1

PRACTICE TESTS
SCIENCE

1. When does the Earth cast a round shadow on the surface of the Moon?
A. During solar eclipse
B. During lunar eclipse
C. During winter solstice
D. During summer solstice

2. What was not important in Eratosthenes's measurement of Earth's circumference?

A. The enormous size of the Sun
B. The number of degrees in a circle
C. The distance from Syene to Alexandria
D. The angle of a shadow cast by a vertical pole

3. Which of these pieces of evidences does not support the Greek's idea of a spherical
Earth?
A. The North Star (Polaris) cannot be seen in the South Pole.
B. The sail disappears last when a ship sails away over the ocean.
C. The curvature of the Earth's surface causes the light rays to
bend.
D. The Earth's shadow cast on the surface of the Moon is round
during a lunar eclipse.

4. When did Eratosthenes observe a shadow cast by a vertical pole in Alexandria?

A. At noon during the winter solstice
B. At noon during the summer solstice
C. In the morning during the winter solstice
D. In the morning during the summer solstice

5. What is the circumference of the Earth according to Eratosthenes’s calculation?

A. 230,000 stadia
B. 240,000 stadia
C. 250,000 stadia
D. 260,000 stadia
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6. Where is Polaris located in the night sky when you are standing at the equator?
A. It’s closer to the horizon.
B. It's 30 degrees above the ground.
C. It's in the middle of the sky or overhead.
D. It stays in its position wherever you observe it in the night sky.

7. Which of the following describes the position of Polaris if you travel closer to the
North Pole?
A. It gradually disappears.
B. It stays closer to the horizon.
C. It doesn’t change its position in the night sky.
D. It seems to rise higher and higher in the night sky

8. What is the equivalent value of Eratosthenes calculation of the Earth's circumference

in kilometers?
A. 30 000 kilometers
B. 40 000 kilometers
C. 50 000 kilometers
D. 60 000 kilometers

9. What is the shape of the Earth according to modern astronomy?

A. ellipsoid
B. rhomboid
C. oblate spheroid
D. hyperbolic paraboloid

10. Which of the following can be observed of a cruising ship sailing from the port to the
open sea?
A. It will not change its size.
B. It will become bigger and bigger.
C. It will become smaller and smaller until it disappears.
D. It will appear to sink then only the sail will be visible until it
completely disappears.

11. Who believed that spheres were the most perfect shapes and therefore all the
heavenly objects including Earth must be spherical?
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A. Aristotle
B. Pythagoras
C. Anaxagoras
D. Eratosthenes

12. What is the measurement of the angle of a shadow cast by a vertical pole in
Alexandria?
A. 5.1o
B. 6.1o
C. 7.1o
D. 8.1o

13. Why is it that Eratosthenes’s calculation of the Earth’s circumference solidifies

ancient Greeks’ belief of a spherical Earth?
A. It is because he used vertical poles to observe the shadow cast on
two different cities.
B. It is because he assumed that the light rays from the Sun are
parallel when they reach Earth.
C. It is because he observed the shadows cast on two different cities
during the summer solstice.
D. It is because he determined the value of the distance between the
two cities from a complete circle.

14. What is the distance between Syene and Alexandria?

A. 3,000 stadia
B. 4,000 stadia
C. 5,000 stadia
D. 6,000 stadia

15. What causes the difference in the angle of shadows cast in Syene and Alexandria at
noon during a summer solstice according to Eratosthenes?
A. The depth of the well in Syene
B. The curvature of the Earth surface
C. The distance between Syene and Alexandria
D. The height of the vertical pole in Alexandria

1. What causes the change of constellations in the sky?

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A. This is due to the rotation of Earth on its axis.

B. This is due to the motion of stars in the universe.
C. This is due to the motion of the Earth in its orbit around the Sun.
D. This is due to the motion of the Sun along the line of the ecliptic.

2. How did ancient people make use of their observations in the sky?
A. They used it to plan for war and conquer new lands.
B. They used it to entertain themselves during the night.
C. They used it to predict their future and make stories of heroes.
D. They used it for telling time, navigation, agriculture, and religious
practices.

3. Which of the following planets cannot be seen through the naked eye?
A. Venus
B. Jupiter
C. Neptune
D. Mercury

4. What would you expect to see if the Moon passes directly between the Sun and
Earth?

A. Solar eclipse
B. Lunar eclipse
C. Phases of the Moon
D. Motion of planets

5. How many days does the Moon complete its phases?

A. 26.5 days
B. 27.5 days
C. 28.5 days
D. 29.5 days

6. Which constellation does NOT belong to the group?

A. Leo
B. Virgo
C. Aries
D. Orion
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7. Which astronomical phenomena was used as the basis of creating ancient

calendars?
A. Phases of the Moon
B. Occurrence of comets
C. Appearance of eclipses
D. Changing positions of the constellations

8. Which astronomical phenomena was used to mark the onset of seasons?

A. Motion of planets
B. Appearance of comets
C. Occurrence of eclipses
D. Changing positions of the constellations

9. What would you expect to see when the Earth passes directly between the Sun and
the Moon?
A. Solar eclipse
B. Lunar eclipse
C. Phases of the Moon
D. Motion of planets

10. Which astronomical phenomena is considered to foretell the future of the Emperor in
ancient China?
A. Motion of planets
B. Phases of the Moon
C. Occurrence of eclipses
D. Appearance of comets

11. Which astronomical phenomena signifies incoming catastrophes for ancient people?
A. Motion of planets
B. Appearance of comets
C. Occurrence of eclipses
D. Phases of the Moon

