NAVIGATION TEST 06

1. The advantages of an ADC over a traditional pitot - static system are:

1. position and compressibility correction.
2. reduced lag
3. ability to supply many instruments
4. ability to act as an altimeter following failure.
A) 1, 2 & 3 B) 2, 3 & 4 C) 1, 3 & 4

2. With reference to a VDF bearing, the true bearing of the aircraft from the
ground station is a:
A – QTE B – QUJ C – QDR

3. The purpose of the flux-valve is:

A) to sense the direction of the earth's magnetic field relative to the airplane.
B) to align the spokes with the earth's magnetic field in order to get maximum
voltage from the pick-up coils.
C) to measure the strength of the earth's magnetic field.

4. VNO is the maximum speed:

A) at which the flight controls can be fully deflected.
B) which must never be exceeded.
C) not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution.

5. Pressure error consists of which of the following:

A) Configuration change, manoeuvre induced errors, turbulence
B) Slipstream error, manoeuvre induced errors, turbulence
C) Configuration change, profile induced errors, turbulence

6. The rotational speed of an air-driven gyro is normally:

A) 9000 - 12000 RPM B) 6000 - 9000 RPM
C) 14000 - 16000 RPM
7. The phase difference between the reference and variable signals on QDM 050o
(VAR 10oW) for a conventional VOR is:
A – 050o B – 040o C – 230o

8. Deviation compensation in a flux gate compass is done:

A) By the pilot B) Electronically C)Mechanically

9. Under normal operating conditions, when an aircraft is in a banked turn, the rate-
of-turn indicator is a valuable gyroscopic flight control instrument. When it is
associated with an attitude indicator it indicates:
1. the angular velocity of the aircraft about the yaw axis
2. the bank of the aircraft
3. the direction of the aircraft turn
4. the angular velocity of the aircraft about the real vertical
The combination of correct statements is:
A) 1, 2 B) 3, 4 C) 1, 3

10.Which of the following does NOT affect the accuracy of VDF bearings?
A– sky waves
B – duct propagation
C – ground reflections

11.The aircraft radio equipment which emits on a frequency of 4400 MHz is the:
A) high altitude radio altimeter.
B) primary radar.
C) radio altimeter.

12.To maintain the 314o QDR inbound to a NDB with 7o starboard drift, the
Heading in (M) and relative bearing will be:
A – 321; 173 B – 127; 007
C – 141; 353

13.What is the main cause of precession?

A) Magnetic declination. B) Magnetic variation.
C) Bearing friction.
14.When descending through an isothermal layer at a constant Calibrated Airspeed
(CAS), the True Airspeed (TAS) will:
A) increase at an exponential rate. B) decrease.
C) increase.

15.According to ICAO Annex 10, in which frequency band(s) does a locator

normally transmit?
A – HF/VHF B – MF/HF
C– LF/MF

16.An aircraft is on a heading of 100 degrees (m) from a VOR. To make the
VOR/ILS deviation indicator needle centralize with the TO flag showing, the
Following bearing should be selected on the OBS:
A – 100 degrees B – 110 degrees C – 280 degrees

17.A co-located VOR/DME is being used to track on airway inbound on the 160⁰
radial, at 60 nm DME range, the VOR indicates 336 on the OBS and FROM/TO
reads ‘TO’, the aircraft position is –
a) VOR, CDI needle indicates one dot to the right.
b) 4nm left of the airway center line.
c) 4 nm starboard of the airway center line

18.With a constant weight, irrespective of the airfield altitude, an aircraft always

takes off at the same:
A) true airspeed. B) equivalent airspeed. C) calibrated airspeed.

19.What is the lowest frequency where freedom from static interference can be
guaranteed?
A – 3 MHz B –30 MHz C – 300 MHz
20.Which one of the following disturbances is most likely to cause the greatest
inaccuracy in ADF bearings?
A – Coastal effect B – Local thunderstorm activity
C – Quadrantal error

21.When decelerating in an aircraft with an air driven artificial horizon you would
expect to see:
A) A climbing turn to starboard
B) A descending turn to starboard
C) A descending turn to port

22.The directive force of the earth's magnetic field:

A) increases as magnetic latitude increases.
B) is greatest at the magnetic equator.
C) increases as the magnetic variation increases.

