficiency
Efficiency
A measure that estimates operating costs, resource utilization and cycle times.

25) It is a capability metric, except:

a. Utilization rate
b. Cp
c. Cpk
d. Ppk

26) Graph establishing control limits at +/- three standard deviations from the sample mean.
 a. Shewart
b. XS
c. Cusum
d. XR
Recall that the generalShewhart chart model sets the control limitsat +/-
three standard deviations from the sample mean.

27) Control chart which has the following characteristics:

Application: univariate monitoring process.
Data: Continuous; Approximately normal; Not correlated
Sample size: For fitting: K >= 25 subgroups of size n
a. U
b. X S
c. X R
d. X - bar

Xbar -R Graphics
 Application: univariate monitoring process.
 Data:
o Continuous.
o Approximately normal.
o No correlation.
 Sample size:
 For setting:K >= 25 subgroups of sizen

28) Control chart which has the following characteristics:

Application: uni-variable process monitoring.
Data: Continuous
Approximately normal
No-correlation
Sample size: For fitting: K >= 25 subgroups of size n

a. I-MR
b. XR
c. X - bar
d. X bar - S
Xbar -R Graphics
 Application: univariate monitoring process.
 Data:
o Continuous.
o Approximately normal.
o No correlation.
 Sample size:
  For setting:K >= 25 subgroups of sizen
 In operation:2 ≤ n ≤ 10

29) Control chart which has the following characteristics:

Application: Univariate monitoring process target adjustment
Data: Continuous
Approximately normal No correlation
Sample size: For adjustment: K ≥ 25 subgroups of size n

a. X bar
b. XR
c. I-MR
d. X bar -S

30) Control chart which has the following characteristics: Application: univariate process
monitoring.
Data: Discrete No correlation
Sample size: k > 25 subgroups for the set size n

a. np
b. P
c. U
d. X bar

31) Control chart which has the following characteristics:

Application: Monitoring of a variable
Data: Discrete No correlation
Sample size: k 25 subgroups of size n to fix

a. P
b. np
c. U
d. C
NP

 Application: monitoring of a variable.

 Data:
o Discrete.
o No correlation.
 Sample size:
o k 25 subgroups of size n to fix.
o n depends on the expected p.
32) Control chart which has the following characteristics: Application: monitoring of a variable
Data: Discrete No correlation
Sample size: k > 25 subgroups of size n to fix

a. np
b. p
c. c
d. u
Graph C

 Application: monitoring of a variable.

 Data:
o Discrete.
o No correlation.
 Sample size:
o k > 25 subgroups of sizen to fix.

33) Control chart which has the following characteristics: Application: Monitoring of a variable.
Data: Discrete No correlation
Sample size: K > 25 subgroups for start-up.

a. np
b. p
c. c
d. u

Graph U

 Application: monitoring of a variable.

 Data:
o Discrete.
o No correlation.
 Sample size:
o K > 25 subgroups for commissioning.

DO NOT COME

When should box COX transformations be used to perform a capability analysis?

a) Provided that the data are not normal

b) When we choose to - it always works
c) As a last resort, when the data are not normal and we do not find a distribution that
helps
 d) When we want consistent queue distribution

Which graph is applicable for a sample size 1?

a) Xbar Graph
b) Graph R
c) Individual charts (IMR)
d) Graph np

Why do we use center points in a full factorial experiment?

a) To balance the number of runs to an even number.

b) To check the lack of fit of the model
c) To check the centricity of logistic regression
d) To improve the accuracy of the Cpk values

What is not typically an element of change management in a six sigma project?

a) Job Descriptions
b) Work instructions
c) Workers' compensation
d) Process controls

Which of the following is not a situation out of control?

a) Two dots on a line just inside the control limits

b) 8 dots in a line all increasing or decreasing in the same direction
c) 10 dots on a line within one side of the stocking
d) 4 points oscillating on each side of the large average.

What is one of the key factors for a good deployment of the DMAIC methodology?

a) Black belts external

b) Part-time Black Belts
c) Policy deployment, clear rules and program support
d) Hiring of consultants.

