UNIT -01 1.

What is another term for air resistance in the context

of dynamic vehicles?
1. What is the primary factor contributing to air a) Drag
resistance in a moving vehicle? b) Lift
a) Vehicle weight c) Thrust
b) Engine power d) Weight
c) Air density
d) Tire friction 2. Which physical property of the vehicle has the most
significant impact on air resistance?
2. Which of the following statements is true regarding the a) Color
effect of air resistance on a vehicle's speed? b) Weight
a) Air resistance has no impact on a vehicle's speed. c) Length
b) Air resistance increases as a vehicle's speed d) Width
increases, slowing it down.
c) Air resistance decreases as a vehicle's speed 3. True or False: Air resistance always acts in the
increases, allowing it to go faster. direction opposite to the motion of the vehicle.
d) Air resistance remains constant regardless of a
vehicle's speed. 4. Which of the following factors affects air resistance
the most when a vehicle is in motion?
3. How can a vehicle reduce air resistance while moving? a) Altitude
a) Increasing its speed b) Tire pressure
b) Increasing its weight c) Speed
c) Streamlining its shape d) Vehicle shape
d) Adding more tires
5. What is the typical shape of a vehicle designed to
4. Which shape is generally considered the most minimize air resistance?
aerodynamic for reducing air resistance in vehicles? a) Cube
a) Cube b) Cylinder
b) Sphere c) Sphere
c) Cone d) Streamlined
d) Pyramid
6. Which of the following factors does NOT influence air
5. At higher altitudes, air density is generally: resistance?
a) Higher a) Vehicle speed
b) Lower b) Vehicle weight
c) Unaffected by altitude c) Air density
d) The same as at sea level d) Vehicle color

6. How does air resistance affect fuel efficiency in 7. Which part of a vehicle typically encounters the highest
vehicles? air resistance?
a) It improves fuel efficiency. a) Front bumper
b) It has no impact on fuel efficiency. b) Roof
c) It reduces fuel efficiency. c) Rear wheels
d) It only affects electric vehicles, not those with d) Exhaust pipe
internal combustion engines.
8. What is the unit of measurement for air resistance?
7. Which part of a vehicle experiences the most a) Newtons (N)
significant air resistance? b) Meters per second (m/s)
a) The wheels c) Pascals (Pa)
b) The roof d) Kilograms (kg)
c) The front grille
d) The exhaust system 9. At higher speeds, how does air resistance change in
relation to the vehicle's speed?
Answers: a) Increases linearly
1. c) Air density b) Decreases linearly
2. b) Air resistance increases as a vehicle's speed c) Increases exponentially
increases, slowing it down. d) Remains constant
3. c) Streamlining its shape
4. c) Cone 10. Which vehicle type typically experiences the least air
5. b) Lower resistance while in motion?
6. c) It reduces fuel efficiency. a) Sports car
7. b) The roof b) SUV (Sport Utility Vehicle)
c) Motorcycle
d) Truck
 3. What does "A" stand for in the air resistance formula F
11. How does air resistance affect fuel efficiency in = 0.5 * ρ * A * Cd * V^2?
vehicles? a) Acceleration of the vehicle
a) It improves fuel efficiency. b) Area of the vehicle facing the airflow
b) It has no impact on fuel efficiency. c) Amplitude of vehicle vibrations
c) It reduces fuel efficiency. d) Altitude of the vehicle
d) It only affects electric vehicles, not those with
internal combustion engines. 4. In the context of air resistance, what does "Cd"
represent in the formula F = 0.5 * ρ * A * Cd * V^2?
12. What is the primary purpose of a spoiler on a race car? a) Coefficient of drag
a) To reduce air resistance b) Vehicle weight
b) To increase fuel efficiency c) Engine displacement
c) To improve traction d) Tire pressure
d) To enhance aesthetics
5. If the speed of a vehicle is doubled while everything
13. Which factor plays a crucial role in reducing air else remains constant, how does the air resistance force
resistance for cyclists? change according to the formula F = 0.5 * ρ * A * Cd * V^2?
a) Helmet color a) It remains the same.
b) Riding in a group (drafting) b) It is halved.
c) Tire pressure c) It is quadrupled.
d) Shoe type d) It doubles.

14. True or False: Air resistance is the same for all 6. What effect does increasing the cross-sectional area
objects regardless of their shape or size. (A) of a vehicle have on air resistance, all else being
equal?
15. What is the name of the force that opposes the a) Air resistance increases.
motion of an object through a fluid (such as air) and is b) Air resistance decreases.
proportional to the object's speed? c) Air resistance remains the same.
a) Inertia d) It depends on the shape of the vehicle.
b) Centrifugal force
c) Drag force 7. Which parameter can be modified to reduce air
d) Lift force resistance on a vehicle according to the air resistance
formula?
Answers: a) Air density (ρ)
1. a) Drag b) Vehicle weight (W)
2. d) Width c) Coefficient of drag (Cd)
3. True d) Altitude (H)
4. c) Speed
5. d) Streamlined 8. In the air resistance formula, if the coefficient of drag
6. d) Vehicle color (Cd) is reduced, what happens to the air resistance force?
7. b) Roof a) It increases.
8. a) Newtons (N) b) It decreases.
9. c) Increases exponentially c) It remains the same.
10. c) Motorcycle d) It depends on the speed.
11. c) It reduces fuel efficiency.
12. a) To reduce air resistance Answers:
13. b) Riding in a group (drafting) 1. b) F = 0.5 * ρ * A * Cd * V^2
14. False 2. b) Air density
15. c) Drag force 3. b) Area of the vehicle facing the airflow
4. a) Coefficient of drag
1. Which formula is used to calculate air resistance (drag 5. c) It is quadrupled.
force) on a moving vehicle? 6. b) Air resistance decreases.
a) F = m * a 7. c) Coefficient of drag (Cd)
b) F = 0.5 * ρ * A * Cd * V^2 8. b) It decreases.
c) F = W * d
d) F = P * V 1. What is rolling resistance in vehicles primarily caused
by?
2. In the air resistance formula F = 0.5 * ρ * A * Cd * V^2, a) Air resistance
what does "ρ" represent? b) Friction between tires and the road
a) Mass of the vehicle c) Engine inefficiency
b) Air density d) Steering control
c) Cross-sectional area of the vehicle
d) Coefficient of friction 2. Which factor can reduce rolling resistance in vehicles?
a) Increasing tire pressure
 b) Decreasing tire pressure c) Low-rolling-resistance tires
c) Using wider tires d) Off-road tires
d) None of the above
12. What percentage of a vehicle's total energy
3. Which type of tire tread typically offers lower rolling consumption is typically attributed to rolling resistance?
resistance? a) Less than 5%
a) Deep, aggressive tread b) Approximately 20%
b) Smooth, low-profile tread c) Around 50%
c) Studded tread d) More than 75%
d) All-season tread
13. How can a driver reduce rolling resistance on the
4. What effect does rolling resistance have on fuel road?
efficiency? a) Drive at high speeds
a) Increases fuel efficiency b) Avoid braking
b) Has no impact on fuel efficiency c) Inflate tires to the recommended pressure
c) Decreases fuel efficiency d) Carry heavy cargo
d) Only affects electric vehicles
14. Which type of vehicle is most affected by rolling
5. Which of the following factors does NOT contribute to resistance?
rolling resistance? a) Sports cars
a) Tire type b) Trucks and buses
b) Road surface c) Motorcycles
c) Vehicle weight d) Electric scooters
d) Wind speed
15. What is the main benefit of reducing rolling
6. Which component of a tire is primarily responsible for resistance in vehicles?
rolling resistance? a) Increased vehicle weight
a) Sidewall b) Improved fuel efficiency
b) Tread c) Enhanced acceleration
c) Bead d) Higher maintenance costs
d) Inner liner
1. b) Friction between tires and the road
7. What is the unit of measurement for rolling resistance 2. a) Increasing tire pressure
in tires? 3. b) Smooth, low-profile tread
a) Kilograms 4. c) Decreases fuel efficiency
b) Pounds 5. d) Wind speed
c) Newtons 6. b) Tread
d) Watts 7. c) Newtons
8. c) Reduces handling and control
8. How does rolling resistance affect a vehicle's handling 9. b) Regenerative braking
and control? 10. b) Lower pressure increases rolling resistance
a) Improves handling 11. c) Low-rolling-resistance tires
b) Has no effect on handling 12. b) Approximately 20%
c) Reduces handling and control 13. c) Inflate tires to the recommended pressure
d) Only affects large trucks 14. b) Trucks and buses
15. b) Improved fuel efficiency
9. Which of the following can help reduce rolling
resistance in electric vehicles?
a) Larger battery size 1. What formula is commonly used to calculate rolling
b) Regenerative braking resistance in vehicles?
c) Higher top speed a) F = ma
d) Thicker tire treads b) E = mc²
c) R = Crr * W
10. What role does tire inflation pressure play in rolling d) P = IV
resistance?
a) Higher pressure increases rolling resistance 2. In the rolling resistance formula R = Crr * W, what does
b) Lower pressure increases rolling resistance "Crr" represent?
c) Pressure has no effect on rolling resistance a) Tire diameter
d) Pressure only affects off-road vehicles b) Coefficient of rolling resistance
c) Vehicle speed
11. Which type of tire is typically used to minimize rolling d) Wheelbase
resistance in hybrid and electric vehicles?
a) Winter tires 3. Which factor does the "W" in the rolling resistance
b) Run-flat tires formula R = Crr * W represent?
 a) Air density 7. a) It decreases
b) Vehicle width 8. d) Dimensionless
c) Weight of the vehicle 9. b) P = F * v
d) Tire width 10. b) It increases
I hope these answers are helpful. If you have any more
4. If a vehicle's weight is 2000 kilograms and the questions or need further clarification, feel free to ask.
coefficient of rolling resistance is 0.015, what is the
rolling resistance force?
a) 30 N Certainly! Here are 10 multiple-choice questions (MCQs)
b) 15 N related to dynamic factors affecting rolling resistance in
c) 150 N vehicles:
d) 2000 N
1. Which of the following factors has the most significant
5. Rolling resistance is directly proportional to which of impact on rolling resistance in vehicles?
the following factors in the formula R = Crr * W? a) Tire tread pattern
a) Vehicle speed b) Vehicle weight
b) Tire diameter c) Tire width
c) Air pressure d) Tire brand
d) Tire tread depth
2. How does an increase in tire pressure affect rolling
6. How does reducing the coefficient of rolling resistance resistance?
(Crr) affect a vehicle's energy efficiency? a) Increases rolling resistance
a) Increases energy efficiency b) Decreases rolling resistance
b) Decreases energy efficiency c) Has no effect on rolling resistance
c) Has no effect on energy efficiency d) Depends on the road surface
d) Depends on the tire type
3. When a vehicle accelerates, what happens to rolling
7. If a vehicle's weight remains constant but its tire resistance?
pressure is increased, what happens to the rolling a) It decreases
resistance force? b) It increases
a) It decreases c) It remains constant
b) It increases d) It depends on the engine type
c) It remains the same
d) It depends on tire width 4. Which type of road surface typically results in higher
rolling resistance?
8. What unit of measurement is typically used for the a) Smooth asphalt
coefficient of rolling resistance (Crr)? b) Wet pavement
a) Meters per second (m/s) c) Gravel
b) Newtons (N) d) Ice
c) Percent (%)
d) Dimensionless 5. How does tire temperature affect rolling resistance?
a) Lower tire temperature reduces rolling resistance
9. Which formula represents the power loss due to rolling b) Higher tire temperature reduces rolling resistance
resistance in a vehicle at a constant speed? c) Tire temperature has no impact on rolling resistance
a) P = F * d d) Tire temperature only affects racing tires
b) P = F * v
c) P = W * h 6. What role does tire size (diameter) play in rolling
d) P = I * R resistance?
a) Larger tires reduce rolling resistance
10. When a vehicle's speed increases, how does the b) Smaller tires reduce rolling resistance
rolling resistance force change, according to the rolling c) Tire size does not affect rolling resistance
resistance formula? d) It depends on the vehicle type
a) It decreases
b) It increases 7. Which of the following vehicle types is most affected
c) It remains constant by aerodynamic factors when it comes to rolling
d) It depends on tire tread depth resistance?
a) Sports cars
b) Trucks
1. c) R = Crr * W c) Motorcycles
2. b) Coefficient of rolling resistance d) Bicycles
3. c) Weight of the vehicle
4. a) 30 N 8. How does road grade (slope) affect rolling resistance?
5. a) Vehicle speed a) Uphill slopes decrease rolling resistance
6. a) Increases energy efficiency b) Downhill slopes decrease rolling resistance
 c) Steeper slopes increase rolling resistance c) No effect on grading resistance
d) Road grade has no impact on rolling resistance d) Depends on the vehicle's weight

9. What is the primary function of tire sidewalls in 6. In the formula for grading resistance, what does "g"
relation to rolling resistance? represent?
a) Reduce rolling resistance a) Gravitational constant
b) Increase tire durability b) Gear ratio
c) Enhance tire grip c) Gravitational acceleration
d) Absorb road shocks d) Gasoline

10. When driving in extreme cold temperatures, how does 7. Which of the following factors can increase grading
tire flexibility impact rolling resistance? resistance significantly?
a) Flexible tires reduce rolling resistance a) Smooth road surface
b) Stiff tires reduce rolling resistance b) Lower vehicle weight
c) Cold temperatures have no effect on tire flexibility c) Steeper road gradient
d) It depends on the tire compound d) Decreased tire pressure

1. b) Vehicle weight 8. The grade resistance force is proportional to which of

2. b) Decreases rolling resistance the following?
3. b) It increases a) Vehicle speed
4. c) Gravel b) Road width
5. b) Higher tire temperature reduces rolling resistance c) Tire tread depth
6. c) Tire size does not affect rolling resistance d) Cargo weight
7. b) Trucks
8. c) Steeper slopes increase rolling resistance 9. When calculating the tractive effort required to
9. a) Reduce rolling resistance overcome grading resistance, what other force is
10. a) Flexible tires reduce rolling resistance typically considered?
I hope these answers help clarify the concepts related to a) Frictional resistance
dynamic factors affecting rolling resistance in vehicles. If b) Wind resistance
you have any more questions or need further information, c) Inertial resistance
feel free to ask. d) Magnetic resistance

10. Which component of a vehicle's drivetrain is

1. What is the primary factor contributing to grading responsible for converting engine power into tractive
resistance in vehicles? effort to overcome grading resistance?
a) Weight of the vehicle a) Transmission
b) Engine power b) Suspension
c) Tire size c) Brakes
d) Aerodynamics d) Exhaust system

2. Which formula is commonly used to calculate grading 11. Grading resistance can be reduced by:
resistance in vehicles? a) Increasing tire pressure
a) Newton's Second Law b) Reducing vehicle weight
b) Hooke's Law c) Adding cargo weight
c) The Darcy-Weisbach Equation d) Increasing engine power
d) The Tractive Effort Formula
12. The formula for calculating grading resistance
3. Grading resistance is generally measured in which unit? typically includes the angle of the road gradient. What is
a) Newtons this angle usually measured in?
b) Kilograms a) Degrees
c) Watts b) Meters
d) Percent gradient c) Inches
d) Radians
4. When a vehicle is moving downhill, which direction
does the grading resistance act? 13. Which factor primarily determines the magnitude of
a) Opposite to the direction of motion grading resistance on a vehicle?
b) In the same direction as motion a) Vehicle's color
c) Perpendicular to the direction of motion b) Road surface temperature
d) It doesn't affect downhill movement c) Road gradient
d) Driver's mood
5. What effect does an increase in vehicle speed typically
have on grading resistance? 14. What is the main purpose of calculating grading
a) Increases grading resistance resistance in vehicle design and analysis?
b) Decreases grading resistance a) To optimize fuel efficiency
 b) To maximize cargo capacity Grading Resistance:
c) To reduce tire wear
d) To improve aerodynamics 6. Grading resistance refers to the force that opposes a
vehicle's motion when it encounters:
15. Which type of vehicle is likely to experience the a) Changes in road surface color
highest grading resistance on steep uphill roads? b) Changes in road elevation
a) Sports car c) Strong crosswinds
b) Electric scooter d) Traffic congestion
c) Bicycle
d) Heavy-duty truck 7. When a vehicle travels uphill, it experiences:
a) Higher grading resistance
1. a) Weight of the vehicle b) Lower grading resistance
2. d) The Tractive Effort Formula c) No grading resistance
3. d) Percent gradient d) Reduced engine power
4. a) Opposite to the direction of motion
5. a) Increases grading resistance 8. Grading resistance is influenced by the slope of the
6. c) Gravitational acceleration road and the:
7. c) Steeper road gradient a) Tire pressure
8. a) Vehicle speed b) Vehicle's weight
9. b) Wind resistance c) Tire tread pattern
10. a) Transmission d) Fuel type
11. b) Reducing vehicle weight
12. a) Degrees 9. To reduce grading resistance when driving downhill, a
13. c) Road gradient driver should:
14. a) To optimize fuel efficiency a) Apply the brakes frequently
15. d) Heavy-duty truck b) Use a lower gear
c) Increase tire pressure
Rolling Resistance: d) Turn off the engine

