MODULE ONE

BASIC CONCEPTS
Q1. The processor uses this workspace as a scratch pad during processing.(Memory)
Q2. A is a list of instructions, telling the computer what to do(Program)
Q3. Collection of instruction is called a (program)
Q4. VLSI stands for (Very large scale Integration)
Q5. In a mainframe computer the Host processor manages (Other processors and peripheral devices)
Q6. printers use light to produce the dots needed to form pages of characters(non-impact desktop
printers)
Q7. The data width of a Pentium 4 computer is (32 bits)
Q8. Single-user computers fall into categories(2)
Q9. Hardware components in a computer are , , , (CPU, memory, input device, output device)
Q10. The unit which executes addition, subtraction, multiplication and division operations is (ALU)
Q11. Workstations are commonly used for (CAD)
Q12. software helps to do a specific task for the user(application software)
Q13. The instructions to be executed by the processor are loaded from memory into the(Instruction
register)
Q14. Which computers are also known as "Super micro"?(Workstations)
Q15. converts a high level language into machine language(compiler)
Q16. The results of a process are stored into (Accumulator)
Q17. The capability of microcomputers that enables switching between multiple tasks is known as
(Multitasking)
Q18. is/are a popular front end tool(visual basic/power builder/SQL * plus)
Q19. The memory that stores data as a series of memory cells that can be accessed sequentially is
(SAM)
Q20. Special-purpose palmtops that keep phone directories and calendars and also provide calculator
capabilities are known as (Personal Digital Assistants)
Q21. translates assembly language program into machine language instructions(assembler)
Q22. The technology used to accelerate the processing of a computer is (Cache memory)
Q23. Object-Oriented Programming is a concept of generation of computers.(Fourth)
Q24. computers are used in large organizations for large scale jobs which have large storage
capacities(mainframes)
Q25. The memory used in a computer's BIOS chip is (Flash memory)
Q26. The device that is roughly the size of a postage stamp and is present at the core of the computer is
(CPU)
Q27. is responsible for all calculations and logical operations that have to be performed on the
data(arithmetic and logic unit)
Q28. The process of swapping information between the RAM and hard disk can cause(Thrashing)
Q29. The of the CPU sends command signals to the other components of the system(CU)
Q30. printer use laser light(non impact printer)
Q31. The standard system bus was replaced by frontside and backside bus called .(Dual independent
bus)
Q32. Arthmetic Calculations and Data manipulations are performed by (ALU)
Q33. software enhances the user to enter ,store, manipulate and print any text(word processing)
Q34. 1024 Megabyte is equivalent to:(1 GB)
Q35. Which of the following is not a key element of the computing process?(Information)
Q36. Combination of alphabetic and numeric data is called data(alpha numeric)
MODULE ONE

Q37. The DSP,DAC,ADC,and ROM are parts of the (Sound card)

Q38. Logical operations of the ALU include comparison of(Numbers/Letters/Special Characters)
Q39. is the temporary storage place for deleted files(recycle bin)
Q40. The bus whose widths are 32 or 64 bits is called (PCI)
Q41. Memory associated with CPU is called(Primary Storage/Primary Memory/Main Storage)
Q42. Processed data is called (information)
Q43. The maximum resolution of a standard SVGA adapter is (1280*1024)
Q44. The loaded programs and software get stored in memory(RAM)
Q45. language consists of strings of binary numbers(machine language)
Q46. . synthesis method uses recordings of actual instruments.(Wavetable)
Q47. The opposite of RAM is (SAM)
Q48. capability supports concurrent users doing different
tasks(multiprocessing/multithreading/multiplexing none of the above)
Q49. The instrument that can produce continuous lines is (Plotter)
Q50. SAM stands for (Serial Access Memory)
Q51. The model through which the relationship is diplayed between data and information is called
(system model)
Q52. PPM , CPS are units used to measure the printer's (Speed)
Q53. memory comes with instructions permanently stored inside.(ROM)
Q54. looks like a ordinary credit card but incorporate a microprocessor and memory chip (smart card)
Q55. The PCL and postscript are defacto standards for (Page description languages)
Q56. The main purpose of which memory is to accelerate the working of the computer while keeping its
price low(Cache memory)
Q57. A laser printer has RAM for downloading fonts called the .(Soft fonts)
Q58. Flash memory is a solid state memory(TRUE)
Q59. The characteristic which refers to how sharply a pixel appears on the monitor is called
(Convergence)
Q60. Refreh Rate of a monitor is measured in,(Hertz)
Q61. The faster the refresh rate, the lesser the monitor (Flickers)
Q62. A fast line printer can print as many as lines per minute.(3000)
Q63. The software used for layout of newsletters and magazines along with text and images is called
(Desktop publishing)
Q64. The number system used in computers is (Binary)
Q65. Computers can be classified based on , and (size, performance, cost)
Q66. The number of bits used to represent a pixel in a monitor decides the.(Colors and shades of gray
that can be displayed)
Q67. is a network of satellites that helps users determines a location on Earth.(GPS)
Q68. The input device that utilizes a light-sensitive detector to select objects on a display screen is
called (Light pen)
Q69. mouse is exclusively used for graphics program(T17)
Q70. The most commonly used scanner technology is .(Charge-coupled device)
Q71. is a popular pointing device for portable computers(Track ball)
Q72. Identify the type of mice that uses optical sensors to detect motion of the ball.(Optomechanical)
Q73. For entering drawings and sketches into the computer device is used(Digitising Tablet)
Q74. Identify the input device that consists the puck and the stylus.(Tablet)
Q75. The drum scanners rely on technology(PMT)
Q76. Identify the disk which has an access time of 30ms.(Winchester disk)
Q77. Scanners used to scan large sheets of loose papers are (Sheet Fed)
MODULE ONE

Q78. A set of tracks across a set of platters in a hard disk is called a (Cylinder)
Q79. Which device is used in various competitive examinations?(OMR)
Q80. The bus used to connect a CD-ROM to your computer is (SCSI)
Q81. Supermarkets use a bar code system called the (UPC)
Q82. The digital audio tape with the capacity of 24GB of data uses the technology called (Helical scan)
Q83. Different shades of gray are displayed in a monitor(Gray scale)
Q84. The floppy disks that support 400k-1.2 MB belong to (Macintosh)
Q85. MDA stands for (Monochrome Display Adapter)
Q86. The model used to describe the relationship between data and information is called(System
model)
Q87. is not a General Purpose Software(Tally)
Q88. is the Worlds largest computer network .(Internet)
Q89. The backward compatible disk that has high density-120MB is called .(SuperDisk)
Q90. Monitors that are 16 0r more inches diagonally are often called (Full Page monitors)
Q91. The maximum capacity of an optical disk is (6 GB)
Q92. Bandwidth is measured in (bytes per sec)
Q93. Which of the auxiliary storage devices uses the constant angular velocity access technology?(CD-
ROM)
Q94. The printers that are used in most calculators and fax machines are printers(Thermal)
Q95. The is an auxiliary sequential access non-volatile storage device.(Magnetic tape)
Q96. Which of the given device is used in engineering applications where precision is
mandatory?(Plotter)
Q97. The portable device that optimizes the features of the floppy and the CD-ROM is .(MO drives)
Q98. Based on data access auxiliary devices are (sequential/random)
Q99. The important central module of an operating system is the (Kernel module)
Q100. USB stands for (Universal Serial Bus)
Q101. Identify the function of the operating system that manages the tasks waiting to be processed.(Job
management)
Q102. is one billion floating-point arithmetic operations per second.(Gigaflop)
Q103. This function of the OS manages allocation of a minimum main memory to tasks.(Virtual memory
storage)
Q104. The Mainframe computers exhibit.(Multiprogramming)
Q105. Identify the multitasking type that slices CPU time to each program.(Preemptive)
Q106. ULSI stands for,(Ultra Large Scale Integration)
Q107. The OS which allows different parts of a single program to run concurrently is (Multithreading)
Q108. is used for easy and fast information storage in such devices as digital cameras and home video
game consoles.(Flash Memory)
Q109. A super computer uses a bus width of (64 bits)
Q110. For giving a public presentation, which software would be used?(MS PowerPoint)
Q111. are used in large organizations for large scale jobs(mainframes)
Q112. The OS that monitors external activities with timing constraints is .(Real-time)
Q113. scanners are more secure biometric authentication schemes when compared to the other
devices.(Iris)
Q114. The 32bit operating system for desktop version that replaces Win 9x is (Win 2000 professional)
Q115. are examples of sequential-access media.(Magnetic tapes)
Q116. The high-level logical disk structure which defines the way the entire disk is organised is (File
allocation table)
Q117. Tapes are sometimes called.(streamers/streaming tapes)
MODULE ONE

Q118. A collection of sectors on a hard disk is a(Cluster)