What is the difference between a treatment (factor) and a defect?

a) A treatment is a type of (x) and an effect is the standard deviation of (x).

b) A treatment is a level for a factor (x) and an effect is the change in response.
c) A treatment is a fixed factor and an effect is a random factor.
d) A treatment is a random factor and an effect is a fixed factor.

What is the null hypothesis when testing a simple regression coefficient in the regression table?
 a) That the coefficient is zero
b) That the p Value is low
c) That the sum of squares is zero
d) That the t-statistic is zero

Which of the following is not assumed when making a regression model?

a) The response is normally distributed

b) Errors are independent
c) Errors have a constant variance
d) Errors are zero-average

Why do we code factorial experiments with -1 and +1?

a) To improve the cause and effect matrix of the measurement stage.

b) To eliminate collinearity between the X's and improve the resulting coefficients.
c) To improve the results of the Pugh Matrix.
d) To use a binomial distribution model.

If a p-chart has been calculated, p bar is 0.8 and the subgroup sample is 20, then what are the upper
control limits (UCL) and lower control limits (LCL)?

a) Approximately 92 percent LCS and 68 percent LCI

b) Approximately 89 percent LCI and 71 percent LCS
c) Plus or minus 3 standard deviations.
d) Equal to the average of the process.

A management system is:

a) A method a business uses to monitor work performed and performance.

b) A report that is generated for management
c) A system to feed process information back to management
d) Another name for ISO 9001

What is the purpose of a Design of Experiment?

a) Test all the central points.

b) Performing different runs
c) Check for lack of adjustment
d) Structuring stock options and finding the best match

What is a process map?

a) A way to visualize the steps of a process, flow and decisions.

b) A way of showing reality
 c) A way to understand the process and identify the problem
d) All of the above

What does the general Shewhart model say?

a) The natural variation of an estimated process plus minus two standard errors.
b) The natural variation of a process estimated by its median plus minus interquartile range
median.
c) The natural variation of a process estimated by the mean plus minus three standard errors.
d) The natural variation of a process estimated by the mean plus minus three standard ranges.

Six Sigma projects should be evaluated by the process owner, the green belt and finance:

a) As the new wave of Green Belt

b) When you have a request from a competitor
c) During the definition stage
d) At the close of the project and after nine months

A bullfight is defined as?

a) 5 dots on a line moving in the same direction.

b) 8 points in one line on one side of the average
c) An oscillation that repeats itself, similar to what happens in temporality in forecasts.
d) When we want to fit a regression model to the process information.

Which statement is false when performing an operating curve (OC)?

a) An operating curve tells us about the performance of the sampling plan.

b) The shallower the curve the better
c) The analyst must define the AQL and the LTPD.
d) The steeper the operating curve, the more samples are required

How many subgroups are necessary to have any certainty that the process is in control?

a) 5
b) 10
c) 25
d) Infinitely

Which of the following statements is false with respect to a design of experiments?

a) Center points help to estimate the measurement error

b) The design of experiments helps me to write a better problem statement.
c) Central points should be distributed in the design
d) The null hypothesis of the lack-of-fit test indicates that the model fits the data.
What is the purpose of a u-chart?

a) To monitor a Poisson variable for a constant sample size

b) To monitor a Poisson variable for a non-constant sample size
c) To monitor a bivariate variable for a constant sample size
d) To monitor a bivariate variable for a non-constant sample size

Which of the following is false in sampling plans?

a) The acceptable quality level (AQL) is the largest proportion of defect in a good lot.
b) Sampling plans are generally designed to minimize alpha risk.
c) The tolerance percent defective for a lot (LTPD) is the smallest percentage of defects in a bad
lot.
d) Alpha risk is the most important metric for the client.

Which of the following is not a feature of Xbar graphs in Minitab?

a) Allows to include control limits

b) Allows to include the median in the graph
c) Allows to include stages of the process to visualize changes
d) Identifies out-of-control points and rule non-compliance