Cambridge Physics (0625) Past Papers: Paper 2 (Variants 1,2,3) 2021-2016

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Cambridge

Chemistry 0620 Paper 2 (MCQ)

Physics (0625)
Past Papers
Table of ontents

Part I

Paper 2
(Variants 1,2,3)

2021-2016
(2023 Specimen
included)
Table of Contents
For Examination from 2023 ---------------------------------1
February/March 2021 Variant 2 -----------------15
May/June 2021 Variant 1 -----------------31
May/June 2021 Variant 2 -----------------47
May/June 2021 Variant 3 -----------------63
May/June 2021 (Pakistan Only) Variant 2 -----------------83
October/November 2021 Variant 1 ----------------103
October/November 2021 Variant 2 ----------------119
October/November 2021 Variant 3 ----------------139
February/March 2020 Variant 2 ----------------159
May/June 2020 Variant 1 ----------------179
May/June 2020 Variant 2 ----------------195
May/June 2020 Variant 3 ----------------211
October/November 2020 Variant 1 ----------------231
October/November 2020 Variant 2 ----------------247
October/November 2020 Variant 3 ----------------263
For Examination from 2020 ------------------------------279
February/March 2019 Variant 2 ----------------303
May/June 2019 Variant 1 ----------------319
May/June 2019 Variant 2 ----------------335
May/June 2019 Variant 3 ----------------351
October/November 2019 Variant 1 ----------------367
October/November 2019 Variant 2 ----------------383
October/November 2019 Variant 3 ----------------399
February/March 2018 Variant 2 ----------------415
May/June 2018 Variant 1 ----------------447
May/June 2018 Variant 2 ----------------463
May/June 2018 Variant 3 ----------------479
October/November 2018 Variant 1 ----------------495
October/November 2018 Variant 2 ----------------511
October/November 2018 Variant 3 ----------------527
February/March 2017 Variant 2 ----------------543
May/June 2017 Variant 1 ----------------559
May/June 2017 Variant 2 ----------------579
May/June 2017 Variant 3 ----------------599
October/November 2017 Variant 1 ----------------619
October/November 2017 Variant 2 ----------------639
October/November 2017 Variant 3 ----------------659
February/March 2016 Variant 2 ----------------679
May/June 2016 Variant 1 ----------------699
May/June 2016 Variant 2 ----------------719
May/June 2016 Variant 3 ----------------735
October/November 2016 Variant 1 ----------------755
October/November 2016 Variant 2 ----------------771
October/November 2016 Variant 3 ----------------787
For Examination from 2016 ------------------------------807
Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS0625/02
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) For examination from 2023
SPECIMEN PAPER 45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*0123456789*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
● There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
● For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
● Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
● Write in soft pencil.
● Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
● Do not use correction fluid.
● Do not write on any bar codes.
● You may use a calculator.
● Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 9.8 N (acceleration of free fall = 9.8 m / s2).

INFORMATION
● The total mark for this paper is 40.
● Each correct answer will score one mark.
● Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 14 pages.

© UCLES 2020 [Turn over

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1 A length of string is measured between two points on a ruler.

string

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16
cm

When the length of string is wound closely around a pen, it goes round six times.

six turns of string


pen

What is the distance once round the pen?

A 2.2 cm B 2.6 cm C 13.2 cm D 15.6 cm

2 When does an object falling vertically through the air reach terminal velocity?

A when the acceleration of the object becomes negative

B when the acceleration of the object is equal to g

C when the air resistance equals the weight of the object

D when the air resistance is greater than the weight of the object

3 An athlete runs a 100 m race in a straight line. The table shows how his speed changes with time
for the first 5.0 s of the race.

speed m / s 0 1.7 4.1 5.7 6.5 6.8


time / s 0 1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0 5.0

What is the average acceleration of the athlete between time 2.0 s and time 3.0 s?

A 1.6 m / s2 B 1.9 m / s2 C 4.9 m / s2 D 5.7 m / s2

4 The gravitational field strength on the Moon is 1.6 N / kg.

An astronaut has a mass of 75 kg.

What is the weight of the astronaut on the Moon?

A 47 N B 75 N C 120 N D 740 N

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5 Two objects P and Q are placed in a beaker containing a liquid.

Object P floats in the liquid and object Q sinks.

Which row for the densities of object P, object Q and the liquid is possible?

density of object P density of object Q density of liquid


g / cm3 g / cm3 g / cm3
A 1.2 0.6 0.8
B 1.2 1.4 1.0
C 11.3 8.9 13.6
D 11.3 19.3 13.6

6 A ball of mass 0.12 kg is hit by a tennis player.

The velocity of the ball changes from 0 m / s to 5.0 m / s in 0.60 s.

What is the average resultant force acting on the ball while it is being hit?

A 1.0 N B 2.5 N C 3.6 N D 8.3 N

7 A balloon and a mass are attached to a rod that is pivoted at a fixed point P.

balloon

45 40 35 30 25 20 15 10 5
P
cm
mass

The balloon is filled with helium, which is a gas that is less dense than air.

The balloon filled with helium applies an upward force on the rod.

The rod is horizontal and in equilibrium.

Which action causes the rod to rotate clockwise?

A moving the balloon to the 40 cm mark and the mass to the 30 cm mark

B moving the balloon to the 20 cm mark and the mass to the 10 cm mark

C moving the balloon to the 25 cm mark and the mass to the 25 cm mark

D moving the balloon to the 20 cm mark and the mass to the 30 cm mark

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8 A hole is made in a square tile of uniform thickness. The diagram shows the tile hanging loosely
on a nail.

Where is the centre of gravity of the tile?

A
nail through hole

tile
D

B
C

9 An object of mass 0.16 kg is moving forwards at a speed of 0.50 m / s.

A second object of mass 0.10 kg is at rest.

The first object strikes the second object.

After the collision, the second object moves forwards at a speed of 0.50 m / s.

What is the speed of the first object after the collision?

A 0.0 m / s B 0.19 m / s C 0.31 m / s D 0.50 m / s

10 A ball is at rest at the top of a hill.

The ball rolls down the hill.

At the bottom of the hill the ball hits a wall and stops.

Which energy changes occur?

A gravitational potential energy → internal energy → kinetic energy

B gravitational potential energy → kinetic energy → internal energy

C kinetic energy → gravitational potential energy → internal energy

D kinetic energy → internal energy → gravitational potential energy

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11 A man climbs a ladder.

Which quantities can be used to calculate the useful power of the man?

A the weight of the man and the time taken only

B the weight of the man and the vertical distance moved only

C the work done by the man and the time taken only

D the work done by the man and the vertical distance moved only

12 A student uses her thumb to push a drawing pin (thumb tack) into a notice board.

The pin goes into the board but does not penetrate her thumb.

Which statement explains this?

A The force exerted by the pin on her thumb is greater than the force exerted by the pin on the
notice board.

B The force exerted by the pin on the notice board is greater than the force exerted by the pin
on her thumb.

C The pressure of the pin on her thumb is greater than the pressure of the pin on the notice
board.

D The pressure of the pin on the notice board is greater than the pressure of the pin on her
thumb.

13 A submarine is a boat that can travel below the surface of the sea.

A submarine is 20 m below the surface of the sea. The pressure due to the sea water at this
depth is P.

On another day, the submarine is 26 m below the surface of fresh water.

The density of sea water is 1.3 times the density of fresh water.

What is the pressure due to the fresh water at a depth of 26 m?

P
A B P C 1.3 P D 1.7 P
1.3

14 When particles of a gas collide with a wall of a container, the wall experiences a pressure.

What is the cause of this pressure?

A the change in energy of the particles

B the change in momentum of the particles

C the change in power of the particles

D the change in speed of the particles

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15 A substance can exist in three different states: solid, liquid or gas.

Each of the two statements below describes a change of state.

change 1: Particles move much closer together but continue to travel throughout the substance.

change 2: Particles stop travelling throughout the substance and just vibrate about fixed positions.

Which changes of state do these statements describe?

change 1 change 2
A condensation melting
B condensation solidification
C solidification condensation
D solidification melting

16 Copper is a type of metal.

A block of copper has a mass of 2.0 kg.

The block of copper absorbs 12 000 J of thermal energy.

The specific heat capacity of copper is 385 J / (kg °C).

What is the temperature rise of the copper?

A 15.6 °C B 31.2 °C C 46.8 °C D 62.4 °C

17 The diagram shows the gap between a hot surface and a cold surface. The gap can contain air
(gas), iron (solid), a vacuum or water (liquid).

cold

gap

hot

Which material in the gap allows the quickest transfer of thermal energy between the surfaces by
conduction?

A air (gas)
B iron (solid)
C vacuum

D water (liquid)

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18 Which row about boiling and about evaporation is correct?

boiling evaporation
A takes place only at the surface takes place only at the surface
B takes place only at the surface takes place throughout the liquid
C takes place throughout the liquid takes place only at the surface
D takes place throughout the liquid takes place throughout the liquid

19 Light travels at a speed of 2.0 × 108 m / s in a glass block.

In the glass, the wavelength of the light is 4.0 × 10–7 m.

What is the frequency of the light?

A 2.0 × 10–15 Hz
B 1.3 × 10–2 Hz

C 80 Hz

D 5.0 × 1014 Hz

20 In a shallow tank, a water wave moves through a barrier with a narrow gap. The diagram shows
the waves on the left-hand side and the right-hand side of the barrier.

water
wave

Which term describes the effect shown?

A reflection

B dispersion

C refraction

D diffraction

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21 Which statement describes monochromatic light?

A light that never diffracts

B light that has a single frequency

C light that spreads out when shone through a glass prism

D light that travels at the same speed in all materials

22 An object is placed 8.0 cm from a thin converging lens of focal length 5.0 cm.

converging lens
object
F

5.0 cm
8.0 cm

Which statement about the image formed by the lens is correct?

A The image is real and inverted.


B The image is real and upright.
C The image is virtual and inverted.

D The image is virtual and upright.

23 A ray of light travels through transparent plastic to air.

transparent plastic air NOT TO


SCALE

The ray of light enters the air travelling parallel to the surface of the plastic.

The refractive index of the plastic is 1.25.

What is angle θ ?

A 37° B 39° C 51° D 53°

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24 What is the speed of electromagnetic waves in a vacuum?

A 3.0 × 104 cm / s
B 3.0 × 105 km / s

C 3.0 × 106 cm / s

D 3.0 × 1011 km / s

25 A pulse of sound is produced at the bottom of a boat. The sound travels through the water and is
reflected from the sea bed. The sound reaches the boat again after 1.3 s. The sea bed is 1000 m
below the boat.

boat

1000 m
sea bed

Using this information, what is the speed of sound in the water?

A 770 m / s B 1300 m / s C 1500 m / s D 2600 m / s

26 A sheet of ice floats on water. A source of sound S is positioned at the edge of the ice sheet.

Four microphones are placed equal distances from S.

Which microphone detects the sound from S first?

air

B
D S

ice
water

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27 The diagram shows a bar magnet and four plotting compasses.

Which compass correctly shows the direction of the magnetic field due to the magnet?

D S N B

28 A plastic rod is rubbed with a cloth. The rod becomes positively charged.

What happens to the plastic rod and what is the charge on the cloth?

plastic rod charge on cloth


A gains electrons negative
B gains electrons positive
C loses electrons negative
D loses electrons positive

29 The electromotive force (e.m.f.) of a mobile phone battery is 3.7 V.

What does this mean?

A 3.7 J is the maximum energy the battery can provide in 1.0 s.


B 3.7 J is the total energy the battery can provide before it has to be recharged.
C 3.7 J of energy is provided by the battery to drive a charge of 1.0 C around a complete circuit.
D 3.7 J of energy is provided by the battery to drive a current of 1.0 A around a complete circuit.

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30 A computer engineer wants the speed of a fan to increase when the temperature inside a computer
increases. The engineer knows that a larger current causes the fan to turn more quickly.

fan motor
power M
supply

X computer

Which component should be placed at X to make this happen?

A a relay

B a thermistor

C a transformer

D a variable resistor

31 A water heater is connected to a 230 V supply and there is a current of 26 A in the heater.

It takes 20 minutes to heat the water to the required temperature.

How much energy is supplied by the heater?

A 6.0 × 103 J
B 1.0 × 104 J

C 1.2 × 105 J

D 7.2 × 106 J

32 An electric kettle has a metal casing. The cable for the kettle contains a wire that is connected to
the earth pin of the plug.

Which danger does this guard against?

A the cable to the kettle becoming too hot

B the casing of the kettle becoming live

C the casing of the kettle becoming wet on the outside

D the casing of the kettle overheating

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33 An electric current can produce a heating effect and a magnetic effect.

Which row shows the effect that a relay uses and one application of a relay?

effect used by a relay one application of a relay


A heating effect allowing a small current to switch on a large current
B heating effect changing the voltage of an a.c. supply
C magnetic effect allowing a small current to switch on a large current
D magnetic effect changing the voltage of an a.c. supply

34 The diagram shows a bar magnet and a coil of wire. The bar magnet is moved at the same speed
in each experiment.

In which situation is the largest electromotive force (e.m.f.) induced?

A B
moves right stationary moves left stationary

bar magnet coil bar magnet coil

C D
moves left at same moves left at same
moves right speed as bar magnet moves left speed as bar magnet

bar magnet coil bar magnet coil

35 Increasing the transmission voltage in transmission cables reduces power losses.

What is the explanation for this reduction?

A The current decreases, reducing thermal energy losses.


B The current increases, increasing the flow of charge.
C The resistance of the cable increases, reducing the current.
D The resistance of the cable decreases.

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36 There is an electric current in a straight wire in the direction into the page. This produces a
magnetic field around the wire.

All the field lines are circles but only one field line is shown.

magnetic field line

wire with current


into the page

Which row describes the magnetic field?

direction of the field lines spacing of the field lines


A anti-clockwise equally spaced over the whole field
B anti-clockwise more widely spaced further from the wire
C clockwise equally spaced over the whole field
D clockwise more widely spaced further from the wire

37 The diagram shows emissions from a source passing into the electric field between two charged
plates.

+ + + + + + + + + +

source

– – – – – – – – – –

What is emitted by this source?

A neutrons and γ-rays only

B α-particles and β-particles only

C α-particles and γ-rays only

D β-particles and γ-rays only

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38 Which row in the table describes the process of nuclear fusion and identifies the change in
total mass of the particles involved?

process change in total mass of the particles


A a large nucleus splits into two smaller nuclei decreases
B a large nucleus splits into two smaller nuclei increases
C two small nuclei combine to form a larger nucleus decreases
D two small nuclei combine to form a larger nucleus increases

39 The orbit of the Moon around the Earth is modelled as a circular path of radius 3.8 × 105 km.

The orbital period is 29.5 days (710 hours).

What is the orbital speed of the Moon?

A 5.4 × 102 km / h
B 1.1 × 103 km / h

C 1.7 × 103 km / h

D 3.4 × 103 km / h

40 Which statement does not describe redshift?

A All the light emitted from all distant galaxies is at the red end of the spectrum.

B The light arriving at the Earth from a receding star is always redshifted.

C During redshift, the wavelength of the observed light is longer than it is if the redshift had not
occurred.

D The light from stars in all distant galaxies is moved towards the red end of the spectrum.

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) February/March 2021
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*3645684800*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.
 Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages.

IB21 03_0625_22/3RP
© UCLES 2021 [Turn over

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1 A student has a measuring cylinder containing water and also has a balance.

Which of these could she use to find the volume of a small metal sphere?

She has no other apparatus.

A either the measuring cylinder containing water or the balance


B the measuring cylinder containing water only
C the balance only
D neither the measuring cylinder nor the balance

2 A ball hits a bat with a velocity of 30 m / s, and leaves the bat travelling with a velocity of 20 m / s in
the opposite direction. The ball is in contact with the bat for 0.10 s.

What is the magnitude of the acceleration of the ball whilst it is in contact with the bat?

A 1.0 m / s2 B 5.0 m / s2 C 100 m / s2 D 500 m / s2

3 A train begins a journey from a station and travels 60 km in a time of 20 minutes.

What is the average speed of the train?

A 3.0 m / s B 5.0 m / s C 50 m / s D 60 m / s

4 Which statement about mass is correct?

A A mass of 10 kg weighs 1 N near the Earth’s surface.


B Mass is a gravitational force.
C Mass increases when the gravitational field strength increases.
D The greater the mass of a body, the more it resists a change in its motion.

5 A small bottle has a mass of 20 g when empty. The volume of the bottle is 10 cm3.

When full of liquid, the total mass is 150 g.

What is the density of the liquid?

A 0.50 g / cm3 B 2.0 g / cm3 C 13 g / cm3 D 15 g / cm3

6 An object of mass 0.80 kg is moving in a straight line at a velocity of 2.0 m / s. A force is exerted
on the object, in the direction of motion, for a period of 1.0 minute and the velocity of the object
increases to 6.0 m / s.

What force is exerted on the object?

A 0.053 N B 0.080 N C 3.2 N D 4.8 N

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7 An object moves at constant speed in the circular path shown.

P
Z X

Which statement about the acceleration of the object when it is at point P is correct?

A The acceleration is in the direction of arrow X.


B The acceleration is in the direction of arrow Y.
C The acceleration is in the direction of arrow Z.
D The object is not accelerating.

8 An object is pivoted at point P. A student ties a length of string to a peg on the object. He pulls
the string with a force F.

string

s t
peg
r
q P

object

What is the moment of the force F about the point P?

A Fq B Fr C Fs D Ft

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9 A gas molecule strikes the wall of a container. The molecule rebounds with the same speed.

wall wall
gas molecule gas molecule

before hitting the wall after hitting the wall

What happens to the kinetic energy and what happens to the momentum of the molecule?

kinetic energy momentum

A changes changes
B changes stays the same
C stays the same changes
D stays the same stays the same

10 A horizontal force pulls a box along a horizontal surface.

The box gains 30 J of kinetic energy and 10 J of thermal energy is produced by the friction
between the box and the surface.

How much work is done by the force?

A 10 J B 20 J C 30 J D 40 J

11 A crane is used to lift loads vertically.

The output power of the crane to lift a car is P.

The crane then lifts a lorry, which has 3.0 times the weight of the car, through 0.25 of the distance
in 0.50 of the time.

What is the output power of the crane now?

A 3P B 3P C 8P D 6P
8 2 3

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12 The diagram shows a manometer connected to a gas supply.

mm
500

from 400
gas supply

300

200

100

mercury
0

What is the pressure of the gas supply?

A 100 mm Hg above atmospheric pressure


B 100 mm Hg below atmospheric pressure
C 200 mm Hg above atmospheric pressure
D 200 mm Hg below atmospheric pressure

13 The diagram shows a box of dimensions 6.0 cm  8.0 cm  4.0 cm.

6.0 cm

X
Z
4.0 cm Y 8.0 cm

The box rests on a flat horizontal surface.

On which face must the box rest in order to exert the least pressure?

A face X
B face Y
C face Z
D The pressure is the same for all the faces.

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14 Air in a sealed syringe is slowly compressed by moving the piston. The temperature of the air
stays the same.

air

syringe piston

Which statement about the air is correct?

A The pressure of the air decreases because its molecules now travel more slowly.
B The pressure of the air decreases because the area of the syringe walls is now smaller.
C The pressure of the air increases because its molecules now hit the syringe walls more
frequently.
D The pressure of the air increases because its molecules now travel more quickly.

15 In an experiment, smoke particles are suspended in air and viewed through a microscope.

The smoke particles move about with short random movements.

Which of the following statements is correct?

A Air particles have large masses compared to smoke particles and they move in one direction
only.
B Air particles have large masses compared to smoke particles and they move in random
directions.
C Air particles move at high speeds compared to smoke particles and they move in one
direction only.
D Air particles move at high speeds compared to smoke particles and they move in random
directions.

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16 The graph shows how the internal energy of 1.0 kg of a metal changes with temperature.

835

830
internal
energy 825
/ kJ
820

815

810

805

800

795
0 20 40 60 80 100
temperature / °C

What is the increase in the internal energy of a block of the same metal of mass 0.25 kg when its
temperature rises from 40 C to 50 C?

A 30 J B 300 J C 750 J D 1200 J

17 A piece of melting ice at 0 C and a beaker of boiling water are both in a laboratory. The
laboratory is at 20 C.

boiling water

Bunsen burner
melting ice heating water

What is happening to the temperature of the melting ice and what is happening to the
temperature of the boiling water?

temperature of temperature of
melting ice boiling water

A constant constant
B constant increasing
C increasing constant
D increasing increasing

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18 One end of a copper rod is heated.

What is one method by which thermal energy is transferred in the copper rod?

A Free electrons transfer energy from the cooler end to the hotter end.
B Free electrons transfer energy from the hotter end to the cooler end.
C Molecules of copper move from the cooler end to the hotter end.
D Molecules of copper move from the hotter end to the cooler end.

19 Which change will cause a decrease in the rate of radiation emitted by an object?

A changing the surface colour from white to black


B changing the surface texture from dull to shiny
C increasing the surface temperature
D increasing the surface area

20 What is the approximate wavelength in air of the highest frequency sound that can be heard by a
normal healthy person?

A 0.02 m B 60 m C 20 000 m D 7 000 000 m

21 What causes the change in direction when light travels from air into glass?

A The amplitude of the light changes.


B The colour of the light changes.
C The frequency of the light changes.
D The speed of the light changes.

22 Light from a torch is incident on a plane mirror. The angle of incidence is 38.

What is the angle of reflection?

A 38 B 52 C 76 D 142

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23 Two rays with an angle of incidence of 60 pass into dilute and concentrated sugar-water
solutions. The refractions are shown.

60 60
air air
dilute concentrated
sugar sugar
40 35
solution solution

Which row is correct?

refractive index speed through solution


as concentration increases as concentration increases

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

24 A thin converging lens is used to produce a sharp image of a candle.

screen
image

lens

candle

Various sharp images are produced on the screen by moving the lens and the screen backwards
and forwards.

Which statement is always correct?

A The image is at the principal focus (focal point) of the lens.


B The image is bigger than the object.
C The image is closer to the lens than the object.
D The image is inverted.

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25 Which row gives the approximate speeds at which ultraviolet waves travel in air and in a
vacuum?

speed in air speed in a vacuum


m/s m/s

A 340 3.0  108


B 340 340
C 3.0  108 340
D 3.0  108 3.0  108

26 The diagram represents a sound wave.

X Y

What are the names of the parts of the sound wave labelled X and Y?

X Y

A amplitude wavelength
B compression rarefaction
C rarefaction amplitude
D wavelength compression

27 The speed of sound is different in different states of matter.

The speed of sound in liquid water is 1500 m / s.

Which row correctly compares the speed of sound in ice and the speed of sound in water vapour
with the speed of sound in water?

speed of sound in ice speed of sound in steam


m/s m/s

A less than 1500 less than 1500


B less than 1500 more than 1500
C more than 1500 less than 1500
D more than 1500 more than 1500

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28 Three methods to demagnetise a magnet are suggested. The magnet is in an east-west direction.

1 hitting the magnet repeatedly with a hammer


2 heating the magnet until red hot
3 withdrawing the magnet from a coil which has a direct current (d.c.) in it

Which methods demagnetise the magnet?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

29 Three cores of different metals P, Q and R are placed inside identical coils of wire.

At least one of the metals is non-magnetic.

The cores are held above some iron nails.

The three diagrams show what happens when there is a current in the coils.

coil
+ + +

– – –
core
P Q R

iron
nails

The three diagrams below show what happens when the current is then switched off.

+ + +

– – –

P Q R

Which core metals are magnetic?

A P only B R only C P and Q D Q and R

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30 Two uncharged metal spheres X and Y rest on insulating stands and touch each other. A
negatively charged plastic rod is brought near to sphere X.

metal spheres

negatively –

charged rod –
– X Y

insulating stand insulating stand

Using the insulating stand, sphere Y is moved away from sphere X.

What are the signs and the relative magnitudes of the charges induced on X and Y?

relative magnitudes
charge on X charge on Y
of charges

A negative negative equal


B negative positive different
C positive negative equal
D positive positive different

31 Which two changes to a metal wire both decrease its resistance?

cross-sectional
length of wire
area of wire

A decrease decrease
B decrease increase
C increase decrease
D increase increase

32 There is a current I in a resistor of resistance R for a time t. The potential difference across the
resistor is V.

Which equation gives the energy E transferred by the resistor?

A E = IR B E = IV C E = IRt D E = IVt

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33 A resistor R is connected in parallel with an 8.0  resistor. The resistance of this combination
is 4.0 .

8.0 Ω

What is the resistance of resistor R?

A 0.50  B 2.0  C 4.0  D 8.0 

34 A student designs a circuit to use as a dimmer switch for a lamp.

What happens to the brightness of the lamp and the potential difference (p.d.) across the lamp,
when the slider is moved from X to Y?

brightness of lamp p.d. across the lamp

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

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35 The circuit shown contains two gates.

Which truth table describes the operation of the circuit?

A B C D
P Q R P Q R P Q R P Q R

0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 1
0 1 1 0 1 0 0 1 0 0 1 0
1 0 1 1 0 1 1 0 0 1 0 1
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 1

36 The diagram shows an electromagnet near a coil of wire connected to a voltmeter. The reading
on the voltmeter is zero.

electromagnet coil

soft iron

switch

V
+ –

The switch is closed. The electromagnet magnetises quickly.

What happens to the reading on the voltmeter?

A It keeps increasing.
B It quickly increases and stays at maximum.
C It quickly increases and then decreases.
D It stays on zero.

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37 Which graph shows the voltage output of an a.c. generator with the peaks and zeros correctly
labelled?

A B
peaks peaks
voltage V voltage V

0 0
0 time t 0 time t
zeros zeros

C D
peaks peaks
voltage V voltage V
zeros

0 0
0 time t 0 time t

zeros peaks

38 Three students are describing the structure of an atom.

student 1 All the positively charged particles are in the nucleus.


student 2 Positive electrons are in the nucleus.
student 3 Negative electrons orbit around the nucleus.

Which students are making a correct statement?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

39 When alpha particles are incident on a thin metal foil, most of them pass through undeviated.

What does this observation reveal about the nature of the atom?

A The atom has a dense nucleus.


B The atom is mostly empty space.
C The atom is very small.
D The nucleus of the atom is positively charged.

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40 A laboratory worker measures the count rate from a radioactive source. He records his results in
a table.

time count rate


minutes counts / s

0 100
1.0 73
2.0 54
3.0 41
4.0 31

The average background radiation in the laboratory is 8 counts per second.

What is the half-life of the source?

A 1.5 minutes
B 2.0 minutes
C 3.0 minutes
D 4.0 minutes

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/21
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2021
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*6763850843*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.
 Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages.

IB21 06_0625_21/3RP
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1 The diagram shows a stone of irregular shape.

Which property of the stone can be found by lowering it into a measuring cylinder half-filled with
water?

A length
B mass
C volume
D weight

2 Which row describes speed and velocity?

speed velocity

A scalar scalar
B scalar vector
C vector scalar
D vector vector

3 Four balls with different masses are dropped from the heights shown.

Air resistance may be ignored.

Which ball has the smallest average speed?

A B C D
1.0 kg

2.0 kg

3.0 kg
4.0 m
4.0 kg
3.0 m
2.0 m
1.0 m ground

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4 An object of mass 2.0 kg is taken from the Earth, where the gravitational field strength is 10 N / kg,
to the Moon, where the gravitational field strength is 1.6 N / kg.

Which row is correct?

weight on weight on
the Earth / N the Moon / N

A 0.20 0.80
B 0.20 3.2
C 20 0.80
D 20 3.2

5 The mass of an empty flask is 34 g.

The volume of liquid added to the flask is 20 cm3.

The total mass of the flask and the liquid is 50 g.

What is the density of the liquid?

A 0.80 g / cm3 B 1.25 g / cm3 C 2.50 g / cm3 D 4.20 g / cm3

6 The extension–load graph for a spring is shown. The unstretched length of the spring is 17.0 cm.

3
extension / cm

0
0 1 2 3 4
load / N

When an object is suspended from the spring, the length of the spring is 19.2 cm.

What is the weight of the object?

A 1.4 N B 1.6 N C 2.6 N D 3.0 N

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7 A cart has a mass of 10 kg. A boy pushes on the cart horizontally with a force of 50 N. The cart
accelerates at 0.50 m / s2.

What is the frictional force acting on the cart?

A 5.0 N B 20 N C 30 N D 45 N

8 A ball has a mass of 2.0 kg. The ball approaches a wall at a speed of 3.0 m / s and rebounds at a
speed of 1.0 m / s.

wall
3.0 m / s

1.0 m / s

What is the impulse on the wall?

A 4.0 N B 4.0 N s C 8.0 N D 8.0 N s

9 Which situation involves no work being done and no energy being transferred?

A a car skidding to a stop on a road


B a crane lifting a load
C a heavy load hanging from a strong bar
D a student dragging a big box over a rough floor

10 A student suggests that there are several ways of transferring energy to a small, stationary block
of iron on a smooth table. He makes the following suggestions.

1 Heat it.
2 Shine light on it.
3 Pass a current through it.

Which suggestions are correct?

A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

11 An engine produces 240 kJ of energy in 2.0 minutes.

What is the power output of the engine?

A 2.0 kW B 120 kW C 480 kW D 28 800 kW

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12 A book has a mass of 400 g.

The surface of the book in contact with a table has dimensions 0.10 m  0.20 m.

The gravitational field strength g is 10 N / kg.

What is the pressure exerted on the table due to the book?

A 0.08 N / m2 B 8.0 N / m2 C 20 N / m2 D 200 N / m2

13 The diagram shows a mercury barometer.

At which point is the pressure greater than atmospheric pressure?

mercury

14 The table gives information about molecules.

Which row describes a gas?

force distance
between molecules between molecules

A strong close together


B strong far apart
C negligible far apart
D negligible close together

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15 Very small pollen grains are suspended in water. A bright light shines from the side.

When looked at through a microscope, small specks of light are seen to be moving in a random,
jerky manner.

eye

microscope

bright light

pollen grains
in water

What are the moving specks of light?

A pollen grains being hit by other pollen grains


B pollen grains being hit by water molecules
C water molecules being hit by other water molecules
D water molecules being hit by pollen grains

16 Why are small gaps left between the metal rails of a railway track?

A to allow for expansion of the rails on a hot day


B to allow for contraction of the rails on a hot day
C to allow for expansion of the rails on a cold day
D to allow for contraction of the rails on a cold day

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17 A block of metal absorbs 2000 J of thermal energy.

The temperature of the block rises from 10 C to 20 C.

The mass of the block is 2.0 kg.

What is the specific heat capacity of the metal?

A 50 J / (kg C) B 100 J / (kg C) C 200 J / (kg C) D 400 J / (kg C)

18 Which statement about boiling and evaporation is correct?

A Boiling requires a supply of thermal energy but evaporation does not.


B Evaporation takes place at the surface of a liquid but boiling takes place throughout the
liquid.
C When water boils in a kettle, its temperature decreases.
D When water evaporates, its temperature increases.

19 A metal rod is heated at end X.

X Y

heat

Why does end Y of the metal rod become hot?

A Energy is transferred from end X of the rod to end Y by vibration of positive ions and by
movement of electrons.
B Energy is transferred from end X of the rod to end Y by movement of positive ions only.
C Energy is transferred from end X of the rod to end Y by vibration of positive ions only.
D Energy is transferred from end X of the rod to end Y by movement of electrons only.

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20 Two square sheets of metal, P and Q, are heated to the same temperature. The metal sheets are
shown.

P Q

20 cm

40 cm

Sheet Q is emitting more radiation than sheet P.

Which statement explains this?

A Dull black surfaces are better conductors of radiation.


B Dull black surfaces are better emitters of radiation.
C The surface area of Q is larger than that of P.
D White surfaces are better absorbers of radiation.

21 A water wave passes into a region where the wave travels more slowly.

As it passes into the slow region, what happens to the frequency and what happens to the
wavelength of the wave?

frequency wavelength

A decreases remains the same


B increases remains the same
C remains the same decreases
D remains the same increases

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22 Light travelling at a speed of 3.0  108 m / s strikes the surface of a glass block and undergoes
refraction as it enters the block.

The diagram shows a ray of this light before and after it enters the block.

55q

glass block

33q

What is the speed of light in the glass?

A 1.8  108 m / s

B 2.0  108 m / s

C 4.5  108 m / s

D 5.0  108 m / s

23 The diagram shows a narrow beam of light incident on a glass-air boundary. Some of the light
emerges along the surface of the glass and some is reflected back into the glass.

T
glass
air

Which row is correct?

this is an example of angle  is the


total internal reflection critical angle

A no yes
B no no
C yes no
D yes yes

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24 An object is placed in front of a thin converging lens.

The diagram shows the paths of two rays from the top of the object.

converging lens

object

An image of the object is formed on a screen to the right of the lens.

How does this image compare with the object?

A It is larger and inverted.


B It is larger and the same way up.
C It is smaller and inverted.
D It is smaller and the same way up.

25 A remote-controlled vehicle is travelling on the surface of a planet. The vehicle senses an


obstacle ahead. It sends a radio message to the control room from where it is being controlled.
The control room is 2.4  106 km away from the vehicle. The control room sends a message back
to the vehicle telling it to stop.

What is the minimum time that elapses between the vehicle sensing the obstacle and receiving
the message back from the control room?

A 8.0 ms B 16 ms C 8.0 s D 16 s

26 A sound wave is travelling outwards from a loudspeaker into the surrounding air.

Here are three statements.

1 The air pressure is lower at a rarefaction compared with undisturbed air.


2 The density of the air is less at a compression compared with undisturbed air.
3 The distance from a compression to a rarefaction equals half a wavelength.

Which statements about the sound wave are correct?

A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

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27 The sound from a loudspeaker must pass through two materials to reach a microphone.

loudspeaker microphone

material 1 material 2

Which combination of materials gives the shortest time for the sound to reach the microphone?

material 1 material 2

A air hydrogen
B air water
C copper aluminium
D water oil

28 Diagram 1 shows a small compass needle with its poles marked. It is not near any magnetic
materials.

Diagram 2 shows a bar magnet with its poles marked. The compass needle is placed at point P.

diagram 1 diagram 2
N
N S
S

In which direction will the N pole of the compass needle point?

A to the left
B to the right
C down the page
D up the page

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29 A student rubs a plastic rod with a cloth.

The rod becomes positively charged.

What has happened to the rod?

A It has gained electrons.


B It has gained protons.
C It has lost electrons.
D It has lost protons.

30 An isolated metal sphere is positively charged.

It is then brought near to another isolated metal sphere that is neutral.

left right
+ +
+ + +
+
+ + +
positively charged + + + neutral
metal sphere metal sphere

What happens to the charges on the neutral sphere as the positively charged sphere is brought
close to it?

A Some positive charges move to the left and some negative charges move to the right.
B Some positive charges move to the right and some negative charges move to the left.
C Some positive charges move to the right, but the negative charges do not move.
D The positive charges do not move, but some negative charges move to the left.

31 Which statement about the resistance of a metal wire is correct?

A The resistance is directly proportional to its length and directly proportional to its
cross-sectional area.
B The resistance is directly proportional to its length and inversely proportional to its
cross-sectional area.
C The resistance is inversely proportional to its length and directly proportional to its
cross-sectional area.
D The resistance is inversely proportional to its length and inversely proportional to its
cross-sectional area.

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32 The circuit diagram shows a light-dependent resistor (LDR) in a potential divider.

A voltmeter is connected across the LDR.

Which row shows the resistance of the LDR and the potential difference (p.d.) shown on the
voltmeter at a specific light level?

resistance p.d. shown on


light level
of LDR the voltmeter

A bright low high


B bright high low
C dim high high
D dim low low

33 Three NAND gates are connected in a single chip as shown.

input 1

output

input 2

The whole chip behaves as a single logic gate.

Which type of logic gate does the chip act as?

A AND gate
B NAND gate
C NOR gate
D OR gate

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34 A solenoid is connected to a very sensitive ammeter. A rod is inserted into one end of the
solenoid. The ammeter shows that there is a small electric current in the solenoid while the rod is
moving.

solenoid
rod

Which rod is being inserted?

A a heated copper rod


B a magnetised steel rod
C an uncharged nylon rod
D a radioactive uranium rod

35 The diagram shows an electric generator with the coil in a vertical position.

magnetic poles

coil

N S

to oscilloscope
slip rings

brushes

Which row describes the generator?

the generator the voltage output


produces will be zero when

A a.c. the coil is horizontal


B a.c. the coil is vertical
C d.c. the coil is horizontal
D d.c. the coil is vertical

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36 The diagram shows a transformer. There are 460 turns on the primary coil and 24 turns on the
secondary coil. The primary voltage is 230 V.

iron core

primary coil secondary coil

What is the secondary voltage?

A 2.0 V B 12 V C 48 V D 4400 V

37 The charge on a proton is e.

What is the charge on an electron and what is the charge on a neutron?

electron neutron

A e e
B e 0
C –e –e
D –e 0

38 Four students are asked to comment on the processes of nuclear fission and nuclear fusion.

Their comments are recorded in the table.

Which row is correct?

fission fusion

A energy is absorbed a large unstable nucleus splits


B a large unstable nucleus splits energy is absorbed
C two light nuclei join energy is absorbed
D energy is released two light nuclei join

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219
39 Radon 86Rn decays by emitting an -particle.

Which nuclide is formed in this decay?

215 223 219 219


A 84Po B 88Ra C 87Fr D 85 At

40 The graph shows the activity of a radioactive source over a period of time.

120
activity
counts / s 90

60

30

0
0 1 2 3 4 5
time / minutes

What is the half-life of the source?

A 1.0 minute B 2.0 minutes C 2.5 minutes D 4.0 minutes

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2021 0625/21/M/J/21


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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2021
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*2416172797*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.
 Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages.

IB21 06_0625_22/5RP
© UCLES 2021 [Turn over

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1 Which piece of apparatus is the most suitable for measuring the mass of a pencil sharpener?

A digital balance
B measuring cylinder
C newton meter
D ruler

2 Four balls with different masses are dropped from the heights shown.

Air resistance may be ignored.

Which ball has the smallest average speed?

A B C D
1.0 kg

2.0 kg

3.0 kg
4.0 m
4.0 kg
3.0 m
2.0 m
1.0 m ground

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3 A ball is thrown vertically upwards through the air. Air resistance acts on the ball.

Which graph shows how its speed varies with time?

A B

speed speed

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

speed speed

0 0
0 time 0 time

4 What is the best description of the meaning of the ‘mass’ of an object?

A the space occupied by the object


B the force that gravity exerts on the object
C the resistance of the object to changes in motion
D the closeness of packing of the molecules in the object

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5 A measuring cylinder contains 40 cm3 of water.

A stone of mass 94 g is lowered into the water so that it is fully submerged as shown.

cm3
100
90
80
70
90
60
50
80
40
30 70
20
10

What is the density of the stone?

A 1.1 g / cm3 B 1.2 g / cm3 C 2.1 g / cm3 D 2.6 g / cm3

6 The extension–load graph for a spring is shown. The unstretched length of the spring is 17.0 cm.

3
extension / cm

0
0 1 2 3 4
load / N

When an object is suspended from the spring, the length of the spring is 19.2 cm.

What is the weight of the object?

A 1.4 N B 1.6 N C 2.6 N D 3.0 N

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7 A satellite orbits the Earth in an anticlockwise direction at constant speed, as shown.

When the satellite is in the position shown, in which direction does the resultant force act upon it?

direction of motion
of satellite

Earth D B

satellite
C

8 A tennis ball has a mass of 57 g.

A tennis player hits the tennis ball with a tennis racket. The tennis ball has a velocity of 25 m / s
when it hits the racket.

The velocity of the tennis ball when it leaves the player’s racket is 15 m / s in the opposite direction
from its approaching direction.

The average force exerted by the tennis racket on the ball is 35 N.

For how long is the tennis ball in contact with the tennis racket?

A 0.015 s B 0.016 s C 0.065 s D 0.65 s

9 This question is about four methods used to produce electrical energy.

Which method has a correct description?

energy source emits


method
is renewable carbon dioxide

A a hydroelectric power station yes no


B a coal-fired power station no no
C a wind turbine no yes
D a nuclear power station yes yes

10 A stone is released from rest from a high building on Earth. Air resistance is negligible.

What is its velocity when it has fallen 5 m?

A 7.1 m / s B 10 m / s C 50 m / s D 100 m / s

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11 The power input to an electric motor is 400 W. The efficiency of the motor is 85%.

How much power is wasted?

A 60 W B 85 W C 340 W D 470 W

12 A book has a mass of 400 g.

The surface of the book in contact with a table has dimensions 0.10 m  0.20 m.

The gravitational field strength g is 10 N / kg.

What is the pressure exerted on the table due to the book?

A 0.08 N / m2 B 8.0 N / m2 C 20 N / m2 D 200 N / m2

13 A horizontal metal plate of area 0.50 m2 lies at the bottom of a lake at a depth of 40 m.

The density of water is 1000 kg / m3 and the gravitational field strength g is 10 N / kg.

What is the downward force acting on the plate due to the water?

A 20 kN B 80 kN C 200 kN D 800 kN

14 Which row describes the forces between the molecules and the motion of the molecules in a
gas?

forces between motion


molecules of molecules

A strong move freely


B strong vibrate only
C weak move freely
D weak vibrate only

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15 Very small pollen grains are suspended in water. A bright light shines from the side.

When looked at through a microscope, small specks of light are seen to be moving in a random,
jerky manner.

eye

microscope

bright light

pollen grains
in water

What are the moving specks of light?

A pollen grains being hit by other pollen grains


B pollen grains being hit by water molecules
C water molecules being hit by other water molecules
D water molecules being hit by pollen grains

16 A hole is drilled in a metal plate.

What happens to the length of the plate and to the diameter of the hole when the plate is cooled?

length of plate diameter of hole

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

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17 Which statement describes a sensitive liquid-in-glass thermometer?

A a thermometer which can be used to measure very high and very low values of temperature
B a thermometer which gives the same increase in length of the liquid column for each degree
of temperature rise
C a thermometer which is accurate because it has been calibrated
D a thermometer which gives a large increase in the length of the liquid column for each
degree of temperature rise

18 A block of aluminium of mass 2.0 kg has an initial temperature of 20 C. It absorbs 7300 J of
thermal energy.

The specific heat capacity of aluminium is 913 J / (kg C).

What is the final temperature of the aluminium block?

A 4.0 C B 8.0 C C 24 C D 28 C

19 A student sets up four cans. Each can contains the same mass of water at 90 C.

The cans are identical except for the outside surfaces.

Which can will cool down the fastest?

A dull, black surface


B dull, white surface
C shiny, black surface
D shiny, white surface

20 Thermal energy is transferred by conduction in a metal bar.

Which statement is not correct?

A Fast vibrating ions leave the surface.


B Free moving electrons carry thermal energy through the bar.
C Ions vibrate and strike neighbouring ions to make them vibrate.
D Ions vibrate but do not change position.

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21 A water wave passes into a region where the wave travels more slowly.

As it passes into the slow region, what happens to the frequency and what happens to the
wavelength of the wave?

frequency wavelength

A decreases remains the same


B increases remains the same
C remains the same decreases
D remains the same increases

22 Light travelling at a speed of 3.0  108 m / s strikes the surface of a glass block and undergoes
refraction as it enters the block.

The diagram shows a ray of this light before and after it enters the block.

55q

glass block

33q

What is the speed of light in the glass?

A 1.8  108 m / s

B 2.0  108 m / s

C 4.5  108 m / s

D 5.0  108 m / s

23 Which statement about the image of an object formed in a plane mirror is correct?

A It is smaller than the object.


B It is the same size as the object.
C It is larger than the object.
D It is inverted.

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24 An object is placed in front of a thin converging lens.

The diagram shows the paths of two rays from the top of the object.

converging lens

object

An image of the object is formed on a screen to the right of the lens.

How does this image compare with the object?

A It is larger and inverted.


B It is larger and the same way up.
C It is smaller and inverted.
D It is smaller and the same way up.

25 Here are three statements about the speed of electromagnetic waves.

1 The speed of an electromagnetic wave in a vacuum is 340 m / s.

2 The speed of an electromagnetic wave in a vacuum is 3.0  108 m / s.


3 The speed of an electromagnetic wave in a vacuum is approximately the same as in
air.

Which statements are correct?

A 1 and 3 B 1 only C 2 and 3 D 2 only

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26 The sound from a loudspeaker must pass through two materials to reach a microphone.

loudspeaker microphone

material 1 material 2

Which combination of materials gives the shortest time for the sound to reach the microphone?

material 1 material 2

A air hydrogen
B air water
C copper aluminium
D water oil

27 Which method does not demagnetise a bar magnet?

A Heat the bar magnet and place it in the east-west direction to cool.
B Place the bar magnet in the east-west direction and hammer it.
C Place the bar magnet in a coil connected to an a.c. supply and slowly withdraw it.
D Place the bar magnet in a coil connected to a d.c. supply and slowly withdraw it.

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28 Three piles of small nails, P, Q and R, are placed on a bench below three electromagnets.

One set of nails is made of copper, one of soft iron and one of steel.

Diagram 1 shows the situation when the electromagnets are switched on.

Diagram 2 shows the situation when the electromagnets are then switched off.

diagram 1
the switches are closed

Q R
P bench
small nails

diagram 2
the switches are open

small nails R
bench
P Q

Which row correctly identifies the materials from which the nails are made?

copper soft iron steel

A P Q R
B P R Q
C Q P R
D Q R P

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29 A magnet is suspended by a cotton thread.

The magnet is displaced then allowed to swing freely until it comes to rest.

Why does the magnet always come to rest pointing in the same direction?

A because of the interaction between the electric field of the magnet and the electric field of the
Earth
B because of the interaction between the electric field of the magnet and the magnetic field of
the Earth
C because of the interaction between the magnetic field of the magnet and the gravitational
field of the Earth
D because of the interaction between the magnetic field of the magnet and the magnetic field of
the Earth

30 A student rubs a plastic rod with a cloth.

The rod becomes positively charged.

What has happened to the rod?

A It has gained electrons.


B It has gained protons.
C It has lost electrons.
D It has lost protons.

31 An isolated metal sphere is positively charged.

It is then brought near to another isolated metal sphere that is neutral.

left right
+ +
+ + +
+
+ + +
positively charged + + + neutral
metal sphere metal sphere

What happens to the charges on the neutral sphere as the positively charged sphere is brought
close to it?

A Some positive charges move to the left and some negative charges move to the right.
B Some positive charges move to the right and some negative charges move to the left.
C Some positive charges move to the right, but the negative charges do not move.
D The positive charges do not move, but some negative charges move to the left.

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32 Which circuit has a zero reading on the ammeter?

A B

A A

C D

A A

33 Two 10  resistors are connected in series and then in parallel.

What is the combined resistance in each case?

resistance in resistance in
series /  parallel / 

A 10 5
B 10 10
C 20 5
D 20 10

34 The diagram shows a combination of four logic gates that produce an output signal at R that
depends on the states of the inputs P and Q.

Which single logic gate produces the same effect as the combination?

A AND B NAND C NOR D OR

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35 A solenoid is connected to a very sensitive ammeter. A rod is inserted into one end of the
solenoid. The ammeter shows that there is a small electric current in the solenoid while the rod is
moving.

solenoid
rod

Which rod is being inserted?

A a heated copper rod


B a magnetised steel rod
C an uncharged nylon rod
D a radioactive uranium rod

36 The diagram shows a transformer.

iron core
550 turns 115 turns

output
22 000 V
voltage

What is the output voltage?

A 0.35 V B 2.9 V C 4600 V D 105 000 V

37 Which row correctly states how nuclei behave during nuclear fission and during nuclear fusion?

fission fusion

A nuclei join together nuclei join together


B nuclei join together nuclei split apart
C nuclei split apart nuclei join together
D nuclei split apart nuclei split apart

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38 The charge on a proton is e.

What is the charge on an electron and what is the charge on a neutron?

electron neutron

A e e
B e 0
C –e –e
D –e 0

39 Some radioactive nuclei decay to give new nuclei which are also radioactive. Part of a series of
decays is shown.

238 234 234 234 230 226


92U  90 Th  91Pa  92U  90 Th  88Ra

How many decays involve the emission of a -particle?

A 1 B 2 C 3 D 5

40 The graph shows the activity of a radioactive source over a period of time.

120
activity
counts / s 90

60

30

0
0 1 2 3 4 5
time / minutes

What is the half-life of the source?

A 1.0 minute B 2.0 minutes C 2.5 minutes D 4.0 minutes

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/23
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2021
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*5137607052*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.
 Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB21 06_0625_23/3RP
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1 The diagram shows a plastic rod alongside a ruler.

plastic rod

0 cm 10 20

What is the length of the rod?

A 2.5 cm B 3.5 cm C 7.0 cm D 9.0 cm

2 Four balls with different masses are dropped from the heights shown.

Air resistance may be ignored.

Which ball has the smallest average speed?

A B C D
1.0 kg

2.0 kg

3.0 kg
4.0 m
4.0 kg
3.0 m
2.0 m
1.0 m ground

3 A cyclist rides 300 m up a slope in 50 s.

She then rides down the slope in 25 s.

What is her average speed for the whole journey?

A 4.0 m / s B 8.0 m / s C 9.0 m / s D 16 m / s

4 An object is on the surface of the Earth.

Which statement describes the weight of the object?

A the quantity of material that the object contains


B the quantity of space that the object takes up
C the gravitational force acting on the object
D the object’s resistance to a change in its motion

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5 The tank shown has the dimensions 5.0 m  4.0 m  4.0 m.

It is completely filled with water of density 1000 kg / m3.

5.0 m

4.0 m 4.0 m

What is the mass of water in the tank?

A 12.5 kg B 62.5 kg C 16 000 kg D 80 000 kg

6 The extension–load graph for a spring is shown. The unstretched length of the spring is 17.0 cm.

3
extension / cm

0
0 1 2 3 4
load / N

When an object is suspended from the spring, the length of the spring is 19.2 cm.

What is the weight of the object?

A 1.4 N B 1.6 N C 2.6 N D 3.0 N

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7 A car of mass 1200 kg is travelling along a horizontal road.

direction of motion

total frictional force = 1000 N driving force = 4000 N

What is the acceleration of the car?

A 0.83 m / s2 B 1.2 m / s2 C 2.5 m / s2 D 3.3 m / s2

8 Object X moves to the right along a frictionless surface towards a stationary object Y, as shown.

direction
of travel

X Y

They make a noise as they collide and then both objects move to the right.

Which equation is correct?

A change in momentum of X = change in momentum of Y


B impulse of force acting on X = impulse of force acting on Y
C kinetic energy of X before collision = (kinetic energy of X + kinetic energy of Y) after collision
D momentum of X before collision = (momentum of X + momentum of Y) after collision

9 A stream flows out of a lake and down the side of a hill.

What best describes the change in energy stores?

A kinetic energy  chemical energy + internal energy

B gravitational potential energy  kinetic energy + internal energy

C gravitational potential energy + kinetic energy  internal energy

D kinetic energy  internal energy + gravitational potential energy

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10 The energy input to a device is E.

The amount of energy wasted by the device is W.

Which expression gives the efficiency of the device?

A W  E  100%
W

B W  100%
E

C E  W  100%
E

D E  W  100%
W

11 A builder lifts 30 bricks from the ground onto a platform 2.0 m high.

Each brick has a mass of 4.0 kg.

What is the work done against gravity by the builder in lifting the bricks onto the platform?

A 80 J B 120 J C 240 J D 2400 J

12 A book has a mass of 400 g.

The surface of the book in contact with a table has dimensions 0.10 m  0.20 m.

The gravitational field strength g is 10 N / kg.

What is the pressure exerted on the table due to the book?

A 0.08 N / m2 B 8.0 N / m2 C 20 N / m2 D 200 N / m2

13 The diagram shows a tank full of water.

The mass of water in the tank is m.

The density of the water is .

The height of water in the tank is h.

Which equation gives the pressure p due to the water at the bottom of the tank?

A p = h g B p = mgh C p = m g D p = m h

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14 A liquid at room temperature is put on a metal surface which is also at room temperature.

A student blows gently across the liquid and its temperature decreases.

What causes the liquid to become cooler?

A Bubbles of water vapour form in the liquid and go into the air.
B The moving air reduces the kinetic energy of all the particles in the liquid.
C Thermal energy flows from the liquid into the metal.
D The more energetic particles in the liquid escape into the air.

15 Very small pollen grains are suspended in water. A bright light shines from the side.

When looked at through a microscope, small specks of light are seen to be moving in a random,
jerky manner.

eye

microscope

bright light

pollen grains
in water

What are the moving specks of light?

A pollen grains being hit by other pollen grains


B pollen grains being hit by water molecules
C water molecules being hit by other water molecules
D water molecules being hit by pollen grains

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16 The liquid level in a thermometer rises when the thermometer is placed in hot water.

What causes this?

A The liquid contracts.


B The liquid evaporates.
C The liquid expands.
D The liquid freezes.

17 A student calculates the energy needed to raise the temperature of an aluminium block from
50 C to 60 C.

He then does an experiment to measure the energy used to do this.

Which statement about the measured energy is correct?

A The measured energy will be greater than the calculated energy because some energy is
transferred to the surroundings.
B The measured energy will be greater than the calculated energy because the block absorbs
energy from the surroundings.
C The measured energy will be less than the calculated energy because the mass of the block
decreases as it gets warmer.
D The measured energy will be less than the calculated energy because the thermal capacity
of the block is low.

18 Which row correctly describes a liquid that is boiling?

where it takes
bubbles seen
place in the liquid

A no surface only
B no throughout liquid
C yes surface only
D yes throughout liquid

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19 Three students are planning an experiment to test thermal conduction in different materials.

The students each propose a hypothesis.

1 I think the copper rod will be a good thermal conductor because it is a metal.
2 I think the glass rod will be a good thermal conductor because it has free electrons
which vibrate and transfer energy quickly.
3 I think the wooden rod will be a poor thermal conductor because it can only transfer
energy along the rod by vibrating the lattice particles.

Which of their hypotheses are correct?

A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

20 A copper plate is shiny on one side and is painted dull black on the other side. The plate is
heated to a high temperature. A person places his hands at equal distances from either side of
the plate, close to the plate, but not touching it.

shiny dull black

very hot copper plate

Why does the hand near the dull black surface of the plate feel much hotter than the hand near
the shiny surface?

A The dull black surface is a better emitter of radiation than the shiny surface.
B The dull black surface is a better conductor of radiation than the shiny surface.
C The dull black surface is a better reflector of radiation than the shiny surface.
D The dull black surface is at a higher temperature than the shiny surface.

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21 A water wave passes into a region where the wave travels more slowly.

As it passes into the slow region, what happens to the frequency and what happens to the
wavelength of the wave?

frequency wavelength

A decreases remains the same


B increases remains the same
C remains the same decreases
D remains the same increases

22 Light travelling at a speed of 3.0  108 m / s strikes the surface of a glass block and undergoes
refraction as it enters the block.

The diagram shows a ray of this light before and after it enters the block.

55

glass block

33

What is the speed of light in the glass?

A 1.8  108 m / s

B 2.0  108 m / s

C 4.5  108 m / s

D 5.0  108 m / s

23 A beam of light is monochromatic.

What does monochromatic mean?

A All the waves in the beam must have the same frequency only.
B All the waves in the beam must have the same amplitude only.
C All the waves in the beam must have the same speed only.
D All the waves in the beam must have the same amplitude, frequency and speed.

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24 An object is placed in front of a thin converging lens.

The diagram shows the paths of two rays from the top of the object.

converging lens

object

An image of the object is formed on a screen to the right of the lens.

How does this image compare with the object?

A It is larger and inverted.


B It is larger and the same way up.
C It is smaller and inverted.
D It is smaller and the same way up.

25 Which row correctly describes what happens to the frequency and to the speed of
electromagnetic waves as we move through the spectrum from -rays to radio waves?

frequency speed in a vacuum

A decreases increases
B decreases remains the same
C increases decreases
D increases remains the same

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26 The diagram shows a model of a sound wave passing through air in an open tube.

Q air particle

What is the region Q?

A a compression which is a region of high pressure


B a compression which is a region of low pressure
C a rarefaction which is a region of high pressure
D a rarefaction which is a region of low pressure

27 The sound from a loudspeaker must pass through two materials to reach a microphone.

loudspeaker microphone

material 1 material 2

Which combination of materials gives the shortest time for the sound to reach the microphone?

material 1 material 2

A air hydrogen
B air water
C copper aluminium
D water oil

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28 A bar magnet picks up two steel bolts.

Which diagram shows the magnetic poles induced in the bolts?

A B

N S N S
S S

N N
N S

S N

C D

N S N S
N N

S S
S N

N S

29 A student rubs a plastic rod with a cloth.

The rod becomes positively charged.

What has happened to the rod?

A It has gained electrons.


B It has gained protons.
C It has lost electrons.
D It has lost protons.

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30 An isolated metal sphere is positively charged.

It is then brought near to another isolated metal sphere that is neutral.

left right
+ +
+ + +
+
+ + +
positively charged + + + neutral
metal sphere metal sphere

What happens to the charges on the neutral sphere as the positively charged sphere is brought
close to it?

A Some positive charges move to the left and some negative charges move to the right.
B Some positive charges move to the right and some negative charges move to the left.
C Some positive charges move to the right, but the negative charges do not move.
D The positive charges do not move, but some negative charges move to the left.

31 The diagram shows a circuit containing a cell, two resistors, a switch and a voltmeter.

When the switch is open the voltmeter reads 1.5 V.

When the switch is closed the voltmeter reads 2.0 V.

What is the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of the cell?

A 0.5 V B 1.5 V C 2.0 V D 3.5 V

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32 A 4.0  resistor and a 12  resistor are connected in parallel.

4.0 Ω

12 Ω

What is the effective resistance of this combination of resistors?

A 0.33  B 3.0  C 8.0  D 16 

33 Which combination of two gates will result in the truth table shown?

P Q R

0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 1

A B

P P
R R
Q Q

C D

P P
R R
Q Q

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34 A solenoid is connected to a very sensitive ammeter. A rod is inserted into one end of the
solenoid. The ammeter shows that there is a small electric current in the solenoid while the rod is
moving.

solenoid
rod

Which rod is being inserted?

A a heated copper rod


B a magnetised steel rod
C an uncharged nylon rod
D a radioactive uranium rod

35 A 12 V, 36 W lamp shines at normal brightness when connected to a mains transformer.

Assume the transformer is 100% efficient.

1200 turns
iron core

240 V 12 V
a.c. mains 36 W

secondary coil

Which row shows the number of turns in the secondary coil and the current in the mains wires?

number of turns current in the


in secondary coil mains wire / A

A 60 0.15
B 60 3.0
C 180 0.15
D 180 3.0

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36 Diagram 1 shows a wire carrying an electric current into the page.

The wire is between the poles of a magnet.

A force is produced on the wire acting down towards the bottom of the page.

Diagram 2 shows the situation after the current is reversed and the magnet is turned through 90.

diagram 1 diagram 2

N S S

direction
of force
N

In which direction does the force act after these changes?

A towards the top of the page


B towards the bottom of the page
C towards the left-hand side of the page
D towards the right-hand side of the page

37 The charge on a proton is e.

What is the charge on an electron and what is the charge on a neutron?

electron neutron

A e e
B e 0
C –e –e
D –e 0

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38 The diagram shows -particles incident on a thin metal foil.

thin metal foil

How does the motion of these particles give evidence for the nuclear atom?

A Most particles passing through with minimal deflection shows that the atom is mostly empty
space.
B Most particles passing through with minimal deflection shows that the mass of the atom is
uniformly distributed.
C Large deflections of some particles shows that the atom is mostly empty space.
D Large deflections of some particles shows that the charge in the atom is uniformly
distributed.

226
39 Radium-226, 88Ra , is an -emitter.

It is implanted inside cancerous tumours.

It is safe to use as it kills the cancerous cells, but not the healthy ones surrounding the tumour.

Which properties of -particles, compared to other emissions, enable this use of radium-226?

ionising effect penetration


of -particles of -particles

A high high
B high low
C low high
D low low

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40 The graph shows the activity of a radioactive source over a period of time.

120
activity
counts / s 90

60

30

0
0 1 2 3 4 5
time / minutes

What is the half-life of the source?

A 1.0 minute B 2.0 minutes C 2.5 minutes D 4.0 minutes

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 1524/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2021
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*9535955370*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
• There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
• For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Write in soft pencil.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
• Do not use correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
• Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 40.
• Each correct answer will score one mark.
• Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB21 06_1524_22/RP
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1 A micrometer screw gauge is used to determine the radius of a copper wire.

The reading on the screw gauge when measuring the diameter of the wire is 3.12 mm.

The reading on the screw gauge with no wire (zero error) is 0.04 mm.

What is the radius of the wire?

A 1.52 mm B 1.54 mm C 1.56 mm D 1.58 mm

2 An aeroplane flies from town X to town Z, stopping for 1 hour at town Y to pick up more
passengers. The distances between the towns are shown.