1. Rolling resistance primarily occurs between the 10. Grading resistance is an important consideration in
vehicle's tires and the: the design of vehicles for regions with:
a) Engine a) Flat terrain
b) Road surface b) Mountainous terrain
c) Suspension system c) Dense urban areas
d) Exhaust system d) Coastal regions

2. Which of the following factors affects rolling Aerodynamic Drag:

resistance the most?
a) Vehicle weight 11. Aerodynamic drag is the resistance a vehicle
b) Engine power encounters due to:
c) Tire color a) Engine overheating
d) Passenger count b) Wind resistance
c) Tire wear
3. Rolling resistance can be reduced by using tires with: d) Brake malfunction
a) Higher air pressure
b) Lower tread depth 12. Which shape is typically associated with lower
c) Wider sidewalls aerodynamic drag?
d) Reduced tire size a) Cube
b) Sphere
4. What unit of measurement is commonly used to c) Pyramid
quantify rolling resistance? d) Cylinder
a) Kilograms
b) Watts 13. To reduce aerodynamic drag, modern vehicles often
c) Amps incorporate:
d) Kilometers per hour a) Spoilers and air dams
b) Heavier materials
5. When a vehicle's tires have lower rolling resistance, it c) Square-shaped wheel wells
typically results in: d) Narrower mirrors
a) Improved fuel efficiency
b) Faster acceleration 14. Aerodynamic drag increases significantly at higher:
c) Better traction a) Altitudes
d) Louder engine noise b) Temperatures
c) Speeds
d) Tire pressures
 Acceleration (g)
15. Electric vehicles (EVs) benefit from reduced - Rolling Resistance Force = 0.02 * 10,000 kg * 9.81
aerodynamic drag due to: m/s² ≈ 1,962 N
a) Their lack of wheels
b) Regenerative braking So, the rolling resistance force acting on the truck is
c) The absence of combustion engines approximately 1,962 Newtons.
d) Increased tire friction
2.Question
Answers: - Rider's weight (W) = 70 kg
- Rolling resistance coefficient (RR) = 0.015
1. b) Road surface - Pedaling force (F) = 150 N
2. a) Vehicle weight - Net Force = Pedaling Force - Rolling Resistance Force
3. a) Higher air pressure - Net Force = 150 N - (RR * W * g)
4. b) Watts - Net Force = 150 N - (0.015 * 70 kg * 9.81 m/s²) ≈ 150
5. a) Improved fuel efficiency N - 102.1455 N ≈ 47.8545 N
6. b) Changes in road elevation
7. a) Higher grading resistance The net force required to overcome rolling resistance is
8. b) Vehicle's weight approximately 47.8545 Newtons.
9. b) Use a lower gear
10. b) Mountainous terrain 3. Question
11. b) Wind resistance - Scooter mass (W) = 80 kg
12. b) Sphere - Slope angle (θ) = 5 degrees = 0.0873 radians
13. a) Spoilers and air dams - Grading Resistance Force = W * sin(θ) * g
14. c) Speeds - Grading Resistance Force = 80 kg * sin(0.0873) * 9.81
15. c) The absence of combustion engines m/s² ≈ 68.91 N

Numerical The grading resistance force acting on the scooter due

to the incline is approximately 68.91 Newtons.
1. Question 1:
- You have a truck with a total weight of 10,000 4. Question
kilograms. - Car mass (W) = 1,500 kg
- The truck is traveling on a flat, smooth road with a - Rolling resistance coefficient (RR) = 0.012
rolling resistance coefficient of 0.02. - Speed (v) = 100 km/h = 27.8 m/s
- Calculate the rolling resistance force acting on the - Rolling Resistance Force = RR * W * g
truck. - Rolling Resistance Force = 0.012 * 1,500 kg * 9.81
m/s² ≈ 176.58 N
2. Question 2:
- A bicycle rider weighs 70 kilograms and is riding on a The rolling resistance force experienced by the car at a
paved road with a rolling resistance coefficient of 0.015. speed of 100 km/h is approximately 176.58 Newtons.
- The cyclist is pedaling with a force of 150 Newtons.
- What is the net force required to overcome rolling
resistance? 1. Question
- A truck with a total weight of 15,000 kilograms is
3. Question 3: ascending a hill with a slope angle of 8 degrees.
- An electric scooter has a mass of 80 kilograms. Calculate the grading resistance force.
- It is moving on a slightly inclined road with a slope of
5 degrees. 2.Question
- Calculate the grading resistance force acting on the - A car weighing 1,500 kilograms is driving down a
scooter due to the incline. steep hill with a slope angle of -12 degrees (negative
indicating downhill). Calculate the grading resistance
4. Question 4: force acting on the car.
- A car has a mass of 1,500 kilograms and is driving on
a smooth highway. 3. Question
- The rolling resistance coefficient for the car's tires is - A cyclist weighing 70 kilograms is pedaling uphill on a
0.012. road with a 5% gradient (5% slope). Calculate the grading
- If the car is traveling at a constant speed of 100 resistance force the cyclist needs to overcome.
kilometers per hour, what is the rolling resistance force it
experiences? 4. Question
- A loaded train, with a total weight of 200,000
kilograms, is moving on a track with a slope of 2% (2%
1.Question gradient). Calculate the grading resistance force that the
- Truck weight (W) = 10,000 kg locomotive must overcome.
- Rolling resistance coefficient (RR) = 0.02
- Rolling Resistance Force = RR * W * Gravitational
5. Question force when the headwind speed is 10 mph and the drag
- A bicycle rider with a mass of 80 kilograms is cycling coefficient (Cd) is 0.25.
on a flat road, so there's no grading resistance. However,
they encounter a steep uphill slope with a 15% gradient. 4. An electric scooter has a small frontal area of 0.3
Calculate the additional grading resistance force they square meters and is traveling at a constant speed of 25
need to overcome when ascending the hill. m/s. Determine the aerodynamic drag force if the drag
coefficient (Cd) is 0.22.
Remember to use the formula for grading resistance:
5. A large semi-truck with a frontal area of 8 square
Grading Resistance Force = Weight * sin(Slope Angle) * meters is driving at 65 mph on a highway. Calculate the
Gravitational Acceleration aerodynamic drag force, considering an air density of 1.2
kg/m³ and a drag coefficient (Cd) of 0.45.
Make sure to convert slope angles to radians when using
trigonometric functions in your calculations.
Question 1:
A sports car with a frontal area of 2.5 square meters is
1.Question traveling at a speed of 150 km/h. Calculate the
- Weight = 15,000 kg aerodynamic drag force if the drag coefficient (Cd) is
- Slope Angle = 8 degrees (convert to radians: 0.1396 0.28. (Assume standard air density.)
radians)
- Grading Resistance Force = 15,000 kg * sin(0.1396) * Step 1:Convert the speed from km/h to m/s.
9.81 m/s² ≈ 2,110.85 N - Speed = 150 km/h = 150,000 m/3,600 s ≈ 41.67 m/s

2. Question Step 2:Use the aerodynamic drag formula.

- Weight = 1,500 kg - Aerodynamic Drag Force (F) = 0.5 * Cd (0.28) * Air
- Slope Angle = -12 degrees (convert to radians: -0.2094 Density (ρ, approximately 1.225 kg/m³) * Velocity² (41.67
radians) m/s)² * Frontal Area (2.5 m²)
- Grading Resistance Force = 1,500 kg * sin(-0.2094) *
9.81 m/s² ≈ -2,110.85 N (negative sign indicates downhill Step 3:Calculate the aerodynamic drag force.
force) - F ≈ 0.5 * 0.28 * 1.225 kg/m³ * (41.67 m/s)² * 2.5 m² ≈
1,334.69 Newtons (N)
3. Question
- Weight = 70 kg Answer: The aerodynamic drag force on the sports car is
- Slope Angle = 5% (convert to radians: 0.0873 radians) approximately 1,334.69 N.
- Grading Resistance Force = 70 kg * sin(0.0873) * 9.81
m/s² ≈ 59.42 N Question 2:
A delivery truck, which has a larger frontal area of 5
4. Question square meters, is driving at a constant speed of 80 mph.
- Weight = 200,000 kg Determine the power required to overcome aerodynamic
- Slope Angle = 2% (convert to radians: 0.0349 radians) drag, assuming an air density of 1.2 kg/m³ and a drag
- Grading Resistance Force = 200,000 kg * sin(0.0349) * coefficient (Cd) of 0.35.
9.81 m/s² ≈ 6,878.51 N
Step 1:Convert the speed from mph to m/s.
5. Question - Speed = 80 mph ≈ 35.76 m/s
- Weight = 80 kg
- Slope Angle = 15% (convert to radians: 0.2618 radians) Step 2:Calculate the aerodynamic drag force.
- Grading Resistance Force = 80 kg * sin(0.2618) * 9.81 - F = 0.5 * 0.35 * 1.2 kg/m³ * (35.76 m/s)² * 5 m²
m/s² ≈ 203.96 N
Step 3: Calculate the power required.
- Power (P) = Force (F) * Velocity (V)
1. A sports car with a frontal area of 2.5 square meters is - P ≈ F * 35.76 m/s
traveling at a speed of 150 km/h. Calculate the
aerodynamic drag force if the drag coefficient (Cd) is Step 4: calculate the power in watts (W).
0.28. (Assume standard air density.) - P ≈ (0.5 * 0.35 * 1.2 kg/m³ * (35.76 m/s)² * 5 m²) * 35.76
m/s ≈ 21,430.39 Watts (W)
2. A delivery truck, which has a larger frontal area of 5
square meters, is driving at a constant speed of 80 mph. Answer: The power required to overcome aerodynamic
Determine the power required to overcome aerodynamic drag is approximately 21,430.39 watts or 21.43 kilowatts
drag, assuming an air density of 1.2 kg/m³ and a drag (kW).
coefficient (Cd) of 0.35.

3. A cyclist is riding a road bike at 30 mph on a windy day. Question 3:

The effective frontal area of the cyclist and bike together A cyclist is riding a road bike at 30 mph on a windy day.
is 0.5 square meters. Calculate the aerodynamic drag The effective frontal area of the cyclist and bike together
is 0.5 square meters. Calculate the aerodynamic drag
force when the headwind speed is 10 mph, and the drag
coefficient (Cd) is 0.25.

Step 1: Convert the speeds from mph to m/s.

- Speed of the cyclist = 30 mph ≈ 13.41 m/s
- Headwind speed = 10 mph ≈ 4.47 m/s

Step 2:Calculate the effective velocity (relative speed).

- Effective Velocity = Speed of the cyclist - Headwind
speed
- Effective Velocity ≈ 13.41 m/s - 4.47 m/s ≈ 8.94 m/s

Step 3:Calculate the aerodynamic drag force.

- F = 0.5 * Cd (0.25) * Air Density (ρ, approximately 1.225
kg/m³) * Effective Velocity² (8.94 m/s)² * Frontal Area
(0.5 m²)

Step 4:Calculate the aerodynamic drag force.

- F ≈ 0.5 * 0.25 * 1.225 kg/m³ * (8.94 m/s)² * 0.5 m² ≈
0.763 Newtons (N)

Answer:The aerodynamic drag force on the cyclist and

bike is approximately 0.763 N.

Question 4:
An electric scooter has a small frontal area of 0.3 square
meters and is traveling at a constant speed of 25 m/s.
Determine the aerodynamic drag force if the drag
coefficient (Cd) is 0.22.

Step 1:Use the aerodynamic drag formula.

- F = 0.5 * Cd (0.22) * Air Density (ρ, approximately 1.225
kg/m³) * Velocity² (25 m/s)² * Frontal Area (0.3 m²)

Step 2:Calculate the aerodynamic drag force.

- F ≈ 0.5 * 0.22 * 1.225 kg/m³ * (25 m/s)² * 0.3 m² ≈ 68.74
Newtons (N)

Answer:The aerodynamic drag force on the electric

scooter is approximately 68.74 N.

Question 5
A large semi-truck with a frontal area of 8 square meters
is driving at 65 mph on a highway. Calculate the
aerodynamic drag force, considering an air density of 1.2
kg/m³ and a drag coefficient (Cd) of 0.45.

Step 1: Convert the speed from mph to m/s.

- Speed = 65 mph ≈ 29.05 m/s

Step 2:Calculate the aerodynamic drag force.

- F = 0.5 * Cd (0.45) * Air Density (ρ, approximately 1.2
kg/m³) * Velocity² (29.05 m/s)² * Frontal Area (8 m²)

Step 3: Calculate the aerodynamic drag force.

- F ≈ 0.5 * 0.45 * 1.2 kg/m³ * (29.05 m/s)² * 8 m² ≈
1,191.58 Newtons (N)

Answer: The aerodynamic drag force on the large semi-

truck is approximately 1,191.58 N.
UNIT -5 10. Which component of an EV is responsible for storing
electrical energy?
1. What does EV stand for? a) Alternator
a) Electronic Vehicle b) Radiator
b) Energy Vehicle c) Battery
c) Electric Vehicle d) Turbocharger
d) Efficient Vehicle
11. Which government agency in the United States sets
2. Which of the following is not a common level of EV standards for EV charging connectors?
charging? a) EPA (Environmental Protection Agency)
a) Level 1 b) DOE (Department of Energy)
b) Level 2 c) NHTSA (National Highway Traffic Safety
c) Level 3 Administration)
d) Level 4 d) FCC (Federal Communications Commission)

3. What is the typical voltage for Level 2 EV charging? 12. What is the typical voltage range for Level 3 DC fast
a) 110 volts charging?
b) 220 volts a) 110-120 volts
c) 480 volts b) 220-240 volts
d) 750 volts c) 350-450 volts
d) 500-750 volts
4. DC fast chargers are commonly referred to as:
a) Level 1 chargers 13. Which factor primarily determines the charging time
b) Level 2 chargers for an EV?
c) Level 3 chargers a) Battery capacity
d) Level 4 chargers b) Tire pressure
c) Ambient temperature
5. CHAdeMO is a type of charging connector primarily d) Vehicle weight
used by which automaker?
a) Tesla 14. What is the purpose of an EV's onboard charger?
b) Nissan a) To generate electricity
c) Chevrolet b) To store electricity
d) BMW c) To convert AC power to DC power for the battery
d) To control the vehicle's temperature
6. Which standard is most widely used for Level 3 fast
charging in North America? 15. Which of the following is a wireless charging
a) CCS (Combined Charging System) technology used for EVs?
b) CHAdeMO a) CHAdeMO
c) Tesla Supercharger b) CCS
d) Type 2 (IEC 62196) c) Tesla Supercharger
d) Qi
7. What is regenerative braking in EVs?
a) A type of charging cable 16. What is the primary advantage of V2G (Vehicle-to-
b) A method to recover energy during braking Grid) technology?
c) A fast-charging technology a) Faster charging times
d) A type of electric motor b) Lower cost of electricity
c) The ability to feed excess energy back to the grid
8. Which classification of EVs runs solely on electricity d) Longer battery lifespan
without a backup internal combustion engine?
a) Plug-in Hybrid Electric Vehicle (PHEV) 17. Which classification of EV uses hydrogen fuel cells to
b) Hybrid Electric Vehicle (HEV) generate electricity?
c) Battery Electric Vehicle (BEV) a) BEV
d) Fuel Cell Electric Vehicle (FCEV) b) PHEV
c) FCEV
9. What does PHEV stand for? d) HEV
a) Plug-in Hybrid Electric Vehicle
b) Pure Hybrid Electric Vehicle 18. What is the maximum range of a typical BEV on a
c) Power Hybrid Electric Vehicle single charge?
d) Plug-in Hydrogen Electric Vehicle a) 50-100 miles
b) 200-300 miles
c) 500-600 miles
d) 1,000 miles or more
19. Which type of charging connector is commonly used b) PHEV
in Europe and Asia? c) FCEV
a) CCS d) HEV
b) CHAdeMO
c) J1772 29. What does "kW" stand for in the context of EV
d) Type 2 (IEC 62196) charging?
a) Kilowatt-hour
20. What is the primary environmental advantage of EVs b) Kilometer per watt
over traditional gasoline vehicles? c) Kilowatt
a) Lower carbon emissions d) Kilogram of weight
b) Lower noise pollution
c) Lower tire wear 30. Which type of charging connector is commonly used
d) Higher fuel efficiency by Tesla vehicles?
a) CCS
21. Which level of charging is typically found in b) CHAdeMO
residential settings for overnight charging? c) J1772
a) Level 1 d) Tesla Connector
b) Level 2
c) Level 3 Answers:
d) Level 4 1. c) Electric Vehicle
2. d) Level 4
22. What is the purpose of a charging station's power 3. b) 220 volts
management system? 4. c) Level 3 chargers
a) To charge multiple vehicles simultaneously 5. b) Nissan
b) To convert AC power to DC power 6. a) CCS (Combined Charging System)
c) To store excess electricity 7. b) A method to recover energy during braking
d) To provide free charging 8. c) Battery Electric Vehicle (BEV)
9. a) Plug-in Hybrid Electric Vehicle
23. Which factor can affect the lifespan of an EV battery? 10. c) Battery
a) Frequent fast charging 11. c) NHTSA (National Highway Traffic Safety
b) Lower ambient temperature Administration)
c) Higher tire pressure 12. d) 500-750 volts
d) Frequent car washing 13. a) Battery capacity
14. c) To convert AC power to DC power for the battery
24. Which automaker is known for its Supercharger 15. d) Qi
network? 16. c) The ability to feed excess energy back to the grid
a) Nissan 17. c) FCEV
b) Ford 18. b) 200-300 miles
c) Tesla 19. d) Type 2 (IEC 62196)
d) Toyota 20. a) Lower carbon emissions
21. a) Level 1
25. What is the typical voltage for Level 1 EV charging? 22. a) To charge multiple vehicles simultaneously
a) 110 volts 23. a) Frequent fast charging
b) 220 volts 24. c) Tesla
c) 480 volts 25. a) 110 volts
d) 750 volts 26. b) HDMI
27. a) Level 1
26. Which of the following is NOT a type of EV charging 28. b) PHEV
connector? 29. c) Kilowatt
a) CCS 30. d) Tesla Connector
b) HDMI
c) J1772
d) Type 2 (IEC 62196) 1. What does G2V stand for in the context of electric
vehicles?
27. Which level of charging is also known as "trickle a) Grid-to-Vehicle
charging"? b) Vehicle-to-Grid
a) Level 1 c) Vehicle-to-Vehicle
b) Level 2 d) Grid-to-Grid
c) Level 3
d) Level 4 2. Which component of an EV charging station converts
AC power from the grid to DC power for the vehicle's
28. Which classification of EV has a gasoline engine that battery?
acts as a generator to charge the battery? a) Charger
a) BEV b) Battery
 c) Inverter d) Demand response services
d) Cable
12. What technology enables V2G-capable vehicles to
3. In V2G technology, what can electric vehicles do when communicate with the grid and respond to grid signals?
connected to the grid? a) GPS
a) Only receive power from the grid b) Wi-Fi
b) Only send power to the grid c) Vehicle-to-Grid (V2G) communication protocols
c) Both receive and send power to the grid d) Bluetooth
d) Disconnect from the grid
13. Which of the following is a potential drawback of V2G
4. What is the primary benefit of V2G technology? technology?
a) Faster charging times a) Reduced battery lifespan
b) Lower electricity costs for EV owners b) Increased charging efficiency
c) Grid stabilization and revenue generation c) Lower grid stability
d) Reduced battery degradation d) Limited charging options