Q119. MBPS stands for .(Million Bytes Per Second)
Q120. The FAT system that provides long filename support and was written using protected-mode code
.(VFAT)
Q121. come with data already encoded onto them.(CD-ROMS)
Q122. Identify the file system that provides networking,security,compression, large file support .(NTFS)
Q123. A drive consists of a NAND-type fl ash memory data storage device integrated with a USB
(Universal Serial Bus) interface.(Flash drive)
Q124. The logical directory structure has a base of the tree called the (Root directory)
Q125. The process used to optimize the disk space by arranging files contiguously is (Defragmentation)
Q126. Choose the level of RAID that offers disk mirroring for fault tolerance.(Level 1)
Q127. Identify the archive formats found on Unix-based Internet sites.(Tar, gz, taz)
Q128. When a processor executes one billion floating-point arithmetic operations per second, is called
(Gigaflops)
Q129. The systems model describes the relationship between(Data and Information)
Q130. devices are responsible for feeding data into the computer(input)
Q131. Identify the window screen part that indicates the name of the window, application or
document.(Title bar)
Q132. The button on the title bar of a window that displays the menu to control the size of the window is
(Control box)
Q133. The mouse operation that is used to move windows and icons to different locations is (Dragging)
Q134. The start button,tray and shortcuts are important features of the.(Task bar)
Q135. The start menu option that keeps track of your important websites is (Favorites)
Q136. If you want the recycle bin capacity to be distributed across partitions, you must use the option
(Configure drives independently)
Q137. The feature to retrieve deleted files from the recycle bin is (Restore)
Q138. The feature which enables to synchronize files between a floppy and disk is (My Briefcase)
Q139. A file with the pdf extension can be viewed with the application (Adobe Acrobat Reader)
Q140. The remote administration access to view shared resources on the network is (Net Watcher)
Q141. The processor responsible for communication to and from all the remote terminals connected is
termed as (Front-end processor)
Q142. Which characteristic of information indicates that information is condensed into a usable
length(Concise)
Q143. is the capability of the o/s to run numerous applications simultaneously(multitasking)
Q144. The utility used to access the directory structure, create files and folders etc is .(Windows
Explorer)
Q145. The font, color, background settings are saved in the (Desktop themes)
Q146. The Notepad utility saves files in the format.(ASCII)
Q147. Identify the windows feature that allows more than one person to use a single PC with his own
desktop.(Log off)
Q148. You can quickly access the recently worked on files from this start menu option.(Documents)
Q149. The processors used for speed-critical graphics applications are (RISC)
Q150. The aerospace, automotive,chemical,electronics and petroleum industries use
computers(Supercomputers)
Q151. involves conversion of raw data into some meaningful information(process)
Q152. The plastic cards with embedded microprocessor and memory are called (Smart card)
Q153. Dividing a complex task among several processing units is known as(Multiprocessing)
Q154. device is responsible for obtaining the processed data from the computer(output)
MODULE ONE

MICROSOFT EXCEL
Q155. Lotus Symphony & Resolver One are examples of.(Spreadsheet Package)
Q156. Which of the following is not a rule for Naming ranges?(Names can contain exclamation)
Q157. is a Union Operator used in MS Excel.(,)
Q158. Which of the following operators has the highest precedence in MS Excel 2010?(:)
Q159. category of functions in Excel are used to calculate absolute values, cosines, logarithms,
etc.(Maths and Trignometrical)
Q160. is the interest rate received for an investment consisting of payments (negative values) and
income (positive values) that occur at regular periods.(IRR)
Q161. Which of the following functions are used to calculate the loan instalments?(PMT)
Q162. In the SLN function, the argument LIFE corresponds to?(Useful life of the asset)
Q163. FACT(5) = (120)
Q164. MOD(-6,-4) returns(-2)
Q165. function returns an evenly distributed random real number greater than or equal to 0 and less
than 1.(RAND( ))
Q166. By default, a workbook opens with worksheets.(3)
Q167. ROUND(32.5, -1) returns?(30)
Q168. function adds the cells specifi ed by a given condition or criteria.(SUMIF( ))
Q169. Which function returns the largest value in a list of arguments, including numbers, text and logical
values?(MAXA( ))
Q170. When a formula contains text that Excel doesn’t recognize error is dispalyed.(#NAME?)
Q171. The default alignment of dates in MS Excel is (Right)
Q172. option allows the users to rotate text.(Orientation)
Q173. Shortcut key used to copy formats in Excel is,(CTRL+C->CTRL+V->R)
Q174. A normal data range can be converted into a Table by using shortcut.(CTRL+T)
Q175. Data from two worksheet locations can be easily compared using the option.(Splitting Panes)
Q176. is a key that identifies patterns, colors or symbols associated with the markers of a chart data
series.(Legend)
Q177. One can easily access the taskcentered functions such as printing and sharing from.(Backstage
View)
Q178. Which chart is suitable for a data set that has only one series of information?(Pie)
Q179. are used to give the users a quick look at trends or patterns that may not be easily spotted in the
data itself.(Sparklines)
Q180. The advantage of Sparklines is,(Sparklines are printed when we print a worksheet that conatins
them)
Q181. Shortcut key for Macros are assigned in combination with key.(CTRL)
Q182. We can use function to create a hyperlink that opens a document that is stored on a server,
intranet or internet.(Hyperlink( ))
Q183. Non-excel files can be easily opened in Excel using,(Text-to-Cols wizard)
Q184. The tab in the format cells dialog box gives absolute control over numeric formatting.(Number)
Q185. There are fill colors and patterns.(16 million)
Q186. Default alignment of values and dates in MS Excel 2010 is (Right)
Q187. Which kind of conditional formatting provides a visual representation of how the data in each cell
compares to the other cells of the worksheet?(Data Bars/Color Scales/Icon Sets)
Q188. A$1 is an example of reference.(Absolute Row-wise)
Q189. One can view different areas of the worksheet simultaneously by using the option.(Split Panes)
MODULE ONE

Q190. is a key in the chart that identifies patterns, colors or symbols associated with the markers of a
chart data series.(Legend)
Q191. There are types of chart types in MS Excel 2010.(73)
Q192. Which of the following is not true about sparklines?(Sparklines cannot be printed when we print
the worksheet containing them)
Q193. are used to demonstrate the “what”, not the “why” of the data.(Sparklines)
Q194. We have to use cell reference if we want the macro recorded to run in the same cell
only.(Absolute)
Q195. function can be used to open a document that is stored on a network server, intranet or
Internet.(Hyperlink())
Q196. Which of the following non-excel files can be opened in Excel?(Text File/Lotus 123/Quattro Pro)
Q197. While sorting data in MS Excel 2010, the best field to first sort by is?(Field with most duplicate
entries)
Q198. in MS Excel 2010 has built-in filtering features.(Excel Table)
Q199. are used to exchange data within Excel and between Excel and other Windows
applications.(OLE/DDE)
Q200. feature in MS Excel 2010 hides the rows and columns containing data that do not meet the criteria
we define. ne.(Filter)
Q201. We can apply dynamic filters in MS Excel 2010 for data such as.(Dates)
Q202. Data Validation can be used to,(Restrict data to predefined items in a list/Limit the number of text
characters/Restrict dates outside a certain time frame)
Q203. We can limit the choices in an Excel data validation list, by using named ranges and the function
to create dependent validation lists.(Indirect( ))
Q204. In MS Excel 2010, when a cell is locked, we can't (Edit it)
Q205. In MS Excel 2010, allow us to turn our data inside out, upside down, sideways and backwards,
quickly summarize and analyze large amounts of data in lists and tables.(Pivot Tables)
Q206. Source data for creating a Pivot Table in MS Excel 2010 can be,(An Excel worksheet database/list
or any range that has labeled columns./A collection of ranges to be consolidated/A database file
created in an external application)
Q207. Pivot Tables can be used for,(Listing unique values in any column of a table./Creating a pivot
report with sub-totals and custom formats/Transposing data)
Q208. Which of the following is not a pre-requisite for creating a Pivot Table in MS Excel 2010?(The
source data can have blank rows)
Q209. feature of Pivot Tables can be used to summarise dates by Quarters or Months(Group)
Q210. is the shortcut key to see a shortcut menu.(SHIFT+F10)
Q211. Inorder to filter the contents of the pivot table on more than one field, we can use.(Slicer)
Q212. Apart from the sum function, which other function can be used in summarisation of data in a Pivot
Table?(Product/Varp/Average)
Q213. In text files, the delimiter in text can be,(Tab/Space/Comma)
Q214. A text file in which a comma separates each column in the data is known as a file(Comma
Separated Value)
Q215. are used in text files to indicate the beginning and end of text strings.(Text Qualifiers)
Q216. The extension of a Fixed-width text file is .(.prn)
Q217. Shortcut key used to convert a data range into a table in MS Excel 2010 is,(CTRL+L/CTRL+T)
Q218. In Pivot Tables, work like a filter without going to drop-down.(Slicer)
Q219. In MS Excel 2010, we use to show the current running total which is divided by grand total.(%
Running Total)
MODULE ONE

Q220. The biggest advantage of converting a data source into a table for a Pivot Table is,(Easy addition of
rows and columns)
Q221. To fill the same number (or text value) over and over, instead of entering the data several times,
the user can enter the data once and select the to enter data in the remaining cells.(Fill Handle)
Q222. Which of the following is not an advantage of Dashboards in MS Excel 2010?(Ineffective in
highlighting inefficiencies)
Q223. dashboard is used by top-level management in decision making.(Strategic)
Q224. A dashboard can be created in MS Excel 2010 by using,(Excel Table/Conditional
Formatting/Sparklines)
Q225. The possibility of error in a cell in MS Excel 2010 is indicated by a in the left corner of the
cell(Green triangle)
Q226. A red triangle in the top right corner of a cell indicates,(User comment has been added to the cell)
Q227. We can use function to show the number of the week in a month.(weeknum( ))
Q228. If the value in A1 is "ITT" and in B1 is "ICAI ", which function in Excel will return " ITT @ ICAI " in
cell C1?(A1 & "@" & B1)
Q229. To frequently print a specific range of cells on a worksheet , the option used is(Pagelayout -> Page
Setup -> Print Area)
Q230. Non-excel files can be opened in MS Excel using the(Text Import wizard)
Q231. Which of the following is not an option under Freeze Panes(Freeze Last Row)
Q232. are the basic cell references that adjust and change when copied or when using AutoFill.(Relative)
Q233. MROUND(-10,-3) returns(-9)
Q234. Which of the following is correct?(AVERAGE(4,5,6,7)/AVERAGE(A1,B1,C1)/AVERAGE(A1:A6,B1:B6))
Q235. is not a kind of Dashboard.(Interrogative)
Q236. are the most widely used data visualization components for dashboards(Excel charts)
Q237. When a formula is copied that uses a name, the effect is the same as using a cell
reference.(Absolute)