300 km 200 km Z

The total time taken between leaving X and arriving at Z is 3 hours.

What is the average speed of the aeroplane in the air?

A 500 km / h B 500 km / h C 500 km / h D 500 km / h


4 3 2 1

3 The graph shows how the speed of an object varies with time.

At which labelled time is the object decelerating?

speed

0
0 A B C D
time

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4 Two objects, X and Y, are suspended from identical springs. The extension in both springs is the
same.

X Y

What does this show about the masses and about the weights of objects X and Y?

masses weights

A mass of X is equal to mass of Y weight of X is equal to weight of Y


B mass of X is equal to mass of Y weight of X is less than weight of Y
C mass of X is greater than mass of Y weight of X is greater than weight of Y
D mass of X is greater than mass of Y weight of X is equal to weight of Y

5 Three students are asked what they understand by the term mass.

Their answers are listed.

1 Mass is the property of an object that resists a change in motion.


2 Mass is the quantity of matter an object contains.
3 Mass is the effect of a gravitational field on an object.

Which students are correct?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

6 The mass and volume of four different materials, A, B, C and D, are measured.

Water has a density of 1000 kg / m3.

Which material will float in water?

mass / kg volume / m3

A 452 0.04
B 2340 0.30
C 90 0.03
D 320 0.40

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7 A satellite orbits the Earth above the atmosphere at a constant speed.

The diagram shows the satellite at one point in its circular orbit around the Earth.

Which labelled arrow shows the direction of the resultant force on the satellite at the position
shown?

direction
of orbit

D B
Earth
satellite
C

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8 The diagram shows a tower crane lifting a crate. The crate begins at X. The counterweight can be
moved between points P and Q to keep the crane balanced.

pivot
Q

counterweight

crate

Y X

The crate is slowly moved from position X to position Y.

The table describes the effect that the movement has on the:

● clockwise moment about the pivot created by the crate


● direction the counterweight moves to keep the crane balanced.

Which row is correct?

moment counterweight

A increases moves towards P


B increases moves towards Q
C decreases moves towards P
D decreases moves towards Q

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9 A car travels forwards along a straight horizontal road. Only the horizontal forces acting on the
car are shown.

air resistance
and friction
driving force

The length of each arrow represents the size of each force.

Which statement describes the effect of these forces on the motion of the car?

A The car moves at constant speed.


B The car starts to move backwards.
C The car slows down.
D The car’s forward speed increases.

10 An object of mass 2.5 kg is acted upon by a force of 8.0 N. The object has an initial speed of
3.0 m / s and, after time t, the speed of the object has increased to 7.0 m / s.

For which time t does the force act?

A 0.32 s B 0.80 s C 1.3 s D 3.1 s

11 Two railway wagons are on the same straight horizontal track. One wagon is moving with initial
velocity u and the other wagon is stationary.

The moving wagon collides with the stationary wagon.

The two wagons connect to each other and move with a velocity of 5.80 m / s.

before after

5.80 m / s
u stationary

mass = 8000 kg mass = 12 000 kg

What is the initial velocity u of the moving wagon before they collide?

A 3.87 m / s B 8.70 m / s C 9.67 m / s D 14.5 m / s

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12 A dog of mass 9.6 kg is running across a field. The kinetic energy of the dog is 9.4 J.

What is the speed of the dog?

A 0.70 m / s B 0.98 m / s C 1.4 m / s D 2.0 m / s

13 A man pushes a heavy crate along a horizontal surface.

Which row shows the measurements he makes to calculate his average power?

distance size of time weight of


moved pushing force taken the crate

A     key
B      = needed
C      = not needed
D    

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14 The diagram shows a simple mercury barometer used to measure atmospheric pressure.

P
level L

mercury

Atmospheric pressure decreases.

Which row states what happens to the pressure at point P and what happens to the level L of
mercury?

pressure at P level L

A decreases falls
B decreases rises
C stays the same falls
D stays the same rises

15 The diagrams show two identical containers filled to the same height with liquids of relatively high
and low density.

Points A and C are at the same small distance below the surfaces of the liquids.

Points B and D are at the same small distance above the bases of the containers.

Which point has the highest pressure?

A C

B D

liquid of high density liquid of low density

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16 A student writes four statements about evaporation from a liquid.

1 Evaporation happens at any temperature.


2 Evaporation happens at one fixed temperature only.
3 Evaporation happens at the surface of the liquid only.
4 Evaporation happens throughout the liquid.

Which statements are correct?

A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

17 A diver uses breathing apparatus under water at a depth where the pressure is 1.25 × 105 Pa.

A bubble of gas breathed out by the diver has a volume of 20 cm3 when it is released. The bubble
moves upwards to the surface of the water.

At the surface of the water, the atmospheric pressure is 1.00 × 105 Pa.

The temperature of the water is the same at all depths.

What is the volume of this bubble when it reaches the surface of the water?

A 15 cm3 B 16 cm3 C 20 cm3 D 25 cm3

18 The diagram shows a metal bridge. The ends of the bridge are fixed to the sides of a valley. The
air temperature is much less at night than it is during the day.

The solid line shows the bridge during the coldest part of the night.

Which dashed line shows the bridge at the hottest part of the day?

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10

19 Which statement describes the thermal capacity of a mass of water at 20 °C?

A the energy needed to evaporate all of the water

B the energy needed to raise the temperature of the water from 0 °C to 20 °C

C the energy needed to raise the temperature of the water from 20 °C to 21 °C


D the energy needed to raise the temperature of the water to its boiling point

20 A chef tests different types of saucepans. She wants the material that is the best conductor for
the bottom of the pan and the best insulator for the handle.

Which materials should she use?

bottom of
handle
the pan

A metal metal
B metal wood
C plastic wood
D wood wood

21 The diagrams show two water waves, P and Q, that are travelling at the same speed on the
surface of a pond. The diagrams are drawn to the same scale.

Which wave has the greater amplitude and which wave has the greater frequency?

greater amplitude greater frequency

A P P
B P Q
C Q P
D Q Q

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11

22 The wavefronts in the diagram spread out after passing through a gap in a barrier. This is an
example of diffraction.

barrier

wavefronts direction of
travel of wave

Which change will increase the spreading out of the wavefronts?

A Reduce the size of the gap and keep the wavelength the same.
B Increase the size of the gap and keep the wavelength the same.
C Keep the size of the gap the same and reduce the wavelength.
D Keep the size of the gap the same and increase the frequency.

23 A prism is made from transparent plastic. In this plastic, light travels at 0.80 c, where c is the
speed of light in air. Light enters one face of the prism at right angles, as shown.

NOT TO
SCALE

The light just escapes from the sloping face of the prism.

What is angle θ ?

A 37° B 40° C 50° D 53°

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12

24 The diagram shows the formation of an image by a thin converging lens.

F F image
object

Which description of the image is correct?

A diminished and upright


B diminished and inverted
C enlarged and upright
D enlarged and inverted

25 A ray of monochromatic light is incident on a glass prism.

ray of
monochromatic
light
prism

What is monochromatic light and which ray diagram shows this ray as it passes through the prism
and emerges from the opposite side?

red

spectrum

X Y violet

meaning of
correct diagram
monochromatic light

A multicoloured light X
B multicoloured light Y
C light of a single frequency X
D light of a single frequency Y

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13

26 In which way does ultrasound differ from audible sound?

A Ultrasound can travel through a vacuum.


B Ultrasound has a longer wavelength.
C Ultrasound has a higher frequency.
D Ultrasound travels at the speed of light.

27 The diagram shows a permanent bar magnet. A student draws arrows to show the direction of
the magnetic field at four points.

Which arrow correctly shows the direction of the magnetic field at that position?

D B
N S

28 A negatively charged insulating rod P is suspended from an insulating thread.

A second insulating rod Q is brought close to rod P.

Rod P swings towards rod Q.

What can be deduced from this experiment?

A Rod Q is either negatively charged or is uncharged.


B Rod Q is either positively charged or is uncharged.
C Rod Q is negatively charged.
D Rod Q is positively charged.

29 A piece of wire is 40 cm long and has a diameter of 2.0 mm.

The resistance of the piece of wire is 0.30 Ω.

Which wire of the same material has a resistance of 0.15 Ω?

length / cm diameter / mm

A 20 1.0
B 20 4.0
C 80 1.0
D 80 4.0

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30 A resistor transfers 240 J of energy when a charge of 60 C flows through it in 15 s.

What is the potential difference (p.d.) across the resistor and what is the current in the resistor?

p.d. / V current / A

A 0.25 0.25
B 0.25 4.0
C 4.0 0.25
D 4.0 4.0

31 Three resistors are connected in series with a cell. The values of the resistances are 1.0 Ω, 2.0 Ω
and 3.0 Ω.

Which statement is correct?

A The current in each resistor is different and the potential difference across each resistor is
different.
B The current in each resistor is the same and the potential difference across each resistor is
different.
C The potential difference across each resistor is the same and the current in each resistor is
different.
D The potential difference across the cell is greater than the sum of the potential differences
across each resistor.

32 The diagram shows two resistors connected in a circuit.

6.0 :

12 :

What is the combined resistance of the resistors in this circuit?

A 4.0 Ω B 6.0 Ω C 9.0 Ω D 18 Ω

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15

33 Which logic gate has the truth table shown?

input output

0 0 1
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0

A B C D

34 A student holds a bar magnet next to a coil of wire connected to a galvanometer.

N S

What will cause a reading on the galvanometer?

A holding the magnet stationary inside the coil


B holding the magnet stationary with the S pole next to the coil
C moving both the magnet and the coil to the right at the same speed
D moving the magnet and the coil towards each other at the same speed

35 High voltages are used to transmit electricity over large distances.

Which row states the effect on the current and explains why this is a benefit?

effect on current explanation

A current increases decreases thermal energy losses


B current increases decreases sparking across insulators that support the cables
C current decreases decreases thermal energy losses
D current decreases decreases sparking across insulators that support the cables

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16

36 The diagram shows a d.c. motor.

direction
of current

X Y

N S
LEFT RIGHT

W Z

split-ring
commutator metal or graphite
brush contact

In which direction will side WX of the coil move?

A towards the bottom of the page


B to the left
C to the right
D towards the top of the page

37 The diagram shows α-particles being scattered by a very thin metal foil.

foil

D
Q

R P

P, Q and R represent three directions in which α-particles are scattered. The number of
α-particles scattered in each direction is NP, NQ and NR.

Which sequence correctly shows the number of α-particles from lowest to highest being scattered
in each direction?

A NP, NQ, NR
B NP, NR, NQ
C NQ, NR, NP
D NR, NP, NQ

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38 Which statement about different isotopes of a certain element must be correct?

A They have a different number of electrons.


B They have the same number of neutrons.
C They have the same number of nucleons.
D They have the same number of protons.

39 Ba-137 is a radioactive isotope of barium.

When a nucleus of this isotope decays, there is no change in its composition.

Which type of radiation is emitted?

A α-particles

B β-particles

C γ-rays
D neutrons

40 A detector is placed near a sample of a radioactive isotope of polonium to monitor the activity of
the sample.

The graph shows how the activity measured by the detector varies with time. It includes the
activity due to background radiation, which is 40 counts / s.

600
count rate
counts / s 500

400

300

200

100

0
0 2 4 6 8 10
time / minutes

What is the half-life of this isotope of polonium?

A 2.2 minutes
B 2.4 minutes
C 3.2 minutes
D 5.0 minutes

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/21
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2021
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*2413099302*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.
 Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages.

IB21 11_0625_21/2RP
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2

1 Which instrument is most suitable for measuring the thickness of a single sheet of paper?

A 15 cm rule
B balance
C metre rule
D micrometer screw gauge

2 The diagrams show distance–time graphs for four objects.

Which graph represents an object moving with an increasing speed?

A B

distance distance

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

distance distance

0 0
0 time 0 time

3 An object has a weight of 6.4 N on the Earth where the gravitational field strength is 10 N / kg.

Which row states the mass and the weight of the object on the Moon where the gravitational field
strength is 1.6 N / kg?

weight on
mass / kg
the Moon / N

A 0.64 1.0
B 0.64 6.4
C 4.0 1.0
D 4.0 6.4

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4 Which substance in the table has the lowest density?

substance mass / g volume / cm3

A nylon 1.2 1.0


B cotton 1.5 1.0
C olive oil 1.8 2.0
D water 2.0 2.0

5 A 20 m long, uniform bridge of weight 100 kN is supported at each end by pillars, as shown.

T1 T2
20 m

bridge

pillar 24 kN pillar

100 kN

The pillars exert forces T1 and T2 on the ends of the bridge.

What are the values of T1 and T2 when a van of weight 24 kN is on the bridge, 5 m from the
left-hand pillar?

T1 / kN T2 / kN

A 56 68
B 62 62
C 68 56
D 74 50

6 A spring, which obeys Hooke’s law, has an unstretched length of 10 cm.

A load of 20 N is suspended from the spring.

The new length of the spring is 36 cm.

What is the spring constant k of the spring?

A 0.56 N / cm B 0.77 N / cm C 1.3 N / cm D 1.8 N / cm

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7 What is the relationship between the impulse acting on an object and the change in momentum of
the object?

A impulse = change in momentum

B impulse = change in momentum  time

change in momentum
C impulse =
time

change in momentum
D impulse =
mass

8 Electrical energy may be obtained from nuclear fission.

In which order is the energy transferred in this process?

A nuclear fuel  generator  reactor and boiler  turbines

B nuclear fuel  generator  turbines  reactor and boiler

C nuclear fuel  reactor and boiler  generator  turbines

D nuclear fuel  reactor and boiler  turbines  generator

9 A motor of power P exerts a force F on an object. The object moves a distance d during the time t
that the force acts.

Which equation is used to calculate the time t ?

A t= F B t = Fd C t = Pd D t= P
Pd P F Fd

10 A scientist uses an electric motor to lift a load through a vertical distance of 2.0 m.

He then increases the input power to the motor and repeats the experiment. The efficiency of the
motor does not change.

Which row correctly describes the effect that this has on the useful work done lifting the load and
the time taken to lift it?

work done time taken

A decreases decreases
B stays the same decreases
C decreases stays the same
D stays the same stays the same

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11 Four containers are filled to the top with the same liquid. The base of each container is circular.

Which container has the greatest pressure exerted by the liquid at its base?

A B C D

12 A liquid is evaporating. The liquid is not boiling.

Which statement about the liquid is correct at an instant in time?

A Any molecule can escape, and from any part of the liquid.
B Any molecule can escape, but only from the liquid’s surface.
C Only molecules with enough energy can escape, and only from the liquid’s surface.
D Only molecules with enough energy can escape, but from any part of the liquid.

13 The diagram shows two cylinders connected by a narrow tube fitted with a tap.

tap
80 cm3 20 cm3

One cylinder contains 80 cm3 of gas at a pressure of 2.0  105 Pa. The other cylinder contains a
vacuum.

The volume of the evacuated cylinder is 20 cm3. The tap is opened so that the gas can flow to fill
both cylinders.

The temperature of the gas remains constant.

What is the new pressure of the gas?

A 0.50  105 Pa

B 1.6  105 Pa

C 2.5  105 Pa

D 8.0  105 Pa

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14 An aluminium block has a mass of 200 g.

The specific heat capacity of aluminium is 900 J / (kg C).

How much energy is needed to increase the temperature of the block from 20 C to 110 C?

A 2.0 J B 2000 J C 16 200 J D 16 200 000 J

15 The diagram shows a liquid-in-glass thermometer.

liquid capillary tube

bulb scale

Which change to the design would result in a more sensitive thermometer?

A Increase the density of the liquid.


B Increase the diameter of the capillary tube.
C Increase the number of scale markings.
D Increase the volume of the bulb.

16 The diagram shows a pan used for cooking food.

handle of pan

base of pan

Which row is correct for the materials used to make the base and the handle of the pan?

base of pan handle of pan

A good thermal conductor good thermal conductor


B good thermal conductor poor thermal conductor
C poor thermal conductor good thermal conductor
D poor thermal conductor poor thermal conductor

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17 The diagram shows waves in a ripple tank containing water.

The waves approach a barrier and pass through the gap in the barrier.

The size of the gap is about the same size as the wavelength of the ripples.

The gap size is increased.

What happens to the ripple pattern to the right of the barrier?

A The ripples are closer together.


B The ripples are further apart.
C The ripples are more curved.
D The ripples are less curved.

18 The diagram shows a wave.

displacement 1

2 4 5 6
0
0 distance
3

Which row correctly indicates the amplitude and the wavelength of the wave?

amplitude wavelength

A the distance between 1 and 2 the distance between 4 and 5


B the distance between 1 and 2 the distance between 4 and 6
C the distance between 1 and 3 the distance between 4 and 5
D the distance between 1 and 3 the distance between 4 and 6

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19 Two beams of light are both the same colour of red. One beam is travelling through air. The other
beam is travelling through water. Each beam has a different brightness.

Which quantity is the same for both sets of waves?

A amplitude
B frequency
C speed
D wavelength

20 The diagram shows a ray of light in air incident on a glass block. Some of the light is refracted
and some of the light is reflected. Two angles, p and q, are marked on the diagram.

ray of
light
q
air p
glass

Which row gives the angle of incidence and states whether total internal reflection occurs?

angle of total internal


incidence reflection

A p no
B p yes
C q no
D q yes

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21 The diagram shows a ray of light in glass incident on the surface between the glass and air.

air
glass

What happens if the angle of incidence is made larger than the critical angle for the glass?

A The angle of refraction becomes equal to 90.


B There is a refracted ray and a ray reflected inside the glass.
C There is a refracted ray only.
D There is only a ray reflected inside the glass.

22 The Sun emits infrared radiation and light.

Light from the Sun reaches the Earth in 8 minutes.

Which row gives correct information about the infrared radiation?

wavelength of time taken for infrared


infrared radiation radiation to reach the Earth

A longer than wavelength of light 8 minutes


B longer than wavelength of light much less than 8 minutes
C shorter than wavelength of light 8 minutes
D shorter than wavelength of light much more than 8 minutes

23 Which list shows regions of the electromagnetic spectrum in order of increasing frequency?

A X-ray  ultraviolet  visible light  infrared

B X-ray  infrared  visible light  ultraviolet

C infrared  visible light  ultraviolet  X-ray

D ultraviolet  visible light  infrared  X-ray

24 What is ultrasound?

A sound waves that are so loud that they damage human hearing
B sound waves that are too high-pitched for humans to hear
C sound waves that are too low-pitched for humans to hear
D sound waves that are too quiet for humans to hear

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25 An uncharged, metal sphere is placed on an insulating support. A positively charged rod is


brought close to the sphere, but does not touch it.

+
+
+
+
+
+

How do the charges in the sphere move and what is now the charge on the sphere?

movement of charges charge on sphere


A negative charges move positive
to the right of the sphere
B negative charges move neutral
to the right of the sphere
C positive charges move positive
to the left of the sphere
D positive charges move neutral
to the left of the sphere

26 In which circuit is the ammeter measuring the flow of charge through the lamp?

A B C D

A A

27 A lamp is connected to a cell.

Which circuit diagram shows the direction of conventional current I and also the direction of flow
of electrons e?

A B C D
I e I e I e I e

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28 The diagram shows a circuit containing two resistors of resistance 1.0  and 2.0 .

A voltmeter is connected across the 1.0  resistor by connecting P to X.

The reading on the voltmeter is 6.0 V.

1.0 Ω X 2.0 Ω Y

P
V

P is moved to point Y in the circuit.

What is the new reading on the voltmeter?

A 3.0 V B 6.0 V C 12 V D 18 V

29 The graph shows the current–voltage relationship for a circuit component X.

current

0
0 voltage

What happens to the resistance of X and what happens to the temperature of X as the voltage
increases?

resistance temperature
of X of X

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

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30 The diagrams show pairs of circuits containing logic gates.

In which diagram does the lower circuit of the pair behave differently from the upper circuit?

A B

C D

31 In which circuit do both lamps light?

A B C D

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32 Two resistors, with resistances R1 and R2, are connected in parallel.

The resistance R1 is greater than the resistance R2.

R1

R2

What is the resistance of the parallel combination?

A less than either R1 or R2


B equal to R1
C equal to R2
D the average of R1 and R2

33 The metal cases of electrical appliances are connected to an earth wire.

Which statement is not correct?

A The live wire may become loose and touch the metal case.
B If the metal case becomes live, the earth wire conducts current to the ground.
C The earth wire needs to have a high resistance.
D Earthing metal cases helps prevent a person from receiving an electric shock.

34 What is the function of the split-ring commutator in an electric motor with a single rotating coil?

A to enable the motor to function with an a.c. source


B to reverse the current in the coil once every revolution
C to reverse the current in the coil whenever its plane becomes perpendicular to the magnetic
field
D to reverse the current in the coil whenever its plane is parallel with the magnetic field

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35 Which graph represents an alternating current (a.c.)?

A B
current current

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D
current current

0 0
0 time 0 time

36 The diagrams show a horizontal wire in a magnetic field.

The horizontal wire is firmly held at each end (not shown) and cannot move.

The magnets and holder are on a balance.

When there is no current in the wire, the reading on the balance is 0.35 g.

fixed horizontal wire

current direction
N S
balance
N S

0.35 g fixed horizontal wire

view from side view from above

There is a d.c. current in the wire, as shown.

What happens to the reading on the balance?

A smaller than 0.35 g


B no change
C changing from smaller to larger than 0.35 g repeatedly
D larger than 0.35 g

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37 The nucleus of an americium atom contains 146 neutrons and 95 protons. It decays by emitting
an -particle.

How many neutrons and how many protons remain in the nucleus when this form of americium
decays?

number of neutrons number of protons


remaining remaining

A 142 93
B 142 95
C 144 93
D 144 95

38 The graph shows how the count rate measured by a radioactivity detector placed near a
radioactive sample changed with time.

600

550
count rate
counts / min
500

450

400

350

300

250

200

150

100

50

0
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
time / h

Given that the background count rate is 30 counts / min, what is the half-life of this sample?

A 3.4 h B 3.6 h C 4.0 h D 5.5 h

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39 A teacher holds a radioactive source near a detector.

The reading on the detector is 320 counts / min.

The detector is switched on again after the source has been removed and it shows a reading of
20 counts / min.

What is the counts / min solely due to the source and why is there a reading on the detector when
there is no radioactive source present?

counts / min reason for reading


due to the source with no source

A 300 zero error on detector


B 300 background radiation
C 340 zero error on detector
D 340 background radiation

40 Which statement is not correct?

A -particles are used to detect cracks in metallic structures.

B -particles are used in the measurement of the thickness of paper.

C -rays may be used to treat cancer patients.

D Smoke alarms contain a weak source of -particles.

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2021 0625/21/O/N/21


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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2021
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*8748531517*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.
 Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB21 11_0625_22/2RP
© UCLES 2021 [Turn over

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1 A student is taking some measurements.

Which measurement is taken directly using a micrometer screw gauge?

A 0.52 g / mm2 B 0.52 g / mm3 C 0.52 mm D 0.52 mm2

2 Which graph represents an object that is moving at constant speed?

A B

distance distance

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

distance distance

0 0
0 time 0 time

3 In which situation does object X have a greater mass than object Y?

A Object X is in a larger gravitational field than object Y and both have the same weight.
B Object X shows a greater resistance to change in motion than object Y and both experience
the same resultant force.
C Object X has a lower density than object Y and both occupy the same volume.
D Object X moves at a greater speed than object Y and both possess the same kinetic energy.

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4 Which substance in the table has the lowest density?

substance mass / g volume / cm3

A nylon 1.2 1.0


B cotton 1.5 1.0
C olive oil 1.8 2.0
D water 2.0 2.0

5 Three simple machines are shown.

1 2 3

moving soil with cutting string screwing a screw


a wheelbarrow with scissors with a screwdriver

Which machines are an application of the moment of a force?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

6 A spring, which obeys Hooke’s law, has an unstretched length of 10 cm.

A load of 20 N is suspended from the spring.

The new length of the spring is 36 cm.

What is the spring constant k of the spring?

A 0.56 N / cm B 0.77 N / cm C 1.3 N / cm D 1.8 N / cm

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7 A rocket is launched upwards from the surface of the Moon.

Hot gases are ejected downwards over a very short period of time.

Which statement is not correct?

A The rocket experiences a downward force.


B The rocket experiences an upward force.
C The total momentum of the hot gases is equal to the momentum of the rocket.
D The total momentum of the hot gases and rocket when the hot gases have been ejected is
zero.

8 Electrical energy may be obtained from nuclear fission.

In which order is the energy transferred in this process?

A nuclear fuel  generator  reactor and boiler  turbines

B nuclear fuel  generator  turbines  reactor and boiler

C nuclear fuel  reactor and boiler  generator  turbines

D nuclear fuel  reactor and boiler  turbines  generator

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9 A box of mass m slides down a slope of length l against a frictional force F. It descends a vertical
height d.

direction
of motion
F

l
mass m

stop

As the box slides down the slope, it loses gravitational potential energy and it does work against
the friction.

Which row gives the loss in gravitational potential energy and the work done against friction?

loss in gravitational work done


potential energy against friction

A mgd Fl
B mgd Fd
C mgl Fl
D mgl Fd

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10 A rope, connected to a pulley system and motor, is used to lift different objects through different
distances. The time taken to lift each object is the same. The diagrams are not to scale.

Which motor requires the greatest power?

A B

platform platform
motor motor

2m 3m
10 kg 5 kg

C D

platform platform
motor motor

1m 3m
10 kg 2 kg

11 Which equation can be used to calculate the pressure at a depth h beneath the surface of a
liquid?
h
A p= h B p= C p = hg D p= 1
g g h g

12 A liquid is evaporating. The liquid is not boiling.

Which statement about the liquid is correct at an instant in time?

A Any molecule can escape, and from any part of the liquid.
B Any molecule can escape, but only from the liquid’s surface.
C Only molecules with enough energy can escape, and only from the liquid’s surface.
D Only molecules with enough energy can escape, but from any part of the liquid.

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13 A gas is contained in a sealed container in a laboratory. The temperature of the gas increases.

What happens to the average speed and what happens to the total kinetic energy of the gas
molecules?

average speed total kinetic energy

A does not change does not change


B does not change increases
C increases does not change
D increases increases

14 An aluminium block has a mass of 200 g.

The specific heat capacity of aluminium is 900 J / (kg C).

How much energy is needed to increase the temperature of the block from 20 C to 110 C?

A 2.0 J B 2000 J C 16 200 J D 16 200 000 J

15 The diagram shows the apparatus used to measure the specific latent heat of vaporisation of
water.

2 kW heater
water

After the water begins to boil, 110 g of water is converted to steam in 120 s.

Using these results, what is the value of the specific latent heat of vaporisation of water?

A 1.8 J / kg B 1800 J / kg C 2200 J / kg D 2 200 000 J / kg

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16 The diagram shows a pan used for cooking food.

handle of pan

base of pan

Which row is correct for the materials used to make the base and the handle of the pan?

base of pan handle of pan

A good thermal conductor good thermal conductor


B good thermal conductor poor thermal conductor
C poor thermal conductor good thermal conductor
D poor thermal conductor poor thermal conductor

17 The diagram shows the pattern of water waves as they pass through a narrow gap.

narrow gap
between two barriers

Which row names the process shown and describes the effect of using a wider gap?

name of process wider gap

A refraction waves spread out less


B refraction waves spread out more
C diffraction waves spread out less
D diffraction waves spread out more

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18 Which row is not correct for a wave on the surface of water?

quantity usual unit

A amplitude m
B frequency Hz
C wavelength 
D speed m/s

19 The diagram shows how a ray of light refracts when going from air to Perspex.

x
air w
Perspex y
z

The critical angle of Perspex is c.

Which expression is correct?

A sin x = sin c
sin z

B sin z = sin c
sin x

C sin w = sin c
sin y
sin y
D = sin c
sin w

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20 The diagram shows a ray of light in air incident on a glass block. Some of the light is refracted
and some of the light is reflected. Two angles, p and q, are marked on the diagram.

ray of
light
q
air p
glass

Which row gives the angle of incidence and states whether total internal reflection occurs?

angle of total internal


incidence reflection

A p no
B p yes
C q no
D q yes

21 The letter F is reflected in a mirror.

mirror

What does the optical image look like?

A B C D

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22 The Sun emits infrared radiation and light.

Light from the Sun reaches the Earth in 8 minutes.

Which row gives correct information about the infrared radiation?

wavelength of time taken for infrared


infrared radiation radiation to reach the Earth

A longer than wavelength of light 8 minutes


B longer than wavelength of light much less than 8 minutes
C shorter than wavelength of light 8 minutes
D shorter than wavelength of light much more than 8 minutes

23 Which statement about electromagnetic waves is not correct?

A They travel at 3  108 m / s in a vacuum.


B They transfer energy.
C They travel at 340 m / s in air.
D They are transverse waves.

24 What is ultrasound?

A sound waves that are so loud that they damage human hearing
B sound waves that are too high-pitched for humans to hear
C sound waves that are too low-pitched for humans to hear
D sound waves that are too quiet for humans to hear

25 Which diagram shows the electric field pattern between two oppositely charged parallel metal
plates?

A B C D

+ – + – + – + –

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26 Which circuit symbol represents a component used to measure electric current?

A B C D

A G V

27 The graph shows the current–voltage characteristic for a conductor.

current R
Q

P
0
0 voltage

Where on the graph can Ohm’s law be applied to the conductor?

A at Q only
B between P and Q
C between P and R
D between Q and R

28 The diagram shows a circuit containing two resistors of resistance 1.0  and 2.0 .

A voltmeter is connected across the 1.0  resistor by connecting P to X.

The reading on the voltmeter is 6.0 V.

1.0 Ω X 2.0 Ω Y

P
V

P is moved to point Y in the circuit.

What is the new reading on the voltmeter?

A 3.0 V B 6.0 V C 12 V D 18 V

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29 There is a current I in a resistor. The potential difference (p.d.) across the resistor is V.

Which other physical quantity is needed to be able to determine the energy transferred W by the
resistor?

A the electromotive force (e.m.f.) E of the source


B the power P dissipated
C the resistance R of the resistor
D the time t for which there is a current in the resistor

30 The diagrams show pairs of circuits containing logic gates.

In which diagram does the lower circuit of the pair behave differently from the upper circuit?

A B

C D

31 Several cells are connected in series, as shown.

What is the combined electromotive force (e.m.f.) of the cells?

A the average of the e.m.f.s of the separate cells


B the e.m.f. of one of the cells
C the product of the e.m.f.s of the cells
D the sum of the e.m.f.s of the cells

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32 Two resistors, with resistances R1 and R2, are connected in parallel.

The resistance R1 is greater than the resistance R2.

R1

R2

What is the resistance of the parallel combination?

A less than either R1 or R2


B equal to R1
C equal to R2
D the average of R1 and R2

33 The diagram shows a motor connected to an a.c. supply. The circuit is incomplete.

X Y
M

Which device needs to be connected between point X and point Y to prevent the wires from
overheating if a fault in the motor causes the current to get too high?

A an ammeter
B a fuse
C a transformer
D a length of thick copper wire

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34 The diagram shows a wire between two magnets. An electromotive force (e.m.f.) is induced in the
wire when it is moved up between the two magnets.

N S

Four tests are done.

1 The direction of movement of the wire is reversed.


2 The direction of the magnetic field is reversed.
3 The wire is moved more quickly.
4 The magnetic field strength is decreased.

Which tests will induce a smaller e.m.f. in the wire?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 3 and 4 D 4 only

35 Four positions of a current-carrying coil in a magnetic field, as in a d.c. motor, are shown.
In diagrams 2 and 4, the coil is at an angle of 45 to the field lines.

1 2 3 4

N S N S N S N S

coil

Which row is correct?

turning effect of the forces turning effect of the forces


in positions 1 and 3 in positions 2 and 4

A different different
B different same
C same different
D same same

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36 The diagram shows the magnetic field due to a current in a solenoid.

direction of current

The direction of the current is reversed.

Which row describes the effect that this has on the magnitude and on the direction of the
magnetic field?

magnitude of direction of
magnetic field magnetic field

A increases changes
B increases unchanged
C unchanged changes
D unchanged unchanged

37 The nucleus of an americium atom contains 146 neutrons and 95 protons. It decays by emitting
an -particle.

How many neutrons and how many protons remain in the nucleus when this form of americium
decays?

number of neutrons number of protons


remaining remaining

A 142 93
B 142 95
C 144 93
D 144 95

38 A sample of americium decays and changes into neptunium. The half-life of americium is
432 years.

Which fraction of the americium will remain after 1728 years?

A 0 B 1 C 1 D 1
16 8 4

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39 The graph shows the decay curves of four different radioactive isotopes.

Which isotope has the largest half-life?

A
count rate
B

D
0
0 time

40 The diagrams show -particles and -particles passing through an electric field.

Which diagram shows the correct paths of the -particles and -particles?

A B

+ + + + + + + + + + + +
 

 
– – – – – – – – – – – –

C D

+ + + + + + + + + + + +
 

 
– – – – – – – – – – – –

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BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2021 0625/22/O/N/21


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BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2021 0625/22/O/N/21


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BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2021 0625/22/O/N/21


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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/23
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2021
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*4199489879*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.
 Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB21 11_0625_23/2RP
© UCLES 2021 [Turn over

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1 For which purpose is a micrometer screw gauge suitable?

A measuring the current in a coil that is known to be about 3  10–6 A

B measuring the diameter of a ball bearing that is known to be about 3  10–3 m

C measuring the mass of a grain of sand that is known to be about 3  10–3 g

D measuring the moment used to turn a screw that is known to be about 3  10–6 N m

2 The graph shows how the speed of a car varies with time at the start of a journey.

6
speed 5
m/s
4
3
2
1
0
0 1 2 3 4
time / s

Which distance–time graph represents the motion of the car over the same time period?

A B
12 12
10 10
distance / m distance / m
8 8
6 6
4 4
2 2
0 0
0 1 2 3 4 0 1 2 3 4
time / s time / s

C D
6 6
5 5
distance / m distance / m
4 4
3 3
2 2
1 1
0 0
0 1 2 3 4 0 1 2 3 4
time / s time / s

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3 Which statement about mass and weight is correct?

A Mass is a property that causes change in motion.


B Mass is caused by a gravitational field acting on a weight.
C Weight is a property that resists change in motion.
D Weight is caused by a gravitational field acting on a mass.

4 Which substance in the table has the lowest density?

substance mass / g volume / cm3

A nylon 1.2 1.0


B cotton 1.5 1.0
C olive oil 1.8 2.0
D water 2.0 2.0

5 The diagram shows a uniform bar resting on two supports, P and Q.

0 10 50 60 100
cm
P Q

The weight of the bar is 4.0 N.

What is the force exerted on the bar by support P?

A 0.80 N B 2.0 N C 3.2 N D 4.0 N

6 A spring, which obeys Hooke’s law, has an unstretched length of 10 cm.

A load of 20 N is suspended from the spring.

The new length of the spring is 36 cm.

What is the spring constant k of the spring?

A 0.56 N / cm B 0.77 N / cm C 1.3 N / cm D 1.8 N / cm

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7 A cricket ball has a mass of 0.16 kg. The ball travels at 30 m / s. The ball is hit by a bat with a force
of 10 800 N. After being hit, the ball moves off at 30 m / s in the opposite direction.

30 m / s

30 m / s

For how long was the ball in contact with the bat?

A 0.0004 s B 0.00089 s C 0.0044 s D 0.015 s

8 Electrical energy may be obtained from nuclear fission.

In which order is the energy transferred in this process?

A nuclear fuel  generator  reactor and boiler  turbines

B nuclear fuel  generator  turbines  reactor and boiler

C nuclear fuel  reactor and boiler  generator  turbines

D nuclear fuel  reactor and boiler  turbines  generator

9 Which energy resource has the Sun as its only source of energy?

A geothermal
B nuclear
C oil
D tidal

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10 A man, attached to an elastic cord, jumps from a platform. He falls 60 m before starting to rise.
The length of the unextended cord is 30 m.

The diagrams show four successive stages in his fall.

In which position is elastic (strain) energy and kinetic energy present?

A B C D

30 m
45 m

60 m

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11 The diagram shows three glass containers.

All three contain water filled to the same vertical height h.

P Q R

h h h

wooden block
supporting R

The base area of P is equal to the base area of R.

The base area of Q is larger than the other two.

Students are asked to compare the water pressure at the bottom of each container.

Student 1 says that the pressure at base R is more than the pressure at base P.
Student 2 says that the pressure at base Q is less than the pressure at base P.
Student 3 says that the pressures at all three bases are the same.

Which students are correct?

A none are correct


B 1 only
C 2 only
D 3 only

12 A liquid is evaporating. The liquid is not boiling.

Which statement about the liquid is correct at an instant in time?

A Any molecule can escape, and from any part of the liquid.
B Any molecule can escape, but only from the liquid’s surface.
C Only molecules with enough energy can escape, and only from the liquid’s surface.
D Only molecules with enough energy can escape, but from any part of the liquid.

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13 The same mass of a gas is trapped in four identical cylinders by a piston that can move.

The diagrams show the samples of gas in different conditions of volume and temperature.

1 2 3 4
piston

20 °C 40 °C 40 °C 50 °C

Which list gives the pressure of the gas in order from lowest to highest?

A 1234

B 1324

C 4231

D 4321

14 An aluminium block has a mass of 200 g.

The specific heat capacity of aluminium is 900 J / (kg C).

How much energy is needed to increase the temperature of the block from 20 C to 110 C?

A 2.0 J B 2000 J C 16 200 J D 16 200 000 J

15 A solid and a gas are each given the same increase in temperature. The gas is kept at a constant
pressure.

Which row is correct?

the one which


the reason
expands most
A the gas molecules in the gas each expand
more than the solid molecules
B the gas the molecules in the solid
are held strongly together
C the solid molecules in the solid each expand
more than the gas molecules
D the solid all the molecules in the gas are
separate from one another

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16 The diagram shows a pan used for cooking food.

handle of pan

base of pan

Which row is correct for the materials used to make the base and the handle of the pan?

base of pan handle of pan

A good thermal conductor good thermal conductor


B good thermal conductor poor thermal conductor
C poor thermal conductor good thermal conductor
D poor thermal conductor poor thermal conductor

17 In the diagram, the mountaineer can hear the stream although he cannot see it. When he is
closer to the gully, he can both hear and see the stream. When he is further from the gully, he
can neither hear nor see the stream.

gully
mountaineer

stream

Which statement is not correct?

A As he approaches the gully edge, he hears first the short wavelength, higher frequencies and
then the long wavelength, lower frequencies.
B As he approaches the gully edge, the sound becomes louder.
C He hears the stream because some of the sound is diffracted.
D He hears the stream because some of the sound is reflected from the opposite wall of the
gully.

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18 Which row correctly defines the frequency and the speed of a wave?

frequency speed
A number of waves distance travelled
per unit time
B number of waves time taken for one complete
wave to pass a point
C number of waves distance travelled
passing per unit time per unit time
D number of waves time taken for one complete
passing per unit time wave to pass a point

19 A ray of light travels from air into a glass block.

in air in glass

speed of ray va vg
wavelength of ray a g
frequency of ray fa fg

Three suggestions as to how the refractive index of glass n may be calculated are listed.

va
1 n=
vg

a
2 n=
g

fa
3 n=
fg

Which suggestions are correct?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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20 The diagram shows a ray of light in air incident on a glass block. Some of the light is refracted
and some of the light is reflected. Two angles, p and q, are marked on the diagram.

ray of
light
q
air p
glass

Which row gives the angle of incidence and states whether total internal reflection occurs?

angle of total internal


incidence reflection

A p no
B p yes
C q no
D q yes

21 A photographer sees his image as shown.

photographer image

What could X be?

A B C D

mirror translucent transparent transparent


glass block glass prism semicircular
glass block

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22 The Sun emits infrared radiation and light.

Light from the Sun reaches the Earth in 8 minutes.

Which row gives correct information about the infrared radiation?

wavelength of time taken for infrared


infrared radiation radiation to reach the Earth

A longer than wavelength of light 8 minutes


B longer than wavelength of light much less than 8 minutes
C shorter than wavelength of light 8 minutes
D shorter than wavelength of light much more than 8 minutes

23 Which row gives the typical values of the speed of sound at room temperature in the materials
stated?

speed of sound
m/s
air water iron

A 340 1500 5100


B 340 5100 1500
C 5100 1500 340
D 3.0  108 3.0  108 3.0  108

24 What is ultrasound?

A sound waves that are so loud that they damage human hearing
B sound waves that are too high-pitched for humans to hear
C sound waves that are too low-pitched for humans to hear
D sound waves that are too quiet for humans to hear

25 A stationary, charged particle is in a field.

Which fields can cause there to be a force on this particle due to its charge?

1 gravitational field
2 magnetic field
3 electric field

A 1 and 2 B 1 only C 2 and 3 D 3 only

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26 An electric current in a copper wire is due to the flow of charge.

Which particles are moving along the wire?

A -particles
B copper nuclei
C electrons
D protons

27 Which row is correct?

direction of
definition of current I
conventional current
Q
A I= from positive terminal
t to negative terminal

Q
B I= from negative terminal
t to positive terminal

C I=Qt from positive terminal


to negative terminal
D I=Qt from negative terminal
to positive terminal

28 The diagram shows a circuit containing two resistors of resistance 1.0  and 2.0 .

A voltmeter is connected across the 1.0  resistor by connecting P to X.

The reading on the voltmeter is 6.0 V.

1.0 Ω X 2.0 Ω Y

P
V

P is moved to point Y in the circuit.

What is the new reading on the voltmeter?

A 3.0 V B 6.0 V C 12 V D 18 V

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29 Which graph shows the current–voltage characteristic for a filament lamp?

A B C D

I I I I

0 0 0 0
0 V 0 V 0 V 0 V

30 The diagrams show pairs of circuits containing logic gates.

In which diagram does the lower circuit of the pair behave differently from the upper circuit?

A B

C D

31 Two 3.0  resistors and one 6.0  resistor are connected in series with a cell.

Which statement is correct?

A The current in the cell is equal to the current in the resistors.


B The current in the cell is greater than the current in the resistors.
C The potential difference (p.d.) across each resistor is equal to the p.d. across the cell.
D The potential differences across each resistor are equal.

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32 Two resistors, with resistances R1 and R2, are connected in parallel.

The resistance R1 is greater than the resistance R2.

R1

R2

What is the resistance of the parallel combination?

A less than either R1 or R2


B equal to R1
C equal to R2
D the average of R1 and R2

33 Circuit breakers and fuses are devices used to protect a circuit from overloading.

Which statement correctly describes the difference between a circuit breaker and a fuse?

A Circuit breakers can be reset if they operate but fuses need to be replaced.
B Circuit breakers need to be replaced if they operate but fuses can be reset.
C Circuit breakers can be used in an a.c. circuit but fuses cannot.
D Circuit breakers cannot be used in an a.c. circuit but fuses can.

34 Electrical energy is transferred by transmission lines at high voltage.

Which statement explains why a high voltage is used?

A The voltage is alternating.


B The transmission lines have a larger resistance.
C The transmission lines carry greater power.
D There is a smaller current in the transmission lines for the same power.

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35 Which diagram shows the magnetic field around a straight, current-carrying wire?

A B

current current

C D

current current

36 The coil in a d.c. motor is connected to a split-ring commutator.

What is the purpose of the split-ring commutator?

A to ensure that the coil continues to rotate in the same direction


B to ensure that the size of the current in the coil remains constant
C to ensure that the size of the turning effect on the coil remains constant
D to ensure that the turning effect on the coil changes direction

37 The nucleus of an americium atom contains 146 neutrons and 95 protons. It decays by emitting
an -particle.

How many neutrons and how many protons remain in the nucleus when this form of americium
decays?

number of neutrons number of protons


remaining remaining

A 142 93
B 142 95
C 144 93
D 144 95

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38 The half-life for lead-202 is 52 500 years.

A sample of lead-202 produces 800 counts / s.

How long will it take for the count rate to drop to 100 counts / s?

A 105 000 years


B 157 500 years
C 210 000 years
D 420 000 years

39 Oxygen-15 is used in hospitals.

The count rate from a detector placed close to a sample of oxygen-15 was recorded over a
period of 15 min. The background count rate is 20 counts / min.

200

180
count rate
counts / min
160

140

120

100

80

60

40

20

0
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
time / min

What is the half-life of this sample of oxygen-15?

A 2.0 min B 2.4 min C 2.8 min D 7.5 min

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40 Of the three types of ionising radiation, ,  and , why does -emission cause the most
ionisation?

A -particles have the smallest mass.

B -particles have the greatest mass.

C -particles move with the greatest speed.

D -particles travel the greatest distance in matter.

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BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) February/March 2020
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*6305326820*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
• There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
• For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Write in soft pencil.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
• Do not use correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
• Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 40.
• Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
• Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Blank pages are indicated.

IB20 03_0625_22/5RP
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1 The diagram shows a rectangular metal sheet close to two rulers.

30

metal sheet
20

10

cm
0

0 cm 10 20 30 40 50

What is the area of the metal sheet?

A 700 cm2 B 875 cm2 C 900 cm2 D 1125 cm2

2 A ball falls from rest through the air towards the ground. The diagram shows two forces acting on
the ball.

air resistance

gravitational force

As the ball falls, the air resistance increases.

Which statement is correct?

A The acceleration of the ball decreases.


B The acceleration of the ball increases.
C The speed of the ball decreases.
D The gravitational force on the ball decreases.

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3 A compressed spring projects a ball horizontally in a vacuum chamber.

On the Earth, the ball reaches the chamber floor 4.0 m in front of the spring.

An identical experiment is done on the Moon. The gravitational field strength is lower on the
Moon than on the Earth.

The experimental results on the Moon are compared with those on the Earth.

Which statement is correct?

A The horizontal speed is greater on the Moon and the ball hits the floor 4.0 m in front of the
spring.
B The horizontal speed is greater on the Moon and the ball hits the floor more than 4.0 m in
front of the spring.
C The horizontal speed is the same on the Moon and the ball hits the floor 4.0 m in front of the
spring.
D The horizontal speed is the same on the Moon and the ball hits the floor more than 4.0 m in
front of the spring.

4 Diagram 1 shows a piece of flexible material that contains many pockets of air. Diagram 2 shows
the same piece of flexible material after it has been compressed so that its volume decreases.

diagram 1 diagram 2
(before compression) (after compression)

What happens to the mass and to the weight of the flexible material when it is compressed?

mass weight

A increases increases
B increases no change
C no change increases
D no change no change

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5 The graph shows how the strength of the Earth’s gravitational field varies as the distance from
the Earth’s surface increases.

strength of
the Earth’s
gravitational
field

0
0 distance from the
surface of the Earth

Which row describes the effect that this has on the mass and on the weight of an object as it
moves further away from the Earth’s surface?

mass of object weight of object

A decreases decreases
B decreases unchanged
C unchanged decreases
D unchanged unchanged

6 A measuring cylinder contains 40 cm3 of water.

A solid metal ball is dropped into the water and the water level rises to 56 cm3.

The mass of the ball is 80 g.

What is the density of the metal from which the ball is made?

A 0.20 g / cm3 B 1.4 g / cm3 C 2.0 g / cm3 D 5.0 g / cm3

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7 A car travels along a horizontal road at constant speed. Three horizontal forces act on the car.
The diagram shows two of these forces.

direction of
motion forwards

air resistance force from engine


300 N 1500 N

What is the size and the direction of the third horizontal force acting on the car?

A 1200 N backwards
B 1200 N forwards
C 1800 N backwards
D 1800 N forwards

8 A car is driven round a bend in the road at a constant speed.

car
direction of the
motion of the car

What is the direction of the resultant force on the car when it is going round the bend?

A parallel to the motion and in the same direction as the motion


B parallel to the motion and in the opposite direction to the motion
C perpendicular to the motion and towards the inside of the bend
D perpendicular to the motion and towards the outside of the bend

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9 An athlete with mass 70 kg trains by performing press-ups with a load on his back. The diagram
shows the perpendicular distances involved.

The centre of mass of the athlete is CM and the centre of mass of the load he is carrying is CL.

0.1 m 0.3 m 0.9 m

load
CL

CM

The mass of the load is 6.0 kg.

What is the upward force exerted by his two arms?

A 54 N B 76 N C 540 N D 760 N

10 An air pistol fires a pellet forwards.

What is the motion of the air pistol?

A The air pistol moves backwards with speed greater than the pellet.
B The air pistol moves backwards with speed less than the pellet.
C The air pistol moves forward with speed greater than the pellet.
D The air pistol moves forward with speed less than the pellet.

11 Which row describes an advantage and a disadvantage of wind turbines?

advantage disadvantage

A no fuel needed harmful gases released


B variable supply fuel needed
C no harmful gases released variable supply
D constant supply noisy

12 An electric motor provides 900 J of useful output energy. The efficiency of the motor is 60 %.

How much electrical energy is supplied to the motor?

A 15 J B 540 J C 1500 J D 5400 J

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13 A crane takes 2.0 minutes to lift a 500 kg load to the top of a building that is 12 m high.

What is the useful power developed against gravity by the crane?

A 21 W B 50 W C 500 W D 30 000 W

14 A skier is standing still on a flat area of snow.

skis

The weight of the skier is 550 N. The total area of his skis in contact with the ground is 0.015 m2.

What is the pressure exerted on the ground by the skier?

A 0.83 N / m2 B 8.3 N / m2 C 3700 N / m2 D 37 000 N / m2

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15 A tall cylinder is partly filled with two liquids which do not mix. The two liquids have different
densities. A student measures the pressure due to the liquids at different depths.

position P

two liquids with


different densities
position Q

Which graph shows how the liquid pressure varies between positions P and Q?

A B
Q
Q
pressure pressure

P P
depth depth

C D
Q
pressure pressure

P Q

P
depth depth

16 When pollen grains in water are viewed through a microscope, they are seen to be in continuous,
rapid random motion.

What causes a pollen grain to move in this way?

A convection currents in the water


B bombardment by a single molecule of water
C uneven bombardment on different sides by water molecules
D collision with another pollen grain due to their kinetic energies

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17 A student measures the mass of warm water in an open container over two minutes. The
container is kept at a constant temperature. The results are in the table.

time / minutes mass / g

0.0 33.9
0.5 30.6
1.0 27.6
1.5 24.9
2.0 22.5

Why does the mass of the water change?

A The water evaporates.


B The water freezes.
C The water condenses.
D The water boils.

18 Which points are the fixed points of the liquid-in-glass thermometer shown?

–10 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 110


°C

A the beginning and end points of the column of liquid

B the points marked –10 °C and 110 °C

C the points marked 0 °C and 100 °C


D the top and bottom points of the thermometer bulb

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19 The specific heat capacities of aluminium, iron, ethanol and water are given.

specific heat capacity


substance
J / kg °C

aluminium 900
iron 450
ethanol 2400
water 4200

1 kg of each metal is put into 5 kg of each liquid.

The starting temperature of each metal is 60 °C. The starting temperature of each liquid is 10 °C.

Which example has the highest final temperature?

metal liquid

A aluminium ethanol
B iron ethanol
C aluminium water
D iron water

20 Metals are good thermal conductors.

Insulators are poor thermal conductors.

Which description of the mechanism of thermal conductivity is correct?

A In insulators, conduction takes place by electron transfer and molecular vibrations.


B In insulators, conduction takes place by electron transfer only.
C In metals, conduction takes place by electron transfer and molecular vibrations.
D In metals, conduction takes place by electron transfer only.

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21 A teacher shows his class a polystyrene cup. The cup is made from thick plastic with lots of tiny
air bubbles in it.

He asks the class why the cup is so good at keeping a hot drink warm. Three suggestions are
made.

1 It contains air which is a poor thermal conductor.


2 The air is trapped in tiny bubbles so very little convection is possible.
3 The plastic is a poor thermal conductor.

Which suggestions are correct?

A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

22 A boy jumps into an indoor swimming pool. He notices that the water appears to get colder as he
goes deeper underwater. This is due to convection.

Which statement is correct?

A Cold water is more dense than warm water so it sinks to the bottom of the pool.
B Warm water is more dense than cold water so it rises to the surface of the pool.
C The molecules in cold water have more kinetic energy than the molecules in warm water so
they move to the bottom of the pool faster.
D The molecules in warm water are closer together than the molecules in cold water so they
rise to the surface of the pool.

23 Four students A, B, C and D, investigate the diffraction of water waves through a gap.

Each student uses a different gap size and a different wavelength for the water waves.

Which student produces the waves which have the most diffraction?

gap size wavelength


/ cm / cm

A 2.0 1.8
B 3.0 2.1
C 4.0 2.0
D 5.0 0.9

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24 The diagrams show examples of wave motion.

1 2
ripple tank

drum

waves on water waves in air

3 4

waves on a rope waves in a spring

Which waves are longitudinal?

A 1 only B 2 and 3 only C 2, 3 and 4 D 2 and 4 only

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25 Which diagram shows how the light from a candle is reflected by a mirror, and shows the position
of the image formed?

A B

image of image of
candle candle
candle candle

eye

eye
mirror mirror

C D

candle candle

image of
candle eye

image of eye
candle
mirror mirror

26 A converging lens can be used as a magnifying glass.

What will be the nature of the image?

A real, inverted, diminished


B real, upright, enlarged
C virtual, inverted, enlarged
D virtual, upright, enlarged

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27 The wavelength of blue light changes from 4.7 × 10–7 m to 3.5 × 10–7 m as it passes from air to
water.

What is the speed of this light in water?

A 7.4 × 107 m / s

B 1.3 × 108 m / s

C 2.2 × 108 m / s

D 3.0 × 108 m / s

28 The diagram shows compressions and rarefactions in air as a sound wave moves from left to
right.

rarefaction compression

A quieter sound of the same frequency is made.

What will happen to the number of particles in a region of rarefaction and in a region of
compression?

number of particles in number of particles in


region of rarefaction region of compression

A decrease decrease
B decrease increase
C increase decrease
D increase increase

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29 The diagrams show three different metal rods P, Q and R, inside coils of wire.

Small iron nails are placed on a wooden bench under the rods.

Diagram 1 shows the situation when there are electric currents in the wires.

Diagram 2 shows the situation when the currents are switched off.

diagram 1
P Q R

current
in coils

wooden
bench

diagram 2
P Q R

no
current
in coils
wooden
bench

Which row correctly identifies the metal rods?

P Q R

A copper soft iron steel


B soft iron copper steel
C steel soft iron copper
D copper steel soft iron

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30 Which row describes conventional current and electron flow in a circuit containing a cell?

conventional current electron flow


A from the negative terminal of the cell from the negative terminal of the cell
to the positive terminal of the cell to the positive terminal of the cell
B from the negative terminal of the cell from the positive terminal of the cell to
to the positive terminal of the cell the negative terminal of the cell
C from the positive terminal of the cell to from the negative terminal of the cell
the negative terminal of the cell to the positive terminal of the cell
D from the positive terminal of the cell to from the positive terminal of the cell to
the negative terminal of the cell the negative terminal of the cell

31 A student makes four resistors using different pieces of wire. The wires have different diameters
and lengths. All the pieces of wire are made of the same material.

Which piece of wire will make the resistor with the largest resistance?

diameter / mm length / cm

A 0.8 10
B 0.8 17
C 2.0 10
D 2.0 17

32 A student is to determine the resistance of resistor R. She uses a circuit including a voltmeter and
an ammeter.

Which circuit should be used?

A B C D

V A V V A
R R R R

A A V

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33 The diagram shows a battery connected to two resistors. Three ammeters M1, M2 and M3 are
connected in the circuit.

M1 A A M3

A
M2

Ammeter M1 reads 1.0 A.

What are the readings on M2 and on M3?

reading on reading on
M2 / A M3 / A
A 0.0 0.0
B 0.5 0.5
C 0.5 1.0
D 1.0 1.0

34 A cell is connected to a parallel combination of a 2.0 Ω resistor and a 4.0 Ω resistor. The current
in the 4.0 Ω resistor is 1.0 A.

2.0 Ω

4.0 Ω

1.0 A

What is the current in the cell?

A 1.0 A B 1.5 A C 2.0 A D 3.0 A

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35 The two inputs of a NAND gate are joined together.

input output

Which truth table represents the action of this gate?

A B C D

input output input output input output input output

0 0 0 1 0 0 0 1
1 0 1 0 1 1 1 1

36 The diagram shows a transformer that has an output voltage of 12 V.

primary coil with


1000 turns soft iron core

240 V a.c. 12 V a.c.


input output

secondary coil

How many turns of wire are in the secondary coil?

A 12 B 20 C 50 D 20 000

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37 The diagrams show different particles moving through a magnetic field.

Which particle experiences a magnetic force acting up out of the plane of the paper?

A B

proton electron

C D
proton electron

38 When Rutherford bombarded thin gold foil with α-particles, he found that some α-particles were
deflected through large angles.

Which statement explains this deflection?

A Most of the atom consists of empty space.


B All of the positive charge and most of the mass of the gold atom are concentrated in a small
volume.
C Positive charge in the gold atom is spread evenly throughout the atom.
D All of the negative charge is concentrated at its centre.

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39 The diagram shows the path followed by α-particles as they pass between two charged plates.
They are deflected downwards.

+ + + + + + + + +

β-particles

α-particles

– – – – – – – – –

What happens to β-particles passing through the same electric field?

A They are deflected downwards more than the α-particles.


B They are deflected upwards.
C They are not deflected at all.

D They are deflected downwards by the same amount as the α-particles.

40 The graph shows the count rate from a radioactive source over a period of time.

2000
count rate
counts / s

1500

1000

500

0
0 1 2 3
time / hours

What is the half-life of the source?

A 0.5 hour B 1.0 hour C 1.5 hours D 3.0 hours

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/21
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2020
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*6425434103*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
• There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
• For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Write in soft pencil.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
• Do not use correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
• Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 40.
• Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
• Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages. Blank pages are indicated.

IB20 06_0625_21/4RP
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1 A pendulum makes 50 complete swings in 2 min 40 s.

What is the time period for 1 complete swing?

A 1.6 s B 3.2 s C 4.8 s D 6.4 s

2 A student investigates the motion of a ball rolling down a slope.

The diagram shows the speed v of the ball at different times t.

t = 0s
v = 0 cm / s
t = 0.2 s
v = 2.8 cm / s
t = 0.4 s
ball v = 5.1 cm / s t = 0.6 s
v = 7.0 cm / s

Which statement describes the motion of the ball?

A The acceleration is not constant.


B The acceleration is negative.
C The speed is decreasing.
D The velocity is constant.

3 Which statement about acceleration is correct?

A It is related to the changing speed of an object.


B It is the distance an object travels in one second.
C It is the force acting on an object divided by the distance it travels in one second.
D It is the force acting on an object when it is near to the Earth.

4 Which statement correctly describes the effects of placing a heavy load in a car?

A It is easier to accelerate the car and easier to bring the car to rest.
B It is easier to accelerate the car but more difficult to bring the car to rest.
C It is more difficult to accelerate the car and more difficult to bring the car to rest.
D It is more difficult to accelerate the car but easier to bring the car to rest.

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5 A mass of 6.0 kg rests on the surface of a planet.

On this planet, g = 20 N / kg.

What is the weight of the object?

A 0.30 N B 0.60 N C 60 N D 120 N

6 The mass of a measuring cylinder is 190 g.

400 cm3 of liquid is put into the measuring cylinder.

The total mass of the measuring cylinder and the liquid is 560 g.

Four solid objects are lowered in turn into the liquid. The densities of the objects are shown.

1 0.40 g / cm3
2 0.90 g / cm3
3 1.2 g / cm3
4 2.7 g / cm3

Which objects will float in the liquid?

A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1, 2 and 3 D 3 and 4 only

7 The diagram shows a wooden beam PQ, of negligible weight, which is attached to a wall by a
hinge at P and kept in a horizontal position by a vertical rope attached at Q.

The beam is 3.0 m in length.

A man of weight 800 N walks along the beam from P to Q.

wall man

rope

beam

P Q
hinge

What is the distance of the man from P when the tension in the rope at Q becomes equal to
500 N?

A 0.53 m B 1.1 m C 1.9 m D 2.5 m

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8 Which quantity is a vector?

A acceleration
B distance
C speed
D mass

9 An object of mass 1.2 kg is moving with a velocity of 2.0 m / s when it is acted on by a force of
4.0 N. The velocity of the object increases to 5.0 m / s.

For what period of time does the force act on the object?

A 0.90 s B 1.1 s C 1.5 s D 3.6 s

10 The diagram shows part of a rollercoaster ride with the car at different positions.

The car runs freely down from position X to position Y and up the hill on the other side.

car
X

What happens to the kinetic energy and to the gravitational potential energy of the car as it
moves from position X to position Y?

gravitational
kinetic energy
potential energy

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

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11 Which energy resource does not have the Sun as the original source?

