1.

Though activities in the Fundamental test process may overlap or occur concurrently,
identify the logical sequential process.
(i) Test Implementation and Execution
(ii) Test Closure activities
(iii) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
(iv) Test Planning and Control
(v) Test Analysis and Design
A. iv – v – iii – ii – i
B. v – i – iii – ii – iv
C. iv – v – i – iii – ii
D. v – ii – iii – i – iv
Explanation:
The sequential steps in fundamental test process are:
Test Planning and Control
Test Analysis and Design
Test Implementation and Execution
Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Test Closure activities
2. What is the USUAL sequence for performing the following activities during the Fundamental
Test Process?
a. Analyse the test basis documents.
b. Define the expected results.
c. Create the test execution schedule.
d. Establish the traceability of the test conditions
A. d, a, c, b
B. a, d, b, c
C. a, b, c, d
D. a, b, d, c
3. A deviation from the specified or expected behaviour that is visible to end-users is called:
A. An error
B. A fault
C. A failure
D. A defect
Explanation:
Error: (mistake) is a human action that produces an incorrect result.
Fault (bug, defect): is a flaw in a component or system that can cause the component or system
to fail to perform it's required function.
Failure: is deviation of the component or system from its expected delivery, service or result.
4. What should be taken into account to determine when to stop testing?
I. Technical risk
II. Business risk
III Project constraints
IV Product documentation
A. I and II are true. III and N are false
B. III is true, I, II, and IV are false
C. I, II, and IV are true; III is false
D. I, II, and III are true, IV is false.
5. Which of the following is false?
A. In a system, two different failures may have different severities.
B. A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.
C. A fault need not affect the reliability of a system.
D. Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behaviour.
6. Test data planning essentially includes
A. Network
B. Operational Model
C. Boundary Value analysis
D. Test procedure planning
7. Which of the following is true?
A. Component testing should be black box, system testing should be white box.
B. If u find a lot of bugs in testing, you should not be very confident about the quality of
software.
C. The fewer bugs you find, the better your testing was
D. The more tests you run, the more bugs you will find.
8. Which of the following is not a phase of the Fundamental Test Process?
A. Test Planning and Control
B. Test implementation and Execution
C. Requirement Analysis
D. Evaluating Exit criteria and reporting
9. Evaluating testability of the requirements and system are a part of which phase:
A. Test Analysis and Design
B. Test Planning and control
C. Test Implementation and execution
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Explanation:
Test Analysis and Design has the following major tasks
- Review the test basis
- Identify test conditions
- Design the tests
- Evaluate testability of the requirements and system
- Design the test environment set-up
10. Which of the following could be a reason for a failure
1) Testing fault
2) Software fault
3) Design fault
4) Environment Fault
5) Documentation Fault
A. 2 is a valid reason; 1,3,4 & 5 are not
B. 1,2,3,4 are valid reasons; 5 is not
C. 1,2,3 are valid reasons; 4 & 5 are not
D. All of them are valid reasons for failure.
11. Hand over of Testware is a part of which Phase
A. Test Analysis and Design
B. Test Planning and control
C. Test Closure Activities
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Explanation:
Test Closure Activities include the following major tasks
- Check which planned deliverables we actually delivered and ensure all incident reports have
been resolved.
- Finalize and archive testware.
- Hand over of testware.
- Evaluate how the testing went and analyze lessons learned.
12. Test Case grouped into Manageable (and scheduled) units are called as
A. Test Harness
B. Test Suite
C. Test Cycle
D. Test Driver
13. Which of the following statements describes a key principle of software testing?
A. Automated tests allow better statements of confidence about the quality of software
products.
B. For a software system, it is normally impossible to test all the input and output
combinations.
C. Exhaustive software testing is, with enough effort and tool support, feasible for all
software.
 D. The purpose of software testing is demonstrating the absence of defects in software
products.
14. What is the purpose of a test completion criterion?
A. to know when a specific test has finished its execution
B. to ensure that the test case specification is complete
C. to set the criteria used in generating test inputs
D. to determine when to stop testing
15. Which of the following is a KEY test closure task?
A. Ensuring proper environment setup
B. Writing a test summary report
C. Assessing the need for additional tests
D. Finalising and archiving testware.
16. Which defects are OFTEN much cheaper to remove?
A. Usability defects found by customers
B. Defects in infrequently used functionality
C. Defects that were detected early
D. Minor defects that were found by users
17. Which activity in the fundamental test process creates test suites for efficient test execution?
A. Implementation and execution.
B. Planning and control.
C. Analysis and design.
D. Test closure.
18. Which of the problems below BEST characterise a result of software failure?
A. Damaged reputation
B. Lack of methodology
C. Inadequate training
D. Regulatory compliance
19. What is the purpose of exit criteria?
A. To define when a test level is complete.
B. To determine when a test has completed.
C. To identify when a software system should be retired.
D. To determine whether a test has passed.
20. Which activities form part of test planning?
i) Developing test cases.
ii) Defining the overall approach to testing.
iii) Assigning resources.
iv) Building the test environment
v) Writing test conditions.