OPERATING SYSTEM
Q238. is an interface between hardware and user.(OS)
Q239. Executing a job on a computer system often requires several of its resources such as .(CPU
time/Memory space/File storage space)
Q240. Operating system acts as the manager of the various resources of a computer system and
allocates them to specific programs and users to execute their jobs successfully.
Q241. Operating system manages many kinds of activities ranging from user programs to system
programs like .(Printer spooler/Name servers/File server)
Q242. A process includes the complete (Execution context)
Q243. Process is not a program.(TRUE)
Q244. A process is only an of a program in execution.(Instant)
Q245. Which of them is not process management activities of an operating system?(Mechanism not for
process communication)
Q246. is a large array of words or bytes.(Primary-Memory/Main-Memory)
Q247. The major activities of an operating system with reference to memory-management are (To
keep track of 'which part of memory are currently being used and by whom/?To decide 'which
process is loaded into memory when memory space becomes available/To allocate and de-
allocate memory space, as needed.)
Q248. is a collection of related information defined by file creator.(File)
MODULE ONE

Q249. Operating system acts as an intermediary between and .(Application programs,Computer

hardware)
Q250. Examples of storage media are .(Magnetic tape/Magnetic disk/Optical disk)
Q251. A file system normally organized into directories to ease their use.(TRUE)
Q252. Activities of an operating system with reference to file management includes.(Creation and
deletion of fi les/Mapping of fi les onto secondary storage)
Q253. A computer system normally consists of several I/O devices such as.(Terminal/Disk/Tape)
Q254. Device Management keeps track of.(I/O requests from processes/Issues commands to the I/O
devices/ensures correct data transmission to/from an I/O device)
Q255. Computer systems often store large amounts of information, some of which is highly sensitive and
valuable to their users.(TRUE)
Q256. Which module ensure that user can trust the system and rely on it only if the various resources
and information of a computer system are protected against destruction and unauthorized
access?(Security)
Q257. The user gives commands with are executed by (OS)
Q258. The main function of a command interpreter is to the next user specified
command.(Get/Execute)
Q259. According to Throughput, if n processes are completed in an interval of t seconds, the throughput
is taken as processes per second during that interval.(n/t)
Q260. Operating systems are found on almost any device that contains a computer.(TRUE)
Q261. is normally measured in processes/hour.(Throughput)
Q262. Turnaround time is the interval from the time of submission of a to the system for processing to
the time of completion of the .(Job,Job)
Q263. In any computer system, it is desirable to maximize throughput and to minimize turnaround time
and response time.(TRUE)
Q264. The time of submission of a job to the system for processing to the time the first response for the
job is produced by the system is called.(?Response time)
Q265. The process is currently able to run, but for some reason the OS has not placed the process on the
ready queue is known as.(Suspended)
Q266. Which of them is not a execution of Process Management in Early Systems?(It was not punched on
cards or paper tape along with its data.)
Q267. What do you mean by CPU-bound jobs?(Jobs mostly perform numerical calculations, with little I/O
operations.)
Q268. Which programs used for scientific and engineering computations usually fall in this category of
jobs?(CPU-bound jobs)
Q269. Multiprogramming Systems required.(Large memory/Memory protection/Job status preservation)
Q270. is used for each loaded process.(PCB)
Q271. Examples of popular modern operating systems for personal computers are.(Microsoft
Windows/Mac OS/Linux)
Q272. A typical Process Control Block includes .(Process identifi er/Program counter/I/O status
information)
Q273. should contain some CPU-bound and some I/O-bound jobs so that at least one job is always ready
to utilize the CPU.(Main memory)
Q274. What is CPU scheduler?(The part of the OS must decide which of the ready jobs should be
allocated the CPU for execution.)
Q275. The act of reassigning a CPU from one task to another one is called a.(Context switch)
Q276. All threads of a process also share the same set of operating system resources, such as .(Open
files/Signals/Accounting information)
MODULE ONE

Q277. Due to the sharing of address space, there is no protection between the threads of a
process.(TRUE)
Q278. Different processes may belong to different .(Users)
Q279. Thread can be in anyone of several states that name's includes.(Running/Terminated)
Q280. Traditional processes are referred to as.(Heavyweight processes)
Q281. Multiprocessing is the use of two or more Central Processing Units (CPUs) within a single
.(Computer system)
Q282. Objectives of an operating system are(Making a computer system user-friendly/Managing the
resources of a computer system)
Q283. sometimes refers to the execution of multiple concurrent software processes in a system as
opposed to a single process at any one instant.(Multiprocessing)
Q284. In a system, all CPUs may be equal, or some may be reserved for special
purposes.(Multiprocessing)
Q285. SMP stands for.(Symmetric Multiprocessing)
Q286. NUMA means.(Non-Uniform Memory Access)
Q287. The IBM Regatta is an example of a high end SMP system.(p690)
Q288. is the simultaneous execution of two or more processes by a computer system having more than
one CPU.(Multiprocessing)
Q289. TIME-SHARING concept was introduced in the.(1960)
Q290. is a mechanism to provide simultaneous interactive use of a computer system by many users in
such a way that each user is given the impression that he/she has his/her own computer.(Time-
sharing)
Q291. Advantages of Time-sharing Systems includes.(Reduces CPU idle time/Provides advantages of
quick response time/Offers good computing facility to small users)
Q292. Multiple programmers can simultaneously proceed step-by-step portions of their programs or
trying out various approaches to a problem solution.(Writing/Testing/Debugging)
Q293. A computer system consists of one or more processors, main memory and many types of I/O
devices such as .(Disks/Tapes/Terminals)
Q294. A is a collection of related information.(File)
Q295. Examples of storage media are.(Magnetic tape/Magnetic disk/Optical disk)
Q296. Optical disk has its own properties like.(Speed/Data transfer rate)
Q297. A computer system normally consists of several I/O devices such as.(Terminal/Printer/Disk)
Q298. Device Management keeps track of.(I/O requests from processes/Issues commands to the I/O
devices/Ensures correct data transmission to/from an I/O)
Q299. File Access methods includes.(Sequential Access/Random Access)
Q300. The logical architecture of a computer system includes.(Users/Operating System/Computer
Hardware)
Q301. The operating system layers provide various facilities and services that make the use of the
hardware resources.(Convenient/Efficient/Safe)
Q302. acts as an intermediary between the hardware and its users,(OS)

POWERPOINT
Q303. Which of the following Tab is not avalibale in Ms-PowerPoint 2010?(Page Layout)
Q304. Which of the following will not advance the slides in a slide show view?(The esc key)
Q305. is a template used to create consistent layouts throughout the MS PowerPoint 2010
presentation.(Slide Master)
Q306. In MS-PowerPoint 2010, Default Page Orientation is (Landscape)
MODULE ONE

Q307. Want your logo in the same position on every slide, automatically, Insert it on the in
PowerPoint.(Slide master)
Q308. Objects on the slide that hold text are called .(Placeholders)
Q309. Which of the following group is not avalibale on Drawing tools Format Tab?(Sort)
Q310. is use to apply formatting from text, shapes and pictures to another selection in Ms-
PowerPoint.(Format Painter)
Q311. By the help of which group of Insert tab, we are able to add sharts, shapes and lines in Ms-
PowerPoint.(Illustrations)
Q312. How many tabs we have in Ms-PowerPoint 2010?(9)
Q313. Which of the following group is not avalibale in Home tab of Ms-PowerPoint?(Alignment)
Q314. Which tab is not available on left panel when you open a presentation?(Notes)
Q315. How many groups we have in Insert tab of Ms-PowerPoint?(7)
Q316. is a technology that allows linking to documents and other objects in PowerPoint.(Object Linking)
Q317. In PowerPoint, you can use to launch any other Presentation, Application or Website from your
presentation.(Action button)
Q318. You can modify the background of a PowerPoint presentation by using Tab.(Design)
Q319. The special effects used to introduce slides in a presentation are called in
PowerPoint.(Transitions)
Q320. What is a motion path in PowerPoint?(A method of moving items on a slide)
Q321. Which of the following should you use if you want all the slide in the presentation to have the
same “look”?(A presentation design template)
Q322. In order to edit a chart, you can in PowerPoint.(Double click the chart object)
Q323. Which by default theme was appliyed on the slides in Ms-PowerPoint?(Office Theme)
Q324. Slide Orientation option available in which group of Design tab in PowerPoint?(Page Setup)
Q325. Which of the following section does not exist in a slide layout?(Animations)
Q326. How the information is arranged on the slide is controlled by in PowerPoint?(Slide layouts)
Q327. Most slide layouts include for title and body text in PowerPoint.(Placeholders)
Q328. The presentation inherits various design elements as well as prewritten content that’s stored in
the template called .(Themes)
Q329. Slide layout option available in group of Home tab in Ms-PowePoint.(Slides)
Q330. A Powerpoint presentation has masters.(3)
Q331. is not a master in Powerpoint 2010.(Outline master)
Q332. We can use the tools to write on the slides while presenting.(Pen/Highlighter)
Q333. We can add notes to our slide in the beneath the slide.(Notes Pages Area)
Q334. The Powerpoint presentation can be saved using the shortcut key.(Ctrl+S/Shift+F12)
Q335. Which of the following is not a view of Powerpoint?(Outline View)
Q336. PowerPoint presentations are widely used as .(Note outlines for teachers/Project presentations by
students/Communication of planning)
Q337. MSPowerPoint 2010 can be used to prepare professional-looking presentations made up of a
series of slides that can contain.(Charts/Diagrams/Video)
Q338. PowerPoint 2010 gives the ability to add and edit.(Edit pictures on slides/Enhance
animations/Video in presentation)
Q339. Which of them is not a part of PowerPoint Ribbon?(Tool)
Q340. By default , Save, Undo and Redo appear on the Quick Access Toolbar(TRUE)
Q341. The very bottom of the screen is the , which tells about the slide that is currently
displayed.(Status bar)
Q342. Which one is a part of Screenshot in Powerpoint 2010?(Available Windows)
Q343. SmartArt graphic includes (List/Cycle/Process)
MODULE ONE