5. Which of the following is a wireless charging method 14. What is the primary advantage of DC fast charging
for electric vehicles? for electric vehicles?
a) CHAdeMO a) Lower cost per kilowatt-hour
b) CCS b) Slower charging times
c) Inductive charging c) Wide compatibility with all EVs
d) Supercharging d) Rapid charging speed

6. What does "CHAdeMO" refer to in EV charging? 15. Which of the following is NOT a type of EV charging
a) A type of electric vehicle connector standard?
b) A fast-charging standard a) CHAdeMO
c) A charging cable connector b) CCS
d) A vehicle-to-grid technology c) OBD-II
d) Type 1
7. Which organization sets international standards for
electric vehicle charging protocols? 16. What is the purpose of a charge controller in an EV
a) ISO (International Organization for Standardization) charging system?
b) SAE (Society of Automotive Engineers) a) To convert AC power to DC power
c) IEEE (Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers) b) To regulate the flow of electricity to the battery
d) NEMA (National Electrical Manufacturers c) To communicate with the grid
Association) d) To connect the vehicle to the charger

8. Which level of EV charging provides the slowest 17. Which factor determines the charging speed of an
charging speed but is suitable for overnight charging at electric vehicle?
home? a) The vehicle's size
a) Level 1 b) The battery capacity
b) Level 2 c) The charging station's voltage and current
c) DC Fast Charging d) The vehicle's color
d) Supercharging
18. Which level of EV charging is typically found at public
9. What is the typical voltage range for Level 2 EV charging stations and provides faster charging than Level
charging? 1?
a) 12-24 volts a) Level 1
b) 110-120 volts b) Level 2
c) 208-240 volts c) DC Fast Charging
d) 400-480 volts d) Supercharging

10. Which EV charging standard is commonly used in 19. What is the term for the process of recharging an
Europe and supports both AC and DC charging? electric vehicle's battery using energy from the grid?
a) CCS (Combined Charging System) a) Electric refueling
b) CHAdeMO b) Re-electrification
c) Supercharger c) Grid charging
d) Type 2 d) Electric replenishment

11. In V2G, what can electric vehicles provide to the grid 20. Which organization promotes the development of
during peak demand? V2G technology standards and deployment?
a) Energy storage a) OPEC (Organization of the Petroleum Exporting
b) Renewable energy Countries)
c) Electricity supply b) EPA (Environmental Protection Agency)
 c) IEEE (Institute of Electrical and Electronics vehicles?
Engineers) a) OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health
d) UNICEF (United Nations International Children's Administration)
Emergency Fund) b) NEC (National Electrical Code)
c) IEC (International Electrotechnical Commission)
21. What safety feature is important in EV charging d) FDA (Food and Drug
cables to prevent electrical hazards?
a) Waterproofing Administration)
b) Grounding
c) Wireless charging 30. In V2G technology, what does "bidirectional" mean?
d) Data encryption a) Energy flows only from the grid to the vehicle
b) Energy flows only from the vehicle to the grid
22. Which type of charging connector is commonly used c) Energy can flow in both directions between the
for Level 1 charging in the United States? vehicle and the grid
a) CHAdeMO d) Energy flows from the vehicle to other vehicles on
b) CCS the road
c) Type 1 (J1772)
d) Type 2 (Mennekes)
1. a) Grid-to-Vehicle
23. What is the typical voltage of a DC fast charging 2. c) Inverter
station for electric vehicles? 3. c) Both receive and send power to the grid
a) 12-24 volts 4. c) Grid stabilization and revenue generation
b) 110-120 volts 5. c) Inductive charging
c) 208-480 volts 6. c) A charging cable connector
d) 600-800 volts 7. b) SAE (Society of Automotive Engineers)
8. a) Level 1
24. How does V2G technology contribute to grid 9. c) 208-240 volts
stabilization? 10. a) CCS (Combined Charging System)
a) By increasing grid demand during peak hours 11. d) Demand response services
b) By supplying excess energy from EVs to the grid 12. c) Vehicle-to-Grid (V2G) communication protocols
c) By disconnecting EVs from the grid during peak 13. a) Reduced battery lifespan
demand 14. d) Rapid charging speed
d) By reducing overall electricity consumption 15. c) OBD-II
16. b) To regulate the flow of electricity to the battery
25. What is the primary challenge associated with fast 17. c) The charging station's voltage and current
charging of electric vehicles? 18. b) Level 2
a) Limited availability of fast charging stations 19. d) Electric replenishment
b) High cost of electricity 20. c) IEEE (Institute of Electrical and Electronics
c) Battery overheating and degradation Engineers)
d) Slow charging speed 21. b) Grounding
22. c) Type 1 (J1772)
26. Which organization developed the CCS (Combined 23. c) 208-480 volts
Charging System) standard for electric vehicle charging? 24. b) By supplying excess energy from EVs to the grid
a) ISO (International Organization for Standardization) 25. c) Battery overheating and degradation
b) Tesla 26. c) SAE (Society of Automotive Engineers)
c) SAE (Society of Automotive Engineers) 27. b) To reduce electricity demand from the grid
d) Nissan 28. b) Battery electric vehicle (BEV)
29. c) IEC (International Electrotechnical Commission)
27. What is the purpose of demand response in V2G 30. c) Energy can flow in both directions between the
technology? vehicle and the grid
a) To increase electricity demand from the grid
b) To reduce electricity demand from the grid 1. What is the primary function of an Electric Vehicle (EV)
c) To provide data to the vehicle owner charger?
d) To control vehicle charging remotely a) Convert AC to DC
b) Convert DC to AC
28. Which type of electric vehicle is most suitable for c) Measure battery capacity
V2G applications? d) Monitor tire pressure
a) Plug-in hybrid electric vehicle (PHEV)
b) Battery electric vehicle (BEV) 2. Which of the following is a common level of EV
c) Hydrogen fuel cell vehicle charging?
d) Internal combustion engine vehicle a) Level 1
b) Level 2
29. What safety standard ensures that EV charging c) Level 3
equipment is electrically safe and compatible with d) All of the above
 b) Slow charging
3. Fast DC charging is typically associated with: c) Inductive charging
a) Level 1 charging d) Wireless charging
b) Level 2 charging
c) Level 3 charging 13. Which type of EV charger requires the vehicle to be in
d) Level 4 charging close physical contact with the charging station?
a) Level 1 charger
4. What voltage is commonly used for Level 2 EV b) Level 2 charger
charging? c) DC fast charger
a) 110-120V AC d) Wireless charger
b) 208-240V AC
c) 480V DC 14. What is the primary advantage of DC fast charging
d) 12V DC over AC charging?
a) Lower cost
5. Which of these charging methods allows for the b) Faster charging speed
fastest charging speed? c) Greater compatibility
a) AC charging d) Quieter operation
b) DC charging
c) Wireless charging 15. What is a "smart charger" in the context of EVs?
d) Solar charging a) A charger that can calculate tire pressure
b) A charger that can communicate with the grid and
6. What is V2G (Vehicle-to-Grid) technology used for? adjust charging times
a) Charging the vehicle from the grid c) A charger that uses solar panels
b) Selling excess energy from the vehicle back to the d) A charger that converts DC to AC
grid
c) Improving vehicle aerodynamics 16. Which of the following is NOT a common EV charging
d) Monitoring tire pressure connector type?
a) CCS
7. The CHAdeMO charging standard is primarily b) CHAdeMO
associated with which region? c) J1772
a) North America d) HDMI
b) Europe
c) Asia 17. What is the purpose of a Battery Management
d) South America System (BMS) in an EV?
a) Regulating tire pressure
8. What is the primary disadvantage of wireless EV b) Controlling the climate inside the vehicle
charging? c) Monitoring and managing the battery's health
a) Slow charging speed d) Adjusting the suspension
b) Efficiency loss
c) High cost
d) Limited availability 18. What is the maximum charging power of a typical
Level 2 charger?
9. What is regenerative braking in an electric vehicle? a) 3 kW
a) Using the brakes to generate electricity b) 7 kW
b) Charging the vehicle using solar panels c) 50 kW
c) Heating the battery during charging d) 350 kW
d) None of the above
19. Which type of charger is commonly found in
10. Which charging standard is widely used by Tesla residential settings?
vehicles? a) Level 1 charger
a) CCS b) Level 2 charger
b) CHAdeMO c) Level 3 charger
c) Supercharger d) Level 4 charger
d) J1772
20. What is the primary factor affecting the speed of EV
11. What does "kWh" stand for in the context of EV charging?
charging? a) The size of the battery
a) Kilowatt-hour b) The type of charging connector
b) Kilometer per hour c) The weather conditions
c) Kilogram per hour d) The color of the vehicle
d) Kilocalorie per hour
21. What is the primary function of a Charge Point
12. Level 3 charging is also known as: Operator (CPO) in the EV charging ecosystem?
a) Fast charging a) Designing electric vehicles
 b) Manufacturing charging stations 1. a) Convert AC to DC
c) Operating and maintaining charging networks 2. d) All of the above
d) Regulating tire pressure 3. c) Level 3 charging
4. b) 208-240V AC
22. What is the key benefit of bidirectional charging for 5. b) DC charging
EVs? 6. b) Selling excess energy from the vehicle back to the
a) Faster charging times grid
b) Lower electricity costs 7. c) Asia
c) The ability to use the vehicle's battery to power 8. c) High cost
external devices 9. a) Using the brakes to generate electricity
d) Improved aerodynamics 10. c) Supercharger
11. a) Kilowatt-hour
23. Which of the following charging methods can be 12. a) Fast charging
installed in parking spots without physical connectors? 13. d) Wireless charger
a) AC charging 14. b) Faster charging speed
b) DC charging 15. b) A charger that can communicate with the grid and
c) Wireless charging adjust charging times
d) Solar charging 16. d) HDMI
17. c) Monitoring and managing the battery's health
24. What does "SOC" stand for in the context of EVs? 18. b) 7 kW
a) State of Charge 19. b) Level 2 charger
b) Speed of Charging 20. a) The size of the battery
c) Size of Cable 21. c) Operating and maintaining charging networks
d) Station of Connection 22. c) The ability to use the vehicle's battery to power
external devices
25. Which factor affects the efficiency of an EV charger? 23. c) Wireless charging
a) The brand of the electric vehicle 24. a) State of Charge
b) The type of charging cable used 25. c) The charging power level
c) The charging power level 26. c) DOE
d) The color of the charging station 27. c) Creating a universal charging standard for EVs
28. d) Type 2
26. Which government agency in the United States 29. c) Cost-effectiveness
oversees EV charging standards? 30. a) To extend battery life
a) EPA
b) NHTSA
c) DOE 1. What is the primary goal of wireless power transfer for
d) FDA EVs?
a) Maximizing charging speed
27. What is the primary purpose of the Combined b) Minimizing energy efficiency
Charging System (CCS) standard? c) Eliminating the need for charging stations
a) Regulating tire pressure d) Enhancing driver convenience
b) Providing wireless charging
c) Creating a universal charging standard for EVs 2. Which physical principle is fundamental to wireless
d) Monitoring battery temperature power transfer?
a) Electromagnetic induction
28. Which charging standard is commonly used in Europe? b) Nuclear fusion
a) CCS c) Chemical reactions
b) CHAdeMO d) Gravitational force
c) J1772
d) Type 2 3. What is the unit of measurement for charging
efficiency in wireless power transfer?
29. Which of the following is a benefit of AC charging for a) Watts
residential use? b) Volts
a) Fast charging speed c) Amps
b) High-power output d) Percent
c) Cost-effectiveness
d) Compatibility with all EV models 4. Which frequency range is commonly used for wireless
EV charging?
30. What is the primary reason for using pre-cooling or a) Radio waves
pre-heating in an EV before charging? b) Microwave
a) To extend battery life c) Ultraviolet
b) To reduce tire wear d) Infrared
c) To improve vehicle aerodynamics
d) To save electricity during charging 5. What is the advantage of using resonant coupling in
wireless power transfer? b) Critical for efficient charging
a) Longer charging distances c) Important for safety
b) Faster charging speeds d) Only relevant for electric cars
c) Lower efficiency
d) Greater interference 15. Which wireless charging method is most suitable for
public charging stations?
6. Which wireless charging standard is widely adopted a) Near-field communication
for EVs? b) Inductive charging
a) NFC c) Far-field wireless
b) Qi d) Capacitive charging
c) IEEE 802.11
d) SAE J2954 16. How does wireless charging contribute to reduced
urban pollution?
7. Which component in a wireless charging system is a) By increasing traffic congestion
responsible for converting AC to DC? b) By reducing the need for charging stations
a) Charging pad c) By reducing tailpipe emissions
b) Receiver coil d) By consuming more energy
c) Inverter
d) Battery 17. What is the primary factor that limits the efficiency of
wireless power transfer?
8. What is the main drawback of magnetic resonance a) Distance between coils
wireless charging? b) Charging frequency
a) Limited range c) Receiver coil size
b) Low efficiency d) Battery capacity
c) High cost
d) Electromagnetic interference 18. Which organization is responsible for developing
wireless charging standards for EVs?
9. Which factor affects the efficiency of wireless power a) NASA
transfer over distance? b) IEEE
a) Voltage c) UNICEF
b) Frequency d) WHO
c) Coupling coefficient
d) Battery capacity 19. What is the primary advantage of wireless charging
compared to traditional wired charging?
10. What is dynamic wireless charging for EVs? a) Slower charging speed
a) Charging while parked b) Higher cost
b) Charging while driving c) Convenience and flexibility
c) Charging in extreme weather d) Lower energy efficiency
d) Charging using solar panels
20. Which wireless charging method is suitable for
11. Which wireless power transfer technique is often charging EVs parked in a designated spot?
used for stationary charging at home? a) Inductive charging
a) Inductive charging b) Magnetic resonance
b) Capacitive charging c) Far-field wireless
c) Magnetic resonance d) Capacitive charging
d) Far-field wireless
21. What is the primary challenge of wireless charging
12. What is the primary benefit of wireless charging for for electric trucks?
electric buses? a) Limited charging speed
a) Faster charging times b) High costs
b) Smaller battery size c) Heavy equipment
c) Extended driving range d) Low power availability
d) Reduced noise pollution
22. Which frequency band is typically used for resonant
13. Which safety measure is essential for wireless EV inductive wireless charging?
charging? a) 2.4 GHz
a) Charging without any safety precautions b) 5.8 GHz
b) Grounding the charging pad c) 100-205 kHz
c) Charging in the rain d) 50-60 Hz
d) Using high-voltage charging
23. What does "plugless" wireless charging mean for EVs?
14. What role does alignment play in magnetic resonance a) Charging with a plug
wireless charging? b) Charging without a plug
a) No role c) Charging via USB
 d) Charging with solar panels 14. b) Critical for efficient charging
15. b) Inductive charging
24. Which wireless power transfer method is suitable for 16. c) By reducing tailpipe emissions
long-range applications like highway charging? 17. a) Distance between coils
a) Inductive charging 18. b) IEEE
b) Capacitive charging 19. c) Convenience and flexibility
c) Near-field wireless 20. a) Inductive charging
d) Far-field wireless 21. c) Heavy equipment
22. c) 100-205 kHz
25. What is the role of the "power factor" in wireless 23. b) Charging without a plug
charging? 24. d) Far-field wireless
a) Maximizing charging speed 25. d) Balancing energy consumption
b) Minimizing efficiency 26. b) Proper grounding
c) Enhancing safety 27. c) Receiver coil and transmitter coil
d) Balancing energy consumption 28. a) Inductive charging
29. a) Reduced maintenance costs
26. Which safety consideration is important for wireless 30. d) Inductive charging
charging in wet conditions?
a) Higher charging power
b) Proper grounding
c) Reduced charging distance
d) Charging during lightning storms