12. What celestial bodies are moving along or near the ecliptic aside from
the five visible planets?
A. Sun, Moon, and Earth
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B. Sun, Moon, and comets

C. Sun, Moon, and meteors
D. Sun, Moon, and zodiac constellations

13. What is the direction of the motion of planets along the ecliptic against the
background of fixed stars?
A. northward
B. southward
C. eastward
D. westward

14. Which planet is the brightest among the others that can be seen in the night sky?
A. Venus
B. Jupiter
C. Neptune
D. Mercury

15. What kind of motion is exhibited by planets that puzzled ancient astronomers for
centuries?
A. eastward motion
B. retrograde motion
C. fixed motion
D. seasonal motion

1. Why did Brahe hire Kepler as his research assistant?

A. Because Brahe did not know how to interpret his data.
B. Because Brahe had not enough time in proving his theory.
C. Because Brahe is a close friend of Kepler and needed a companion.
D. Because Brahe needed Kepler to do mathematical calculations to
prove his theory.

2. Which of the following is NOT a contribution of Brahe in the field of astronomy?

A. He devised the first-ever telescope.
B. He revolutionized astronomical instrumentation.
C. He changed the observational practice profoundly.
D. He designed, built, and calibrated astronomical instruments
precisely.
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3. Which among the following statements is CORRECT about the law of ellipses?
A. Planets move in a circular orbit with the sun at the center.
B. Planets move in an elliptical orbit with the sun as one of the foci.
C. The period and the average distance are related by two-thirds power.
D. The line joining the sun and the planet sweeps equal areas in equal
times as the planet revolves around the sun.

4. Which law of planetary motion states that planets sweep equal areas of their orbit
over equal time intervals?
A. Law of ellipses
B. Law of equal areas
C. Law of periods
D. Law of gravity

5. That the square of the orbital period of a planet is proportional to the cube of the
mean distance from the sun is the statement of which law of planetary motion?
A. Law of ellipses
B. Law of equal areas
C. Law of periods
D. Law of gravity

6. Which of the following is NOT Brahe’s contribution?

A. He made observations of a supernova in 1572.
B. He made careful observation of a comet in 1577.
C. He formulated the three laws of planetary motion.
D. He designed and built astronomical instruments precisely.

7. Which of the following views of the universe was supported by the laws of planetary
motion?
A. Geocentric view
B. Heliocentric view
C. Tychonic view
D. Geoheliocentric view

8. Based on the first law of planetary motion, what is the shape of the planetary orbits?
A. Cone
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B. Circle
C. Ellipse
D. Rectangle

9. Which among Brahe’s contributions in astronomy paved the way for the formulation
of Kepler’s Law of Ellipses?
A. He made observations of a supernova in 1572.
B. He made careful observation of a comet in 1577.
C. He designed and built astronomical instruments precisely.
D. He made observations of planetary motion, particularly that of
planet Mars.

10. Which of the instruments below is not yet invented during Brahe’s time?
A. Quadrant
B. Telescope
C. Compass
D. Astrolabe

11. A planet travels faster as it gets closer to the sun and travels slower as it moves
away from the sun. Which law of planetary motion best explains this statement?
A. Law of ellipses
B. Law of equal areas
C. Law of periods
D. Law of gravity

12. Which of the following astronomical instruments is NOT depicted and described in
Brahe’s 1598 book Astronomiae instauratae mechanica?
A. Astrolabe
B. Armillary globe
C. Great Globe
D. Triangular sextant

13. Which astronomical laboratory was first established by Brahe and became the finest
observatory in Europe?
A. Uraniborg
B. Stellaeburgum
C. Leiden
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D. Rundetaarn

14. Which law of planetary motion is also known as the Law of Harmony that marked
the conclusion that there is a certain kind of harmony in the universe?
A. Law of ellipses
B. Law of equal areas
C. Law of periods
D. Law of gravity

15. Which of the following astronomers is credited with the discovery of the three laws
of planetary motion?
A. Brahe
B. Kepler
C. Ptolemy
D. Copernicus

1. Which law states that an object at rest stays at rest and an object in motion stays in
motion with the same speed and direction unless acted upon by an unbalanced force?
A. Law of Inertia
B. Law of Interaction
C. Law of Acceleration
D. Law of Gravitation

2. What is the tendency of an object to resist change in its motion?

A. Gravity
B. Force
C. Inertia
D. Mass

3. According to Galileo, what would happen to the height of the ball as it rolls down the
inclined plane if the external force is removed?
A. Original height is equal to the initial height.
B. Original height is lesser than the initial height.
C. Original height is greater than the initial height.
D. Original and final height cannot be determined.
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4. What is the subtle difference between Newton’s first law of motion and Galileo’s
assertion that force is not necessary to sustain horizontal motion?
A. There should be no unbalanced forces acting on an object in horizontal motion.
B. The net external force acting on an object in horizontal motions must be equal to
zero.
C. Should there be friction acting on an object in horizontal motion, another force is
needed to balance it out.
D. All of the above

5. Who postulated the Law of Inertia?

A. Galileo
B. Newton
C. Aristotle
D. Copernicus

6. Inertia is directly related to the mass of an object. Using this concept, which of the
following objects has the greatest inertia given their respective masses?
A. 500 g book
B. 500 mg tablet
C. 500 kg rock
D. 500 tons ship

7. Which of the following is a vector quantity that is measured in Newton- units and is
the result of push or pull between interacting objects?
A. velocity
B. acceleration
C. force
D. motion

8. Which of the following objects found inside a car is NOT an application of the law of
inertia?
A. seatbelt
B. airbag
C. headrest
D. windshield

9. Which of the following is directly related to the inertia of an object?

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A. motion
B. force
C. gravity
D. mass

10. When a car driver suddenly makes a sharp turn, the passenger slides to the side of
the car. Which of the following best describes the situation?
A. acceleration
B. inertia
C. gravity
D. friction

11. According to Newton’s First Law of Motion, what will happen to an object if there is
no force acting on it?
A. at rest, it would remain at rest
B. in motion, it would remain in motion
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B

12. According to Newton’s First Law of Motion, what will happen to a moving object if
there is no unbalanced force acting on it?
A. It will continue in motion.
B. It will eventually come to stop.
C. It will transfer energy to another object.
D. It will accelerate in the absence of friction.