A coal
B geothermal
C hydroelectric
D wind

12 The diagram shows a solid block resting on a bench. The dimensions of the block are shown.

40 cm
20 cm
Q

R bench
80 cm P

On which labelled surface should the block rest to produce the smallest pressure on the bench?

A P
B Q
C R
D P, Q and R produce the same pressure

13 The pressure due to the liquid on an object immersed in that liquid is 4500 Pa.

The density of the liquid is 900 kg / m3.

What is the depth of the object below the surface of the liquid?

A 0.5 cm B 2.0 cm C 50 cm D 200 cm

14 A gas is heated in a sealed container.

The volume of the container does not change.

What happens to the molecules of the gas?

A The average distance between molecules increases.


B The average kinetic energy of the molecules increases.
C The mass of each molecule increases.
D The volume of each molecule increases.

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15 Water in a beaker evaporates when left on a bench for a period of time.

Which three factors all affect the rate of evaporation of the water?

A wind speed, surface area, temperature


B wind speed, temperature, volume
C wind speed, surface area, volume
D surface area, temperature, volume

16 A solid is heated causing it to expand.

What effect does this have on its mass and on its density?

mass density

A decreases decreases
B decreases stays constant
C stays constant decreases
D stays constant stays constant

17 The diagrams show four blocks of steel. The blocks are all drawn to the same scale.

The same quantity of thermal energy is given to each block.

Which block shows the greatest rise in temperature?

A B C D

18 Why are metals better thermal conductors than other solids?

A Metals contain free electrons which help transfer the energy.


B Molecules in metals are in fixed positions.
C Molecules in metals can move freely.
D Molecules in metals vibrate faster than those in other solids.

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19 Two freezers X and Y are identical except that one has a door opening at the front and the other
has a door opening at the top.

door

freezer

freezer
door

X Y

Both doors are the same size and are opened for the same amount of time.

Which freezer gains the least amount of thermal energy in this time and why?

freezer gaining the


reason
least thermal energy

A X cold air falls


B X warm air falls
C Y cold air falls
D Y warm air falls

20 A wave of frequency 6600 Hz travels 1320 m in 4.0 s.

What is the wavelength?

A 0.050 m B 0.80 m C 1.3 m D 20 m

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21 The diagram shows a wave.

8 cm

3 cm

6 cm

4 cm

What are the amplitude and the wavelength of this wave?

amplitude / cm wavelength / cm

A 3 4
B 3 8
C 6 4
D 6 8

22 Which statement is correct?

A The speed of light in glass is equal to the speed of light in a vacuum multiplied by the
refractive index of glass.
B The incident angle of a light ray at an air-glass surface is the angle between the ray and the
glass surface.

C The sine of the critical angle at an air-glass surface is equal to 1 .


refractive index of glass
D The angle of refraction for light passing through an air-glass surface is proportional to the
angle of incidence at that surface.

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23 A narrow beam of white light passes through a prism and is dispersed into a spectrum.

1
white 2
light 3

Which row is correct?

colour 1 colour 2 colour 3

A blue yellow red


B red blue yellow
C red yellow blue
D yellow blue red

24 An intruder alarm sensor detects that a person is warmer than his surroundings.

Which type of electromagnetic wave does the sensor detect?

A infrared
B radio
C ultraviolet
D visible light

25 Sound travels through air as a series of compressions and rarefactions.

Which statement correctly compares a compression with a rarefaction?

A In a compression the wavelength is longer than in a rarefaction.


B In a compression the wavelength is shorter than in a rarefaction.
C In a compression the density of the air is greater than in a rarefaction.
D In a compression the density of the air is lower than in a rarefaction.

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26 Four nails A, B, C and D are tested to find which makes the strongest permanent magnet.

One of the nails is placed against a bar magnet and the number of paper clips which the nail can
support is recorded.

nail
N S
bar magnet

paper clips

The bar magnet is then removed and the number of paper clips remaining attached to the nail is
recorded. Each nail is tested individually.

Which nail becomes the strongest permanent magnet?

number of paper clips attached to the nail


bar magnet present bar magnet removed

A 2 0
B 2 1
C 4 3
D 5 2

27 The circuit shows one method of magnetising a steel bar.

+ –

steel bar

How can the circuit be altered so that it can be used to demagnetise the magnetised steel bar?

A remove the steel bar from the coil whilst the current is switched on
B replace the d.c. supply with an a.c. supply and gradually reduce the supply voltage to zero
C reverse the polarity of the d.c. supply
D reverse the polarity of the d.c. supply and gradually reduce the supply voltage to zero

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28 A student uses the circuit shown to determine the resistance of two identical resistors.

The voltmeter reading is 2.2 V and the ammeter reading is 0.25 A.

What is the resistance of each resistor?

A 0.275 Ω B 0.55 Ω C 4.4 Ω D 8.8 Ω

29 An electric fire is connected to a 240 V supply and transfers energy at a rate of 1.0 kW.

How much charge passes through the fire in 1.0 h?

A 42 C B 250 C C 1.5 × 104 C D 2.4 × 105 C

30 The diagram shows an incomplete circuit. The temperature and light levels around the circuit
remain unchanged.

P Q
A

Four electrical components are connected in turn across PQ. The cell is reversed and the four
electrical components are connected again in turn across PQ.

For which component is there a significant change in the magnitude of the current?

A diode
B light-dependent resistor
C resistor
D thermistor

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31 In the circuit shown, A1 and A2 are ammeters.

A1 A2
S

Switch S is closed.

Which row is correct?

the resistance of
reading of A1 reading of A2
the whole circuit

A decreases stays the same increases


B decreases increases increases
C increases stays the same stays the same
D increases decreases decreases

32 Which symbol represents an OR gate?

A B C D

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33 A digital circuit consists of two logic gates.

When the input to the circuit is 1 and 1, the output is 0.

1
digital
input 0 output
circuit
1

Which combination of logic gates gives this result?

A B

C D

34 The diagram shows a wire between the poles of a magnet.

The wire is perpendicular to the page.

N
wire
LEFT RIGHT

The wire is moved and a current is induced upwards, out of the paper.

In which direction is the wire moved?

A left to right
B right to left
C up the page
D down the page

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35 A 100% efficient transformer converts a 240 V input voltage to a 12 V output voltage. The output
power of the transformer can be a maximum of 20 W.

The output is connected to two 0.30 A bulbs in parallel. One of the bulbs fails.

How does the current in the primary coil change?

A It decreases by 0.30 A.
B It decreases by 0.015 A.
C It increases by 0.15 A.
D It remains unchanged.

36 Cables transmit electrical power from the output of the transformer at a power station to the input
of the transformer at a substation.

cables

output input

transformer at transformer at
power station substation

The power at the output of the transformer at the power station is 400 MW.

Which situation delivers the most power to the input of the transformer at the substation?

potential difference at
power station transformer diameter of cables
output / kV

A 200 large
B 200 small
C 400 large
D 400 small

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37 Uranium-235 is a radioactive isotope. It undergoes a chain of decays and eventually forms the
stable isotope lead-207. These two isotopes are represented as shown.

235 207
92U 82 Pb

During this chain of decay, how many protons and how many neutrons are lost from a single
nucleus of uranium-235 to form a single nucleus of lead-207?

protons neutrons

A 10 18
B 10 28
C 18 10
D 28 10

38 A radioactive material has a half-life of 20 days.

A sample of the material contains 8.0 × 1010 atoms.

How many atomic nuclei have decayed after 60 days?

A 1.0 × 1010 B 4.0 × 1010 C 6.0 × 1010 D 7.0 × 1010

39 A thin sheet of paper is placed between a radioactive source and a radiation detector. The count
rate falls to a very low reading.

paper

detector

counter
source

From this result, which type of radiation is the source emitting?

A α-particles

B β-particles

C γ-rays
D X-rays

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40 α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays are emitted by radioactive nuclei when they decay.

Which emissions can be deflected by an electric field?

A α-particles and β-particles only

B β-particles and γ-rays only

C γ-rays and α-particles only

D α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2020 0625/21/M/J/20


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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2020
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*2715201136*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
• There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
• For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Write in soft pencil.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
• Do not use correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
• Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 40.
• Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
• Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages. Blank pages are indicated.

IB20 06_0625_22/4RP
© UCLES 2020 [Turn over

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1 Five athletes P, Q, R, S and T compete in a race. The table shows the finishing times for the
athletes.

athlete P Q R S T
finishing time / s 22.50 24.40 25.20 26.50 23.20

Which statement is correct?

A Athlete P won the race and was 0.70 s ahead of the athlete in second place.
B Athlete P won the race and was 1.90 s ahead of the athlete in second place.
C Athlete S won the race and was 1.30 s ahead of the athlete in second place.
D Athlete S won the race and was 2.10 s ahead of the athlete in second place.

2 A student investigates the motion of a ball rolling down a slope.

The diagram shows the speed v of the ball at different times t.

t = 0s
v = 0 cm / s
t = 0.2 s
v = 2.8 cm / s
t = 0.4 s
ball v = 5.1 cm / s t = 0.6 s
v = 7.0 cm / s

Which statement describes the motion of the ball?

A The acceleration is not constant.


B The acceleration is negative.
C The speed is decreasing.
D The velocity is constant.

3 Which statement about acceleration is correct?

A It is related to the changing speed of an object.


B It is the distance an object travels in one second.
C It is the force acting on an object divided by the distance it travels in one second.
D It is the force acting on an object when it is near to the Earth.

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4 Which statement correctly describes the effects of placing a heavy load in a car?

A It is easier to accelerate the car and easier to bring the car to rest.
B It is easier to accelerate the car but more difficult to bring the car to rest.
C It is more difficult to accelerate the car and more difficult to bring the car to rest.
D It is more difficult to accelerate the car but easier to bring the car to rest.

5 A space probe is taken from the Earth to Mars.

The force of gravity on the surface of Mars is less than the force of gravity on the surface of the
Earth.

How do the weight and the mass of a space probe on the surface of Mars compare to their values
when the probe is on the surface of the Earth?

weight on Mars mass on Mars

A decreased decreased
B decreased unchanged
C unchanged decreased
D unchanged unchanged

6 Water has a density of 1000 kg / m3.

A rectangular swimming pool has an average depth of 1.6 m.

The length of the pool is 25 m.

The width of the pool is 10 m.

What is the mass of the water in the swimming pool?

A 2.5 kg B 400 kg C 400 000 kg D 800 000 kg

7 A satellite orbits the Earth at constant speed in a circular orbit.

Which statement is correct?

A The resultant force on the satellite is zero.


B The resultant force on the satellite is towards the Earth.
C The resultant force on the satellite is away from the Earth.
D The resultant force on the satellite is in the direction of motion.

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8 Two forces P and Q act on an object.

Which diagram shows the resultant of these two forces?

A B C D

P resultant P resultant P P
resultant resultant

Q Q Q Q

9 An object is moving at +3.0 m / s.

A force acts on the object.

After a time, the object is moving at – 4.0 m / s.

The mass of the object is 5.0 kg.

What is the change in momentum of the body?

A –35 kg m / s B –5.0 kg m / s C +5.0 kg m / s D +35 kg m / s

10 Which energy resource is not renewable?

A geothermal
B nuclear fission
C solar
D wind

11 A car of mass 500 kg is moving at 10 m / s. The engine does work on the car and the speed
increases to 16 m / s.

How much work is done by the engine to increase the speed of the car?

A 3000 J B 9000 J C 39 000 J D 78 000 J

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12 The diagram shows a solid block resting on a bench. The dimensions of the block are shown.

40 cm
20 cm
Q

R bench
80 cm P

On which labelled surface should the block rest to produce the smallest pressure on the bench?

A P
B Q
C R
D P, Q and R produce the same pressure

13 An object is 60 cm below the surface of a liquid. The pressure due to the liquid at this depth is
9000 Pa.

What is the density of the liquid?

A 15 kg / m3 B 540 kg / m3 C 1500 kg / m3 D 54 000 kg / m3

14 Which row describes the forces between the molecules and the motion of the molecules in a
solid?

forces between motion


molecules of molecules

A strong move freely


B strong vibrate only
C weak move freely
D weak vibrate only

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15 Wet clothes are hanging outside to dry.

Which condition decreases the rate of evaporation of the water from the clothes?

A folded clothes
B higher temperature
C wetter clothes
D windy day

16 The diagram shows a liquid-in-glass thermometer.

glass bulb stem capillary tube

–10 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100

liquid

The design of this thermometer includes the following features.

1 a liquid which expands linearly when it is heated


2 a glass bulb which has a thick glass wall
3 a capillary tube with a very small diameter

Which features increase the sensitivity of the thermometer?

A 1 only B 1 and 2 C 2 and 3 D 3 only

17 The diagrams show four blocks of steel. The blocks are all drawn to the same scale.

The same quantity of thermal energy is given to each block.

Which block shows the greatest rise in temperature?

A B C D

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18 A room is heated by a radiator. The diagrams X and Y show two possible circulations of hot air,
which heat the room.

diagram X ceiling diagram Y ceiling

radiator radiator
floor floor

Which diagram and reason explain the heating of the room by convection?

diagram reason

A X air density decreases when air is heated


B X air density increases when air is heated
C Y air density decreases when air is heated
D Y air density increases when air is heated

19 Two copper containers P and Q are filled with hot water.

The diagrams are both drawn to the same scale.

P Q

Container P emits more infrared radiation from its surfaces than container Q.

What is a possible reason for this?

A The surfaces of P are painted white and the surfaces of Q are painted black.
B The surfaces of P are shiny and the surfaces of Q are dull.
C The surfaces of P have a smaller area than the surfaces of Q.
D The water in P is hotter than the water in Q.

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20 The diagram shows a wave.

8 cm

3 cm

6 cm

4 cm

What are the amplitude and the wavelength of this wave?

amplitude / cm wavelength / cm

A 3 4
B 3 8
C 6 4
D 6 8

21 The frequency of the microwaves used in a microwave oven is 2400 MHz.

What is the wavelength of these microwaves?

A 0.125 m B 8.00 m C 125 m D 7200 m

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22 An object O is placed in front of a plane mirror as shown.

O
plane mirror

1 2

Which row is correct?

position of nature of
the image the image

A 1 real
B 1 virtual
C 2 real
D 2 virtual

23 Which statement is correct?

A The speed of light in glass is equal to the speed of light in a vacuum multiplied by the
refractive index of glass.
B The incident angle of a light ray at an air-glass surface is the angle between the ray and the
glass surface.

C The sine of the critical angle at an air-glass surface is equal to 1 .


refractive index of glass
D The angle of refraction for light passing through an air-glass surface is proportional to the
angle of incidence at that surface.

24 An intruder alarm sensor detects that a person is warmer than his surroundings.

Which type of electromagnetic wave does the sensor detect?

A infrared
B radio
C ultraviolet
D visible light

25 A dolphin sends out a sound wave. An echo returns 0.010 s later from a fish which is 7.5 m from
the dolphin.

What is the speed of the sound wave in water?

A 0.075 m / s B 0.15 m / s C 750 m / s D 1500 m / s

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26 Four nails A, B, C and D are tested to find which makes the strongest permanent magnet.

One of the nails is placed against a bar magnet and the number of paper clips which the nail can
support is recorded.

nail
N S
bar magnet

paper clips

The bar magnet is then removed and the number of paper clips remaining attached to the nail is
recorded. Each nail is tested individually.

Which nail becomes the strongest permanent magnet?

number of paper clips attached to the nail


bar magnet present bar magnet removed

A 2 0
B 2 1
C 4 3
D 5 2

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27 A student wants to demagnetise a steel bar. He uses the apparatus shown. He switches on the
circuit for a few seconds and then switches off. He finds that the steel bar is still magnetised.

steel bar coil

a.c.
supply

What should he do to improve his method?

A change the supply from an alternating to a direct voltage


B use a lower alternating voltage
C remove the steel bar from the coil whilst the circuit is switched on
D use a coil that has fewer turns on it

28 A cloth is used to rub an uncharged plastic rod.

Both the rod and the cloth become charged.

Why does the plastic rod become negatively charged and the cloth become positively charged?

A The rod gains electrons and the cloth gains positive charges.
B The rod gains electrons and the cloth loses electrons.
C The rod loses electrons and the cloth gains electrons.
D The rod loses electrons and the cloth loses positive charges.

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29 A student uses the circuit shown to determine the resistance of two identical resistors.

The voltmeter reading is 2.2 V and the ammeter reading is 0.25 A.

What is the resistance of each resistor?

A 0.275 Ω B 0.55 Ω C 4.4 Ω D 8.8 Ω

30 A cell passes a current of 2.0 A in a circuit for 30 s. In this time the cell transfers 120 J of energy.

What is the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of the cell?

A 0.50 V B 1.5 V C 2.0 V D 8.0 V

31 The circuit shown contains five lamps J, K, L, M and N. All the lamps are glowing.

lamp L

lamp K

lamp J

lamp N

lamp M

One lamp is removed and two other lamps go out.

Which lamp is removed?

A lamp J
B lamp K
C lamp L
D lamp M

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32 What is the effective resistance of the following combination of resistors?

6.0 Ω
4.0 Ω

8.0 Ω

A 1.8 Ω B 7.4 Ω C 11 Ω D 18 Ω

33 Which symbol represents a NAND gate?

A B C D

34 The diagram shows a circuit used to switch on a heater when the temperature drops below a
certain value.

Which row shows the components that should be connected at X and at Y?

X Y

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35 The diagram shows the magnetic field due to a current in a solenoid.

Where is the magnetic field the strongest?

36 A beam of electrons is passed through the magnetic field of a magnet.

How must the magnet be positioned to deflect the beam in the direction shown?

A B
e–

e–
N S direction S
of beam

direction
of beam
N

C D
e–

e–
S N direction N
of beam

direction
of beam
S

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37 Uranium-235 can undergo nuclear fission in many ways.

Which equation correctly shows a possible fission reaction for uranium-235?

1 + 235U → 141Ba + 92Kr +


A
0n 92 56 36 301n
1 + 235U → 91Sr + 144Xe +
B
0n 92 38 54 201n
1 + 235U → 95Rb + 136Cs +
C
0n 92 37 55 301n
1 + 235U → 87Br + 146La +
D
0n 92 35 57 401n

38 A radioactive material has a half-life of 20 days.

A sample of the material contains 8.0 × 1010 atoms.

How many atomic nuclei have decayed after 60 days?

A 1.0 × 1010 B 4.0 × 1010 C 6.0 × 1010 D 7.0 × 1010

39 A thin sheet of paper is placed between a radioactive source and a radiation detector. The count
rate falls to a very low reading.

paper

detector

counter
source

From this result, which type of radiation is the source emitting?

A α-particles

B β-particles

C γ-rays
D X-rays

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40 α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays are emitted by radioactive nuclei when they decay.

Which emissions can be deflected by an electric field?

A α-particles and β-particles only

B β-particles and γ-rays only

C γ-rays and α-particles only

D α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/23
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2020
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*4570649359*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
• There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
• For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Write in soft pencil.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
• Do not use correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
• Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 40.
• Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
• Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Blank pages are indicated.

IB20 06_0625_23/3RP
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1 Diagram 1 shows a solid, rectangular-sided block.

top

front side

diagram 1

Diagram 2 shows the same block from the front and from the side.
7
6
5
4

front side
3
2
cm 1

cm 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22

diagram 2

Metre rules have been shown close to the edges of the block.

What is the volume of the block?

A 120 cm3 B 168 cm3 C 264 cm3 D 1155 cm3

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2 A student investigates the motion of a ball rolling down a slope.

The diagram shows the speed v of the ball at different times t.

t = 0s
v = 0 cm / s
t = 0.2 s
v = 2.8 cm / s
t = 0.4 s
ball v = 5.1 cm / s t = 0.6 s
v = 7.0 cm / s

Which statement describes the motion of the ball?

A The acceleration is not constant.


B The acceleration is negative.
C The speed is decreasing.
D The velocity is constant.

3 Which statement about acceleration is correct?

A It is related to the changing speed of an object.


B It is the distance an object travels in one second.
C It is the force acting on an object divided by the distance it travels in one second.
D It is the force acting on an object when it is near to the Earth.

4 Which statement correctly describes the effects of placing a heavy load in a car?

A It is easier to accelerate the car and easier to bring the car to rest.
B It is easier to accelerate the car but more difficult to bring the car to rest.
C It is more difficult to accelerate the car and more difficult to bring the car to rest.
D It is more difficult to accelerate the car but easier to bring the car to rest.

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5 Which row gives the correct weight for the mass shown?

The value of g is 10 N / kg.

mass / kg weight / N

A 2 20
B 10 1
C 10 10
D 20 2

6 A rectangular gymnasium is 50 m long, 25 m wide and 8.0 m high.

The density of air is 1.2 kg / m3.

What is the best estimate of the mass of air in the gymnasium?

A 0.00012 kg B 100 kg C 8300 kg D 12 000 kg

7 Which moving object has a resultant force acting on it?

A a diver rising vertically through water at constant speed


B an aircraft circling an airport at constant speed
C a parachutist descending vertically at terminal velocity
D a train going up a straight slope at constant speed

8 Which quantity is not a vector?

A acceleration
B temperature
C velocity
D weight

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9 A ball falls vertically to the floor and rebounds vertically upwards.

Just before it hits the floor, its speed is 4.0 m / s.

As it rebounds, its speed is 3.0 m / s.

The mass of the ball is 0.50 kg.

What is the change in momentum of the ball?

A 0.50 kg m / s downwards
B 0.50 kg m / s upwards
C 3.5 kg m / s downwards
D 3.5 kg m / s upwards

10 A mass bounces up and down on a steel spring. The diagram shows the mass and the spring at
different points during the motion.

highest mass mass


point moving moving
down up

lowest
point

At which point does the mass have the least gravitational potential energy and at which point is
the most elastic energy stored in the spring?

least amount of
most elastic energy
gravitational
stored in spring
potential energy

A mass moving down mass moving up


B mass moving down lowest point
C lowest point mass moving up
D lowest point lowest point

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11 The velocity v of an object increases as it falls towards the ground.

Which quantity is directly proportional to v2?

A the speed of the object


B the gravitational potential energy of the object
C the kinetic energy of the object
D the momentum of the object

12 The diagram shows a solid block resting on a bench. The dimensions of the block are shown.

40 cm
20 cm
Q

R bench
80 cm P

On which labelled surface should the block rest to produce the smallest pressure on the bench?

A P
B Q
C R
D P, Q and R produce the same pressure

13 A pipe full of water connects a water supply on a hill to a tap lower down the hill.

The length of the pipe is 500 m. The height of the supply above the tap is 100 m.

The density of the water is 1000 kg / m3. The effect of atmospheric pressure is negligible.

What is the water pressure at the tap?

A 100 000 Pa
B 500 000 Pa
C 1 000 000 Pa
D 5 000 000 Pa

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14 When a molecule rebounds from a wall, a force is exerted on the wall.

What causes this force?

A the kinetic energy gained by the molecule


B the kinetic energy lost by the molecule
C the change of momentum of the molecule
D the change of speed of the molecule

15 The relationship between pressure p and volume V of a gas is given as pV = constant.

Under which conditions for the mass of a gas and for its temperature does the equation hold?

mass temperature

A changing changing
B changing constant
C constant changing
D constant constant

16 The diagram shows a liquid-in-glass thermometer.

X Y

Which row gives the correct labels for the thermometer?

X Y

A water narrow tube of uniform diameter


B alcohol narrow tube of uniform diameter
C water this end immersed in substance to be measured
D alcohol this end immersed in substance to be measured

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17 The diagrams show four blocks of steel. The blocks are all drawn to the same scale.

The same quantity of thermal energy is given to each block.

Which block shows the greatest rise in temperature?

A B C D

18 Why are metals better conductors of thermal energy than non-metals?

A They contain free electrons.


B Their molecules are further apart.
C Their molecules vibrate at a higher frequency.
D They have smoother surfaces.

19 The diagram shows a vacuum flask used to keep a liquid warm.

airtight lid

outer cover

vacuum

silvered walls

Which methods of heat loss are reduced by the vacuum between the silvered walls?

A conduction only
B conduction and convection only
C convection and radiation only
D conduction, convection and radiation

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20 An earthquake-monitoring station records the arrival of 16 complete waves of an earthquake


wave in 20 s.

The speed of the earthquake wave is 6.0 km / s.

What is the wavelength of the earthquake wave?

A 1.3 × 10–4 m

B 2.1 × 10–4 m

C 4.8 × 103 m

D 7.5 × 103 m

21 The diagram shows a wave.

8 cm

3 cm

6 cm

4 cm

What are the amplitude and the wavelength of this wave?

amplitude / cm wavelength / cm

A 3 4
B 3 8
C 6 4
D 6 8

22 Which statement is correct?

A The speed of light in glass is equal to the speed of light in a vacuum multiplied by the
refractive index of glass.
B The incident angle of a light ray at an air-glass surface is the angle between the ray and the
glass surface.

C The sine of the critical angle at an air-glass surface is equal to 1 .


refractive index of glass
D The angle of refraction for light passing through an air-glass surface is proportional to the
angle of incidence at that surface.

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23 Which statement about converging lenses is correct?

A A real image of an object projected onto a screen by a converging lens is always inverted.
B The image formed by a converging lens is always upright.
C The image formed by a converging lens when used as a magnifying glass is a real image.
D Parallel rays entering a converging lens are focused at a distance greater than the focal
length from the lens.

24 An intruder alarm sensor detects that a person is warmer than his surroundings.

Which type of electromagnetic wave does the sensor detect?

A infrared
B radio
C ultraviolet
D visible light

25 Two people are standing outdoors on either side of a high wall.

person 1 person 2

Person 1 can hear person 2 talking although he cannot see her.

Which statement explains this?

A The sound waves have diffracted around the wall.


B The sound waves have passed unaffected through the wall.
C The sound waves have reflected around the wall.
D The sound waves have refracted around the wall.

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26 Four nails A, B, C and D are tested to find which makes the strongest permanent magnet.

One of the nails is placed against a bar magnet and the number of paper clips which the nail can
support is recorded.

nail
N S
bar magnet

paper clips

The bar magnet is then removed and the number of paper clips remaining attached to the nail is
recorded. Each nail is tested individually.

Which nail becomes the strongest permanent magnet?

number of paper clips attached to the nail


bar magnet present bar magnet removed

A 2 0
B 2 1
C 4 3
D 5 2

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27 The diagrams show a magnetised steel rod inside a solenoid connected to a potentiometer.

In diagram 1, the potentiometer is connected to a d.c. power supply.

In diagram 2, the potentiometer is connected to an a.c. power supply.

magnetised magnetised
steel steel

P Q R S

d.c. a.c.

diagram 1 diagram 2

Which action would demagnetise the piece of steel?

A In diagram 1, move the potentiometer slide from P to Q.


B In diagram 1, move the potentiometer slide from Q to P.
C In diagram 2, move the potentiometer slide from R to S.
D In diagram 2, move the potentiometer slide from S to R.

28 The diagram shows a positively charged conducting sphere and a wire connected to earth.

positively charged sphere


+
+ +
wire + +
+

earth
insulating support

What happens when the wire is touched onto the sphere?

A Electrons flow from earth to the sphere.


B Electrons flow from the sphere to earth.
C Positive charges flow from earth to the sphere.
D Positive charges flow from the sphere to earth.

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29 A student uses the circuit shown to determine the resistance of two identical resistors.

The voltmeter reading is 2.2 V and the ammeter reading is 0.25 A.

What is the resistance of each resistor?

A 0.275 Ω B 0.55 Ω C 4.4 Ω D 8.8 Ω

30 There is a current of 2.0 A in a resistor of resistance 8.0 Ω.

How much power is dissipated in the resistor?

A 0.25 W B 4.0 W C 16 W D 32 W

31 The lamps, the diodes and the batteries in the circuits are identical.

In which circuit does the ammeter give the greatest reading?

A B C D

A A A
A

32 Two resistors are connected in series with a power supply.

Which statement about the circuit is correct?

A The current from the supply is greater than the current in each resistor.
B The current from the supply is equal to the current in each resistor.
C The current from the supply is less than the current in each resistor.
D The current from the supply is the sum of the currents in each resistor.

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33 Which two logic gates each have a high output when both of their inputs are high?

A AND and OR
B AND and NOR
C NAND and NOR
D NAND and OR

34 The diagram shows a series of logic gates and part of its corresponding truth table.

P R
Q

P Q R S T

0 0 0 0 1
0 1
1 0 0 1 1
1 1 1 1 0

What are the missing values in row 2 of the truth table?

A 010 B 011 C 100 D 111

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35 The graphs show how the currents in three circuits vary with time.

circuit 1 circuit 2
1.5 1.5
current / A 1.0 current / A 1.0
0.5 0.5
0.0 0.0
–0.5 –0.5
–1.0 –1.0
–1.5 –1.5
time time

circuit 3
1.5
current / A 1.0
0.5
0.0
–0.5
–1.0
–1.5
time

In which circuits is there a direct current?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 only D 3 only

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36 The coil of a simple a.c. generator rotates steadily in a uniform magnetic field.

The diagram shows the position of the coil at time t = 0.

coil

N S

Which graph shows the output voltage for one revolution of the coil?

A B

V V

0 0
0 t 0 t

C D

V V

0 0
0 t 0 t

37 What occurs during nuclear fusion?

A Two light atomic nuclei join together and emit energy.


B Two light atomic nuclei join together and absorb energy.
C A heavy atomic nucleus splits and emits energy.
D A heavy atomic nucleus splits and absorbs energy.

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38 A radioactive material has a half-life of 20 days.

A sample of the material contains 8.0 × 1010 atoms.

How many atomic nuclei have decayed after 60 days?

A 1.0 × 1010 B 4.0 × 1010 C 6.0 × 1010 D 7.0 × 1010

39 A thin sheet of paper is placed between a radioactive source and a radiation detector. The count
rate falls to a very low reading.

paper

detector

counter
source

From this result, which type of radiation is the source emitting?

A α-particles

B β-particles

C γ-rays
D X-rays

40 α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays are emitted by radioactive nuclei when they decay.

Which emissions can be deflected by an electric field?

A α-particles and β-particles only

B β-particles and γ-rays only

C γ-rays and α-particles only

D α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays

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BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2020 0625/23/M/J/20


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BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2020 0625/23/M/J/20


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BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2020 0625/23/M/J/20


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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/21
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2020
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*8691247406*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.
 Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages. Blank pages are indicated.

IB20 11_0625_21/3RP
© UCLES 2020 [Turn over

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1 For which one of the following measurements would a micrometer screw gauge be most
suitable?

A length of this page


B length of a pencil
C diameter of a wire
D diameter of an atom

2 The speed–time graph represents a journey.

speed

X Y

0
0 time

How does the graph show that the distance travelled in section X of the journey is greater than
the distance travelled in section Y?

A The area below section X of the graph is greater than the area below section Y.
B The gradient of section X of the graph is greater than the gradient of section Y.
C The speed at the end of section X of the journey is greater than the speed at the end of
section Y.
D The time for section X of the journey is greater than the time for section Y.

3 A car is travelling at a velocity of 2.0 m / s. It accelerates at a constant 0.20 m / s2 for 2.5 minutes.

What is the final velocity of the car?

A 2.5 m / s B 5.2 m / s C 30 m / s D 32 m / s

4 Which quantity is weight an example of?

A acceleration
B force
C mass
D pressure

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5 A sphere P, made of steel, has a weight of 10 N on Earth.

Another sphere Q, also made of steel, has a weight of 10 N on Mars.

The gravitational field strength on Earth is greater than the gravitational field strength on Mars.

Which statement is correct?

A The mass of sphere P is the same as the mass of sphere Q.


B The mass of sphere P is less than the mass of sphere Q.
C On Mars, the weight of sphere P is more than 10 N.
D On Earth, the weight of sphere Q is less than 10 N.

6 A metal ball is attached to a cork and is lowered into a measuring cylinder, pulling the cork into
the water, as shown.

cork

80 cm3

ball
56 cm3
3
48 cm

water

ball and cork ball fully submerged both ball and cork
above the water but cork above the water fully submerged

The mass of the cork is 4.8 g.

What is the density of the cork?

A 0.15 g / cm3 B 0.20 g / cm3 C 0.60 g / cm3 D 5.0 g / cm3

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7 A uniform plank rests on a pivot at its centre.

Two children P and Q sit on the plank in the positions shown.

1.2 m 1.5 m

child P child Q

pivot

The mass of child P is 25 kg.

The plank is balanced.

What is the mass of child Q?

A 20 kg B 25 kg C 31 kg D 45 kg

8 The diagram shows three forces acting on an object.

6N

1N 9N

What is the value of the resultant force acting on the object?

A 2N B 10 N C 14 N D 16 N

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9 An object with a mass of 0.20 kg moves at 0.20 m / s, as shown.

0.20 m / s
0.20 kg

Which other object has a momentum that is identical to the momentum of this object?

A B

0.20 m / s 0.40 kg

0.20 kg 0.10 m / s

C D

0.10 m / s 0.20 m / s
0.40 kg 0.20 kg

10 A stone is dropped from rest at a height of 2.0 m above the surface of a planet.

The planet has no atmosphere.

The speed of the stone just before reaching the surface of the planet is 3.8 m / s.

What is the acceleration of free fall on the planet?

A zero B 1.9 m / s2 C 3.6 m / s2 D 7.2 m / s2

11 An electric motor uses 1000 J of electrical energy. It provides 450 J of useful output energy.

What is the efficiency of the motor?

A 4.5% B 5.5% C 45% D 55%

12 To calculate the power produced by a force, the size of the force must be known.

What else needs to be known to calculate the power?

the distance that the force the time for which the
moves the object force acts on the object

A   key
B    = needed
C   = not needed
D  

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13 A barometer reads 780 mm Hg. Mercury has a density of 1.36  104 kg / m3.

What is the pressure of the atmosphere in N / m2?

A 1.1  104 N / m2

B 1.1  105 N / m2

C 1.1  107 N / m2

D 1.1  108 N / m2

14 The diagram shows a mercury barometer.

Which height is used as a measurement of atmospheric pressure?

D
mercury
C
B

15 A student splashes water on to her face. Here are three statements about the effects.

P The water uses energy to evaporate.


Q The water gains energy from the student.
R The face of the student cools.

Which statements are correct?

A P and Q only B P and R only C Q and R only D P, Q and R

16 When a bridge is built, a gap is left between each concrete slab.

Why are these gaps left?

A Concrete expands on warm days.


B Concrete contracts on warm days.
C The gaps expand on warm days.
D The gaps contract on cold days.

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17 The specific heat capacity of solid P is greater than that of solid Q.

What does this statement mean?

A Less energy is needed to raise the temperature by 1 C of unit mass of solid P than unit mass
of solid Q.
B Less energy is needed to melt unit mass of solid P than unit mass of solid Q.

C More energy is needed to raise the temperature by 1 C of unit mass of solid P than unit
mass of solid Q.
D More energy is needed to melt unit mass of solid P than unit mass of solid Q.

18 A student placed a number of ice cubes in a container with a hole in the base. He left them to
melt so that the water dripped into a beaker placed on a balance. The student recorded the initial
mass of the beaker and the final mass of the beaker and water after five minutes.

ice in a container
with a hole
in the base

beaker

balance
0.05 kg 0.16 kg

before after

The specific latent heat of fusion for water is 334 J / g.

How much energy was absorbed from the surroundings in order to melt the ice?

A 37 J B 54 J C 37 000 J D 54 000 J

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19 The diagram shows four rods. Each rod is made of a different metal.

P Q

brass copper

silver iron

S R

Wax is used to attach small metal balls at the rod ends P, Q, R and S.

Each rod is the same size. They are heated uniformly by a Bunsen burner at point X.

As the rods warm up, the wax melts and the balls fall off.

Why does the ball on the silver rod fall first?

A Silver is the best conductor of heat.


B Silver is the worst conductor of heat.
C Silver is the best radiator of heat.
D Silver is the worst radiator of heat.

20 Four cups A, B, C and D contain hot coffee.

Which cup keeps the coffee warm the longest?

the outside
the top of the cup
surface of the cup

A black covered with a lid


B black no lid
C white covered with a lid
D white no lid

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21 Which row correctly describes light waves?

wave type direction of vibrations

A longitudinal parallel to direction of wave travel


B longitudinal perpendicular to direction of wave travel
C transverse parallel to direction of wave travel
D transverse perpendicular to direction of wave travel

22 The diagram shows part of a diffracted wave pattern.

barrier

direction
of waves

Changes are made to the wavelength and to the gap size to produce a semicircular diffracted
wave pattern.

Which row produces the required semicircular diffracted wave pattern?

gap in barrier wavelength

A larger same
B larger smaller
C same larger
D same smaller

23 Which statement about a thin converging lens is correct?

A All rays of light refracted by the lens pass through the principal focus.
B All rays initially parallel to the principal axis of the lens are refracted through the principal
focus.
C The focal length of the lens is the distance between the image and the principal focus.
D The focal length of the lens is the distance between the object and the image.

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24 The diagram shows white light passing through a prism.

red
violet
white
light

Which description of what happens as the light passes into the prism is correct?

A The speed of the red light is less than the speed of the violet light and the red light is the
least refracted.
B The speed of the red light is greater than the speed of the violet light and the red light is the
least refracted.
C The speed of the violet light is less than the speed of the red light and the violet light is the
least refracted.
D The speed of the violet light is greater than the speed of the red light and the violet light is the
least refracted.

25 Which row gives possible values for the speed of sound?

speed in gas speed in liquid speed in solid


m/s m/s m/s

A 972 1450 3560


B 972 3560 1450
C 1450 3560 972
D 3560 972 1450

26 A police car with its siren sounding is stationary in heavy traffic. A pedestrian notices that,
although the loudness of the sound produced does not change, the pitch varies.

Which row describes the amplitude and the frequency of the sound?

amplitude frequency

A constant constant
B constant varying
C varying constant
D varying varying

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27 A piece of steel is slightly magnetised. It is hit several times with a hammer.

What effect will this have on the steel?

the steel is parallel to the steel is at right-angles


a strong magnetic field to a weak magnetic field

A it becomes magnetised more strongly it becomes magnetised more strongly


B it becomes magnetised more strongly it loses its magnetism
C it loses its magnetism it becomes magnetised more strongly
D it loses its magnetism it loses its magnetism

28 Two soft-iron pins are suspended from the S pole of a bar magnet.

Which diagram shows how the pins are deflected?

A B C D

S S S S

29 A negatively charged plastic rod is brought near to an uncharged metal sphere and held there.

What happens when the metal sphere is earthed?

A Electrons flow from the metal sphere to earth.


B Electrons flow from earth to the metal sphere.
C Positive charge flows from the metal sphere to earth.
D Positive charge flows from earth to the metal sphere.

30 Which statement defines the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of a cell?

A the current in the cell when 1.0 C of charge flows in 1.0 s


B the current supplied by the cell to drive 1.0 C of charge around a complete circuit
C the energy supplied by the cell to drive 1.0 C of charge around a complete circuit
D the energy supplied by the cell to drive 1.0 A of current around a complete circuit

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31 Four wires are made of the same metal.

Which wire has the greatest resistance?

A a 100 cm long wire with a diameter of 3.0 mm


B a 100 cm long wire with a diameter of 6.0 mm
C a 10 cm long wire with a diameter of 3.0 mm
D a 10 cm long wire with a diameter of 6.0 mm

32 In which circuit is there just a single lamp lit?

A B

C D

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33 A student uses four ammeters P, Q, R and S to measure the current in different parts of the
circuit shown.

P Q
A A

R
A

S
A

Which two ammeters read the largest current?

A P and Q B P and R C R and Q D R and S

34 Which combination of logic gates gives the truth table shown?

inputs output
X Y Z

0 0 1
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0

A B

X X
Z Z
Y Y

C D

X X
Z Z
Y Y

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35 A transformer is needed to convert a supply of 240 V a.c. into 4800 V a.c..

NP NS

240 V a.c. 4800 V a.c.

Which pair of coils would be suitable for this transformer?

number of turns number of turns


on primary coil NP on secondary coil NS

A 50 1 000
B 240 48 000
C 480 24
D 2000 100

36 The diagram shows part of a long current-carrying conductor.

At which point is the magnetic field strongest?

C D

37 A beam of particles moves through a magnetic field.

In which situation do the particles experience a magnetic force?

A a beam of -particles moving parallel to the magnetic field lines


B a beam of electrons moving parallel to the magnetic field lines

C a beam of -particles moving perpendicularly across the magnetic field lines


D a beam of neutrons moving perpendicularly across the magnetic field lines

38 Which statement is correct for the nucleus of any atom?

A The nucleus contains electrons, neutrons and protons.


B The nucleus contains the same number of protons as neutrons.
C The nucleus has a total charge of zero.
D The nucleus is very small compared with the size of the atom.

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39 Two beams of radiation, P and Q, enter an electric field as shown.

+ + + + + + + +

P
Q

– – – – – – – –

Which type of radiations are P and Q?

P Q

A beta () alpha ()


B beta () gamma ()
C gamma () alpha ()
D gamma () gamma ()

40 Which equation represents the -decay of lead-209?

209 0 209
A 82Pb + –1e o 83Bi
209 0 209
B 82Pb + –1e o 81Tl
209 209 0
C 82Pb o 83Bi + –1e
209 209 0
D 82Pb o 81Tl + –1e

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BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2020
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*4531333276*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.
 Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages. Blank pages are indicated.

IB20 11_0625_22/4RP
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1 The diagram shows a measuring device.

35
0 1
30
mm

For which measurement is this device suitable?

A diameter of a cylinder of aluminium of about 20 cm


B distance between two molecules of zinc
C length of a rod of iron of about 1 m
D thickness of a sheet of copper of about 1.5 mm

2 The graph shows how the speed of an object varies with time.

speed

0
P Q time

Which row describes the motion of the object at times P and Q?

P Q

A at rest accelerating
B at rest decelerating
C moving with constant speed accelerating
D moving with constant speed decelerating

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3 A concrete block falls vertically from an aeroplane.

The concrete block falls into the sea and sinks.

Which graph shows the vertical motion of the concrete block?

A B

speed speed

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

speed speed

0 0
0 time 0 time

4 Which quantity is weight an example of?

A acceleration
B force
C mass
D pressure

5 Which statement about the mass of an object is correct?

A It changes when the object is lifted further from the ground.


B It is the gravitational force on the object.
C It is zero if the object is in orbit around the Earth.
D It resists any change in motion of the object.

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6 A rectangular metal block is 20 cm long.

The cross-sectional area of the block is 25 cm2.

The mass of the block is 4000 g.

What is the density of the metal?

A 0.13 g / cm3 B 0.32 g / cm3 C 8.0 g / cm3 D 2000 g / cm3

7 The diagram shows a beam lying on the ground. End Q is lifted from the ground by the force F.

End P of the beam remains on the ground.

3.0 m

1.0 m F

P Q
G
ground
beam

The length of the beam is 3.0 m and its weight is 600 N.

The centre of mass of the beam at G is 1.0 m from end P.

What is the size of the force F when it just raises end Q from the ground?

A 200 N B 300 N C 400 N D 600 N

8 The diagram shows a stand. The stand holds a heavy mass above the bench.

heavy mass

stand

bench
base

Which two changes would definitely make the stand more stable?

A Lower the mass and make the base narrower.


B Lower the mass and make the base wider.
C Raise the mass and make the base narrower.
D Raise the mass and make the base wider.

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9 A footballer kicks a stationary football.

His foot is in contact with the ball for 0.050 s.

The mass of the ball is 0.40 kg.

The speed of projection of the ball is 25 m / s.

What is the average force exerted on the ball by his foot?

A 0.32 N B 0.50 N C 200 N D 1300 N

10 A woman of mass 50 kg has 81 J of kinetic energy.

What is her speed?

A 1.3 m / s B 1.6 m / s C 1.8 m / s D 3.2 m / s

11 What is the source of the Sun’s energy?

A chemical reactions in the Sun’s core

B -emissions in the Sun’s core


C nuclear fission in the Sun’s core
D nuclear fusion in the Sun’s core

12 To calculate the power produced by a force, the size of the force must be known.

What else needs to be known to calculate the power?

the distance that the force the time for which the
moves the object force acts on the object

A   key
B    = needed
C    = not needed
D  

13 A research submarine is at a depth of 10 000 m below the surface of the sea.

The average density of the water above the submarine is 1030 kg / m3.

The atmospheric pressure at the surface of the sea is 103 000 Pa.

How many times greater is the pressure due to the sea water than the atmospheric pressure?

A 10 B 100 C 1000 D 100 000

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14 The diagram shows a mercury barometer.

Which height is used as a measurement of atmospheric pressure?

D
mercury
C
B

15 A student splashes water on to her face. Here are three statements about the effects.

P The water uses energy to evaporate.


Q The water gains energy from the student.
R The face of the student cools.

Which statements are correct?

A P and Q only B P and R only C Q and R only D P, Q and R

16 A bimetallic strip is used to control the temperature of electrical appliances. It is made of two
different metals fixed together.

The diagram shows the shape of the bimetallic strip before and after heating.

metal P

metal Q
before heating after heating

Which statement is correct?

A Metal P contracts more than metal Q on heating.


B Metal Q contracts more than metal P on heating.
C Metal P expands more than metal Q on heating.
D Metal Q expands more than metal P on heating.

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17 A student writes three statements about thermocouples.

1 They have a small thermal capacity.


2 They respond very slowly to temperature changes.

3 They can measure temperatures above 500 C.

Which statements are correct?

A 1 only B 2 only C 1 and 3 D 2 and 3

18 Four blocks are made from different metals. Each block is heated for five minutes with an
identical heater.

Assume there is no energy loss from the blocks.

The table gives the masses of the blocks and the temperature rises.

Which metal has the highest specific heat capacity?

mass of block / kg temperature rise / C

A 2.0 5.0
B 2.0 9.0
C 4.0 5.0
D 4.0 9.0

19 A scientist measures the air temperature at different heights from the floor in a cave. The results
are recorded in the table.

height / m temperature / C

0 10
10 11
20 13
30 14
40 16

Why does altering the height affect the temperature of the air?

A The molecules in warm air have less energy than the molecules in cool air.
B The molecules in cool air are further apart than the molecules in warm air.
C Warm air is less dense than cool air.
D Cool air rises above warm air.

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20 Four solid spheres made of the same metal are heated to the same temperature.

Which sphere initially loses thermal energy by radiation at the greatest rate?

A diameter of 10 cm with a dull surface


B diameter of 10 cm with a shiny surface
C diameter of 5 cm with a dull surface
D diameter of 5 cm with a shiny surface

21 Which row correctly describes light waves?

wave type direction of vibrations

A longitudinal parallel to direction of wave travel


B longitudinal perpendicular to direction of wave travel
C transverse parallel to direction of wave travel
D transverse perpendicular to direction of wave travel

22 A radio transmitter broadcasts at a frequency of 200 kHz.

What is the wavelength of these radio waves?

A 6.7  10–4 m B 1.5 m C 1.5  103 m D 1.5  106 m

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23 An optical lever is a very sensitive device for detecting small rotations. A lamp sends a narrow
beam of light on to a small plane mirror attached to a shaft whose rotation is to be measured. The
operation of the device is shown in plan view.

scale just scale just


above lamp above lamp

lamp lamp 
shaft shaft
small small
mirror mirror

The beam from the lamp reflects from the mirror to give a small spot of light on a scale placed
just above the lamp. The shaft and mirror rotate through 1. The spot of light moves along the
scale.

The table shows the angle  through which the reflected beam rotates and the conditions
required for high sensitivity.

Which row is correct?

angle  to achieve high sensitivity


A 1 the lamp and scale need to be
as close to the mirror as possible
B 1 the lamp and scale need to be
as far from the mirror as possible
C 2 the lamp and scale need to be
as close to the mirror as possible
D 2 the lamp and scale need to be
as far from the mirror as possible

24 A student draws a diagram to illustrate the different sections of a longitudinal wave.

Which labelled section is a rarefaction?

A B D

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25 The diagram shows white light passing through a prism.

red
violet
white
light

Which description of what happens as the light passes into the prism is correct?

A The speed of the red light is less than the speed of the violet light and the red light is the
least refracted.
B The speed of the red light is greater than the speed of the violet light and the red light is the
least refracted.
C The speed of the violet light is less than the speed of the red light and the violet light is the
least refracted.
D The speed of the violet light is greater than the speed of the red light and the violet light is the
least refracted.

26 A police car with its siren sounding is stationary in heavy traffic. A pedestrian notices that,
although the loudness of the sound produced does not change, the pitch varies.

Which row describes the amplitude and the frequency of the sound?

amplitude frequency

A constant constant
B constant varying
C varying constant
D varying varying

27 A piece of steel is slightly magnetised. It is hit several times with a hammer.

What effect will this have on the steel?

the steel is parallel to the steel is at right-angles


a strong magnetic field to a weak magnetic field

A it becomes magnetised more strongly it becomes magnetised more strongly


B it becomes magnetised more strongly it loses its magnetism
C it loses its magnetism it becomes magnetised more strongly
D it loses its magnetism it loses its magnetism

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28 A student sets up four experiments using bar magnets and other metal objects. The N and S
poles of the bar magnets are labelled N and S.

1 2

S N S N S N iron

3 4

S N copper S N N S

Which pairs attract each other?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 4 D 3 and 4

29 Which diagram represents the strength and direction of the magnetic field around a
current-carrying conductor? (The direction of the current is into the page.)

A B C D

30 Which quantity is defined as the energy transferred by a cell in driving unit charge around a
complete circuit?

A current
B electromotive force (e.m.f.)
C power
D resistance

31 There is a current in a variable resistor when a potential difference (p.d.) is applied across it.

In which situation is the current increased?

A Decrease the p.d. and keep the resistance the same.


B Decrease the p.d. and increase the resistance.
C Keep the p.d. the same and decrease the resistance.
D Keep the p.d. the same and increase the resistance.

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32 A student uses four ammeters P, Q, R and S to measure the current in different parts of the
circuit shown.

P Q
A A

R
A

S
A

Which two ammeters read the largest current?

A P and Q B P and R C R and Q D R and S

33 Which combination of logic gates gives the truth table shown?

inputs output
X Y Z

0 0 1
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0

A B

X X
Z Z
Y Y

C D

X X
Z Z
Y Y

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34 The diagram shows an a.c. generator used to power a lamp. The coil rotates in a clockwise
direction.

rotation
of coil
coil

X Y

Which magnetic poles are X and Y?

X Y

A N pole N pole
B N pole S pole
C S pole N pole
D S pole S pole

35 A transformer is needed to convert a supply of 240 V a.c. into 4800 V a.c..

NP NS

240 V a.c. 4800 V a.c.

Which pair of coils would be suitable for this transformer?

number of turns number of turns


on primary coil NP on secondary coil NS

A 50 1 000
B 240 48 000
C 480 24
D 2000 100

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36 The diagram shows a coil of wire wrapped around a soft-iron rod.

The wire is connected to a d.c. power supply as indicated.

The apparatus is in a region which is totally shielded from the Earth’s magnetic field.

+ –

soft-iron rod

A small compass needle is placed at point P.

In which direction does the N pole of the compass needle point?

A towards the bottom of the page


B towards the left of the page
C towards the right of the page
D towards the top of the page

37 Which statement is correct for the nucleus of any atom?

A The nucleus contains electrons, neutrons and protons.


B The nucleus contains the same number of protons as neutrons.
C The nucleus has a total charge of zero.
D The nucleus is very small compared with the size of the atom.

38 The symbol represents a nucleus of zinc.

Which row gives the numbers of protons and neutrons in this nucleus?

number of number of
protons neutrons

A 30 38
B 30 68
C 38 30
D 38 68

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39 The diagram shows a beam of -particles passing through a strong electric field.

β-particles

In which direction will the -particles be deflected?

A upwards towards the top of the page


B downwards towards the bottom of the page
C into the plane of the page
D out of the plane of the page

40 Which equation represents the -decay of lead-209?

209 0 209
A 82Pb + –1e  83Bi
209 0 209
B 82Pb + –1e  81Tl
209 209 0
C 82Pb  83Bi + –1e
209 209 0
D 82Pb  81Tl + –1e

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BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/23
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2020
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*8629790535*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.
 Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages. Blank pages are indicated.

IB20 11_0625_23/4RP
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1 A micrometer screw gauge reads 0.02 mm when the jaws are fully closed. It reads 0.56 mm when
measuring the diameter of a metal wire.

What is the diameter of the wire?

A 0.36 mm B 0.54 mm C 0.56 mm D 0.58 mm

2 Object P moves at a constant speed of 5 m / s repeatedly backwards and forwards in a straight


line.

Object Q moves at a constant speed of 5 m / s vertically downwards.

Object R moves at a constant speed of 5 m / s in a circle.

Which objects are moving with uniform velocity?

A P only B Q only C R only D Q and R

3 The diagram shows a velocity–time graph for an object which is accelerating.

120
velocity 110
m/s 100
90
80
70
60
50
40
30
20
10
0
0 10 20 30 40
time / s

What is the acceleration of the object?

A 0.40 m / s2 B 2.5 m / s2 C 3.0 m / s2 D 100 m / s2

4 Which quantity is weight an example of?

A acceleration
B force
C mass
D pressure

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5 An object of mass 1.0 kg is at rest on Earth. An identical object is at rest on a planet with a
gravitational field strength of twice that on Earth.

Which row correctly compares the object on the planet to the object on Earth?

its acceleration when the same


its weight
horizontal force is applied

A double equal to that on Earth


B double half that on Earth
C half equal to that on Earth
D half half that on Earth

6 A square wooden raft floats on a lake. The density of the water in the lake is 1000 kg / m3.

The sides of the raft are 2.0 m long and the thickness of the raft is 0.20 m.

The mass of the raft is 700 kg.

How many barrels, each of mass 100 kg, could be placed on the raft before its surface sinks to
the surface of the water?

A 1 B 7 C 8 D 15

7 The diagram shows a car moving along a road.

The force due to the engine is 1500 N and the total drag force is 200 N.

engine force
drag force
1500 N
200 N
road

What is the motion of the car?

A constant speed
B decreasing speed
C increasing speed
D reversing

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8 The diagram shows a trolley used to transport a load of 400 N.

A force F vertically downwards is needed to balance the trolley as shown.

The centre of mass of the trolley is vertically above the pivot.

40 cm

F
90 cm 15 cm

30 cm

400 N

pivot

What is the value of F ?

A 133 N B 150 N C 300 N D 400 N

9 A ball of mass m falls vertically and hits a hard surface.

Its speed on hitting the surface is v1.

It rebounds vertically upwards with speed v2.

What is the change in momentum of the ball?

A mv1 B mv2 C m(v1 + v2) D m(v2 – v1)

10 An object of mass 4.5 kg is travelling at 7.0 m / s.

How much kinetic energy does the object have?

A 16 J B 32 J C 110 J D 220 J

11 A number of ways in which we use energy are listed.

In which is the ultimate source of energy not the Sun?

A Energy is provided by a horse to pull a cart.


B Energy is provided by hydroelectric generators to heat a house.
C Energy is provided by a nuclear power station.
D Energy is provided by a windmill to pump water to a fountain.

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12 To calculate the power produced by a force, the size of the force must be known.

What else needs to be known to calculate the power?

the distance that the force the time for which the
moves the object force acts on the object

A   key
B    = needed
C    = not needed
D  

13 A student calculates the pressure due to the liquid at point X.

liquid

The student takes four measurements.

1 density of the liquid


2 temperature of the liquid
3 depth of point X below the surface of the liquid
4 surface area of the liquid

Which measurements must the student use in her pressure calculation?

A 3 and 4 B 1 and 3 C 1 and 2 D 2 and 3

14 The diagram shows a mercury barometer.

Which height is used as a measurement of atmospheric pressure?

D
mercury
C
B

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15 A student splashes water on to her face. Here are three statements about the effects.

P The water uses energy to evaporate.


Q The water gains energy from the student.
R The face of the student cools.

Which statements are correct?

A P and Q only B P and R only C Q and R only D P, Q and R

16 Equal volumes of solids and liquids experience different changes of volume when they are
heated through the same temperature range.

What is the reason for this?

A The average increase in separation of the particles in a liquid is greater than the average
increase in separation of those in a solid.
B The average increase in separation of the particles in a liquid is less than the average
increase in separation of those in a solid.
C The particles in liquids expand by less than those in solids.
D The particles in liquids expand by more than those in solids.

17 Which physical property changes when temperature is measured with a liquid-in-glass


thermometer?

A electromotive force
B pressure
C resistance
D volume

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18 The diagram shows steam being passed into water to raise the temperature of the water.

steam from
steam generator

water

The specific latent heat of steam is 2200 J / g.

The specific heat capacity of water is 4.2 J / (g C).

The mass of water being heated is 490 g.

Which mass of steam must be passed into the water to raise the water temperature from 19 C to
100 C?

A 19 g B 76 g C 80 g D 95 g

19 The diagram shows the view of a room heated by a radiator. The arrowed line from X to Y is the
path of the convection current in the air.

ceiling

X
Y

radiator
floor

Which row about the air temperature and the air density at X and at Y is correct?

air temperature air density

A higher at X higher at X
B higher at X higher at Y
C higher at Y higher at Y
D higher at Y higher at X

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20 A warm dark-coloured surface emits radiation. It is decided to increase the amount of radiation
produced.

Three suggestions are made.

1 Make the surface hotter.


2 Colour the surface white.
3 Increase the area of the surface.

Which suggestions are correct?

A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

21 Which row correctly describes light waves?

wave type direction of vibrations

A longitudinal parallel to direction of wave travel


B longitudinal perpendicular to direction of wave travel
C transverse parallel to direction of wave travel
D transverse perpendicular to direction of wave travel

22 A water wave has a speed of 2.0 m / s.

4.0 complete waves pass a point every 10 seconds.

What is the wavelength of the wave?

A 0.50 m B 0.80 m C 5.0 m D 8.0 m

23 A driver sits in a car. She has a rear-view plane mirror 0.5 m in front of her. A bus is 7.5 m behind
the driver.

bus
car driver

mirror

The driver looks at the image of the bus in her mirror.

How far is the image away from her?

A 1.0 m B 7.5 m C 8.0 m D 8.5 m

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24 The diagram shows white light passing through a prism.

red
violet
white
light

Which description of what happens as the light passes into the prism is correct?

A The speed of the red light is less than the speed of the violet light and the red light is the
least refracted.
B The speed of the red light is greater than the speed of the violet light and the red light is the
least refracted.
C The speed of the violet light is less than the speed of the red light and the violet light is the
least refracted.
D The speed of the violet light is greater than the speed of the red light and the violet light is the
least refracted.

25 The diagram shows three types of electromagnetic radiation listed in a particular order. The
electromagnetic radiation is travelling in a vacuum.

microwaves infrared X-rays

Which quantities increase in magnitude going from left to right across the list?

A frequency only
B neither speed nor frequency
C speed and frequency
D speed only

26 A sound wave travels through air.

What name is given to a region in which the air molecules are further apart than normal?

A compression
B contraction
C rarefaction
D vacuum

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27 A police car with its siren sounding is stationary in heavy traffic. A pedestrian notices that,
although the loudness of the sound produced does not change, the pitch varies.

Which row describes the amplitude and the frequency of the sound?

amplitude frequency

A constant constant
B constant varying
C varying constant
D varying varying

28 A piece of steel is slightly magnetised. It is hit several times with a hammer.

What effect will this have on the steel?

the steel is parallel to the steel is at right-angles


a strong magnetic field to a weak magnetic field

A it becomes magnetised more strongly it becomes magnetised more strongly


B it becomes magnetised more strongly it loses its magnetism
C it loses its magnetism it becomes magnetised more strongly
D it loses its magnetism it loses its magnetism

29 A negatively charged cloud passes over a tall steel-framed building. A charge is induced on the
building by the cloud because charges flow through the building.

cloud
– – –
– – – –

tall building

earth

What charge is induced on the building and in which direction do the charge carriers move?

charge induced
direction of charge flow
on building

A positive from the building to earth


B positive from earth to the building
C negative from the building to earth
D negative from earth to the building

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30 Electromotive force (e.m.f.) is defined in terms of the energy supplied in driving which physical
quantity around a complete circuit?

A charge
B current
C potential difference (p.d.)
D power

31 A student uses four ammeters P, Q, R and S to measure the current in different parts of the
circuit shown.

P Q
A A

R
A

S
A

Which two ammeters read the largest current?

A P and Q B P and R C R and Q D R and S

32 Three statements about a relay are given.

1 A relay has a coil that becomes a temporary magnet when in operation.


2 A large current in a relay coil is used to switch off a smaller current.
3 A small current in a relay coil is used to switch on a larger current.

Which statements are correct?

A 1 and 2 only B 2 and 3 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

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33 Which combination of logic gates gives the truth table shown?

inputs output
X Y Z

0 0 1
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0

A B

X X
Z Z
Y Y

C D

X X
Z Z
Y Y

34 Graph X shows the output from an a.c. generator.

p.d. X

0
0 time

Which changes can be made so that the generator produces graph Y?