Q344. Which one is not a part of Layout tab after clicking the table?(Table Styles)
Q345. What is the Shortcut key of Hyperlink in Ms-PowerPoint?(Ctrl+K)
Q346. A new presentation can be created from .(Blank Presentation/From Existing Presentation/From
Design Template)
Q347. In slide layout panel how many layouts are available for text layout by default?(4)
Q348. What PowerPoint feature will you use to apply motion effects to different objects of a
slide?(Animation Scheme)
Q349. What feature will you use to apply motion effects in between a slide exits and another
enters?(Slide Transition)
Q350. The selected design template can be applied on in PowerPoint.(To current slide only/To all the
slides/To all the new presentation you create)

MICROSOFT WORD
Q351. In Word 2010, Page layout tab includes.(Paragraph)
Q352. margins are the blank space around the edges of the page.(Page)
Q353. margin setting adds extra space to the side margin or top margin of a document that we plan to
bind.(Gutter)
Q354. Portrait means (Vertical)
Q355. Business correspondence uses page size which is the default page size in Word.(8 1/2 by 11)
Q356. In News letters option is used to splits the text into two or more areas and also available in word
2010.(Columns)
Q357. Break option includes sections.(Page/Section)
Q358. page Section break inserts the section break and then starts the new section on the next odd or
even numbered page.(Even or Odd)
Q359. According to Add line numbers, Table is counted as one line.(TRUE)
Q360. Ctrl + A is used for (Select All)
Q361. To Insert an optional hyphen in word 2010 user use shortcut key.(CTRL+ -)
Q362. In Word 2010, Themes Group includes .(Colors/Fonts/Effects)
Q363. Page Background includes .(Watermark/Page Color/Page Borders)
Q364. Text flows around the image and hugs its shape.(Tight)
Q365. For non-sequential information which smart art is used?(List)
Q366. Hierarchy smart art is used for .(Decision tree/Create an Organization chart)
Q367. For using smart art user choose .(Insert ->> Illustrations ->> SmartArt)
Q368. Add Shape Before option is used for.(To insert a shape before the selected shape)
Q369. In Microsoft Word 2010, we can insert many kinds of data charts and graphs, such as.(Column
charts/Line graphs/Area graphs)
Q370. After apply a chart layout,Chart Tools adding tab.(Design)
Q371. To bring an object to the top of the , click the arrow next to Bring Forward and then click Bring to
Front.(Stack)
Q372. The Selection Pane is the selection and visibility task pane in Microsoft Word 2010(TRUE)
Q373. Themes have a palette of colours.(12)
Q374. To align the edges of the objects to the left, click.(Align Left)
Q375. option is used for flip, rotate, move or resize all shapes or objects at the same time as though they
were a single shape or object.(Grouping)
Q376. For 90 degrees moving in a word which option is using?(Rotate Right 90°./Rotate Left 90°.)
Q377. Mailing Tab includes.(Create/Start Mail Merge/Preview Results)
Q378. Create Group includes .(Envelopes/Labels)
MODULE ONE

Q379. Start Mail Merge group includes .(Start Mail Merge/Select Recipients/Edit Recipient List)
Q380. Mail Merge Data Base list extension is (.mdb)
Q381. Ascending alphabetical order means (A to Z)
Q382. Address block appears which dialoge box?(Insert Address block)
Q383. In Ms Word 2010, can be for various kinds of new or updated features that increase our
productivity.(Add-Ins)
Q384. Theme effects are.(Sets of lines/Graphics/Charts)
Q385. REFERENCES TAB includes.(Table of Contents/Captions)
Q386. Table of Contents Group not includes.(Insert Text)
Q387. User can create a table of contents by applying.(Heading styles)
Q388. Microsoft Word 2010 provides a gallery of automatic table of contents styles.(TRUE)
Q389. are used in printed documents to explain, comment on or provide references for text of a
document.(Footnotes/Endnotes)
Q390. Citations & Bibliography Group Includes.(Manage Sources/Style)
Q391. Captions Group includes .(Insert Caption/Insert Table of Figures/Cross-Reference)
Q392. A caption is a numbered label, such as (Figure 1/Equation 1/Table 1)
Q393. Index Group includes.(Mark Entry/Insert Index/Update Index)
Q394. Table of Authorities Group includes.(Mark Citation/Update Table/Insert Table of Authorities)
Q395. If user create our own theme then user saving it as a .(Custom document theme)
Q396. are a great way to save time and create consistent Offi ce 2010 documents.(Templates)
Q397. Alt+W is used for which Tab?(View)
Q398. Show group includes .(Ruler/Gridlines/Navigation Pane)
Q399. Navigation Pane provides views by clicking on their respective tabs at the top of the Navigation
Pane.(3)
Q400. is a series of commands that we can use to automate a repeated task and can be run when we
have to perform the task.(Macro)
Q401. While Naming a Macro user cannot use -(Space/@/%)
Q402. Six accent colors is available in themes or not?(Available)
Q403. Theme fonts contain a .(Heading font/Body text font)
Q404. Page Setup group includes options.(Orientation/Breaks/Hyphenation)
Q405. Margins define the amount of that appears at the top, bottom, left and right edges of our
document.(White space)
MODULE TWO

ACCOUNTING PACKAGE
Q1. The financial transactions are to be . leading to different steps in Accounts Compilation.(Grouped
and summarized)
Q2. Analytical reports in Tally.ERP 9 includes.(Cash Flow Statement/Ratio Analysis/BRS)
Q3. The methods LIFO, FIFO, Moving Average are used to.(Value closing stock)
Q4. is a summary of all ledger balances to check whether the figures are correct and balanced.(Trail
Balance)
Q5. The report prepared taking the asset and liability type accounts from the Trial Balance is called
.(Balance sheet)
Q6. Tally.ERP 9 allows us to maintain and generate all primary books of accounts and registers like .(Cash
Book/Purchase Register/Credit Note Register)
Q7. The report that depicts operating profit/loss for a period is (P & L statement)
Q8. Path of Sales Register is.(Gateway of Tally > Display > Account Books > Sales Register)
Q9. The day book contains transactions relating to (Sales or purchase)
Q10. Is Debit Note Register Available in Tally ERP 9.(Yes)
Q11. The Bills Receivable details are maintained in a (Sundry debtors)
Q12. refer to amounts to be received from the sundry debtors while are the amounts to be paid to
sundry creditors.(Accounts Receivables,Accounts Payables)
Q13. Creditors ledger has details of your dues to (Suppliers)
Q14. F8 used for (Sales)
Q15. The sundry debtors are placed in the Balance sheet on the (Assets side)
Q16. Analysis reports for Outstandings which specify 0 to 30 days, 30 to 45 days and 45 to 75 days and so
on.(Ageing)
Q17. The first step in Tally before any transaction is entered or saved is creating a (Company)
Q18. Predefined Vouchers in Tally.ERP 9 includes (Sales Voucher/Invoice)
Q19. To configure country specific details use the function key (F12)
Q20. In Tally.ERP 9, we can record any money received from debtors against sales Invoices or on Account
and for all transactions where money is received, using the.(Receipt Voucher)
Q21. Identify the security mechanism used in Tally.(Tally Vault)
Q22. Is Receipt Voucher available in Single Entry Mode?(TRUE)
Q23. The basic document where transactions are entered chronologically is .(Journal)
Q24. Analysis report providing information on critical ratios (viz., operating cost percentage, return on
working capital and so on) in a single report.(Ratio)
Q25. After selecting a company in Tally, you will be in the (Gateway of Tally)
Q26. voucher adjustments with respect to debit and credit amounts without involving the cash or bank
accounts.(Journal)
Q27. Tally software is based on accounting system.(Mercantile)
Q28. Ctrl+F9 is used for (Debit Note Voucher)
Q29. Identify the primary group of capital nature that uses bank account and cash in hand as sub
groups.(Current assets)
Q30. Ctrl+F8 is used for (Credit Note Voucher)
Q31. All financial entries in Tally are done using .(Ledgers)
Q32. voucher is use for all types of Stock Adjustments viz., Inter-Godown Transfer, Manufacturing Process
etc.(Stock Journals)
Q33. The Direct expenses, Purchase account, Direct income are primary groups of (Revenue nature)
Q34. Physical Stock Journal Voucher shortcut key is.(Alt+F10/F10)
MODULE TWO