A. i, ii &iv are true, iii & v are false.
B. ii & iii are true, i, iv& v are false.
 C. iv & v are true, i, ii & iii are false.
D. i, ii & iii are true iv& v are false.
21. What principle is BEST described when test designs are written by a third party?
A. Exploratory testing
B. Independent testing
C. Integration testing
D. Interoperability testing
22. Which of the following is a benefit of test independence?
A. It does not require familiarity with the code.
B. It is cheaper than using developers to test their own code.
C. It avoids author bias in defining effective tests.
D. Testers are better at finding defects than developers
23. Which is the best definition of complete testing:
A. You have discovered every bug in the program.
B. You have tested every statement, branch, and combination of branches in the program.
C. You have completed every test in the test plan.
D. You have reached the scheduled ship date.
24. Which is not the testing objectives
A. Finding defects
B. Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information
C. Preventing defects.
D. Debugging defects
25. Which of the following is a KEY task of a tester?
A. Reviewing tests developed by others
B. Writing a test strategy for the project
C. Deciding what should be automated
D. Writing test summary reports
26. Which is not a testing principle
A. Early testing
B. Defect clustering
C. Pesticide paradox
D. Exhaustive testing
Explanation:
There are seven principles of testing. They are as follows:
1) Testing shows the presence of defects: Testing can show the defects are present, but cannot
prove that there are no defects. Even after testing the application or product thoroughly we
cannot say that the product is 100% defect free. Testing always reduces the number of
undiscovered defects remaining in the software but even if no defects are found, it is not a proof
of correctness.
2) Exhaustive testing is impossible: Testing everything including all combinations of inputs and
preconditions is not possible. So, instead of doing the exhaustive testing we can use risks and
priorities to focus testing efforts.
3) Early testing: In the SDLC testing activities should start as early as possible and should be
focused on defined objectives.
4) Defect clustering: A small number of modules contains most of the defects discovered during
pre-release testing or shows the most operational failures.
5) Pesticide paradox: If the same kinds of tests are repeated, again and again, eventually the same
set of test cases will no longer be able to find any new bugs. To overcome this “Pesticide
Paradox”, it is really very important to review the test cases regularly and new and different tests
need to be written to exercise different parts of the software or system to potentially find more
defects.
6) Testing is context dependent: Testing is basically context dependent. Different kinds of
software applications are tested differently. For example, a gaming website is tested differently
from an e-commerce website.
7) Absence – of – errors fallacy: If the system built is unusable and does not fulfill the user’s
needs and expectations then finding and fixing defects does not help.
27. What consists of a set of input values, execution preconditions and expected results?
A. Test script
B. Test procedure specification
C. Test case
D. Test data
28. The ___________ testing will be performed by the people at clients own locations
A. Alpha testing
B. Field testing
C. Performance testing
D. System testing
29. Which of the following MAIN activity is part of the fundamental test process?
A. Initiating and planning
B. Documenting root-causes
C. Capturing lessons learned
D. Planning and control
30. The purpose of exit criteria is
A. Define when to stop testing
B. End of test level
C. When a set of tests has achieved a specific precondition
D. All of the above
31. Which is not the fundamental test process
A. Planning and control
B. Test closure activities
 C. Analysis and design
D. None
32. The ________ and ________ are used within individual workbenches to produce the right
output products.
A. Tools and techniques
B. Procedures and standards
C. Processes and walkthroughs
D. Reviews and update
33. Which of the following is a MAJOR test planning task?
A. Determining the exit criteria
B. Measuring and analysing results
C. Implementing corrective actions
D. Monitoring and documenting progress
34. Testing wherein we subject the target of the test, to varying workloads to measure and
evaluate the performance behaviour and ability of the target and of the test to continue to
function properly under these different workloads.
A. Load Testing
B. Integration Testing
C. System Testing
D. Usability Testing
35. Reviewing the test Basis is a part of which phase
A. Test Analysis and Design
B. Test Implementation and execution
C. Test Closure Activities
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
36. Which of the following is not a part of the Test Implementation and Execution Phase
A. Creating test suites from the test cases
B. Executing test cases either manually or by using test execution tools
C. Comparing actual results
D. Designing the Tests
37. Designing the test environment set-up and identifying any required infrastructure and tools
are a part of which phase
A. Test Implementation and execution
B. Test Analysis and Design
C. Evaluating the Exit Criteria and reporting
D. Test Closure Activities
38. Reporting Discrepancies as incidents is a part of which phase:-
A. Test Analysis and Design
B. Test Implementation and execution
C. Test Closure Activities
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
39. Test Implementation and execution has which of the following major tasks?
i. Developing and prioritising test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and optionally
preparing the test harnesses and writing automated test scripts.
ii. Creating the test suite from the test cases for efficient test execution.
iii. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly.
iv. Determining the exit criteria.