A Decrease the magnetic field strength and decrease the speed of rotation only.
B Increase the magnetic field strength and decrease the number of coils only.
C Increase the number of coils only.
D Increase the speed of rotation only.

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35 A transformer is needed to convert a supply of 240 V a.c. into 4800 V a.c..

NP NS

240 V a.c. 4800 V a.c.

Which pair of coils would be suitable for this transformer?

number of turns number of turns


on primary coil NP on secondary coil NS

A 50 1 000
B 240 48 000
C 480 24
D 2000 100

36 The diagram shows a wire carrying a current in the direction shown. There is a magnetic field
acting from left to right. The wire experiences a force acting out of the page.

direction
of current
wire

direction of
magnetic field

The current is now reversed.

In which direction does the force on the wire now act?

A into the page


B out of the page
C to the left
D to the right

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37 Which statement is correct for the nucleus of any atom?

A The nucleus contains electrons, neutrons and protons.


B The nucleus contains the same number of protons as neutrons.
C The nucleus has a total charge of zero.
D The nucleus is very small compared with the size of the atom.

234
38 How many protons and how many neutrons are in a nucleus of 90Th?

protons neutrons

A 90 144
B 90 234
C 144 90
D 234 90

39 Which statement about -rays is correct?

A They are deflected by both electric and magnetic fields.


B They are deflected by magnetic fields but not by electric fields.
C They are deflected by electric fields but not by magnetic fields.
D They are not deflected either by electric fields or by magnetic fields.

40 Which equation represents the -decay of lead-209?

209 0 209
A 82Pb + –1e o 83Bi
209 0 209
B 82Pb + –1e o 81Tl
209 209 0
C 82Pb o 83Bi + –1e
209 209 0
D 82Pb o 81Tl + –1e

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2020 0625/23/O/N/20


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Cambridge IGCSE®

PHYSICS 0625/02
*0123456789*

Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) For examination from 2020


SPECIMEN PAPER
45 minutes
Additional materials: Multiple choice answer sheet
Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the answer sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate answer sheet.

Read the instructions on the answer sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

This document consists of 23 printed pages and 1 blank page.

© UCLES 2017 [Turn over

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1 Which quantity is measured in newton seconds (N s)?

A impulse
B moment
C power
D work done

2 Which measurement can be made using a micrometer screw gauge?

A the air pressure of a tyre


B the diameter of a wire
C the turning effect of a spanner
D the wavelength of microwaves

3 A parachutist is falling at terminal velocity, without her parachute open.

She now opens her parachute.

What is the direction of her motion, and what is the direction of her acceleration, immediately
after she opens her parachute?

direction of motion of direction of acceleration


the parachutist of the parachutist

A downwards downwards
B downwards upwards
C upwards downwards
D upwards upwards

4 An astronaut in an orbiting spacecraft experiences a force due to gravity. This force is less than
when she is on the Earth’s surface.

Compared with being on the Earth’s surface, how do her mass and her weight change when she
goes into orbit?

mass in orbit weight in orbit

A decreases decreases
B decreases unchanged
C unchanged decreases
D unchanged unchanged

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5 The diagram shows an experiment to find the density of a liquid.

cm3 cm3
50 50
40 measuring 40
cylinder
30 30
liquid
20 20
10 balance 10

g g

What is the density of the liquid?

A 0.5 g / cm3 B 2.0 g / cm3 C 8.0 g / cm3 D 10.0 g / cm3

6 An experiment is carried out to measure the extension of a rubber band for different loads.

The results are shown below.

load / N 0 1.0 2.0 3.0


length / cm 15.2 16.2 18.6
extension / cm 0 1.0 2.1 3.4

Which figure is missing from the table?

A 17.2 B 17.3 C 17.4 D 17.6

7 The diagram shows a satellite that is moving at a uniform rate in a circular orbit around the Earth.

Which statement describes the motion of this satellite?

A It is accelerating because its speed is changing.


B It is accelerating because its velocity is changing.
C It is not accelerating but its speed is changing.
D It is not accelerating but its velocity is changing.

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8 Which statement about an object moving in a straight line through air is correct?

A When it accelerates, the resultant force acting on it is zero.


B When it moves at a steady speed, the air resistance acting on it is zero.
C When it moves at a steady speed, the resultant force acting on it is zero.
D When it moves, there is a resultant force acting on it.

9 A beam pivoted at one end has a force of 5.0 N acting vertically upwards on it as shown. The
beam is in equilibrium.

5.0 N

2.0 cm 3.0 cm

pivot

weight
of beam

What is the weight of the beam?

A 2.0 N B 3.0 N C 3.3 N D 5.0 N

10 A car has a mass of 1000 kg and a momentum of 12 000 kg m / s.

What is its kinetic energy?

A 6 kJ
B 12 kJ
C 72 kJ
D 144 kJ

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11 Which diagram shows two forces X and Y with their resultant force?

resultant

resultant
Y
X Y

X
A B

resultant

resultant

Y X
Y

C D

12 A ball is dropped on to a hard surface and bounces. It does not bounce all the way back to where
it started, and so has not regained all of its original gravitational potential energy.

ball dropped
from here
ball bounces
to here

hard surface

Which statement accounts for the loss of gravitational potential energy?

A Energy was destroyed as the ball hit the ground.


B Energy was destroyed as the ball travelled through the air.
C The chemical energy and elastic energy of the ball have increased.
D The internal (heat) energy of the ball and its surroundings has increased.

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13 The Sun is the original source of energy for many of our energy resources.

Which energy resource does not originate from the Sun?

A geothermal
B hydroelectric
C waves
D wind

14 A dam across a lake is divided into two sections by a rock. Section X is longer than section Y but
the two sections are otherwise identical. The water in the lake by the dam is the same depth
everywhere. The diagram shows a view from above of the lake and the dam.

section X of dam

water in
lake
rock

section Y of dam

The water creates a total force on each section of the dam and an average pressure on each
section of the dam.

Which statement is correct?

A The average pressure on X equals the average pressure on Y.


B The average pressure on X is less than the average pressure on Y.
C The total force on X equals the total force on Y.
D The total force on X is less than the total force on Y.

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15 The diagram shows a simple mercury barometer alongside a mercury manometer. The
manometer contains some trapped gas.
cm
90
vacuum
80

70
trapped
gas
60

50

76 cm 40
mercury
30

20

10

What is the pressure of the trapped gas?

A 10 cm of mercury
B 50 cm of mercury
C 66 cm of mercury
D 86 cm of mercury

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16 Very small pollen grains are suspended in a beaker of water. A bright light shines from the side.

Small, bright dots of light are seen through a microscope. The dots move in rapidly changing,
random directions.

eye

microscope

light

pollen grains
in water

What are the bright dots?

A pollen grains being hit by other pollen grains


B pollen grains being hit by water molecules
C water molecules being hit by other water molecules
D water molecules being hit by pollen grains

17 A sealed gas cylinder is left outside on a hot, sunny day.

What happens to the average speed of the gas molecules and to the pressure of the gas in the
cylinder as the temperature of the gas rises?

average speed of pressure of gas in


gas molecules cylinder

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

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18 The diagram shows four beakers A, B, C and D. The beakers contain different amounts of the
same liquid at the same temperature. The beakers are left next to each other on a laboratory
bench overnight. The diagrams are all drawn to the same scale.

From which beaker does the largest quantity of liquid evaporate?

A B C D

19 Which line in the table shows the relative expansion of the three states of matter from the most
expansion to the least expansion?

most expansion least expansion

A solids > liquids > gases


B solids > gases > liquids
C gases > liquids > solids
D gases > solids > liquids

20 The diagram shows a liquid-in-glass thermometer.

glass bulb stem

–10 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 110 °C

liquid liquid
thread

Which two features both affect the sensitivity of the thermometer?

A mass of liquid and diameter of liquid thread


B mass of liquid and length of stem
C thickness of glass bulb and diameter of liquid thread
D thickness of glass bulb and length of stem

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21 A student wishes to calculate the specific heat capacity of copper.

He has a block of copper and an electrical heater. He knows the power of the heater.

Which other apparatus does he need?

balance stop watch thermometer

A 9 9 9 key
B 9 9 8 9 = needed
C 9 8 9 8 = not needed
D 8 9 9

22 A mass of 0.20 kg of a substance is initially solid.

It is heated at a steady rate of 500 W.

The graph shows how the temperature of the substance changes with time.

temperature
/ °C

0
0 100 300 time / s

What is the specific latent heat of fusion of the substance?

A 20 000 J / kg
B 30 000 J / kg
C 500 000 J / kg
D 750 000 J / kg

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23 The diagram shows some ice being used to lower the temperature of some warm water.

ice

warm water
glass

What is the main process by which the water at the bottom of the glass becomes cool?

A condensation
B conduction
C convection
D radiation

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24 The diagrams show water waves that move more slowly after passing into shallow water.

Which diagram shows what happens to the waves?

A B
fast slow fast slow

deep shallow deep shallow


water water water water

C D
fast slow fast slow

deep shallow deep shallow


water water water water

25 The diagram shows a ray of monochromatic light passing through a semi-circular glass block.

50° ray emerges in air


close to glass
surface

incident reflected
ray glass ray
air

What is the refractive index of the glass?

A 0.64 B 0.77 C 1.31 D 1.56

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26 An object O is placed close to a thin converging lens.

The diagram represents three rays from the top of O passing through the lens.

Which type of image is produced by the lens when the object O is in this position?

A real and diminished


B real and enlarged
C virtual and diminished
D virtual and enlarged

27 An echo-sounder on a ship produces a pulse of sound. The echo is received by the echo-sounder
after two seconds.

ship

echo-sounder

sea bed

The speed of sound in sea-water is 1500 m / s.

What is the depth of the sea-water below the ship?

A 750 m B 1500 m C 3000 m D 6000 m

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28 The diagram shows apparatus that can be used to make a magnet.

power supply

metal

coil

Which metal and which power supply are used to make a permanent magnet?

metal power supply

A iron 6 V a.c.
B iron 6 V d.c.
C steel 6 V a.c.
D steel 6 V d.c.

29 A positively charged plastic rod is placed just above a thick metal plate. The metal plate rests on
an insulator and is connected to the earth by a wire.

positive rod metal plate

+ + + + + +
earthing wire

insulator

A student disconnects the earthing wire and then removes the positively charged rod.

The experiment is repeated. This time the student removes the positively charged rod and then
removes the earthing wire.

Which statement is correct?

A When the earthing wire is disconnected first, the metal plate becomes positively charged.
B When the earthing wire is disconnected first, the metal plate becomes negatively charged.
C When the plastic rod is removed first, the metal plate becomes positively charged.
D When the plastic rod is removed first, the metal plate becomes negatively charged.

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30 The resistance of a wire depends on its length l and on its cross-sectional area A.

The resistance is

A directly proportional to l and directly proportional to A.


B directly proportional to l and inversely proportional to A.
C inversely proportional to l and directly proportional to A.

D inversely proportional to l and inversely proportional to A.

31 In the circuit shown, the ammeter reads 2.0 A and the voltmeter reads 12 V.

12 V

6.0 Ω

How much energy is transferred by the resistor in 10 seconds?

A 2.4 J
B 14.4 J
C 240 J
D 1440 J

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32 The diagram shows part of an electrical circuit.

3.0 A 4.0 Ω

A
2.0 Ω

The current in the 4.0 Ω resistor is 3.0 A.

What is the current in the ammeter?

A 4.5 A
B 6.0 A
C 9.0 A
D 12.0 A

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33 The circuit diagram shows a thermistor in a potential divider. A voltmeter is connected across the
thermistor.

The graph shows how the resistance of the thermistor changes with temperature.

resistance

temperature

As the thermistor becomes warmer, what happens to its resistance and what happens to the
reading on the voltmeter?

resistance voltmeter reading

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

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34 A circuit-breaker is designed to protect a circuit which usually carries a current of 2 A.

The time taken to break the circuit depends on the current, as shown in the graph.

160
time taken
140
to break the
circuit / s 120
100
80
60
40
20
0
0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 18 20

current / A

What happens when the current in the circuit is 2 A and what happens when the current is 18 A?

when the current is 2 A when the current is 18 A

A the circuit breaks in less than 5 seconds the circuit breaks in less than 5 seconds
B the circuit breaks in less than 5 seconds the circuit does not break
C the circuit does not break the circuit breaks in less than 5 seconds
D the circuit does not break the circuit does not break

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35 A solenoid is connected in series with a sensitive ammeter. The N pole of a magnet is placed
next to one end of the solenoid, marked X.

solenoid

N X

magnet

First, the N pole of the magnet is pushed towards X, then the magnet is pulled away from X.
During both stages the ammeter deflects.

Which type of magnetic pole is induced at X during these two stages?

as N pole moves as N pole moves away


towards X from X

A N pole N pole
B N pole S pole
C S pole N pole
D S pole S pole

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36 The diagram shows a transformer.

soft-iron core

primary secondary
coil coil

Which row describes the magnetic field in the soft-iron core and the magnetic field in the
secondary coil when the transformer is operating?

magnetic field
in soft-iron core in secondary coil

A changing changing
B changing constant
C constant changing
D constant constant

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37 The graph shows the output of an a.c. generator. The coil in the generator rotates 20 times in one
second.

+1
output
p.d. / V 0
0 0.05 0.10 time / s
–1

The speed of rotation of the coil steadily increases.

Which graph best shows how the output changes?

+1
output
A p.d. / V 0
0 0.05 0.10 time / s
–1

+1
output
B p.d. / V 0
0 0.05 0.10 time / s
–1

+2
output
p.d. / V
+1

C 0
0 0.05 0.10 time / s
–1

–2

+2
output
p.d. / V
+1

D 0
0 0.05 0.10 time / s
–1

–2

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38 The diagram shows a wire placed between two magnetic poles of equal strength.

A current passes through the wire in the direction shown. The current causes a downward force
on the wire.

wire

direction
of force
direction
of current

What is the arrangement of the magnetic poles?

S N
A

N S
B

N N
C

S S
D

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39 A beam of γ-rays passes between two charged metal plates as shown in the diagram.

γ-rays

How do the γ-rays pass between the two charged plates?

A The rays are deflected in a direction perpendicular to the page


B The rays are deflected towards the negative plate.
C The rays are deflected towards the positive plate.
D The rays will continue in the same direction.

40 A powder contains 400 mg of a radioactive isotope that emits α-particles.

The half-life of the isotope is 5 days.

What mass of this isotope remains after 10 days?

A 0 mg B 40 mg C 100 mg D 200 mg

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

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Cambridge Assessment International Education
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) February/March 2019
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*1358010994*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

This syllabus is regulated for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 15 printed pages and 1 blank page.

IB19 03_0625_22/3RP
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1 Which row shows the best choice of measuring instruments to obtain accurate values for the
distances shown?

diameter of wire height of bench length of laboratory


A measuring tape measuring tape micrometer
screw gauge
B metre rule micrometer measuring tape
screw gauge
C micrometer measuring tape metre rule
screw gauge
D micrometer metre rule measuring tape
screw gauge

2 An object is moving with uniform deceleration.

Which statement describes its motion?

A Its rate of change of speed is decreasing.


B Its speed is constant.
C Its speed is decreasing.
D Its speed is increasing.

3 The graph shows how the speed of a car varies during part of its journey.

20
speed
m/s 15

10

0
0 2 4 6 8 10 12
time / s

What is the value of the car’s acceleration between 6 s and 10 s?

A 0.50 m / s2 B 0.80 m / s2 C 1.25 m / s2 D 1.50 m / s2

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4 The gravitational field strength on the Moon is less than on the Earth.

Which of these is different when done on the Moon compared with when done on the Earth?

A the gravitational potential energy gained by a stone lifted through the same vertical height
B the kinetic energy gained by a ball when hit with the same force for the same period of time
C the momentum gained by a bullet when fired from the same gun
D the work done in accelerating a stone from rest to the same speed

5 The mass of a full bottle of cooking oil is 1.30 kg.

When exactly half of the oil has been used, the mass of the bottle plus the remaining oil is
0.90 kg.

1.30 0.90
kg kg

What is the mass of the empty bottle?

A 0.40 kg B 0.50 kg C 0.65 kg D 0.80 kg

6 A solid ball has a volume of 4.0 cm3. The density of the ball is 1.6 g / cm3.

What is the mass of the ball?

A 0.4 g B 2.5 g C 4.0 g D 6.4 g

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7 The extension / load graph for a spring is shown. The unstretched length of the spring is 15.0 cm.

3
extension / cm

0
0 1 2 3 4 5
load / N

When an object of unknown weight is suspended on the spring, the length of the spring is
16.4 cm.

What is the weight of the object?

A 0.55 N B 0.67 N C 3.5 N D 4.1 N

8 A box of mass 2.0 kg is pulled across the floor by a force of 6.0 N.

The frictional force acting on the box is 1.0 N.

What is the acceleration of the box?

A 0.40 m / s2 B 2.5 m / s2 C 3.0 m / s2 D 3.5 m / s2

9 Which moving body has a resultant force acting on it?

A a diver rising vertically through water at constant speed


B an aircraft circling an airport at constant speed
C a train going up a straight incline at constant speed
D a parachutist descending vertically at terminal velocity

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10 A constant force acts on a body causing the momentum of the body to increase.

Which expression relates the force to the momentum and the time taken?
change in momentum
A force =
time taken

B force = momentum
time taken
C force = change in momentum × time taken

D force = momentum × time taken

11 A car of mass 1500 kg has a speed of 20 m / s. It accelerates until its speed is 25 m / s.

What is the increase in the kinetic energy of the car?

A 19 kJ B 38 kJ C 170 kJ D 340 kJ

12 Which source of energy uses the production of steam to generate electrical energy?

A hydroelectric
B nuclear
C tides
D waves

13 A car, travelling on a straight horizontal road, has 1.6 MJ of kinetic energy. It accelerates for 20 s
until it has 2.5 MJ of kinetic energy.

What is the average power output used to increase the kinetic energy of the car?

A 45 W B 205 W C 45 kW D 205 kW

14 Which diagram shows an athlete exerting least pressure on the ground?

A B C D

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15 The diagram shows a U-tube manometer containing three liquids: mercury, liquid X and liquid Y.
Neither liquid X or liquid Y mixes with mercury.

liquid X liquid Y

mercury

Which row compares the pressure exerted by liquid X and by liquid Y on the mercury, and the
density of liquid X and the density of liquid Y?

pressure exerted by X and densities of


by Y on the mercury X and of Y

A pressure of X is greater than Y density of X is greater than Y


B pressure of Y is greater than X density of Y is greater than X
C pressure of X and of Y is the same density of X is greater than Y
D pressure of X and of Y is the same density of Y is greater than X

16 Gas molecules exert a pressure when they collide with the walls of a container.

Which statement is correct?

A They experience a change in force which exerts a pressure equal to momentum × area on
the walls.

B They experience a change in force which exerts a pressure equal to momentum on the
area
walls.
C They experience a change in momentum which exerts a pressure equal to force × area on
the walls.

D They experience a change in momentum which exerts a pressure equal to force on the
area
walls.

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17 A thermometer has graduations which start at –10 °C and end at 110 °C.

–10 0 100 110

°C

What is the lower fixed point and what is the upper fixed point of the Celsius scale?

lower fixed point upper fixed point


/ °C / °C

A –10 100
B –10 110
C 0 100
D 0 110

18 A 1 kg block of aluminium requires more thermal energy to raise its temperature by 1 °C than a
1 kg block of copper requires.

Why is this?

A Aluminium is a better conductor of thermal energy than copper.


B Aluminium is a poorer conductor of thermal energy than copper.
C Aluminium has a higher specific heat capacity than copper.
D Aluminium has a lower specific heat capacity than copper.

19 Four campers are warming their food on a fire.

They use different rods, each of the same dimensions, to hold their food near the fire.

rod

food

fire

Which material is the best choice to prevent their hands from getting too hot?

A aluminium
B copper
C steel
D wood

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20 Two metal cans are identical, except that one has a shiny silver outer surface and the other has a
dull black outer surface. They each have 300 g of water at 80 °C sealed inside them. They are
both in a vacuum, in the darkness of outer space.

How does the temperature of the water in each one change?

A Neither one will cool down.


B The water in the black can cools more slowly than that in the shiny can.
C The water in the shiny can cools more slowly than that in the black can.
D They both cool down at the same rate.

21 The diagram shows a wave before it reflects from a barrier.

Which labelled section of the diagram represents a wavefront?

barrier

C D

22 A vibrating object produces ripples on the surface of a liquid. The object completes 20 vibrations
every second. The spacing of the ripples, from one crest to the next, is 3.0 cm.

What is the speed of the ripples?

A 0.15 cm / s B 6.7 cm / s C 60 cm / s D 120 cm / s

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23 A narrow beam of light is travelling through a transparent liquid. It meets the surface as shown, at
an angle of incidence of 40°. The refractive index of the liquid is 1.5.

air
liquid
40°

What is the angle of refraction as the light enters the air?

A 25° B 27° C 60° D 75°

24 Which diagram correctly represents rays of light passing through a converging lens in a camera?

A B
camera camera

object object
image image
lens lens

C D
camera camera

object object
image image
lens lens

25 What is the speed of X-rays in a vacuum and in air?

in a vacuum in air

A 3.0 × 106 m / s 2.0 × 106 m / s


B 3.0 × 106 m / s 3.0 × 106 m / s
C 3.0 × 108 m / s 2.0 × 108 m / s
D 3.0 × 108 m / s 3.0 × 108 m / s

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26 A sound wave passes a point. The air pressure at that point increases and then decreases
300 times every second.

Which descriptions apply to this sound wave?

the type of wave motion the frequency of the sound

A longitudinal outside human hearing range


B longitudinal within human hearing range
C transverse outside human hearing range
D transverse within human hearing range

27 A boy stands 150 m from a wall. He claps and when he hears the echo, he immediately claps
again. He continues this for some time.

Another student has a stop-watch. She starts the watch on the first clap and stops it on the
eleventh clap. The watch reads 10.0 s.

Which value do her measurements give for the speed of sound in air?

A 150 m / s B 170 m / s C 300 m / s D 330 m / s

28 The ends of three metal rods are tested by holding end Q of rod 1 close to the others in turn.

R T

Q S U

rod 1 rod 2 rod 3

The results are as follows.

End Q attracts end R.


End Q attracts end S.
End Q attracts end T.
End Q repels end U.

Which of the metal rods is a magnet?

A rod 1 only
B rod 1 and rod 2
C rod 1 and rod 3
D rod 3 only

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29 A metal sphere is charged by induction. There are four stages W, X, Y and Z in this process.

W a charged rod is brought near to the sphere


X the sphere is earthed
Y the charged rod is taken away from the sphere
Z the earth connection is removed

In which order are the four stages carried out?

A W → X → Y → Z

B W → X → Z → Y

C Z → W → X → Y

D X → Z → W → Y

30 Which electrical quantity is defined in terms of the energy supplied in driving charge round a
complete circuit?

A current
B electromotive force
C potential difference
D power

31 A student sets up a circuit containing a battery of two cells and three lamps, as shown.

– + – +

What is the circuit diagram for this arrangement?

A B C D

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32 In which circuit does the lamp light?

A B C D

33 Each potential divider is placed in a circuit with a power supply.

Which potential divider makes the potential difference across component Y increase when the
light intensity increases?

A B C D

X X X X

Y Y Y Y

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34 There are two inputs to the combination of logic gates shown, and one output.

input 1
output
input 2

Which truth table represents the action of this combination of gates?

A B

input 1 input 2 output input 1 input 2 output


0 0 0 0 0 0
0 1 0 0 1 1
1 0 0 1 0 1
1 1 1 1 1 1

C D

input 1 input 2 output input 1 input 2 output


0 0 1 0 0 1
0 1 1 0 1 0
1 0 1 1 0 0
1 1 0 1 1 0

35 The current in a kettle is 10 A and the kettle is protected by a 13 A fuse.

The owner of the kettle replaces the 13 A fuse with a 3 A fuse.

What happens when the kettle is switched on?

A The fuse melts and the kettle might be damaged.


B The fuse melts and the kettle is undamaged.
C The fuse does not melt and the kettle works correctly.
D The fuse does not melt but the kettle fails to work.

36 Which statement about the direction of a magnetic field at a point is correct?

A It is the direction of the force on a north pole placed at that point.


B It is the direction of the force on a south pole placed at that point.
C It is the direction of the force on a positive charge placed at that point.
D It is the direction of the force on a negative charge placed at that point.

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37 A current-carrying coil is placed in a magnetic field.

view from above

coil magnetic field lines

Which effect does the coil experience?

A a change in shape
B a change in weight
C a resultant force
D a turning effect

38 What are isotopes of an element?

A atoms of a different element with a different number of neutrons


B atoms of a different element with a different number of protons
C atoms of the same element with a different number of neutrons
D atoms of the same element with a different number of protons

39 A radioactive isotope of carbon 14C decays by beta emission to give an isotope of nitrogen 14
N
and a beta particle. The equation for the reaction is shown.

14
XC → 14
7N + Y0β
What is the value of X and of Y?

X Y

A 6 –1
B 6 1
C 8 –1
D 8 1

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40 A beta particle is a fast moving electron.

Which statement explains how beta particles are emitted from an atom?

A An electron is emitted as a beta particle from an inner electron shell of the atom.
B An electron is emitted as a beta particle from an outer electron shell of the atom.
C A neutron changes into a proton and a beta particle is emitted from the nucleus.
D A proton changes into a neutron and a beta particle is emitted from the nucleus.

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BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/F/M/19


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Cambridge Assessment International Education
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/21
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2019
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*7296374499*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

This syllabus is regulated for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 16 printed pages.

IB19 06_0625_21/3RP
© UCLES 2019 [Turn over

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1 Which quantity can be measured directly using a micrometer screw gauge?

A the area of a sheet of paper


B the mass of a sheet of paper
C the thickness of a sheet of paper
D the volume of a sheet of paper

2 The velocity of an object increases from 30 m / s to 50 m / s in 5.0 seconds.

What is the average acceleration of the object?

A 0.10 m / s2 B 0.25 m / s2 C 4.0 m / s2 D 10 m / s2

3 A heavy metal ball falls vertically downwards through air past four equally spaced levels J, K, L
and M.

metal ball

level J

level K

level L

level M

The times taken to fall from one level to the next are measured.

Where is the speed of the ball greatest and which time is shortest?

speed is time is
greatest between shortest between

A J and K J and K
B J and K L and M
C L and M J and K
D L and M L and M

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4 A body is moved from place X to place Y where the gravitational field strength is different.

What happens to its mass and to its weight due to the move?

mass weight

A changes changes
B changes stays the same
C stays the same changes
D stays the same stays the same

5 The diagrams show four solid blocks with their dimensions and masses.

Which block has the greatest density?

A area = 10 cm2 B area = 20 cm2

2.0 cm 2.0 cm

mass = 14 g mass = 48 g

C area = 10 cm2 D area = 20 cm2

2.0 cm 2.0 cm

mass = 54 g mass = 68 g

6 A student wishes to determine the spring constant of a spring where it obeys Hooke’s law.

Different loads are hung from the spring and its length is measured for each different load.

The table shows the results of the experiment.

weight of load / N 0 2.0 4.0 5.0


length of spring / cm 12 20 28 38

What is the value of the spring constant of the spring?

A 0.13 N / cm B 0.14 N / cm C 0.19 N / cm D 0.25 N / cm

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7 A mass of 20 kg is held stationary by a rope passing over a frictionless pulley.

pulley

20 kg

What is the tension T in the rope?

A 10 kg B 20 kg C 100 N D 200 N

8 A boat starts moving across a river at velocity v perpendicular to the river bank.

The boat encounters a current along the river of velocity u, as shown.

u river

Which vector diagram shows the resultant velocity r of the boat?

A B C D
u u
r r
v v
v v
r r
u u

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9 A ball of mass 0.50 kg falls and hits the floor at 10 m / s.

It rebounds at speed 8.0 m / s, as shown.

before collision after collision

10 m / s 8m/s

The collision between the ball and the floor lasts for 0.50 s.

What is the average force acting on the ball during the collision?

A 2.0 N upwards
B 2.0 N downwards
C 18 N upwards
D 18 N downwards

10 An object falls from the top of a building that is 25 m high. Air resistance is negligible.

What is the speed of the object when it hits the ground?

A 10 m / s B 22 m / s C 25 m / s D 625 m / s

11 A machine is very efficient.

What does this mean?

A It produces a large amount of power.


B It uses very little energy.
C It wastes very little energy.
D It works very quickly.

12 A crane takes 2.0 minutes to lift a load to the top of a building. The change in gravitational
potential energy of the load is 360 kJ.

What is the useful power output of the crane?

A 3.0 kW B 180 kW C 720 kW D 43 200 kW

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13 The diagram shows a stone suspended on a string under the surface of a liquid. The stone
experiences a pressure caused by the liquid.

string

stone

liquid

What would increase the pressure on the stone?

A decreasing the surface area of the stone


B increasing the mass of the stone
C lowering the stone deeper into the liquid
D using a liquid with a lower density

14 A stationary smoke particle is hit by a fast-moving nitrogen molecule.

Which row describes the motion of the smoke particle and of the nitrogen molecule after the
collision?

smoke particle nitrogen molecule

A moves rebounds
B moves stops
C remains stationary rebounds
D remains stationary stops

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15 A night storage heater contains a large block of material that is heated electrically during the
night. During the day the block cools down, releasing thermal energy into the room.

Which thermal capacity and which night-time temperature increase will cause the most energy to
be stored by the block?

thermal capacity night-time


of block temperature increase

A large large
B large small
C small large
D small small

16 100 g of water at 25 °C is poured into an insulating cup. 50 g of ice at 0 °C is added to the water.
The water is stirred until the temperature of the water has fallen to 0 °C.

18 g of ice remains unmelted.

The specific heat capacity of water is 4.2 J / g °C.

Which value does this experiment give for the specific latent heat of fusion of ice?

A 210 J / g B 330 J / g C 580 J / g D 770 J / g

17 In which does thermal conduction not occur?

A a gas
B a liquid
C a solid
D a vacuum

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18 The metal surface of a kettle is hot.

What happens to the cool air outside the kettle when it comes into contact with the hot kettle?

A The density of the air decreases and the air falls.


B The density of the air decreases and the air rises.
C The density of the air increases and the air falls.
D The density of the air increases and the air rises.

19 Some hot water is sealed inside a metal can. The can is in a vacuum in outer space. The hot
water slowly cools down.

How does the thermal energy escape into space?

A by conduction then convection


B by conduction then radiation
C by evaporation then convection
D by evaporation then radiation

20 When water waves pass through a gap they diffract.

The diagrams show wavefronts approaching a narrow gap.

In which diagram will the diffraction be least?

A B C D

21 An object is placed 30 cm in front of a plane mirror.

Which statement describes the image of the object?

A The image is the same size and 30 cm from the object.


B The image is the same size and 60 cm from the object.
C The image is smaller and 30 cm from the object.
D The image is smaller and 60 cm from the object.

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22 A small object O is placed near a converging lens, as shown. The lens forms an image I.

I O

Which statement is correct?

A The image I is diminished.

B The image I is inverted.

C The image I is real.


D The object O is closer to the lens than its principal focus.

23 An eclipse of the Sun happens when the Moon comes between the Earth and the Sun.

Which statement is correct?

A Infra-red radiation from the Sun disappears before visible light and ultra-violet radiation.
B Ultra-violet radiation from the Sun disappears before visible light and infra-red radiation.
C Visible light from the Sun disappears before ultra-violet radiation and infra-red radiation.
D Infra-red radiation, ultra-violet radiation and visible light from the Sun all disappear at the
same moment.

24 A pulse of sound is produced at the bottom of a boat. The sound travels through the water and is
reflected from a shoal of fish. The sound reaches the boat again after 1.2 s. The speed of sound
in the water is 1500 m / s.

boat

shoal of fish

How far below the bottom of the boat is the shoal of fish?

A 450 m B 900 m C 1800 m D 3600 m

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25 What is the approximate value of the speed of sound in air at normal temperature?

A 340 m / s B 34 000 m / s C 340 km / s D 3.0 × 108 m / s

26 Why is soft iron used for the core of an electromagnet?

A Soft iron easily becomes a permanent magnet.


B Soft iron is a good electrical conductor.
C Soft iron is a poor thermal conductor.
D Soft iron loses its magnetism when the current in the coil is switched off.

27 Diagram 1 shows two thin, uncharged strips of plastic.

Diagram 2 shows the same strips after they have been rubbed with a dry cloth.

strips strips
of plastic of plastic

diagram 1 diagram 2

Which row describes the charge on the strips after rubbing, and the force between the strips after
rubbing?

charge on strips force between strips

A opposite attraction
B opposite repulsion
C the same attraction
D the same repulsion

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28 A cell has an electromotive force (e.m.f.) of 1.5 V.

What does this statement mean?

A The cell converts 1.0 J of energy when driving 1.5 C of charge round a complete circuit.
B The cell converts 1.5 J of energy when driving 1.0 C of charge round a complete circuit.
C The cell converts 1.5 J of energy per second when driving 1.0 C of charge round a complete
circuit.
D The cell converts 1.5 W of power when driving 1.0 C of charge round a complete circuit.

29 Which two changes to a metal wire both increase resistance?

A decreasing its length and increasing its temperature


B increasing its length and decreasing its temperature
C decreasing its thickness and increasing its temperature
D increasing its thickness and decreasing its temperature

30 The diagram shows a circuit containing a d.c. power supply, a motor and a variable resistor.

Three ammeters X, Y and Z show the current in different parts of the circuit.

+ –

X A A Z

A M
Y

The reading on X is 4.0 A.

Which statement is correct?

A The readings on Y and Z are both less than 4.0 A.


B The readings on Y and Z are both equal to 4.0 A.
C The readings on Y and Z are both greater than 4.0 A.
D The reading on Z is zero.

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31 A lamp is to be connected in a circuit so that the potential difference (p.d.) across it can be varied
from 0 to 6 V.

Which circuit would be most suitable?

A B

6V 6V

C D

6V 6V

32 Which logic gate is represented by the symbol shown?

A AND B NAND C NOR D OR

33 The diagram shows a combination of logic gates.

Which single logic gate is equivalent to this combination?

A AND B NOR C NOT D OR

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34 An alternating current (a.c.) power supply is connected in series with a resistor R and a diode.

Which graph shows how the voltage V across the resistor R varies with time?

A B

voltage V voltage V

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

voltage V voltage V

0 0
0 time 0 time

35 An electric heater is plugged into the mains supply using a fused plug.

The current in the heater is 10 A.

The cable attached to the heater is rated at 15 A.

The fuses available are rated at 1 A, 3 A, 5 A and 13 A.

Which fuse should be used?

A 1A B 3A C 5A D 13 A

36 What is the purpose of the commutator in a d.c. electric motor?

A to control the speed at which the motor rotates


B to reverse the direction of the voltage across the power supply every half-turn
C to reverse the direction of the current in the motor coil every half-turn
D to reverse the direction of spin of the motor coil every half-turn

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37 The diagram shows a wire between two magnetic poles. The wire is connected in a circuit with an
ammeter.

wire

N S
A

The wire is moved downwards, towards the bottom of the page. A current is induced in the wire.

In which direction is the force on the wire caused by this current?

A towards the bottom of the page


B towards the left of the page
C towards the right of the page
D towards the top of the page

38 The chemical symbol for sodium is Na. The equation represents the radioactive decay of
sodium-24.

24
11Na → 24
xMg + y
–1e

What are the numbers x and y?

x y

A 10 0
B 10 1
C 12 0
D 12 1

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39 A radioactive source emits α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays into a vacuum where there is a
magnetic field.

The magnetic field acts perpendicularly into the plane of the paper.

The paths X, Y and Z of the three types of radiation through the magnetic field are shown.

Y
X

magnetic field
into paper

radioactive
source

Which radiation follows path X, path Y and path Z?

X Y Z

A α-particles β-particles γ-rays


B α-particles γ-rays β-particles
C β-particles α-particles γ-rays
D β-particles γ-rays α-particles

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40 A student measures the level of radiation emitted from a radioactive substance. He places a
detector very close to the substance. He puts different absorbers between the radioactive
substance and the detector.

radioactive
substance counter
detector

absorber

The student’s results are shown. These results are corrected for background radiation.

counter reading
absorber
counts per minute

none 95
thin paper 52
few mm of aluminium 52
several cm of lead 12

Which types of radiation are being emitted by the substance?

A α-particles and β-particles only

B α-particles and γ-rays only

C β-particles and γ-rays only

D α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

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Cambridge Assessment International Education
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2019
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*8579442859*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)


MODIFIED LANGUAGE

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

This syllabus is regulated for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 16 printed pages.

IB19 06_0625_22_ML/RP
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1 Which quantity can be measured directly using a micrometer screw gauge?

A the area of a sheet of paper


B the mass of a sheet of paper
C the thickness of a sheet of paper
D the volume of a sheet of paper

2 Four objects are moving along a straight line.

The distance of an object from a fixed point on the line is plotted against time for each object.

Which object is decelerating?

A B

distance from distance from


fixed point fixed point

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

distance from distance from


fixed point fixed point

0 0
0 time 0 time

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3 A heavy metal ball falls vertically downwards through air past four equally spaced levels J, K, L
and M.

metal ball

level J

level K

level L

level M

The times taken to fall from one level to the next are measured.

Where is the speed of the ball greatest and which time is shortest?

speed is time is
greatest between shortest between

A J and K J and K
B J and K L and M
C L and M J and K
D L and M L and M

4 Four students make statements about the mass of an object.

Which statement is correct?

A The mass of an object depends on the gravitational field which acts on the object.
B The mass of an object divided by its weight is equal to the acceleration with which it falls
freely.
C The mass of an object increases when the temperature of the object increases.
D The mass of an object resists change in motion of the object.

5 A metal has a density of 8.0 g / cm3. A solid cube of mass 1.0 kg is made from this metal.

How long is each side of the cube?

A 0.50 cm B 2.0 cm C 5.0 cm D 42 cm

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6 An experiment is done to determine the spring constant for a spring.

Different loads are hung from the spring and its length is measured for each different load.

The graph shows how its length varies with load.

4.0
weight of
load / N 3.0

2.0

1.0

0
0 4 8 12 16 20
length of
spring / cm

What is the value of the spring constant?

A 0.20 N / cm B 0.25 N / cm C 4.0 N / cm D 5.0 N / cm

7 A beam is pivoted at its centre of mass.

It is acted upon by two forces, 10 N and 5.0 N, as shown.

25 cm
15 cm

pivot
10 N 5.0 N

What is the resultant moment about the pivot?

A 25 N cm anticlockwise
B 25 N cm clockwise
C 175 N cm anticlockwise
D 175 N cm clockwise

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8 Which object is in equilibrium?

A B C D
2N 2N

2N 2N 2N
2N

2N 2N

9 An object of mass 4.0 kg is moving with a velocity of 3.0 m / s in a straight line.

What is the momentum of the object?

A 0.75 kg m / s B 1.3 kg m / s C 12 kg m / s D 24 kg m / s

10 A machine is very efficient.

What does this mean?

A It produces a large amount of power.


B It uses very little energy.
C It wastes very little energy.
D It works very quickly.

11 A force F acts on a body and the body moves a distance d in the direction of the force.

Which expression for the work done W is correct?

A W = Fd B W = Fd 2 C W= 1
2
Fd D W= 1
2
Fd 2

12 A boy produces an average power output of 60 W as he rides his bicycle for 2.0 minutes.

How much useful energy does he expend?

A 0.50 J B 30 J C 120 J D 7200 J

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13 The diagram shows a stone suspended on a string under the surface of a liquid. The stone
experiences a pressure caused by the liquid.

string

stone

liquid

What would increase the pressure on the stone?

A decreasing the surface area of the stone


B increasing the mass of the stone
C lowering the stone deeper into the liquid
D using a liquid with a lower density

14 At room temperature, iron is difficult to compress.

At the same temperature, oxygen is much easier to compress.

Which comparison of the structures of iron and oxygen explains this?

A The iron particles are closer together.


B The iron particles have a greater mass.
C The iron particles can be magnetised.
D The iron particles have less average kinetic energy.

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15 A night storage heater contains a large block of material that is heated electrically during the
night. During the day the block cools down, releasing thermal energy into the room.

Which thermal capacity and which night-time temperature increase will cause the most energy to
be stored by the block?

thermal capacity night-time


of block temperature increase

A large large
B large small
C small large
D small small

16 100 g of water at 25 °C is poured into an insulated cup. 50 g of ice at 0 °C is added to the water.
The water is stirred until the temperature of the water has fallen to 0 °C.

18 g of ice remains unmelted.

The specific heat capacity of water is 4.2 J / g °C.

Which value does this experiment give for the specific latent heat of fusion of ice?

A 210 J / g B 330 J / g C 580 J / g D 770 J / g

17 The handle of a metal saucepan is made of plastic. As the saucepan heats up, the handle gets
warmer.

Which statement explains this?

A Molecules of the plastic radiate their energy to other molecules.


B Molecules of the plastic vibrate more and pass on their energy to nearby molecules.
C The free electrons in the plastic transfer the thermal energy along the handle.
D The heated molecules very slowly move along the plastic handle.

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18 The metal surface of a kettle is hot.

What happens to the cool air outside the kettle when it comes into contact with the hot kettle?

A The density of the air decreases and the air falls.


B The density of the air decreases and the air rises.
C The density of the air increases and the air falls.
D The density of the air increases and the air rises.

19 Vacuum flasks usually have silvered walls that help to keep the contents of the flask hot.

Why are the walls silvered?

A to absorb thermal energy from the air around the flask


B to increase the rate of convection inside the flask
C to reduce energy loss to the surroundings by conduction
D to reflect thermal radiation back into the flask

20 When water waves pass through a gap they diffract.

The diagrams show wavefronts approaching a narrow gap.

In which diagram will the diffraction be least?

A B C D

21 Which conditions are necessary for light to be totally internally reflected?

the incident light is in angle of incidence

A the less dense medium less than the critical angle


B the less dense medium greater than the critical angle
C the more dense medium less than the critical angle
D the more dense medium greater than the critical angle

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22 Light is travelling through air. The light strikes a glass block at an angle of incidence of 45°. The
glass has a refractive index of 1.4.

What is the angle of refraction of the light as it enters the glass?

A 29° B 30° C 32° D 82°

23 An eclipse of the Sun happens when the Moon comes between the Earth and the Sun.

Which statement is correct?

A Infra-red radiation from the Sun disappears before visible light and ultra-violet radiation.
B Ultra-violet radiation from the Sun disappears before visible light and infra-red radiation.
C Visible light from the Sun disappears before ultra-violet radiation and infra-red radiation.
D Infra-red radiation, ultra-violet radiation and visible light from the Sun all disappear at the
same moment.

24 A pulse of sound is produced at the bottom of a boat. The sound travels through the water and is
reflected from a shoal of fish. The sound reaches the boat again after 1.2 s. The speed of sound
in the water is 1500 m / s.

boat

shoal of fish

How far below the bottom of the boat is the shoal of fish?

A 450 m B 900 m C 1800 m D 3600 m

25 An observer stands at the finish line of a 100 m race. He wants to time the winner’s run. He starts
his stop-watch as soon as he sees the smoke from the starting gun instead of when he hears the
bang.

What is the reason for doing this?

A Light travels much faster than sound.


B There is a risk he might respond to an echo from a wall.
C Humans react slower to sound than to light.
D Humans react more quickly to sound than to light.

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26 A soft iron bar is a long way from any magnetic field.

How can the material of the bar be described?

A It is magnetic and strongly magnetised.


B It is magnetic and unmagnetised.
C It is non-magnetic and strongly magnetised.
D It is non-magnetic and unmagnetised.

27 Diagram 1 shows two thin, uncharged strips of plastic.

Diagram 2 shows the same strips after they have been rubbed with a dry cloth.

strips strips
of plastic of plastic

diagram 1 diagram 2

Which row describes the charge on the strips after rubbing, and the force between the strips after
rubbing?

charge on strips force between strips

A opposite attraction
B opposite repulsion
C the same attraction
D the same repulsion

28 A cell has an electromotive force (e.m.f.) of 1.5 V.

What does this statement mean?

A The cell converts 1.0 J of energy when driving 1.5 C of charge round a complete circuit.
B The cell converts 1.5 J of energy when driving 1.0 C of charge round a complete circuit.
C The cell converts 1.5 J of energy per second when driving 1.0 C of charge round a complete
circuit.
D The cell converts 1.5 W of power when driving 1.0 C of charge round a complete circuit.

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29 A metal wire of length 100 cm and cross-sectional area 0.20 mm2 has a resistance of 8.0 Ω.

What is the resistance of a wire of the same metal of length 50 cm and cross-sectional area of
0.40 mm2?

A 2.0 Ω B 8.0 Ω C 16 Ω D 32 Ω

30 The diagram shows a circuit.

What is connected in parallel with the thermistor?

A heater
B lamp
C light-dependent resistor
D variable resistor

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31 A lamp is to be connected in a circuit so that the potential difference (p.d.) across it can be varied
from 0 to 6 V.

Which circuit would be most suitable?

A B

6V 6V

C D

6V 6V

32 Components X and Y can be inserted to complete the circuit below. The completed circuit is a
potential divider in which the potential difference across component Y increases when the
temperature increases.

Y V

Which row shows the components X and Y?

X Y

A light-dependent resistor resistor


B resistor light-dependent resistor
C resistor thermistor
D thermistor resistor

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33 Which two logic gates each have a high output (1) when both of their inputs are low (0)?

A AND and OR
B AND and NOR
C NAND and NOR
D NAND and OR

34 Two NAND gates are joined together as shown.

input 1
output
input 2

Which single logic gate is equivalent to this combination?

A AND B NAND C NOR D OR

35 Which components are designed to improve the safe working of a mains electrical supply?

circuit earth
fuse
breaker wire

A   
B   
C   
D   

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36 The diagram shows a current-carrying wire placed between two magnetic poles. The current is in
the direction shown.

wire

S N

current direction

What is the direction of the force on the wire?

A towards the bottom of the page


B towards the top of the page
C towards the left-hand side of the page
D towards the right-hand side of the page

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37 Diagram 1 shows an a.c. generator. The coil is turning as shown.

diagram 1

coil

N
S

Diagram 2 shows the output voltage produced by the generator as the coil turns.

Which point on diagram 2 shows the voltage induced when the coil is moving through the position
shown in diagram 1?

diagram 2

output A
voltage

B
0
0 C time

38 Which observation provides evidence for the nuclear atom?

A attraction of opposite charges

B emission of γ-rays during the decay of a radioactive nuclide

C scattering of α-particles by thin metal foils

D scattering of γ-rays by a thin metal foil

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39 The chemical symbol for uranium is U. The equation represents the radioactive decay of
uranium-235.

235
92U → xyTh + 24He
What are the numbers x and y?

x y

A 231 94
B 231 90
C 239 94
D 239 90

40 An experiment is done to measure the radiation from a radioactive source that has a
half-life of 10 minutes.

The source is placed close to a detector that is connected to a counter, as shown.

radioactive
counter
detector source

The average background count-rate is 20 counts / minute.

At the start of the experiment, the count-rate recorded by the counter is 1000 counts / minute.

What is the count-rate 10 minutes later?

A 490 counts / minute


B 500 counts / minute
C 510 counts / minute
D 530 counts / minute

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/M/J/19


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Cambridge Assessment International Education
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/23
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2019
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*7151954492*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

This syllabus is regulated for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 16 printed pages.

IB19 06_0625_23/4RP
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1 Which quantity can be measured directly using a micrometer screw gauge?

A the area of a sheet of paper


B the mass of a sheet of paper
C the thickness of a sheet of paper
D the volume of a sheet of paper

2 A brass ball and a feather are released at the same time.

On Earth, the ball reaches the ground first.

On the Moon, they reach the ground at the same time.

What is the explanation for this?

A Both weigh the same on the Moon.


B Both weigh less on the Moon.
C There is a greater air resistance on the Moon.
D There is no air resistance on the Moon.

3 A heavy metal ball falls vertically downwards through air past four equally spaced levels J, K, L
and M.

metal ball

level J

level K

level L

level M

The times taken to fall from one level to the next are measured.

Where is the speed of the ball greatest and which time is shortest?

speed is time is
greatest between shortest between

A J and K J and K
B J and K L and M
C L and M J and K
D L and M L and M

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4 On Earth, a spring stretches by 5.0 cm when a mass of 3.0 kg is suspended from one end.

1
The gravitational field strength on the Moon is of that on Earth.
6

Which mass, on the Moon, would stretch the spring by the same extension?

A 0.50 kg B 3.0 kg C 5.0 kg D 18 kg

5 X, Y and Z are three regularly shaped solid objects.

Their dimensions and masses are shown in the diagrams.

object X object Y

2 cm
3 cm
5 cm
10 cm 4 cm
6 cm

200 200
g g

electronic
object Z
balance
1 cm
1 cm

25 cm

50 g

Which objects have the same density?

A X, Y and Z B X and Y only C X and Z only D Y and Z only

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6 An experiment is carried out to determine the spring constant for a spring that obeys Hooke’s law.

A load is hung from the spring and the extension of the spring is measured.

Which calculation is used to calculate the spring constant?

A extension
mass of the load

B extension
weight of the load

C mass of the load


extension

weight of the load


D
extension

7 A car is driven from rest on a long straight road. The car engine exerts a constant driving force.

The diagram shows the horizontal forces acting on the car. The resistive forces are proportional
to the speed of the car.

resistive
driving force
forces
(from engine)

Why does the car eventually reach a maximum speed?

A The resistive forces decrease to make the acceleration of the car negative.
B The resistive forces decrease to make the acceleration of the car zero.
C The resistive forces increase to make the acceleration of the car negative.
D The resistive forces increase to make the acceleration of the car zero.

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8 A beam of weight 6.0 N is suspended from two strings P and Q.

String P is 30 cm from the left-hand end of the beam, as shown. String Q is not shown.

2.0 N
string P
30 cm

20 cm
beam

6.0 N

The tension in string P is 2.0 N.

What is the tension in string Q and where is it attached so that the beam is in equilibrium?

A 4.0 N at 10.0 cm from the left-hand end


B 4.0 N at 15.0 cm from the left-hand end
C 6.0 N at 10.0 cm from the left-hand end
D 8.0 N at 7.5 cm from the left-hand end

9 How is momentum p calculated in terms of the mass m of a body and its velocity v, and what type
of quantity is p?

equation type of quantity

A p=m×v scalar
B p=m×v vector

C p= m scalar
v

D p= m vector
v

10 An object is in free fall. The change in gravitational potential energy of the body depends upon its
mass m, the change in height ∆h and the gravitational field strength g.

What is the correct expression for the change in gravitational potential energy?
gm g∆h m∆h
A gm∆h B C D
∆h m g

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11 A machine is very efficient.

What does this mean?

A It produces a large amount of power.


B It uses very little energy.
C It wastes very little energy.
D It works very quickly.

12 A box is pulled along a floor by a force of 3.0 N.

The friction acting on the box is 1.0 N, as shown.

box

1.0 N 3.0 N

How much kinetic energy does the box gain in moving 2.0 m?

A 2.0 J B 4.0 J C 6.0 J D 8.0 J

13 The diagram shows a stone suspended on a string under the surface of a liquid. The stone
experiences a pressure caused by the liquid.

string

stone

liquid

What would increase the pressure on the stone?

A decreasing the surface area of the stone


B increasing the mass of the stone
C lowering the stone deeper into the liquid
D using a liquid with a lower density

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14 Water in a beaker evaporates when it is left on a bench for a period of time.

Increasing the surface area and increasing the temperature of the water each change the rate of
evaporation.

Which row is correct?

increasing the surface area increasing the temperature

A rate of evaporation decreases rate of evaporation decreases


B rate of evaporation decreases rate of evaporation increases
C rate of evaporation increases rate of evaporation decreases
D rate of evaporation increases rate of evaporation increases

15 A night storage heater contains a large block of material that is heated electrically during the
night. During the day the block cools down, releasing thermal energy into the room.

Which thermal capacity and which night-time temperature increase will cause the most energy to
be stored by the block?

thermal capacity night-time


of block temperature increase

A large large
B large small
C small large
D small small

16 100 g of water at 25 °C is poured into an insulating cup. 50 g of ice at 0 °C is added to the water.
The water is stirred until the temperature of the water has fallen to 0 °C.

18 g of ice remains unmelted.

The specific heat capacity of water is 4.2 J / g °C.

Which value does this experiment give for the specific latent heat of fusion of ice?

A 210 J / g B 330 J / g C 580 J / g D 770 J / g

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17 Why does a metal rod conduct thermal energy much better than a similar-sized plastic rod?

A The molecules in the plastic are much closer together than the atoms in the metal.
B The molecules in the plastic are much larger than the atoms in the metal.
C The molecules in the plastic are much more tightly held together than the atoms in the metal.
D The molecular structure in the plastic contains no free electrons, but the metal has free
electrons.

18 The metal surface of a kettle is hot.

What happens to the cool air outside the kettle when it comes into contact with the hot kettle?

A The density of the air decreases and the air falls.


B The density of the air decreases and the air rises.
C The density of the air increases and the air falls.
D The density of the air increases and the air rises.

19 When water waves pass through a gap they diffract.

The diagrams show wavefronts approaching a narrow gap.

In which diagram will the diffraction be least?

A B C D

20 Sound travels through air at a speed of 340 m / s. A source generates sound waves at a frequency
of 1.2 kHz.

What is the wavelength of the sound waves?

A 0.28 m B 3.5 m C 280 m D 410 m

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21 Which conditions are necessary for light to be totally internally reflected?

the incident light is in angle of incidence

A the less dense medium less than the critical angle


B the less dense medium greater than the critical angle
C the more dense medium less than the critical angle
D the more dense medium greater than the critical angle

22 A beam of light passes through a vacuum and then enters a liquid. The diagram shows the path it
takes.

40°
vacuum
liquid

25°

The light travels through the vacuum at a speed of 3.0 × 108 m / s.

What is the speed of light in the liquid?

A 1.9 × 108 m / s

B 2.0 × 108 m / s

C 4.6 × 108 m / s

D 4.8 × 108 m / s

23 An eclipse of the Sun happens when the Moon comes between the Earth and the Sun.

Which statement is correct?

A Infra-red radiation from the Sun disappears before visible light and ultra-violet radiation.
B Ultra-violet radiation from the Sun disappears before visible light and infra-red radiation.
C Visible light from the Sun disappears before ultra-violet radiation and infra-red radiation.
D Infra-red radiation, ultra-violet radiation and visible light from the Sun all disappear at the
same moment.

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24 A pulse of sound is produced at the bottom of a boat. The sound travels through the water and is
reflected from a shoal of fish. The sound reaches the boat again after 1.2 s. The speed of sound
in the water is 1500 m / s.

boat

shoal of fish

How far below the bottom of the boat is the shoal of fish?

A 450 m B 900 m C 1800 m D 3600 m

25 Which statement about ultrasound is correct?

A It has a higher frequency than audible sound, and it is a longitudinal wave.


B It has a higher frequency than audible sound, and it is a transverse wave.
C It has a lower frequency than audible sound, and it is a longitudinal wave.
D It has a lower frequency than audible sound, and it is a transverse wave.

26 A metal bar is placed inside a current-carrying coil, as shown in diagram 1.

There is a small current in the coil. The bar holds a few nails, as shown in diagram 2.

nails

diagram 1 diagram 2

When there is no current in the coil, the nails drop off.

Which row is correct?

metal from which effect of a larger


the bar is made current in the coil

A soft iron it makes no difference


B soft iron the bar holds more nails
C steel it makes no difference
D steel the bar holds more nails

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27 Diagram 1 shows two thin, uncharged strips of plastic.

Diagram 2 shows the same strips after they have been rubbed with a dry cloth.

strips strips
of plastic of plastic

diagram 1 diagram 2

Which row describes the charge on the strips after rubbing, and the force between the strips after
rubbing?

charge on strips force between strips

A opposite attraction
B opposite repulsion
C the same attraction
D the same repulsion

28 A cell has an electromotive force (e.m.f.) of 1.5 V.

What does this statement mean?

A The cell converts 1.0 J of energy when driving 1.5 C of charge round a complete circuit.
B The cell converts 1.5 J of energy when driving 1.0 C of charge round a complete circuit.
C The cell converts 1.5 J of energy per second when driving 1.0 C of charge round a complete
circuit.
D The cell converts 1.5 W of power when driving 1.0 C of charge round a complete circuit.

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29 Two wires X and Y are made from the same metal and have the same resistance.

Which row identifies a possible pair of values for X and for Y?

length of X diameter of X length of Y diameter of Y


/ cm / mm / cm / mm

A 50 0.40 200 0.10


B 50 0.40 200 0.20
C 50 0.40 200 0.80
D 50 0.40 200 1.60

30 The diagram shows a circuit including a lamp, an electric bell and three switches S1, S2 and S3.

The lamp and bell are not faulty.

S1

S2

S3

The bell is ringing but the lamp is not lit.

Which switches are closed?

A S1 only
B S1 and S2 only
C S1 and S3 only
D S1, S2 and S3

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31 A lamp is to be connected in a circuit so that the potential difference (p.d.) across it can be varied
from 0 to 6 V.

Which circuit would be most suitable?

A B

6V 6V

C D

6V 6V

32 A 12 V battery is connected to a combination of 2.0 Ω resistors as shown.

12 V

2.0 Ω
2.0 Ω

2.0 Ω

What is the current in the battery?

A 1.5 A B 2.0 A C 4.0 A D 6.0 A

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33 A student is designing a lighting circuit for a dolls’ house. He sets up two different circuits.

Each circuit contains a 12 V power supply and three identical lamps.

Each lamp is designed to operate at normal brightness when connected individually to a 12 V


supply.

12 V power 12 V power
supply supply

12
12

circuit 1 circuit 2

Which statement is correct?

A In circuit 1, each of the lamps is at normal brightness.


B In circuit 1, if one lamp fails, the other lamps remain lit.
C In circuit 2, if one lamp fails, the other lamps remain lit.
D In circuit 2, the current from the power supply is less than in circuit 1.

34 The combination of logic gates shown has two inputs and one output.

input 1
output
input 2

Which single logic gate is equivalent to this combination?

A AND B NOR C NOT D OR

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35 A simple wiring diagram for an electric cooker is shown.

electric cooker

metal casing
live
neutral
earth

connection to casing

Why is there a wire connecting the metal case of the cooker to earth?

A It improves the efficiency of the cooker.


B It prevents the metal case from becoming too hot when the cooker is left on.
C It reduces the risk of an electric shock if the live wire touches the metal case.
D The electric cooker will not switch on without it.

36 α-particles are directed at a metal foil.

Most of the particles pass through the foil with little change in direction.

A small proportion of the particles are scattered back through large angles.

What does this evidence suggest about the structure of an atom?

A It consists of a charged centre much smaller than the size of the atom and with little of the
mass of the atom.
B It consists of a negative charge the size of the atom containing small positive charges
scattered through it.
C It consists of a charged centre much smaller than the size of the atom but with most of the
mass of the atom.
D It consists of a positive charge the size of the atom containing small negative charges
scattered through it.

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37 A conductor carrying a current is placed in a magnetic field.

In which direction does the force on the conductor act?

current
A

D B

N S
C

38 What is nuclear fission?

A the merging of two nuclei to create a heavier nucleus


B the process by which electrons are removed from an atom
C the process by which stars generate energy
D the splitting of a nucleus to create two smaller nuclei

39 Which statement about γ-radiation is correct?

A It consists of very small charged particles.


B It is a form of electromagnetic radiation.

C It is less penetrating than β-radiation.

D It is more highly ionising than α-radiation.

40 A radium nucleus with nucleon number 226 decays by emitting an α-particle.

The proton number of radium is 88.

What are the nucleon number and proton number for the nucleus produced by this decay?

nucleon number proton number

A 222 86
B 222 87
C 226 86
D 226 87

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

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Cambridge Assessment International Education
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/21
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2019
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*8731446642*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

This syllabus is regulated for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 15 printed pages and 1 blank page.

IB19 11_0625_21/4RP
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1 A student measures the diameter of a pencil.

Which measuring instrument will give the most precise reading?

A a measuring tape
B a metre rule
C a micrometer screw gauge
D a ruler

2 A light object is dropped from rest. It falls a large distance vertically through air.

How can the motion of the object be described?

A constant acceleration
B increasing acceleration
C decreasing acceleration and then moving at terminal velocity
D increasing acceleration and then moving at terminal velocity

3 A car travels at an average speed of 60 km / h for 15 minutes.

How far does the car travel in 15 minutes?

A 4.0 km B 15 km C 240 km D 900 km

4 Which quantity is a force due to a gravitational field?

A density
B mass
C weight
D volume

5 The density of air is 1.2 kg / m3.

A room has dimensions 5.0 m × 4.0 m × 3.0 m.

What is the mass of the air in the room?