13. Suppose you are riding in a car. When the car suddenly stops, your body tends to
keep moving in which direction?
A. forward
B. to the right
C. to the left
D. backward

14. A magician pulls a tablecloth out from under dishes and glasses without disturbing
them. Which of the following concepts best explain this phenomenon?
A. Inertia
B. Acceleration
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C. Interaction
D. Gravitation

15. Who was the first scientist to conceptualized inertia?

A. Galileo
B. Newton
C. Ptolemy
D. Copernicus

1. Which of the following idea about light was proposed by Newton?

A. light is made of waves
B. light is made of particles
C. light is made of energy
D. light is made of wave and particles

2. Who was the first to perform an experiment that shows that light may be made of
made of tiny particles?
A. Einstein
B. Maxwell
C. Newton
D. Young

3. According to Newton, which of the following explains how particles of light

propagate?
A. Light travels very fast that it follows a straight path.
B. Light particles hit a hard surface and is bounced back.
C. Light particles are attracted to water particles thus its speed become
faster in water.
D. Light particles are divided when hitting a wall, where some are reflected
while the others are refracted.

4. Which of the following is Newton’s explanation on refraction of light?

A. Light travels very fast that it follows a straight path.
B. Light particles hit a hard surface and is bounced back.
C. Light particles are attracted to water particles thus its speed become
faster in water.
D. Light particles are divided when hitting a wall, where some are reflected
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while the others are refracted.

5. Which of the following phenomenon was NOT thoroughly explained well by Newton’s
model of light?
A. propagation of light
B. reflection of light
C. refraction of light
D. partial refraction of light

6. Which of the following explains how light is refracted according to the wave model?
A. when light hits a surface, it bounces off at the same speed and angle.
B. Light particles are attracted to water particles thus its speed become
faster in water.
C. When light wave travels at two different speeds, it will bend into the
second medium.
D. Light particles are divided when hitting a wall, where some are reflected
while the others are refracted.

7. What will happen when light passes from one medium to another?
A. Light accelerates
B. Light bounces off
C. Light changes direction
D. Light scatters around

8. Which of the following models of light supports Einstein’s photoelectric effect?

A. Wave model
B. Energy model
C. Particle model
D. Dual nature model

9. Which model of light explains that light bounces off a surface just like a hard sphere
hitting a hard surface?
A. Wave model
B. Particle model
C. Dual nature model
D. Both A and B
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10. Which model of light explains that when EM radiation encounter a surface that does
not absorb the energy, it is bounces away from the surface?
A. Wave model
B. Particle model
C. Dual nature model
D. Both A and B

11. This model explains that light is made of particles called photons which has wave-
like properties.
A. Wave model
B. Particle model
C. Dual nature model
D. Both A and B

12. Which model of light was proposed after the photoelectric effect experiment?
A. Wave model
B. Particle model
C. Dual nature model
D. Both A and B

13. According to the particle model of light, what happens to light when it passes from
air to water?
A. Water molecules attracts light so light travels faster.
B. Water molecules hinder light so light travels slower.
C. Water molecules attracts light so light travels slower.
D. Water molecules acts as barriers thus bouncing it off.

14. According to Huygens, how is light propagated?

A. Light is like a particle that travels very fast.
B. Light is like a particle that has wave-like properties.
C. Light is like a ball thrown upward which follows a curve path.
D. Light is like a tiny wave that spread out in the forward direction.

15. How does Einstein describe light?

A. Light is like a particle that travels very fast.
B. Light is like a particle that has wave-like properties.
C. Light is like a ball thrown upward which follows a curve path.
 15

D. Light is like a tiny wave that spread out in the forward direction.

1. Which of the following EM radiation is made of photons?

A. Infrared
B. Light
C. Ultraviolet ray
D. All of the choices

2. Which of the following EM radiation carries most energy?

A. Gamma ray
B. Infrared
C. Microwave
D. Radio wave

3. Which of the following frequencies of light carries most energy?

A. 4.24x1014Hz
B. 5.47x1014Hz
C. 6.38x1014Hz
D. 7.21x1014Hz
4. What is the relationship between the wavelength and the frequency of light?
A. The frequency of light increases as its wavelength increases.
B. The frequency of light decreases as its wavelength decreases.
C. The frequency of light increases as its wavelength decreases.
D. The frequency of light is not related to the change in its
wavelength.

5. What is the relationship between the wavelength of light and the energy it carries?
A. As the wavelength of light increases, the energy it carries increases.
B. As the wavelength of light decreases, the energy it carries increases.
C. As the wavelength of light decreases, the energy it carries decreases.
D. As the wavelength of light increases, the energy it carries remains the same.