27. What are the key components of a wireless charging

system?
a) Charging cable and plug
b) Power grid and generator
c) Receiver coil and transmitter coil
d) Battery and alternator

28. Which wireless charging technique is often used for

consumer electronics and smartphones?
a) Inductive charging
b) Magnetic resonance
c) Capacitive charging
d) Far-field wireless

29. What is the primary advantage of wireless charging

for shared electric vehicle fleets?
a) Reduced maintenance costs
b) Faster charging times
c) Lower energy consumption
d) Increased vehicle range

30. Which wireless power transfer method is most

commonly used in everyday applications?
a) Magnetic resonance
b) Capacitive charging
c) Far-field wireless
d) Inductive charging

1. d) Enhancing driver convenience

2. a) Electromagnetic induction
3. d) Percent
4. b) Microwave
5. a) Longer charging distances
6. d) SAE J2954
7. c) Inverter
8. d) Electromagnetic interference
9. c) Coupling coefficient
10. b) Charging while driving
11. a) Inductive charging
12. c) Extended driving range
13. b) Grounding the charging pad
UNIT- 3
10. What is a "range extender" in the context of EVs?
1. What is the primary source of power in an electric a) A device that increases the top speed of an EV
vehicle (EV)? b) An additional battery pack to extend the driving
a) Gasoline range
b) Diesel c) A system that improves the EV's aerodynamics
c) Electricity d) A feature that enhances the EV's audio system
d) Natural gas
11. Which type of EV charging station allows for the
2. Which component is responsible for converting DC fastest charging speeds?
power to AC power in an EV? a) Level 1
a) Battery b) Level 2
b) Inverter c) Level 3 (DC fast charging)
c) Motor d) Level 4 (Ultra-fast charging)
d) Charger
12. What is the purpose of the DC-DC converter in an EV?
3. In an EV, which type of battery chemistry is commonly a) Convert AC power to DC power for the motor
used? b) Convert DC power to AC power for the charger
a) Lead-acid c) Convert high-voltage DC power to low-voltage DC
b) Lithium-ion power for accessories
c) Nickel-metal hydride d) Convert battery power to solar power
d) Alkaline
13. What is the primary factor affecting an EV's driving
4. What is regenerative braking in an EV? range?
a) A system that increases engine power during braking a) Tire pressure
b) A system that captures and stores energy during b) Interior temperature
braking c) Battery capacity
c) A type of braking that uses hydraulic fluid d) Transmission type
d) A system that disables brakes during acceleration
14. Which safety feature is commonly found in EV
5. What is the primary function of a power distribution charging cables to prevent electrical shocks?
unit (PDU) in an EV? a) Ground fault protection
a) Charge the battery b) Overvoltage protection
b) Distribute power to various vehicle components c) Undercurrent protection
c) Control the climate inside the cabin d) Noise suppression
d) Monitor tire pressure
15. What is V2G technology in the context of EVs?
6. Which type of electric motor is commonly used in EVs a) A feature that enhances vehicle stability during turns
due to its high efficiency and compact size? b) Vehicle-to-Grid technology that allows EVs to feed
a) Induction motor power back into the grid
b) Permanent magnet motor c) A type of advanced cruise control system
c) Synchronous motor d) A system that improves the EV's visibility at night
d) Universal motor
16. What is the main advantage of using AC motors in
7. What is the purpose of a Battery Management System EVs?
(BMS) in an EV? a) High efficiency at high speeds
a) Provide entertainment to passengers b) High torque at low speeds
b) Control the vehicle's suspension c) Compatibility with DC power sources
c) Monitor and optimize battery performance d) Reduced weight
d) Adjust the tire pressure
17. Which type of connector is commonly used for Level
8. Which of the following is not a charging level 3 (DC fast) EV charging?
commonly used for EVs? a) Type 1 (SAE J1772)
a) Level 1 b) Type 2 (Mennekes)
b) Level 2 c) CCS (Combined Charging System)
c) Level 3 d) CHAdeMO
d) Level 4
18. What does the term "kWh" stand for in the context of
9. What is the maximum charging voltage for a Level 2 EVs?
EV charger? a) Kilometers per hour
a) 120 volts b) Kilowatt-hours
b) 240 volts c) Kilograms of weight
c) 480 volts d) Kelvin with humidity
d) 720 volts
19. Which of the following factors can significantly 28. Which of the following is a common method for EV
impact an EV's efficiency? battery cooling?
a) Wheel size a) Liquid cooling
b) Windshield wiper speed b) Passive cooling
c) Seat material c) Solar cooling
d) Battery temperature d) Magnetic cooling

20. What is the purpose of a thermal management 29. What is the primary role of a powertrain control
system in an EV? module (PCM) in an EV?
a) Control the vehicle's heating and cooling a) Control the vehicle's suspension
b) Adjust the tire pressure b) Regulate the engine temperature
c) Enhance the EV's audio system c) Manage power distribution to the motor and other
d) Improve aerodynamics components
d) Monitor tire pressure
21. What is the main disadvantage of using
supercapacitors as an energy storage system in EVs? 30. What is the typical warranty period for an EV battery
a) Limited energy density in many manufacturers' warranties?
b) Slow charging speed a) 1 year
c) High cost b) 3 years
d) Heavy weight c) 5 years
d) 10 years
22. Which government agency sets safety standards for
EVs in the United States? 1. c) Electricity
a) FDA (Food and Drug Administration) 2. b) Inverter
b) NHTSA (National Highway Traffic Safety 3. b) Lithium-ion
Administration) 4. b) A system that captures and stores energy during
c) EPA (Environmental Protection Agency) braking
d) NASA (National Aeronautics and Space 5. b) Distribute power to various vehicle components
Administration) 6. b) Permanent magnet motor
7. c) Monitor and optimize battery performance
23. What is the typical voltage range of an EV's high- 8. d) Level 4
voltage battery pack? 9. b) 240 volts
a) 12-24 volts 10. b) An additional battery pack to extend the driving
b) 48-96 volts range
c) 200-450 volts 11. c) Level 3 (DC fast charging)
d) 600-900 volts 12. c) Convert high-voltage DC power to low-voltage DC
power for accessories
24. Which type of EV charging can be done using a 13. c) Battery capacity
standard household electrical outlet? 14. a) Ground fault protection
a) Level 1 15. b) Vehicle-to-Grid technology that allows EVs to feed
b) Level 2 power back into the grid
c) Level 3 16. b) High torque at low speeds
d) Level 4 17. c) CCS (Combined Charging System)
18. b) Kilowatt-hours
25. What is the purpose of the onboard charger in an EV? 19. a) Wheel size
a) Convert DC power to AC power for the motor 20. a) Control the vehicle's heating and cooling
b) Regulate the vehicle's speed 21. a) Limited energy density
c) Convert AC power to DC power for the battery 22. b) NHTSA (National Highway Traffic Safety
d) Control the climate inside the cabin Administration)
23. c) 200-450 volts
26. Which type of EV transmission is known for its 24. a) Level 1
simplicity and efficiency? 25. c) Convert AC power to DC power for the battery
a) Automatic transmission 26. c) Single-speed transmission
b) Manual transmission 27. a) Miles Per Gallon Equivalent
c) Single-speed transmission 28. a) Liquid cooling
d) Dual-clutch transmission 29. c) Manage power distribution to the motor and other
components
27. What does "MPGe" stand for in the context of EV 30. d) 10 years
efficiency? :
a) Miles Per Gallon Equivalent
b) Mega Pixels per Gigabyte 1. What does "mAh" stand for in the context of batteries?
c) Maximum Power Generation Efficiency a) Milliampere Hour
d) Milliseconds Per Gigabit Ethernet b) Megaampere Hour
c) Milliwatt Hour
 d) Megawatt Hour 11. Which type of battery chemistry is commonly used in
portable devices like smartphones and laptops?
2. Which parameter measures a battery's ability to deliver a) Nickel-Cadmium (NiCd)
current over a specific period? b) Lithium-Ion (Li-ion)
a) Voltage c) Alkaline
b) Capacity d) Lead-Acid
c) Resistance
d) Charge 12. What is the purpose of a Battery Management
System (BMS)?
3. What is the typical voltage output of a standard a) To charge batteries faster
alkaline AA battery? b) To extend battery life
a) 1.2V c) To increase voltage output
b) 1.5V d) To reduce battery capacity
c) 3.7V
d) 9V 13. Which battery parameter is crucial for determining
the overall runtime of a device powered by the battery?
4. Which parameter describes a battery's ability to a) Voltage
maintain its voltage under load? b) Capacity
a) Internal Resistance c) Resistance
b) Capacity d) Temperature
c) Open Circuit Voltage
d) C-rate 14. The rate at which a battery can be charged or
discharged without causing damage is often specified as
5. Lithium-ion batteries are known for their high: the:
a) Capacity a) Discharge rate
b) Voltage b) Charge rate
c) Resistance c) Maximum voltage
d) Efficiency d) Operating temperature

6. Which of the following is not a common battery 15. Which type of battery chemistry is commonly used in
chemistry? car batteries?
a) Alkaline a) Lithium-Ion
b) Nickel-Cadmium (NiCd) b) Alkaline
c) Lithium-Polymer (LiPo) c) Lead-Acid
d) Halogen d) Nickel-Cadmium

7. What is the primary advantage of lithium-ion batteries 16. What is the primary factor affecting the internal
over nickel-cadmium batteries? resistance of a battery?
a) Higher capacity a) Temperature
b) Lower cost b) Capacity
c) Longer cycle life c) Voltage
d) Less toxic materials d) Chemistry

8. What is the typical voltage range for a lead-acid battery 17. Which parameter defines a battery's ability to recover
cell? its capacity after being partially discharged?
a) 1.2V a) Memory effect
b) 1.5V b) Self-discharge rate
c) 2.2V c) Cycle life
d) 12V d) Recharge efficiency

9. Which parameter describes the rate at which a battery 18. In which units is battery capacity typically measured?
is charged or discharged in relation to its capacity? a) Ampere-hours (Ah)
a) Voltage b) Voltage (V)
b) Current c) Coulombs (C)
c) C-rate d) Watt-seconds (Ws)
d) Capacity
19. What is the typical voltage range for a lithium-ion cell?
10. Which battery parameter is measured in watt-hours a) 1.2V
(Wh)? b) 1.5V
a) Voltage c) 3.6-3.7V
b) Capacity d) 12V
c) Resistance
d) Current 20. The process of overcharging a battery can lead to:
a) Increased capacity
 b) Improved efficiency d) To enhance efficiency
c) Reduced battery life
d) Lower voltage output 30. Which battery chemistry is commonly used in
household and portable electronics?
21. Which battery parameter is essential for matching a) Lithium-Ion
batteries in series? b) Alkaline
a) Voltage c) Lead-Acid
b) Capacity d) Nickel-Cadmium
c) Resistance
d) Temperature 1. a) Milliampere Hour
2. b) Capacity
22. Which battery chemistry is known for its high energy 3. b) 1.5V
density and lightweight characteristics? 4. a) Internal Resistance
a) Lead-Acid 5. a) Capacity
b) Nickel-Metal Hydride (NiMH) 6. d) Halogen
c) Lithium-Polymer (LiPo) 7. d) Less toxic materials
d) Zinc-Carbon 8. d) 12V
9. c) C-rate
23. What is the main drawback of nickel-cadmium (NiCd) 10. b) Capacity
batteries? 11. b) Lithium-Ion (Li-ion)
a) High capacity 12. b) To extend battery life
b) Toxic materials 13. b) Capacity
c) Long cycle life 14. b) Charge rate
d) Low self-discharge rate 15. c) Lead-Acid
16. a) Temperature
24. Which battery parameter is crucial for safe operation 17. c) Cycle life
and preventing overheating? 18. a) Ampere-hours (Ah)
a) Voltage 19. c) 3.6-3.7V
b) Capacity 20. c) Reduced battery life
c) Resistance 21. a) Voltage
d) Temperature 22. c) Lithium-Polymer (LiPo)
23. b) Toxic materials
25. What does "SOC" stand for in the context of battery 24. d) Temperature
management? 25. a) State of Charge
a) State of Charge 26. b) Self-discharge rate
b) System of Control 27. a) Deep cycle
c) Self-Operating Circuit 28. b) Capacity
d) State of Conductivity 29. b) To release excess pressure
30. a) Lithium-Ion
26. Which parameter describes a battery's ability to hold
its charge over time without being used?
a) Capacity 1. What is the primary unit of measurement for battery
b) Self-discharge rate voltage?
c) Voltage a) Volts
d) Cycle life b) Amperes
c) Watts
27. The process of fully discharging and recharging a d) Ohms
battery is known as a:
a) Deep cycle 2. Which parameter represents the flow of electric charge
b) Quick charge in a battery?
c) Overcharge a) Voltage
d) Float charge b) Current
c) Charging rate
28. Which battery parameter is most affected by extreme d) Efficiency
temperatures?
a) Voltage 3. The rate at which a battery is charged or discharged is
b) Capacity known as:
c) Resistance a) Voltage
d) Cycle life b) Current
c) Charging rate
29. What is the purpose of a battery's vent or safety valve? d) Efficiency
a) To increase capacity
b) To release excess pressure 4. Battery efficiency is a measure of:
c) To improve charge rate a) How long a battery lasts
 b) How much energy is lost during charging
c) The battery's voltage 14. Which parameter directly impacts the longevity of a
d) The battery's current battery?
a) Charging rate
5. Energy density of a battery refers to: b) Efficiency
a) How much energy it can store per unit volume or c) Depth of discharge
weight d) Voltage
b) How quickly it can charge
c) Its voltage 15. Battery cost is influenced by:
d) Its current a) Voltage
b) Current
6. Power density of a battery relates to: c) Materials used, manufacturing processes, and
a) How much energy it can store per unit volume or technology
weight d) Efficiency
b) How quickly it can charge
c) Its voltage 16. Which parameter is most important for determining a
d) Its current battery's performance in high-power applications?
a) Voltage
7. State of charge (SoC) represents: b) Current
a) The battery's physical condition c) Specific power
b) The battery's voltage d) State of charge
c) How much energy is left in the battery
d) The battery's temperature 17. What does C-rate represent in battery specifications?
a) Charging rate
8. Depth of discharge (DoD) refers to: b) Efficiency
a) How deep a battery is submerged in water c) Depth of discharge
b) The amount of energy taken from a battery d) Specific energy
compared to its total capacity
c) The battery's voltage 18. When a battery has a high specific energy, it means:
d) The battery's current a) It can store a lot of energy in a small volume or
weight
9. State of health (SoH) of a battery indicates: b) It charges quickly
a) How healthy a person is c) It has a high voltage
b) The battery's current d) It has a high current
c) The battery's efficiency
d) The battery's overall condition and performance 19. A battery with a high specific power can:
a) Store more energy per unit weight
10. The temperature at which a battery operates affects: b) Deliver more power per unit weight
a) Its weight c) Charge quickly
b) Its voltage d) Maintain a high state of health
c) Its efficiency
d) Its life cycle 20. Which battery parameter is crucial for electric vehicle
(EV) range?
11. Specific energy of a battery refers to: a) Charging rate
a) How much energy it can store per unit volume or b) Voltage
weight c) Specific energy
b) How quickly it can charge d) Specific power
c) Its voltage
d) Its current 21. A battery with a high state of charge:
a) Is fully charged
12. Specific power of a battery relates to: b) Has a low voltage
a) How much energy it can store per unit volume or c) Has a low current
weight d) Is inefficient
b) How quickly it can charge
c) Its voltage 22. The number of charge and discharge cycles a battery
d) How much power it can deliver per unit volume or can endure before significant capacity loss is known as:
weight a) State of charge
b) Life cycle
13. Life cycle of a battery refers to: c) State of health
a) How long it takes to charge d) Specific energy
b) How many times it can be charged and discharged
before it degrades significantly 23. Which of the following is not a factor affecting
c) Its voltage battery efficiency?
d) Its current a) Charging rate
 b) Temperature 12. d) How much power it can deliver per unit volume or
c) Depth of discharge weight
d) Specific power 13. b) How many times it can be charged and discharged
before it degrades significantly
24. The operating temperature of a battery can affect its: 14. c) Depth of discharge
a) Voltage 15. c) Materials used, manufacturing processes, and
b) Efficiency technology
c) State of charge 16. c) Specific power
d) Weight 17. a) Charging rate
18. a) It can store a lot of energy in a small volume or
25. Specific energy is often expressed in units of: weight
a) Volts 19. b) Deliver more power per unit weight
b) Watts 20. c) Specific energy
c) Ampere-hours per kilogram (Ah/kg) 21. a) Is fully charged
d) Joules 22. b) Life cycle
23. d) Specific power
26. Specific power is typically measured in: 24. b) Efficiency
a) Volts 25. c) Ampere-hours per kilogram (Ah/kg)
b) Watts per kilogram (W/kg) 26. b) Watts per kilogram (W/kg)
c) Ampere-hours per kilogram (Ah/kg) 27. a) Ampere-hours
d) Joules 28. b) Materials, manufacturing processes, and
technology
27. In terms of battery parameters, what does "Ah" stand 29. c) Specific energy
for? 30. c) State of health
a) Ampere-hours
b) Average hours
c) Ampere-hertz
d) Ampere-energy