A 0.02 kg B 0.10 kg C 50 kg D 72 kg

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6 A car is travelling around a circular track at a constant speed, as shown.

In which direction is the resultant force on the car?

D
car

C A
direction of
movement

7 Two forces P and Q act on a metre rule as shown. The metre rule is pivoted at one end. The rule
starts to rotate in a clockwise direction.

a b metre rule

pivot

Which statement is correct?

A P equals Q
B P is less than Q

C (P × a) is equal to (Q × b)

D (P × a) is greater than (Q × (a + b))

8 Which statement gives a complete description of any object that is in equilibrium?

A There are no forces acting.


B There is no resultant force.
C There is no resultant force and no resultant turning effect.
D There is no resultant turning effect.

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9 Two objects X and Y move directly towards each other. The objects have the same mass.

Object X has a velocity of 5.0 m / s to the right. Object Y has a velocity of 3.0 m / s to the left.

5.0 m / s 3.0 m / s

X Y

Object X and object Y collide and stick together.

What is their velocity after colliding?

A 1.0 m / s to the left


B 1.0 m / s to the right
C 4.0 m / s to the left
D 4.0 m / s to the right

10 Brakes are used to slow down a moving car.

Into which form of energy is most of the kinetic energy converted as the car slows down?

A chemical
B elastic
C thermal
D sound

11 A man carries 20 tiles from the ground to the roof of a house. Each tile has a mass of 1.2 kg. The
roof of the house is 15 m above the ground.

How much work does the man do against gravity on the tiles in carrying them to the roof?

A 36 J B 180 J C 360 J D 3600 J

12 A car is moving along a straight horizontal road. The car has 1.6 MJ of kinetic energy. The car
accelerates for 20 s until the kinetic energy of the car increases to 2.5 MJ.

What is the minimum average power developed by the car engine for this acceleration?

A 45 W B 205 W C 45 kW D 205 kW

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13 A drawing pin (thumb tack) has a sharp point at one end and a flat surface at the other end.

sharp point flat surface

The pin is pushed into a wooden board.

How do the pressure and the force at the sharp point compare with the pressure and the force on
the flat surface?

force at the sharp point pressure at the sharp point

A greater than on the flat surface greater than on the flat surface
B greater than on the flat surface less than on the flat surface
C the same as on the flat surface greater than on the flat surface
D the same as on the flat surface less than on the flat surface

14 An object is 20 cm below the surface of a liquid. The density of the liquid is 1200 kg / m3.

What is the pressure on the object due to the liquid?

A 600 Pa B 2400 Pa C 60 000 Pa D 240 000 Pa

15 Which statement about the evaporation of a liquid is correct?

A The least energetic molecules escape from the surface and the temperature of the liquid
decreases.
B The least energetic molecules escape from the surface and the temperature of the liquid
increases.
C The most energetic molecules escape from the surface and the temperature of the liquid
decreases.
D The most energetic molecules escape from the surface and the temperature of the liquid
increases.

16 A bubble of gas is formed deep under water. The bubble has a volume of 40 cm3 and the
pressure inside the bubble is P.

The bubble rises up through the water. The volume of the bubble increases to 56 cm3 and the
pressure becomes 100 kPa. The temperature of the gas does not change.

What is the initial pressure P ?

A 71 Pa B 71 kPa C 140 Pa D 140 kPa

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17 Which change in the design of a liquid-in-glass thermometer makes it more sensitive?

A a larger liquid reservoir


B a longer tube
C a smaller liquid reservoir
D a wider tube

18 A liquid turns into a gas. This occurs only at one particular temperature, and the change happens
throughout the liquid.

What is this process called?

A boiling
B condensation
C evaporation
D fusion

19 One end of a rod of copper is placed in hot water. Thermal energy travels along the rod to make
the other end warmer.

What is the behaviour of the copper at an atomic level that accounts for most of the transfer of
thermal energy from one end to the other?

A Atoms at the hot end gain kinetic energy and move towards the other end.
B Atoms at the hot end expand, colliding with other atoms and transferring energy.
C Free electrons at the hot end gain energy and move towards the other end, colliding with
atoms along the rod.
D Free electrons at the hot end gain energy from the hot water and move directly to the other
end.

20 A surface is made so that it is a good source of infrared radiation.

Which surface is not suitable?

A a surface that is painted matt black


B a surface that is painted white
C a surface that is heated to a high temperature
D a surface that has a large surface area

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21 A large hill blocks the direct path between a transmitter of radio waves and a receiver, as shown.

transmitter

hill receiver

The receiver picks up the signal from the transmitter even though the radio waves do not travel
through the hill.

Which row is correct?

A possible way A stronger signal is


for this to happen is received using

A diffraction round the hill. longer wavelengths.


B diffraction round the hill. shorter wavelengths.
C refraction round the hill. longer wavelengths.
D refraction round the hill. shorter wavelengths.

22 The diagram shows the image of a clock in a plane mirror.

Which is the actual time?

A 04:15 B 04:45 C 07:15 D 07:45

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23 A converging lens produces an image of an object O. The focal length of the lens is f.

Which position of the object produces a virtual image?

A B

O O

f f
2f 2f

C D

O O

f f
2f 2f

24 The diagram shows the electromagnetic spectrum.

radio
γ-rays X-rays ultraviolet visible light infrared microwaves
waves

increasing ......................

A word is missing from the label below the spectrum.

Which word is missing?

A amplitude
B frequency
C speed
D wavelength

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25 Which row gives a possible set of values for the speed of sound in ice, in water and in steam?

speed of sound speed of sound speed of sound


in ice in water in steam
m/ s m/ s m/ s

A 500 1500 4000


B 1500 4000 500
C 4000 500 1500
D 4000 1500 500

26 A steel bar is placed in an East-West direction for it to be demagnetised. No other magnet is


nearby.

Which method is not suitable?

A Hammering the bar.


B Heating the bar to a very high temperature.
C Slowly taking the bar out of a coil that carries an alternating current.
D Slowly taking the bar out of a coil that carries a direct current.

27 A plastic rod is rubbed with a dry cloth. The rod becomes positively charged.

Why has the rod become positively charged?

A It has gained electrons.


B It has gained neutrons.
C It has lost electrons.
D It has lost neutrons.

28 A circuit contains a cell of electromotive force (e.m.f.) of 2.0 V. The current in the circuit is 2.0 A.

How much energy is converted by the cell in 2.0 minutes?

A 2.0 J B 4.0 J C 8.0 J D 480 J

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29 The circuit diagram shows a cell connected in series to a resistor and a component X.

What is component X?

A bell
B diode
C heater
D thermistor

30 Identical resistors are connected together to form arrangements X, Y and Z.

X Y Z

What is the correct order of the resistances of the arrangements from the largest to the smallest?

A X→Y→Z

B Y→X→Z

C Z→X→Y

D Z→Y→X

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31 A circuit contains a cell of electromotive force (e.m.f.) 2.0 V, three resistors, three ammeters and
two voltmeters. One ammeter is labelled P and one voltmeter is labelled Q.

The readings on the other two ammeters and on the other voltmeter are shown.

2.0 V

2.0 A A 0.50 A
A

A
V P
0.50 V V
Q

What is the reading on ammeter P and what is the reading on voltmeter Q?

reading on P / A reading on Q / V

A 1.5 1.5
B 1.5 2.5
C 2.5 1.5
D 2.5 2.5

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32 There are two inputs and one output for the combination of logic gates shown.

input 1
output

input 2

Which truth table represents the operation of this combination of logic gates?

A B

input 1 input 2 output input 1 input 2 output


0 0 0 0 0 0
0 1 0 0 1 0
1 0 1 1 0 1
1 1 1 1 1 0

C D

input 1 input 2 output input 1 input 2 output


0 0 1 0 0 1
0 1 1 0 1 0
1 0 0 1 0 1
1 1 0 1 1 1

33 Where must a fuse be connected in a mains electric circuit?

A the earth wire only


B the live wire only
C the neutral wire only
D the live wire and the earth wire

34 A student investigates the output voltage induced across a coil of wire by a bar magnet.

When will the induced voltage have the greatest value?

A The student slowly moves the bar magnet into the coil of wire.
B The student leaves the bar magnet stationary in the coil of wire.
C The student quickly removes the bar magnet from the coil of wire.
D The student places the bar magnet at rest outside the coil of wire.

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35 There is a current in a wire. The direction of the current is out of the page.

Which diagram shows the magnetic field pattern produced?

A B

key
wire carrying a current
out of the page

C D

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36 Diagram 1 shows a coil of wire P between the poles of a magnet. The ends of coil P are
connected to a battery by slip rings.

Diagram 2 shows a coil of wire Q between the poles of a different magnet. The ends of coil Q are
connected to a battery by a split-ring commutator.

P Q

N S N S

diagram 1 diagram 2

What happens to coils P and Q?

coil P coil Q
A continuously turns makes one quarter turn
anticlockwise anticlockwise then stops
B continuously turns makes one quarter turn
clockwise clockwise then stops
C makes one quarter turn continuously turns
anticlockwise then stops anticlockwise
D makes one quarter turn continuously turns
clockwise then stops clockwise

37 Which diagram shows a possible structure of a neutral atom?

A B

key

proton

neutron

electron
C D

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38 The scattering of particles by a thin gold foil provided scientists with evidence for the nuclear
atom.

Which particles were scattered by the gold nuclei in the thin foil?

A α-particles

B β-particles
C neutrons
D protons

39 The diagram shows β-particles being directed between the poles of a magnet.

N
β-particles

In which direction will the particles be deflected?

A into the page


B out of the page
C towards the bottom of the page
D towards the top of the page

40 Why are some radioactive sources stored in boxes made from lead?

A Lead absorbs emissions from the radioactive sources.


B Lead decreases the half-life of radioactive sources.
C Lead increases the half-life of radioactive sources.
D Lead repels emissions from the radioactive sources.

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

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Cambridge Assessment International Education
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2019
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*9597730633*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

This syllabus is regulated for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 14 printed pages and 2 blank pages.

IB19 11_0625_22/5RP
© UCLES 2019 [Turn over

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1 A student measures the dimensions of a cylindrical glass beaker.

For which measurement should she use a micrometer screw gauge?

A circumference of the beaker


B diameter of the beaker
C height of the beaker
D thickness of the glass wall of the beaker

2 The graph shows how the speed of a car varies during part of a journey.

20.0
speed
m / s 15.0

10.0

5.0

0
0 2.0 4.0 6.0 8.0 10.0 12.0
time / s

What is the acceleration of the car between 6.0 s and 10.0 s?

A 0.50 m / s2 B 0.80 m / s2 C 1.25 m / s2 D 1.50 m / s2

3 A car travels at an average speed of 60 km / h for 15 minutes.

How far does the car travel in 15 minutes?

A 4.0 km B 15 km C 240 km D 900 km

4 A box is placed on the ground. An upward force of 15 N is needed to lift the box at constant
speed.

Which row correctly describes the box?

mass of the box weight of the box

A 1.5 kg 15 N
B 15 N 1.5 kg
C 15 N 150 kg
D 150 kg 15 N

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5 The table gives the mass and the volume of three objects P, Q and R.

object mass / g volume / cm3

P 23 36
Q 170 720
R 240 340

Which objects can float in a liquid of density 0.85 g / cm3?

A P and Q only
B P and R only
C Q and R only
D P, Q and R

6 A hook is used to lift a metal plate, as shown.

100 N

hook

50 cm 40 cm

pivot metal plate

An upward force of 100 N is needed to lift the metal plate about the pivot, as shown.

What is the weight W of the metal plate?

A 80 N B 100 N C 180 N D 225 N

7 What is the unit of the moment of a force?

A N B N / kg C N/m D Nm

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8 A ship travels due North through still water at a speed of 20 m / s.

It enters a channel where there is a current in the water from West to East. The speed of the
current is 20 m / s.

Which diagram shows the resultant velocity v of the ship?

A B

v v W E
20 m / s 20 m / s
S

20 m / s 20 m / s

C D

20 m / s v 20 m / s v

20 m / s 20 m / s

9 A ball is at rest on the ground. A boy kicks the ball. The boy’s boot is in contact with the ball for
0.040 s.

The average force on the ball is 200 N. The ball leaves the boy’s boot with a speed of 20 m / s.

Which row gives the impulse of the boot on the ball and the average acceleration of the ball?

impulse on ball average acceleration of ball


Ns m / s2

A 8 0.8
B 8 500
C 5000 0.8
D 5000 500

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10 An object P of mass 80 g collides with another object Q of mass 40 g.

After the collision, P and Q stick together and then travel on together.

Before the collision, P is travelling at a speed of 6.0 m / s and Q is at rest.

What is the speed of P and Q after the collision?

A 2.0 m / s B 3.0 m / s C 4.0 m / s D 6.0 m / s

11 Brakes are used to slow down a moving car.

Into which form of energy is most of the kinetic energy converted as the car slows down?

A chemical
B elastic
C thermal
D sound

12 A box of mass 8.0 kg is lifted from the ground and placed on a shelf. The box gains 100 J of
potential energy.

The box falls off the shelf. Air resistance can be ignored.

At what speed does the box hit the ground?

A 3.5 m / s B 5.0 m / s C 25 m / s D 28 m / s

13 A car is moving along a straight horizontal road. The car has 1.6 MJ of kinetic energy. The car
accelerates for 20 s until the kinetic energy of the car increases to 2.5 MJ.

What is the minimum average power developed by the car engine for this acceleration?

A 45 W B 205 W C 45 kW D 205 kW

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14 A drawing pin (thumb tack) has a sharp point at one end and a flat surface at the other end.

sharp point flat surface

The pin is pushed into a wooden board.

How do the pressure and the force at the sharp point compare with the pressure and the force on
the flat surface?

force at the sharp point pressure at the sharp point

A greater than on the flat surface greater than on the flat surface
B greater than on the flat surface less than on the flat surface
C the same as on the flat surface greater than on the flat surface
D the same as on the flat surface less than on the flat surface

15 The density of mercury is 13 600 kg / m3.

What is the pressure at the bottom of a column of mercury that has a height of 75.0 cm?

A 1.02 × 104 Pa

B 1.02 × 105 Pa

C 1.02 × 106 Pa

D 1.02 × 107 Pa

16 Which row describes the arrangement and the motion of the molecules in a gas?

arrangement motion

A far apart move freely


B far apart vibrate only
C tightly packed move freely
D tightly packed vibrate only

17 A bubble of air of volume 3.0 mm3 is under water. The bubble is at a depth where the pressure of
the air inside the bubble is four times atmospheric pressure.

The temperature of the air in the bubble stays the same as it rises to the surface.

What is the volume of the air in the bubble as it reaches the surface?

A 3.0 mm3 B 9.0 mm3 C 12 mm3 D 15 mm3

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18 The same quantity of thermal energy is supplied to each of four blocks. Each block is made from
a different material.

Which block has the greatest thermal capacity?

A B C D

temperature temperature temperature temperature


increase is increase is increase is increase is
1 °C 4 °C 2 °C 3 °C

19 A liquid turns into a gas. This occurs only at one particular temperature, and the change happens
throughout the liquid.

What is this process called?

A boiling
B condensation
C evaporation
D fusion

20 In a cold country, a bicycle has been left outside all night. The cyclist finds the plastic hand grips
feel less cold to the touch than the steel handlebars.

Which row correctly describes the temperature and the property of the two materials?

the temperature of the two materials the property of the two materials
A the temperature of the steel is the plastic is a better thermal
much lower than that of the plastic conductor than the steel
B the temperature of the steel is the steel is a better thermal
much lower than that of the plastic conductor than the plastic
C the steel and the plastic are the plastic is a better thermal
both at the same temperature conductor than the steel
D the steel and the plastic are the steel is a better thermal
both at the same temperature conductor than the plastic

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21 The diagram shows a tent made from a new material.

new material

What type of material should the tent be made of to reflect the radiant energy from the Sun?

material material
texture surface colour

A dull black
B dull white
C shiny black
D shiny white

22 A large hill blocks the direct path between a transmitter of radio waves and a receiver, as shown.

transmitter

hill receiver

The receiver picks up the signal from the transmitter even though the radio waves do not travel
through the hill.

Which row is correct?

A possible way A stronger signal is


for this to happen is received using

A diffraction round the hill. longer wavelengths.


B diffraction round the hill. shorter wavelengths.
C refraction round the hill. longer wavelengths.
D refraction round the hill. shorter wavelengths.

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23 A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror. A student measures the angle of incidence i and the
angle of reflection r.

incident i r reflected
ray ray

The student varies the angle of incidence and then plots a graph of r against i.

What does the graph look like?

A B C D

r r r r

0 0 0 0
0 i 0 i 0 i 0 i

24 What is monochromatic light?

A light of a single amplitude


B light of a single frequency
C light of more than one colour
D light which travels with constant velocity

25 The diagram shows the electromagnetic spectrum.

radio
γ-rays X-rays ultraviolet visible light infrared microwaves
waves

increasing ......................

A word is missing from the label below the spectrum.

Which word is missing?

A amplitude
B frequency
C speed
D wavelength

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26 Which row gives a possible set of values for the speed of sound in ice, in water and in steam?

speed of sound speed of sound speed of sound


in ice in water in steam
m/ s m/ s m/ s

A 500 1500 4000


B 1500 4000 500
C 4000 500 1500
D 4000 1500 500

27 A steel bar is placed in an East-West direction for it to be demagnetised. No other magnet is


nearby.

Which method is not suitable?

A Hammering the bar.


B Heating the bar to a very high temperature.
C Slowly taking the bar out of a coil that carries an alternating current.
D Slowly taking the bar out of a coil that carries a direct current.

28 A plastic rod is rubbed with a dry cloth. The rod becomes positively charged.

Why has the rod become positively charged?

A It has gained electrons.


B It has gained neutrons.
C It has lost electrons.
D It has lost neutrons.

29 There is a current of 2.0 A in a resistor for 30 s. The potential difference (p.d.) across the resistor
is 12 V.

How much energy is transferred in the resistor?

A 1.25 J B 5.0 J C 180 J D 720 J

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30 Identical resistors are connected together to form arrangements X, Y and Z.

X Y Z

What is the correct order of the resistances of the arrangements from the largest to the smallest?

A X→Y→Z

B Y→X→Z

C Z→X→Y

D Z→Y→X

31 Resistors of 1.0 Ω, 2.0 Ω and 3.0 Ω are connected in parallel with a cell.

Which statement is correct?

A The current in each resistor is different but the potential difference (p.d.) across each resistor
is the same.
B The current in each resistor is the same but the potential difference across each resistor is
different.

C The potential difference across the 3.0 Ω is greater than the potential difference across the
1.0 Ω resistor.
D The sum of the potential differences across each resistor is equal to the electromotive force
(e.m.f.) of the cell.

32 The diagram shows a circuit component.

What is it used for?

A to allow current in one direction only


B to change the direction of the current
C to emit light when there is a current
D to increase the size of the current

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33 Which single logic gate behaves the same as the combination of logic gates shown?

A AND B NOR C NOT D OR

34 Where must a fuse be connected in a mains electric circuit?

A the earth wire only


B the live wire only
C the neutral wire only
D the live wire and the earth wire

35 The N-pole of a magnet is moved into a coil of wire connected to a galvanometer.

coil

S N

The needle of the galvanometer moves.

Which situation must give a smaller galvanometer reading?

A Use a coil with fewer turns and a stronger magnet.


B Use a coil with fewer turns and a weaker magnet.
C Use a coil with more turns and a stronger magnet.
D Use a coil with more turns and a weaker magnet.

36 A step-down transformer is 100% efficient. It has an input voltage of 240 V a.c. and an output
voltage of 60 V a.c.

The current in the primary coil is 0.50 A.

What is the current in the secondary coil?

A 0.13 A B 0.50 A C 2.0 A D 8.0 A

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37 The diagrams show the simple atomic structure for two neutral atoms X and Y of different
elements.

X Y

Which row is correct?

atom with atom with a more


more electrons positively charged nucleus

A X X
B X Y
C Y X
D Y Y

38 Plutonium-238 decays by the emission of an α-particle.

Which equation represents the decay of a plutonium-238 nucleus?

A
238
94
Pu → 238
95
U + –10 α

B
238
94
Pu → 234
92
U + 42 α

C
238
94
Pu → 234
92
U + 42 α

D
238
94
Pu → 242
96
U + 42 α

39 A radioactive isotope has a half-life of 8 days.

A detector close to a sample of this isotope gives a count rate of 200 counts per minute.
Without the source, the background count is 20 counts per minute.

What is the count rate due to the source after 8 days?

A 80 counts per minute


B 90 counts per minute
C 100 counts per minute
D 110 counts per minute

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40 Why are some radioactive sources stored in boxes made from lead?

A Lead absorbs emissions from the radioactive sources.


B Lead decreases the half-life of radioactive sources.
C Lead increases the half-life of radioactive sources.
D Lead repels emissions from the radioactive sources.

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© UCLES 2019 0625/22/O/N/19


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BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2019 0625/22/O/N/19


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Cambridge Assessment International Education
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/23
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2019
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*5638834072*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

This syllabus is regulated for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 14 printed pages and 2 blank pages.

IB19 11_0625_23/4RP
© UCLES 2019 [Turn over

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1 Which is the best apparatus to use to measure the thickness of a coin?

A balance
B ruler with a millimetre scale
C micrometer screw gauge
D pressure gauge

2 The graph shows how the speed of an object varies with time.

At which labelled time is the object decelerating?

speed

0
0 A B C D
time

3 A car travels at an average speed of 60 km / h for 15 minutes.

How far does the car travel in 15 minutes?

A 4.0 km B 15 km C 240 km D 900 km

4 Which equation shows the relationship between the weight W and the mass m of an object?

m
A W=
g

B W = mg
C W=m+g

g
D W=
m

5 A box of mass 2.0 kg is pulled across a horizontal floor by a force of 6.0 N.

The frictional force acting on the box is 1.0 N.

What is the acceleration of the box?

A 0.40 m / s2 B 2.5 m / s2 C 3.0 m / s2 D 3.5 m / s2

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6 Four hollow glass spheres P, Q, R and S each have a mass of 72 g.

Their volumes are given in the table.

volume / cm3

P 55
Q 65
R 75
S 85

Which spheres sink in a liquid of density 0.9 g / cm3?

A P, Q and R B Q, R and S C R and S only D S only

7 The diagram shows a uniform metre rule. The rule is pivoted at its mid-point. A downward force of
4.0 N acts on the rule at the 5 cm mark. The rule is held by a string at the 30 cm mark. The rule is
in equilibrium.

string metre rule


0 cm mark 100 cm mark
5 50

30
pivot

4.0 N

What is the upward force that the string exerts on the rule?

A 0.67 N B 4.0 N C 6.0 N D 9.0 N

8 A ship sails due North at a speed of 20 m / s. A current in the water begins to move from East to
West. The speed of this current is 20 m / s.

What is the magnitude of the resultant velocity of the ship?

A 0m/s B 20 m / s C 28 m / s D 40 m / s

9 The momentum of a body is changed by a force acting on it for a period of time.

Which action increases the change in momentum?

A doubling the force and halving the time


B doubling the force for the same time
C halving both the force and time
D halving the force and doubling the time

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10 A toy train P of mass 0.50 kg is travelling along a straight track with a velocity of 3.0 m / s. It
collides with a stationary train Q of mass 1.0 kg. The two trains then stick together.

What is the velocity of the combined trains?

A 1.0 m / s in the same direction as P was travelling originally


B 1.0 m / s in the reverse direction to that in which P was travelling originally
C 1.5 m / s in the same direction as P was travelling originally
D 1.5 m / s in the reverse direction to that in which P was travelling originally

11 Brakes are used to slow down a moving car.

Into which form of energy is most of the kinetic energy converted as the car slows down?

A chemical
B elastic
C thermal
D sound

12 A force of 25 N acts on an object. The work done by the force is 400 J.

How far does the object move in the direction of the force?

A 6.3 cm B 16 cm C 16 m D 10 km

13 A car is moving along a straight horizontal road. The car has 1.6 MJ of kinetic energy. The car
accelerates for 20 s until the kinetic energy of the car increases to 2.5 MJ.

What is the minimum average power developed by the car engine for this acceleration?

A 45 W B 205 W C 45 kW D 205 kW

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14 A drawing pin (thumb tack) has a sharp point at one end and a flat surface at the other end.

sharp point flat surface

The pin is pushed into a wooden board.

How do the pressure and the force at the sharp point compare with the pressure and the force on
the flat surface?

force at the sharp point pressure at the sharp point

A greater than on the flat surface greater than on the flat surface
B greater than on the flat surface less than on the flat surface
C the same as on the flat surface greater than on the flat surface
D the same as on the flat surface less than on the flat surface

15 Which row compares the separation and the motion of the molecules of a hot gas with those of a
cool liquid? (Both the gas and the liquid are at the same pressure.)

separation motion

A greater for a gas faster for a gas


B greater for a gas slower for a gas
C smaller for a gas faster for a gas
D smaller for a gas slower for a gas

16 A fixed mass of gas has a volume of 25 cm3. The pressure of the gas is 100 kPa.

The volume of the gas is slowly decreased by 15 cm3 at constant temperature.

What is the change in pressure of the gas?

A 67 kPa B 150 kPa C 170 kPa D 250 kPa

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17 A liquid turns into a gas. This occurs only at one particular temperature, and the change happens
throughout the liquid.

What is this process called?

A boiling
B condensation
C evaporation
D fusion

18 The diagram shows a liquid-in-glass thermometer.

liquid thread

°C
–10 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 110

When the temperature of the thermometer rises, the changes produced cause the liquid thread to
move to the right.

Why does this happen when the temperature of the thermometer rises?

A Gases contract and liquids expand.


B Gases contract and solids expand.
C Liquids expand more than gases.
D Liquids expand more than solids.

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19 A sealed metal box contains a fixed mass of air. The sides of the box are insulated.

air top

insulation

metal box bottom

A scientist investigates the thermal conductivity of air. She measures how quickly thermal energy
passes between the top and bottom of the box.

Which row gives the correct procedure and conclusion?

procedure conclusion

A heat bottom surface air is a good thermal conductor


B heat bottom surface air is a poor thermal conductor
C heat top surface air is a good thermal conductor
D heat top surface air is a poor thermal conductor

20 In a cold country, the ground is covered in snow. There is a pile of black sand outdoors and its
temperature is the same as that of the snow. A man sprinkles a thin layer of this sand over the
snow.

Why does the black sand help to melt the snow during the day?

A Any thermal energy still left in the sand will melt the snow.
B The black sand is a good absorber of the infrared radiation from the Sun.
C The black sand is a good conductor of thermal energy.
D The black sand lowers the melting point of the snow.

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21 A large hill blocks the direct path between a transmitter of radio waves and a receiver, as shown.

transmitter

hill receiver

The receiver picks up the signal from the transmitter even though the radio waves do not travel
through the hill.

Which row is correct?

A possible way A stronger signal is


for this to happen is received using

A diffraction round the hill. longer wavelengths.


B diffraction round the hill. shorter wavelengths.
C refraction round the hill. longer wavelengths.
D refraction round the hill. shorter wavelengths.

22 A person stands 1.0 m in front of a plane mirror. The mirror is moved away from the person at a
speed of 1.0 m / s.

Which statement is correct?

A The image moves away from the person at a speed of 1.0 m / s.


B The image moves away from the person at a speed of 2.0 m / s.
C The image moves towards the person at a speed of 1.0 m / s.
D The image moves towards the person at a speed of 2.0 m / s.

23 White light is refracted and dispersed when it enters a glass prism from air.

Which colour has the lowest speed as it moves through the glass prism?

A blue light
B orange light
C red light
D violet light

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24 The diagram shows the electromagnetic spectrum.

radio
γ-rays X-rays ultraviolet visible light infrared microwaves
waves

increasing ......................

A word is missing from the label below the spectrum.

Which word is missing?

A amplitude
B frequency
C speed
D wavelength

25 Which row gives a possible set of values for the speed of sound in ice, in water and in steam?

speed of sound speed of sound speed of sound


in ice in water in steam
m/ s m/ s m/ s

A 500 1500 4000


B 1500 4000 500
C 4000 500 1500
D 4000 1500 500

26 A steel bar is placed in an East-West direction for it to be demagnetised. No other magnet is


nearby.

Which method is not suitable?

A Hammering the bar.


B Heating the bar to a very high temperature.
C Slowly taking the bar out of a coil that carries an alternating current.
D Slowly taking the bar out of a coil that carries a direct current.

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27 A plastic rod is rubbed with a dry cloth. The rod becomes positively charged.

Why has the rod become positively charged?

A It has gained electrons.


B It has gained neutrons.
C It has lost electrons.
D It has lost neutrons.

28 There is a current of 3.0 A in a resistor for time t. During time t, a charge of 120 C flows through
the resistor.

What is time t ?

A 0.025 minutes
B 0.025 s
C 40 minutes
D 40 s

29 Identical resistors are connected together to form arrangements X, Y and Z.

X Y Z

What is the correct order of the resistances of the arrangements from the largest to the smallest?

A X→Y→Z

B Y→X→Z

C Z→X→Y

D Z→Y→X

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30 Resistors of resistance 1.0 Ω, 2.0 Ω and 3.0 Ω are connected in parallel across the terminals of
a cell.

Which statement is correct?

A The currents in the resistors are equal.


B The sum of the currents in the three resistors is equal to the current in the cell.
C The sum of the potential differences (p.d.’s) across the resistors is equal to the electromotive
force (e.m.f.) of the cell.

D The potential difference across the 3.0 Ω resistor is greater than the potential difference
across the other two resistors.

31 Diagram 1 shows a circuit containing an a.c. power supply, an unknown component X and a fixed
resistor.

The graph in diagram 2 shows how the potential difference (p.d.) across the resistor varies with
time.

X p.d.

0
0 time

diagram 1 diagram 2

What is component X?

A thermistor
B relay coil
C diode
D light-dependent resistor

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32 An AND gate has two inputs and one output.

Which truth table represents the action of the AND gate?

A B
input 1 input 2 output input 1 input 2 output

0 0 0 0 0 0
0 1 1 0 1 0
1 0 1 1 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1

C D
input 1 input 2 output input 1 input 2 output

0 0 1 0 0 1
0 1 1 0 1 0
1 0 1 1 0 0
1 1 0 1 1 0

33 Where must a fuse be connected in a mains electric circuit?

A the earth wire only


B the live wire only
C the neutral wire only
D the live wire and the earth wire

34 A wire XY is connected to a resistor R. The wire is moved in the magnetic field between two
magnetic poles.

In which direction must the wire be moved so that the induced current is in the direction shown?

induced
current
X

S N
C D
R

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35 A step-up transformer produces a 60 V a.c. output from a 12 V a.c. input.

There are 50 turns on the secondary coil.

How many turns are there on the primary coil?

A 5 B 10 C 50 D 250

36 An a.c. generator contains a coil that rotates at a rate of 4500 revolutions per minute.

What is the frequency of the alternating current?

A 1.25 Hz B 75 Hz C 150 Hz D 4500 Hz

37 Why are some radioactive sources stored in boxes made from lead?

A Lead absorbs emissions from the radioactive sources.


B Lead decreases the half-life of radioactive sources.
C Lead increases the half-life of radioactive sources.
D Lead repels emissions from the radioactive sources.

38 The diagram represents a neutral atom.

nucleus

Which row identifies each type of particle in the diagram?

A electron neutron proton


B electron proton neutron
C neutron electron proton
D proton electron neutron

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39 A thin metal foil is placed in a vacuum. α-particles are fired at the foil and most go straight
through. A very small proportion of the α-particles are deflected through large angles.

What does this provide evidence for?

A α-particles are very small.


B There are negative electrons in each atom.
C There is a tiny nucleus in each atom.
D There are neutrons in each atom.

40 The background count rate measured by a radiation counter is 40 counts per minute.

With the counter close to a radioactive source, the counter reading is 960 counts per minute.

The half-life of the source is 20 minutes.

What is the counter reading one hour later?

A 115 counts per minute


B 120 counts per minute
C 155 counts per minute
D 160 counts per minute

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

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Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) February/March 2018
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*8385724903*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 15 printed pages and 1 blank page.

IB18 03_0625_22/4RP
© UCLES 2018 [Turn over

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1 Which instrument is used to measure accurately the diameter of a thin metal wire?

A 30 cm ruler
B measuring tape
C metre rule
D micrometer screw gauge

2 A parachutist is falling through the air at terminal velocity.

Which statement about the parachutist is correct?

A Every force acting on the parachutist is equal to zero and his acceleration is equal to zero.
B Every force acting on the parachutist is equal to zero and his velocity is equal to zero.
C The resultant force acting on the parachutist is equal to zero and his acceleration is equal to
zero.
D The resultant force acting on the parachutist is equal to zero and his velocity is equal to zero.

3 The curved line on the graph shows the motion of a car.

12.0
speed
10.0
m/s
8.0
6.0
4.0
2.0
0
0 1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0 5.0
time / s

What is the acceleration of the car at the time of 4.0 s?

A 0.33 m / s2 B 0.44 m / s2 C 2.3 m / s2 D 3.0 m / s2

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4 The diagram shows a bird in flight. The bird is flying in a horizontal direction to the right.

In which direction does air resistance act on the bird?

D B

5 The gravitational field strength on the Moon is 1.6 N / kg.

An astronaut has a mass of 75 kg.

What is the weight of the astronaut on the Moon?

A 47 N B 75 N C 120 N D 750 N

6 A measuring cylinder contains 30 cm3 of a liquid.

cm3

50

40

30

20

10

balance

Some more of the liquid is added until the liquid level reaches the 50 cm3 mark.

The reading on the balance increases by 30 g.

What is the density of the liquid?

A 0.60 g / cm3 B 0.67 g / cm3 C 1.5 g / cm3 D 1.7 g / cm3

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7 A stone of mass 0.12 kg is fired from a catapult. The velocity of the stone changes from 0 to
5.0 m / s in 0.60 s.

What is the average resultant force acting on the stone while it is being fired?

A 1.0 N B 2.5 N C 3.6 N D 8.3 N

8 A uniform rod XY of weight 2.0 N has a length of 80 cm.

The rod is suspended by a thread 20 cm from end X. A weight of 5.0 N is suspended from end X.

thread

20 cm uniform rod

X Y

80 cm

5.0 N

A student hangs a 6.0 N weight on the rod so that it is in equilibrium.

What is the distance of the 6.0 N weight from end X?

A 6 cm B 10 cm C 26 cm D 30 cm

9 A wooden plank rests in equilibrium on two rocks on opposite sides of a narrow stream.

Three forces P, Q and R act on the plank.

P R
plank

How are the sizes of the forces related?

A P+Q=R
B P+R=Q
C P=Q=R
D P=Q+R

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10 A ball of mass 0.16 kg is moving forwards at a speed of 0.50 m / s. A second ball of mass 0.10 kg
is stationary. The first ball strikes the second ball. The second ball moves forwards at a speed of
0.50 m / s.

What is the speed of the first ball after the collision?

A 0.0 m / s B 0.19 m / s C 0.31 m / s D 0.50 m / s

11 A ball is at rest at the top of a hill. It rolls down the hill. At the bottom of the hill the ball hits a wall
and stops.

Which energy changes occur?

A gravitational potential energy → internal energy → kinetic energy

B gravitational potential energy → kinetic energy → internal energy

C kinetic energy → gravitational potential energy → internal energy

D kinetic energy → internal energy → gravitational potential energy

12 A student cycles along a level road at a speed of 5.0 m / s.

The total mass of the student and bicycle is 120 kg.

The student applies the brakes and stops. The braking distance is 10 m.

What is the average braking force?

A 150 N B 300 N C 15 000 N D 30 000 N

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13 A water manometer is connected to a gas supply.

gas Q
supply
water

There is a gas leak and the pressure of the gas supply falls.

What happens to the water level at P and what happens to the water level at Q?

water level at P water level at Q

A falls falls
B falls rises
C rises falls
D rises rises

14 A submarine is 20 m below the surface of the sea. The pressure due to the water at this depth
is P.

On another day, the submarine is 26 m below the surface of fresh water.

The density of sea water is 1.3 times the density of fresh water.

What is the pressure due to the fresh water at a depth of 26 m?

A P B P C 1.3 P D 1.7 P
1.3

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15 A cylinder with a tap contains a fixed mass of gas X. The gas is contained by a piston which can
move freely towards or away from the tap.

atmosphere
gas X
tap closed
piston

cylinder

When the tap is opened, the piston moves slightly to the right, towards the tap.

atmosphere
gas X
tap open

What can be deduced about the pressure of gas X?

before opening tap after opening tap

A less than atmospheric pressure more than atmospheric pressure


B same as atmospheric pressure more than atmospheric pressure
C more than atmospheric pressure less than atmospheric pressure
D more than atmospheric pressure same as atmospheric pressure

16 Liquid evaporates from a beaker.

What happens to the temperature of the remaining liquid and how does this temperature change
affect the rate of evaporation?

rate of
temperature
evaporation

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

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17 Which quantity does not change when there is an increase in temperature?

A the density of a steel block


B the diameter of the hole in a metal nut
C the length of an iron rod
D the mass of a metal coin

18 A thermocouple is used to measure temperature.

Which is an advantage of using a thermocouple instead of a liquid-in-glass thermometer?

A It can measure temperature in the range –10 °C to 110 °C.


B It can measure temperature that changes rapidly.
C It has a linear scale.
D It is more sensitive.

19 A block of copper has a mass of 2.0 kg.

The block of copper absorbs 12 000 J thermal energy.

The specific heat capacity of copper is 385 J / (kg °C).

What is the temperature rise of the copper?

A 15.6 °C B 31.2 °C C 46.8 °C D 62.4 °C

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20 A teacher demonstrates an experiment to a class. A boiling tube is filled with water and some ice
cubes are trapped at the bottom of the tube. The teacher then heats the boiling tube in the
position shown until the water at the top boils.

water

ice heat

metal mesh

The ice does not melt.

What does this demonstrate?

A Water is a good conductor of thermal energy.


B Water is a good convector of thermal energy.
C Water is a poor conductor of thermal energy.
D Water is a poor convector of thermal energy.

21 A metal cup has a plastic lining. The cup is filled with hot water and held by a hand.

Which statement about the transfer of thermal energy from the water to the hand is correct?

A In the plastic, no energy is transferred directly between adjacent molecules.


B In the plastic, fast moving molecules interact with free electrons, making the electrons move
very quickly.
C In the metal, energy is transferred only by electrons.
D In the metal, energy is transferred by electrons and by vibrations of the lattice.

22 Which row shows an example of a transverse wave and an example of a longitudinal wave?

transverse longitudinal

A light radio
B radio sound
C sound water
D water light

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23 A wave passes through a gap and diffraction causes the wave to spread out.

Which wave spreads out the most?

A large wavelength through a gap slightly larger than the wavelength


B large wavelength through a gap much smaller than the wavelength
C small wavelength through a gap much larger than the wavelength
D small wavelength through a gap much smaller than the wavelength

24 An object is placed before a plane mirror as shown.

A student views the image of the object in the mirror from point P.

Where does she see the image?

object B C D

mirror

25 Light has a speed of 1.24 × 108 m / s in diamond.

What is the refractive index of diamond?

A 0.41 B 1.54 C 2.42 D 3.72

26 Which statement describes monochromatic light?

A light that does not diffract


B light that has a single frequency
C light that spreads out when shone through a glass prism
D light that travels at the same speed in all materials

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27 Both the amplitude and the frequency of a sound wave decrease.

What happens to the sound heard?

A The sound is louder and has a higher pitch.


B The sound is louder and has a lower pitch.
C The sound is quieter and has a higher pitch.
D The sound is quieter and has a lower pitch.

28 A sound wave is travelling through water.

What is a possible speed for the wave?

A 150 m / s B 300 m / s C 1500 m / s D 5000 m / s

29 An electromagnet is used to remove a splinter from an eye.

What material is the splinter made from?

A aluminium
B glass
C iron
D wood

30 A metal conductor is connected to a battery.

Which statement describes the current in the metal conductor?

A It is a flow of electrons from the negative to the positive terminal.


B It is a flow of electrons from the positive to the negative terminal.
C It is a flow of protons from the negative to the positive terminal.
D It is a flow of protons from the positive to the negative terminal.

31 In an electric circuit, 40 C of electric charge pass a point in 5.0 s.

What is the current in the circuit?

A 0.13 A B 8.0 A C 45 A D 200 A

32 There is a current of 5.0 A in a resistor.

The potential difference (p.d.) across the resistor is 24 V.

How much energy is transferred in the resistor in 1.0 minute?

A 5.0 J B 120 J C 290 J D 7200 J

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33 The diagram shows a circuit.

lamp 1

lamp 2

Switch S is closed.

Which lamps light?

A lamp 1 only
B lamp 2 only
C lamp 1 and lamp 2
D neither lamp 1 nor lamp 2

34 A circuit contains four ammeters and three resistors with different values.

Which ammeter shows the largest reading?

A A D
10 Ω
A
B A
20 Ω

30 Ω
A
C

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35 The diagrams show pairs of circuits containing logic gates.

In which diagram does the lower circuit of the pair not behave in the same way as the upper
circuit?

A B

C D

36 The current in a coil produces a magnetic field around it, as shown.

– +

The magnitude of the potential difference across the coil is increased and its direction is
reversed.

What happens to the magnetic field?

A The lines become closer together and the right-hand end becomes a south pole.
B The lines become closer together and the right-hand end remains a north pole.
C The lines become further apart and the right-hand end becomes a south pole.
D The lines become further apart and the right-hand end remains a north pole.

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23
37 The notation for an isotope of sodium is 11 Na .

Which row gives the composition of a neutral atom of this isotope of sodium?

number of number of number of


protons neutrons electrons

A 11 12 11
B 11 12 12
C 11 23 11
D 12 11 12

38 The radioactive isotope of hydrogen undergoes beta decay to the isotope 32 He .

What is the nuclide notation for the hydrogen isotope?


1 2 3 4
A 1H B 1H C 1H D 2H

39 When measuring the emissions from a radioactive rock brought into the laboratory, a teacher
mentions that background radiation must be taken into account.

What is this background radiation?

A infra-red radiation from warm objects in the laboratory


B infra-red radiation from the Sun
C ionising radiation from the radioactive rock brought into the laboratory
D ionising radiation in the laboratory when the radioactive rock is not present

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40 Solid caesium-137 decays by the emission of a β-particle to form solid barium-137, which emits a
γ-ray.

The barium-137 undergoes no further decay. The half-life of caesium-137 is 33 years.

A block of pure caesium-137 has a mass of 2.0 µg.

The diagram shows a radiation detector a distance of 5 cm from the block. The detector registers
a count rate of 2000 counts / second.

detector
counter
block

5 cm

Which statement is not correct?

A After 33 years, the mass of the block is 1.0 µg.

B After 66 years, the sample contains 1.5 µg of barium.


C With 5 cm of lead between the block and the detector, the count rate is just above
background level.
D With 2 mm of aluminium between the block and the detector, the count rate is reduced
significantly.

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BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/F/M/18


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Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/21
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2018
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*7516764361*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 15 printed pages and 1 blank page.

IB18 06_0625_21/3RP
© UCLES 2018 [Turn over

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1 A length of cotton is measured between two points on a ruler.

cotton

cm 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16

When the length of cotton is wound closely around a pen, it goes round six times.

six turns of cotton


pen

What is the distance once round the pen?

A 2.2 cm B 2.6 cm C 13.2 cm D 15.6 cm

2 When does an object falling vertically through the air reach terminal velocity?

A when the acceleration of the object becomes negative


B when the acceleration of the object is equal to g
C when the air resistance equals the weight of the object
D when the air resistance is greater than the weight of the object

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3 A car is moving along a straight, level road, with a constant acceleration.

Which graph shows the motion of the car?

A B

distance distance

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

speed speed

0 0
0 time 0 time

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4 Diagram 1 shows a beam balance. A beaker with a wire loop balances the standard masses.

The beaker is then removed and hung from a spring. The spring extends by 5.0 cm, as in
diagram 2.

diagram 1 diagram 2

beam beaker with spring


standard balance wire loop
masses
attached

beaker with
wire loop
attached

The experiment is repeated with the same apparatus on the Moon, where the acceleration of free
fall is less than on Earth.

Which statement describes what happens on the Moon?

A The beam balance is balanced and the spring extends by 5.0 cm.
B The beam balance is balanced and the spring extends by less than 5.0 cm.
C The right-hand balance pan is higher and the spring extends by 5.0 cm.
D The right-hand balance pan is higher and the spring extends by less than 5.0 cm.

5 An object always has mass but does not always have weight.

What must be present and acting on the mass for it to have weight?

A a gravitational field
B a set of scales
C displaced water
D friction due to air resistance

6 A force acting on a moving ball causes its motion to change. This force stays constant.

What makes the force produce a greater change in the motion of the ball?

A decreasing the total mass of the ball


B increasing the temperature of the ball
C using a ball with a hollow centre but the same mass
D using a different material for the ball so that it has a lower density but the same mass

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7 A balloon and a mass are attached to a rod that is pivoted at P.

balloon

45 40 35 30 25 20 15 10 5
P
cm
mass

The balloon is filled with helium, a gas less dense than air, so that it applies an upward force on
the rod.

The rod is horizontal and stationary.

Which action causes the rod to rotate clockwise?

A Move both the balloon and mass 10 cm to the left.


B Move both the balloon and mass 10 cm to the right.
C Move both the balloon and mass to the 25 cm mark.
D Move the balloon to the 20 cm mark and the mass to the 30 cm mark.

8 A car is moving in a straight line on a level road. Its engine provides a forward force on the car. A
second force of equal size acts on the car due to resistive forces.

Which statement describes what happens?

A The car changes direction.


B The car moves at a constant speed.
C The car slows down.
D The car speeds up.

9 Which expression gives the momentum of an object?

A mass × acceleration

B mass × gravitational field strength

C mass × velocity

D 1
2 × mass × (velocity)2

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10 As energy is transferred into different forms, it eventually becomes dissipated.

What does this mean?

A All the energy disappears.


B The energy finally changes into every possible form of energy.
C The energy spreads out among the objects and their surroundings.
D The total amount of energy becomes less.

11 A ball of mass 1.2 kg is dropped from a height of 30 m. As it falls, 25% of its initial gravitational
potential energy is transferred to thermal energy.

What is the kinetic energy of the ball just before it hits the ground?

A 27 J B 90 J C 270 J D 360 J

12 A girl hangs by her hands from a bar in the gymnasium. She pulls herself up until her chin is level
with the bar.

The mass of the girl is 48 kg.

She pulls herself up through a distance of 0.25 m.

She does this in 2.0 s.

What is the useful power she uses to pull herself up?

A 6.0 W B 24 W C 60 W D 240 W

13 Four identical beakers are filled with equal volumes of liquids P or Q, as shown. Liquid P is more
dense than liquid Q.

At which point is the pressure the least?

liquid P B liquid Q D

A C

14 An oil tank has a base of area 2.5 m2 and is filled with oil to a depth of 1.2 m.

The density of the oil is 800 kg / m3.

What is the force exerted on the base of the tank due to the oil?

A 960 N B 2400 N C 9600 N D 24 000 N

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15 When molecules of a gas rebound from a wall of a container, the wall experiences a pressure.

What is the cause of this pressure?

A the change in energy of the molecules


B the change in momentum of the molecules
C the change in power of the molecules
D the change in speed of the molecules

16 A student wishes to calibrate a mercury-in-glass thermometer with a °C scale.

Which values should she use for the lower fixed point and for the upper fixed point?

lower fixed point upper fixed point

A melting point of ice boiling point of mercury


B melting point of ice boiling point of water
C melting point of mercury boiling point of mercury
D melting point of mercury boiling point of water

17 Which statements about boiling and about evaporation are both correct?

boiling evaporation

A takes place only at the surface takes place only at the surface
B takes place only at the surface takes place throughout the liquid
C takes place throughout the liquid takes place only at the surface
D takes place throughout the liquid takes place throughout the liquid

18 On a cold day, a metal front-door knob X and a similar plastic knob Y are at the same
temperature.

Why does X feel cooler to the touch than Y?

A X convects thermal energy better than Y.


B X is a better thermal conductor than Y.
C X is a better insulator than Y.
D X is a better radiator of thermal energy than Y.

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19 Light travels at a speed of 2.0 × 108 m / s in a glass block.

In the glass, the wavelength of the light is 4.0 × 10–7 m.

What is the frequency of the light?

A 2.0 × 10–15 Hz

B 1.3 × 10–2 Hz
C 80 Hz

D 5.0 × 1014 Hz

20 Which arrow on the graph shows the amplitude of the wave?

displacement

B
A C
0
0 distance

21 Scout P signals to scout Q on the other side of a valley by using a mirror to reflect the Sun’s light.

Sun’s
scout P light

mirror

scout Q

Which mirror position allows the Sun’s light to be reflected to scout Q?

A B C D
mirror Sun’s Sun’s Sun’s Sun’s
light light light light

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22 A prism is made from transparent plastic. In this plastic, light travels at 0.80 c, where c is its speed
in air. Light enters one face of the prism at right-angles as shown.

NOT TO
SCALE

The light just escapes from the sloping face of the prism.

What is angle θ ?

A 37° B 39° C 51° D 53°

23 The Sun emits infra-red radiation and light.

Light from the Sun reaches the Earth in 8 minutes.

Which row gives correct information about the infra-red radiation?

wavelength of time taken for infra-red


infra-red radiation radiation to reach Earth

A longer than wavelength of light 8 minutes


B longer than wavelength of light much less than 8 minutes
C shorter than wavelength of light 8 minutes
D shorter than wavelength of light much more than 8 minutes

24 A dolphin has a range of audible frequencies of 150 Hz–150 kHz.

Which range of frequencies can be heard both by humans with good hearing and by dolphins?

A 20 Hz–150 Hz
B 20 Hz–150 kHz
C 20 kHz–150 kHz
D 150 Hz–20 kHz

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25 A permanent magnet is placed close to a bar of soft iron.

permanent
S N P Q soft iron bar
magnet

What are the polarities of end P and of end Q?

end P end Q

A N N
B N S
C S N
D S S

26 A steel magnet is placed inside a coil of wire.

Which method is used to demagnetise the magnet?

A connect the coil to an a.c. power supply


B connect the coil to an a.c. power supply and slowly remove the magnet from the coil
C connect the coil to a d.c. power supply
D connect the coil to a d.c. power supply and slowly remove the magnet from the coil

27 The electromotive force (e.m.f.) of a rechargeable battery is 6.0 V.

What does this mean?

A 6.0 J is the maximum energy the battery can provide in 1.0 s.


B 6.0 J is the total energy the battery can provide before it has to be recharged.
C 6.0 J of energy is provided by the battery to drive a charge of 1.0 C around a complete circuit.
D 6.0 J of energy is provided by the battery to drive a current of 1.0 A around a complete circuit.

28 A student measures the potential difference across a device and the current in the device.

Which calculation gives the resistance of the device?

A current + potential difference

B current ÷ potential difference

C potential difference ÷ current

D potential difference × current

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29 A water heater is connected to a 230 V supply and there is a current of 26 A in the heater. It takes
20 minutes to heat the water to the required temperature.

How much energy is supplied by the heater?

A 6.0 × 103 J B 1.0 × 104 J C 1.2 × 105 J D 7.2 × 106 J

30 Which electrical symbol represents a diode?

A B C D

31 A student sets up this circuit.

What is the purpose of the circuit?

A to allow a lamp to be made dimmer or brighter as required


B to amplify the sound of a voice
C to light a lamp in the dark
D to sound a bell when the temperature rises

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32 The diagram shows two voltmeters P and Q connected to a potential divider.

V voltmeter P
X

V voltmeter Q

The sliding connection at point X is moved towards the top of the diagram.

What happens to the reading on P and to the reading on Q?

reading on P reading on Q

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

33 The diagram represents a digital circuit using a NOR gate and an AND gate.

X NOR

AND
Y
output

What is the truth table for this circuit?

A B C D

X Y Z output X Y Z output X Y Z output X Y Z output


0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 1
0 0 1 0 0 0 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 0 1 0
0 1 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 1 0 1 0 1 0 1
0 1 1 1 0 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 0 1 1 1
1 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 1 0 0 1 1 0 0 1
1 0 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 0 1 0 1 0 1 1
1 1 0 0 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 1
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 1

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34 Which statement about electromagnetic induction is correct?

A A strong magnet that is held stationary near a stationary conductor causes a greater effect
than a weak magnet.
B The effect occurs when a magnet and a conductor are both moved with the same speed and
in the same direction.
C The effect occurs when a magnet is moved away from a nearby conductor.
D The effect only occurs when a magnet is moved towards a conductor.

35 The diagram shows a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field.

Which arrow shows the direction of the force acting on the conductor?

S D B N

36 Power losses in transmission cables are reduced by increasing the transmission voltage.

What is the explanation for this reduction?

A The current decreases, reducing thermal energy losses.


B The current increases, increasing the flow of charge.
C The resistance of the cable increases, reducing the current.
D The resistance of the cable decreases.

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37 In the atomic model, an atom consists of a central mass, orbited by much smaller particles.

orbiting central
particle mass

What is the name of the central mass and of the orbiting particles?

central mass orbiting particles

A neutron α-particles
B neutron electrons
C nucleus α-particles
D nucleus electrons

38 Nuclear fusion is a reaction that takes place in stars.

Which row describes this reaction?

action of atomic nuclei energy


A an atomic nucleus splits into absorbed
two or more smaller nuclei
B an atomic nucleus splits into released
two or more smaller nuclei
C atomic nuclei join together absorbed
to form a larger nucleus
D atomic nuclei join together released
to form a larger nucleus

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39 The diagram shows emissions from a source passing into the electric field between two charged
plates.

+ + + + + + + + + +

source

– – – – – – – – – –

What is emitted by this source?

A neutrons and γ-rays only

B α-particles and β-particles only

C α-particles and γ-rays only

D β-particles and γ-rays only

40 The graph shows how the count rate registered by a counter near to a sample of a radioactive
isotope changes over a period of a few days. The background count rate is 5 counts per minute.

50
count rate
40
counts / minute

30

20

10

0
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

time / days

What is the half-life of the isotope?

A 2.0 days B 2.5 days C 3.0 days D 4.0 days

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BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

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Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2018
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*7373168877*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 14 printed pages and 2 blank pages.

IB18 06_0625_22/3RP
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1 A length of cotton is measured between two points on a ruler.

cotton

cm 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16

When the length of cotton is wound closely around a pen, it goes round six times.

six turns of cotton


pen

What is the distance once round the pen?

A 2.2 cm B 2.6 cm C 13.2 cm D 15.6 cm

2 When does an object falling vertically through the air reach terminal velocity?

A when the acceleration of the object becomes negative


B when the acceleration of the object is equal to g
C when the air resistance equals the weight of the object
D when the air resistance is greater than the weight of the object

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3 A ball is dropped in an evacuated tube. A series of photographs is taken at equal time intervals
from the time of release. Another ball of the same size but twice the mass is also dropped in the
same evacuated tube and photographed.

Which diagram shows the motion of the heavier ball?

heavier ball (mass ×2)


first ball A B C D

4 Which statement about the mass and the weight of an object is correct?

A They are both affected by changes in the acceleration of free fall.


B They are both forces.
C They have different units.
D Weight is calculated by dividing mass by the acceleration of free fall.

5 Which statement about the mass of an object is correct?

A It is equal to the density divided by the volume.


B It is equal to weight multiplied by the gravitational field strength.
C It is the effect of a gravitational field on the object.
D It is the property that resists a change in velocity.

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6 An object decelerates from 25.0 m / s to 5.0 m / s in a time of 4.0 s.

It has a mass of 50 kg.

What is the resultant force on the object?

A 0.63 N B 10 N C 250 N D 4000 N

7 A beam is pivoted at one end, as shown.

40 cm beam
X
pivot

6.0 N

The beam weighs 6.0 N and its weight acts at a point X, 40 cm from the pivot.

A force of 4.0 N is applied to the beam causing it to balance horizontally.

In which direction and where is the 4.0 N force applied?

A downwards at 20 cm to the left of X


B downwards at 20 cm to the right of X
C upwards at 20 cm to the left of X
D upwards at 20 cm to the right of X

8 A spacecraft is travelling in space with no resultant force and no resultant moment acting on it.

Which statement about the spacecraft is correct?

A Its direction is changing.


B It is in equilibrium.
C Its speed is decreasing.
D Its speed is increasing.

9 A car of mass 1000 kg travelling at 8.0 m / s collides with a lorry of mass 3000 kg that is travelling
at 2.0 m / s in the same direction. After colliding, the two vehicles stick together.

What is their speed after the collision?

A 2.0 m / s B 2.5 m / s C 3.5 m / s D 5.0 m / s

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10 What is the main process by which energy is released in the Sun?

A α-decay

B β-decay
C nuclear fission
D nuclear fusion

11 The work done W by a force is related to the magnitude F of the force and the distance d moved
in the direction of the force.

Which equation for W is correct?

A W=d÷F
B W=d+F
C W=F÷d

D W=F×d

12 A crane on a construction site lifts concrete beams.

The useful work done by the crane is 4000 kJ in a time of 160 s.

What is the useful output power of the crane?

A 0.04 kW B 25 W C 25 kW D 640 kW

13 A submarine is in water of density 1.0 × 103 kg / m3. The submarine changes its depth. This causes
the pressure on it to change by 0.10 MPa.

What is the change in depth of the submarine?

A 0.10 m B 10 m C 100 m D 1000 m

14 An oil tank has a base of area 2.5 m2 and is filled with oil to a depth of 1.2 m.

The density of the oil is 800 kg / m3.

What is the force exerted on the base of the tank due to the oil?

A 960 N B 2400 N C 9600 N D 24 000 N

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15 When molecules of a gas rebound from a wall of a container, the wall experiences a pressure.

What is the cause of this pressure?

A the change in energy of the molecules


B the change in momentum of the molecules
C the change in power of the molecules
D the change in speed of the molecules

16 A student wishes to calibrate a mercury-in-glass thermometer with a °C scale.

Which values should she use for the lower fixed point and for the upper fixed point?

lower fixed point upper fixed point

A melting point of ice boiling point of mercury


B melting point of ice boiling point of water
C melting point of mercury boiling point of mercury
D melting point of mercury boiling point of water

17 In an experiment, an object is heated.

The data from the experiment is shown.

● The energy transferred to the object is 3.0 kJ.


● The mass of the object is 2.0 kg.

● The rise in temperature of the object is 10 °C.

● The specific heat capacity of the object is 150 J / (kg °C).

What is the thermal capacity of the object?

A 30 J / °C B 300 J / °C C 3000 J / °C D 9000 J / °C

18 Four thermometers, with their bulbs painted different colours, are placed at equal distances from
a radiant heater.

Which thermometer shows the slowest temperature rise when the heater is first switched on?

A matt black
B matt white
C shiny black
D shiny white

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19 A tank contains water. Ripples are produced on the surface of the water.

What causes the ripples to refract?

A The cold water in the tank is replaced by warm water.


B The ripples change speed as they move from deep to shallow water.
C The ripples hit the wall of the tank.
D The ripples pass through a narrow gap.

20 Light travels at a speed of 2.0 × 108 m / s in a glass block.

In the glass, the wavelength of the light is 4.0 × 10–7 m.

What is the frequency of the light?

A 2.0 × 10–15 Hz

B 1.3 × 10–2 Hz
C 80 Hz

D 5.0 × 1014 Hz

21 Scout P signals to scout Q on the other side of a valley by using a mirror to reflect the Sun’s light.

Sun’s
scout P light

mirror

scout Q

Which mirror position allows the Sun’s light to be reflected to scout Q?

A B C D
mirror Sun’s Sun’s Sun’s Sun’s
light light light light

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22 A scientist describes light as being monochromatic.

What does this tell you about the light?

A It has a single frequency.


B It has more than one wavelength.
C It travels at a single speed in a single direction.
D It travels at different speeds in different directions.

23 Which statement is not correct?

A The speed of long-wavelength infra-red radiation in a vacuum is greater than that of short-
wavelength ultraviolet light.

B The speed of microwaves in air is approximately 3.0 × 108 m / s.

C The speed of γ-rays emitted from a sample of cobalt-60 is 3.0 × 105 km / s.


D The X-rays emitted in a supernova explosion reach the Earth at the same time as the visible
light emitted.

24 A siren is emitting a sound. As time passes, the sound becomes louder and higher pitched.

What is happening to the amplitude and to the frequency of the emitted sound wave?

amplitude frequency

A decreasing decreasing
B decreasing increasing
C increasing decreasing
D increasing increasing

25 A permanent magnet is placed close to a bar of soft iron.

permanent
S N P Q soft iron bar
magnet

What are the polarities of end P and of end Q?

end P end Q

A N N
B N S
C S N
D S S

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26 Which method is used to demagnetise a bar magnet?