6. Which of the following is the correct arrangement of the EM radiation below according
to increasing energy?
1. Infrared wave
2. Light
3. Gamma ray
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4. Microwave
5. Radio

A. 12345
B. 54123
C. 13452
D. 23541

7. Which of the following will most likely occur to the electrons on the surface of a metal
if the incident light has a photon energy less than the work function?
A. The electrons will stay on the metal.
B. The electrons will eject from the metal surface.
C. The electrons will lose the kinetic energy.
D. The electrons will obtain sufficient energy to eject over time.

8. Which of the following will most likely occur to the electrons on the metal surface if
the incident light has a photon energy greater than the work function?
A. The electrons will heat up the metal.
B. The electrons will eject from the metal surface.
C. The electrons will obtain sufficient energy to eject over time.
D. The electrons will be excited but it will remain on the metal surface.

9. What color of light is used in developing photographic film?

A. blue
B. green
C. red
D. violet

10. Which type/s of UV radiation is/are thought to cause skin cancer?

A. UVA
B. UVB
C. UVC
D. Both UVA and UVB

11. How much energy does an EM wave contain if it has a frequency of 4.96 x 1018
Hz? Remember that the Planck’s constant is equal to 6.63 x 10-34 J.s.0
A. 2.47x1015J
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B. 3.29x10-15J
C. 6.27x1015J
D. 7.48x10-15J

12. Why are your eyes not able to see UV radiations, like bees do?
A. Because the cornea of the eyes scatters the UV radiations.
B. Because the retina of the eyes reacts only to UV radiations.
C. Because the retina of the eyes is only sensitive to the frequency of
light.
D. Because the cornea of the eyes blocks the UV radiations from
hitting the retina.

13. Why is red light used in dark rooms instead of white light?
A. Because red light enhances the color of the photographs.
B. Because red light is the only color that the films react with.
C. Because red light has inadequate energy to expose the films.
D. Because red light has very high energy needed for developing
films.

14. Why do you get sunburn after taking a swim at the beach on a sunny day?
A. Because the heat from the sun damages the skin.
B. Because the ultraviolet rays from the sun damage the skin.
C. Because the light from the sun is too bright that it damages the
skin.
D. Because the salt from the sea reacts with sunlight and damages
the skin.

15. What happens to the energy that an EM radiation carries, when its wavelength
increases?
A. The energy of the EM radiation increases.
B. The energy of the EM radiation decreases.
C. The energy of the EM radiation remains the same.
D. The energy is only related to frequency and not on the wavelength.
1. Which of the following phenomena can diffraction of light be observed?
A. air trapped between two pieces of clear plastic produces rainbow-colored patterns
B. sun radiates light to the clouds and creates silver lining
C. colors and patterns in the soap film bubbles
 18

D. oil spill in water produces thin oil films

2. Which of the following refers to the separation of white light into its component colors
when refracted?
A. Diffraction
B. Dispersion
C. Interference
D. Scattering

3. Which of the following must occur in order to produce a wave that has the same
wavelength but twice the amplitude of the two waves that meet?
I. when two identical parts of two waves meet such as a crest of one wave meets the
crest of another wave of the same wavelength
II. when two opposite parts of two waves meet, for example, a crest
of one wave meets the trough of another wave
III. when a superposing of waves from different sources is observed
A. I and II
B. III
C. II
D. I

4. Which statement is the correct differentiation of diffraction and interference of light?

A. Diffraction is the bending of light when it encounters an obstacle
or an opening, while interference is the result of the superposing of waves from different
sources.
B. Interference is the bending of light when it encounters an obstacle or an opening,
while diffraction is the result of the superposing of waves from different sources.
C. Diffraction is the absorbing and scattering of light in all directions, while interference
is the meeting of waves from different sources.
D. Both A and B

5. Which color/s of the visible spectrum is/are scattered most by the molecules of air
and other fine particles?
A. Blue
B. Green
C. Red
D. Blue and Red
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6. Which of the following explains the series of bright and dark lines on the screen as
light passes through two narrow slits?
A. wave-interference
B. wave-refraction
C. wave-reflection
D. wave-scattering

7. Which does NOT correctly describe dispersion and scattering of light?

A. Dispersion occurs when a beam of white light passes through a prism, and splits
white light into different components, while scattering is the process in which light gets
deflected by the tiny particles in the medium through which light passes.
B. Dispersion is the splitting up of white light into its seven color components when a
refraction or bending of light occurs, while scattering is the ability of particles to absorb
light and scatter it in all directions.
C. Scattering is the splitting up of white light into its seven color components when a
refraction or bending of light occurs, while dispersion is the ability of particles to absorb
light and scatter it in all directions.
D. Dispersion of light in a prism result in the formation of a spectrum, while the
scattering of sunlight by the molecules in the air results in the formation of silver lining in
the clouds.

8. Which of the following scenarios is true when color spectrum moves out from a
prism?
A. Red and orange are bent the most among the colors of the visible spectrum.
B. Orange light is bent the most, while blue light is bent the least.
C. Violet light is bent the most, while red light is bent the least.
D. Red light is bent the most, while violet light is bent the least.

9. Which of the following sets of colors are arranged in decreasing frequency?

A. yellow, green, blue, indigo, violet, red, orange
B. red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo, violet
C. violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange, red
D. blue, indigo, violet, red, orange, yellow, green

10. In an interference pattern, what do the white bands and dark bands of light
represent?
 20

A. The white bands are the results of constructive interference, while the dark bands are
the results of destructive interference.
B. The white bands are the results of destructive interference, while the dark bands are
the results of constructive interference.
C. The white and dark bands are the results of combining both constructive and
destructive interferences.
D. The white and dark bands are the results of constructive interference.