28. The cost of a battery is influenced by:

a) Voltage
b) Materials, manufacturing processes, and technology
c) Specific energy
d) Specific power

29. Which battery parameter is crucial for renewable

energy storage systems?
a) Charging rate
b) Voltage
c) Specific energy
d) Efficiency

30. Which battery parameter represents the overall

condition and performance of a battery over time?
a) State of charge
b) Life cycle
c) State of health
d) Charging rate

1. a) Volts
2. b) Current
3. c) Charging rate
4. b) How much energy is lost during charging
5. a) How much energy it can store per unit volume or
weight
6. a) How much energy it can store per unit volume or
weight
7. c) How much energy is left in the battery
8. b) The amount of energy taken from a battery
compared to its total capacity
9. d) The battery's overall condition and performance
10. d) Its life cycle
11. a) How much energy it can store per unit volume or
weight
UNIT - 4
1. What does VCU stand for? 11. The VCU can help improve fuel efficiency by:
a) Vehicle Control Unit a) Adjusting the tire pressure
b) Vehicle Control System b) Turning on the high beams
c) Vehicle Central Unit c) Increasing the engine RPM
d) Vehicle Computer Unit d) Lowering the windows

2. Which component is NOT typically controlled by a VCU? 12. Which type of VCU function is responsible for
a) Engine adjusting the vehicle's suspension?
b) Transmission a) ABS (Anti-lock Braking System)
c) Headlights b) TCS (Traction Control System)
d) Air conditioning c) ECS (Electronic Control Suspension)
d) GPS (Global Positioning System)
3. The primary function of a VCU is to:
a) Monitor tire pressure 13. What is the primary purpose of the VCU's diagnostics
b) Control the vehicle's movement system?
c) Play music in the car a) Playing music from a USB drive
d) Charge the battery b) Monitoring and reporting vehicle issues
c) Controlling the vehicle's horn
4. Which communication protocol is commonly used for d) Adjusting the seat position
VCU-to-ECU communication?
a) USB 14. VCU software updates are typically performed
b) CAN (Controller Area Network) through:
c) Bluetooth a) A USB stick
d) Wi-Fi b) Radio waves
c) Solar power
5. What is the purpose of the Electronic Stability Control d) Manual button presses
(ESC) function in a VCU?
a) Adjust the radio volume 15. Which component ensures the VCU operates when
b) Improve traction and prevent skidding the vehicle is turned off?
c) Control the vehicle's temperature a) Alternator
d) Monitor the fuel level b) Battery
c) Fuel pump
6. Which sensor is essential for adaptive cruise control, d) Exhaust system
often managed by a VCU?
a) Rain sensor 16. The VCU can assist in optimizing the vehicle's
b) Radar sensor performance by adjusting:
c) Tire pressure sensor a) Windshield wipers
d) Fuel level sensor b) Fuel injection timing
c) Sunroof position
7. VCU plays a crucial role in managing: d) Seatbelt tension
a) Interior lighting
b) Engine oil quality 17. What does the term "drive-by-wire" refer to in the
c) Vehicle diagnostics context of VCU-controlled systems?
d) Tire tread depth a) Traditional mechanical steering
b) Electronic throttle control
8. In a hybrid vehicle, the VCU is responsible for: c) Manual transmission
a) Regulating the gasoline engine d) Hybrid powertrains
b) Managing the electric motor
c) Controlling the steering 18. The VCU monitors the vehicle's speed using data
d) Changing the radio station from the:
a) Tachometer
9. The VCU communicates with the driver through: b) Odometer
a) Morse code signals c) Fuel gauge
b) Dashboard warning lights d) GPS receiver
c) Hand signals
d) Smoke signals 19. Which system is responsible for preventing wheel
lock-up during braking?
10. Which safety system relies on VCU data for proper a) EBD (Electronic Brakeforce Distribution)
operation? b) HVAC (Heating, Ventilation, and Air Conditioning)
a) Airbags c) ABS (Anti-lock Braking System)
b) Sunroof d) ESC (Electronic Stability Control)
c) Power windows
d) CD player 20. The VCU may integrate with the infotainment system
to provide: c) Monitoring tire pressure
a) Engine diagnostics d) Playing music from a CD
b) Navigation assistance
c) Windshield defrosting 30. The VCU plays a crucial role in:
d) Fuel economy tips a) Managing vehicle insurance
b) Monitoring driver's license status
21. In electric vehicles, the VCU manages the: c) Regulating vehicle emissions
a) Fuel injection system d) Ensuring vehicle safety
b) Battery and motor functions
c) Transmission shifts These questions cover a range of topics related to
d) Radio presets vehicle control units, and they can be a valuable resource
for exam preparation.
22. VCU data can be used for fleet management, Certainly, here are the answers to the 30 multiple-choice
including: questions related to vehicle control units (VCUs):
a) Monitoring vehicle fuel efficiency
b) Changing the radio station 1.Answer: a) Vehicle Control Unit
c) Adjusting the seat position 2.Answer: c) Headlights
d) Managing airbag deployment 3. Answer: b) Control the vehicle's movement
4.Answer: b) CAN (Controller Area Network)
23. What does the term "CAN bus" refer to in VCU 5.Answer: b) Improve traction and prevent skidding
communication? 6.Answer: b) Radar sensors
a) A network of highways 7.Answer: c) Vehicle diagnostics
b) A communication protocol for vehicle systems 8.Answer: b) Managing the electric motor
c) A type of vehicle tire 9 Answer: b) Dashboard warning lights
d) A musical instrument 10.Answer: a) Airbags
11.Answer: a) Adjusting the tire pressure
24. The VCU can control the vehicle's climate by 12. Answer: c) ECS (Electronic Control Suspension)
managing: 13.Answer: b) Monitoring and reporting vehicle issues
a) Steering wheel temperature 14. Answer: a) A USB stick
b) Fuel injection 15. Answer: b) Battery
c) HVAC (Heating, Ventilation, and Air Conditioning) 16 Answer: b) Fuel injection timing
settings 17. Answer: b) Electronic throttle control
d) Sunroof position 18. Answer: d) GPS receiver
19. Answer: c) ABS (Anti-lock Braking System)
25. Which VCU function helps maintain a safe following 20. Answer: b) Navigation assistanc
distance in traffic? 21. Answer: b) Battery and motor functions
a) Lane departure warning 22. Answer: a) Monitoring vehicle fuel efficiency
b) Adaptive cruise control 23. Answer: b) A communication protocol for vehicle
c) Tire pressure monitoring systems
d) Turn signal activation 24. Answer: c) HVAC (Heating, Ventilation, and Air
Conditioning) settings
26. The VCU uses input from the brake pedal to: 25 Answer: b) Adaptive cruise control
a) Tune the radio 26 Answer: d) Apply the brakes
b) Adjust the seat position 27 Answer: a) Ultrasonic sensor
c) Control engine oil viscosity 28. Answer: b) Speed and location
d) Apply the brakes 29. Answer: d) Playing music from a CD
30. Answer: d) Ensuring vehicle safety
27. Which sensor is essential for VCU-controlled parking
assistance systems?
a) Ultrasonic sensor 1. What does ECU stand for in the context of electric
b) Windshield washer fluid level sensor vehicles?
c) Transmission fluid temperature sensor a) Electric Car Unit
d) Fuel gauge sensor b) Engine Control Unit
c) Electronics Control Unit
28. VCU data can be used to track a vehicle's: d) Energy Control Unit
a) Tire tread depth
b) Speed and location 2. Which component of an ECU is responsible for
c) Radio station preferences managing battery power in an electric vehicle?
d) Sunroof position a) Inverter
b) Battery Management System
29. Which of the following is NOT a primary function of a c) Motor Controller
VCU? d) Charging Port
a) Managing vehicle lights
b) Controlling engine power 3. What is the primary function of the Motor Controller in
an ECU? b) Central Automotive Network bus
a) Regulating air conditioning c) Computer-Aided Navigation bus
b) Controlling the electric motor d) Communication Access Node bus
c) Managing the headlights
d) Monitoring tire pressure 13. What is the primary purpose of the ECU's torque
vectoring system in an electric vehicle?
4. In an electric vehicle, the ECU communicates with a) Adjusting tire pressure
various subsystems through which protocol? b) Managing fuel injection
a) OBD-II c) Enhancing traction and handling
b) Bluetooth d) Controlling the radio station
c) CAN bus
d) USB 14. Which type of ECU helps ensure the proper
deployment of airbags during a collision?
5. Which safety feature is often controlled by the ECU in a) Engine Control Unit (ECU)
an electric vehicle? b) Transmission Control Unit (TCU)
a) Lane-keeping assist c) Airbag Control Unit (ACU)
b) Power windows d) Tire Pressure Monitoring Unit (TPMU)
c) Radio volume
d) Cupholder temperature 15. The ECU in an electric vehicle may control the
regenerative braking system to:
6. In an ECU, what is the role of the Inverter? a) Improve fuel efficiency
a) Converts DC power to AC power for the motor b) Adjust the radio volume
b) Manages the regenerative braking system c) Manage tire pressure
c) Controls the heating system d) Enhance cruise control
d) Monitors tire tread wear
16. What is the primary function of the Charging Port
7. Which of the following is NOT a function of the Battery Controller in an electric vehicle's ECU?
Management System (BMS)? a) Regulating battery temperature
a) Monitoring cell voltage b) Managing power distribution to the charging port
b) Controlling regenerative braking c) Adjusting the seat position
c) Balancing cell state of charge d) Controlling the windshield wipers
d) Preventing overcharging
17. Which component of an ECU is responsible for
8. What does regenerative braking do in an electric managing the charging process of the electric vehicle's
vehicle? battery?
a) Increases acceleration a) Inverter
b) Converts kinetic energy into electric energy b) Battery Management System (BMS)
c) Improves tire traction c) Motor Controller
d) Controls the radio volume d) Charging Port Controller

9. Which sensor is commonly used in an ECU to measure 18. Which protocol is commonly used for wireless
vehicle speed? communication between the ECU and external devices?
a) GPS a) Wi-Fi
b) Radar b) Bluetooth
c) Wheel speed sensor c) NFC
d) Thermocouple d) Ethernet

10. Which component in an ECU is responsible for 19. What safety feature is associated with the ECU's
managing the thermal system of an electric vehicle? ability to monitor tire pressure?
a) Cooling fan a) Anti-lock braking system (ABS)
b) Infotainment system b) Traction control
c) Airbag controller c) Tire pressure monitoring system (TPMS)
d) Power steering pump d) Airbag deployment

11. In an electric vehicle, the ECU plays a crucial role in 20. In an electric vehicle, what does the ECU typically
optimizing: control to maximize energy efficiency?
a) Fuel efficiency a) Cabin temperature
b) Oil change intervals b) Radio volume
c) Battery life and performance c) Wheel alignment
d) Transmission gear ratios d) Regenerative braking

12. What does CAN bus stand for in the context of 21. Which component in an ECU is responsible for
automotive communication? controlling the charging speed of an electric vehicle?
a) Controller Area Network bus a) Battery Management System (BMS)
 b) Motor Controller b) Adjusting the radio volume
c) Inverter c) Capturing and storing energy during deceleration
d) Charging Port Controller d) Controlling the windshield wipers

22. In an ECU, what does the term "CAN bus" refer to? 1. c) Electronics Control Unit
a) A communication protocol 2. b) Battery Management System
b) A type of electric motor 3. b) Controlling the electric motor
c) A component of the exhaust system 4. c) CAN bus
d) A type of tire 5. a) Lane-keeping assist
6. a) Converts DC power to AC power for the motor
23. What is the primary function of the ECU's Power 7. b) Controlling regenerative braking
Steering Controller in an electric vehicle? 8. b) Converts kinetic energy into electric energy
a) Managing tire pressure 9. c) Wheel speed sensor
b) Regulating the power windows 10. a) Cooling fan
c) Controlling the power steering system 11. c) Battery life and performance
d) Adjusting the seat position 12. a) Controller Area Network bus
13. c) Enhancing traction and handling
24. Which ECU component is responsible for adjusting 14. c) Airbag Control Unit (ACU)
the electric vehicle's headlights? 15. a) Improve fuel efficiency
a) Inverter 16. b) Managing power distribution to the charging port
b) Battery Management System (BMS) 17. d) Charging Port Controller
c) Motor Controller 18. b) Bluetooth
d) Lighting Control Unit (LCU) 19. c) Tire pressure monitoring system (TPMS)
20. d) Regenerative braking
25. In an electric vehicle, the ECU's regenerative braking 21. a) Battery Management System (BMS)
system helps: 22. a) A communication protocol
a) Extend battery life and improve efficiency 23. c) Controlling the power steering system
b) Adjust the radio volume 24. d) Lighting Control Unit (LCU)
c) Manage tire pressure 25. a) Extend battery life and improve efficiency
d) Control the air conditioning system 26. b) To enable communication between different
vehicle systems
26. What is the purpose of the ECU's CAN bus 27. d) Climate Control Unit (CCU)
communication protocol? 28. a) On-Board Diagnostics, version 2
a) To control the vehicle's audio system 29. d) Airbag deployment
b) To enable communication between different vehicle 30. c) Capturing and storing energy during deceleration
systems
c) To manage tire pressure 1. What does CAN stand for in Controller Area Network?
d) To adjust the climate control settings a) Communication Area Network
b) Controller Access Network
27. Which ECU component is responsible for managing c) Controller Area Network
the electric vehicle's HVAC (Heating, Ventilation, and Air d) Computer Area Network
Conditioning) system?
a) Inverter 2. Which layer of the OSI model does CAN operate in?
b) Battery Management System (BMS) a) Physical
c) Motor Controller b) Data Link
d) Climate Control Unit (CCU) c) Network
d) Transport
28. What does OBD-II stand for in the context of vehicle
diagnostics? 3. CAN is widely used in automotive applications
a) On-Board Diagnostics, version 2 because of its:
b) Open Battery Disconnect-Integrated Interface a) High data transfer rates
c) Overheating Brake Detection and Interlock Interface b) Low cost and robustness
d) Onboard Bluetooth Data Integration c) Compatibility with Wi-Fi
d) Limited range
29. What safety feature is associated with the ECU's
ability to manage the airbag system? 4. In a CAN system, what is the role of a "node"?
a) Lane-keeping assist a) It regulates power supply
b) Anti-lock braking system (ABS) b) It manages network security
c) Electronic Stability Control (ESC) c) It communicates on the network
d) Airbag deployment d) It stores data in the cloud

30. In an electric vehicle, the ECU's regenerative braking 5. Which of the following is true about CAN bus topology?
system is primarily responsible for: a) It uses a star topology
a) Monitoring tire pressure b) It uses a ring topology
 c) It uses a linear bus topology b) Error flags
d) It uses a mesh topology c) Error acknowledgments
d) Error correction codes
6. CAN uses which two signaling levels for
communication? 16. CAN termination resistors are used to:
a) High and low a) Increase the data rate
b) Positive and negative b) Prevent signal reflection
c) On and off c) Extend the network range
d) Red and green d) Reduce power consumption

7. What is the maximum data rate (in kbps) for a 17. Which of the following is not a common application
standard CAN network? of CAN in electric vehicles?
a) 100 kbps a) Battery management
b) 250 kbps b) Motor control
c) 500 kbps c) Radio communication
d) 1 Mbps d) Inverter control

8. Which CAN protocol is commonly used in electric 18. CANopen is a higher-layer protocol based on CAN
vehicle (EV) applications? primarily used for:
a) CAN 1.0 a) Diagnostics and servicing
b) CAN 2.0A b) Vehicle entertainment systems
c) CAN FD c) GPS navigation
d) LIN d) Power distribution