Q35. The option to delete a sub-group is admissible through the menu (Alter)
Q36. Accounting activity was one of the most important activities which desperately needed automation
for which reasons?(Minimum accuracy level required is 100%/Accounting activity consumes lot of
time and energy./Timely delivery of Financial Statements and Reports)
Q37. The behavioural attributes of this group cannot be changed.(Primary-group)
Q38. Accounting process includes .(Understanding the transaction/Journal / Voucher Entry/Ledger
Posting)
Q39. Credit limits for personal accounts and branches can be done in the ledger mode (Multiple)
Q40. Which activity is performed by software automatically?(Balancing)
Q41. We are not allowed to delete a ledger from this mode.(Multiple)
Q42. Major advantages of accounting software over manual accounting includes.(Arithmetical
accuracy/Time saving/Multiple reports on timely basis)
Q43. All account heads except Cash and Bank are placed in the (General Ledger master)
Q44. Accounting software are only two types of ledger accounts includes.(Accounts having debit
balance/Accounts having credit balances)
Q45. These are the basis for analysis by potential investors, banks etc.(P & L Account and Balance Sheet)
Q46. Analysis Report provides information on the difference between the actual vs the budgeted
figures.(Variance)
Q47. Identify the primary group of capital nature that has the sub-groups: Bank OD Account, Bank OCC
Account.(Loans)
Q48. Zero balance ledgers are not considered in reporting hence ignored.(TRUE)
Q49. The primary document for recording all financial transactions in Tally is the (Voucher)
Q50. If a ledger is having a credit balance, it can be an.(Income ledger or a liability ledger)
Q51. You can customize the voucher entry screen using the function key .(F12)
Q52. If a ledger is having debit balance, it can be an .(Expense ledger or an Asset)
Q53. Identify the voucher type that records fund transfers between cash and bank accounts.(Contra)
Q54. All income and expense ledger balances are taken to.(Profi t & Loss Account)
Q55. This voucher type records adjustments between ledgers.(Journals)
Q56. All Asset and Liability ledger balances are taken to.(Balance Sheet)
Q57. The use of classes for payment, receipt and contra vouchers enables data input in (List entry mode)
Q58. is the end point in accounting a mirror showing true and fair position of a concern(Balance Sheet)
Q59. The details of a voucher entry can be given in the.(Narration)
Q60. Accounting software stored (stores) data in (Master Data/Non Master Data)
Q61. The credit note voucher can hold account types: (Sales account, Sales tax account)
Q62. Accounting Master Data includes.(Ledgers/Scenarios)
Q63. The suffix and prefix details for the voucher type can be made applicable only from the.(First of a
month)
Q64. Payroll Master Data includes.(Employees/Employee Groups/Unit (Work))
Q65. The voucher used to record all bank and cash payments is (Payment)
Q66. Inventory Master Data includes.(Nither A Nor B)
Q67. The accounts that the business owns is called.(Asset)
Q68. Alt + B is a shortcut key of (Budget Variance)
Q69. Tally's age-wise analysis considers the voucher's (Effective date)
Q70. Statutory Master Data includes.(Service Categories/Income Tax Classifi cations)
Q71. Arrange the steps in generating the books of accounts.
1. Create Trial balance
2. Create new ledgers
MODULE TWO

3. Generate Day Books

4. Update journals for financial transactions(2, 4, 3, 1)
Q72. Which voucher is use for recording of employee attendance?(Attendance)
Q73. For day-to-day transactions the voucher types used are(Credit purchase/Cash purchase)
Q74. Non Master Accounting Voucher includes .(Contra/Memorandum/Receipt)
Q75. Say for example a payment is made to a creditor ABC - Rs.10000 by cash, it can be entered into the
voucher type (Payment)
Q76. Non Master Inventory Vouchers includes .(Delivery Note/Physical Stock/Rejections Out)
Q77. Identify the purchase voucher type, the transaction for purchase of 10 CPUs,10 monitors by
credit.(Credit Purchases)
Q78. Non Master Order Vouchers includes .(Purchase Order ? Attendance)
Q79. Identify the voucher type to be chosen for the sale of computers to Anand by cash @ Rs.210000 per
unit.(Stock Journal)
Q80. Payroll Vouchers includes.(Attendance/Payroll)
Q81. A bank overdraft repaid by cheque at Rs.25000 can be made in the voucher (Contra)
Q82. are the resources generally used by any business entity.(Money/Material/Manpower)
Q83. The financial statement that consolidates ledger balances is (Trial balance)
Q84. document connectivity is the system of linking one document with another.(Inter)
Q85. The F9 function key in the left side of the Gateway of Tally screen displays the (Inventory reports)
Q86. E-fi lling website new features are added for increasing.(Transparency)
Q87. The option on the Gateway of Tally that will generate the P&L account statement is (Net Profit)
Q88. Services offered by e-filing website includes.(Submit returns/ forms/View Form 26AS (Tax
Credit)/Check ITR-V receipt status)
Q89. The expenditure for running the business for a period is (Expense)
Q90. Financial Statements summarise the individual transactions to show required by the users to
analyze the company’s fi nancial data in a wide variety of ways.(Totals/Ratios/Statistics)
Q91. This displays the balance daywise for a selected voucher type.(Day book)
Q92. DSC stands for .(Digital Signature Certificate)
Q93. The feature in Tally to analyze accounts of a company is (Ratio analysis)
Q94. The age-wise statement is displayed based on (Payables)
Q95. The ratio analysis of receivables can be done based on (Bill date)
Q96. Name the statement that helps the management in the decision making process.(Funds flow)
Q97. Identify the budget type which is chosen where transaction amounts are to be monitored.(On net
transactions)
Q98. Choose the budget type to be used where bank accounts balances are to be monitored.(On closing
balance)
Q99. The management that needs to consolidate the accounts of its various enterprises uses. in
Tally.(Group company)
Q100. Identify the user who can access audit trails in Tally.(Administrator)
Q101. Identify the accounting feature in tally that facilitates splitting financial years for a company
data.(Period-less accounting)
Q102. Identify the account type by the rule: "Debit the receiver and credit the giver".(Personal accounts)
Q103. Financial statements are classified into major statements.(3)
Q104. The tracking of changes in vouchers and ledger masters is done by (Tally Audit)
Q105. Tally can import data from other programs and creates a log about the activity in the file (Tally.imp)
Q106. Import and export of data between Tally and other programs is possible with the help of (ODBC)
Q107. The manual option of voucher numbering leads to (Duplicate number)
Q108. The Tally audit trail tracks changes made to vouchers that are (more than 30 Days old)
MODULE TWO

Q109. The ratio analysis of Bills Receivables or Bills Payables can be displayed with the function key (F6)
Q110. The first document where the transaction is entered is called a (Voucher)
Q111. is a financial statement that reports a firm’s financial position at a specific time.(Balance Sheet)
Q112. The document used for posting of accounting transactions is (Journal and ledger)
Q113. In Balance Sheet F1 is uesd for (Detailed/Condensed)
Q114. When the debit total is greater than credit total, the amount appears in the column.(Debit)
Q115. is a periodic statement, which shows the net result of business operations for a specifi ed
period.(Profit and Loss Account/Income Statement)
Q116. The financial transactions are to be . leading to different steps in Accounts Compilation.(Grouped
and summarized)
Q117. The methods LIFO, FIFO, Moving Average are used to.(Value closing stock)
Q118. The report prepared taking the asset and liability type accounts from the Trial Balance is called
.(Balance sheet)
Q119. The report that depicts operating profit/loss for a period is (P & L statement)
Q120. The day book contains transactions relating to (Sales or purchase)
Q121. The Bills Receivable details are maintained in a (Sundry debtors)
Q122. Creditors ledger has details of your dues to (Suppliers)
Q123. The sundry debtors are placed in the Balance sheet on the (Assets side)
Q124. The first step in Tally before any transaction is entered or saved is creating a (Company)
Q125. To configure country specific details use the function key (F12)
Q126. Identify the security mechanism used in Tally.(Tally Vault)
Q127. The basic document where transactions are entered chronologically is .(Journal)
Q128. After selecting a company in Tally, you will be in the (Gateway of Tally)
Q129. Tally software is based on accounting system.(Mercantile)
Q130. Identify the primary group of capital nature that uses bank account and cash in hand as sub
groups.(Current assets)
Q131. All financial entries in Tally are done using .(Ledgers)
Q132. The Direct expenses, Purchase account, Direct income are primary groups of (Revenue nature)
Q133. The option to delete a sub-group is admissible through the menu (Alter)
Q134. The behavioural attributes of this group cannot be changed.(Primary-group)
Q135. Credit limits for personal accounts and branches can be done in the ledger mode (Multiple)
Q136. We are not allowed to delete a ledger from this mode.(Multiple)
Q137. All account heads except Cash and Bank are placed in the (General Ledger master)
Q138. These are the basis for analysis by potential investors, banks etc.(P & L Account and Balance Sheet)
Q139. Identify the primary group of capital nature that has the sub-groups: Bank OD Account, Bank OCC
Account.(Loans)
Q140. The primary document for recording all financial transactions in Tally is the (Voucher)
Q141. You can customize the voucher entry screen using the function key .(F12)
Q142. Identify the voucher type that records fund transfers between cash and bank accounts.(Contra)
Q143. This voucher type records adjustments between ledgers.(Journals)
Q144. The use of classes for payment, receipt and contra vouchers enables data input in (List entry mode)
Q145. The details of a voucher entry can be given in the.(Narration)
Q146. The credit note voucher can hold account types: (Sales account, Sales tax account)
Q147. The suffix and prefix details for the voucher type can be made applicable only from the.(First of a
month)
Q148. The voucher used to record all bank and cash payments is (Payment)
Q149. The accounts that the business owns is called.(Asset)
MODULE TWO

Q150. Tally's age-wise analysis considers the voucher's (Effective date)