11. On a rainy day, small oily films on water show brilliant colors. Which property of light
explains this observation?
A. Interference
B. Polarization
C. Refraction
D. Scattering

12. Which of the following phenomena is an example of diffraction?

A. light coming through a keyhole and spreading out in a dark room
B. light entering a prism and emerging as a rainbow
C. light bending as it enters a new medium
D. light scattering in the atmosphere

13. What happens to the light when it strikes through a colloidal solution?
A. It will pass unchanged.
B. It will be scattered.
C. It will be absorbed.
D. It will be reflected.

14. Which of the following properties of light describes the tendency for a narrow beam
of light to spread or flare out?
A. Diffraction
B. Dispersion
C. Reflection
D. Refraction

15. Among the scientists, who discovered first the diffraction pattern produced by the
double-slit experiment?
A. Christian Huygens
 21

B. Thomas Young
C. Albert Einstein
D. Isaac Newton
 22

ENGLISH

1. What part of the book review critics the books and point out the strengths and
weaknesses?
a. Body
b. Conclusion
c. Introduction
d. Reference

2. Which among the options help the readers to decide whether the book is worth
reading or not?
a. Book Review
b. Position Paper
c. Literature Review
d. Research Report

3. What part of the research report gives suggestion to the best course of action in the
study?
a. Discussion
b. Conclusion
c. Methods
d. Recommendations

4. Which among the options supports a position by citing credible sources?

a. Book Review
b. Position Paper
c. Literature Review
d. Research Report

5. Who helped the researcher in analyzing numerical data?

a. researcher
b. respondents
c. grammarian
d. statistician

6. What part of the literature review do you write the scope of the study?
a. Body
 23

b. Conclusion
c. Introduction
d. Reference

7. Which among the statements is NOT considered as part of the methodological part of
research?
a. It describes the most important aspects of the study.
b. It includes a description of the research sample, and data collection.
c. It includes tests, questionnaires, interview or observation forms and measurement.
d. It provides scientific tools and techniques relevant for the problem chosen.

8. What part of the book review do you need to write your summary?
a. Body
b. Conclusion
c. Introduction
d. Reference

9. How important is gathering sources from writing the literature review?

a. It describes how the propose research is related to prior research.
b. It gives guidelines to choose sound method that is right for the research.
c. It interprets the describes the significance of the findings in light of what was already
known.
d. It provides closure for the reader while reminding the reader of the contents and
importance of the paper.

10. Why do you need to restate your thesis statement in the conclusion part?
a. to point out the strength
b. to explain what the book is about
c. to provide are markable remark
d. to prove your point and stand on the topic

11. Which among the statements below is NOT a characteristic of a literature review?
a. To discover what has been written about a topic already
b. To determine what each source contributes to the topic
c. To critic the content and point out strengths and weaknesses
d. To understand the relationship between the various contributions
 24

12.Which among the options is considered as the purpose in writing literature review?
a. question the accuracy of the topic
b. build bridges between related topics
c. relate personal experience to bridge the gap
d. makes personal judgments based from the reader’s point of view

13.Which among the options is NOT considered as concluding part of a literature

review?
a. establish the problem
b. summarize important aspects
c. outline areas for future study
d. state the demand in conducting the research

14.How do you interpret results from quantitative data?

a. provide literature review
b. make a critical suggestion
c. provide graphs, tables and charts
d. write statistical computations

15.How do you determine if a source is credible?

a. check TV ads for verification
b. verify through blogs of famous artists
c. consider bloodlines of the source’s relative
d. examine the source’s and author’s credentials and affiliations

1. Which of the following parts of project proposal includes work breakdown or staffing,
task time estimates, and project deliverables?
a. project objectives/outcomes
b. project methodology
c. budgetary requirement
d. project background

2. Which of the following parts of project proposal indicates the financial requirement of
the project?
a. project objectives/outcomes
b. project methodology
c. budgetary requirement
 25

d. project background

3. Which of the following parts of project proposal indicates the plans on how the project
objectives will be achieved?
a. project objectives/outcomes
b. project methodology
c. budgetary requirement
d. project background

4. It indicates how the project team will be organized, what development and
collaboration tools will be used, and how the plan will be updated along the way.
a. Project Approach Summary
b. Work Breakdown and Task Time Estimates
c. Project Deliverables
d. budgetary requirement

5. Which of the following best describes a project proposal?

a. a request for financial assistance to implement a project
b. a concise and coherent summary of your proposed research
c. a job application in a company
d. a letter asking solicitation

6. Which of the following defines a project proposal?

a. It outlines the plan of the organization about the project.
b. It is the final document used to define an internal or external project.
d. It is an individual achievement.

7. Which of the following is NOT an element of a project proposal?

a. formulation of project elements
b. converting the plan into a project document
c. avoiding sponsors and stakeholders
d. articulating the activities for the proposed project

8. Which of the following is a challenge in preparing a project proposal?

a. It is an essential marketing document that helps cultivate an initial professional
relationship between an organization and a donor.
b. It facilitates appropriate words for the conception of an idea.
 26

c. It has a framework that establishes ideas formally to a clear understanding of the

project for the donor.
d. It has often tight deadlines, so proposals are usually rejected.

9. Which of the following is the main objective of a project proposal?

a. formulation of project elements
b. converting the plan into a project document
c. a great way to secure funding, win new clients, or convince executives to allocate
resources to projects.
d. estimating the budget

10. Which of the following is considered when writing a successful project proposal?
a. It requires being on the same page with the clients and wearing their shoes for a
moment.
b. It needs more people to formulate a proposal.
c. It needs a year or two to prepare for the needed materials.
d. It needs writing conventions.