A lower it into water


B heat it with a Bunsen burner
C place it in a metal box
D suspend it in a sling

27 What is the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of a cell?

A the amount of charge that passes through the cell per unit time
B the energy gained per unit charge as charge passes through the cell
C the total amount of charge flowing through the cell
D the total energy stored in the cell

28 A student measures the potential difference across a device and the current in the device.

Which calculation gives the resistance of the device?

A current + potential difference

B current ÷ potential difference

C potential difference ÷ current

D potential difference × current

29 A piece of wire is 40 cm long and has a diameter of 2.0 mm.

Its resistance is 0.30 Ω.

Which wire of the same material has a resistance of 0.15 Ω?

length / cm diameter / mm

A 20 1.0
B 20 4.0
C 80 1.0
D 80 4.0

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30 A diode is used as a rectifier.

What is the purpose of a rectifier?

A to allow current to pass in either direction


B to change alternating current into direct current
C to switch off the circuit in case of a large current
D to provide an efficient source of light

31 A student sets up this circuit.

What is the purpose of the circuit?

A to allow a lamp to be made dimmer or brighter as required


B to amplify the sound of a voice
C to light a lamp in the dark
D to sound a bell when the temperature rises

32 The diagram shows two voltmeters P and Q connected to a potential divider.

V voltmeter P
X

V voltmeter Q

The sliding connection at point X is moved towards the top of the diagram.

What happens to the reading on P and to the reading on Q?

reading on P reading on Q

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

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33 The circuit shown contains two gates.

Which truth table describes the operation of the circuit?

A B C D
P Q R P Q R P Q R P Q R

0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 1
0 1 1 0 1 0 0 1 0 0 1 0
1 0 1 1 0 1 1 0 0 1 0 1
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 1

34 In an a.c. generator, a coil is rotated in a magnetic field and an electromotive force (e.m.f.) is
induced in the coil.

In which position of the coil does the e.m.f. have the largest value?

A B
coil coil

N S N S

C D
coil coil

N S N S

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35 Wire P carries a current directed perpendicularly into the page. A compass is placed at point Q
which is close to wire P.

The magnetic field at Q due to the current is very much larger than the magnetic field of the
Earth.

In which direction does the North pole of the compass point?

P
B C
Q

A D

36 A transformer has Np turns in the primary coil and Ns turns in the secondary coil.

Which row gives the values of Np and Ns for a transformer that steps up a voltage of 1200 V to
36 000 V?

Np Ns

A 2 000 60 000
B 2 000 600 000
C 60 000 2 000
D 600 000 2 000

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37 In the atomic model, an atom consists of a central mass, orbited by much smaller particles.

orbiting central
particle mass

What is the name of the central mass and of the orbiting particles?

central mass orbiting particles

A neutron α-particles
B neutron electrons
C nucleus α-particles
D nucleus electrons

218
38 An isotope of polonium has the nuclide notation 84 Po .

A nucleus of this isotope decays by emitting an α-particle. A β-particle is then emitted to form
nuclide X.

What is the notation for nuclide X?


214 213 213 214
A 81 X B 82 X C 83 X D 83 X

39 The table compares the penetrating abilities and ionising effects of α-radiation and of γ-radiation.

Which row is correct?

least most
penetrating ionising

A α α
B α γ
C γ α
D γ γ

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40 The graph shows how the count rate registered by a counter near to a sample of a radioactive
isotope changes over a period of a few days. The background count rate is 5 counts per minute.

50
count rate
40
counts / minute

30

20

10

0
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

time / days

What is the half-life of the isotope?

A 2.0 days B 2.5 days C 3.0 days D 4.0 days

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© UCLES 2018 0625/22/M/J/18


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BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/M/J/18


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Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/23
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2018
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*9561144955*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 16 printed pages.

IB18 06_0625_23/4RP
© UCLES 2018 [Turn over

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1 A length of cotton is measured between two points on a ruler.

cotton

cm 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16

When the length of cotton is wound closely around a pen, it goes round six times.

six turns of cotton


pen

What is the distance once round the pen?

A 2.2 cm B 2.6 cm C 13.2 cm D 15.6 cm

2 When does an object falling vertically through the air reach terminal velocity?

A when the acceleration of the object becomes negative


B when the acceleration of the object is equal to g
C when the air resistance equals the weight of the object
D when the air resistance is greater than the weight of the object

3 A sprinter runs a 100 m race in a straight line. The table shows how his speed changes with time
for the first 5.0 s of the race.

speed
0 1.7 4.1 5.7 6.5 6.8
m/s
time / s 0 1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0 5.0

What is the average acceleration of the sprinter between time 2.0 s and time 3.0 s?

A 1.6 m / s2 B 1.9 m / s2 C 4.1 m / s2 D 5.7 m / s2

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4 A person steps onto a bathroom scales.

The bathroom scales records both mass and weight.

Which row shows the readings on the scales?

mass weight

A 60 N 600 kg
B 60 kg 600 N
C 600 kg 60 N
D 600 N 60 kg

5 An object has a weight of 7600 N in a gravitational field of strength 100 N / kg.

What is the mass of the object?

A 76 kg B 760 N C 7600 g D 76 000 N

6 A load is hung from a steel wire. The load is increased.

The length of the wire increases until the limit of proportionality is reached.

The load is now increased slightly.

What happens?

A The extension of the wire increases and the wire no longer obeys Hooke’s law.
B The extension of the wire decreases and the wire no longer obeys Hooke’s law.
C The extension of the wire increases and it obeys Hooke’s law.
D The extension of the wire decreases and it obeys Hooke’s law.

7 The diagram shows a uniform metre rule pivoted at the 30 cm mark.

metre rule

0 cm 30 cm 70 cm 100 cm

pivot
6.0 N 2.0 N

The rule balances when a weight of 6.0 N is hanging from the zero mark and a weight of 2.0 N is
hanging from the 70 cm mark.

What is the weight of the rule?

A 2.0 N B 5.0 N C 6.0 N D 13.0 N

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8 An astronaut orbits the Earth in a space station.

Which is a vector quantity?

A the mass of the astronaut


B the speed of the satellite
C the temperature inside the satellite
D the weight of the astronaut

9 A visitor to a fairground throws a soft object of mass 0.12 kg at a coconut of mass 0.48 kg. The
soft object stops moving when it hits the coconut. In order to dislodge the coconut, it must be
made to move at 0.10 m/s.

What is the minimum speed with which the visitor should throw the soft object in order to dislodge
the coconut?

A 0.20 m/s
B 0.40 m/s
C 2.0 m/s
D 4.0 m/s

10 An aircraft with a mass of 300 000 kg is flying at an altitude of 2000 m with a speed of 100 m / s.

What is the kinetic energy of the aircraft?

A 1.5 × 104 kJ B 1.5 × 106 kJ C 3.0 × 106 kJ D 6.0 × 106 kJ

11 Which method of drying clothes has the least impact on the environment?

A Evaporate the water in them in an electrically heated tumble dryer.


B Hang them on a washing line in direct sunlight.
C Remove the water from them in an electric spin dryer.
D Suspend them close to a coal fire.

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12 The vertical displacement of a mass of 0.20 kg changes with time. The graph shows how this
displacement changes.

displacement
/ cm
2

0
0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1.0 1.2 1.4
time / s

–1

–2

–3

At which rate does it gain gravitational potential energy as it moves upwards?

A 0.025 W B 0.050 W C 0.20 W D 0.40 W

13 A simple barometer includes a column of mercury.

Which property of this column of mercury is used to give a measurement of atmospheric


pressure?

A its cross-sectional area


B its height
C its temperature
D its thermal capacity

14 An oil tank has a base of area 2.5 m2 and is filled with oil to a depth of 1.2 m.

The density of the oil is 800 kg / m3.

What is the force exerted on the base of the tank due to the oil?

A 960 N B 2400 N C 9600 N D 24 000 N

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15 When molecules of a gas rebound from a wall of a container, the wall experiences a pressure.

What is the cause of this pressure?

A the change in energy of the molecules


B the change in momentum of the molecules
C the change in power of the molecules
D the change in speed of the molecules

16 Two liquid-in-glass thermometers P and Q contain the same volume of mercury and have
capillary tubes of the same length.

Thermometer P has a capillary tube with a smaller diameter than thermometer Q.

Which thermometer has the greater range and which has the greater sensitivity?

greater greater
range sensitivity

A P P
B P Q
C Q P
D Q Q

17 A student wishes to calibrate a mercury-in-glass thermometer with a °C scale.

Which values should she use for the lower fixed point and for the upper fixed point?

lower fixed point upper fixed point

A melting point of ice boiling point of mercury


B melting point of ice boiling point of water
C melting point of mercury boiling point of mercury
D melting point of mercury boiling point of water

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18 The diagram shows a pan used for cooking food.

handle of pan

base of pan

Which row is correct for the materials used to make the base and the handle of the pan?

base of pan handle of pan

A good thermal conductor good thermal conductor


B good thermal conductor poor thermal conductor
C poor thermal conductor good thermal conductor
D poor thermal conductor poor thermal conductor

19 The diagram shows a wave.

2.0
displacement
/ cm 1.0

0
0 4.0 8.0 12.0 16.0 20.0 24.0 28.0
–1.0 distance
/ cm
–2.0

Which row is correct?

amplitude of wavelength of
the wave / cm the wave / cm

A 1.0 4.0
B 1.0 8.0
C 2.0 4.0
D 2.0 8.0

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20 Light travels at a speed of 2.0 × 108 m / s in a glass block.

In the glass, the wavelength of the light is 4.0 × 10–7 m.

What is the frequency of the light?

A 2.0 × 10–15 Hz

B 1.3 × 10–2 Hz
C 80 Hz

D 5.0 × 1014 Hz

21 Scout P signals to scout Q on the other side of a valley by using a mirror to reflect the Sun’s light.

Sun’s
scout P light

mirror

scout Q

Which mirror position allows the Sun’s light to be reflected to scout Q?

A B C D
mirror Sun’s Sun’s Sun’s Sun’s
light light light light

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22 Images formed by lenses and mirrors can either be described as real or as virtual.

Which row describes real and virtual images of a point object?

real images virtual images


A formed where light rays an image in a plane mirror is an
meet example of a virtual image
B formed where light rays can be projected onto a screen
meet
C formed from where light rays an image in a plane mirror is an
appear to diverge example of a virtual image
D formed from where light rays can be projected onto a screen
appear to diverge

23 The diagram shows the air molecules in part of a sound wave at a particular moment in time.

Which statement is not correct?

A Earlier, there was compression at X.


B Later, there will be a rarefaction at X.
C This part of the wave is travelling horizontally across the page.
D This part of the wave is travelling towards the top of the page.

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24 The diagram shows the ranges of human hearing and of ultrasound waves.

range of
human hearing ultrasound

0 101 102 103 104 105 106


2 × 101 2 × 104

To which characteristic of sound waves do the numbers on the diagram refer?

A amplitude in cm
B frequency in Hz
C speed in metres / second
D wavelength in metres

25 A permanent magnet is placed close to a bar of soft iron.

permanent
S N P Q soft iron bar
magnet

What are the polarities of end P and of end Q?

end P end Q

A N N
B N S
C S N
D S S

26 Which method is used to demagnetise a magnet?

A cool it in a freezer
B drop it into a beaker of water
C place it inside a coil carrying a direct current
D strike it with a hammer

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27 Two power supplies are connected in separate circuits. Both power supplies provide the same
magnitude current.

Power supply P has an electromotive force (e.m.f.) of 1.5 V and power supply Q has an e.m.f. of
3.0 V.

Which statements are correct?

1 Source Q supplies twice the charge per unit time.


2 Source Q supplies twice the energy per unit charge.
3 Source Q supplies twice the energy per unit time.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

28 A student measures the potential difference across a device and the current in the device.

Which calculation gives the resistance of the device?

A current + potential difference

B current ÷ potential difference

C potential difference ÷ current

D potential difference × current

29 An electricity meter records that 200 MJ of electrical energy are drawn from the 240 V mains
supply in a 24 hour period.

What is the average rate of electrical charge passing through the meter?

A 9.6 C / h B 580 C / h C 35 kC / h D 0.83 MC / h

30 A 3.0 Ω resistor is connected in parallel with a 4.0 Ω resistor.

3.0 Ω

4.0 Ω

What is the resistance of this combination?


A 0.14 Ω B 0.58 Ω C 1.7 Ω D 7.0 Ω

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31 A student sets up this circuit.

What is the purpose of the circuit?

A to allow a lamp to be made dimmer or brighter as required


B to amplify the sound of a voice
C to light a lamp in the dark
D to sound a bell when the temperature rises

32 The diagram shows two voltmeters P and Q connected to a potential divider.

V voltmeter P
X

V voltmeter Q

The sliding connection at point X is moved towards the top of the diagram.

What happens to the reading on P and to the reading on Q?

reading on P reading on Q

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

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33 The diagram shows a logic circuit with inputs X and Y.

X
Y
Q

The output is Q.

Which truth table is correct?

A B
X Y Q X Y Q

0 0 0 0 0 1
0 1 1 0 1 0
1 0 1 1 0 0
1 1 0 1 1 1

C D
X Y Q X Y Q

0 0 1 0 0 0
0 1 1 0 1 0
1 0 1 1 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 0

34 A wire connected to a resistor is moved in a magnetic field. A current is induced in the direction
shown.

In which direction is the wire moved?

wire
A

D B

N S R
C
induced
current

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35 The diagram shows a transformer.

core
primary coil
secondary coil

Which materials are the most suitable for the core and for the coils?

core material coil material

A copper copper
B copper iron
C iron copper
D iron iron

36 A solenoid is connected to a battery.

axis of
solenoid
solenoid

Which statement about the magnetic field at the centre of the solenoid is correct?

A The magnetic field along the axis is zero.

B The direction of the magnetic field is at an angle of 45° to the axis.


C The direction of the magnetic field is parallel to the axis.
D The direction of the magnetic field is perpendicular to the axis.

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37 In the atomic model, an atom consists of a central mass, orbited by much smaller particles.

orbiting central
particle mass

What is the name of the central mass and of the orbiting particles?

central mass orbiting particles

A neutron α-particles
B neutron electrons
C nucleus α-particles
D nucleus electrons

38 The radiation from a radioactive source passes between two metal plates, and is deflected as
shown in the diagram. Between the plates there is a magnetic field directed into the plane of the
paper, as indicated by the crosses.

× × × × × × × × × ×

× × × × × × × × × ×

Only one type of radiation is present.

Which situation is possible?

A The source emits alpha particles and there is an upwards electric field between the plates.
B The source emits alpha particles and there is no electric field between the plates.
C The source emits beta particles and there is an upwards electric field between the plates.
D The source emits gamma radiation and there is a downwards electric field between the
plates.

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39 The nucleus of an isotope of nitrogen (N) absorbs a neutron. It then decays into an isotope of
carbon (C) and emits x.

1 14 14
0n + 7N → 6C + x

What is x?

A α-particle

B β-particle

C γ-radiation
D proton

40 The graph shows how the count rate registered by a counter near to a sample of a radioactive
isotope changes over a period of a few days. The background count rate is 5 counts per minute.

50
count rate
40
counts / minute

30

20

10

0
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

time / days

What is the half-life of the isotope?

A 2.0 days B 2.5 days C 3.0 days D 4.0 days

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

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Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/21
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2018
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*8207631209*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 16 printed pages.

IB18 11_0625_21/2RP
© UCLES 2018 [Turn over

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1 The diagram shows part of a micrometer screw gauge.


45

012 40

mm
35

30

What is the smallest reading that can be achieved using this micrometer screw gauge?

A 0.0001 mm B 0.01 mm C 0.1 mm D 1 mm

2 A small, light ball is dropped from the top of a tall building.

Which graph shows how the speed of the ball changes with time?

A B

speed speed

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

speed speed

0 0
0 time 0 time

3 A runner runs 300 m at an average speed of 3.0 m / s. She then runs another 300 m at an average
speed of 6.0 m / s.

What is her average speed for the total distance of 600 m?

A 2.0 m / s B 4.0 m / s C 4.5 m / s D 8.0 m / s

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4 A helium balloon is tied to a top-pan balance. A metal block of mass 100 g is placed on the
balance. The reading on the balance is 91 g.

helium balloon

metal block

91 g

Which statement can be deduced from this experiment?

A The balloon exerts a downward force of 0.09 N on the top-pan balance.


B The helium has a mass of –9 g.
C The helium has a mass of +9 g.
D The resultant downward force on the top-pan balance is 0.91 N.

5 A liquid has a volume of 0.040 m3 and a mass of 30 000 g.

What is the density of the liquid?

A 0.075 kg / m3 B 7.5 kg / m3 C 750 kg / m3 D 7500 kg / m3

6 A resultant force of 4.0 N acts on an object of mass 0.50 kg for 3.0 seconds.

What is the change in velocity caused by this force?

A 4.0 m / s B 6.0 m / s C 12 m / s D 24 m / s

7 Which quantities are both vectors?

A acceleration and force


B acceleration and pressure
C density and force
D density and pressure

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8 A moving ball with a momentum of 25 kg m / s collides head-on with a wall.

wall
ball

It rebounds from the wall with the same speed but in the opposite direction. The time of collision
is 50 ms.

What is the average force exerted on the wall by the ball during the collision?

A 0.50 N B 1.00 N C 500 N D 1000 N

9 Which device is designed to convert chemical energy into kinetic energy?

A an a.c. generator
B a battery-powered torch
C a car engine
D a wind-up mechanical clock

10 An object, initially at rest, is dropped from a height of 12.0 m. The change in gravitational potential
energy when it falls to the ground is 565 J.

The frictional forces are negligible.

What is its speed when it hits the ground?

A 4.71 m / s B 15.5 m / s C 47.1 m / s D 240 m / s

11 A man climbs a ladder.

Which two quantities can be used to calculate the useful power of the man?

A the weight of the man and the time taken only


B the weight of the man and the vertical distance moved only
C the work done by the man and the time taken only
D the work done by the man and the vertical distance moved only

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12 A manometer is used to measure the pressure of a gas supply.

manometer

connection
to gas supply
h

liquid

Which change gives a greater value of height h ?

A using a less dense liquid


B using a more dense liquid
C using a narrower tube
D using a wider tube

13 A washbasin has an exit pipe covered with a plug of area 12 cm2. A chain is attached to the
centre of the plug to assist in pulling the plug away from the exit hole. The washbasin contains
water to a depth of 0.080 m.

The density of the water is 1000 kg / m3.

chain

plug

What is the force acting on the plug due to the water?

A 0.96 N B 800 N C 9600 N D 80 000 N

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14 Diagram 1 shows apparatus being used to observe smoke particles.

Diagram 2 shows how a smoke particle moves randomly.

diagram 1 diagram 2

eye

random
movement
microscope

air molecules
light and
smoke particles

Why do the smoke particles move randomly?

A They are hit by air molecules.


B They are less dense than air.
C They are moved by convection currents.
D They gain energy from the light.

15 The gas in a sealed container is compressed at constant temperature.

Which graph shows how the pressure of the gas changes with its volume?

A B

pressure pressure

0 0
0 volume 0 volume

C D

pressure pressure

0 0
0 volume 0 volume

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16 The distance between two electricity pylons is 60 m. An engineer fits a cable of length 62 m
between the pylons.

Why does the engineer choose a cable that is longer than the distance between the two pylons?

A to allow for contraction of the cable in cold weather


B to create a slope in the cable for electrons to flow down
C to keep the current low and the voltage high
D to reduce magnetic fields around the cable

17 The diagram shows a liquid-in-glass thermometer.

bulb capillary tube

Which change increases the sensitivity of the thermometer?

A a narrower capillary tube


B a wider capillary tube
C thicker glass around the bulb
D thinner glass around the bulb

18 An object of mass 800 g and specific heat capacity 250 J / (kg °C) is heated. It absorbs 5300 J of
energy.

What is the increase in temperature of the object?

A 0.027 °C B 17 °C C 27 °C D 17 000 °C

19 On a cold day, a shiny metal rod feels colder to the touch than a black plastic rod.

Which statement explains this observation?

A The metal rod is a better absorber of infra-red radiation than the plastic rod.
B The metal rod is a better thermal conductor than the plastic rod.
C The metal rod is a worse absorber of infra-red radiation than the plastic rod.
D The metal rod is a worse thermal conductor than the plastic rod.

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20 One end of a copper bar is heated to a high temperature.

Which mechanism is responsible for the transfer of thermal energy to the other end of the copper
bar?

A the lattice vibrations of copper ions only


B the lattice vibrations of copper ions and the movement of high energy electrons along the bar
C the movement of high energy copper ions along the bar
D the movement of high energy electrons along the bar only

21 Plane water waves travel from a shallow region into a deeper region. They travel more quickly in
the deeper water.

shallow water

boundary
wave
direction
deep water

Which diagram shows the wave pattern in the deeper water?

A B C D

22 Which statement about the image formed by a plane mirror is correct?

A The image is larger than the object.


B The image is smaller than the object.
C The image is twice as far from the mirror as the object.
D The image is virtual.

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23 A ray of light is incident on a glass-air surface. The diagrams show the ray of light at different
angles of incidence in the glass.

air air air


glass glass glass
40° 44° 48°

What is the refractive index of the glass?

A 1.35 B 1.44 C 1.50 D 1.55

24 Different parts of the electromagnetic spectrum are used for different purposes. Below are four
statements about parts of the spectrum.

statement 1: Infra-red waves are used in television remote controllers.


statement 2: Radio waves are used to transmit television pictures from satellites to Earth.
statement 3: Ultraviolet waves are used for intruder alarms.
statement 4: X-rays are used for security checks.

Which statements are correct?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

25 Iron is used for the core of a transformer and steel is used to make a bar magnet.

Which statement explains these uses of iron and of steel?

A Iron is a magnetic material and steel is a non-magnetic material.


B Iron is a permanent magnetic material and steel is a temporary magnetic material.
C Iron is a temporary magnetic material and steel is a permanent magnetic material.
D Iron is a non-magnetic material and steel is a magnetic material.

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26 A sheet of ice floats on water. A source of sound S is positioned at the edge of the ice sheet.

Four microphones are placed equal distances from S.

Which microphone detects the sound from S first?

air

B
D S

ice
water

27 A bar magnet is placed inside a current-carrying coil. The diagram shows four different
experiments.

1 2

magnet slowly magnet slowly


removed removed

+ –

3 4

current in coil current in coil


slowly reduced slowly reduced

+ –

In which experiments is the magnet demagnetised?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 4 D 3 and 4

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28 The diagrams represent two different electric fields.

field 1 field 2

A single electron is located in each of the fields.

Which row gives the correct direction of the force on the electron and the field in which there is a
larger force on it?

direction of
larger force
the force

A ↓ field 1
B ↓ field 2
C ↑ field 1
D ↑ field 2

29 The resistance of a component in a circuit is found using an ammeter and a voltmeter.

How are the ammeter and the voltmeter connected?

A the voltmeter and ammeter in parallel with the component


B the voltmeter and ammeter in series with the component
C the voltmeter in parallel with the component and the ammeter in series with the component
D the voltmeter in series with the component and the ammeter in parallel with the component

30 The table gives data for four different electrical devices.

Which device develops the greatest power?

device voltage current

A car headlight 12 V 3.0 A


B cooling fan 110 V 0.40 A
C electric spark generator 400 kV 0.10 mA
D mains lamp 240 V 0.20 A

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31 The circuit diagram shows a fixed resistor R and a thermistor T used in a potential divider circuit.

VR and VT are the potential differences across R and T respectively.

What happens to VR and to VT as the temperature of the thermistor decreases?

VR VT

A decreases increases
B increases decreases
C stays the same decreases
D stays the same increases

32 The circuit diagram shows a power supply connected to some circuit components.

In the diagram, P and Q are the terminals of the d.c. power supply.

P Q

R1
A

R2

Under which circumstances does the ammeter show a reading other than zero?

A when P is positive or negative


B the ammeter always shows a zero reading
C only when P is negative
D only when P is positive

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33 The diagram shows a digital circuit with two inputs and one output.

input 1

output
input 2

What describes the action of the circuit?

A AND B NAND C NOR D OR

34 Either a fuse or a circuit-breaker can be used to protect electrical cables from large currents that
could cause overheating.

X cable
live

electrical Y appliance
supply

neutral
cable

When a fuse is used, where should it be connected, and when a circuit-breaker is used, where
should it be connected?

position position of
of fuse circuit-breaker

A X X
B X Y
C Y X
D Y Y

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35 There is a current of 3.0 A in a conductor.

The current is changed to 6.0 A in the opposite direction.

Which effect does this have on the magnetic field around the conductor?

A It decreases and it acts in the opposite direction.


B It decreases and it acts in the same direction.
C It increases and it acts in the opposite direction.
D It increases and it acts in the same direction.

36 A wire is placed in a strong magnetic field. When a current is passed through the wire it moves
upwards, as shown.

movement
N

The current is reversed.

In which direction does the wire move?

A downwards
B towards the north pole
C towards the south pole
D upwards

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37 Which diagram represents the structure of a neutral atom?

A B C D
key
– – – –
neutron

++ ++ + proton
+ ++
+ – electron

– – –

38 When a uranium-235 nucleus absorbs a neutron, it becomes unstable and undergoes fission.

The fission process produces a barium (Ba) nucleus, a krypton (Kr) nucleus and 3 neutrons.

The fission process is represented by the nuclear equation shown.

1 235 144 ...


0n + 92 U → 56 Ba + ... Kr + 3 01n

Which symbol represents the resulting krypton nucleus?


89 91 91 91
A 36 Kr B 34 Kr C 35 Kr D 36 Kr

39 The diagram shows the paths of three different types of radiation X, Y and Z.

2 mm of 10 mm of 50 mm
plastic aluminium of lead

Which row correctly identifies X, Y and Z?

X Y Z

A α-particles β-particles γ-rays


B β-particles α-particles γ-rays
C β-particles γ-rays α-particles
D γ-rays α-particles β-particles

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40 A scientist measures the count rate of a radioactive sample in a laboratory over a period of
12 weeks.

The background radiation count rate in the laboratory remains constant at 20 counts per minute.

The table shows the scientist’s results before the background radiation count rate is taken into
account.

time count rate


/ weeks / counts per minute

0 100
2 80
4 65
6 54
8 45
10 39
12 34

In which range does the half-life of the radioactive isotope lie?

A between 4 and 6 weeks


B between 6 and 8 weeks
C between 8 and 10 weeks
D more than 12 weeks

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2018 0625/21/O/N/18


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Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2018
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*3081874355*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 16 printed pages.

IB18 11_0625_22/3RP
© UCLES 2018 [Turn over

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1 The diagram shows part of a micrometer screw gauge.


45

012 40

mm
35

30

What is the smallest reading that can be achieved using this micrometer screw gauge?

A 0.0001 mm B 0.01 mm C 0.1 mm D 1 mm

2 The speed-time graph shows the motion of a car.

At which time is its acceleration greatest?

speed

0
0 A B C D
time

3 An athlete runs at a speed of 8 m / s for 10 s, and then at a speed of 6 m / s for 12 s.

Which calculation gives the average speed of the athlete in m / s?

A 8+6
2

(8 × 10) + (6 × 12)
B
22

(8 ÷ 10) + (6 ÷ 12)
C
22

(10 ÷ 8) + (12 ÷ 6)
D
22

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4 A helium balloon is tied to a top-pan balance. A metal block of mass 100 g is placed on the
balance. The reading on the balance is 91 g.

helium balloon

metal block

91 g

Which statement can be deduced from this experiment?

A The balloon exerts a downward force of 0.09 N on the top-pan balance.


B The helium has a mass of –9 g.
C The helium has a mass of +9 g.
D The resultant downward force on the top-pan balance is 0.91 N.

5 The diagram shows four blocks of different metals. Each block has a mass of 12 g.

Which metal has the largest density?

A B

1 cm
1 cm
2 cm
1 cm
2 cm 2 cm

C D

1 cm
1 cm
2 cm
1 cm
3 cm 3 cm

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6 The graph shows how the length of a spring changes when the stretching force is increased.

30

length of 25
spring / cm
20

15

10

0
0 1 2 3 4 5 6
force / N

In the Hooke’s law region, what is the spring constant for this spring?

A 0.20 N / cm B 0.22 N / cm C 0.28 N / cm D 0.33 N / cm

7 Point X is the centre of mass of a lamina in the shape of a triangle with sides of equal length. The
top of the triangle is cut off along the dotted line shown.

What happens to the centre of mass, X?

A moves towards the bottom of the page


B moves to the left
C moves to the right
D moves towards the top of the page

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8 An object of mass 3.0 kg, travelling at a speed of 6.0 m / s, collides with an object of mass 2.0 kg,
travelling in the opposite direction at a speed of 2.0 m / s.

6.0 m / s 2.0 m / s

3.0 kg 2.0 kg

The objects stick together during the collision.

What is the speed and direction of the combined mass after the collision?

A 4.4 m / s to the left


B 4.4 m / s to the right
C 2.8 m / s to the left
D 2.8 m / s to the right

9 Which device is designed to convert chemical energy into kinetic energy?

A an a.c. generator
B a battery-powered torch
C a car engine
D a wind-up mechanical clock

10 The diagram shows a pendulum.

P
R
10 cm
Q

The pendulum swings from P to Q to R and back to P.

P is 10 cm higher than Q.

At which speed does the pendulum bob pass through Q?

A 0.44 m / s B 1.0 m / s C 1.4 m / s D 2.0 m / s

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11 A crane on a building site lifts bricks of total mass 200 kg, initially at rest on the ground, with
uniform acceleration.

When the bricks are 5.0 m from the ground, they have a speed of 5.0 m / s.

How much work is done during this process?

A 2.5 kJ B 10.0 kJ C 12.5 kJ D 35 kJ

12 A manometer is used to measure the pressure of a gas supply.

manometer

connection
to gas supply
h

liquid

Which change gives a greater value of height h ?

A using a less dense liquid


B using a more dense liquid
C using a narrower tube
D using a wider tube

13 A washbasin has an exit pipe covered with a plug of area 12 cm2. A chain is attached to the
centre of the plug to assist in pulling the plug away from the exit hole. The washbasin contains
water to a depth of 0.080 m.

The density of the water is 1000 kg / m3.

chain

plug

What is the force acting on the plug due to the water?

A 0.96 N B 800 N C 9600 N D 80 000 N

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14 Diagram 1 shows apparatus being used to observe smoke particles.

Diagram 2 shows how a smoke particle moves randomly.

diagram 1 diagram 2

eye

random
movement
microscope

air molecules
light and
smoke particles

Why do the smoke particles move randomly?

A They are hit by air molecules.


B They are less dense than air.
C They are moved by convection currents.
D They gain energy from the light.

15 A closed container of gas is heated. The pressure of the gas increases.

Which statement explains this increase in pressure?

A The changes in the momentum of the gas molecules striking the walls of the container
increase.
B The forces of attraction between the gas molecules and the walls of the container increase.
C The gas molecules collide with each other more frequently.
D The gas molecules lose more energy when they strike the walls of the container.

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16 The metal lid on a glass jar is difficult to unscrew.

The jar is placed in a warm oven until the jar and the lid reach the same temperature. The lid is
now easily unscrewed.

Which property accounts for this?

A thermal capacity of the jar


B thermal capacity of the lid
C thermal conduction
D thermal expansion

17 A block of iron of mass M is heated and gains 10 kJ of internal energy. The temperature of the
block rises by θ °C.

A second block of iron of mass 2M is heated and gains 5.0 kJ of internal energy.

What is the temperature rise of the second block in °C?

A θ B θ C 2θ D 4θ
4 2

18 Which factors affect the sensitivity of a thermometer?

1 the diameter of the bore of the tube


2 the length of the capillary tube
3 the thickness of the bulb wall

A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

19 Which statement about convection is not correct?

A It enables water in a pan on a cooker to get evenly heated.


B It happens in liquids and gases.
C It means that heat rises.
D It occurs because the density of a fluid decreases when it is heated.

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20 A lamp has a metal filament that glows when heated by an electric current.

The middle of the filament is at a very high temperature. The ends of the filament, which are
connected to the base of the lamp, are cooler.

Which statement is correct?

A Some thermal energy is conducted to the base of the lamp.


B The filament radiates energy equally at all points along its length.
C The lamp transfers all of the electrical energy it receives into light energy.
D When the voltage across the filament is halved, the power output is halved.

21 Plane water waves travel from a shallow region into a deeper region. They travel more quickly in
the deeper water.

shallow water

boundary
wave
direction
deep water

Which diagram shows the wave pattern in the deeper water?

A B C D

22 A thin converging lens has a focal length of 6.0 cm. An observer looks through the lens at an
object which is placed 4.0 cm from the lens.

4.0 cm

eye
object

Which description of the image that is observed is correct?

A diminished and inverted


B diminished and virtual
C enlarged and inverted
D enlarged and virtual

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23 A transmitter produces radio waves of wavelength 1500 m. It takes the waves 0.025 s to travel
from the transmitter to a radio receiver.

What is the distance between the radio transmitter and the receiver?

A 5.0 × 103 m B 2.0 × 105 m C 7.5 × 106 m D 1.1 × 1010 m

24 Different parts of the electromagnetic spectrum are used for different purposes. Below are four
statements about parts of the spectrum.

statement 1: Infra-red waves are used in television remote controllers.


statement 2: Radio waves are used to transmit television pictures from satellites to Earth.
statement 3: Ultraviolet waves are used for intruder alarms.
statement 4: X-rays are used for security checks.

Which statements are correct?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

25 A sheet of ice floats on water. A source of sound S is positioned at the edge of the ice sheet.

Four microphones are placed equal distances from S.

Which microphone detects the sound from S first?

air

B
D S

ice
water

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26 The diagram shows a bar magnet at rest on a smooth horizontal surface. A length of soft-iron
wire is held parallel to the magnet.

soft-iron wire
magnet
S

The wire is released.

What happens?

A The wire moves away from the magnet.


B The wire moves towards the magnet.

C The wire’s centre stays in its present position and the wire rotates through 90° in a clockwise
direction.

D The wire’s centre stays in its present position and the wire rotates through 90° in an
anticlockwise direction.

27 The diagram shows point X between two charged plates.

+ –
+ –
+ –
+ X –
+ –
+ –

Which diagram shows the electric field pattern near point X?

A B C D

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28 A bar magnet is placed inside a current-carrying coil. The diagram shows four different
experiments.

1 2

magnet slowly magnet slowly


removed removed

+ –

3 4

current in coil current in coil


slowly reduced slowly reduced

+ –

In which experiments is the magnet demagnetised?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 4 D 3 and 4

29 Copper wire is available in fixed lengths but in various diameters d. Each diameter has a different
resistance R.

Which relationship between R and d is correct?

A R is directly proportional to d.
B R is directly proportional to d 2.
C R is inversely proportional to d.
D R is inversely proportional to d 2.

30 A student investigates the resistance of a lamp.

Which row states how the meters must be connected?

ammeter voltmeter

A in parallel with the lamp in parallel with the lamp


B in parallel with the lamp in series with the lamp
C in series with the lamp in parallel with the lamp
D in series with the lamp in series with the lamp

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31 The circuit shown is used to change the voltage Vout as the temperature of device X changes.

+6.0 V

device Vout
X

0V

Which row is correct?

name of this name of


type of circuit device X

A potential divider fuse


B potential divider thermistor
C variable resistor fuse
D variable resistor thermistor

32 The circuit diagram shows a d.c. power supply connected to two resistors R1 and R2 and four
diodes.

R1 R2

+ –

Which statement is correct?

A There is a current in R1 and a current in R2.


B There is a current in R1 but no current in R2.
C There is no current in R1 but a current in R2.
D There is no current in R1 and no current in R2.

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33 A logic gate has inputs 0,0 and an output 1.

Which two types of logic gate behave in this way?

A OR, AND
B OR, NAND
C NOR, AND
D NOR, NAND

34 Either a fuse or a circuit-breaker can be used to protect electrical cables from large currents that
could cause overheating.

X cable
live

electrical Y appliance
supply

neutral
cable

When a fuse is used, where should it be connected, and when a circuit-breaker is used, where
should it be connected?

position position of
of fuse circuit-breaker

A X X
B X Y
C Y X
D Y Y

35 Electrical power is transmitted at 400 kV and transformed down to 240 V before being delivered to
consumers.

Which statement is correct?

A A 400 kV cable requires less insulation than a 240 V cable.


B Birds are subject to a high-voltage shock when resting on a high-voltage cable.
C The current in the transmission wires is equal to the current delivered to the consumers.
D With a 400 kV transmission system, a smaller proportion of the energy is used to heat the
atmosphere than with a 240 V system.

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36 The diagram shows a coil of wire between the poles of a magnet.

20 turns

N S

+ –
power
supply

The coil consists of 20 turns of insulated wire.

The coil is connected to a variable resistor and a power supply.

How can the turning effect on the coil be increased?

A by moving the poles of the magnet closer to the coil


B by reducing the number of turns on the coil while keeping the current constant
C by increasing the resistance of the variable resistor
D by reversing the terminals of the power supply

37 Which diagram represents the structure of a neutral atom?

A B C D
key
– – – –
neutron

++ ++ + proton
+ ++
+ – electron

– – –

220 212
38 A radioactive nucleus 86 Rn decays in two stages to produce 82 Pb .

Which two particles are emitted in this process?

A an α-particle and a β-particle

B an α-particle and a proton

C two α-particles

D two β-particles

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/O/N/18 [Turn over


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39 The diagram shows the paths of three different types of radiation X, Y and Z.

2 mm of 10 mm of 50 mm
plastic aluminium of lead

Which row correctly identifies X, Y and Z?

X Y Z

A α-particles β-particles γ-rays


B β-particles α-particles γ-rays
C β-particles γ-rays α-particles
D γ-rays α-particles β-particles

40 The count rate measured when near a radioactive source drops from 542 counts per minute to
94 counts per minute in 12 hours. The background count remains constant at 30 counts per
minute.

What is the half-life of the source?

A 2 hours B 3 hours C 4 hours D 8 hours

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2018 0625/22/O/N/18


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Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/23
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2018
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*9510057274*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 16 printed pages.

IB18 11_0625_23/4RP
© UCLES 2018 [Turn over

527/830 2023-2016 Paper 2 QP


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2

1 The diagram shows part of a micrometer screw gauge.


45

012 40

mm
35

30

What is the smallest reading that can be achieved using this micrometer screw gauge?

A 0.0001 mm B 0.01 mm C 0.1 mm D 1 mm

2 An object falls in a gravitational field with air resistance.

Which distance-time graph shows this motion?

A B

distance distance
fallen fallen

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

distance distance
fallen fallen

0 0
0 time 0 time

3 A boy runs 400 m at an average speed of 4.0 m / s.

He runs the first 200 m in 40 s.

How long does he take to run the second 200 m?

A 60 s B 66.7 s C 80 s D 140 s

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3

4 A helium balloon is tied to a top-pan balance. A metal block of mass 100 g is placed on the
balance. The reading on the balance is 91 g.

helium balloon

metal block

91 g

Which statement can be deduced from this experiment?

A The balloon exerts a downward force of 0.09 N on the top-pan balance.


B The helium has a mass of –9 g.
C The helium has a mass of +9 g.
D The resultant downward force on the top-pan balance is 0.91 N.

5 A student carries out experiments to find the mass and the volume of four samples of rock.

The graph shows the results.

sample P sample Q
200
mass / g

sample R sample S
100

0
0 50 100
volume / cm3

Which pair are samples of the same type of rock?

A P and Q B P and S C R and Q D Q and S

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6 An object accelerates from 10 m / s to 30 m / s in 4.0 seconds.

The accelerating force is 150 N.

What is the mass of the object?

A 0.033 kg B 5.0 kg C 7.5 kg D 30 kg

7 The diagram shows a uniform bar of length 120 cm and weight W. The bar is pivoted at a point
40 cm from the left end of the bar.

A load of W is suspended from the right-hand end of the bar.


2
A downward force F is applied to the left-hand end of the bar to keep it in equilibrium.

0 40 cm 60 cm 120 cm

pivot bar

F bar’s weight
W
W
2

What is the magnitude of force F ?

A W B W C 3W D 2W
2 2

8 An electron is moving at a speed of 5 × 106 m / s.


A neutron is moving at a speed of 5 × 104 m / s.

The mass of the electron is m.


The mass of the neutron is 2000m.

Which row is correct?

greater greater
momentum kinetic energy

A electron electron
B electron neutron
C neutron electron
D neutron neutron

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9 Which device is designed to convert chemical energy into kinetic energy?

A an a.c. generator
B a battery-powered torch
C a car engine
D a wind-up mechanical clock

10 A barrel of mass 40 kg is raised to a height of 1.5 m by rolling it up a ramp. The length of the ramp
is 8.0 m. The force F applied to the barrel acts parallel to the ramp. The frictional force is
negligible.

8.0 m
F

40 kg
1.5 m

Which row is correct?

gain in gravitational
force F / N
potential energy / J

A 60 7.5
B 60 40
C 600 75
D 600 400

11 What is the main process by which energy is produced in the Sun?

A combustion
B nuclear fission
C nuclear fusion
D radioactive decay

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12 A manometer is used to measure the pressure of a gas supply.

manometer

connection
to gas supply
h

liquid

Which change gives a greater value of height h ?

A using a less dense liquid


B using a more dense liquid
C using a narrower tube
D using a wider tube

13 A washbasin has an exit pipe covered with a plug of area 12 cm2. A chain is attached to the
centre of the plug to assist in pulling the plug away from the exit hole. The washbasin contains
water to a depth of 0.080 m.

The density of the water is 1000 kg / m3.

chain

plug

What is the force acting on the plug due to the water?

A 0.96 N B 800 N C 9600 N D 80 000 N

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14 Diagram 1 shows apparatus being used to observe smoke particles.

Diagram 2 shows how a smoke particle moves randomly.

diagram 1 diagram 2

eye

random
movement
microscope

air molecules
light and
smoke particles

Why do the smoke particles move randomly?

A They are hit by air molecules.


B They are less dense than air.
C They are moved by convection currents.
D They gain energy from the light.

15 A bubble of air has a volume of 2.0 cm3 at the bottom of a lake where the total pressure is
4.0 × 105 Pa. The temperature of the water in the lake is constant. The atmospheric pressure at
the surface is 1.0 × 105 Pa.

What is the volume of the bubble when it rises to the surface?

A 0.13 cm3 B 0.17 cm3 C 6.0 cm3 D 8.0 cm3

16 Which row shows the relative order of thermal expansion of solids, liquids and gases?

most expansion least expansion

A solids liquids gases


B solids gases liquids
C gases solids liquids
D gases liquids solids

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17 A block of ice is at a temperature of –100 °C. Energy is supplied at a constant rate. The graph
shows how its temperature changes.

200
temperature
/ °C 3
100
4

1
0
2

–100
time

At which points has the ice completely changed state to water and all the water completely
changed state to steam?

completely completely
changed to water changed to steam

A 1 3
B 1 4
C 2 3
D 2 4

18 The temperature of the water at the bottom of a waterfall is greater than the temperature of the
water at the top.

The gravitational potential energy of the water at the top is transferred to thermal energy at the
bottom.

The specific heat capacity of water is 4200 J / (kg °C).

What is the temperature difference for a waterfall of height 21 m?

A 0.005 °C B 0.05 °C C 20 °C D 200 °C

19 One end of a shiny metal rod is heated and the other end quickly gets hot.

Which statement describes why the other end quickly gets hot?

A Metals are good thermal conductors.


B Metals are poor thermal conductors.
C Shiny surfaces are good emitters of infra-red radiation.
D Shiny surfaces are poor emitters of infra-red radiation.

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20 Four different surfaces are at the same high temperature.

Which surface will emit thermal radiation at the slowest rate?

colour of texture of surface


surface surface area / cm2

A black dull 10
B black dull 100
C white shiny 10
D white shiny 100

21 Plane water waves travel from a shallow region into a deeper region. They travel more quickly in
the deeper water.

shallow water

boundary
wave
direction
deep water

Which diagram shows the wave pattern in the deeper water?

A B C D

22 An object is placed 8.0 cm from a thin converging lens of focal length 5.0 cm.

converging lens
object
F

5.0 cm
8.0 cm

Which statement about the image formed by the lens is correct?

A The image is real and inverted.


B The image is real and upright.
C The image is virtual and inverted.
D The image is virtual and upright.

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23 Light travels through air and then enters and travels through a parallel-sided glass block.

Which statement is correct?

A The angle of incidence is greater than the angle of refraction as the light leaves the block.
B The light emerging from the block is parallel to the light entering the block.
C The speed of the light decreases as it leaves the block.
D The wavelength of the light does not change as it enters the block.

24 Different parts of the electromagnetic spectrum are used for different purposes. Below are four
statements about parts of the spectrum.

statement 1: Infra-red waves are used in television remote controllers.


statement 2: Radio waves are used to transmit television pictures from satellites to Earth.
statement 3: Ultraviolet waves are used for intruder alarms.
statement 4: X-rays are used for security checks.

Which statements are correct?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

25 A sheet of ice floats on water. A source of sound S is positioned at the edge of the ice sheet.

Four microphones are placed equal distances from S.

Which microphone detects the sound from S first?

air

B
D S

ice
water

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26 Which diagram shows the pattern and the direction of the magnetic field lines around a bar
magnet?

A B

N S N S

C D

N S N S

27 A bar magnet is placed inside a current-carrying coil. The diagram shows four different
experiments.

1 2

magnet slowly magnet slowly


removed removed

+ –

3 4

current in coil current in coil


slowly reduced slowly reduced

+ –

In which experiments is the magnet demagnetised?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 4 D 3 and 4

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28 Which row shows the meaning of the quantity e.m.f. and the unit in which it is measured?

meaning unit

A electromagnetic force N
B electromagnetic force V
C electromotive force N
D electromotive force V

29 Which diagram shows the current-voltage (I - V) characteristic for a filament lamp?

A B C D
I I I I

0 0 0 0
0 V 0 V 0 V 0 V

30 The diagram shows a light-dependent resistor (LDR) connected in a potential divider circuit.

The brightness of the light falling on the LDR is increased.

Which row shows what happens to the resistance of the LDR, and what happens to the reading
on the voltmeter?

resistance of LDR reading on voltmeter

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

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31 The diagram shows part of an electric circuit. The reading on the voltmeter is 16 V. The current in
the resistor is 8.0 A.

8.0 A P Q

One coulomb of charge flows from P to Q through the resistor.

How much energy is transferred in the resistor?

A 2.0 J B 8.0 J C 16 J D 128 J

32 Which symbol represents an AND gate?

A B C D

33 Either a fuse or a circuit-breaker can be used to protect electrical cables from large currents that
could cause overheating.

X cable
live

electrical Y appliance
supply

neutral
cable

When a fuse is used, where should it be connected, and when a circuit-breaker is used, where
should it be connected?

position position of
of fuse circuit-breaker

A X X
B X Y
C Y X
D Y Y

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34 The circuit diagram shows an a.c. power supply connected to two diodes and a resistor.

a.c. X
power
supply

The graph shows the current from the supply.

current

0
0 time

Which graph shows the current in diode X?

A B

current current

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

current current

0 0
0 time 0 time

35 A 100% efficient step-down transformer has primary voltage Vp and primary current Ip.

Which row compares the secondary voltage with Vp and the secondary current with Ip?

secondary voltage secondary current

A greater than Vp greater than Ip


B greater than Vp less than Ip
C less than Vp greater than Ip
D less than Vp less than Ip

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36 There is an electric current in a wire. The wire is placed in a magnetic field. A force acts on the
wire due to the current.

Which statement is correct?

A The magnetic field must be produced by a permanent magnet and not by an electromagnet.
B The wire must be made from a magnetic material.
C When both the current and the magnetic field are reversed, the direction of the force is
unchanged.
D When the current is reversed, but not the magnetic field, there will be no force on the wire.

37 Which diagram represents the structure of a neutral atom?

A B C D
key
– – – –
neutron

++ ++ + proton
+ ++
+ – electron

– – –

228
38 A nucleus of 88 Ra decays into an isotope of actinium, which then decays into a nucleus of
228
90 Th .

What types of radiation have been emitted during this process?

A one alpha particle only


B one alpha particle and one beta particle
C two alpha particles
D two beta particles

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39 The diagram shows the paths of three different types of radiation X, Y and Z.

2 mm of 10 mm of 50 mm
plastic aluminium of lead

Which row correctly identifies X, Y and Z?

X Y Z

A α-particles β-particles γ-rays


B β-particles α-particles γ-rays
C β-particles γ-rays α-particles
D γ-rays α-particles β-particles

40 The count rate due to a sample of a radioactive isotope is measured for 80 minutes.

time count rate


/ minutes counts / second

0 480
20 380
40 300
60 240
80 190

What is the half-life of the isotope?

A 20 minutes B 40 minutes C 60 minutes D 80 minutes

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

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Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) February/March 2017
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*9900917881*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 16 printed pages.

IB17 03_0625_22/4RP
© UCLES 2017 [Turn over

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1 The diagram shows the height of a stack of identical coins.

stack of
coins
2.40 cm

What is the thickness of one coin?

A 0.20 mm B 2.0 mm C 0.24 cm D 2.0 cm

2 Four balls with different masses are dropped from the heights shown.

P Q R S
1.0 kg

2.0 kg

3.0 kg
4.0 m
4.0 kg
3.0 m
2.0 m
1.0 m ground

Air resistance may be ignored.

Which statement about the balls is correct?

A Ball P has the greatest acceleration.


B Balls Q and R take the same time to fall to the ground.
C The acceleration of ball R is half the acceleration of ball P.
D Ball S has the greatest average speed.

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3 An object is travelling in a straight line. The diagram is the speed-time graph for the object.

At which labelled point is the object accelerating at a changing rate?

C
speed
m/s
B

D
A

0
0 time / s

4 Which statement about the masses and weights of objects on the Earth is correct?

A A balance can only be used to compare weights, not masses.


B Heavy objects always have more mass than light ones.
C Large objects always have more mass than small ones.
D Mass is a force but weight is not.

5 An object in a space probe above the Earth weighs 3.5 N. The gravitational field strength at the
height of the space probe is 7.0 N / kg.

The gravitational field strength on the Earth’s surface is 10 N / kg.

What are the mass and the weight of the object on the Earth’s surface?

mass / kg weight / N

A 0.50 3.5
B 0.50 5.0
C 2.0 3.5
D 2.0 20

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6 A skydiver jumps from a stationary helicopter and reaches a steady vertical speed. She then
opens her parachute.

Which statement about the falling skydiver is correct?

A As her parachute opens, her acceleration is upwards.


B As she falls at a steady speed with her parachute open, her weight is zero.
C When she accelerates, the resultant force on her is zero.
D When she falls at a steady speed, air resistance is zero.

7 A car moves in a circular path as it turns a corner on a horizontal road.

The car moves at constant speed.

path of car
car

direction
of travel

Which description of the forces acting on the car is correct?

A All the forces are balanced as the car is moving at constant speed.
B The forces are unbalanced and the resultant force acts away from the centre of the circle.
C The forces are unbalanced and the resultant force acts towards the centre of the circle.
D The forces are unbalanced and the resultant force is in the direction of travel of the car.

8 A moving body undergoes a change of momentum.

What is a unit for change of momentum?

A Nm B N/m C Ns D N/s

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9 A man can either take an escalator or a lift to travel up between two floors in a hotel.

escalator lift

The escalator takes 20 seconds to carry the man between the two floors. The useful work done
against gravity is W. The useful power developed is P.

The lift takes 30 seconds to carry the same man between the same two floors.

How much useful work against gravity is done by the lift, and how much useful power is
developed by the lift?

useful work
useful power
done against
developed by lift
gravity by lift

A more than W less than P


B more than W P
C W less than P
D W P

10 A 40 W lamp wastes 34 J of energy every second by heating its surroundings.

What is the efficiency of the lamp?

A 0.15% B 15% C 18% D 85%

11 A column of liquid has height h, mass m and density ρ. The gravitational field strength is g.

Which expression gives the pressure due to the column of liquid?

A hρ B mρ C mgh D ρ gh

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12 The diagrams show two mercury barometers. The right-hand diagram shows a tube of larger
diameter. There is a vacuum above the mercury in both tubes.

Which labelled position on the right-hand tube shows the mercury level in the right-hand tube?

A
B
C

glass
tubes

D
mercury

13 Very small pollen grains are suspended in water. A bright light shines from the side.

When looked at through a microscope, small specks of light are seen to be moving in a random,
jerky manner.

eye

microscope

bright light

pollen grains
in water

What are the moving specks of light?

A pollen grains being hit by other pollen grains


B pollen grains being hit by water molecules
C water molecules being hit by other water molecules
D water molecules being hit by pollen grains

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14 At –39 °C, liquid mercury solidifies without a change of temperature.

Which row shows whether the mercury absorbs or releases energy and what happens to the
bonds between the mercury atoms?

bonds between
energy
atoms

A absorbed stronger
B absorbed weaker
C released stronger
D released weaker

15 A model thermometer consists of a flask of coloured water and a stopper with a glass tube
passing through it, as shown.

glass tube
temperature scale

stopper

flask coloured water

The model thermometer can be changed in one of two ways.

● The flask can be replaced with a larger one full of coloured water.
● The glass tube can be replaced with one with a larger internal diameter.

Which statement is correct?

A Only using a larger flask increases the sensitivity.


B Only using a wider tube increases the sensitivity.
C Using a larger flask increases the sensitivity and using a wider tube increases the sensitivity.
D Neither using a larger flask nor using a wider tube increases the sensitivity.

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16 A metal has a specific heat capacity of 360 J / (kg °C). An object made of this metal has a mass of
2.0 kg.

What is the thermal capacity (heat capacity) of the object?

A 180 J / °C B 180 J / kg C 720 J / °C D 720 J / kg

17 In which type of substance are free electrons involved in the transfer of thermal energy?

A all liquids
B all solids
C metals only
D plastics only

18 Four objects, made of the same material and having the same mass, are at the same
temperature. The objects have different surfaces and different surface areas.

Which object emits infra-red radiation at the greatest rate?

surface surface area

A dull large
B dull small
C shiny large
D shiny small

19 A person uses a surfboard to ride every 30th wave crest towards the beach. The wave crest
travels at a speed of 1.6 m / s and the distance between each wave crest is 24 m.

How many wave crests does the person surf in one hour?

A 1 B 2 C 8 D 450

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20 In a shallow tank, a water wave moves towards a barrier with a narrow gap.

barrier

water
wave

Which diagram shows the wave beyond the barrier?

A B

C D

21 Light passes along an optical fibre.

What happens to the light within the fibre?

A diffraction
B dispersion
C refraction
D total internal reflection

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22 The points labelled F are the principal foci of a lens. A beam of parallel light is incident on the
lens.

Which diagram shows the path of the light after it passes through the lens?

A
F F

B
F F

C
F F

D
F F

23 Which statement about sound waves is correct?

A They are able to travel through a vacuum.


B They are able to travel through solids.
C They are transverse waves.
D They travel at the same speed in all substances.

24 Which statement about ultrasound is correct?

A It is produced by a rapidly vibrating source.


B It is uncomfortable to human ears.
C Its frequency must be greater than 300 kHz.
D It travels the fastest in a vacuum.

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25 A small compass is placed close to a strong bar magnet, the same distance from each end.

Which diagram shows the direction in which the compass needle points?

A B C D

N N N N
compass compass compass compass

S S S S

26 A bar magnet can be demagnetised by hammering it for a long time or by slowly removing it from
a coil connected to a power supply.

Which row completes the descriptions of how these processes are carried out?

hammering bar magnet slowly removing bar magnet


for a long time with from a coil connected to

A magnet aligned E-W a d.c. power supply


B magnet aligned E-W an a.c. power supply
C magnet aligned N-S a d.c. power supply
D magnet aligned N-S an a.c. power supply

27 Which particles move in a metal to cause an electric current?

A electrons
B neutrons
C nucleons
D protons

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28 The diagrams represent four copper wires.

Which wire has the greatest resistance?

A B C D

20 mm 20 mm
10 mm 10 mm

1 mm 2 mm 1 mm 2 mm

29 An air-conditioning unit, a lamp and an electric fire all receive electrical energy from the mains
supply.

From which of these devices is all this energy eventually transferred to the surroundings?

air-
electric
conditioning lamp
fire
unit

A    key
B    = all energy transferred to surroundings
C    = not all energy transferred to surroundings
D   

30 Four circuits are set up.

In which circuit does the ammeter show the greatest reading?

A B C D

12 V 12 V 12 V 12 V

A A A A
2.0 Ω 2.0 Ω 2.0 Ω 2.0 Ω

3.0 Ω 3.0 Ω 3.0 Ω 3.0 Ω

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31 The diagram shows an electric circuit.

The light falling on the light-dependent resistor (LDR) increases in brightness.

What happens to the resistance of the LDR, the current in the fixed resistor and the reading on
the voltmeter?

resistance of current in reading on


LDR fixed resistor voltmeter

A decreases increases decreases


B decreases increases increases
C increases decreases decreases
D increases decreases increases

32 The diagram shows two linked circuits to control when a bell is switched on.

The conditions are altered and only one pair of conditions causes the bell to ring.

Which pair causes the bell to ring?

A bright light and high temperature


B bright light and low temperature
C dim light and high temperature
D dim light and low temperature

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33 The truth table for a logic gate is shown.

input 1 input 2 output

0 0 1
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 0

Which type of logic gate is it?

A AND B NOR C NOT D OR

34 In this circuit, a component at X automatically protects the wiring from overheating if there is a
fault.

electrical supply

Which row indicates components that are suitable?

circuit
fuse switch
breaker

A    key
B    = suitable
C    = not suitable
D   

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35 The diagram shows a simple transformer with an input of 240 V and an output of 40 V.

There are 600 turns on the primary coil.

primary coil secondary coil

600
input 240 V 40 V output
turns

How many turns are there on the secondary coil?

A 100 B 320 C 400 D 3600

36 The diagram shows a current-carrying wire. The wire is at 90° to a magnetic field. The direction of
the magnetic field is into the page.

current magnetic field


into the page
wire

A force acts on the wire due to the current and the magnetic field.

In which direction does the force act?

A into the page


B out of the page
C towards the bottom of the diagram
D towards the top of the diagram

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37 A radioactive substance emits radiation at a rate of 600 emissions per second. Four hours later, it
emits radiation at a rate of 300 emissions per second.

What is the half-life of the substance and what is the rate of emission after a further four hours?

rate of emission after


half-life / hours a further four hours
/ emissions per second

A 2 0
B 2 150
C 4 0
D 4 150

109
38 The nuclide notation for an isotope of silver is 47 Ag .

How many nucleons are in a nucleus of this isotope?

A 47 B 62 C 109 D 156

39 The equation represents an isotope of radium Ra decaying to an isotope of radon Rn with the
emission of particle X.

226 222
88 Ra → 86 Rn +X

What is particle X?
0 1 4 1
A −1 e B 1H C 2 He D 0n

40 An atomic nucleus decays by one or more radioactive decay processes.

What causes the proton number to decrease by 1?

A α-decay followed by β-decay

B α-decay only

C β-decay followed by γ-decay

D β-decay only

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/F/M/17


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Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/21
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2017
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*8388841185*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 18 printed pages and 2 blank pages.

IB17 06_0625_21_VI_LIL/FP
© UCLES 2017 [Turn over

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1 What is the most accurate and precise method to measure the thickness of a coin?

A Use a micrometer screw gauge.


B Use a ruler and look at the scale perpendicularly.
C Use a top pan balance.
D Use the displacement method with water in a measuring cylinder.

2 On Earth, a ball is dropped and falls 2.0 m in a vacuum.

The acceleration of the ball at 1.0 m is 10 m / s2.

0m ball

0.5 m

1.0 m

1.5 m

2.0 m

What is the acceleration of the ball at 0.5 m?

A 5.0 m / s2 B 10 m / s2 C 15 m / s2 D 20 m / s2

3 A skydiver reaches terminal velocity. Then he opens his parachute.

What happens to the skydiver as the parachute opens?

A There is a decrease in weight.


B There is acceleration upwards.
C There is an increase in speed.
D There is movement upwards.

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4 A piece of steel is taken from the Earth to the Moon for an experiment. The gravitational field
strength on the Moon is smaller than on the Earth.

Which statement about the piece of steel is correct?

A It has less mass on the Moon than on the Earth.


B It has more mass on the Moon than on the Earth.
C It weighs less on the Moon than on the Earth.
D It weighs more on the Moon than on the Earth.

5 A measuring cylinder containing only water is placed on an electronic balance. A small, irregularly
shaped stone is now completely immersed in the water.

The diagrams show the equipment before and after the stone is immersed.

measuring cm3 cm3


cylinder 100 100
90 90
80 80
70 70
60 60
50 50
40 40 stone
water 30 30
20 20
10 10

balance
g g

before the stone after the stone


is immersed is immersed

What is the density of the material of the stone?

A 1.7 g / cm3 B 3.3 g / cm3 C 4.5 g / cm3 D 8.7 g / cm3

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6 A boat is travelling at a steady speed in a straight line across the surface of a lake.

Which statement about the boat is correct?