Q151. Arrange the steps in generating the books of accounts.
1. Create Trial balance
2. Create new ledgers
3. Generate Day Books
4. Update journals for financial transactions(2, 4, 3, 1)
Q152. For day-to-day transactions the voucher types used are(Credit purchase/Cash purchase)
Q153. Say for example a payment is made to a creditor ABC - Rs.10000 by cash, it can be entered into the
voucher type (Payment)
Q154. Identify the purchase voucher type, the transaction for purchase of 10 CPUs,10 monitors by
credit.(Credit Purchases)
Q155. Identify the voucher type to be chosen for the sale of computers to Anand by cash @ Rs.210000 per
unit.(Stock Journal)
Q156. A bank overdraft repaid by cheque at Rs.25000 can be made in the voucher (Contra)
Q157. The financial statement that consolidates ledger balances is (Trial balance)
Q158. The F9 function key in the left side of the Gateway of Tally screen displays the (Inventory reports)
Q159. The option on the Gateway of Tally that will generate the P&L account statement is (Net Profit)
Q160. The expenditure for running the business for a period is (Expense)
Q161. This displays the balance daywise for a selected voucher type.(Day book)
Q162. The feature in Tally to analyze accounts of a company is (Ratio analysis)
Q163. The age-wise statement is displayed based on (Payables)
Q164. The ratio analysis of receivables can be done based on (Bill date)
Q165. Name the statement that helps the management in the decision making process.(Funds flow)
Q166. Identify the budget type which is chosen where transaction amounts are to be monitored.(On net
transactions)
Q167. Choose the budget type to be used where bank accounts balances are to be monitored.(On closing
balance)
Q168. The management that needs to consolidate the accounts of its various enterprises uses. in
Tally.(Group company)
Q169. Identify the user who can access audit trails in Tally.(Administrator)
Q170. Identify the accounting feature in tally that facilitates splitting financial years for a company
data.(Period-less accounting)
Q171. Identify the account type by the rule: "Debit the receiver and credit the giver".(Personal accounts)
Q172. The tracking of changes in vouchers and ledger masters is done by (Tally Audit)
Q173. Tally can import data from other programs and creates a log about the activity in the file (Tally.imp)
Q174. Import and export of data between Tally and other programs is possible with the help of (ODBC)
Q175. The manual option of voucher numbering leads to (Duplicate number)
Q176. The Tally audit trail tracks changes made to vouchers that are (more than 30 Days old)
Q177. The ratio analysis of Bills Receivables or Bills Payables can be displayed with the function key (F6)
Q178. The test data generated with correctness proof, data flow analysis and control flow analysis tools is
called .(Test data pack)
Q179. When a real-time system is simulated to generate the same output as the real-time system, the
technique is called .(Parallel simulation)
Q180. When an auditor expands the extent of substantive tests to determine the impact of defects on the
attainment of program objectives, the methodology is .(Formulate flaw hypotheses)
Q181. This is an important control in systems that use digital signatures for authentication purposes.(Public
audit trails)
Q182. The first document where the transaction is entered is called a (Voucher)
MODULE TWO

Q183. Selecting transactions based on a sampling rate is called. method.(Systematic sampling)

Q184. The capability of the generalized audit software to read different data coding schemes, different
record formats and different file structures is .(File access)
Q185. The audit software capability of frequency analysis is to .(Classify data on a criteria)
Q186. The audit functions of attributes sampling, variables sampling, stratified sampling are included in.
functions.(Statistical)
Q187. Identify the functional limitation of a generalized audit software that enables evidence collection
only on the state of an application system after the fact.(Ex Post Auditing Only)
Q188. The purpose-written audit programs are used for (Specific tasks with original or modified programs)
Q189. Picture of a transaction as it flows through the computer systems is called (Snapshot)
Q190. Identify the type of audit when auditors are members of the systems development
team.(Concurrent audit)
Q191. The document used for posting of accounting transactions is (Journal and ledger)
Q192. When the debit total is greater than credit total, the amount appears in the column.(Debit)

CORE BANKING
Q193. Identify the need for controls and auditing in a computerised environment.(Absence of input
documents/Lack of visible transaction trail/Accessibility of data and computer programs)
Q194. Grand totals calculated for any code on a document in the batch are called (Hash totals)
Q195. Control that checks if correct sequence of commands and update parameters are passed from the
application software to the database.(Data Integrity)
Q196. With respect to data integrity control, when monetary transactions are processed against master
files without a match, we should maintain a.(Suspense account)
Q197. The system test that tests the top-level modules first and then the lower modules are simulated
with dummy modules to check the interfaces is called.(Top down test)
Q198. Identify the audit technique that examines each transaction as it passes through the
system.(Embedded code)
Q199. The Core Image Comparison audit technique compares the .(Executable program with master copy)
Q200. The technique used by an auditor to list unused program instructions is (Mapping)
Q201. The sample data created and used for the purpose of testing the application system is called .(Test
data)
Q202. The test data (dummy unit) implemented in the normal processing of the system over a period of
time is known as .(Integrated Test Facility)
Q203. The test data generated with correctness proof, data flow analysis and control flow analysis tools is
called .(Test data pack)
Q204. The organisational, management, maintenance and access controls are categories of (General
controls)
Q205. When a real-time system is simulated to generate the same output as the real-time system, the
technique is called .(Parallel simulation)
Q206. When an auditor expands the extent of substantive tests to determine the impact of defects on the
attainment of program objectives, the methodology is .(Formulate flaw hypotheses)
Q207. This is an important control in systems that use digital signatures for authentication purposes.(Public
audit trails)
Q208. Selecting transactions based on a sampling rate is called. method.(Systematic sampling)
Q209. The capability of the generalized audit software to read different data coding schemes, different
record formats and different file structures is .(File access)
Q210. The audit software capability of frequency analysis is to .(Classify data on a criteria)
MODULE TWO

Q211. The audit functions of attributes sampling, variables sampling, stratified sampling are included in.
functions.(Statistical)
Q212. Identify the functional limitation of a generalized audit software that enables evidence collection
only on the state of an application system after the fact.(Ex Post Auditing Only)
Q213. The purpose-written audit programs are used for (Specific tasks with original or modified programs)
Q214. Picture of a transaction as it flows through the computer systems is called (Snapshot)
Q215. The application controls are.(Input controls/Processing controls)
Q216. Identify the type of audit when auditors are members of the systems development
team.(Concurrent audit)
Q217. Identify the field check - "If a set of values is defined, is the input data one of these defined
values?"(Slab)
Q218. The field check that conforms if data input for a field is in a particular format.(Format mask)
Q219. The field check on a processed data that fails if a field is not initialized to zero or errors occur during
calculation is (Overflow)
Q220. The validation checks applied to a field depending on its logical interrelationships with the other
fields in the record are called (Record checks)
Q221. A group of records or transactions that are contiguous constitute (Physical batches)
Q222. is the type of batch check (group of records) for all input records of a particular type is
done.(Transaction type)
Q223. COREBANKING
Q224. CBS software developed by TCS is .(Quartz)
Q225. The server is a sophisticated computer that accepts service requests from different machines which
are called .(Clients)
Q226. ATM stands for.(Automated Teller Machine)
Q227. Which of the following is not a server of CBS?(Personal Server)
Q228. server hosts the core banking application.(Application)
Q229. of the application is capable of only entering the data at the end point that is branches in CBS.(Client
version)
Q230. is a designated role for maintenance of the data base.(Database Administrator)
Q231. Till the central data base becomes accessible, all the ATM transactions are passed in the file
available at the ATM server.(Positive Balance File)
Q232. The authenticates the customer with the log in details stored in the IBDS.(IBAS)
Q233. provides network security by preventing malicious data from entering the network.(Proxy Server)
Q234. Duties of would include deciding on access rules to data and other IT resources.(Security
Administrator)
Q235. In CBS modules could be added.(Savings Account/Current Account/Bills & Remittances)
Q236. Change management procedures include changes in.(Hardware/Software/Communication Systems)
Q237. is the version of the program given to the users for testing purpose.(Beta)
Q238. After a program is tested by the users, it is pushed into the production environment.This is known as
.(User Acceptance Test)
Q239. The HSM or SSM are used for the purpose of.(Encryption)
Q240. ATM transactions involve the generation of .(Cash Journal/ATM log)
Q241. In the remotely placed ATMs, the electronic journal is retrieved by a mechanism known as
.(Electronic Journal Pulling)
Q242. In case of RTGS, the money transfer takes place in the books of bank(RBI)
Q243. EFT and NEFT work on the basis of (Deferred Net Settlement)
Q244. Every RTGS message is assigned a unique number known as number(UTR)
Q245. BCP stands for in CBS.(Bussiness Continuity Planning)
MODULE TWO

Q246. CBS is a combination of an Application Software and.(Network Devices)

Q247. CRR stands for in CBS.(Cash Reserve Ratio)
Q248. DRP stands for in CBS.(Disaster Recovery Planning)
Q249. Bussiness Continuity Planning should cover the following important and critical processes in
CBS.(Branch Operations/Internet Banking/ATM Operations)
Q250. Which of the following type of processing charges is/are not associated with CMS in CBS?(DD issue
charges/Cheque return charges/Courier charges none of the above)
Q251. Which of the following type of controls over parameter settings are not appliyed in CMS?(Cheque
limit)
Q252. is a process by which the bank ensures the maintenance and recovery of operations.(Business
Continuity Planning)
Q253. Application software would access the (Data base server)
Q254. are capable of being connected only when devices are connected to a switch.(Virtual Networks)
Q255. TCS stands for .(Tax Collected at Source)
Q256. Which of the following applications is used to book purchase invoices received from
vendors?(Accounts Payable)
Q257. The CBS is capable of being implemented in stages.(TRUE)
Q258. Which of the following is not a software development companies for CBS?(MCA)
Q259. In CBS, is the computer that accepts service requests from different machines.(Server)
Q260. CBS applications runs on Server.(Application)
Q261. Bank branch running the CBS version which is called the.(Client version)
Q262. Changes made by CBS application software first saved on server.(Test Server)
Q263. Which of the following is not treated as Information assets?(Note Book)
Q264. are the main goals of information security.(Integrity/Confidentiality/Availability)
Q265. is used for authentication.(Domain Controller)
Q266. is a process of unauthorized entering a network.(Hacking)
Q267. Which of the following information is not displayed on ATM card?(Pin number)
Q268. Core Banking Solutions are developed to perform ? (Recording of transactions/Passbook
maintenance/Interest calculations)
Q269. Analytic reports of the RTGS activity includes in CBS.(Summary of the transactions/Net
position/Charging reports)
Q270. is more powerful to represent complex data structures.(ISO 20022)
Q271. UTF stands for.(Uniform Transaction Reference)
Q272. The objective of the is to meet the needs of the customers who have operations all over the
country.(CMS)
Q273. In CMS parameter settings includes .(Clearing cycle/Credit limit/Charges (various slabs))
Q274. mandates that
every bank should have a security policy.(RBI)
Q275. control include physical access, logical access, environmental controls, evaluation controls in
operation systems and evaluation controls of network.(Operational Controls)
Q276. The servers in the Data Centre could be many of servers.(Data Base/Application/Report
Generating)
Q277. Benefits of CBS.(Better MIS/24*7 support/Availability of accurate data)
Q278. The servers in the data centre are segregated using the concept of (VLAN)
Q279. VLAN stands for.(Virtual Local Area Network)
MODULE TWO