11. Which of the following is not a description of a project proposal?

a. It is a document that describes a proposed project and its purpose, outcomes and the
steps that will be taken to complete the project
b. It is the formal agreement between two parties to complete a project, a project
proposal’s purpose is to communicate how a company, team, or individual plan to
approach a project.
c. It is a request for financial assistance to implement a project.
d. It requires being on the same page with the clients and wearing their shoes for a
moment.

12. Which of the following is not important in project proposal preparation?

a. To describe services and outcomes from a potential service provider so decision-
makers can compare vendors and pick the best provider for their needs
b. It should be considered a sales document that persuades the decision-maker or
stakeholder that the prospective provider has the skills and expertise needed to
complete the project to their satisfaction
c. It should also set expectations, detail budget and timeline, as well as set expectations
for what delivery would look like.
 27

d. It is the formal agreement between two parties to complete a project, a project

proposal’s purpose is to communicate how a company, team, or individual plan to
approach a project.

13. Which of the following is considered the first step in project proposal preparation?
a. writing
b. planning
c. asking
d. reviewing

14. Which of the following parts of a project proposal gives an overview of what the
project is about?
a. project objectives/outcomes
b. project methodology
c. budgetary requirement
d. project background

15. Which of the following parts of a project proposal states explicitly what
the project aims to achieve?
a. project objectives/outcomes
b. project methodology
c. budgetary requirement
d. project background

1. Which of the following refers to a formal document that a job applicant creates to
itemize his or her qualifications for a position?
A. application letter
B. cover paper
C. memorandum
D. resume

2. Which of the following information must an applicant include in his/her resume?

A. travel experiences
B. work experiences
C. favorite hobbies
D. favorite Food
 28

3. What would the hiring officer look for in a resume?

A. the applicant’s qualifications that would suit the position applied for
B. the applicant’s ability to adjust to his working environment
C. the applicant’s willingness to meet new friends
D. the applicant’s positive attitude towards low salary

4. Why is there a need to proofread your resume?

A. to spot errors in spelling and grammar
B. to check errors in spelling and grammar
C. to underline errors in spelling and grammar
D. to list down errors in spelling and grammar

5. Which of the following must a resume reflect?

A. the applicant’s communication skills
B. the applicant’s higher order thinking skills
C. the applicant’s unique personality and abilities
D. the applicant’s elaborate knowledge about the company
6. Which of the following terms also refers to an application letter?
A. cover letter
B. cover page
C. letter of request
D. memorandum

7. Which information in an application letter would the hiring officer use to inform you of
your interview schedule?
A. contact details
B. character references
C. school where graduated
D. address of previous employer

8. An application letter must include an explanation of the applicant’s qualifications and

skills. Which of the following best explains the reason for this?
A. to achieve a sense of acceptance
B. to compete with other applicants
C. to create better chances of being hired
D. to establish relevance to the position applied for
 29

9. Why is there a need to highlight one’s educational qualification in his/her application

letter?
A. to win the approval of the employer
B. to achieve a good rapport with the employer
C. to assure the company of his/her best work attitude
D. to assure the company that he/she is suited to the position applied for

10. Which of the following best explains the reason for writing a college application
letter?
A. to explain why you choose their school
B. to express your intention to enroll in their school
C. to express your desire to be a good student once accepted
D. to comply with the requirements for college enrolment

11. Which of the following must one do before writing a college application letter?
A. Google the format of letter writing
B. Check the information about the school on Facebook
C. Contact the registrar for details on enrolment procedure
D. Learn the school’s requirements for an application letter

12. Which of the following statements best states the relevance of an office
correspondence?
A. It creates harmonious relationship among workers
B. It keeps people updated about issues and concerns
C. It helps the employer evaluate employees’ communication skills
D. It helps people within the company communicate with each other efficiently

13. Which is the best way to market yourself in your college application letter?
A. include your academic achievements
B. tell how popular you were in high school
C. narrate about your most significant experiences
D. promise that you are going to do your best in college

14. What do you call a written message from one person to another within an
organization?
A. electronic mail
B. friendly letter
 30

C. memorandum
D. text message

15. The following are the uses of a memorandum, except one. Which one is this?
A. to issue instructions
B. to terminate employees
C. to give/seek suggestions
D. to communicate regarding policy change

1. Who are the major characters of the “Little Women”?

a. Marmee, Laurie, Jo, Amy
b. Mr. Brooke, Meg, Beth, Laurie
c. Meg, Jo, Beth, Amy
d. Meg, Jo, Amy, Frederick

2. Which character best relates to the author?

a. Meg
b. Marmee
c. Amy
d. Jo

3. Which character travelled to Europe and pursued painting?

a. Meg
b. Aunt March
c. Amy
d. Beth

4. In the early part of the story, to whom did Laurie profess his love to?
a. Jo
b. Amy
c. Meg
d. Beth

5. Among the four sisters, who is described as the responsible one and kind but has
weakness toward luxury and leisure?
a. Jo
b. Amy
 31

c. Meg
d. Beth

6. Who is described as the moral role model of the four sisters?

a. Hannah
b. Aunt March
c. Marmee
d. Annie Moffat

7. Who brought the family so much food for Christmas dinner?

a. Laurie
b. Mr. Brooke
c. Aunt March
d. Mr. Lawrence

8. What did Beth give to Mr. Lawrence that compelled him to give her a piano?
a. notebook
b. hat
c. slippers
d. cane

9. What is the theme of the story?

a. freedom
b. love
c. patriotism
d. revenge

0. How did Jo initially wanted to end her novel with which her publisher did not agree
to?
a. All the sisters were happily married.
b. One of the main characters will be unmarried.
c. All the characters will die.
d. They will all become rich and successful.