A The resultant force on the boat is in the direction of motion.


B The resultant force on the boat is in the opposite direction to its motion.
C The resultant force on the boat is vertically downwards.
D The resultant force on the boat is zero.

7 A ball of weight 1.2 N drops through the air at terminal velocity.

A sudden gust of wind exerts a horizontal force of 0.5 N on the ball from the left.

Which diagram shows the resultant force on the ball while the wind is blowing?

A B
ball 0.5 N ball 0.5 N

1.2 N resultant 1.2 N


force resultant
force

C D

1.2 N
1.2 N resultant
force
ball 0.5 N

resultant ball 0.5 N


force
1.2 N

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8 The diagram shows a uniform bridge, 4.0 m long and weighing 10 000 N.

The bridge is pivoted at one end. A force at the other end gradually increases until the bridge
begins to lift.

lifting
bridge force

pivot

4.0 m

What is the lifting force as the bridge starts to move upwards?

A 2500 N B 5000 N C 10 000 N D 20 000 N

9 A bullet of mass 0.10 kg travels horizontally at a speed of 600 m / s. It strikes a stationary wooden
block of mass 1.90 kg resting on a frictionless, horizontal surface.

The bullet stays in the block.

What is the speed of the bullet and the block immediately after the impact?

A 30 m / s B 32 m / s C 60 m / s D 134 m / s

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10 A box of mass m slides down a slope of length l and vertical height d against a frictional force F.

mass m

stop

As the box slides down the slope, it loses gravitational potential energy and it does work against
the friction.

Which row gives the loss in gravitational potential energy and the work done against friction?

loss in gravitational work done


potential energy against friction

A mgd Fl
B mgd Fd
C mgl Fl
D mgl Fd

11 The diagram represents the energy transfers for a device.

useful
input output energy
energy

wasted
output energy

The device is 50% efficient.

Which equation is correct?

A input energy = useful output energy ÷ 2

B useful output energy = wasted output energy ÷ 2


C wasted output energy = useful output energy

D wasted output energy = useful output energy ÷ 2

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12 A student carries out some simple exercises.

In which exercise is the most work done?

A B

lifting
pushing through
through 1 m
1 m against a
frictional force of 4 N
1 kg 1 kg

C D

lifting
pulling through
through 2 m
2 m against a
frictional force of 2 N
2 kg 2 kg

13 Four different liquids are poured into four containers.

The diagrams show the depth and the density of liquid in each container.

In which container is the pressure on its base the greatest?

A B C D

40 cm
30 cm
20 cm
10 cm

liquid density liquid density liquid density liquid density


= 3.1 g / cm3 = 1.2 g / cm3 = 1.3 g / cm3 = 0.8 g / cm3

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14 Brownian motion is observed when using a microscope to look at smoke particles in air.

What causes the smoke particles to move at random?

A Smoke particles are hit by air molecules.


B Smoke particles are moved by convection currents in the air.
C Smoke particles have different weights and fall at different speeds.
D Smoke particles hit the walls of the container.

15 Gas molecules striking a container wall cause a pressure to be exerted on the wall.

Which statement explains this?

A When a molecule rebounds there must be a change in its energy.


B When a molecule rebounds there must be a change in its momentum.
C When a molecule rebounds there must be a change in its speed.
D When a molecule rebounds there must be a change in its temperature.

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16 Equal masses of two different liquids are put into identical beakers.

Liquid 1 is heated for 100 s and liquid 2 is heated for 200 s by heaters of the same power.

Each liquid has the same rise in temperature.

different liquids
of same mass
liquid 1 liquid 2

heating time = 100 s heating time = 200 s

Which statement is correct?

A Each beaker of liquid has the same thermal capacity.


B Each beaker of liquid receives the same energy.
C Liquid 1 receives more energy than liquid 2.
D The thermal capacity of liquid 1 is less than the thermal capacity of liquid 2.

17 Water of mass 100 g at a temperature of 100 °C is converted into steam at 100 °C. The specific
latent heat of vaporisation of water is 2300 J / g.

How much thermal energy is absorbed by the water?

A 23 J B 230 J C 230 000 J D 23 000 000 J

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18 A copper bar and a wooden bar are joined. A piece of paper is wrapped tightly around the join.

The bar is heated strongly at the centre for a short time, and the paper goes brown on one side
only.

wood paper copper

heat

Which side goes brown, and what does this show about wood and copper?

brown side wood copper

A copper conductor insulator


B copper insulator conductor
C wood conductor insulator
D wood insulator conductor

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19 Different waves hit barriers with different sized gaps.

The waves will diffract.

In which diagram does the greatest spreading occur?

A B
barrier barrier

gap 2.0 cm gap 2.0 cm

wavelength
wavelength 2.0 cm
1.0 cm

C D
barrier barrier

gap 3.0 cm gap 3.0 cm

wavelength
wavelength 2.0 cm
1.0 cm

20 A converging lens is used as a magnifying glass to view an object.

Which statement is correct?

A The image is inverted.


B The image is nearer the lens than the object.
C The image is the same size.
D The image is virtual.

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21 Which diagram shows what happens when a ray of white light passes through a prism?

A B

spectrum
white white
light light
spectrum

C D
spectrum

white white
light light spectrum

22 Light travels in a vacuum and then enters a glass block. The speed of the light in the glass block
is 2.0 × 108 m / s.

Which statement about the speed of light is correct?

A The speed in a vacuum is 1.5 times the speed in the glass.


B The speed in the glass is the same as the speed in a vacuum.
C The speed in the glass is 1.5 times the speed in a vacuum.

D The speed in the glass is 1.0 × 108 times the speed in a vacuum.

23 A fire alarm is not loud enough and the pitch is too low. An engineer adjusts the alarm so that it
produces a louder note of a higher pitch.

What effect does this have on the amplitude and on the frequency of the sound?

amplitude frequency

A larger greater
B larger smaller
C smaller greater
D smaller smaller

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24 In a child’s toy, metal fish are lifted out of a toy pond using a metal rod. The fish are magnetically
attracted to the end of the rod. There is no magnetic force between the fish themselves.

metal rod

toy pond

metal fish

What are possible materials from which the fish and the rod are made?

fish rod

A aluminium soft iron


B aluminium steel
C soft iron soft iron
D soft iron steel

25 What is the most effective method of demagnetising a bar magnet?

A placing the magnet in a solenoid carrying a large alternating current and gradually
decreasing the current
B placing the magnet in a solenoid carrying a large direct current and gradually decreasing the
current
C placing the magnet in a solenoid that produces a magnetic field in the opposite direction to
the magnet
D placing the magnet next to an identical bar magnet with its poles in the opposite direction

26 A magnet near a coil of wire is attracted to the coil only when there is a current in the coil.

Which statement explains this force of attraction?

A The coil of wire has its own gravitational field.


B The coil of wire is made from soft iron.
C The current in the coil of wire creates a magnetic field.
D The current in the coil of wire induces a charge on the magnet.

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27 A student rubs a plastic rod with a cloth.

The rod becomes positively charged.

What has happened to the rod?

A It has gained electrons.


B It has gained protons.
C It has lost electrons.
D It has lost protons.

28 Which quantity is measured in coulombs?

A charge
B current
C electromotive force
D power

29 A cylinder of conducting putty has length l, diameter d and resistance R. The putty is now
moulded into a cylinder of diameter 2d that has the same volume.

R d

By which factor does the resistance of the putty cylinder decrease?

A 2 B 4 C 8 D 16

30 The average current during a lightning strike between a cloud and the ground is 1.5 × 104 A.

The lightning releases 3.0 × 108 J of energy and lasts for 2.0 × 10–4 s.

What is the average electromotive force (e.m.f.) between the cloud and the ground?

A 4.0 V B 100 V C 1.0 × 108 V D 9.0 × 108 V

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31 A student connects a variable potential divider (potentiometer) circuit.

R
T V

12 V

What happens to the reading on the voltmeter as the sliding terminal T is moved from R to S?

A It decreases from 12 V to 0 V.
B It increases from 0 V to 12 V.
C It remains at 0 V.
D It remains at 12 V.

32 The circuit diagram shows a circuit with an a.c. supply, a diode and a resistor.

Which diagram shows how the current I in the resistor varies with time t ?

A B
I I

0 0
0 t 0 t

C D
I I

0 0
0 t 0 t

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33 A light-dependent resistor (LDR) and a resistor R are connected in a series circuit. Light falls on
the LDR.

The brightness of the light falling on the LDR decreases.

What happens to the resistance of the LDR and what happens to the reading on the ammeter?

resistance reading on
of LDR ammeter

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

34 The diagram shows a logic gate.

P
R
Q

Which input combinations at P and Q gives an output of 0 at R?

P Q

A 0 0
B 0 1
C 1 0
D 1 1

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35 A simple d.c. electric motor is fitted with a coil that rotates in a magnetic field. A commutator
connects the power supply to the coil.

What is the purpose of the commutator?

A It converts a.c. into d.c. in the coil.


B It prevents the current from becoming too great, because the coil has a low resistance.

C It reverses the direction of the current in the coil after every 180° rotation of the coil.

D It switches the current off momentarily after every 90° rotation of the coil.

36 What is the purpose of a relay?

A to change a large voltage into a small voltage


B to change a small voltage into a large voltage
C to use a large current to switch on a small current
D to use a small current to switch on a large current

37 Which row gives the relative charge of an electron, a neutron and a proton?

electron neutron proton

A –1 0 –1
B –1 0 +1
C +1 –1 0
D +1 0 +1

38 A nuclide of element X undergoes β-decay.

Which statement is correct?

A The nucleon number increases by 1.


B The nucleon number stays the same.
C The product is another nuclide of an isotope of X.
D The proton number decreases by 1.

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39 A sample of radioactive isotope is decaying.

The nuclei of which atoms will decay first?

A It is impossible to know because radioactive decay is random.


B It is impossible to know unless the age of the material is known.
C The atoms near the centre will decay first because they are surrounded by more atoms.
D The atoms near the surface will decay first because the radiation can escape more easily.

40 A detector of ionising radiation gives a background reading of 20 counts / minute.

A radioactive isotope with a half-life of 2.0 days is brought near to the detector. The reading on
the detector increases to 100 counts / minute.

How long does it take for the reading on the detector to decrease to 40 counts / minute?

A 2.0 days B 4.0 days C 5.0 days D 10 days

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BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

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Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2017
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*7478947670*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 17 printed pages and 3 blank pages.

IB17 06_0625_22/3RP
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1 What is the most accurate and precise method to measure the thickness of a coin?

A Use a micrometer screw gauge.


B Use a ruler and look at the scale perpendicularly.
C Use a top pan balance.
D Use the displacement method with water in a measuring cylinder.

2 A student determines the average speed of a bubble rising through a liquid at constant speed.

When the student starts the stopwatch the bubble is at position P.

After 2.0 s the bubble is at position Q.

bubble

18 Q
19

20

21

22

23

24

25
P
26
cm
27
bubble

What is the speed of the bubble between P and Q?

A 3.2 cm / s B 3.7 cm / s C 6.4 cm / s D 7.4 cm / s

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3 The diagram shows the speed-time graph for a toy car travelling in a straight line.

4.0
speed
m/s 3.0

2.0

1.0

0
0 1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0 5.0
time / s

What is the acceleration of the car during the first two seconds and what is the total distance that
it travels?

acceleration total
m / s2 distance / m

A 0.50 10
B 0.50 20
C 2.0 10
D 2.0 20

4 In which pair are both quantities measured in newtons?

A force and pressure


B force and weight
C mass and pressure
D mass and weight

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5 The masses of a measuring cylinder before and after pouring some liquid into it are shown in the
diagram.

cm3 cm3
200 200

100 100
liquid

mass = 80 g mass = 180 g

What is the density of the liquid?

A 100 g / cm3 B 100 g / cm3 C 180 g / cm3 D 180 g / cm3


120 140 120 140

6 A spring which obeys Hooke’s Law has an unstretched length of 10 cm.

A load of 20 N is hung from the spring.

The new length of the spring is 36 cm.

What is the spring constant k of the spring?

A 0.56 N / cm B 0.77 N / cm C 1.3 N / cm D 1.8 N / cm

7 A car travels forwards along a straight horizontal road. Only the horizontal forces acting on it are
shown.

air resistance
and friction
driving force

The length of each arrow represents the size of each force.

How do these forces affect the motion of the car?

A The car moves at constant speed.


B The car moves backwards.
C The car slows down.
D The car’s forward speed increases.

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8 The diagram shows a wooden beam of weight 20 N. The centre of mass of the beam is labelled
M.

There is a pivot at one end of the beam. The beam is kept horizontal by an upward force, F.

2.0 m
1.2 m
pivot

M wooden beam

20 N

What is the magnitude of F ?

A 12 N B 20 N C 30 N D 33 N

9 A ball of mass 2.0 kg is travelling at a speed of 12 m / s. It moves towards an object of mass 3.0 kg
which is at rest.

12 m / s
3.0 kg
2.0 kg at rest

The ball hits the object and sticks to it.

Which row gives the total momentum, and the speed of both objects immediately after the
collision?

total momentum speed


kg m / s m/s

A 0 4.8
B 0 8.0
C 24 4.8
D 24 8.0

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10 An object falls from a height of 5.0 m.

Air resistance can be ignored.

As it hits the ground the object has 750 J of kinetic energy.

What is its mass?

A 15 kg B 50 kg C 75 kg D 150 kg

11 An electric generator produces an electromotive force (e.m.f.) of 200 V and produces a current of
3.0 A in a circuit. The generator is driven by an engine with a power of 2.4 kW.

What is the efficiency of the generator?

A 2.8% B 25% C 28% D 36%

12 The diagrams show athletes training by stretching springs.

Each spring has the same stiffness.

Which athlete does the most work?

A B

one spring stretched one spring stretched


by 0.60 m by 0.80 m

C D

two springs stretched two springs stretched


by 0.60 m by 0.80 m

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13 Four different liquids are poured into four containers.

The diagrams show the depth and the density of liquid in each container.

In which container is the pressure on its base the greatest?

A B C D

40 cm
30 cm
20 cm
10 cm

liquid density liquid density liquid density liquid density


= 3.1 g / cm3 = 1.2 g / cm3 = 1.3 g / cm3 = 0.8 g / cm3

14 Brownian motion is observed when using a microscope to look at smoke particles in air.

What causes the smoke particles to move at random?

A Smoke particles are hit by air molecules.


B Smoke particles are moved by convection currents in the air.
C Smoke particles have different weights and fall at different speeds.
D Smoke particles hit the walls of the container.

15 A student blows air through a liquid using a straw. This causes the liquid to evaporate quickly and
therefore to cool.

Which statement explains why the remaining liquid cools?

A Slower-moving molecules are carried away by the air bubbles.


B The air molecules conduct heat from the liquid.
C The air sets up convection currents in the liquid.
D The molecules with most energy leave the liquid.

16 What is meant by the specific latent heat of fusion of ice?

A the energy needed to change unit mass of ice into water at constant temperature
B the energy needed to change unit volume of ice into water at constant temperature
C the energy needed to produce unit temperature increase of unit mass of ice
D the energy needed to produce unit temperature increase of unit volume of ice

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17 Equal masses of two different liquids are put into identical beakers.

Liquid 1 is heated for 100 s and liquid 2 is heated for 200 s by heaters of the same power.

Each liquid has the same rise in temperature.

different liquids
of same mass
liquid 1 liquid 2

heating time = 100 s heating time = 200 s

Which statement is correct?

A Each beaker of liquid has the same thermal capacity.


B Each beaker of liquid receives the same energy.
C Liquid 1 receives more energy than liquid 2.
D The thermal capacity of liquid 1 is less than the thermal capacity of liquid 2.

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18 A copper bar and a wooden bar are joined. A piece of paper is wrapped tightly around the join.

The bar is heated strongly at the centre for a short time, and the paper goes brown on one side
only.

wood paper copper

heat

Which side goes brown, and what does this show about wood and copper?

brown side wood copper

A copper conductor insulator


B copper insulator conductor
C wood conductor insulator
D wood insulator conductor

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19 Different waves hit barriers with different sized gaps.

The waves will diffract.

In which diagram does the greatest spreading occur?

A B
barrier barrier

gap 2.0 cm gap 2.0 cm

wavelength
wavelength 2.0 cm
1.0 cm

C D
barrier barrier

gap 3.0 cm gap 3.0 cm

wavelength
wavelength 2.0 cm
1.0 cm

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20 The incomplete ray diagram shows two rays of light that have passed from one point on an object
through a thin converging lens.

left lens right


object

rays of
light

Which type of image is formed, and on which side of the lens is it formed?

type of image which side of lens

A real on the left


B real on the right
C virtual on the left
D virtual on the right

21 Which diagram shows what happens when a ray of white light passes through a prism?

A B

spectrum
white white
light light
spectrum

C D
spectrum

white white
light light spectrum

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22 Light travels in a vacuum and then enters a glass block. The speed of the light in the glass block
is 2.0 × 108 m / s.

Which statement about the speed of light is correct?

A The speed in a vacuum is 1.5 times the speed in the glass.


B The speed in the glass is the same as the speed in a vacuum.
C The speed in the glass is 1.5 times the speed in a vacuum.

D The speed in the glass is 1.0 × 108 times the speed in a vacuum.

23 A fire alarm is not loud enough and the pitch is too low. An engineer adjusts the alarm so that it
produces a louder note of a higher pitch.

What effect does this have on the amplitude and on the frequency of the sound?

amplitude frequency

A larger greater
B larger smaller
C smaller greater
D smaller smaller

24 A student demagnetises a magnetised steel bar.

He places the bar in a solenoid connected to a power supply. He then removes the bar from the
solenoid.

Which row indicates the most effective way of demagnetising the bar?

type of speed to
power supply remove bar

A a.c. fast
B a.c. slow
C d.c. fast
D d.c. slow

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25 A magnet near a coil of wire is attracted to the coil only when there is a current in the coil.

Which statement explains this force of attraction?

A The coil of wire has its own gravitational field.


B The coil of wire is made from soft iron.
C The current in the coil of wire creates a magnetic field.
D The current in the coil of wire induces a charge on the magnet.

26 What is wrong with this labelled diagram of a permanent magnet?

iron disc

N S

A The cross-section should be rectangular.


B The length should be greater than the diameter.
C The magnet should be made of steel.
D The N-pole and the S-pole should be reversed.

27 A student tests the electrical conduction of four materials.

aluminium
iron
plastic
silver

Which materials conduct electricity?

A aluminium, iron and silver only


B aluminium and silver only
C iron, silver and plastic only
D plastic only

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28 What is the unit of charge?

A ampere
B coulomb
C ohm
D volt

29 An isolated metal sphere is positively charged.

It is then brought near to another isolated metal sphere that is neutral.

+ +
+ + +
+
+ + +
positively charged + + + neutral
metal sphere metal sphere

What happens to the charges on the neutral sphere as the positively charged sphere is brought
close to it?

A Some positive charges move to the left and some negative charges move to the right.
B Some positive charges move to the right and some negative charges move to the left.
C Some positive charges move to the right, but the negative charges do not move.
D The positive charges do not move, but some negative charges move to the left.

30 Which diagram is the current-voltage (I-V) characteristic graph for a metallic conductor at
constant temperature?

A B C D

I I I I

0 0 0 0
0 V 0 V 0 V 0 V

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31 Four circuits each contain a 6 V battery, a diode, an ammeter and a lamp. None of the
components is faulty.

Which circuit shows a possible ammeter reading?

A B

A A
reading = 1.0 A reading = 0 A

C D

A A
reading = 1.0 A reading = –1.0 A

32 A student connects a variable potential divider (potentiometer) circuit.

R
T V

12 V

What happens to the reading on the voltmeter as the sliding terminal T is moved from R to S?

A It decreases from 12 V to 0 V.
B It increases from 0 V to 12 V.
C It remains at 0 V.
D It remains at 12 V.

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33 The diagram shows an electric circuit.

20 Ω 0.40 A

10 Ω

What is the potential difference (p.d.) across the LDR?

A 4.0 V B 8.0 V C 25 V D 50 V

34 What does the symbol shown represent?

A an AND gate
B a NOR gate
C a NOT gate
D an OR gate

35 What is the purpose of a relay?

A to change a large voltage into a small voltage


B to change a small voltage into a large voltage
C to use a large current to switch on a small current
D to use a small current to switch on a large current

36 Which device uses a split-ring commutator?

A a d.c. motor
B a relay
C a transformer
D an a.c. generator

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37 Which particle has a negative charge?

A an alpha particle
B an electron
C a neutron
D a proton

38 A type of nuclear reaction takes place in stars.

Which row describes this type of reaction?

nuclear reaction nuclei formed energy transfer

A fission larger than original nuclei released


B fission smaller than original nuclei absorbed
C fusion larger than original nuclei released
D fusion smaller than original nuclei absorbed

39 A sample of radioactive isotope is decaying.

The nuclei of which atoms will decay first?

A It is impossible to know because radioactive decay is random.


B It is impossible to know unless the age of the material is known.
C The atoms near the centre will decay first because they are surrounded by more atoms.
D The atoms near the surface will decay first because the radiation can escape more easily.

40 A sample of a radioactive isotope emits particles at a rate of 240 per minute.

After 48 hours the rate of emission has decreased to 15 per minute.

What is the half-life of the radioactive material?

A 4.0 hours B 8.0 hours C 12 hours D 16 hours

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

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Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/23
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2017
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*3182427838*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 18 printed pages and 2 blank pages.

IB17 06_0625_23_VI_YEL/FP
© UCLES 2017 [Turn over

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1 What is the most accurate and precise method to measure the thickness of a coin?

A Use a micrometer screw gauge.


B Use a ruler and look at the scale perpendicularly.
C Use a top pan balance.
D Use the displacement method with water in a measuring cylinder.

2 A pendulum is swinging. Five students each measure the time it takes to swing through ten
complete swings.

Three students measure the time as 17.2 s. Another student measures it as 16.9 s, and the fifth
student measures it as 17.0 s.

What is the average period of the pendulum?

A 1.69 s B 1.70 s C 1.71 s D 1.72 s

3 Which distance-time graph represents a body whose speed is decreasing?

A B

distance distance

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

distance distance

0 0
0 time 0 time

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4 What are the units for mass, pressure and velocity?

mass pressure velocity

A kg Ns Pa
B kg Pa m/s
C Ns Pa m/s
D Pa Ns m/s

5 A steel ball bearing has a mass of 24 g and a density of 8.0 g / cm3. It is lowered into a measuring
cylinder containing 12 cm3 of water.

What is the new water level in the cylinder?

A 3.0 cm3 B 4.0 cm3 C 15 cm3 D 16 cm3

6 The diagram shows an object being acted upon by two forces.

6.0 N 3.0 N

What is the size of the resultant force on the object?

A 2.0 N B 3.0 N C 9.0 N D 18 N

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7 The diagram shows a man holding a sack and barrow stationary. He applies a vertical force to
the handle.

The centre of mass and the weight of the sack and barrow are shown. The wheel acts as a pivot.

force
exerted
by man

centre of mass
of sack and barrow

20 cm
80 cm

15 cm 45 cm

weight of
sack and barrow
200 N

What is the magnitude of the vertical force exerted by the man?

A 38 N B 50 N C 67 N D 200 N

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8 The diagram shows the only two forces F1 and F2 acting on an object. The magnitude of each
force is represented by the length of each arrow.

F1

110°

F2

The resultant force acting on the object is R.

Which vector diagram shows how forces F1 and F2 add to produce R?

A B

F1 R

F2
110° R 70°
F1
F2

C D

F1 R

F2
110° R 70°
F1
F2

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9 The diagrams show four bodies moving in the directions shown. The only forces acting on the
bodies are shown in each diagram.

Which body gains the most kinetic energy when moving a distance of 1.0 m?

A B

20 N

movement movement

10 N 10 N

C D

10 N 25 N 30 N 30 N

movement movement

10 A steel ball is fired vertically upwards with a velocity v. The ball reaches a height h.

The same ball is now fired vertically upwards from the same position with a velocity 2v.

Air resistance can be ignored.

What is the new height reached by the ball?

A h B 2h C 4h D 8h

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11 A solar panel is used to recharge a battery. The solar panel produces 0.80 W of electrical power.
The panel is 20% efficient.

solar panel

sunlight

power to
battery
0.80 W

What is the power input of the sunlight onto the solar panel?

A 0.16 W B 4.0 W C 8.0 W D 16 W

12 The diagrams show four different athletes training by doing pull-ups.

Which athlete does the most work?

A B C D

weight of weight of weight of weight of


athlete = 700 N athlete = 700 N athlete = 800 N athlete = 800 N

distance distance distance distance


lifted = 0.50 m lifted = 0.55 m lifted = 0.50 m lifted = 0.55 m

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13 Four different liquids are poured into four containers.

The diagrams show the depth and the density of liquid in each container.

In which container is the pressure on its base the greatest?

A B C D

40 cm
30 cm
20 cm
10 cm

liquid density liquid density liquid density liquid density


= 3.1 g / cm3 = 1.2 g / cm3 = 1.3 g / cm3 = 0.8 g / cm3

14 Brownian motion is observed when using a microscope to look at smoke particles in air.

What causes the smoke particles to move at random?

A Smoke particles are hit by air molecules.


B Smoke particles are moved by convection currents in the air.
C Smoke particles have different weights and fall at different speeds.
D Smoke particles hit the walls of the container.

15 The diagrams show four open dishes. Each dish contains water at the same temperature.

The dishes are different shapes and a draught blows over two of them.

From which container does the water evaporate at the greatest rate?

A B C D
draught

draught

no draught no draught

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16 Equal masses of two different liquids are put into identical beakers.

Liquid 1 is heated for 100 s and liquid 2 is heated for 200 s by heaters of the same power.

Each liquid has the same rise in temperature.

different liquids
of same mass
liquid 1 liquid 2

heating time = 100 s heating time = 200 s

Which statement is correct?

A Each beaker of liquid has the same thermal capacity.


B Each beaker of liquid receives the same energy.
C Liquid 1 receives more energy than liquid 2.
D The thermal capacity of liquid 1 is less than the thermal capacity of liquid 2.

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17 A block of ice at –20 °C is heated until it turns to steam. The graph of temperature against thermal
energy absorbed is shown.

The latent heat of fusion of ice is 340 kJ / kg.

temperature 100
°C 80
60
40
20
0
–20
0 200 400 600 800 1000 1200 1400 1600 1800 2000 2200 2400 2600

126 kJ 1146 kJ thermal energy 2406 kJ


absorbed / kJ

What is the mass of the ice?

A 1.0 kg B 2.0 kg C 3.0 kg D 4.0 kg

18 A copper bar and a wooden bar are joined. A piece of paper is wrapped tightly around the join.

The bar is heated strongly at the centre for a short time, and the paper goes brown on one side
only.

wood paper copper

heat

Which side goes brown, and what does this show about wood and copper?

brown side wood copper

A copper conductor insulator


B copper insulator conductor
C wood conductor insulator
D wood insulator conductor

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19 Different waves hit barriers with different sized gaps.

The waves will diffract.

In which diagram does the greatest spreading occur?

A B
barrier barrier

gap 2.0 cm gap 2.0 cm

wavelength
wavelength 2.0 cm
1.0 cm

C D
barrier barrier

gap 3.0 cm gap 3.0 cm

wavelength
wavelength 2.0 cm
1.0 cm

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20 A converging lens is used to make an image on a screen.

screen
converging
lens

image
formed
candle here

What type of image is formed on the screen?

A real and inverted


B real and upright
C virtual and inverted
D virtual and upright

21 Which diagram shows what happens when a ray of white light passes through a prism?

A B

spectrum
white white
light light
spectrum

C D
spectrum

white white
light light spectrum

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22 Light travels in a vacuum and then enters a glass block. The speed of the light in the glass block
is 2.0 × 108 m / s.

Which statement about the speed of light is correct?

A The speed in a vacuum is 1.5 times the speed in the glass.


B The speed in the glass is the same as the speed in a vacuum.
C The speed in the glass is 1.5 times the speed in a vacuum.

D The speed in the glass is 1.0 × 108 times the speed in a vacuum.

23 A fire alarm is not loud enough and the pitch is too low. An engineer adjusts the alarm so that it
produces a louder note of a higher pitch.

What effect does this have on the amplitude and on the frequency of the sound?

amplitude frequency

A larger greater
B larger smaller
C smaller greater
D smaller smaller

24 In which way are a bar magnet and an electromagnet similar?

A A bar magnet and an electromagnet are always magnetised when stored.


B A bar magnet and an electromagnet can both be used to separate magnetic and
non-magnetic materials.
C A bar magnet can be made of steel and an electromagnet uses a steel core.
D The magnetic field strength of a bar magnet and of an electromagnet can both be varied.

25 A magnet near a coil of wire is attracted to the coil only when there is a current in the coil.

Which statement explains this force of attraction?

A The coil of wire has its own gravitational field.


B The coil of wire is made from soft iron.
C The current in the coil of wire creates a magnetic field.
D The current in the coil of wire induces a charge on the magnet.

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26 A steel magnet is placed in a coil and demagnetised.

Which type of current is established in the coil, and how is the current changed?

A a direct current in the coil, then reduce the current quickly to zero
B a direct current in the coil, then reduce the current slowly to zero
C an alternating current in the coil, then reduce the current quickly to zero
D an alternating current in the coil, then reduce the current slowly to zero

27 Which material is a conductor of electricity?

A brass
B glass
C plastic
D wood

28 The diagrams each show a positive point charge.

Which diagram represents the pattern and the direction of the electric field due to the charge?

A B C D

+ + + +

29 Which quantity is equivalent to 1.0 V?

A 1.0 J / C B 1.0 kJ / C C 1.0 J / s D 1.0 kJ / s

30 A circuit contains a fixed resistor. The potential difference across the resistor is 24.0 V and the
current in the resistor is 2.30 A.

How much energy is transferred in the resistor in a time of 17.0 minutes?

A 938 J B 5630 J C 56.3 kJ D 9.38 kJ

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31 A battery, an ammeter, a switch, a lamp and a resistor are connected together in a circuit.

With the switch open, the ammeter reads 2.4 A. When the switch is closed, this reading increases
to 4.0 A.

What is the current through the resistor with the switch closed?

A 0A B 1.6 A C 3.2 A D 6.4 A

32 A student connects a variable potential divider (potentiometer) circuit.

R
T V

12 V

What happens to the reading on the voltmeter as the sliding terminal T is moved from R to S?

A It decreases from 12 V to 0 V.
B It increases from 0 V to 12 V.
C It remains at 0 V.
D It remains at 12 V.

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33 The diagram shows a circuit used to make a light detector.

X Y

One component is connected between X and Y.

Which component causes the ammeter reading to increase when the light gets brighter?

A B C D

34 A truth table for a type of logic gate is shown.

input 1 input 2 output

0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 1

Which type of logic gate is it?

A AND B NOR C NOT D OR

35 In which device is a split-ring commutator used, and what is its purpose?

device purpose
A a.c. generator to change the direction of the
current in the coil as it turns
B a.c. generator to change the output current
from d.c. into a.c.
C d.c. motor to change the direction of the
current in the coil as it turns
D d.c. motor to change the input current
from a.c. into d.c.

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36 What is the purpose of a relay?

A to change a large voltage into a small voltage


B to change a small voltage into a large voltage
C to use a large current to switch on a small current
D to use a small current to switch on a large current

37 When a source of D-particles is directed towards a thin metal foil they become scattered.

Which observation of this experiment provides evidence for a small charged nucleus?

A A small proportion of the D-particles come straight back from the foil towards the source.

B A small proportion of the D-particles pass straight through the foil.

C Some of the D-particles are deflected by an angle of less than 90°.

D Some of the D-particles follow a curved path after leaving the foil.

38 Which description of a neutral atom of copper is correct?

A a nucleus surrounded by electrons


B a nucleus surrounded by molecules
C electrons surrounded by a nucleus
D electrons surrounded by molecules

39 A sample of radioactive isotope is decaying.

The nuclei of which atoms will decay first?

A It is impossible to know because radioactive decay is random.


B It is impossible to know unless the age of the material is known.
C The atoms near the centre will decay first because they are surrounded by more atoms.
D The atoms near the surface will decay first because the radiation can escape more easily.

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40 A student determines the half-life of a radioactive isotope.

The student uses a detector over five minutes and plots a graph showing how the count rate
shown on the detector varies with time.

The count rate due to background radiation is 30 counts per minute.

250
count rate
counts / minute 200

150

100

50

0
0 1 2 3 4 5
time / minutes

What is the half-life of this isotope?

A 0.30 minutes
B 1.2 minutes
C 1.5 minutes
D 5.0 minutes

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

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Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/21
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2017
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*6133216338*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 20 printed pages.

IB17 11_0625_21/4RP
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1 A student measures the volume of a cork.

He puts some water into a measuring cylinder and then one glass ball. He puts the cork and then
a second, identical glass ball into the water as shown.

cm3 cm3 cm3


100 100 100

80 80 80
glass ball
60 60 60

40 40 40 cork
20 20 20
glass ball glass ball

diagram 1 diagram 2 diagram 3

Diagram 1 shows the first water level.

Diagram 2 shows the water level after one glass ball is added.

Diagram 3 shows the water level after the cork and the second glass ball are added.

What is the volume of the cork?

A 30 cm3 B 40 cm3 C 50 cm3 D 100 cm3

2 Four balls with different masses are dropped from the heights shown.

Air resistance may be ignored.

Which ball has the smallest average speed?

A B C D
1.0 kg

2.0 kg

3.0 kg
4.0 m
4.0 kg
3.0 m
2.0 m
1.0 m ground

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3 An ice crystal falls vertically from a cloud.

What happens to the acceleration of the ice crystal as it falls?

A It decreases because of air resistance.


B It decreases because of gravity.
C It increases because of air resistance.
D It increases because of gravity.

4 A spring is stretched by hanging a piece of metal from it.

spring

metal

Which name is given to the force that stretches the spring?

A friction
B mass
C pressure
D weight

5 Which object has the greatest weight?

A an object of mass 10 kg in a 15 N / kg gravitational field


B an object of mass 15 kg in a 13 N / kg gravitational field
C an object of mass 20 kg in a 9.0 N / kg gravitational field
D an object of mass 50 kg in a 3.0 N / kg gravitational field

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6 A uniform beam XY is 100 cm long and weighs 4.0 N.

80 cm

60 cm

10 cm

X Y
centre
pivot
of beam F
8.0 N

The beam rests on a pivot 60 cm from end X.

A load of 8.0 N hangs from the beam 10 cm from end X.

The beam is kept balanced by a force F acting on the beam 80 cm from end X.

What is the magnitude of force F ?

A 8.0 N B 18 N C 22 N D 44 N

7 The diagrams show four table lamps resting on a table. The position of the centre of mass of
each lamp is labelled X.

Which lamp is the most stable?

A B C D

X X

X X

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8 The diagram shows an incomplete scale drawing to find the resultant of two 10 N forces acting at
a point in the directions shown.

10 N

10 N

What is the magnitude of the resultant force?

A 7.5 N B 8.6 N C 18 N D 20 N

9 A tennis ball of mass 0.060 kg travels horizontally at a speed of 25 m / s. The ball hits a tennis
racket and rebounds horizontally at a speed of 40 m / s.

racket
ball
25 m / s 40 m / s

before hitting racket after hitting racket

The ball is in contact with the racket for 50 ms.

What force does the racket exert on the ball?

A 0.018 N B 0.078 N C 18 N D 78 N

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10 The diagram shows the path of a stone that is thrown from X and reaches its maximum height
at Y.

Y
path of
stone

The stone gains 10 J of gravitational potential energy as it moves from X to Y.

The stone has 2.0 J of kinetic energy at Y.

Air resistance can be ignored.

How much kinetic energy did the stone have immediately after it was thrown at X?

A 2.0 J B 8.0 J C 10 J D 12 J

11 A motor is used to lift a load of 40 N.

motor

load lifted
through 0.50 m

load

40 N

The power of the motor is 40 W and the system is 20% efficient.

How long does it take the motor to lift the load through 0.50 m?

A 0.50 s B 2.5 s C 5.0 s D 25 s

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12 A student runs up a flight of stairs.

height
length

Which information is not needed to calculate the rate at which the student is doing work against
gravity?

A the height of the flight of stairs


B the length of the flight of stairs
C the time taken to run up the stairs
D the weight of the student

13 The diagram shows a simple mercury barometer.

cm vacuum
90
80

metre rule 70
60
50
40
30
20

10
mercury

Which length is used to find the value of atmospheric pressure?

A 12 cm B 74 cm C 86 cm D 100 cm

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14 The diagram shows a glass flask, sealed with a small volume of mercury in a glass tube. When
the flask is gently warmed the mercury rises up the tube.

glass tube

mercury

air

water

What is the main cause of the movement of the mercury?

A expansion of air in the flask


B expansion of the glass flask
C expansion of the glass tube
D expansion of the mercury

15 A pollen grain in a beaker of still water is viewed through a microscope.

Which diagram shows the most likely movement of the pollen grain?

A B C D

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16 The diagram shows an air-filled rubber toy. A child sits on the toy and its volume decreases.

The temperature of the air in the toy does not change.

How does the air pressure in the toy change and why?

pressure reason

A decreases air molecules move more slowly


B decreases air molecules strike the rubber less frequently
C increases air molecules move more quickly
D increases air molecules strike the rubber more frequently

17 A strip of iron and a strip of brass are firmly attached to each other along their entire length. This
combination is a bimetallic strip.

iron strip

brass strip

This bimetallic strip is heated and it bends as shown.

iron

fixed support

brass

The bimetallic strip is now cooled and becomes straight again.

What causes the bimetallic strip to become straight again?

A The brass contracts more than the iron.


B The brass expands more than the iron.
C The iron contracts more than the brass.
D The iron expands more than the brass.

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18 An aluminium block has a mass of 200 g.

The specific heat capacity of aluminium is 900 J / (kg °C).

How much energy is needed to raise the temperature of the block from 20 °C to 110 °C?

A 2.0 J B 200 J C 16 200 J D 16 200 000 J

19 Which statement about convection currents is correct?

A Convection currents occur because, when cooled, liquids contract and become more dense.
B Convection currents occur because, when warmed, liquids expand and become more dense.
C Convection currents only occur in liquids.
D Convection currents only occur in solids and liquids.

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20 The diagram represents plane wavefronts of a water wave about to strike a solid barrier.

wavefronts

Which diagram shows the position of the wavefronts after reflection at the barrier?

A B

reflected

reflected

C D

reflected

reflected

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21 The diagram shows an object in front of a plane mirror. A ray of light from the object is incident on
the mirror.

object
R

Q S

P
plane
mirror

Through which point does the reflected ray pass, and at which point is the image of the object
formed?

point through which point at which


reflected ray passes image is formed

A P R
B P S
C Q R
D Q S

22 A laser is a source of light with a single frequency.

Which description of this type of light is correct?

A dispersed
B focused
C monochromatic
D refracted

23 Visible light, X-rays and microwaves are all components of the electromagnetic spectrum.

Which statement about the waves is correct?

A In a vacuum, microwaves travel faster than visible light and have a shorter wavelength.
B In a vacuum, microwaves travel at the same speed as visible light and have a shorter
wavelength.
C In a vacuum, X-rays travel faster than visible light and have a shorter wavelength.
D In a vacuum, X-rays travel at the same speed as visible light and have a shorter wavelength.

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24 The Moon is 380 000 km from the Earth. A laser light beam is directed from the Earth to the
Moon. The beam is reflected back to the Earth.

How long does it take for the light to travel to the Moon and back to the Earth?

A 1.27 ms B 2.53 ms C 1.27 s D 2.53 s

25 Which wavefront is travelling at a speed closest to that of a sound wave through a solid?

A one that moves 10 m in 0.01 s


B one that moves 50 m in 0.5 s
C one that moves 1000 m in 100 s
D one that moves 2000 m in 2000 s

26 Different waves travel through air.

Which waves have the greatest difference in speed?

A ultrasound waves and sound waves


B ultrasound waves and ultraviolet waves
C ultraviolet waves and light waves
D ultraviolet waves and radio waves

27 A student stands 180 m in front of a vertical, flat cliff and bangs together two pieces of wood to
make a short, loud sound.

A timer records the echo of the sound 1.5 seconds after the pieces of wood are banged together.

Based on this result, what is the speed of sound?

A 120 m / s B 240 m / s C 270 m / s D 540 m / s

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28 A train of steel nails and a train of iron nails hang from a strong magnet.

magnet

train of train of
steel nails iron nails

The trains are then carefully removed from the magnet.

What happens to the trains?

A Both trains fall apart.


B Both trains stay together.
C Only the train of iron nails falls apart.
D Only the train of steel nails falls apart.

29 How can a permanent magnet be demagnetised?

A Cool the magnet for a long time.


B Place it next to another magnet.
C Slowly pull it out of a coil connected to an a.c. supply.
D Slowly pull it out of a coil connected to a d.c. supply.

30 A positively-charged rod is held near to, but not touching, an uncharged metal sphere.

The sphere is briefly now connected to earth.

The rod is removed.

Which statement about the charge on the sphere is correct?

A It is charged negatively because negative charges have moved from earth to the sphere.
B It is charged negatively because positive charges have moved from the sphere to earth.
C It is charged positively because negative charges have moved from the sphere to earth.
D It is charged positively because positive charges have moved to earth from the sphere.

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31 The diagram shows a circuit with a gap between points P and Q.

Four pieces of metal wire of the same material are connected, in turn, between points P and Q in
the circuit.

P Q

The table gives the diameters and lengths of the wires.

In which wire is the current the largest?

diameter / mm length / m

A 0.10 1.0
B 0.10 2.0
C 0.20 1.0
D 0.20 2.0

32 A torch has a simple circuit with a 3.0 V battery and a lamp. There is a 20 mA current in the lamp.

How much energy is transferred to the lamp in 5.0 minutes?

A 0.30 J B 18 J C 60 J D 0.30 kJ

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33 A student connects the circuit shown.

Which graph shows the variation with time of the current in the resistor?

A B

current current

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

current current

0
0 time

0
0 time

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34 The diagram shows a circuit with a fixed resistor connected in series with a thermistor and an
ammeter.

Which row shows how temperature change affects the resistance of the thermistor and the
current in the circuit?

resistance of
temperature current in circuit
thermistor

A decreases decreases increases


B decreases increases decreases
C increases decreases decreases
D increases increases increases

35 What does the symbol shown represent?

A an AND gate
B a NOR gate
C a NOT gate
D an OR gate

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36 The diagram shows a copper wire XY connected to a resistor.

The wire is moved in the magnetic field between the poles of a magnet.

There is an induced current in the wire from X to Y.

In which labelled direction is the wire moving?

X
B

A C

N S
D

37 The graph shows how the voltage induced across a coil changes with time as the coil spins in a
magnetic field.

voltage

0
0 time

Which graph shows what happens when the coil spins more quickly?

(All graphs are drawn to the same scale.)

A B

voltage voltage

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

voltage voltage

0 0
0 time 0 time

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38 Emissions X and Y from radioactive material are passed through a magnetic field. The diagram
shows the direction of the emissions, the direction of the magnetic field and the effect on the
emissions.

emission X magnetic field


emission Y into the page

Which type of emission is X, and which type of emission is Y?

emission X emission Y

A α-particles β-particles
B α-particles γ-rays
C β-particles α-particles
D β-particles γ-rays

39 What is meant by the half-life of a radioactive isotope?

A half of the time taken for all of the original nuclei to decay
B the time taken for half of the original nuclei to decay
C the time taken for the charges on all the nuclei to halve
D the time taken for the mass of each nucleus to halve

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40 The rate of emission of a radioactive source is measured until the reading reaches the
background rate of 20 counts per minute.

The results are shown.

200
190
180
rate of emission
170
counts / minute
160
150
140
130
120
110
100
90
80
70
60
50
40
30
20
10
0
0 10 20 30 40 50 60
time / minute

What is the best estimate of the half-life of the source?

A 10 minutes
B 12 minutes
C 14 minutes
D 30 minutes

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

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Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2017
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*2664559192*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 18 printed pages and 2 blank pages.

IB17 11_0625_22/4RP
© UCLES 2017 [Turn over

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1 A student investigates the rate of flow of oil through a funnel.

The diagrams show the experiment and the volume of oil in the measuring cylinder at the start of
the experiment, and one minute later.

80 80
cm3 cm3

60 60

40 40

20 20

initial after 1.0


measurement minute

What is the rate of flow of oil through the funnel during the one minute?

A 0.73 cm3 / s B 0.80 cm3 / s C 44 cm3 / s D 48 cm3 / s

2 Four balls with different masses are dropped simultaneously from the heights shown.

Air resistance may be ignored.

Which ball hits the floor last?

A B C D
4.0 kg

3.0 kg

2.0 kg
2.0 m
1.0 kg
1.5 m
1.0 m
0.5 m ground

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3 The gravitational field strength on the Earth is greater than the gravitational field strength on the
Moon. The Earth has an atmosphere, but the Moon does not.

Which speed-time graph represents the motion of a light ball dropped from a great height near
the surface of the Earth and near the surface of the Moon?

A B
Earth
Moon
speed speed

Earth
Moon
0 0
0 time 0 time

C D
Earth
Earth
speed speed

Moon Moon

0 0
0 time 0 time

4 A spring is stretched by hanging a piece of metal from it.

spring

metal

Which name is given to the force that stretches the spring?

A friction
B mass
C pressure
D weight

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5 A body of mass m has a weight W in a location where the gravitational field strength is g.

Which statement about these quantities is correct?

A m and W are both forces.


B m and W are both vector quantities.
C m and W are related by the equation W = g.
m
D m and W have the same unit.

6 An object is pivoted at point P. A student ties a length of string to a peg on the object. He pulls
the string with a force F.

string

s t
peg
r
q P

object

What is the moment of the force F about the point P?

A F×q B F×r C F×s D F×t

7 Each diagram shows a metal plate with four parallel forces acting on it. These are the only forces
acting on the plates.

In which diagram is the plate in equilibrium?

A B

1.0 N 2.0 N 2.0 N 1.0 N

2.0 N 1.0 N 1.0 N 2.0 N

C D

1.0 N 1.0 N 2.0 N 1.0 N

2.0 N 2.0 N 2.0 N 2.0 N

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8 The diagram shows an incomplete scale drawing to find the resultant of two 10 N forces acting at
a point in the directions shown.

10 N

10 N

What is the magnitude of the resultant force?

A 7.5 N B 8.6 N C 18 N D 20 N

9 A ball has a mass of 0.30 kg. It moves horizontally with a speed of 3.0 m / s in the direction shown.

The ball hits a wall.

wall wall
ball ball

3.0 m / s 2.0 m / s

before hitting the wall after hitting the wall

The ball rebounds from the wall with a horizontal speed of 2.0 m / s.

What is the change in momentum of the ball?

A 0.30 kg m / s B 1.0 kg m / s C 1.5 kg m / s D 5.0 kg m / s

10 An object has a mass of 500 kg.

It moves with a speed of 30 m / s.

What is its kinetic energy?

A 7.5 kJ B 15 kJ C 225 kJ D 450 kJ

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11 Different processes have different efficiencies.

Which row shows the most efficient process?

energy useful energy


input / J output / J

A 10 3
B 40 10
C 100 25
D 2000 250

12 A student runs up a flight of stairs.

height
length

Which information is not needed to calculate the rate at which the student is doing work against
gravity?

A the height of the flight of stairs


B the length of the flight of stairs
C the time taken to run up the stairs
D the weight of the student

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13 The diagram shows a simple mercury barometer.

cm vacuum
90

80

metre rule 70

60
50

40

30
20
10
mercury

Which length is used to find the value of atmospheric pressure?

A 12 cm B 74 cm C 86 cm D 100 cm

14 A pollen grain in a beaker of still water is viewed through a microscope.

Which diagram shows the most likely movement of the pollen grain?

A B C D

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15 The diagram shows an air-filled rubber toy. A child sits on the toy and its volume decreases.

The temperature of the air in the toy does not change.

How does the air pressure in the toy change and why?

pressure reason

A decreases air molecules move more slowly


B decreases air molecules strike the rubber less frequently
C increases air molecules move more quickly
D increases air molecules strike the rubber more frequently

16 The diagram shows a glass flask, sealed with a small volume of mercury in a glass tube. When
the flask is gently warmed the mercury rises up the tube.

glass tube

mercury

air

water

What is the main cause of the movement of the mercury?

A expansion of air in the flask


B expansion of the glass flask
C expansion of the glass tube
D expansion of the mercury

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17 Which row identifies the fixed points on the Celsius scale?

lower fixed point upper fixed point

A boiling point of mercury melting point of pure ice


B boiling point of pure water melting point of pure ice
C melting point of mercury boiling point of pure water
D melting point of pure ice boiling point of pure water

18 Aluminium has a specific heat capacity of 900 J / (kg °C).

The internal energy of a 2.0 kg block of aluminium increases by 13 500 J.

By how much does the temperature of the block increase?

A 0.067 °C B 0.13 °C C 7.5 °C D 15 °C

19 Why does a balloon filled with hot air rise?

A Cold air is less dense than hot air.


B Cold air is more dense than hot air.
C Heat rises.
D The density of the balloon is greater than the density of the surrounding gas.

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20 The diagram represents plane wavefronts of a water wave about to strike a solid barrier.

wavefronts

Which diagram shows the position of the wavefronts after reflection at the barrier?

A B

reflected

reflected

C D

reflected

reflected

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21 The diagram shows an object O in front of a thin converging lens of focal length f.

At which point will the lens form a sharp image of the object?

A
O

f f
C
D

22 The diagram shows a ray of light incident on the surface of a rectangular glass block at 90° to the
surface.

ray of light

glass block

Which quantities remain unchanged as the light enters the glass block?

A direction and frequency


B direction and speed
C frequency and speed
D speed and wavelength

23 Which piece of equipment is designed to produce a type of electromagnetic wave?

A electric fire
B electric generator
C electric motor
D electromagnet

24 The Moon is 380 000 km from the Earth. A laser light beam is directed from the Earth to the
Moon. The beam is reflected back to the Earth.

How long does it take for the light to travel to the Moon and back to the Earth?

A 1.27 ms B 2.53 ms C 1.27 s D 2.53 s

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25 Different waves travel through air.

Which waves have the greatest difference in speed?

A ultrasound waves and sound waves


B ultrasound waves and ultraviolet waves
C ultraviolet waves and light waves
D ultraviolet waves and radio waves

26 The speed of sound is different in different states of matter.

The speed of sound in water is 1500 m / s.

Which row correctly compares the speed of sound in ice and the speed of sound in steam with
the speed of sound in water?

speed of sound in ice speed of sound in steam


m/s m/s

A less than 1500 less than 1500


B less than 1500 more than 1500
C more than 1500 less than 1500
D more than 1500 more than 1500

27 A student finds that it takes sound 0.33 seconds to travel 100 metres.

From this information, what is the speed of sound?

A 30 m / s B 60 m / s C 300 m / s D 600 m / s

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28 A train of steel nails and a train of iron nails hang from a strong magnet.

magnet

train of train of
steel nails iron nails

The trains are then carefully removed from the magnet.

What happens to the trains?

A Both trains fall apart.


B Both trains stay together.
C Only the train of iron nails falls apart.
D Only the train of steel nails falls apart.

29 An old and expensive steel watch becomes magnetised.

The owner wants to use the watch again. He must demagnetise the watch.

What is the best method to do this?

A Insert the watch in a solenoid that carries alternating current and then slowly remove it.
B Insert the watch in a solenoid that carries direct current and then slowly remove it.
C Pass alternating current through the watch.
D Pass direct current through the watch.

30 Which diagram represents the electric field due to a negatively-charged conducting sphere?

A B C D

– – – –

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31 The diagram shows a circuit with a gap between points P and Q.

Four pieces of metal wire of the same material are connected, in turn, between points P and Q in
the circuit.

P Q

The table gives the diameters and lengths of the wires.

In which wire is the current the largest?

diameter / mm length / m

A 0.10 1.0
B 0.10 2.0
C 0.20 1.0
D 0.20 2.0

32 The graph shows the way in which one physical quantity y varies with another physical quantity x.

0
0 x

Which row gives suitable quantities for y and x?

y x

A the number of atoms of a the time taken


radioactive isotope present
B the potential difference the current in the metallic conductor
across a metallic conductor
C the resistance of a length of wire the diameter of the wire
D the volume of a 1.0 kg object the density of the material from
which the object is made

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33 The potential difference across a car headlamp is 12 V. The current in the lamp is 2.5 A.

How much energy is transferred by the lamp in 1.0 hour?

A 1800 J B 1800 W C 108 000 J D 108 000 W

34 The diagram shows a circuit with a fixed resistor connected in series with a thermistor and an
ammeter.

Which row shows how temperature change affects the resistance of the thermistor and the
current in the circuit?

resistance of
temperature current in circuit
thermistor

A decreases decreases increases


B decreases increases decreases
C increases decreases decreases
D increases increases increases

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35 An incomplete truth table for a NAND gate is shown.

input P input Q output

0 0 W
0 1 X
1 0 Y
1 1 Z

What are the values of W, X, Y and Z?

W X Y Z

A 0 0 0 1
B 0 1 1 1
C 1 0 0 0
D 1 1 1 0

36 The diagram shows a wire hanging freely between the poles of a magnet. There is a current in
the wire in the direction shown.

wire

S N

current

The magnet and current cause a force to act on the wire.

In which direction does this force act?

A into the page (away from you)


B out of the page (toward you)
C to the left
D to the right

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37 A 100% efficient transformer has 6000 turns on its primary coil and 600 turns on its secondary
coil. The output voltage of the transformer is 12 V.

A resistor is connected across the secondary coil and dissipates 24 W of power.

primary coil secondary coil


6000 turns 600 turns

output voltage 12 V
power 24 W

What is the current in the primary coil of the transformer?

A 0.050 A B 0.20 A C 5.0 A D 20 A

38 In the diagram, the circle represents an atom (not to scale) with the nucleus at its centre.

A particle is emitted by a radioactive source and approaches the nucleus of the atom. The curved
arrow shows the path of the particle.

nucleus

path of
particle

What is the nature and charge of the particle?

nature of particle charge of particle

A α-particle negative
B α-particle positive
C β-particle negative
D β-particle positive

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39 Which row describes the behaviour of γ-rays in an electric field and in a magnetic field?

electric field magnetic field

A deflected deflected
B deflected undeflected
C undeflected deflected
D undeflected undeflected

40 A radioactive source has a half-life of 0.5 hours.

A detector near the source shows a reading of 6000 counts per second.

Background radiation can be ignored.

What is the reading on the detector 1.5 hours later?

A 750 counts per second


B 1500 counts per second
C 2000 counts per second
D 3000 counts per second

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/O/N/17


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BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/O/N/17


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BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2017 0625/22/O/N/17


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Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/23
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2017
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*7509628836*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 18 printed pages and 2 blank pages.

IB17 11_0625_23/4RP
© UCLES 2017 [Turn over

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1 A measuring cylinder contains some water. A small metal block is slowly lowered into the water
and is then removed.

Finally a piece of plastic is attached to the metal block and the block is again slowly lowered into
the water.

The diagrams show the measuring cylinder at each stage of this process.

1 2 3
cm3 cm3 cm3
100 100 100
90 90 90
80 80 80
70 70 70
60 60 60
50 50 50
40 40 40
30 30 30
20 20 20 plastic
10 10 10

metal block metal block

What is the volume of the piece of plastic?

A 10 cm3 B 25 cm3 C 70 cm3 D 80 cm3

2 Four balls with different masses are dropped simultaneously from the heights shown.

Air resistance may be ignored.

Which ball hits the floor first?

A B C D
4.0 kg

3.0 kg

2.0 kg
2.0 m
1.0 kg
1.5 m
1.0 m
0.5 m ground

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3 The diagram shows the vertical forces acting on a ball as it falls vertically through the air. The ball
does not reach terminal velocity.

air resistance

weight

Which row describes what happens to the resultant force on the ball and what happens to the
acceleration of the ball as it falls through the air?

resultant force acceleration

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

4 A spring is stretched by hanging a piece of metal from it.

spring

metal

Which name is given to the force that stretches the spring?

A friction
B mass
C pressure
D weight

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5 On the Moon, all objects fall with the same acceleration.

Which statement explains this?

A On the Moon, all objects have the same weight.


B The Moon has a smaller gravitational field strength than the Earth.
C The weight of an object is directly proportional to its mass.
D The weight of an object is inversely proportional to its mass.

6 A pair of cutters is used to cut a rope.

blade

handle
P
Q
R
S
blade

handle

Where should the rope be positioned and at which labelled points should the hands be positioned
to produce the greatest cutting force?

rope hands
positioned positioned

A P R
B P S
C Q R
D Q S

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7 The lamp in the diagram is not very stable and falls over easily.

shade

stem

base

Which row shows changes that would definitely make the lamp more stable?

base centre of gravity

A narrower higher
B narrower lower
C wider higher
D wider lower

8 The diagram shows an incomplete scale drawing to find the resultant of two 10 N forces acting at
a point in the directions shown.

10 N

10 N

What is the magnitude of the resultant force?

A 7.5 N B 8.6 N C 18 N D 20 N

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9 An object has a mass of 60 kg.

It decelerates from 50 m / s to 20 m / s when a resultant force of 300 N acts on it.

For how long does the force act?

A 0.071 s B 0.17 s C 6.0 s D 14 s

10 A car, starting from rest at position X, accelerates up a hill. The car reaches a speed of 10 m / s at
position Y.

The kinetic energy of the car at position Y is equal to its gain in gravitational potential energy from
X to Y.

X gain in
height
of car

Take the gravitational field strength g to be 10 N / kg.

What is the gain in height of the car between X and Y?

A 0.50 m B 5.0 m C 10 m D 50 m

11 A 150 W filament lamp has an efficiency of 10%. A 40 W compact fluorescent lamp (CFL) has an
efficiency of 30%.

Each lamp is switched on for the same amount of time.

Which lamp produces more light and which lamp converts more energy into other forms of
energy?

converts more energy


produces more light
into other forms

A CFL lamp CFL lamp


B CFL lamp filament lamp
C filament lamp CFL lamp
D filament lamp filament lamp

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12 A student runs up a flight of stairs.

height
length

Which information is not needed to calculate the rate at which the student is doing work against
gravity?

A the height of the flight of stairs


B the length of the flight of stairs
C the time taken to run up the stairs
D the weight of the student

13 The diagram shows a simple mercury barometer.

cm vacuum
90
80

metre rule 70
60
50
40
30
20

10
mercury

Which length is used to find the value of atmospheric pressure?

A 12 cm B 74 cm C 86 cm D 100 cm

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14 A pollen grain in a beaker of still water is viewed through a microscope.

Which diagram shows the most likely movement of the pollen grain?

A B C D

15 The diagram shows an air-filled rubber toy. A child sits on the toy and its volume decreases.

The temperature of the air in the toy does not change.

How does the air pressure in the toy change and why?

pressure reason

A decreases air molecules move more slowly


B decreases air molecules strike the rubber less frequently
C increases air molecules move more quickly
D increases air molecules strike the rubber more frequently

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16 The diagram shows a glass flask, sealed with a small volume of mercury in a glass tube. When
the flask is gently warmed the mercury rises up the tube.

glass tube

mercury

air

water

What is the main cause of the movement of the mercury?

A expansion of air in the flask


B expansion of the glass flask
C expansion of the glass tube
D expansion of the mercury

17 Which property cannot be used for the measurement of temperature?

A half-life of a radioactive isotope


B length of a solid metal bar
C pressure of a gas
D volume of a liquid

18 A student uses an immersion heater to heat some water in a beaker.

The water is heated from 20 °C to 80 °C.

The energy supplied to the water is 60.0 kJ.

What is the thermal capacity of the water? (Ignore any heat loss.)

A 667 J / °C B 750 J / °C C 1000 J / °C D 3000 J / °C

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19 Why is the heating coil of a domestic immersion heater placed at the bottom of the tank?

A Cold water is less dense than hot water and therefore sinks.
B Cold water is more dense than hot water and therefore rises.
C Hot water is less dense than cold water and therefore rises.
D Hot water is more dense than cold water and therefore sinks.

20 The diagram represents plane wavefronts of a water wave about to strike a solid barrier.

wavefronts

Which diagram shows the position of the wavefronts after reflection at the barrier?

A B

reflected

reflected

C D

reflected

reflected

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21 The diagram shows a ray of light in glass. The ray reaches a boundary with air.

One weak ray of light is missing from the diagram.

air
glass 50°

Which statement is correct?

A At the boundary, the speed of the light will become less.

B The critical angle for light at this boundary is 50°.


C The diagram shows an example of diffraction of light.
D The missing ray is a weak reflected ray.

22 Light travelling in air enters a plastic block at an angle of incidence of 62°.

The plastic has a refractive index of 1.48.

plastic block

62°

ray of
light

What is the angle of refraction?