DATABASE
Q280. This data type allows alphanumeric characters and special symbols in Ms-Access.(Text)
Q281. A enables you to view data from a table based on a specific criterion in Ms-Access.(Query)
Q282. A name must be unique within a database.(Table)
Q283. If I create ‘Student’ field in ‘Fees’ table to store ‘student id’ of ‘Students’ table, then this ‘Student’
field in ‘Fees’ table is called in Ms-Access.(Foreign key)
Q284. Query design window has two parts. The upper part shows in Ms-Access.(Tables with fields and
relationships between tables)
Q285. Every table in relational database contain a field or combination of fields that can uniquely identify
each records, it is called in Ms-Access.(Primary key)
Q286. The complete information about an entity in a database is called in Ms-Access.(Record)
Q287. If you need to edit a relationship in MS-Access .(Both of above)
Q288. It is an association established between common fields of two tables.(Relationship)
Q289. Which of the following is not a field type in Access?(Money)
Q290. To achieve AND effect when you are entering criteria in a query design window in Ms-Access is
.(Write criteria values horizontally)
Q291. Which of the following is not a database object?(Relationship)
Q292. In Ms-Access, a search value can be an exact value or it can be .(Wild card character)
Q293. In Ms-Access, When a picture or other graphic image is placed in the report header section it will
appear (Once in the beginning of the report)
Q294. What are the columns in a Microsoft Access table called?(Fields)
Q295. You can automatically include all of the field in a table in a query by a strike that appear list box in
query design view in Ms-Access.(Double clicking)
Q296. It is most common type of query. It retrieves records from one or more tables and then displays in
Ms-Access.(Select)
Q297. In Ms-Access, It is a query that when run displays its own dialog box prompting you for information,
such as(Parameter)
Q298. A(n) is the default control for a Yes/No field in Ms-Access.(Check box)
Q299. Ms-Access provides Hyperlink data type to create a clickable link to a (Web page/File/Email
address)
Q300. Which of the following is not a benefit of relationship in Ms-Access?(Redundancy)
Q301. is the text displayed as a tooltip.(Screentop)
Q302. To create a new table, in which method you don’t need to specify the field type and size?(Create
Table by Entering data)
Q303. is recording data in only one place implies less disk space in Ms-Access.(Efficiency)
Q304. Abs(-50) will give output in Ms-Access.(50)
Q305. In Ms-Access, form control lets the user to insert a picture.(Logo)
Q306. Which of the following is not a type of Form Control in Ms-Access?(Related)
Q307. Which of the following activity is not associated with command button in Ms-Access form?(On Run)
Q308. Which of the following category is not found under Command Button Wizard in Ms-Access
form?(Macro Operations)
Q309. Which of the following Tab is not when we open Form in Design View in Ms-Access?(Create)
Q310. Which of the following is not a type of Action Query in Ms-Access?(Select)
Q311. Which of the following option is not available under Summary Options in Ms-Access Reopts?(Count)
Q312. Which of the following is not a Logical Operator in Ms-Access form?(?)
Q313. This key uniquely identifies each record in Ms-Access.(Primary key)
Q314. Which type of field is incremented automatically in Ms-Access?(AutoNumber)
MODULE TWO

Q315. Which object is used to create a form in Ms-Access?(Tables and Queries)

Q316. Which tool do you use to create a query object in Ms-Access?(Simple query wizard)
Q317. Which of the following is not a view for interacting with a form object in Ms-Access?(Layout view)
Q318. Which data type is better to use for storing phone number in the following format “977-1-1234567”
in Ms-Access?(Text)
Q319. Which criteria do not return the position “POLICE” as a match in Ms-Access?(Position = “P#e”)
Q320. When a picture or other graphic image is placed in the report header section it will appear (Once
in the beginning of the report)
Q321. Which of the following is not a Database software?(Unix)
Q322. The data can be entered into a table in the view.(Datasheet)
Q323. SQL is considered to be a (4GL)
Q324. In one-to-many relationship the table in ‘one’ side is called and on ‘many’ side is called in Ms-
Access.(Parent , Child)
Q325. Default length of numeric data type is in MS Access 2010.(long Integer)
Q326. The default query invoked by MS-Access is .(Select Query)
Q327. data type field can't be updated(AUTONUMBER)
Q328. A Record is also commonly called as a (tuple)
Q329. Most database operations that we do manually can be automated by using(Macro)
Q330. are what we use to summarize and present data in the table(Report)
Q331. In MS-Access, what data type can be used for a phone number field in a database?(Text)
Q332. In a table, uniquely identifies each record that is stored in the table.(Primary Key)
Q333. is used to insert values in Table directly.(Query)
Q334. Which SQL clause is used to retrieve data from database?(SELECT)
Q335. The size of Yes No field is always in Ms-Access.(1 bit)
Q336. The clause is used to filter records in database.(WHERE)
Q337. is Example of DBMS(Access)
Q338. A Junction Table creates a relationship between two tables.(Many-to-Many)
Q339. The Primary key of one table and the matching column in another table is known as .(Foreign Key)
Q340. In SQL, having clause is used for (specifying conditions with group by clause)
Q341. A form can be divided into to increase the readability(Pages)
Q342. How can you define a field so that when entering data for that field it will display ****** instead of
actual typed text in Ms-Access?(Input mask)
Q343. Which field type will you select when creating a new table if you require to enter long text in that
field in Ms-Access?(Memo)
Q344. In table design view, which key can be used to switch between the field names and properties
panels in Ms-Access?(F6)

IDEA
Q345. CAATs can be used to audit in a computerized manner for services.(Statutory Audit/Tax
Audit/Internal Audit)
Q346. Factors to be considered for using CAATs are,(Time Constraints/Level of Audit Risk/Computer
Knowledge)
Q347. Inspection, Observation and Recalculation can be used for obtaining,(Audit Evidence)
Q348. Defining the CAAT objectives is the part of audit phase.(Planning)
Q349. The Audit Evidence must necessarily include,(Audit Findings/Output Produced/Audit Conclusions)
Q350. is defined as the application of audit procedures to less than 100 percent of the population.(Audit
Sampling)
MODULE TWO

Q351. involves the use of techniques from which mathematically constructed conclusions regarding the
population can be drawn.(Statistical Sampling)
Q352. Which Sampling technique ensures that all combinations of sampling units in the population have an
equal chance of selection?(Random Sampling)
Q353. In which sampling method the auditor places a bias on the sample?(Judgemental Sampling)
Q354. A contains all the IDEA databases on which we wish to perform.(Working Folder)
Q355. IDEA exports data in a number of formats such as,(Text/Database/Mail Merge)
Q356. CAATs can be applied even by using commonly used software such as,(MS Excel)
Q357. accumulates the values of Numeric fi elds for each unique key.(Summarisation)
Q358. is not a task provided by Summarisation(Total of Non-numeric data)
Q359. The Quick Summarisation option may be used in case the database has more than unique
keys.(4000)
Q360. option in IDEA is used for reconciling totals(Statistics)
Q361. By default, the Field Statistics window displays the statistics for fields.(Numeric)
Q362. Sampling in IDEA is,(Statistical/Probability based)
Q363. Systematic, Random and Stratified Sampling are types of Sampling(Probability based)
Q364. Stratification in IDEA can be done on fields(Numeric/Date/Character)
Q365. The fields selected for sorting the records by are known as,(Keys)
Q366. Key Functions used in IDEA to identify Anamolies and exceptions are,(Gap Detection/Duplicate
Detection)
Q367. Why are CAATs needed?(To increase audit quality/Improve efficiency of audit process/Ensure better
audit Planning)
Q368. In IDEA, data completeness can be checked by,(Gap Detection)
Q369. In order to determine provisions required against bad debts at the end of the year can be
used.(Aging)
Q370. In IDEA data can be consolidated using a.(Pivot Table)
Q371. option in IDEA produces a database that we can analyze to identify possible errors, potential fraud,
or other irregularities.(Benford's Law)
Q372. In IDEA, the parameters in equations are separeated by(Comma/Semi colon)
Q373. Default date format for a Date Parameter in IDEA is,(YYYYMMDD)
Q374. Which search in IDEA enables users to use AND operator along with the keywords?(Boolean)
Q375. Which one of the following is not a practical application of Benford's Law?(Petty Cash book)
Q376. The feature in IDEA can provide a valuable reasonableness test for large data sets.(Benford's Law)
Q377. Which function in IDEA is used to identify transactions made on any day of the week?(dow)
Q378. Which of the following is not a key capabilities of CAATs ?(Financial functions)
Q379. selection is where the auditor picks items without basis of any mathematical formula(Haphazard
Sampling)
Q380. is a process of of selecting a subset of the population.(Sampling)
Q381. Fields from two databases can be combined into a single database for testing by using option in
IDEA(Join)
Q382. IDEA can compare the financials from one year to the next,by option(Compare Database)
Q383. In IDEA data can be reconciled using,(Field Statistics/Control Totals)
Q384. Which function in IDEA is used to reverse the order of characters in a string?(Reverse)
Q385. Indexing, Sorting and Merging are the functions of the CAAT capability.(File Reorganisation)
Q386. functions enable intelligent analysis of data using CAATs.(Statistical)
Q387. are very critical tools for Auditors(CAATs)
Q388. is to identify samples as
required.(Statistical Sampling)
MODULE TWO