11. Where and when is the setting of the book?

a. Set in 2020, in New England town; in the home of the March family.
b. Set in 1879, in New England town; in the home of the March family.
 32

c. Set in 1860, in New England town; in the home of the March family.
d. Set in 1990, in New England town; in the home of the March family.

12. What is one of the conflicts in the book?

a. Happiness of the March family
b. The economic struggle of the March family.
c. The desire to travel and be successful.
d. All of the above.

13. What genre does the book belong to?

a. drama
b. poetry
c. bildungsroman
d. None of the above

14. Who is the author of “Little Women”?

a. Josephine March
b. Louisa May Alcott
c. Mark Twain
d. Stephen King

15. The book is narrated in whose point of view?

a. First-person
b. Second-person
c. Third-person
d. All of the above

1. How many sonnets did William Shakespeare write?

a. 154
b. 164
c.174
d.184

2. Who wrote the famous epic Aeneid?

a. Dante
b. Homer
c. Sophocles
 33

d. Virgil

3. What literary work tells about an emperor who wants to destroy the bandits?
a. Divine Comedy
b. Tamburlaine
c. TheIliad
d. The Prelude

4. Who among the following authors viewed that modern individual is motivated by
desires and disillusionment?
a. D. H. Lawrence
b. Fyodor Dostoevsky
c. T. S. Eliot
d. William Wordsworth

5. Which of the following is a story, poem, or picture that is interpreted to reveal a

hidden meaning?
a. allegory
b. epic
c. sonnet
d. travelogue

6. What does “Crime and Punishment” depict?

a. It focuses on mental anguish and dilemmas.
b. It shows the economic imbalance of the society.
c. It tells about the conflicting ideas of religion against reality.
d. It talks on political unsustainability of the country which destroys the
economy.

7. Which of the following statements depict the tragic play of Oedipus Rex?
a. Oedipus was raised to be a fine king.
b. Oedipus fulfilled a prophecy of marrying his mother.
c. Oedipus married his sister to ascend into the kingdom.
d. Oedipus destroys the kingdom of his brother and become a king.

8. Who initiated the reform of Christianity in the 15th century?

 34

a. Christopher Marlowe
b. John Donne
c. Martin Luther
d. William Shakespeare

9. What era in the European literature where Romanticism prevailed?

a. Medieval
b. 18th century
c. 19th century
d. 20th century

10.Why did the main character of Don Quixote decide to become a knight- errand?
a. to instill patriotism and bravery
b. to influence people to serve the country
c. to impress his family that he become a knight
d. to revive chivalry and serve his nation with honor

11.Which among the statements relate to the biblical poem, Paradise Lost?
a. the temptation of Adam and Eve
b. the treachery of Judas to Jesus
c. the killing of Abraham and his family
d. the plague experienced by the people

12.What does an autobiographical poem tell?

a. It tells about the dilemma of his family.
b. It expresses the desires of human life.
c. It tells the biography of oneself narrated by oneself.
d. It tells about the heroic deeds and adventures of the author.

13. Which among the sentences is NOT a characteristic of an opera?

a. Music is played by the orchestra.
b. It tells a story through music and singing.
c. Singers don’t use microphones to amplify their voices.
d. Singers are often given microphones to be heard by large audiences.

14. Why was the 18th century considered to be the Age of Reason?
 35

a. because people were skeptical to political controversy

b. because the new form of Christianity is established
c. because epics was reinterpreted throughout Europe
d. because there is a pursuit of order and scientific knowledge

15. Why does ancient literature mostly focus on myth and supernatural world?
a. Ancient literature influences the listeners of a unique idea.
b. Ancient literature depicts heroes that are unbeaten by enemies.
c. Ancient literature explores scientific discovery applied to literature.
d. Ancient literature incorporates elements that can’t be explained by science.

1. In what country was Anamika born?

a. Angora
b. India
c. Mumbai
d. Nepal

2. What figurative language is used in “men’s heart a salt mountain?”

a. allusion
b. alliteration
c. metaphor
d. simile

3. What is the meaning for men to have a heart that is “salt mountain”?
a. brave and strong
b. hide emotions and pain
c. introspective
d. sorrowful

4. What genre of literature is “Salt”?

a. fiction
b. nonfiction
c. poetry
d. prose

5. Which is the meaning of Gandhi in the poem Salt?

a. lawyer
 36

b. politician
c. spiritual leader
d. venerable

For questions 6-10, refer to the memoir of Malala Yousafzai.

6. What happens when a girl is born in Malala’s culture?
a. break an egg
b. nothing
c. town festivity
d. celebrate birthday

7. What is the theme of Chapter 1?

a. discrimination
b. gender inequality
c. Islamic culture
d. sexism

8. What is the theme of Chapter 2?

a. amulet
b. power
c. wish
d. magical pencil

9. Which is the theme of Chapter 5?

a. assurance
b. goodwill
c. terror
d. trouble

10. What is the theme of Chapter 16?

a. hope and truth
b. humility in success
c. peace and unity
d. freedom of choice

1. Which of the following is NOT true about dehydration?

a. it lessens urine output
 37

b. there is a feeling of thirst

c. numbness due to cold is felt
d. You should drink plenty of water

2. When a person is showing signs of hypothermia, which of the following should not be
performed?
a. dry the person
b. increase body temperature by layering clothing
c. have the person consume hot beverage
d. apply a wet cloth to the neck, wrists, armpit, and groin