9. CAN FD stands for: 19. CAN messages can be classified into how many
a) Flexible Dataframe different types?
b) Fast Dataframe a) 2
c) Full Duplex b) 3
d) Field Device c) 4
d) 5
10. CAN messages are transmitted in:
a) Pairs 20. What is the primary advantage of using CAN in
b) Frames automotive systems?
c) Blocks a) High-speed data transfer
d) Packets b) Low cost and reliability
c) Wireless communication
11. What is the purpose of the CAN identifier in a CAN d) Global positioning
message?
a) To specify the message length 21. In a CAN network, what is the purpose of the
b) To identify the source of the message "dominant" and "recessive" states?
c) To indicate the message priority a) To control the power supply
d) To specify the baud rate b) To indicate bus errors
c) To manage network security
12. Which of the following is a common error detection d) To identify message priority
mechanism in CAN?
a) CRC (Cyclic Redundancy Check) 22. CAN bus arbitration resolves conflicts based on:
b) IP checksum a) Voltage levels
c) DNS lookup b) Bit stuffing
d) MAC address c) Message priority
d) Message length
13. CAN bit stuffing is used for:
a) Data compression 23. CAN controllers can be found in:
b) Error detection a) Microwave ovens
c) Clock synchronization b) Washing machines
d) Address resolution c) Electric toothbrushes
d) Automotive ECUs
14. Which message has the highest priority on a CAN bus?
a) RTR (Remote Transmission Request) 24. CAN messages can have how many data bytes?
b) Error message a) 4
c) Standard data frame b) 6
d) Extended data frame c) 8
d) 10
15. CAN allows for error detection and correction through:
a) Error retransmission 25. CAN transceivers are responsible for:
 a) Routing power to the network 18. a) Diagnostics and servicing
b) Modulating data signals 19. b) 3
c) Protecting the network from interference 20. b) Low cost and reliability
d) Creating message identifiers 21. d) To identify message priority
22. c) Message priority
26. Which international standard defines the physical 23. d) Automotive ECUs
layer of CAN communication? 24. c) 8
a) ISO 11898 25. c) Protecting the network from interference
b) ANSI C12.22 26. a) ISO 11898
c) IEEE 802.11 27. b) 250 meters
d) SAE J1939 28. a) 0 volts
29. b) Broadcast
27. In CAN communication, what is the maximum 30. b) Battery charging control
distance between two nodes in a network?
a) 100 meters 1. What is the first step in troubleshooting an electric
b) 250 meters vehicle (EV) with a charging issue?
c) 500 meters a) Check the battery voltage
d) 1 kilometer b) Inspect the charging cable
c) Verify the power source
28. What is the typical voltage level for a dominant state d) Restart the vehicle
in CAN communication?
a) 0 volts 2. Which component in an EV is responsible for
b) 5 volts converting DC power from the battery to AC power for
c) 12 volts the electric motor?
d) -5 volts a) Inverter
b) Charger
29. CAN is designed for which type of communication? c) Battery management system
a) Point-to-point d) Electric motor
b) Broadcast
c) Satellite 3. When assessing the health of an EV battery, what
d) Cellular parameter is commonly measured?
a) Tire pressure
30. Which of the following is a common application of b) State of charge (SOC)
CAN in electric vehicles? c) Transmission fluid level
a) Video streaming d) Brake pad wear
b) Battery charging control
c) Air conditioning control 4. What is regenerative braking in an electric vehicle?
d) Social media integration a) A type of hybrid powertrain
b) Using the brake pedal to slow down the vehicle
These questions should help you prepare for your exam c) Recovering energy during braking to charge the
on Controller Area Network communication in electric battery
vehicles. Good luck! d) Disabling the brakes for energy savings

5. If an EV displays a "low voltage" warning, what should

Certainly! Here are the answers to the multiple-choice be checked first?
questions: a) Tire pressure
b) Cabin temperature
1. c) Controller Area Network c) Battery voltage
2. b) Data Link d) Windshield wiper fluid
3. b) Low cost and robustness
4. c) It communicates on the network 6. What safety precautions should be taken before
5. c) It uses a linear bus topology working on an electric vehicle?
6. a) High and low a) Wear gloves
7. b) 250 kbps b) Disconnect the battery
8. c) CAN FD c) Check the tire pressure
9. b) Fast Dataframe d) Remove the license plate
10. b) Frames
11. c) To indicate the message priority 7. What could be a potential cause if an electric vehicle
12. a) CRC (Cyclic Redundancy Check) loses power suddenly while driving?
13. c) Clock synchronization a) Low tire pressure
14. d) Extended data frame b) Overheating of the electric motor
15. b) Error flags c) Faulty power electronics
16. b) Prevent signal reflection d) Dirty windshield
17. c) Radio communication
8. How can you test the functionality of an EV's 9. a) Kilowatt-hours of energy delivered per hour
regenerative braking system? 10. b) To prevent the battery from overheating or freezing
a) Rev the engine 11. c) CCS (Combined Charging System)
b) Accelerate rapidly 12. b) Immediately disconnect the cable
c) Apply the brakes gently 13. a) To convert AC power from the grid to DC power for
d) Coast downhill the battery
14. b) It manages the state of charge of the battery
9. What does the "kWh" rating on an EV charger indicate? 15. c) Level 3 charging is faster
a) Kilowatt-hours of energy delivered per hour
b) Kilowatts of power delivered per hour 1. What is the primary purpose of an environmental
c) Kilometers per hour of charging speed chamber in electric vehicles?
d) Kilograms of weight per hour a) To charge the vehicle's batteries
b) To test the vehicle's safety features
10. What is the purpose of a thermal management c) To simulate various environmental conditions for
system in an EV? testing
a) To control the vehicle's temperature d) To store spare parts
b) To prevent the battery from overheating or freezing
c) To improve aerodynamics 2. Which environmental factor is typically simulated in an
d) To adjust the suspension environmental chamber for electric vehicles?
a) Humidity
11. Which of the following is an example of a fast- b) Tire pressure
charging standard used in electric vehicles? c) Radio reception
a) AC Level 1 d) Steering wheel alignment
b) CHAdeMO
c) CCS (Combined Charging System) 3. Why is temperature testing important in environmental
d) DC Level 2 chambers for electric vehicles?
a) To check the quality of the vehicle's paint
12. What should you do if you encounter a damaged high- b) To ensure the battery operates within safe
voltage cable in an EV? temperature limits
a) Touch it to check for electrical current c) To measure the vehicle's top speed
b) Immediately disconnect the cable d) To test the air conditioning system
c) Ignore it and continue driving
d) Pour water on it to cool it down 4. What is thermal cycling in the context of environmental
chambers for electric vehicles?
13. What is the purpose of the onboard charger in an EV? a) A method for growing plants inside the chamber
a) To convert AC power from the grid to DC power for b) A test to evaluate the vehicle's suspension system
the battery c) Repeatedly subjecting the vehicle to extreme
b) To charge portable devices in the vehicle temperature changes
c) To control the vehicle's lighting system d) Adjusting the chamber's lighting conditions
d) To adjust the suspension
5. Which of the following is NOT a common use of
14. In an electric vehicle, what role does the Battery environmental chambers in electric vehicle testing?
Management System (BMS) play? a) Battery testing
a) It controls the vehicle's speed b) Emissions testing
b) It manages the state of charge of the battery c) Durability testing
c) It regulates the tire pressure d) Brake fluid testing
d) It controls the cabin temperature
6. What is the purpose of humidity testing in
15. What is the primary advantage of using a Level 3 DC environmental chambers for electric vehicles?
fast charger over Level 2 AC charging for an EV? a) To assess the vehicle's audio system
a) Level 3 charging is more environmentally friendly b) To evaluate the effects of moisture on vehicle
b) Level 3 charging is cheaper components
c) Level 3 charging is faster c) To measure the vehicle's fuel efficiency
d) Level 3 charging is safer for the battery d) To test the power windows

1. b) Inspect the charging cable 7. Which type of environmental chamber is used to

2. a) Inverter simulate extreme cold conditions?
3. b) State of charge (SOC) a) Salt spray chamber
4. c) Recovering energy during braking to charge the b) Rain chamber
battery c) Thermal chamber
5. c) Battery voltage d) Noise chamber
6. b) Disconnect the battery
7. c) Faulty power electronics 8. In the context of electric vehicles, what does EMC
8. c) Apply the brakes gently stand for?
 a) Electronic Motor Control temperature limits
b) Electric Mobility Charging 4. c) Repeatedly subjecting the vehicle to extreme
c) Electromagnetic Compatibility temperature changes
d) Electric Motor Cooling 5. d) Brake fluid testing
6. b) To evaluate the effects of moisture on vehicle
9. What is the purpose of vibration testing in components
environmental chambers for electric vehicles? 7. c) Thermal chamber
a) To evaluate the vehicle's audio quality 8. c) Electromagnetic Compatibility
b) To assess the vehicle's ride comfort 9. c) To simulate the effects of road vibrations on vehicle
c) To simulate the effects of road vibrations on vehicle components
components 10. b) Rainwater immersion testing
d) To test the horn's sound level 11. c) Programmable logic controllers (PLCs)
12. b) Ensuring the vehicle's engine starts smoothly in
10. Which environmental chamber test is crucial for cold conditions
ensuring electric vehicle safety during heavy rainfall? 13. a) Salt spray testing
a) Salt spray testing 14. b) To ensure the vehicle's electrical systems do not
b) Rainwater immersion testing interfere with each other or external devices
c) Thermal cycling testing 15. b) Radio Frequency Interference
d) Noise level testing

11. What type of equipment is commonly used to control

and monitor environmental chambers?
a) GPS devices
b) Oscilloscopes
c) Programmable logic controllers (PLCs)
d) Microphones

12. What is the primary concern when conducting cold

start testing in an environmental chamber for electric
vehicles?
a) Testing the vehicle's interior lighting
b) Ensuring the vehicle's engine starts smoothly in cold
conditions
c) Evaluating the vehicle's tire pressure
d) Testing the vehicle's airbag deployment

13. Which environmental chamber test is essential for

evaluating the corrosion resistance of electric vehicle
components?
a) Salt spray testing
b) Noise level testing
c) Solar radiation testing
d) Rainwater pH testing

14. What is the purpose of electromagnetic compatibility

(EMC) testing in environmental chambers for electric
vehicles?
a) To evaluate the vehicle's entertainment system
b) To ensure the vehicle's electrical systems do not
interfere with each other or external devices
c) To test the vehicle's tire tread wear
d) To measure the vehicle's fuel consumption

15. In the context of electric vehicles, what does RFI

stand for?
a) Rapid Fuel Injection
b) Radio Frequency Interference
c) Regenerative Fuel Injection
d) Rear-Facing Indicator

1. c) To simulate various environmental conditions for

testing
2. a) Humidity
3. b) To ensure the battery operates within safe
UNIT -2 to
1Leaf springs absorb shocks by a) bouncing
a) bending b) pitching
b) twisting c) rolling
c) compression d) all of the above
d) tension
12) The angle between king pin centre line and vertical in
2) Coil springs absorb shocks by the plane of wheel is called
a) bending a) Steering axis inclination
b) twisting b) King pin inclination
c) compression c) Castor
d) tension d) Camber

3) The following is a type of leaf springs 13) 50-The ratio between BHP and IHP is called
a) three Quarter elliptic a) thermal efficiency
b) semi elliptic b) engine efficiency
c) quarter elliptic c) volumetric efficiency
d) all of the above d) mechanical efficiency

4) The material used for making torsion bar is 14) Useful power obtained at the engine flywheel is
a) Steel called:
b) Cast iron a) Indicated power
c) High carbon steel b) Frictional power
d) All of the above c) Mechanical advantage
d) Brake power
5) Drive (live) axles
a) are simply beams which supports the vehicle weight 15) Wear on tyre is more on one side is due to:
b) are usually the front axles a) incorrect camber angle
c) contain differential b) low tyre pressure
d) all of the above c) high tyre pressure
d) sudden acceleration
6) The following represents the correct specification of a
tyre 16) In Battery coil ignition system, the correct sequence
a) 155-80-R-13 of flow of current is
b) R-155-80-13 a) Battery – Ammeter – Ignition coil – Distributor – Spark
c) 155-80-13-R plug
d) 155-R-80-13 b) Battery – Ignition coil – Ammeter – Distributor –
Spark plug
7) The following is (are) the independent suspension c) Battery – Ammeter – Distributor – Ignition coil – Spark
system(s) plug
a) Wishbone Arm system d) Battery – Distributor – Ammeter – Ignition coil –
b) Trailing Link system Spark plug
c) Sliding Pillar system
d) all of the above 17) In Magneto Ignition system
a) No battery is required
8) The coil spring in used in b) Engine starting is rather difficult
a) Wishbone Arm system c) used in high speed engines
b) Trailing Link system d) All of the above
c) Sliding Pillar system
d) all of the above 18) In four cylinder in-line engine, the probable firing
order is
9) Un-sprung weight is a) 1-3-4-2
a) Weigh of vehicle b) 1-2-3-4
b) Weigh of chassis frame c) 2-4-1-3
c) Weight of wheels d) 2-1-3-4
d) Weight of wheels and axles
19) The following is (are) the advantage(s) of Electronic
10) Sprung weight is Ignition system
a) Weigh of vehicle minus unsprung weight a) Produces maximum output voltage
b) Weigh of chassis frame b) Better starting with cold engine
c) Weight of wheels c) Less possibility of arcing at spark plug
d) Weight of wheels and axles d) All of the above

11) While in motion, the vehicle suspension is subjected 20) What part of a car holds the electricity?
a) Alternator upon the
b) Generator a) coefficient of friction
c) Battery b) spring force
d) Solenoid c) contact surfaces
d) all of the above
21) The battery is made of lead, water and
a) Paint 31) In Disc clutch, the clutch disc acts as a
b) Battery fluid a) driving member
c) Sulfuric acid b) driven member
d) Gasoline c) neutral member
d) any of the above
22) Two general types of tyres are
a) Tube type and tubeless 32) In Disc clutch, engine flywheel acts as a
b) Solid and tubeless a) driving plate
c) Air and pneumatic b) driven plate
d) Split rim and drop centre c) pressure plate
d) none of the above
23) How many cells are used in a 12 volt car battery?
a) 2 33) The following type of spring(s) is (are) employed in
b) 4 the pressure plate
c) 6 a) Coil springs
d) 8 b) Diaphragm type conical spring
c) both (A) and (B)
24) The advantage of a tubeless tyre over tube type tyre d) none of the above
is
a) Slow air leakage 34) The following is an automatic clutch which is
b) Better fuel efficiency controlled by engine speed
c) Less chances of running flat a) Cone clutch
d) All of these b) Centrifugal clutch
c) fluid clutch
25) In a single dry plate clutch, torsional vibrations are d) Disc clutch
absorbed by
a) Coil springs known as torsional springs 35) The following is (are) the advantage(s) of fluid
b) Cushion springs flywheel
c) Central hub a) It gives a smoother power take up than centrifugal
d) Clutch pedal type
b) fluid acts as a cushioning agent
26) The battery is an electrochemical device, which c) it needs no separate pedal or lever to operate it
means battery d) all of the above
a) Makes chemicals by mechanical means
b) Uses chemical action to provide electricity 36) Which of the following is true?
c) Has curved plates instead of flat plates a) high torque is required at the start of the vehicle
d) Does not use an electrolyte b) low torque is required at high speeds
c) gearbox helps in smooth running of vehicle
27) An overinflated tyre will wear the tread most near the d) all of the above
a) Edge
b) corner 37) The amount of tilt measured in degrees from the
c) centre vertical, is called
d) none of these a) Camber angle
b) Caster angle
28) The following is not a Friction clutch c) Toe in
a) Fluid clutch d) Toe out
b) Centrifugal clutch
c) Cone clutch 38) The purpose of caster is to give a trailing effect to
d) Disc clutch the
a) Front wheel
29) The following type of arrangement is used in b) Rear wheel
synchromesh type gear box c) Inner wheel
a) Single plate clutch d) Outer wheel
b) Fluid clutch
c) Dog clutch 39) Four-wheel drive vehicles have differential at
d) Semi-centrifugal clutch a) front wheels
b) rear wheels
30) The torque which a clutch can transmit, depends c) both the front and rear wheels
d) any of the front or rear wheels d) None of These

40) The propeller shaft consist of 49) The caster is called positive when the top of the king
a) knuckle joint pin is inclined to the
b) flange coupling a) Rear of the vehicle
c) universal joint b) Front of the vehicle
d) Rag joint c) Left of the vehicle
d) Right of the vehicle
41) The positive plates of a lead acid battery has
a) Lead peroxide (PbO2) 50) Caster is a
b) Spongy lead (Pb) a) Forward tilt of the kingpin
c) Lead sulphate (PbSO4) b) Backward tilt of the kingpin
d) Sulphuric acid (H2SO4) c) Either 'A' or 'B'
d) None of these
42) The rigid suspension is beneficial when
a) It is desired to reduce the unsprung mass 51) The central portion of the wheel is called
b) It is desired to have more flexibility in design a) Rim
c) It is desired to improve tyre to ground contact b) Scale
characteristics c) Hub
d) Axle
d) Large changes in load make it necessary to have a
large suspension stroke 52) The basic purpose of tyre rotation on automobiles is
43) The basic purpose of tyres is to to
a) Grip the road and provide good traction a) Avoid ply separation
b) Substitute for springs b) Equalize wear
c) Act as brake c) Get better ride
d) None of these d) None of these