23.The Course Deviation Indicator shows 248 TO and 3 dots FLY LEFT. If the
DME range is 90 nm your VOR radial and distance from the center line will
be:
A – 074; 9 nm B – 242; 6 nm C – 062; 9 nm

24.The following fuel consumption figures are given for a jet aeroplane: -standard
taxi fuel: 600kg. -average cruise consumption: 10,000 kg/h. -holding fuel
consumption at 1500 ft. above alternate airfield elevation: 8000 kg/hr. -flight time
from departure to destination: 6 hours -fuel for diversion to alternate: 10,200 kg.
The minimum ramp fuel load is:
a) 77 800 kg. b) 78800 kg. c) 70800 kg.

25.The velocity maximum operating (V.M.O.) is a speed expressed in:

A) true airspeed (TAS). B) computed airspeed (COAS).
C) calibrated airspeed (CAS).
26.As the frequency of a transmitter is increased, the range of the ground wave will:
A – Increase B –Decrease
C – Decrease only at night

27.The gain of an aerial is a measure of its ability to:

A – Focus power B – Transmit intelligence
C –Compensate for attenuation

28.Your QUJ is 335o by VDF. The variation of a VOR at the same location is
12oW. What is the phase difference between the reference and variable
signals in the aircraft’s receivers from that VOR?
A – 167o B – 347o C – 143o

29.A VSI metering unit incorporates a capillary tube to compensate for:

A) temperature and pressure changes with height
B) viscosity changes
C) barometric error

30.For a conventional DME facility Beacon Saturation will occur whenever the
number of simultaneous interrogations exceeds:
A – 80 B – 100 C – 200

31.For a category one ILS glide path of 3.3 degrees the coverage is:
A – 1.49 to 5.77 degrees
B – 1.49 to 5.94 degrees
C – 1.65 to 5.77 degrees

32.A temperature sensor having a recovery factor of 0.75 indicates 30° C. Static Air
Temperature (SAT) is 25° C. How high is the Ram-rise?
A) 5° C. B) 6.7° C. C) 18.8° C.
33.Pressure Altitude is 27,000 feet, OAT = -35C, Mach No = 0.45
W/V = 270/85, Track = 200T. What is drift and ground speed?
A – 18L/252 knots B – 15R/310 knots
C – 17L/228 knots

34.When is coastal error at its worst for an aircraft at low level?

A - Beacon inland at an acute angle to the coast
B – Beacon inland at 90o
C – Beacon close to the coast at an acute angle to the coast

35.A DGI is assumed to be frictionless. Its latitude nut is set for 56° N. The reading
that you would expect to see after flying West along the parallel of 48° N for 45
minutes at a TAS of 480 kts with a Wind velocity of 090/60 would be:
A) 261.3° B) 281.3° C) 278.5°

36.With reference to a VOR, the cone of confusion is:

A – the area outside the DOC
B – the area directly overhead a VOR
C – the change over from TO to FROM when the OBS is set 90o to the radial

37.The ISA temperature and pressure for 18 000 ft are:

A) -20.7º C and 506 hPa respectively
B) -12.7º C and 506 hPa respectively
C) -12.7º C and 595.2 hPa respectively

38.If all the moments are positive when calculating mass (weight) and balance, the
position of the datum would be at the:
A) nose, or forward of the aircraft
B) trailing edge of the wing
C) main wheels centerline

39.An aircraft is on a bearing of 263 (M) from a VOR station. If the OBS is set to
091, the deviation indicator will show:
a. FROM and fly left 4 dots b. TO and fly right 4 dots
c. TO and fly left 4 dots
40.Why do clouds not appear on secondary radar screens:
A –The transmit and receive signals are on different frequencies
B – Too low a frequency
C – They do not provide an echo by returning signals

41.For any given circumstances, in order to double the effective range of a primary
radar the power output must be increased by a factor of:
A–2 B – 16 C–4

42.Using an NDB it is possible to experience which of the following errors or

limitations?
A – Coastal refraction, timing error and night effect
B – Night effect, station interference and latitude error
C – Night effect, station interference and lack of a failure warning system

43.Which of the following statements are correct?