3. How does a warm-up prevent overexertion?

a. it prepared your body to a more intense physical activity
b. it relaxes your muscles and make you sleepy
c. it stretches your bones, making you taller
d. it improves posture

4. Which of the following is a safety protocol for overexertion?

a. make sure that you are dressed in light, cool clothing
b. sleep late at night
c. regularly consume alcohol, coffee, and tea
d. practice good posture

5. Urinating and sweating less than normal is a sign of _ ?

a. hypothermia
b. dehydration
c. overexertion
d. losing consciousness

1. Ito ang bahagi ng pananaliksik na naglalaman ng maikling pagtalakay sa paksa.

A. burador
B. introduksyon
C. katawan
D. kongklusyon

2. Sa bahaging ito tinatalakay ang mga naunang pangyayari o kasaysayan ng paksa ng

pananaliksik patungo sa mga kasalukuyang pangyayari.
 38

A. balangkas
B. burador
C. katawan
D. kongklusyon

3. Sa bahaging ito mababasa ang pahayag ng tesis ng sulating pananaliksik.

A. burador
B. introduksyon
C. katawan
D. kongklusyon

4. Ito ang bahagi kung saan makikitang naisakatuparan ang layunin ng pananaliksik.
A. introduksyon
B. katawan
C. kongklusyon
d. rekomendasyon

5. Sa bahaging ito inilalahad ang saklaw at limitasyon ng pananaliksik.

A. introduksyon
B. katawan
C. kongklusyon
D. rekomendasyon
 39

HEALTH

1. Which of the following is NOT a physiological indicator?

A. Heart Rate
B. Weight
C. Blood Pressure

2. A hiker feels dizzy once in a while when he climbs up the hills. What rate of exertion
number will he put in his chart?
A. 10
B. 9
C. 8

3. If you are 18 years of age, what is your maximum heart rate?

A. 102
B. 108
C. 202

4. Physiological indicator monitoring is only applicable after participating an activity

A. It depends on the body condition
B. False
C. True

5. How you are going to measure heart rate/beat?

A. Per second
B. Per minute
C. Every after 5 minutes

6. Is the number of times your heart beats per minute.

A. Heart Rate
B. Pulse Monitoring
C. Heart Beat

7. Are physiological parameters that you should consider while doing physical activities
such as heart rate and rate of perceived exertion
A. Physiological Monitoring
B. Physiological Indicators
 40

C. A and B

8. Measures how hard you feel your body is working.

A. Physiological Indicator
B. Rate of Perceived Exertion
C. Heart Beat

9. Heart beat is _______ when at rest than while doing an activity.

A. Slower
B. Faster
C. Lesser

10. Your RPE is in number 10 when

A. It is difficult for you to breathe and move
b. When you cannot move and can hold conversation
c. When it is impossible for you to keep going

1. Which of the following is a symptom of hyperthermia?

A. cold skin
B. blue skin
C. red face
D. green face

2. At what condition does hypothermia could most likely occur?

A. Autumn
B. Spring
C. Summer
D. Winter

3. After a few hours of walking in the dessert under the scorching heat of the sun, Don
was able to adjust to the hot weather condition. What did Don experience?
A. Cold Acclimatization
B. Heat Acclimatization
C. Climate Adaptation
D. Heat Adaptation

4. Which of the following is a safety protocol to avoid hypothermia?

 41

A. Wear insulated clothing

B. Wear light clothing
C. Drink cold beverages
D. Eat foods rich in fiber

5. Romeo Garduce battled the biting temperature that dropped to as low as -26 degrees
Celcius as he climbed the summit of Mt. Everest in 2006. Which of the following
conditions he most likely experienced?
A. frostbite
B. muscle cramps
C. high body temp.
D. thirst

6. Which of the following is a symptom of hypothermia?

A. red face
B. muscle cramps
C. thirst
D. low body temperature

7. What season does hyperthermia could most likely occur?

A. Autumn
B. Spring
C. Summer
D. Winter

8. After a few days of staying in Ellesmer Island in Canada, Kin was able to adjust to its
freezing condition. What did Kin experience?
A. Cold Acclimatization
B. Heat Acclimatization
C. Climate Adaptation
D. Heat Adaptation

9. Which of the following is a safety protocol to avoid hyperthermia?

A. Wear insulated clothing
B. Wear light clothing
C. Drink hot beverages
D. Drink wine and alcoholic beverages
 42

10. Based on the PAGASA's historical data, the all-time high air temperature in the
Philippines was recorded in Tuguegarao City, Cagayan on May 11, 1969 at 42.2
degrees Celsius. Which of the following conditions a person would most likely
experience then?
A. frostbite
B. muscle cramps
C. low body temperature
D. unresponsive to pain

1. It is consisting of activities or experience carried on within leisure.

A. Hiking
b. watching tv
c. recreational activity

2. It has a greater impact in the totality of a person specifically in three aspects- physical
health, mental health and improving quality of life.
A. Hiking
b. watching tv
c. recreational activity

3. An example of recreational activity in which participants take up temporary residence

in the outdoors, using tents or specifically designed or adapted vehicle for shelter.
A. Camping
b. hiking
c. watching tv

4. One of the things to consider in organizing a camping activity which will dictate you
on where you should go and what you’ll look for in a campsite.
A. Pack your gear
B. Plan your menu
C. Decide what’s important in a camping experience

5. The following are things to consider in organizing a camping activity, except for
A. Pack your gear
B. Reserve your campsite
C. Sleeping