44) The clutch is located between the transmission and 53) The specific gravity of acid in a fully charged battery
the is generally
a) Engine a) 1.00
b) Rear axle b) 1.28
c) Propeller shaft c) 2.81
d) Differential d)1.82

45) The main function of the tread pattern on tyre is that 54) If a tyre is designated as 175/65 R-14 82-S, then the
a) The tread grooves pass air between the tyre and road aspect ratio for the tyre is
surface, thereby preventing tyre from a) 175
overheating b) 65
b) The crests between the tread grooves absorb road c) 14
noise d) 82
c) In wet conditions, the tread grooves expel water that is
drawn between the tyre and road 55) Incorrect steering axis inclination (S.A.I.) causes
surface a) Tendency to assume toe-out orientation
d) The tread pattern protects the tyre's inner carcass b) Generation of a braking effect at tight corners
from small stones and pieces of glass c) Poor recovery of the steering wheel after making a
turn
46) The main function of the brake fluid is d) The vehicle to pull to the side of lesser inclination
a) Lubrication
b) Power transmission 56) Cushioning springs in clutch plate reduces
c) Cooling a) Vehicle speed
d) None of these b) Torsional vibrations
c) Jerky starts
47) The discharged lead acid battery has on its plates d) None of these
a) Lead peroxide (PbO2)
b) Spongy lead (Pb) 57) The brake pedal during ABS operation
c) Lead sulphate (PbSO4) a) Is pushed upward forcefully
d) Sulphuric acid (H2SO4) b) Pedal stroke becomes longer
c) Transmits slight kickback to the driver's foot
48) The service brakes employed in cars are generally d) All of the above
operated
a) Mechanically 58) The basic function of the suspension is to
b) Hydraulically a) Absorbs vibration and impact forces from the road
c) Pneumatically surface
b) Ensure that the steering wheel can deliver a suitable d) Between transmission and differential
amount of steering force
c) Ensure that wheel alignment is not disturbed during 68) Which of the following is the disadvantage of the
driving cone clutch?
d) Automatically correct the effects of over steerin a) It becomes difficult to disengage the clutch when the
cone angle is less than 20°
59) Which of the following is not a part of the chassis? b) It is silent in operation
a) Wheels c) The normal force on the contact surface is larger than
b) Front axle the axial force
c) Steering system d) Same torque can be transmitted for the same size as
d) Seats the plate clutch

60) The component that is responsible for converting the 69) The dry clutch can tolerate longer engagement time
rotation of the steering wheel into than a wet clutch.
lateral motion is the a) True
a) Steering wheel b) False
b) Steering shaft
c) Steering gearbox 70) Which of the following is the need of the gearbox?
d) Tie rod a) To vary the speed of the vehicle
b) To vary the torque of the vehicle
61) The operation of removing trapped air from the c) To vary the power of the vehicle
hydraulic braking system is known as d) To vary the acceleration of the vehicle
a) Trapping
b) Tapping 71) In which type of manual transmission the double-
c) Bleeding declutching is used?
d) Cleaning a) Constant-mesh gearbox
b) Sliding mesh gearbox
62) A maintenance free battery c) Synchromesh gearbox
a) Has lead-antimony plate grid d) Epicyclical gearbox
b) Has lead-calcium plate grid
c) Does not contain acid 72) Which of the following is not part of automatic
d) Does not contain water transmission?
a) Epicyclic gearbox
63) The function of anti-lock brake system (ABS) is that b) Torque convertor
is c) Multi-plate clutch
a) it reduces the brake pad wear d) Sliding mesh gearbox
b) it reduces the stopping distance
c) it avoids the skidding of the vehicle 73) Which types of gears are used in constant mesh
d) it reduces cost of braking system gearbox?
a) Spur gear
64) Which types of wheels cannot be used with a b) Helical gear
tubeless tire? c) Bevel gear
a) Disc wheel d) Worm gear
b) Light alloy wheel
c) Wire wheel 74) Why are the helical gears used commonly in
d) Composite wheel transmission over spur gears?
a) Low cost and high strength
65) Which type of wheels is preferred in sports cars? b) Low noise level and high strength
a) Disc wheel c) Low noise level and economy
b) Wire wheel d) Low noise level and low cost
c) Magnesium alloy wheel
d) Aluminum alloy wheel 75) Which types of joints are used when the shafts are
inclined?
66) Which of the following contains no linkage between a) Universal joint
the clutch and the pedal? b) Hinge joint
a) Clutch – by – wire c) Ball and socket joint
b) Wet clutch d) Pivot joint
c) Hydraulic single plate clutch
d) Hydraulic multi-plate clutch 76) Which of the following is the disadvantage of the
open differential?
67) Where is the clutch located? a) High in cost
a) Between transmission and engine b) Not reliable
b) Between transmission and rear axle c) Complex design
c) Between transmission and propeller shaft d) Sends most of the power to the wheel having less
traction 86) Generally which brakes are on the front wheels?
a) Drum brake
77) Where is the differential located? b) Disc brake
a) Between transmission and rear axle c) Shoe brake
b) Between engine and transmission d) Double shoe brake
c) Between two propeller shaft
d) Between steering wheel and steering column 87) Which instrument is used for adjusting the ignition
timing?
78) What is the need of the universal joint? a) Accurate clock
a) To change inclination b) Tachometer
b) To bend sideways c) Stopwatch
c) To transfer torque at an angle d) Stroboscopic light
d) To change length
88) What is running resistance of the vehicle?
79) A two-piece propeller shaft requires one universal a) Rolling resistance
joint. b) Aerodynamic resistance
a) True c) Sum of rolling and aerodynamic resistance
b) False d) Traction force

80) If the front of the front wheels is inside and rear of 89) Suppose the road gradient is G = 10%. What is the
front wheels are apart when the corresponding angle (approximate
vehicle is at rest, then the configuration is called? value in radians)?
a) Toe-in a) 5 rad
b) Toe out b) 0.1 rad
c) Positive camber c) 1 rad
d) Positive castor. d) 10 rad

81) What is the name of the angle through which the 90) What will happen if the traction force is negative?
wheel has to turn to sustain the side a) The vehicle will accelerate
force? b) The vehicle will decelerate
a) Slip angle c) The vehicle will first accelerate and then decelerate
b) Castor angle d) The vehicle will run at a constant speed
c) Camber
d) Kingpin inclination 91) Suppose the vehicle is running at a constant speed
on the flat road with rolling
82) What is called the cornering force over the slip angle? resistance = 100 N and aerodynamic resistance = 100 N,
a) Castor trail what is the traction force
b) Cornering power required?
c) Self-righting torque a) 100 N
d) Pneumatic trail b) 0 N
c) 200 N
83) What is a condition called when the vehicle will try to d) 50 N
move away from its normal
direction and to keep it on the right path there is need to 92) What will happen if the vehicle is made 50% heavier,
steer a little? but all other parameters remain
a) Understeer the same?
b) Oversteer a) The running resistance will decrease
c) Reversibility b) The running resistance will increase
d) Irreversibility c) The running resistance will remain the same
d) The aerodynamic resistance will increase by a factor
84) What is the purpose of the reciprocating ball type of 1.5 squared
steering gear?
a) To reduce the operating cost 93) If the traction resistance is equal to the total running
b) To reduce the number of parts resistance, then which of the
c) To reduce the operating friction following will happen?
d) To reduce the toe-out during the turns a) The vehicle will accelerate
b) The vehicle will decelerate
85) In a disc brake, which component provides the pad-to c) The vehicle will run at a constant velocity
-disc adjustment? d) The vehicle will come to rest
a) Bleed screw
b) Piston 94) If the vehicle is running on the road having 10%
c) Caliper gradient at a constant speed, then on
d) Piston seal flat road it will accelerate at approximately 1 m/s2 (All
the parameters remain the same).
a) True b) Prony brake dynamometer
b) False c) Hydraulic type dynamometer
d) Swinging field type dynamometer
95) Which of the following is the knock sensor?
a) Flap type sensor 105) On which of the following does brake mean
b) Thermocouples effective pressure (BMEP) in an engine
c) Thermistors depend upon?
d) Piezoelectric pickup a) Speed and torque
b) Speed and power
96) What is the use of the lambda sensors in the catalytic c) Torque
converter? d) Speed
a) To keep excess air ratio within a range
b) To keep the flow rate of constant air 106) What should a fully-charged 6 cell automotive
c) To keep the exhaust pressure constant battery indicate?
d) To keep the exhaust temperature constant a) 12 V
b) 12.6 V
97) Where are the electro-optical sensors used? c) The specific gravity of 1.29 at 32℃
a) Position and speed measurement d) 12.6 V and the specific gravity of 1.29 at 32℃
b) Piston temperature measurement
c) Cooling water flow measurement 107) What is the number of positive plates in a battery
d) Lubricating oil flow measurement cell?
a) One more than the negative plates
98) What is the main use of the strain gauge? b) Two less than the negative plates
a) To measure viscosity c) One less than the negative plates
b) To measure velocity d) Two more than the negative plates
c) To measure temperature
d) To measure pressure 108) What is a maintenance-free battery?
a) A battery having lead-antimony plate grid
99) What is the use of the hot-wire sensor? b) A battery having lead-calcium plate grid
a) To measure temperature c) A battery does not contain acid
b) To measure the smoke intensity d) A battery does not contain water
c) To measure the mass flow rate
d) To measure pressure 109) Which of the following is the advantage of alkaline
battery?
100) What is the disadvantage of the piezoelectric a) High energy density
pressure sensor? b) Good discharge characteristics over a wide range of
a) It has too much sensitivity temperature
b) It can measure only low pressure c) The specific gravity of electrolyte remains the same
c) It is not suitable for dynamic measurement d) Cheap raw materials are used
d) It can only give pressure difference
110) Which component in the DC generator produces a
101) What is LVDT used to measure? magnetic field?
a) Gas temperature a) Stator
b) Engine speed b) Commutator
c) Crank angle c) Armature
d) Large displacement d) Carbon brushes

102) Which of the following is the best method to 111) Which component in alternator produces a
measure the speed? magnetic field?
a) Mechanical tachometer a) Frame
b) Electrical tachometer b) Stator
c) Magnetic pickup c) Regulator
d) Mechanical counters d) Rotor

103) Which of the following is the most accurate method 112) At the start of the engine, the charging voltage is
of determining friction power? _______
a) Morse test a) Lower
b) WillianÅs line b) Higher
c) Motoring test c) Same
d) Measurement of brake and indicated power d) Zero

104) Which of the following is the most accurate 113) In an alternator, which component controls the
dynamometer? output?
a) Eddy current dynamometer a) Voltage regulator
b) Cutout relay 14) d) Brake power
c) Current regulator 15) a) incorrect camber angle
d) Diode 16) c) Battery – Ammeter – Distributor – Ignition coil –
Spark plug
114) What is the material of an alternator frame? 17) a) No battery is required
a) Cast iron 18) a) 1-3-4-2
b) Brass 19) d) All of the above
c) Copper 20) c) Battery
d) Aluminum 21) c) Sulfuric acid
22) a) Tube type and tubeless
115) If the lead-acid cell has a total of 17 cells, then what 23) c) 6
is the number of positive plates? 24) d) All of these
a) 9 25) a) Coil springs known as torsional springs
b) 8 26) b) Uses chemical action to provide electricity
c) 7 27) a) Edge
d) 6 28) a) Fluid clutch
29) c) Dog clutch
116) Field coils in a generator produce permanent 30) d) all of the above
magnet. 31) b) driven member
a) True 32) c) pressure plate
b) False 33) c) both (A) and (B)
34) b) Centrifugal clutch
117) A conventional suspension system uses which of 35) d) all of the above
these 36) a) high torque is required at the start of the vehicle
a) Leaf Springs 37) a) Camber angle
b) Coil Springs 38) a) Front wheel
c) Torsion barsl 39) c) both the front and rear wheels
d) None of the mentioned 40) c) universal joint
41) a) Lead peroxide (PbO2)
118) Load per axle for a vehicle can be reduced by which 42) a) It is desired to reduce the unsprung mass
of the following methods. 43) a) Grip the road and provide good traction
a) By increasing distance between the axles 44) a) Engine
b) By increasing the number of tyres 45) c) In wet conditions, the tread grooves expel water
c) By increasing the number of axles that is drawn between the tyre and road surface
d) By decreasing the length of an axle 46) b) Power transmission
47) c) Lead sulphate (PbSO4)
119) The transmission system transmits _________ from 48) b) Hydraulically
engine to wheels. 49) b) Front of the vehicle
a) Speed 50) a) Forward tilt of the kingpin
b) Power 51) c) Hub
c) Current 52) b) Equalize wear
d) Pressure 53) b) 1.28
54) b) 65
120) Which of the following is not a part of the 55) d) The vehicle to pull to the side of lesser inclination
transmission system 56) c) Jerky starts
a) Clutch 57) d) All of the above
b) Axles 58) a) Absorbs vibration and impact forces from the road
c) Wheels surface
d) Gear box 59) d) Seats
60) c) Steering gearbox
61) c) Bleeding
1) a) bending 62) b) A battery having lead-calcium plate grid
2) c) compression 63) c) it avoids the skidding of the vehicle
3) d) all of the above 64) c) Wire wheel
4) d) All of the above 65) d) Aluminum alloy wheel
5) c) contain differential 66) a) Clutch – by – wire
6) a) 155-80-R-13 67) a) Between transmission and engine
7) d) all of the above 68) d) Same torque can be transmitted for the same size
8) d) all of the above as the plate clutch
9) d) Weight of wheels and axles 69) a) True
10) a) Weight of vehicle minus unsprung weight 70) b) To vary the torque of the vehicle
11) d) all of the above 71) b) Sliding mesh gearbox
12) b) King pin inclination 72) c) Multi-plate clutch
13) d) mechanical efficiency 73) a) Spur gear
74) b) Low noise level and high strength 3. How many types of vehicles can
75) a) Universal joint be divided according to the way
76) d) Sends most of the power to the wheel having less in which the engine is located and
traction power transmitting directions to
77) a) Between transmission and rear axle the wheel?
78) c) To transfer torque at an angle a) 8
79) a) True b) 3
80) b) Toe out c) 4
81) a) Slip angle d) 7
82) d) Pneumatic trail
83) a) Understeer 4. Which engine drive provides
84) c) To reduce the operating friction high mountain traction and
85) d) Piston seal road grip?
86) b) Disc brake a) High speed drive
87) d) Stroboscopic light b) Medium speed drive
88) c) Sum of rolling and aerodynamic resistance c) Four wheel drive
89) b) 0.1 rad d) Rear engine rear wheel drive
90) b) The vehicle will decelerate
91) c) 200 N 5. Which engine drive provides
92) b) The running resistance will increase highest road grip?
93) c) The vehicle will run at a constant velocity a) Four wheel drive
94) a) True b) Rear engine rear
95) d) Piezoelectric pickup wheel drive
96) a) To keep excess air ratio within a range c) Front engine front
97) a) Position and speed measurement wheel drive
98) d) To measure pressure d) Front engine rear
99) c) To measure the mass flow rate wheel drive
100) c) It is not suitable for dynamic measurement
101) d) Large displacement 6)In transmission system, the clutch
102) c) Magnetic pickup is placed in.
103) d) Measurement of brake and indicated power a) Second Place
104) a) Eddy current dynamometer b) First Place
105) b) Speed and power c) Fourth Place
106) d) 12.6 V and the specific gravity of 1.29 at 32℃ d) Sixth Place
107) d) Two more than the negative plates
108) b) A battery having lead-calcium plate grid 7) How many types of multiplate
109) b) Good discharge characteristics over a wide range clutch?
of temperature a) 1 b) 2
110) d) Aluminum brushes c) 3 d) 4
111) d) Rotor
112) b) Higher 8). Where the clutch lining is fixed?
113) a) Voltage regulator a) Both Edges Of The Clutch Plate
114) d) Aluminum b) Fly Wheel
115) b) 8 c) Pressure Plate
116) b) False d) Both B And C
117) a) Leaf Springs
118) b) By increasing the number of tyres 9) In which speed the disengagement
119) b) Power is impossible in centrifugal clutch?
120) c) Wheels a) 600 rpm
b) 800 rpm
c) 900 rpm
1. Power produced from the engine d) 1000 rpm
transmits to the rotating wheels by
a) Gear system 10) The clutch works on the principle
b) Steering system of.
c) Braking system a) Lever Principle
d) Transmission system b) Pascal’s Law
c) Friction
2. Power is transmitted from engine d) Faraday’s law
to the rear axle?
a) Front engine front wheel drive 11) In this clutch, there is no clutch
b) Rear engine rear wheel drive pedal?
c) Four wheel drive a) Single Plate Clutch
d) Front engine rear wheel drive b) Centrifugal Clutch
c) Multiplate Clutch d) SAE 120
d) Diaphragm Clutch
21. The second component of the
12). Name the part which is static part transmission system is.
in fluid flywheel? a) Clutch
a) Driving Member b) Gear Box
b) Driven Member c) Propeller shaft
c) Flywheel d) Universal Joint
d) None of the Above
22. Reducing the rotational speed and
13. When the clutch cover increasing the torque is done by.
assembly rotates, all clutch parts a) Clutch
are. b) Gear Box
a) Rotates With Assembly c) Propeller shaft
b) Static Position d) Universal Joint
c) Rotates Separately
d) None Of The Above 23. The gear oil must be replaced for
every ______ kilometers.
14. Under the following, which type of a) 1000
clutch works smoothly. b) 2000
a) Cone Clutch c) 5000
b) Multiplate Clutch d) 10000
c) Single Plate Clutch
d) Fluid Fly Wheel 24. The gear Box which
transfers the power through the
15) Multi plate clutch is used in. dog clutch is.
a) Two Wheeled Vehicles a) A Sliding mesh Gear Box
b) Four Wheeled Vehicles b) Constant Mesh Gear Box
c) Six Wheeled Vehicles c) Synchromesh Gear Box
d) Three Wheeled Vehicles d) Epicyclic Gear Box