A. i, ii, iii are true and iv is false
B. i, iv are true and ii is false
C. i, ii are true and iii, iv are false
D. ii, iii, iv are true and i is false
40. Exhaustive Testing is
A. Is impractical but possible
B. Is practically possible
C. Is impractical and impossible
D. Is always possible
41. What is the process of analysing and removing causes of failures in software?
A. Validation
B. Testing
C. Debugging
D. Verification
42. Majority of system errors occur in the _________ phase
A. Requirements Phase
B. Analysis and Design Phase
C. Development Phase
D. Testing Phase
43. When to stop Testing?
A. Stop when scheduled time for testing expires
B. Stop if 75% of the pre-defined number of errors is detected.
C. Stop when all the test cases execute with detecting few errors.
D. None above
Explanation:
The most common factors that are taken into account when deciding when to stop testing are:
Deadlines, Test budget, Percentage of test cases passed, Extent of functionality or requirements
covered, Minimum accepted bug rate, Duration of beta or alpha testing periods
So, from the given options.
Option (a) is the correct answer as for when scheduled time for testing expires, the testing
activity needs to be stopped.
44. Which of these are objectives for software testing?
A. Determine the productivity of programmers
 B. Eliminate the need for future program maintenance
C. Eliminate every error prior to release
D. Uncover software errors
45. Failure is _________
A. Incorrect program behaviour due to a fault in the program
B. Bug found before product Release
C. Bug found after product Release
D. Bug found during Design phase
46. Features to be tested, approach, the testing tasks and test deliverables should be specified in
which document?
A. Test case specification
B. Test procedure specification
C. Test plan
D. Test design specification
Explanation:
(a) Test case specification: A document specifying a set of test cases ( objective, inputs, test
actions,
(b) Test procedure specification: A document specifying a sequence of actions for the execution
of a test also known as test script or manual test script.
(c) Test plan: A document describing the scope, approach, resources and schedule of intended
test activities. It identifies, amongst others, test items, features to be tested, the testing tasks, who
will do each task, degree of tester independence, the test environment, the test design techniques,
the entry criteria and the exit criteria to be used and the rationale for the choice, and any risks
requiring contingency planning. It is a record of the test planning process.
(d) Test design specification: A document specifying the test conditions (coverage items) for a
test item, the detailed test approach and the associated high-level test cases
47. One Key reason why developers have difficulty testing their own work is:
A. Lack of technical documentation
B. Lack of test tools in the market for developers
C. Lack of training
D. Lack of Objectivity
48. Pick the best definition of quality
A. Quality is job one
B. Zero defects
C. Conformance to requirements
D. Work as designed
49. Independent Verification & Validation is
A. Done by the Developer
B. Done by the Test Engineers
C. Done By Management
 D. Done by an Entity Outside the Project’s sphere of influence
50. During which test activity could faults be found most cost effectively?
A. Execution
B. Design
C. Planning
D. Check Exit criteria completion
51. During which activity of the Fundamental Test Process do you review the test basis?
A. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
B. Test implementation and execution
C. Test analysis and design
D. Test planning and control
52. Which of the following statements BEST describes one of the seven key principles of
software testing?
A. Automated tests are better than manual tests for avoiding the Exhaustive Testing.
B. Exhaustive testing is, with sufficient effort and tool support, feasible for all software.
C. It is normally impossible to test all input/output combinations for a software system.
D. The purpose of testing is to demonstrate the absence of defects.
53. Which of the following statements is the MOST valid goal for a test team?
A. Determine whether enough component testing was executed.
B. Cause as many failures as possible so that faults can be identified and corrected.
C. Prove that all faults are identified.
D. Prove that any remaining faults will not cause any failures.
54. Which of these tasks would you expect to perform during Test Analysis and Design?
A. Setting or defining test objectives.
B. Reviewing the test basis.
C. Creating test suites from test procedures.
D. Analyzing lessons learned for process improvement.
55. Below is a list of problems that can be observed during testing or operation. Which is MOST
likely a failure?
A. The product crashed when the user selected an option in a dialogue box.
B. One source code file included in the build was the wrong version.
C. The computation algorithm used the wrong input variables.
D. The developer misinterpreted the requirement for the algorithm.
56. Which of the following statements are TRUE?
A. Software testing may be required to meet legal or contractual requirements.
B. Software testing is mainly needed to improve the quality of the developer’s work.
C. Rigorous testing and fixing of defects found can help reduce the risk of problems
occurring in an operational environment.
D. Rigorous testing is sometimes used to prove that all failures have been found.
A. B and C are true; A and D are false.
B. A and D are true; B and C are false.
C. A and C are true, B and D are false.
D. C and D are true, A and B are false.
57. Which of the following statements BEST describes the difference between testing and
debugging?
A. Testing pinpoints (identifies the source of) the defects. Debugging analyzes the faults and
proposes prevention activities.
B. Dynamic testing shows failures caused by defects. Debugging finds, analyzes, and
removes the causes of failures in the software.
C. Testing removes faults. Debugging identifies the causes of failures.
D. Dynamic testing prevents causes of failures. Debugging removes the failures.
58. When do you stop testing?
A. When the specified number of faults are found.
B. When the test completion criteria are met.
C. When all high and medium priority tests are complete.
D. When all statements have been executed.