A) Dip is inversely proportional to H
B) Dip is inversely proportional to Z
C) Dip decreases with increased in latitude

44.An aero plane is on radial 070o of a VOR, HDG is 270o. If the OBS is set to
260o, the CDI will show:
A – fly left TO
B – fly right TO
C – fly left FROM

45.Assuming mid-latitudes (40o to 50o N/S). At which time of year is the

relationship between the length of day and night, as well as the rate of change of
declination of the sun, changing at the greatest rate?
A – Summer solstice and spring equinox
B – Spring equinox and autumn equinox
C – Summer solstice and winter solstice
46.Which combination of characteristics gives best screen picture in a primary
search radar?
A – Short pulse length and narrow beam
B – Long pulse length and wide beam
C – Long pulse length and narrow beam

47.An aeroplane requesting a VDF bearing should:

A – Avoid banking during transmission
B – Not pass overhead VDF aerial
C – Ensure that ratio silence is maintained

48.The possibility of ingress of moisture to the instruments:

A) is prevented by drain traps
B) is prevented by fitting blanks
C) is prevented by having the pitot head and static vents lower than the
instruments

49.If a radar has a pulse length of 2.0 ms and it transmits 330 pulses per second, its
maximum non-ambiguous range is:
A – 450 km
B – 2250 meters
C – 225 km

50.The IVSI is less reliable than the VSI when:

A) Overshooting
B) At an angle of bank of 55°
C) Pulling G

51.A radio facility transmits on a wave length of 2.22 cm. The facility could be a ___
operating on a frequency of ___
A – VDF; 135 MHz
B – DME; 1350 MHz
C – Doppler; 13500 MHz
52.Transverse Mercator projections are used for:
a) maps of large north/south extent
b) maps of large east/west extent in equatorial areas
c) radio navigation charts in equatorial areas

53.The accuracy of SSR height as displayed to the air traffic controller is:
A - +/- 25 ft
B - +/- 50 ft
C - +/- 75 ft

54.Maximum allowable take-off mass: 64400 kg

Maximum landing mass: 56200 kg
Maximum zero fuel mass: 53000 kg
Dry operating mass: 35500 kg
Estimated load: 14500 kg
Estimated trip fuel: 4900 kg
Minimum take-off fuel: 7400 kg
Find: maximum additional load?
a. 3000 kg b. 3550 kg c. 3221 kg

55.For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance documentation, the
Operating Mass is considered to be Dry Operating Mass plus:
a) Ramp Fuel Mass less the fuel for APU and run-up
b) Ramp Fuel Mass
c) Take-off Fuel Mass

56.An aircraft is flying at MACH 0.84 at FL 330. The static air temperature is -48
deg C and the headwind component 52 kt. At 1338 UTC the controller requests
the pilot to cross the meridian of 030W at 1500 UTC. Given the distance to go is
570 NM, the reduced MACH No is?
a. 0.80 b. 0.72 c. 0.85
57.How far can we go on all engines, then have an engine failure and still return to
our point of departure? Total Fuel = 46500 kg
Reserves = 4800 kg, All Engine: FF = 3250 kg/hr., TAS = 385 kts
Engine Failure: FF = 2300 kg/hr., TAS = 260 kts
GS Out = All Engine TAS after wind adjustment = 376
GS Home = Engine Fail TAS after wind adjustment = 264
a. 6hr 21min b. 6hr 22min c. 6hr 23min

58.The maximum zero-fuel mass:

1. Is a regulatory limitation
2. Is calculated for a maximum load factor of +3.5 g
3. Is based on the maximum permissible bending moment at the wing root
4. Is defined on the assumption that fuel is consumed from the outer wing tanks
first
5. Is defined on the assumption that fuel is consumed from the inner wing tanks
first
a.1, 3, 5 correct b. 1, 2, 4 correct c.2, 3, 5 correct

59.In which two months of the year is the difference between the transit of the
Apparent Sun and mean Sun across the Greenwich Meridian the greatest?
a) March and September b) February and November
c) June and December