16. The basic principle involved in gear 25. The part in between the clutch and
box operation is. propeller shaft.
a) Friction a) Engine
b) Faraday’s Lay b) Gear box
c) Pascal’s Law c) Differential
d) Lever d) Real axle

17. The type of gear used in sliding 26.The front end of the propeller shaft
mesh gear box is. is connected with
a) Bevel Gear a) Engine
b) Spur Gear b) Clutch
c) Worm Gear c) Ger Box
d) Helical Gear d) Differential

18. Top Gear Ratio is. 27. The component which transmits
a) 2:1 the engine’s power from the gear
b) 1:2 box to the differential is called as
c) 1:1 a) Clutch
d) 1.5:1 b) Rear Axle
c) Clutch shaft
19. The method of increasing the d) Propeller shaft
vehicle speed than the engine speed
is called as. 28. The component which corrects the
a) Power change method length of the propeller shaft is
b) Overdrive a) Clutch
c) Gear Ratio b) Gear Box
d) Synchronizing c) Slip Joint
d) Universal Joint
20. The lubricating oil used in gear
box is. 29. The component which transfers the
a) SAE 50 rotational power from the gear box
b) SAE 60 at certain angle is
c) SAE 90 a) Clutch
b) Propeller shaft c) Tubed Tyre
c) Differential d) Liquid Filled Tyre
d) Rear Axle
38. The cause of wear in the center
30 In a vehicle the part which protects portion of tyre is due to the
the leaf spring is a) Low Air
a) Differential b) High Air
b) Shackle c) Wear On Bearings
c) Bolt d) None Of These
d) Gage
39. If there is an occurrence of
32. In the universal joint the part leakages in tubes then it is called
which connects the two yokes is as
a) Spider a) Vulcanizing
b) Driving yoke b) hot batch
c) Driven Yoke c) puncture
d) Engine shaft d) tread

32. When the vehicle is taking a turn 40. The basic construction of tyre is
on the road, the component which said to be
helps to rotate the inner wheel at a) Ply Rating
lower speed than the outer wheel is b) Tread
called as c) Bead
a) Differential d) Carcass
b) Universal Joint
c) Propeller shaft 41. Types of tyres is.
d) Rear Axle a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 5
33. The part which transmits the
rotational power from the propeller 42.It is connects the rim with hub.
shaft to the rear axle is called as a) Wheel
a) Propeller shaft b) Spokes
b) Engine c) Tyre
c) Differential d) Tube
d) Clutch
43. How many types of treads?
34. In the power transmission system a) 2
the part which transmits the power b) 3
at 900 angle is called as c) 5
a) Engine d) 4
b) Differential
c) Gear Box 44. Tyre ply rating means
d) Wheel a) wheel dimension
b) tyre dimension
35. The type of rear axle which bears c) tube dimension
the whole weight of the vehicle is d) tyre strengt
called as
a) Semi floating axle 45. It is placed at both edges of the tyre.
b) Full floating axle a) Bead
c) Quarter floating axle b) Car cass
d) Three quarter floating axle c) Ply rating
d) Tread
36. Which one of the following
indicate the solidity of the 46.What kind of energy is converted
tyre and how in the brake system.
a) Carcass a) Kinetic energy into static energy
b) bead b) Kinetic energy into electrical
c) tread energy
d) ply c) Thermal energy in to kinetic
energy
37. Specify the type of tyre which d) Frictional energy and heat energy
uses the tube
a) Solid Tyre 47. The frictional force between which
b) Tubeless Tyre two parts in the brake system is
used to stop the vehicle? a) Brake shoes
a) In between the brake drum and b) Brake drum
wheel cylinder c) Wheel cylinder
b) In between the brake drum and d) Master cylinder
brake shoes
c) In between the brake drum and 56. In leaf spring, one end of the spring
wheel hub is fixed and the other end of the
d) In between the brake drum and spring is attached to _______
brake disc a) U - bolt
b) I - bolt
48. In which part the friction plate is c) Shackle
connected in the disc type brake d) Axle shaft
system?
a) Piston 57. The up and down motion of the
b) Caliper vehicle is called as _______
c) Wheel hub a) Damping
d) Axle casing b) Bouncing
c) Pitching
49. The actual percentage of braking d) Rolling
efficiency of a new vehicle should be
a) 40% 58. Energy stored in the coil spring
b) 60% during
c) 80% a) Compression
d) 100% b) Straightening
c) Expansion
50. What type of brake is mostly used d) Bending
in cars?
a) Mechanical brake 59. Hydraulic damper is working based
b) Hydraulic brake on the principle of
c) Air brake a) Newton Law
d) Vacuum brake b) Principle of Lever
c) Principle of friction
51. Which part in the wheel cylinder d) Pascal Law
is used to stop the leakage of brake
fluid? 60. In which type of vehicle, helper
a) Piston springs are used?
b) Spring a) Light vehicles
c) Dust cover b) Heavy vehicles
d) Cup c) Two wheeler
d) Three wheele
52. Hand brake is driven by which
wheels? 61.During driving, the direction of
a) Rear wheels vehicle is controlled by
b) Front wheels a. Steering system
c) Left side wheels b. Brake system
d) Right side wheels c. Engine
d. Suspension system
53. Brake linings are generally made up
of which material? 62. In steering system, steering arm is
a) Asbestos connected to
b) Copper a. Steering wheel
c) Cast iron b. Drop arm
d) Aluminum alloy c. Steering column
d. Tie rod
54. What is the name of the procedure
for the removing of air from the 63.The box in which steering gears are
hydraulic brake system? mounted is called as
a) Cleaning a. Suspension
b) Removing b. Steering gearbox
c) Bleeding c. Differential
d) Replacing oil d. Steering geometry

55.Brake linings are affixed to which 64. How many types of steering
part? gearbox are available?
a. 3 b. 4 c. 4
c. 5 d. 8 d. 5

65. In steering system, the component 74. In heavy vehicles, _____________

used to pull steering arm on one type of chassis frame is used.
side and to push steering arm a. Conventional frame
another side, is called as b. Semi – integral frame
a. Steering shaft c. Integral frame
b. Steering gearbox d. None of the above
c. Tie rod
d. Stub axle 75. An automobile without body is
called as
66. In power steering system, the a. Frame
percentage of amplification by b. Clutch
means of hydraulic is c. Body
a. 20 % b. 60 % d. Chassis
c. 80 % d. 100 %
76. The distance between the two front
67. The permissible play in the steering wheels is called as
wheel is known as a. Wheel base
a. Steering alignment b. Wheel track
b. Steering ratio c. Ground clearance
c. Steering play d. Overall width
d. Turning radius
77. The vehicle part which prevent the
68. The allowable caster angle in passenger from sunlight, rain, dust is
degree is known as
a. 2° to 3° b. 7° to 8° a. Frame
c. 10° to 12° d. 5° to 6° b. Windshield wiper
c. Body
69. The angle between the central d. Transmission system
axis of kingpin and vertical axis,
when viewed from vehicle front, 78.The backbone of the automobile is
is known as ______
a. Camber angle a. Chassis frame
b. Caster angle b. Body
c. King pin inclination c. Engine
d. Toe-in d. Differential

70. Name the angle, in between the 79. The chassis in which the body and
king pin centre line and vertical the frame are acting as a single unit
line, when viewed at the front side is known as
of the vehicle. a. Conventional frame
a. Camber angle b. Semi – integral frame
b. Caster angle c. Integral frame
c. King pin inclination d. Chassis frame
d. Toe-in
80. The complete vehicle is obtained
71. Front axles are classified into when _________ is integrated with
_______ types the chassis frame.
a. 2 b. 4 a. Windshield wiper
c. 5 d. 6 b. Differential
c. Body
72.The metal used for manufacturing d. Electrical accessories
of chassis frame is ________
a. Alloy steel 81. Generally, vehicle bodies are
b. Rubber classified into _________ types.
c. Asbestos a. 2 b. 3
d. Wood powder c. 4 d. 5

73. Chassis frames are classified into 82. ________ is called as the heart of
__________ types an automotive electrical system.
a. 2 a. Battery
b. 3 b. Dynamo
c. Spark plug a. Step up transformer
d. Contact breaker points b. Battery
c. Spark plug
83. A positive terminal and a negative d. Rotor
terminal forms a __________
a. Rotor 92The Transmission system which has
b. Cell good road grip is,
c. Battery a. Front engine rear wheel drive
d. Coil b. Rear engine rear wheel drive
c. Front engine front wheel drive
84. The number of types of an d. Front engine four wheel drive
ignition coil __________
a. 2 93. Types of Multiplate clutch
b. 3 a. 3 b. 4
c. 4 c. 2 d. 5
d. 5
94. In which type of clutch, there is no
85. The gap between the central need of clutch pedal?
electrode and ground electrode of a. Single plate clutch
a spark plug is b. Multiplate clutch
a. 5 mm to 10 mm c. Diaphragm clutch
b. 10 mm to 20 mm d. Centrifugal clutch
c. 30mm to 50 mm
d. 0.5mm to 0.7mm 95. Which type of lubricating oil is
used in gear box?
86. In the starting system, the starter a. S.A.E 30
motor is engaged with flywheel b. S.A.E 40
through __________ c. S.A.E 90
a. Valve d. S.A.E 120
b. Armature
c. Pinion 96. Top Gear ratio is
d. Coil a. 1:2
b. 2:1
87. Which of the following is used to c. 1:1
convert mechanical energy into d. 3:1
electrical energy?
a. Motor 97. Which device is used to adjust the
b. Generator angle Variation and transmit the
c. Regulator power?
d. Camshaft a. Propeller shaft
b. Sliding joint
88. The illumination is related to c. Differential
__________ d. Universal Joint
a. Light
b. Sound 98. Tyre strength is indicated by
c. Motion a. Bead
d. Temperature b. Tread
c. Ply rating
89. The number of types of the ignition d. side wall
system is __________
a. 2 99. Brake shoes are made up of
b. 3 a. Asbestos
c. 4 b. Aluminium alloy
d. 5 c. Steel Alloy
d. Copper
90. The ratio of acid and water in an
electrolyte solution is __________ 100. Which type of brake is
a. 1:3 mostly used in cars?
b. 3:1 a. Vaccum brake
c. 4:1 b. Hydraulic brake
d. 1:4 c. Mechanical Brake
d. Air Brake
91. The ignition coil is also called as
__________ 101. The up and down movement of the
vehicle is called 111. The central portion of the front axle is made
a. Rolling of________________.
b. Skidding (a) I section (b) T section
c. Bouncing (c) Q section (d) U section
d. Pitching
112. The end of the front axle is mounted with
102. Caster angle is ____________.
a 1o to 2o b. 2o to 4o (a) stub axles (b) king pin
c. 3o to 4o d. 2o to 3o (c) piston ring (d) axle shaft

103. Back bone of the vehicle is 113. What kind of load does the axle take due to the load
a. Chassis frame b. Body of
c. Engine d. Gear box the vehicle?
(a) Bending load (b) Frictional load
104. The number of turns in the primary (c) Torsional load (d) None of these
winding of the ignition coil is
a. 100 to 150 114.The tilting of the front wheels away from the vertical
b. 150 to 300 is
c. above 400 called _____________.
d. 600 to 700 (a) camber
(b) caster
105. How does the dynamo (or) (c) toe-in
Generator get the drive? (d) toe- out
a. connecting rod
b. Piston 115. Which of the following types of mechanism is used
c. Engine Crank shaft in a
d. Engine Cam shaft steering system?
(a) Rack and pinion steering
106. The part used to connect front axle (b) Rotary motion is turning
and stub axle is (c) Reciprocating motion
a. Piston pin (d) Power steering system
b. King pin
c. Cotter pin 116. Leaf spring absorbs shocks by __________________.
d. Circlip (a) tension
(b) compression
107. Which of these systems is used in motor vehicles to (c) twisting
supply the output of the internal combustion engine to (d) bending
drive wheels?
(a) Transmission system 117. Compressed air is used for ________________________.
(b) Power system (a) air suspension system
(c) Torque system (b) hydraulic suspension
(d) None of the above (c) mechanical suspension
(d) None of the above
108. Which type of transmission system is used for a
disengagement and engagement between the engine and 118.The most important component of a vehicle is
the remainder of transmission system? __________.
(a) Clutch (a) wheel
(b) Differential (b) rim
(c) Propeller shaft (c) disk
(d) None of the above (d) tyre

109. In a four-wheel drive there is _________________. 119. The tyre is mounted on the ____________.
(a) one live axle (a) vehicle
(b) no live axle (b) disc
(c) two live axle (c) wheel rim
(d) None of the above (d) None of the above

110. ___________________ produces different gear ratios in 120. The main component of the generating or charging
automobiles. system
(a) Transmission system is (are) ______________.
(b) Differential (a) generator/alternator
(c) Steering (b) ammeter
(d) Gear box (c) the battery
(d) All of the above
121.The starting motor is driven by means of the current 44. d) Tyre strength
taken 45. a) Bead
from the________________. 46. c) Thermal energy into kinetic energy
(a) battery 47. b) In between the brake drum and brake shoes
(b) stabiliser 48. a) Piston
(c) ignition coil 49. c) 80%
(d) None of the above 50. b) Hydraulic brake
51. d) Cup
122. The function of the ignition system is 52. a) Rear wheels
____________________. 53. a) Asbestos
(a) to produce a spark in the engine combustion chamber 54. c) Bleeding
(b) to generate, regulate and supply the electrical energy 55. a) Brake shoes
(c) to produce a current for charging 56. c) Shackle
(d) None of the above 57. c) Bouncing
123.Air conditioner losses energy from the 58. c) Expansion
_______________. 59. d) Pascal Law
(a) battery system 60. b) Heavy vehicles
(b) condenser 61. a) Steering system
(c) engine 62. b) Drop arm
(d) None of the above 63. b) Steering gearbox
64. b) 4
1. d) Transmission system 65. c) Tie rod
2. d) Front engine rear wheel drive 66. d) 100%
3. c) 4 67. c) Steering play
4. c) Four wheel drive 68. b) 7° to 8°
5. a) Four wheel drive 69. c) King pin inclination
6. b) First Place 70. b) Caster angle
7. c) 3 71. b) 4
8. d) Both B and C (Fly Wheel and Pressure Plate) 72. a) Alloy steel
9. c) 900 rpm 73. c) 4
10. c) Friction 74. c) Integral frame
11. b) Centrifugal Clutch 75. d) Chassis
12. c) Flywheel 76. a) Wheel base
13. a) Rotates With Assembly 77. c) Body
14. b) Multiplate Clutch 78. a) Chassis frame
15. b) Four Wheeled Vehicles 79. c) Integral frame
16. d) Lever 80. c) Body
17. b) Spur Gear 81. c) 4
18. c) 1:1 82. a) Battery
19. b) Overdrive 83. c) Battery
20. c) SAE 90 84. b) 3
21. b) Gear Box 85. d) 0.5mm to 0.7mm
22. b) Gear Box 86. c) Pinion
23. c) 5000 kilometers 87. b) Generator
24. a) A Sliding mesh Gear Box 88. a) Light
25. b) Gear box 89. c) 4
26. a) Engine 90. b) 3:1
27. d) Propeller shaft 91. a) Step up transformer
28. c) Slip Joint 92. c) Front engine front wheel drive
29. b) Propeller shaft 93. a) 3
30. a) Differential 94. d) Centrifugal clutch
31. c) Bolt 95. c) SAE 90
32. a) Spider 96. c) 1:1
33. a) Differential 97. d) Universal Joint
34. b) Differential 98. c) Ply rating
35. b) Full floating axle 99. a) Asbestos
36. a) Carcass 100. b) Hydraulic brake
37. c) Tubed Tyre 101. c) Bouncing
38. a) Low Air 102. a) 1o to 2o
39. c) Puncture 103. a) Chassis frame
40. d) Carcass 104. a) 100 to 150
41. c) 4 105. c) Engine Crank shaft
42. a) Wheel 106. b) King pin
43. d) 4 107. a) Transmission system
108. a) Clutch
109. b) Differential
110. d) Gear box
111. b) T section
112. a) stub axles
113. a) Bending load
114. a) camber
115. a) Rack and pinion steering
116. d) bending
117. a) air suspension system
118. d) tyre
119. c) wheel rim
120. a) generator/alternator
121. c) ignition coil
122. b) to generate, regulate and supply the electrical
energy
123. c) engine