Q389. Which of the following is not a test performed during Audits?(Copying of samples)

INTERNET
Q390. BBS stands for (bulletin board system)
Q391. The Internet is a network similar to (Peer-to-Peer connectivity)
Q392. HTTP is the acronym for (Hyper text transfer protocol)
Q393. Each computer on the Internet is identified with a .(32-bit address)
Q394. is used to transfer and copy files over the internet(uucp)
Q395. A mail server robot can automatically .(Respond to mails)
Q396. is a program that helps us to log on to other networks(telnet)
Q397. This protocol is used to check reliability, sequencing and flow control.(Transmission Control
Protocol)
Q398. TCP/IP stands for (transmission control protocol/internet protocol)
Q399. To check that data reaches the destination in a proper order, the data packets are assigned
.(Sequence numbers)
Q400. HTTP stands for (hyper text transfer protocol)
Q401. The computer which provides FTP, WWW, Mail services on a network is called .(Server)
Q402. Two of the important browsers are and (netscape,ie)
Q403. The method of accessing files through publicly accessible server that gives free access to the files is
called (Anonymous FTP)
Q404. are defined as ways of communication amongst networks(protocols)
Q405. This file is transferred verbatim with FTP service.(Binary File)
Q406. HTML stands for (hyper text markup language)
Q407. We can access the Archie server by (Telnet)
Q408. The system of interlinked documents is known as (hyperlink)
Q409. The types of Archie servers are (Straight Archie/Windows Archie)
Q410. The small programmes that create animation,multimedia,real-time games and multi user games are
called (applets)
Q411. % telnet archie.ans.net is the command used by the Archie client to .(Login to Archie server)
Q412. USENET is a BBS on scale(large)
Q413. When a computer is connected to the internet through a LAN(Dedicated access)
Q414. The information displayed on the web page includes , and (graphics,videos,audio)
Q415. This tool helps us to locate a file anywhere on the Internet.(Archie)
Q416. The web pages that represent online home of their author are called (home page)
Q417. The computer that maps the Internet domain name to the Internet numeric address is the (Domain
name server)
Q418. is the most popular internet service(electronic mail)
Q419. .is the format of Internet Address.(Aaa.bbb.ccc.ddd)
Q420. is a program or a tool that helps us find a file anywhere on the net(archive)
Q421. The email address has two parts one is the username while the other is the.(Domain)
Q422. Yahoo,lycos,excite and webcrawlers are (web directories)
Q423. The resources on the World Wide Web are linked with the naming format (Uniform Resource
Locator)
Q424. GIF is the acronym for (Graphical interchange Format)
Q425. This Net tool provides a stimulating on-line discussion environment.(Internet Relay Chat)
Q426. JPEG is the acronym for (Joint Pictures Expert Group)
Q427. The IRC II client program command begins with a.(Slash)
MODULE TWO

Q428. The World Wide Web consists of (web pages)

Q429. The IRC conversations are organized into .(Channels)
Q430. A hyperlink can be on (text or image)
Q431. Identify the output of the IRC command " /list -min 10" .(Display channels with at least ten users)
Q432. Web is a collection of (web sites)
Q433. Lynx text browser is a web client in which users can login with (Shell accounts)
Q434. Internet can be defined as (network of network)
Q435. PPP stands for:(Point to Point Protocol)
Q436. The two major browsers used to surf the Internet are , (MS Internet Explorer and Netscape
Navigator)
Q437. A web browser provides this hotlist for a user.(Bookmarks)
Q438. The internet is also called as (the net)
Q439. The tool to obtain information on the web by menus and more flexible than Archie is .(Gopher)
Q440. The internet is similar to (peer-to-peer connectivity)
Q441. These servers help in searching for words from a list of databases or documents.(WINWAIS and
WAISMAN)
Q442. The net transfers from one place to another(data)
Q443. This scripting language is an object based language and is developed by Netscape.(JavaScript)
Q444. The net provides interesting services like , and (email,file retrived,internet tools)
Q445. The one-way broadcast of live events is called .(Cybercast)
Q446. is the ancestors of the internet(arpanet)
Q447. This is a system of thousands of distributed bulletin boards and read by a newsreader.(Newsgroup)
Q448. DARPA stands for (defensive advanced research projects administration net)
Q449. Unix shell provides mailing programs called.(Pine and Elm)
Q450. DARPA is broken into and (milnet,smaller arpanet)
Q451. The Unix to Unix copy mail system separates parts of the mail address with the symbol . (!)
Q452. NSFNET is the united states provides service to and (education,research)
Q453. The Netlauncher (TCP/IP) software consists of these programs that can run under Windows.(Spy
Mosaic/Image View)
Q454. HTML stands for (Hyper text markup Language)
Q455. The parts of the WSIRC server (net tool) window are (Server message,command line and channels)
Q456. is a program that displays information about a host connected to the net(finger service)
Q457. SLIP stands for:(Serial Line Internet Protocol)
Q458. The first international IP network connections were established in 1973 with and
(england,norway)
Q459. These are small java programs that create games, multimedia etc. These are downloaded over the
Net and executed by a web browser.(Java applets)
Q460. A is a set of computers interconnected by transmission paths to exchange information in
internet(network)
Q461. The World Wide Web is a collection of (Web pages)
Q462. A computer that provides a service usable by other computers is called (servers)
Q463. It is a link which helps in retrieving information from the WWW easily.(Hyperlink)
Q464. can be owed by multiple organisation(WAN)
Q465. directories deliver information on all the topics on the Internet.(Web maps)
Q466. Data is transmitted in the form of signals(digital)
Q467. This browser does not display links in color.(Cello)
Q468. Modem stands for (Modulation/demodulation)
Q469. The Mosaic browser stores information about the configuration in a/an.(Ini file)
MODULE TWO

Q470. is the process of the digital signals being converted into a form suitable for analog
transmission(Modulation)
Q471. This is an indexer that crawls around the web cataloging.(Webcrawler)
Q472. (Dedicated access and dial up access)are two basic ways of getting connected to the internet
Q473. The option by which the browser window in Navigator Gold 2.0 can be shifted to editor window
is.(New/Edit Document)
Q474. SLIP stands for (Serial line protocol)
Q475. This toolbar button displays information about web creation.(Web page starter)
Q476. PPP stands for (Point to point protocol)
Q477. This window in Navigator Gold does not support frame display.(Editor window)
Q478. is a program or a tool that helps in locating a file anywhere on the net(ARCHIE)
Q479. When a user connects to Internet with a shell account it is called.(Dial-up access)
Q480. The different ways of communication on the Web are (Interpersonal/Group)
Q481. This download tool provides multi-server connection, can search for mirror sites and provides a file
leecher.(Download Accelerator Plus)
Q482. The button provides HTML tags for font style, alignments, and colour options.(Character Format)
Q483. Identify the search engine that helps in concept based searching.(Excite)
Q484. This is a text only browser.(Lynx)
Q485. The multithreading feature of Netscape is facilitated with a storage space named (Cache)
Q486. The distributed uploading of web pages through Navigator Gold is called (Web publish)
Q487. The method of presenting information on the web through highlighted items is called (Hypertext)
Q488. The a2z directory is an alphabetical list of pages used by the search engine (Lycos)
Q489. Netscape browser can display context links on an image called (Image maps)
Q490. URL stands for (uniform research locator)
Q491. The launch of DARPA's Internet Protocol (IP) facilitated the term (Internet)
Q492. Name the download tool which highlights an area of a page and gets all the links that are within the
highlighted area.(Webcow)
Q493. .helps in business transactions, generating revenue and demand on the information highway.(E-
commerce/E-Marketplace)
Q494. The transfer of structured data for processing from computer to computer using agreed formats and
protocols is called (Electronic Data Interchange)
Q495. This system involves electronic transfer of funds between financial institutions.(Electronic Fund
Transfer)
Q496. A electronic mailbox stores EDI transactions for later retrieval.(Value Added Networks)
Q497. The mutual satisfaction of price, terms and conditions, delivery and evaluation criteria in a
marketplace is .(Negotiation and Bargaining)
Q498. The type of advertising, the Broadcast and Junk Mail models are of (Push)
Q499. Identify the models of passive advertising.(Billboard/Portal)
Q500. This layer is responsible for transmitting data as frames.(Data Link Layer)
Q501. This layer is responsible for encoding of data.(Presentation Layer)
Q502. A always begins with a slash(command line)
Q503. The costs of Internet implementation are (Connection cost, cost of telephone line)
Q504. This layer of the TCP/IP suite includes the device driver and network interface card.(Link Layer)
Q505. This protocol is used for flow control, echo and flow redirection.(Internet Control Message Protocol)
Q506. The software components that integrates different hardware devices with the operating system
(Device drivers)
Q507. This is the basic component that connects the computer to the network.(Network Interface Card)
MODULE TWO

Q508. The dumb terminal/node in a network depends on this computer for their basic functioning.(Server
computer)
Q509. This has an embedded microchip which can both manipulate data and execute applications.(Combi
card)
Q510. To ensure a reliable communication between the buyer and seller, the protocol used is .(Secure
Sockets Layer Protocol)
Q511. The World Wide Web is referred to shortly as the (web)
Q512. This software enables a host to work as a terminal on the network.(Terminal emulator)
Q513. is a program that helps us to log on to other networks(telnet)
Q514. The Windows Internet application functions were developed based on the UNIX programs called
(Sockets)