60.MTOM: 64400 kg, MLM: 56200 kg, MZFM: 53300 kg, DOM: 35500 kg, Traffic
load: 14500 kg, Trip fuel: 4900 kg, Minimum takeoff fuel: 7400 kg.
What is the maximum allowable take off fuel?
a.11, 221 kgs b.11,100kgs c.10950kgs

61.In a remote indicating compass system the amount of deviation caused by aircraft
magnetism and electrical circuits may be minimized by:
a) positioning the master unit in the center of the aircraft
b) the use of repeater cards
c) mounting the detector unit in the wingtip
62.The time it takes for the Earth to complete one orbit around the Sun is
a. 360 days 45 hours, 5 minutes 48 seconds
b. 365 days 5 hours 48 minutes 45 seconds
c. 365 days 45 hours 48 minutes 5 seconds

63.What is the maximum number of usable Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)

Transponder codes?
a. 4096 b. 4069 c.2199

64.Emission designators for a VOR, ILS, HF, VDF, AWR, DME, NDB in the
sequence:
a. J33, A3E, PON, NON A1A, TOM, A8W, A9W.
b. A8W.A9W, J3E, A3E, NONE, PON, NON A1A.
c. A9W, A8W, J3E, A3E, NONE, PON, NON A1A.

65.In an ATS flight plan, Item 15 (route), a cruising pressure altitude of 32000 feet
would be entered as:
a. FL320. b. F320. C. F032

66.An apparent increase in the transmitted frequency which is proportional to the

transmitter velocity will occur when:
a. the transmitter moves away from the receiver
b. the transmitter moves towards the receiver
c. the receiver moves towards the transmitter

67.During the approach, a crew reads on the radio altimeter the value of 650 ft. This
is an indication of the true:
a. height of the aircraft with regard to the ground at any time
b. height of the lowest wheels with regard to the ground at any time
c. height of the aircraft with regard to the runway

68.What is the local mean time, position 65°25'N 123°45'W at 2200 UTC?
a. 0615 b. 0815 c.1345
69.The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) computer receives information:
1) about the aeroplane true airspeed
2) about the aeroplane configuration
3) about the pressure altitude through the mode C transponder
4) from the radio altimeter. The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:
a.2, 3, 4 b. 1, 2, 3 c.2, 3, 5

70.An aircraft maintaining a 5.2% gradient is at 7 NM from the runway, on a flat

terrain; its height is approximately:
a) 680 ft. b) 2210 ft. c) 1890 ft.

71.An aircraft is descending down a 12% slope whilst maintaining a GS of 540 kt.
The rate of descent of the aircraft is approximately:
a) 650 ft/min b) 6500 ft/min c) 4500 ft/min

72.RNAV routes are:

a. usually specified by waypoints co-incident with point source aids such as VOR,
DME or NDB facilities
b. specified by waypoints defined as a position in latitude and longitude based on
the WGS 84 system
c. selected according to TCAS inputs

73.The basic principle of operation of a standard VOR is by:

a. phase comparison between a 108 MHz reference signal and a 30 Hz variable
signal
b. phase difference between a frequency modulated reference signal and an
amplitude modulated variable signal
c. phase comparison between an amplitude modulated reference signal and a
frequency modulated variable signal

74.A TCAS II generates a resolution advisory (RA) when:

a. the intruder becomes other traffic b. a potential collision threat exists
c. a serious collision threat exists
75.What is one of the indications you observe when you fly directly over an Omni
range station on a preselected course?
a. The needle will swing through 180⁰.
b. The TO/FROM indication will reverse.
c. You will penetrate a cone of silence.

76.Which of the following is not a VOR frequency?

a. 115.2 MHz b.113.4 MHz c.126.7 MHz

77.Two aircraft start from the same position at the equator. Aircraft A files on track
of 000 (T) for distance of 5400 nm whilst Aircraft ‘B’ files on a track of 0900 (T)
a distance of 2500 nm. On reaching their destinations, the bearing of A from B
will be –
a) 000 (T). b) 180 (T). c) 045

78.The highest levels of ionization will be found:

a. At high latitudes in summer.
b. At low latitudes in summer
c. At high latitudes in winter

79.If the total force of the earth’s field at a point is T & the horizontal & vertical
components H & Z, the value of H & Z, the value of H is found by the formula:
a) H = T sin dip b) H = Z tan dip c) H = T Cos dip

80.Which emergency frequency is preferred for survival radio transmitters carried

during flight over large ocean regions?
a. 406.025 MHz b. 243.000MHz c. 121.5 MHz

81.An aircraft carrying out an ILS approach is receiving stronger 150Hz signals than
90Hz signals. The correct actions to be taken to place the aircraft on the centerline
and on the glide path are to fly:
a) DOWN and LEFT b) UP and LEFT c) UP and RIGHT
82.A normal Mercator chart is a ________________ projection?
(i) Cylindrical (ii) Perspective (iii) Non-perspective
(iv) Conformal (v) Conical (vi) Azimuthal
The correct combination of the above statements is:
a. (i), (ii) and (iii) b. (ii), (iv) and (v)
c. (i), (iii) and (iv)

83.On a Mercator chart, the Rhumb line track from Durban (30S 032E) to Perth (30S
116E) is 090°(T). What is the great circle track from Perth to Durban?
a. 291°(T) b. 312°(T) c. 249°(T)

84. ATD X is 1420. ETA Y is 1447. ATA Y is 1450. What is new ETA Z?

a. 1506 b. 1512 c. 1510

85.The ADF of an aircraft on a heading of 189°(T) will experience the greatest effect
due to quadrantal error if the NDB bears:
a. 234°(T) b. 279°(T) c. 145°(T)

86.The specified maximum safe fly up indication on a 5 dot CDI is:

a. half full-scale needle deflection above the center line
b. 2.5 dots fly up
c. just before full scale deflection

87.DME and VOR are “frequency paired” because:

a. the same receiver can be used for both aids
b. the VOR transmitter is easily converted to the required DME frequency
c. cockpit workload is reduced

88.A flux valve senses the changes in orientation of the horizontal component of the
earth’s magnetic field:
1 - the flux valve is made of a pair of soft iron bars
 2 - the primary coils are fed AC voltage
3 - the information can be used by a “flux gate” compass or a directional gyro
4 - the flux gate valve casing is dependent on the aircraft three inertial axis
5 - the accuracy of the value of the magnetic field indication is less than 0.5%
The combination of correct statements is:
a 2, 3 and 5 b 1, 3, 4 and 5 c 3 and 5

89.At a true airspeed of 500 knots, what is the ram rise?

a. 50°C b. 25°C c. 5°C

90.Airborne weather radar systems use a wavelength of approximately 3 cm in

order to:
A – detect the larger water droplets
B – transmit at a higher pulse repetition frequency for extended range
C – obtain optimum use of the Cosecant squared beam

91.What is a line of equal magnetic variation?

A – An isocline B – An isogonal C – An isogriv

92. Coeff A is corrected by

1. Micro adjuster
2. Aligning the lubber line with longitudinal axis
3. Changing the compass

93.Sky waves during day or night are not expected to occur in freq band
1. HF
2. VHF and above
3. MF and HF

94.In amplitude modulation

1. Amplitude of modulating signal is varied to the amplitude of carrier, and freq
of carrier remains constant.
 2. Amplitude of carrier is varied in accordance with amplitude of modulating
signal keeping frequency of carrier constant
3. Amplitude of both carrier and modulating signal ire varied keeping freq of
carrier constant

95.A horizontally polarized signal is best received by an aerial which is

1. Vertical
2. Horizontal
3. Circular

96.Phase comparison is possible between two signals if they are of same

1. Frequency
2. Amplitude
3. Amplitude and frequency

97.Meridians and parallels of latitude

1. Are great circles
2. Meridians are great circles, and parallels of latitude are Rhumb lines.
3. Parallels of latitude are great circles and meridians are Rhumb lines.

98.The drift is maximum when winds are perpendicular to

1. Hdg
2. Track
3. None of die above.

99.What is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed

indicator?
A. Never-exceed speed
B. Maximum structural cruising speed.
C. Maneuvering speed.
100. The limitations of a typical air driven gyro are?
A. 55° in pitch and roll.
B. 90° in pitch and roil
C. 90" in pitch and 180° in roll.