A 18° B 28° C 37° D 42°

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23 A sound wave travels from a medium in one state into the same medium but in another state.
This causes the speed of the wave to change from approximately 300 m / s to approximately
3000 m / s.

Between which two states is the sound wave travelling?

A gas to solid
B liquid to gas
C liquid to solid
D solid to liquid

24 The Moon is 380 000 km from the Earth. A laser light beam is directed from the Earth to the
Moon. The beam is reflected back to the Earth.

How long does it take for the light to travel to the Moon and back to the Earth?

A 1.27 ms B 2.53 ms C 1.27 s D 2.53 s

25 Which statement about radio waves is correct?

A They are used in television remote controllers.


B They can be detected by the human eye.
C They travel as longitudinal waves.
D They have the same speed in a vacuum as ultraviolet waves.

26 The diagram shows the Earth and its surroundings.

Through which labelled region can sound not be transmitted?

A B C D
sea land atmosphere outer space
(water) (rock) (air) (vacuum)

not to scale

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27 Different waves travel through air.

Which waves have the greatest difference in speed?

A ultrasound waves and sound waves


B ultrasound waves and ultraviolet waves
C ultraviolet waves and light waves
D ultraviolet waves and radio waves

28 A train of steel nails and a train of iron nails hang from a strong magnet.

magnet

train of train of
steel nails iron nails

The trains are then carefully removed from the magnet.

What happens to the trains?

A Both trains fall apart.


B Both trains stay together.
C Only the train of iron nails falls apart.
D Only the train of steel nails falls apart.

29 What is the best method to demagnetise a steel rod?

A Pass the rod through a coil connected to an a.c. supply.


B Pass the rod through a coil connected to a d.c. supply.
C Place the rod next to another magnet.
D Stroke the rod with another magnet.

30 There is a current in a metal wire.

Which particles in the wire move to cause this current?

A α-particles
B electrons
C neutrons
D protons

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31 The diagram shows a circuit with a gap between points P and Q.

Four pieces of metal wire of the same material are connected, in turn, between points P and Q in
the circuit.

P Q

The table gives the diameters and lengths of the wires.

In which wire is the current the largest?

diameter / mm length / m

A 0.10 1.0
B 0.10 2.0
C 0.20 1.0
D 0.20 2.0

32 A battery is connected to a circuit. It is switched on for 1.0 minute. During that time, there is a
current of 0.40 A in the circuit and the battery supplies a total of 48 J of energy.

Which row gives the charge that passes and the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of the battery?

charge that passes e.m.f. of the


in 1.0 minute / C battery / V

A 0.40 2.0
B 0.40 120
C 24 2.0
D 24 120

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33 Identical cells and identical resistors are used to make the circuits shown.

A A

circuit 1 circuit 2

In circuit 1, the ammeter reads 2.0 A.

What is the ammeter reading in circuit 2?

A 1.0 A B 2.0 A C 4.0 A D 8.0 A

34 The diagram shows a circuit with a fixed resistor connected in series with a thermistor and an
ammeter.

Which row shows how temperature change affects the resistance of the thermistor and the
current in the circuit?

resistance of
temperature current in circuit
thermistor

A decreases decreases increases


B decreases increases decreases
C increases decreases decreases
D increases increases increases

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35 The diagram shows an AND gate and an OR gate connected together.

X
Y

output
Z

Which combination of inputs X, Y and Z gives an output of 0?

X Y Z

A 0 0 1
B 0 1 1
C 1 0 0
D 1 1 0

36 The diagram shows a short-circuited copper coil swinging about an axis at right-angles to a
strong magnetic field. The motion induces a current in the coil.

axis of rotation
of coil

coil
magnetic field

direction of
swing of coil

What is the effect, if any, of this induced current in the coil?

A The induced current has no effect on the movement of the coil because copper is non-
magnetic.
B The induced current produces a magnetic field of constant magnitude in the coil.
C The induced current produces forces that assist the change causing it.
D The induced current produces forces that oppose the changes causing it.

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37 Diagram 1 shows a magnet being pushed into a coil that is connected to a centre-zero
galvanometer.

N
stationary
magnet

S N
0 0 0

N
S

diagram 1 diagram 2 diagram 3

Which row shows the directions of the pointer when the magnet is as shown in diagrams 2
and 3?

diagram 2 diagram 3

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38 Radioactive carbon-14 decays to nitrogen-14 by the emission of a particle.

14 14
6C → 7N + particle

Which particle has been emitted in this process?

A a β-particle

B an α-particle
C a neutron
D a proton

39 As α-particles pass through the electric field between two charged plates, they are deflected
downwards.

+ + + + + + + + +

α-particles

– – – – – – – – –

What happens to γ-rays passing through the same electric field?

A They are deflected downwards more than the α-particles.


B They are deflected upwards.
C They are not deflected at all.

D They follow the same path as the α-particles.

40 Radioactive iodine-131 emits β-particles and has a half-life of 8 days. It decays to produce
xenon-131.

Which statement about this decay is correct?

A After 8 days no more β-particles are emitted.


B After 8 days the number of xenon-131 atoms has halved.
C After 16 days the iodine-131 has decayed completely.
D After 16 days the number of iodine-131 atoms has reduced to one quarter.

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

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Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) February/March 2016
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*5652212684*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 17 printed pages and 3 blank pages.

IB16 03_0625_22/3RP
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1 The diameter of a copper wire is thought to be approximately 0.3 mm.

Which instrument should be used to obtain a more accurate measurement of the diameter of the
wire?

A measuring tape
B metre rule
C micrometer
D ruler

2 Which is a unit of acceleration?

A g / cm3 B m/s C m / s2 D N/m

3 An object is released from rest and falls to Earth. During its fall, the object is affected by air
resistance. The air resistance eventually reaches a constant value.

Which description about successive stages of the motion of the object is correct?

A constant acceleration, then constant deceleration


B constant deceleration, then zero acceleration
C decreasing acceleration, then constant deceleration
D decreasing acceleration, then zero acceleration

4 A concrete post is carried up a very high mountain. At the top of the mountain, the gravitational
field is slightly weaker than at the bottom.

What is the effect of this weaker field on the mass and on the weight of the post at the top of the
mountain?

mass weight

A is less is less
B is less is unchanged
C is unchanged is less
D is unchanged is unchanged

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5 The diagram shows a cuboid block made from a metal of density 2.5 g / cm3.

2.0 cm 10 cm

2.0 cm

What is the mass of the block?

A 8.0 g B 16 g C 50 g D 100 g

6 The diagram shows an object moving at a constant speed in a circular path in the direction
shown.

A force acts on the object to keep it in the circular path.

In which labelled direction does this force act, when the object is in the position shown?

object
A

D B

path of
object

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7 A spring obeys Hooke’s law.

Which graph is obtained by plotting the extension of the spring against the load applied?

A B

extension extension

0 0
0 load 0 load

C D

extension extension

0 0
0 load 0 load

8 Which is the value of a vector quantity?

A 200 V
B 100 kg / m3
C 20 m / s, east

D 50 J / (kg °C)

9 The table gives four energy sources and states whether the energy of the source is derived from
the Sun.

Which row is correct?

source of energy derived from the Sun

A geothermal yes
B oil no
C water held behind a dam yes
D wind no

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10 A weight-lifter raises a 2000 N weight through a vertical height of 2.0 m in 0.80 s.

What useful power does he develop in doing this?

A 800 W B 3200 W C 4000 W D 5000 W

11 A wind turbine generates 54 kW of useful power from an input of 180 kW of wind power.

Which calculation gives the percentage efficiency of the turbine?

A 54 000 %
180 000 × 100

B 180 000 %
54 000 × 100

C 54 000 × 100 %
180 000

D 180 000 × 100 %


54 000

12 A force acts on an area to produce a pressure.

Which changes produce the same pressure?

A double the area and double the force


B double the area and halve the force
C double the area and make the force four times bigger
D halve the area and double the force

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13 Identical toy bricks are placed one on top of another to make a tower on a table.

bricks

tower of bricks

table

Which graph shows the relationship between the pressure P that the tower exerts on the table
and the weight W of the tower?

A B C D
P P P P

0 0 0 0
0 W 0 W 0 W 0 W

14 Gases can be compressed, but liquids cannot.

Which statement explains this difference?

A Each molecule in a gas is more compressible than each molecule in a liquid.


B Molecules in a gas are further apart than molecules in a liquid.
C Molecules in a gas attract each other more strongly than molecules in a liquid.
D Molecules in a gas move more slowly than molecules in a liquid.

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15 The diagram shows a quantity of gas trapped in a cylinder. The piston is pushed in slowly and the
gas is compressed. The temperature of the gas does not change.

gas piston pushed in

piston

Which graph shows the relationship between the pressure and the volume of the gas?

A B

pressure pressure

0 0
0 volume 0 volume

C D

pressure pressure

0 0
0 volume 0 volume

16 Which quantity gives the thermal capacity of a solid object?

A the energy lost by radiation from the object in 1.0 s


B the energy needed to melt the object

C the energy needed to raise the temperature of the object by 1.0 °C


D the total amount of thermal energy in the object

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17 To mark a temperature scale on a thermometer, standard temperatures known as fixed points are
needed.

Which of these is a fixed point on the Celsius scale?

A room temperature
B the temperature inside a freezer
C the temperature of pure melting ice
D the temperature of pure warm water

18 In an experiment, a liquid is heated at a constant rate.

The temperature of the liquid increases and eventually becomes constant.

Which statement about the experiment is correct?

A Boiling occurs at all temperatures but only on the liquid surface.


B Boiling occurs throughout the liquid but only at the constant temperature.
C Evaporation occurs throughout the liquid and at all temperatures.
D Evaporation occurs only at the constant temperature and only on the liquid surface.

19 One end of a copper rod is heated.

What is one method by which thermal energy is transferred in the copper rod?

A Free electrons transfer energy from the cooler end to the hotter end.
B Free electrons transfer energy from the hotter end to the cooler end.
C Molecules of copper move from the cooler end to the hotter end.
D Molecules of copper move from the hotter end to the cooler end.

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20 Two plastic cups are placed one inside the other. A small spacer keeps the two cups separated.

Hot water is poured into the inner cup and a lid is put on top, as shown.

lid

small spacer

small air gap

hot water

bench

Which statement is correct?

A The bench is heated by convection from the bottom of the outer cup.
B The lid reduces the energy lost by convection.
C There is no thermal conduction through the sides of either cup.
D Thermal radiation is prevented by the small air gap.

21 Which is a unit of wavelength?

A hertz
B metre
C metre per second
D second

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22 Which diagram correctly shows a ray of light reflected by a plane mirror?

A B

ray of 40° 50° ray of 50°


light light
50°

C D

ray of 40° ray of 40°


light light
40° 50°

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23 Which diagram shows how a converging lens is used as a magnifying glass?

image
F
A
object F

lens

image
F F
B

object
lens

image
F
C
F
object
lens

object
F F
D

image
lens

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24 A sound wave travels from a point X to a point Y.

X Y

Which diagram represents the movement of the air molecules, due to the sound wave, in the
region between X and Y?

A B C D

25 The speed of sound in air is 340 m / s.

Which row gives typical values for the speed of sound in a liquid and in a solid?

speed of sound in speed of sound in


a liquid / (m / s) a solid / (m / s)

A 250 180
B 250 5000
C 1500 180
D 1500 5000

26 In which pair are both materials magnetic?

A aluminium and copper


B copper and iron
C iron and steel
D steel and aluminium

27 Which methods could be used to demagnetise a magnet?

method 1: place it in an east-west direction and hammer it


method 2: place it in an east-west direction and heat it until it is red hot
method 3: pull it slowly from a coil that is carrying an alternating current
method 4: put it slowly into a coil that is carrying a direct current

A methods 1, 2 and 3
B methods 2, 3 and 4
C methods 1 and 2 only
D methods 3 and 4 only

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28 Which produces an electromotive force (e.m.f.)?

A a battery
B a filament lamp
C a resistor
D a spring balance

29 The table describes four different resistance wires. They are all made from the same metal.

Which wire has the smallest resistance?

length of diameter of
wire / m wire / mm

A 2.0 1.0
B 2.0 1.5
C 3.0 1.0
D 3.0 1.5

30 Which circuit shows the directions of the conventional current I and the flow of electrons?

A B

I electrons I electrons

C D

I electrons I electrons

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31 Four lamps are each labelled 240 V.

In which circuit do all four lamps have normal brightness?

A B

240 V 240 V

C D

240 V 240 V

32 A battery charger plugs into a 230 V a.c. supply. The charger is used to charge a 6.0 V d.c.
battery.

The charger contains diodes and a transformer.

What is the purpose of these components?

diodes transformer

A rectify the a.c. steps down the voltage


B rectify the a.c. steps up the voltage
C step down the voltage rectifies the a.c.
D step up the voltage rectifies the a.c.

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33 The diagram shows a potential divider connected to two voltmeters P and Q.

V voltmeter P

V voltmeter Q

The resistance of the variable resistor is decreased.

Which row shows what happens to the reading on each voltmeter?

reading on reading on
voltmeter P voltmeter Q

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

34 After some building work in a house, a bare (uninsulated) live wire is left protruding from a wall.

What is the greatest hazard?

A a fire
B a fuse blows
C an electric shock
D no current flows

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35 An electron moves into a uniform magnetic field.

The arrow shows the initial direction of motion of the electron.

The direction of the magnetic field is into the plane of the page (away from you).

uniform
magnetic field

electron

In which direction does a force act on the electron when it enters the magnetic field?

A into the page


B out of the page
C towards the bottom of the page
D towards the top of the page

36 The diagram shows an a.c. generator.

rotation
of coil
coil

N S

output voltage

As the coil passes through the position shown, the output voltage is +10 V.

When does the output voltage become –10 V?

A when the coil has turned through 90°

B when the coil has turned through 180°

C when the coil has turned through 270°

D when the coil has turned through 360°

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37 The scattering of α-particles by a thin metal foil supports the nuclear model of an atom.

Why are α-particles used rather than neutrons?

A because they always travel more slowly


B because they are heavier
C because they are larger in diameter
D because they have a positive charge

38 A nucleus of a radioactive substance 218


84 Po undergoes an α-decay followed by a β-decay.

What are the nucleon (mass) number and proton (atomic) number of the nuclide formed after
both decays have happened?

nucleon number proton number

A 214 85
B 216 85
C 214 83
D 216 83

39 A scientist carries out an experiment using a sealed source which emits β-particles. The range of
the β-particles in the air is about 30 cm.

Which precaution is the most effective to protect the scientist from the radiation?

A handling the source with long tongs


B keeping the temperature of the source low
C opening all windows in the laboratory
D washing his hands before leaving the laboratory

40 Which row describes the nature of α-particles and of γ-rays?

α-particles γ-rays

A helium nuclei electromagnetic radiation


B helium nuclei electrons
C protons electromagnetic radiation
D protons electrons

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© UCLES 2016 0625/22/F/M/16


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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2016 0625/22/F/M/16


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Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/21
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2016
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*9170531728*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 18 printed pages and 2 blank pages.

IB16 06_0625_21/2RP
© UCLES 2016 [Turn over

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1 The diagram shows an enlarged drawing of the end of a metre rule. It is being used to measure
the length of a small feather.

10 20 30
mm
cm 1 2 3

What is the length of the feather?

A 19 mm B 29 mm C 19 cm D 29 cm

2 The speed-time graph shown is for a car moving in a straight line.

15
speed
m/s

10

0
0 20 40 60 80
time / s

What is the acceleration of the car when the time is 40 s?

A 0 m / s2 B 15 − 3 m / s2 C 15 m / s2 D (15 – 3) m / s2
40 40

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3 Two runners take part in a race.

The graph shows how the speed of each runner changes with time.

runner 1
speed
runner 2

0
0 t time

What does the graph show about the runners at time t ?

A Both runners are moving at the same speed.


B Runner 1 has zero acceleration.
C Runner 1 is overtaking runner 2.
D Runner 2 is slowing down.

4 A satellite orbits the Earth above the atmosphere at a constant speed.

The diagram shows the satellite at one point in its circular orbit around the Earth.

Which labelled arrow shows the direction of the resultant force on the satellite at the position
shown?

direction of rotation
of satellite

D B
Earth
satellite
C

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5 A cup contains hot liquid.

Some of the liquid evaporates.

What happens to the mass and what happens to the weight of the liquid in the cup?

mass weight

A decreases decreases
B decreases stays the same
C stays the same decreases
D stays the same stays the same

6 The diagrams show three uniform beams P, Q and R, each pivoted at its centre.

The two forces acting on each beam are also shown.

2.0 m 1.0 m
P

4.0 N 4.0 N

4.0 m 2.0 m
Q

2.0 N 5.0 N

2.0 m 4.0 m
R

1.5 N 1.0 N

Which beams rotate clockwise?

A P and Q only
B P and R only
C Q and R only
D P, Q and R

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7 An object of mass 50 kg accelerates from a velocity of 2.0 m / s to a velocity of 10 m / s in the same


direction.

What is the impulse provided to cause this acceleration?

A 250 N s B 400 N s C 850 N s D 2500 N s

8 A scalar quantity has

A magnitude and direction.


B no magnitude and no direction.
C magnitude but no direction.
D direction but no magnitude.

9 Energy is released in some nuclear reactions.

Which nuclear reaction takes place in a nuclear power station, and which nuclear reaction takes
place in the Sun?

nuclear power
the Sun
station

A fission fission
B fission fusion
C fusion fission
D fusion fusion

10 A lorry of mass 4000 kg is travelling at a speed of 4.0 m / s.

A car has a mass of 1000 kg. The kinetic energy of the car is equal to the kinetic energy of the
lorry.

What is the speed of the car?

A 2.0 m / s B 4.0 m / s C 8.0 m / s D 16.0 m / s

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11 A force acts on an object and causes the object to move a certain distance, in the same direction
as the force.

Which row represents a situation in which the largest amount of work is done on the object by the
force?

force / N distance moved / m

A 2.0 40.0
B 10.0 2.0
C 20.0 6.0
D 100.0 1.0

12 A diver under water uses breathing apparatus at a depth where the pressure is 1.25 × 105 Pa.

A bubble of gas breathed out by the diver has a volume of 20 cm3 when it is released. The bubble
moves upwards to the surface of the water.

At the surface of the water, the atmospheric pressure is 1.00 × 105 Pa.

The temperature of the water is the same at all depths.

What is the volume of this bubble when it reaches the surface?

A 15 cm3 B 16 cm3 C 20 cm3 D 25 cm3

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13 The diagram shows a simple mercury barometer.

mercury

X
Y
Z

The atmospheric pressure increases.

Which distance increases?

A VW B WY C XY D XZ

14 Which statement about evaporation is correct?

A Evaporation causes the temperature of the remaining liquid to decrease.


B Evaporation does not occur from a cold liquid near its freezing point.
C Evaporation does not occur from a dense liquid, such as mercury.
D Evaporation occurs from all parts of a liquid.

15 A beaker contains 0.500 kg of water at a temperature of 3.0 °C. The beaker is heated, and the
internal energy of the water increases by 21.0 kJ.

The specific heat capacity of water is 4200 J / (kg °C).

What is the temperature of the water after it has been heated?

A 5.5 °C B 10.0 °C C 13.0 °C D 31.5 °C

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16 A substance loses thermal energy (heat) to the surroundings at a steady rate.

The graph shows how the temperature of the substance changes with time.

temperature
P

0
0 time

What could the portion PQ of the graph represent?

A gas condensing
B gas cooling
C liquid cooling
D liquid solidifying

17 A student wishes to check the upper and the lower fixed points on a Celsius scale thermometer.

–10 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 110 °C

She has four beakers P, Q, R and S.

Beaker P contains a mixture of ice and salt.


Beaker Q contains a mixture of ice and water.
Beaker R contains boiling salt solution.
Beaker S contains boiling water.

Which two beakers should she use to check the fixed points?

A P and R B P and S C Q and R D Q and S

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18 Two otherwise identical cars, one black and one white, are at the same initial temperature. The
cars are left in bright sunshine and their temperatures increase. During the night their
temperatures decrease.

Which car shows the greater rate of temperature increase and which car shows the greater rate
of temperature decrease?

greater rate of greater rate of


temperature temperature
increase decrease

A black black
B black white
C white black
D white white

19 A liquid is heated in a beaker.

liquid

heating

The density of the liquid changes as its temperature increases. This causes energy to be
transferred throughout the liquid.

How does the density change and what is this energy transfer process?

energy transfer
density
process

A decreases conduction
B decreases convection
C increases conduction
D increases convection

20 Sound waves of frequency 2.0 kHz travel through a substance at a speed of 800 m / s.

What is the wavelength of the waves?

A 0.40 m B 2.5 m C 400 m D 1600 m

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21 Which row shows the natures of light waves, sound waves and X-rays?

light waves sound waves X-rays

A longitudinal longitudinal transverse


B longitudinal transverse longitudinal
C transverse longitudinal transverse
D transverse transverse longitudinal

22 The diagram shows light travelling from air into glass.

Four angles v, w, x and y are shown.

normal
light

w
air v
glass y

Which formula is used to calculate the refractive index n of the glass?

sin v sin v sin w sin w


A n= B n= C n= D n=
sin y sin x sin y sin x

23 The diagram shows a converging lens forming an image of an object.

image object
Y

Which statement about the image is correct?

A It is real and can be seen by an eye at X.


B It is real and can be seen by an eye at Y.
C It is virtual and can be seen by an eye at X.
D It is virtual and can be seen by an eye at Y.

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24 A sound wave travels through air as a series of compressions and rarefactions.

Which row correctly compares the air pressure in a compression and the air pressure in a
rarefaction to the air pressure nearby where there is no sound wave?

air pressure in air pressure in


a compression a rarefaction

A higher higher
B higher lower
C lower higher
D lower lower

25 A sound wave has a certain amplitude and a certain frequency.

A second sound wave is quieter and lower in pitch than the first sound wave.

The second wave has

A a larger amplitude and a greater frequency.


B a larger amplitude and a smaller frequency.
C a smaller amplitude and a greater frequency.
D a smaller amplitude and a smaller frequency.

26 What is an electric field?

A a region around a wire carrying an electric current in which a compass needle experiences a
force
B a region in which an electric charge experiences a force
C a region in which an electric charge is attracted by the Earth’s gravity
D a region through which electromagnetic radiation is passing

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27 A negatively charged rod is held close to one side of a metal sphere. The other side of the sphere
is earthed.

Which diagram shows the distribution of charge on the metal sphere?

A B

– + –

– –– – – ––
– – – + –

C D

+ + +
+
– –– – –– +
– + + – +

28 A cell is connected to a lamp, as shown.

– +

A charge of 4.0 C flows through the lamp in 2.0 s.

What is the direction of the electron flow in the lamp and what is the current in the lamp?

direction of electron
current / A
flow in lamp

A from left to right 2.0


B from left to right 8.0
C from right to left 2.0
D from right to left 8.0

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29 The diagrams show four current-voltage graphs.

Which two graphs show the characteristics of an ohmic resistor and of a filament lamp?

W X Y Z

current current current current

0 0 0 0
0 voltage 0 voltage 0 voltage 0 voltage

ohmic filament
resistor lamp

A W Y
B X Y
C W Z
D X Z

30 The four circuits shown all include an a.c. power supply, two diodes and a lamp.

In which circuit is there a rectified current in the lamp?

A B

C D

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31 The diagram shows a combination of logic gates.

input P
(= 0) output X

input Q output Y
(= 1)

Input P is at a logic state 0 (low) and input Q is at a logic state 1 (high).

What are the logic states at output X and at output Y?

output X output Y

A 0 0
B 0 1
C 1 0
D 1 1

32 The diagram shows part of a circuit used to switch street lamps on and off automatically.

LDR

In the evening it gets dark.

Which row shows the effect on the resistance of the light-dependent resistor (LDR) and on the
potential difference (p.d.) across it?

resistance of LDR p.d. across LDR

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

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33 A domestic circuit includes a 30 A fuse. This protects the wiring if there is too much current in the
circuit.

In which wire is the 30 A fuse positioned, and what does it do when it operates?

position operation

A live wire disconnects the circuit


B live wire reduces the current to 30 A
C neutral wire disconnects the circuit
D neutral wire reduces the current to 30 A

34 A strong electromagnet is used to attract pins.

current core

coil
pins

What happens when the current in the coil is halved?

A No pins are attracted.


B Some pins are attracted, but not as many.
C The same number of pins is attracted.
D More pins are attracted.

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35 The diagram shows a transformer.

input output
voltage voltage

primary coil secondary coil


800 turns 40 turns

The input voltage is 240 V.

What is the output voltage?

A 6.0 V B 12 V C 20 V D 40 V

36 The diagram shows a shaded area where the direction of a magnetic field is into the page.

A beam of β-particles enters the field as shown.

magnetic field
into the page

beam of
β-particles

In which direction is the beam of β-particles deflected as they enter the magnetic field?

A into the page


B out of the page
C down the page
D up the page

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37 The arrangement shown is used to check whether the flour inside a cardboard packet is above a
certain level. If it is above this level, the flour absorbs the radiation from the source so that it
doesn’t reach the detector.

radioactive
source detector

flour
cardboard
packet

Which type of radiation is suitable to use?

A α-particles only

B β-particles only

C either α-particles or β-particles

D γ-rays only

243
38 A nucleus of americium 95 Am emits an α-particle to form a nucleus of neptunium (Np).

Which equation represents this decay?


243 247 4
A 95 Am → 97 Np + 2α

243 243 0
B 95 Am → 96 Np + -1 α

243 243 0
C 95 Am → 94 Np + -1 α

243 239 4
D 95 Am → 93 Np + 2α

39 A certain element has several isotopes.

Which statement about these isotopes is correct?

A They must have different numbers of electrons orbiting their nuclei.


B They must have the same number of neutrons in their nuclei.
C They must have the same number of nucleons in their nuclei.
D They must have the same number of protons in their nuclei.

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40 A reading is taken every 10 minutes of the number of emissions per second from a radioactive
source. The table shows the readings.

number of
time / min emissions
per second

0 800
10 560
20 400
30 280
40 200
50 140
60 100

What is the half-life of the source?

A 10 min B 20 min C 40 min D 60 min

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BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2016 0625/21/M/J/16


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BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

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Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2016
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*5762424157*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 16 printed pages.

IB16 06_0625_22/2RP
© UCLES 2016 [Turn over

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1 The diagram shows an enlarged drawing of the end of a metre rule. It is being used to measure
the length of a small feather.

10 20 30
mm
cm 1 2 3

What is the length of the feather?

A 19 mm B 29 mm C 19 cm D 29 cm

2 A car travels along a straight road.

The speed-time graph for this journey is shown.

During which labelled part of the journey is the resultant force on the car zero?

speed

C
B
D

0
0 time

3 A large stone is dropped from a bridge into a river. Air resistance can be ignored.

Which row describes the acceleration and the speed of the stone as it falls?

acceleration speed of
of the stone the stone

A constant constant
B constant increasing
C increasing constant
D increasing increasing

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4 A cup contains hot liquid.

Some of the liquid evaporates.

What happens to the mass and what happens to the weight of the liquid in the cup?

mass weight

A decreases decreases
B decreases stays the same
C stays the same decreases
D stays the same stays the same

5 Below are four statements about acceleration.

Which statement is not correct?

A Acceleration always involves changing speed.


B Changing direction always involves acceleration.
C Changing speed always involves acceleration.
D Circular motion always involves acceleration.

6 The diagram shows a non-uniform beam of weight 120 N, pivoted at one end. The beam is kept in
equilibrium by force F.

20 cm 60 cm

pivot

centre of
mass of beam
weight F
120 N

What is the value of force F?

A 30 N B 40 N C 360 N D 480 N

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7 An object is acted upon by a 3 N force and by a 4 N force.

Each diagram shows the two forces.

Which diagram also shows the resultant X of these two forces?

A B C D

3N 3N 3N
X

4N 4N 4N X
X X 3N

4N

8 The engine of a car produces a driving force of 5000 N on the car. Resistive forces R also act on
the car, as shown.

R 5000 N

The car has a mass of 800 kg and an acceleration of 1.0 m / s2.

What is the value of R?

A 800 N B 4200 N C 5800 N D 8000 N

9 A stone of mass m is held at rest in water. The stone is released and falls vertically a distance h.
The stone reaches a speed v.

Some of the original energy of the stone is transferred to the water. As it falls, resistive forces
cause the temperature of the water and stone to increase.

Which expression gives the work done against the resistive forces?

A 1
2 mv 2

B mgh – 1
2 mv 2

C mgh

D mgh + 1
2 mv 2

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10 Which energy resource does not derive its energy from the Sun?

A geothermal
B hydroelectric
C oil
D waves

11 Some processes are more efficient than others.

Which expression gives the efficiency of a process?

total energy output


A × 100%
total energy input

useful energy output


B × 100%
total energy input

wasted energy output


C × 100%
total energy input

wasted energy output


D × 100%
useful energy output

12 A diver under water uses breathing apparatus at a depth where the pressure is 1.25 × 105 Pa.

A bubble of gas breathed out by the diver has a volume of 20 cm3 when it is released. The bubble
moves upwards to the surface of the water.

At the surface of the water, the atmospheric pressure is 1.00 × 105 Pa.

The temperature of the water is the same at all depths.

What is the volume of this bubble when it reaches the surface?

A 15 cm3 B 16 cm3 C 20 cm3 D 25 cm3

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13 The diagram shows a simple mercury barometer.

mercury

X
Y
Z

The atmospheric pressure increases.

Which distance increases?

A VW B WY C XY D XZ

14 Which statement describes what happens as ice at 0 °C starts to melt to become water?

A Energy is absorbed and the temperature remains constant.


B Energy is absorbed and the temperature rises.
C Energy is released and the temperature remains constant.
D Energy is released and the temperature rises.

15 Smoke particles, illuminated by a bright light, are seen through a microscope. They move about
randomly.

What causes this motion?

A attraction between the smoke particles and the molecules of the air
B collisions between the smoke particles and the molecules of the air
C evaporation of the faster-moving smoke particles
D warming of the smoke particles by the lamp

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16 A liquid is at a temperature below its boiling point.

The liquid is then heated so that it becomes a gas at a temperature above its boiling point.

Which row correctly compares the liquid with the gas?

average distance average speed


between the particles of the particles

A greater in the liquid greater in the liquid


B greater in the liquid smaller in the liquid
C smaller in the liquid greater in the liquid
D smaller in the liquid smaller in the liquid

17 A beaker of liquid is left on a laboratory bench. There is an electric fan in the laboratory causing a
draught over the liquid.

The liquid evaporates.

Which row shows two changes that will both cause the liquid to evaporate more quickly?

change to
change to
surface area
speed of fan
of the liquid

A decrease decrease
B decrease increase
C increase decrease
D increase increase

18 Which processes occur in a metal to cause thermal conduction?

electron proton lattice


transfer transfer vibration

A    key
B    = process occurs

C    = process does not occur

D   

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19 A wooden beam is painted part black and part white. The beam absorbs infra-red radiation from
the Sun during the day, and loses infra-red radiation to the surroundings at night.

wooden beam

Which part of the beam heats up more quickly during the day, and which part cools down more
quickly at night?

part heating up part cooling down


more quickly more quickly

A black black
B black white
C white black
D white white

20 5.0 g of water at 25 °C is dropped onto a large block of ice at 0 °C. The water cools to 0 °C and
some of the ice melts.

Assume that all the energy lost by the water is gained by the ice.

What is the mass of ice that melts?

The specific heat capacity of water is 4.2 J / (g °C).

The specific latent heat of fusion of ice is 340 J / g.

A 0.062 g B 0.087 g C 1.5 g D 10 g

21 The frequency of a wave is doubled. The speed of the wave does not change.

What happens to the wavelength of the wave?

A It becomes four times as large.


B It does not change.
C It doubles.
D It halves.

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22 Which row shows the natures of light waves, sound waves and X-rays?

light waves sound waves X-rays

A longitudinal longitudinal transverse


B longitudinal transverse longitudinal
C transverse longitudinal transverse
D transverse transverse longitudinal

23 The diagram shows light passing from air into glass.

air glass
NOT TO
SCALE
60°
30°
normal

The glass has a refractive index of 1.5.

What is the angle of refraction in the glass?

A 19° B 22° C 35° D 49°

24 Visible light has a frequency of approximately 5.0 × 1014 Hz.

M and N are two other types of electromagnetic radiation.

The frequency of M is 5.0 × 106 Hz.

The frequency of N is 5.0 × 1015 Hz.

Which types of radiation are M and N?

M N

A radio waves infra-red


B radio waves ultraviolet
C ultraviolet X-rays
D X-rays infra-red

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25 The diagram shows a converging lens forming an image of an object.

image object
Y

Which statement about the image is correct?

A It is real and can be seen by an eye at X.


B It is real and can be seen by an eye at Y.
C It is virtual and can be seen by an eye at X.
D It is virtual and can be seen by an eye at Y.

26 A small potential difference V is applied across a filament lamp. The current I in the lamp is
measured. V is increased in stages and I is measured at each stage.

Which graph shows the results obtained?

A B C D
I I I I

0 0 0 0
0 V 0 V 0 V 0 V

27 A resistor of resistance R is connected to a battery of e.m.f. V.

There is a current I in the resistor.

Power P is dissipated by the resistor, and in time t the energy transferred is E.

Which expression is correct?

V
A E = IVt B E = PIt C P = VIR D P=
R

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28 A wire has a certain electrical resistance.

The diameter and length of the wire may be changed.

Which pair of changes must cause the resistance of the wire to increase?

change of change of
diameter length

A decrease decrease
B decrease increase
C increase decrease
D increase increase

29 The four circuits shown all include an a.c. power supply, two diodes and a lamp.

In which circuit is there a rectified current in the lamp?

A B

C D

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30 P and Q are the circuit symbols for two electrical components.

P Q

Which components are represented by P and by Q?

P Q

A thermistor fuse
B thermistor relay
C variable resistor fuse
D variable resistor relay

31 The diagram shows a combination of logic gates.

input P
(= 0) output X

input Q output Y
(= 1)

Input P is at a logic state 0 (low) and input Q is at a logic state 1 (high).

What are the logic states at output X and at output Y?

output X output Y

A 0 0
B 0 1
C 1 0
D 1 1

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32 The diagram shows part of a circuit used to switch street lamps on and off automatically.

LDR

In the evening it gets dark.

Which row shows the effect on the resistance of the light-dependent resistor (LDR) and on the
potential difference (p.d.) across it?

resistance of LDR p.d. across LDR

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

33 A domestic circuit includes a 30 A fuse. This protects the wiring if there is too much current in the
circuit.

In which wire is the 30 A fuse positioned, and what does it do when it operates?

position operation

A live wire disconnects the circuit


B live wire reduces the current to 30 A
C neutral wire disconnects the circuit
D neutral wire reduces the current to 30 A

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34 A strong electromagnet is used to attract pins.

current core

coil
pins

What happens when the current in the coil is halved?

A No pins are attracted.


B Some pins are attracted, but not as many.
C The same number of pins is attracted.
D More pins are attracted.

35 The diagram shows a transformer.

input output
voltage voltage

primary coil secondary coil


800 turns 40 turns

The input voltage is 240 V.

What is the output voltage?

A 6.0 V B 12 V C 20 V D 40 V

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36 The diagram shows a shaded area where the direction of a magnetic field is into the page.

A beam of β-particles enters the field as shown.

magnetic field
into the page

beam of
β-particles

In which direction is the beam of β-particles deflected as they enter the magnetic field?

A into the page


B out of the page
C down the page
D up the page

37 A very important experiment increased scientists’ understanding of the structure of matter.

In the experiment, particles scattered as they passed through a thin metal foil.

Which particles were used, and to which conclusion did the experiment lead?

particles conclusion

A alpha particles matter is made up of atoms


B alpha particles atoms have a very small nucleus
C beta particles matter is made up of atoms
D beta particles atoms have a very small nucleus

38 Below are the symbols for five different nuclides.

35 37 38 81 81
17 X 17 X 18X 35 X 37 X
nuclide 1 nuclide 2 nuclide 3 nuclide 4 nuclide 5

Which two nuclides are isotopes of the same element?

A nuclide 1 and nuclide 2


B nuclide 2 and nuclide 3
C nuclide 2 and nuclide 5
D nuclide 4 and nuclide 5

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39 A radioactive decay can be represented as shown.

233 233
91 Pa → 92 U

The equation is incomplete.

In this decay, the nucleus changes by

A absorbing a neutron.
B absorbing a proton.

C emitting an α-particle.

D emitting a β-particle.

40 The graph shows how the decay rate of a radioactive source changes with time.

4000
decay rate
3000
decays / s

2000

1000

0
0 2 4 6 8 10
time / days

What will be the decay rate at 8 days?

A 0 decays / s
B 125 decays / s
C 250 decays / s
D 500 decays / s

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2016 0625/22/M/J/16


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Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/23
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2016
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*5153628261*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 17 printed pages and 3 blank pages.

IB16 06_0625_23/3RP
© UCLES 2016 [Turn over

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1 The diagram shows an enlarged drawing of the end of a metre rule. It is being used to measure
the length of a small feather.

10 20 30
mm
cm 1 2 3

What is the length of the feather?

A 19 mm B 29 mm C 19 cm D 29 cm

2 An object moves at a constant speed for some time, then begins to accelerate.

Which distance-time graph shows this motion?

A B

distance distance

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

distance distance

0 0
0 time 0 time

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3 A heavy object is released near the surface of the Earth and falls freely. Air resistance can be
ignored.

Which statement about the acceleration of the object due to gravity is correct?

A The acceleration depends on the mass of the object.


B The acceleration depends on the volume of the object.
C The acceleration is constant.
D The acceleration is initially zero and increases as the object falls.

4 A cup contains hot liquid.

Some of the liquid evaporates.

What happens to the mass and what happens to the weight of the liquid in the cup?

mass weight

A decreases decreases
B decreases stays the same
C stays the same decreases
D stays the same stays the same

5 An object moves in a circle at constant speed.

Which statement about the force needed on the object is correct?

A A force away from the centre of the circle keeps the object moving in the circle.
B A force in the direction of motion of the object keeps it moving in the circle.
C A force towards the centre of the circle keeps the object moving in the circle.
D No force is needed to keep the object moving at constant speed in the circle.

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6 A long plank XY lies on the ground. A load of 120 N is placed on it, at a distance of 0.50 m from
end X, as shown.

End Y is lifted off the ground. The upward force needed to do this is 65 N.

load 65 N

X Y

0.50 m 1.5 m 2.0 m ground


120 N W

In the diagram, W is the weight of the plank, acting at its mid-point.

What is the value of W ?

A 35 N B 47 N C 100 N D 133 N

7 Which list contains only vector quantities?

A energy, force, velocity


B speed, acceleration, force
C velocity, energy, acceleration
D velocity, force, acceleration

8 A gas molecule strikes the wall of a container. The molecule rebounds with the same speed.

wall wall
gas molecule gas molecule

before hitting the wall after hitting the wall

What happens to the kinetic energy and what happens to the momentum of the molecule?

kinetic energy momentum

A changes changes
B changes stays the same
C stays the same changes
D stays the same stays the same

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9 Which energy resource does not derive its energy from the Sun?

A hydroelectric
B nuclear fission
C waves
D wind

10 The diagram shows the energy used by a modern lamp.

60 W input of
electrical power

12 W of 48 W of power
useful power wasted in heating
output as light surroundings

Which expression gives the efficiency of the lamp?

12 12 48 48
A × 100% B × 100% C × 100% D × 100%
60 48 60 12

11 Three boxes each weigh 100 N. A man lifts all the boxes together from the ground on to a shelf
that is 1.5 m above the ground. The man takes 2.0 s to do this.

boxes
shelf

1.5 m

How much useful power does the man produce to lift the boxes?

A 75 W B 225 W C 300 W D 900 W

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12 A diver under water uses breathing apparatus at a depth where the pressure is 1.25 × 105 Pa.

A bubble of gas breathed out by the diver has a volume of 20 cm3 when it is released. The bubble
moves upwards to the surface of the water.

At the surface of the water, the atmospheric pressure is 1.00 × 105 Pa.

The temperature of the water is the same at all depths.

What is the volume of this bubble when it reaches the surface?

A 15 cm3 B 16 cm3 C 20 cm3 D 25 cm3

13 The diagram shows a simple mercury barometer.

mercury

X
Y
Z

The atmospheric pressure increases.

Which distance increases?

A VW B WY C XY D XZ

14 What causes the random, zig-zag movement (Brownian motion) of smoke particles suspended in
air?

A air molecules colliding with smoke particles


B convection currents as the hot smoke rises
C smoke particles colliding with each other
D smoke particles reacting with oxygen molecules in the air

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15 A sealed bottle of constant volume contains air.

The air in the bottle is heated by the Sun.

What is the effect on the average speed of the air molecules in the bottle, and the average
distance between them?

average distance
average speed
between air
of air molecules
molecules

A decreases decreases
B decreases stays the same
C increases increases
D increases stays the same

16 The diagram shows a liquid-in-glass thermometer.

glass bulb tube stem

°C
–10 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 110
liquid
liquid thread

How can the thermometer be made more sensitive?

A increase the internal diameter of the tube containing the liquid thread
B increase the internal volume of the glass bulb and the volume of the liquid
C increase the length of the tube and stem
D increase the thickness of the glass in the glass bulb

17 In an experiment to measure specific heat capacity, a block of aluminium is heated and its rise in
temperature is measured.

The amount of energy gained by the block is E. The mass of the block is m. The rise in
temperature of the block is ∆T.

Which expression gives the specific heat capacity of aluminium?

m m ∆T E E ∆T
A B C D
E ∆T E m ∆T m

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18 Which row shows the surface that is the better absorber and the surface that is the better emitter
of infra-red radiation?

better absorber better emitter

A black surface black surface


B black surface white surface
C white surface black surface
D white surface white surface

19 A student suggests some uses for containers made from good thermal conductors and for
containers made from poor thermal conductors.

In which row are both suggested uses correct?

good thermal conductor poor thermal conductor

A keeping a cold liquid at transferring thermal energy


a low temperature quickly from a hot liquid
B keeping a hot liquid at keeping a cold liquid at
a high temperature a low temperature
C transferring thermal energy transferring thermal energy
quickly from a hot liquid quickly to a cold liquid
D transferring thermal energy keeping a hot liquid at
quickly to a cold liquid a high temperature

20 A water wave passes into a region where the wave travels more slowly.

As it passes into the slow region, what happens to the frequency and what happens to the
wavelength of the wave?

frequency wavelength

A decreases remains the same


B increases remains the same
C remains the same decreases
D remains the same increases

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21 Which row shows the natures of light waves, sound waves and X-rays?

light waves sound waves X-rays

A longitudinal longitudinal transverse


B longitudinal transverse longitudinal
C transverse longitudinal transverse
D transverse transverse longitudinal

22 The diagram shows an object in front of a plane mirror. The mirror forms an image of the object.

N object

At which labelled point is the image formed, and which type of image is formed?

where the image


type of image
is formed

A at M real
B at M virtual
C at N real
D at N virtual

23 Light enters a glass block at an angle of incidence of 46°.

The light refracts at an angle of refraction of 26°.

What is the refractive index of the glass?

A 0.57 B 0.61 C 1.64 D 1.77

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24 The diagram shows a converging lens forming an image of an object.

image object
Y

Which statement about the image is correct?

A It is real and can be seen by an eye at X.


B It is real and can be seen by an eye at Y.
C It is virtual and can be seen by an eye at X.
D It is virtual and can be seen by an eye at Y.

25 The sound from a loudspeaker must pass through two materials to reach a microphone.

loudspeaker microphone

material 1 material 2

Which combination of materials gives the shortest time for the sound to reach the microphone?

material 1 material 2

A air hydrogen
B air water
C copper aluminium
D water oil

26 Which range of wave frequencies includes only sounds that can be heard by a human with
normal hearing?

A 3.0 Hz to 300 Hz
B 30 Hz to 3000 Hz
C 300 Hz to 30 000 Hz
D 3000 Hz to 300 000 Hz

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27 Each diagram shows two charged metal plates.

Which diagram shows the pattern and the direction of the electric field between the plates?

A B

– – – – – – – –

+ + + + + + + +

C D

– – – – – – – –

+ + + + + + + +

28 The four circuits shown all include an a.c. power supply, two diodes and a lamp.

In which circuit is there a rectified current in the lamp?

A B

C D

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29 The diagram shows a battery connected to two resistors.

Four students separately measure the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of the battery, the current in
the resistors, and the potential difference (p.d.) across resistor R.

Their results are shown in the table below.

Which row shows values with their correct units?

e.m.f. current p.d.

A 3.0 A 0.30 V 1.5 A


B 3.0 A 0.30 A 1.5 V
C 3.0 V 0.30 V 1.5 A
D 3.0 V 0.30 A 1.5 V

30 A 3.0 Ω resistor and a 6.0 Ω resistor are connected in parallel.

3.0 Ω

6.0 Ω

What is their combined resistance?

A 0.50 Ω B 2.0 Ω C 4.5 Ω D 9.0 Ω

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31 The diagram shows a combination of logic gates.

input P
(= 0) output X

input Q output Y
(= 1)

Input P is at a logic state 0 (low) and input Q is at a logic state 1 (high).

What are the logic states at output X and at output Y?

output X output Y

A 0 0
B 0 1
C 1 0
D 1 1

32 The diagram shows part of a circuit used to switch street lamps on and off automatically.

LDR

In the evening it gets dark.

Which row shows the effect on the resistance of the light-dependent resistor (LDR) and on the
potential difference (p.d.) across it?

resistance of LDR p.d. across LDR

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

© UCLES 2016 0625/23/M/J/16 [Turn over


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33 A domestic circuit includes a 30 A fuse. This protects the wiring if there is too much current in the
circuit.

In which wire is the 30 A fuse positioned, and what does it do when it operates?

position operation

A live wire disconnects the circuit


B live wire reduces the current to 30 A
C neutral wire disconnects the circuit
D neutral wire reduces the current to 30 A

34 A strong electromagnet is used to attract pins.

current core

coil
pins

What happens when the current in the coil is halved?

A No pins are attracted.


B Some pins are attracted, but not as many.
C The same number of pins is attracted.
D More pins are attracted.

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35 The diagram shows a transformer.

input output
voltage voltage

primary coil secondary coil


800 turns 40 turns

The input voltage is 240 V.

What is the output voltage?

A 6.0 V B 12 V C 20 V D 40 V

36 The diagram shows a shaded area where the direction of a magnetic field is into the page.

A beam of β-particles enters the field as shown.

magnetic field
into the page

beam of
β-particles

In which direction is the beam of β-particles deflected as they enter the magnetic field?

A into the page


B out of the page
C down the page
D up the page

© UCLES 2016 0625/23/M/J/16 [Turn over


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37 Below are four statements about isotopes of a certain element.

Which statement about the isotopes must be correct?

A They are radioactive.


B They are unstable.
C They have the same number of neutrons.
D They have the same number of protons.

38 Which diagram represents an experiment that provided evidence for the nuclear atom?

A B

α-particle β-particle

gold gold
nucleus nucleus

C D

α-particle β-particle

gold gold
nucleus nucleus

39 Sodium-24 decays to magnesium-24 according to the following equation.

24 24
Na →
11 12 Mg + emitted particle

What is the emitted particle?

A α-particle

B β-particle
C neutron
D proton

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40 The reading on a detector placed near a radioactive material is 536 counts per second.

The background count rate is 44 counts per second.

The half-life of the radioactive material is 34 hours.

What is the reading on the detector after 68 hours?

A 44 counts per second


B 123 counts per second
C 134 counts per second
D 167 counts per second

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BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2016 0625/23/M/J/16


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BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2016 0625/23/M/J/16


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BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2016 0625/23/M/J/16


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Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/21
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2016
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*2117549282*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 16 printed pages.

IB16 11_0625_21/8RP
© UCLES 2016 [Turn over

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1 The graph shows how the distance travelled by a vehicle changes with time.

S
distance
Q R

P
0
0 time

Which row describes the speed of the vehicle in each section of the graph?

P to Q Q to R R to S

A constant zero constant


B constant zero decreasing
C increasing constant decreasing
D increasing zero constant

2 A stone falls freely from the top of a cliff. Air resistance may be ignored.

Which graph shows how the acceleration of the stone varies with time as it falls?

A B

acceleration acceleration

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

acceleration acceleration

0 0
0 time 0 time

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3 A car travels along a horizontal road in a straight line. The driver presses the accelerator to
increase the speed of the car.

The speed-time graph for the car is shown.

30

speed
m/s
20

10

0
0 5 10 15 20
time / s

What is the acceleration of the car?

A 0.50 m / s2 B 1.00 m / s2 C 1.50 m / s2 D 2.00 m / s2

4 A spaceship approaches the Earth from deep space. Near the Earth, a force on the spaceship
causes it to have weight. This causes it to change its speed and direction.

Which type of force causes the spaceship’s weight, and which property of the spaceship resists
its change in speed and direction?

force that property that resists change in


causes weight speed and direction

A gravitational mass
B gravitational volume
C magnetic mass
D magnetic volume

© UCLES 2016 0625/21/O/N/16 [Turn over


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5 The diagrams show an empty rectangular box, and the same box filled with liquid.

The box has a mass of 60 g when empty. When filled with liquid, the total mass of the box and the
liquid is 300 g.

empty box box filled with liquid


60 g 300 g

The density of the liquid is 1.2 g / cm3.

What is the volume of the liquid in the box?

A 50 cm3 B 200 cm3 C 250 cm3 D 300 cm3

6 An object travels in a circular path at constant speed.

Which statement about the object is correct?

A It has changing kinetic energy.


B It has changing momentum.
C It has constant velocity.
D It is not accelerating.

7 Which diagram shows the magnitude and direction of the resultant R of the two forces F1 and F2?

A B C D
F1 F1 F1 F1

R R
R R

F2 F2 F2 F2

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8 Two cars, P and Q, have different masses and different speeds as shown.

mass mass
1000 kg 500 kg
speed speed
10 m / s 20 m / s

car P car Q

Which row correctly compares the momentum and the kinetic energy of P with the momentum
and the kinetic energy of Q?

momentum kinetic energy

A P greater than Q P equal to Q


B P equal to Q P equal to Q
C P equal to Q P less than Q
D P less than Q P greater than Q

9 A car of mass 800 kg travels over a hill of height h.

hill

h NOT TO
SCALE

By travelling to the top of the hill, the car gains 40 000 J of gravitational potential energy.

The gravitational field strength g is 10 N / kg.

What is the height h of the hill?

A 5.0 m B 20 m C 50 m D 500 m

10 A lamp has a power input of 5.0 W. It wastes 1.0 W of power heating the surroundings.

What is the efficiency of the lamp?

A 20% B 50% C 80% D 120%

11 The box contains the names of eight different energy resources.

natural gas geothermal solar waves


hydroelectric oil wind coal

How many of these energy resources are renewable?

A 3 B 4 C 5 D 6

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12 The diagram shows a dam holding back water.

65 m water
dam

The depth of the water is 65 m.

The density of the water is 1000 kg / m3. The gravitational field strength g is 10 N / kg.

What is the pressure exerted at the base of the dam due to the water?

A 15.4 Pa B 154 Pa C 65 000 Pa D 650 000 Pa

13 Air is trapped in a cylinder by a piston. The original volume of the trapped air is V and the original
pressure of the trapped air is P. The piston is pushed to the left. The temperature of the gas does
not change.

before piston is pushed in after piston is pushed in

piston
cylinder 25 50 25 50

trapped air trapped air

What is the new volume and what is the new pressure of the trapped air?

new volume new pressure


P
A 2V
2
B 2V 2P
V P
C
2 2
V
D 2P
2

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14 When a liquid evaporates, some of its molecules escape from the surface and the temperature of
the liquid changes.

Which row describes the escaping molecules and the change in temperature of the liquid?

temperature of
escaping molecules
the liquid

A less energetic goes down


B less energetic goes up
C more energetic goes down
D more energetic goes up

15 A gas at a constant temperature is in a container of fixed volume. The gas exerts a pressure on
the walls of the container. The pressure is caused by the gas molecules striking the walls.

Which statement about the gas molecules when they strike the walls is correct?

A The average kinetic energy of the gas molecules changes.


B The average momentum of the gas molecules changes.
C The average speed of the gas molecules changes.
D The chemical energy of the gas molecules changes.

16 A piece of melting ice at 0 °C and a beaker of boiling water are both in a laboratory. The
laboratory is at 20 °C.

boiling water

melting ice
Bunsen burner
heating water

What is happening to the temperature of the melting ice and what is happening to the
temperature of the boiling water?

temperature of temperature of
melting ice boiling water

A constant constant
B constant increasing
C increasing constant
D increasing increasing

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17 The diagram shows a liquid-in-glass thermometer.

glass bulb tube stem

°C
–10 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 110
liquid
liquid thread

Which feature would give a thermometer with an increased range?

A a smaller internal diameter of the tube containing the liquid thread


B a thinner glass bulb
C a larger length of the tube and stem
D a larger volume of the liquid

18 A copper container of mass 0.20 kg contains 0.10 kg of water.

The specific heat capacity of copper is 385 J / (kg °C) and the specific heat capacity of water
is 4200 J / (kg °C).

How much energy, in joules, is needed to raise the temperature of the copper container and the
water by 10 °C?

A (0.20 × 385 × 10) – (0.10 × 4200 × 10)

B (0.20 × 385 × 10) + (0.10 × 4200 × 10)


 4200 + 385 
C (0.10 + 0.20) ×   × 10
 2 
D (0.10 + 0.20) × (4200 + 385) × 10

19 The thermal transfer of energy through a copper rod involves electrons.


A second process is also involved.

What is this method of thermal energy transfer, and what is the second process?

method second process

A conduction density change


B conduction lattice vibration
C convection density change
D convection lattice vibration

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20 The diagrams show four spherical objects at the same temperature. Two of the objects are small
and two are large. Two of the objects are white and two are black.

Which object emits infra-red radiation at the greatest rate?

A B C D

21 The diagram represents plane wavefronts being diffracted by passing through a gap in a barrier.

barrier

wavefronts

gap

Which pair of changes must increase the amount of diffraction that occurs?

A decrease the wavelength and decrease the size of the gap


B decrease the wavelength and increase the size of the gap
C increase the wavelength and decrease the size of the gap
D increase the wavelength and increase the size of the gap

22 An image is formed by a plane mirror. A second image is formed by a lens used as a magnifying
glass.

Which row states the nature of each of these images?

plane mirror magnifying glass

A real real
B real virtual
C virtual real
D virtual virtual

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23 Light travelling at a speed of 3.0 × 108 m / s strikes the surface of a glass block and undergoes
refraction as it enters the block.

The diagram shows a ray of this light before and after it enters the block.

55°

glass block

33°

What is the speed of light in the glass?

A 1.8 × 108 m / s

B 2.0 × 108 m / s

C 4.5 × 108 m / s

D 5.0 × 108 m / s

24 Radiation from which part of the electromagnetic spectrum is used in the remote controller for a
television?

A infra-red waves
B microwaves
C radio waves
D ultraviolet waves

25 A girl notices that, when she shouts into a cave, she hears an echo.

Which wave property causes the echo?

A diffraction
B dispersion
C reflection
D refraction

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26 The diagrams represent the displacement in four different sound waves. All the diagrams are
drawn to the same scale.

Which diagram represents the sound with the highest pitch?

A B

displacement displacement

0 time 0 time
0 0

C D

displacement displacement

0 time 0 time
0 0

27 A student suggests three methods for demagnetising a piece of steel.

1 placing it in an east-west direction and hammering it hard


2 placing it in an east-west direction and heating it until red hot
3 removing it slowly from a coil carrying alternating current

Which of the methods will demagnetise the piece of steel?

A 1 only B 2 only C 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

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28 In two separate experiments, a magnet is brought near to an unmagnetised iron bar. This causes
the bar to become magnetised.

experiment 1 N magnet S X iron bar

experiment 2 S magnet N iron bar Y

Which magnetic pole is induced at X and at Y?

pole induced at X pole induced at Y

A N N
B N S
C S N
D S S

29 A polythene rod is rubbed with a cloth. The rod becomes positively charged because of the
movement of charged particles.

Which row gives the name of these charged particles, and the direction in which they move?

charged direction of
particles movement

A electrons from cloth to rod


B electrons from rod to cloth
C protons from cloth to rod
D protons from rod to cloth

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30 The diagram shows a lamp in a circuit.

Which change to the circuit would increase the current in the lamp?

A adding another resistor in parallel with the one in the circuit


B adding another resistor in series with the one in the circuit
C decreasing the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of the battery in the circuit
D moving the lamp to point P in the circuit

31 A 12.0 Ω resistor and a 6.0 Ω resistor are connected in parallel.

Another 6.0 Ω resistor is then connected in series with the parallel combination.

12.0 Ω

6.0 Ω
6.0 Ω

What is the combined resistance of all three resistors?

A 8.0 Ω B 10 Ω C 15 Ω D 24 Ω

32 The circuit shows a 12 V battery connected to a lamp of resistance 3.0 Ω.

12 V

How much energy is transferred to the surroundings by the lamp in 2.0 minutes?

A 48 J B 96 J C 2880 J D 5760 J

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33 The diagram shows a circuit containing a battery, a resistor with high resistance, a switch and a
lamp.

12 V
battery

12 V
resistor lamp

Initially the switch is open.

What happens to the lamp when the switch is closed?

A It glows more brightly.


B It glows less brightly.
C It goes out.
D Its brightness does not change.

34 This is the truth table for a logic gate.

input 1 input 2 output

0 0 1
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0

Which symbol represents the logic gate?

A B C D

35 Why is a fuse used in an electrical circuit?

A so that the current can have only one value


B to prevent the current becoming too large
C to provide a path to earth if a fault occurs
D to save electrical energy

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36 An electric current can produce a heating effect and a magnetic effect.

Which row shows the effect that a relay uses and one application of a relay?

effect used by a relay one application of a relay

A heating effect allowing a small current to switch on a large current


B heating effect changing the voltage of an a.c. supply
C magnetic effect allowing a small current to switch on a large current
D magnetic effect changing the voltage of an a.c. supply

37 A very important experiment improved scientists’ understanding of the structure of matter.

The experiment involved α-particles being fired at a thin gold foil.

What happened?

A All the α-particles were absorbed by the nuclei of the gold atoms.

B All the α-particles were unaffected by the gold atoms.

C Some of the α-particles were attracted by the neutrons in the nuclei of the gold atoms.

D Some of the α-particles were repelled by the protons in the nuclei of the gold atoms.

38 What is meant by nuclear fusion?

A the emission of an electron from a nucleus


B the emission of two protons from a nucleus
C the joining together of two nuclei
D the splitting of a nucleus into two smaller nuclei

39 A nucleus undergoes radioactive decay. The proton number increases by one. The nucleon
number does not change.

Which particle has been emitted in this decay?

A a neutron
B a proton

C an α-particle

D a β-particle

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40 Radioactive source S emits α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays. A detector is placed 5 cm away
from S. A thin sheet of paper is placed as shown in the diagram.

thin sheet of paper

S detector

5 cm

Which emissions from the source can be detected?

A α-particles and β-particles only

B α-particles and γ-rays only

C β-particles and γ-rays only

D α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2016 0625/21/O/N/16


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Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2016
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*0209924104*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 16 printed pages.

IB16 11_0625_22/6RP
© UCLES 2016 [Turn over

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1 The graph shows how the distance travelled by a vehicle changes with time.

S
distance
Q R

P
0
0 time

Which row describes the speed of the vehicle in each section of the graph?

P to Q Q to R R to S

A constant zero constant


B constant zero decreasing
C increasing constant decreasing
D increasing zero constant

2 A stone falls freely from the top of a cliff. Air resistance may be ignored.

Which graph shows how the acceleration of the stone varies with time as it falls?

A B

acceleration acceleration

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

acceleration acceleration

0 0
0 time 0 time

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3 The speed-time graph for an object is shown.

speed X Y
20
m/s

W P
Z
0
0 5 15 25
time / s

Below are four statements about the acceleration of the object.

Which statement is correct?

A The acceleration in the first 5 s is given by area P.


B The acceleration increases between W and X.
C The acceleration is negative between Y and Z.

D The deceleration between Y and Z is (20 ÷ 25) m / s2.

4 An object tends to keep moving with the same speed and in the same direction due to a certain
property.

The object also has weight due to the action of a field.

What is the name of the property, and what is the name of the field?

property field

A mass electric
B mass gravitational
C volume electric
D volume gravitational

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5 A student uses a measuring cylinder and a balance to find the density of oil. The diagram shows
the arrangement used.

empty measuring
measuring cylinder containing
cylinder volume V of oil

oil

m1 m2
g g

Which calculation gives the density of the oil?

A V B V C
m2
D
(m 2 − m1)
m2 (m2 − m1) V V

6 An object travels in a circular path at constant speed.

Which statement about the object is correct?

A It has changing kinetic energy.


B It has changing momentum.
C It has constant velocity.
D It is not accelerating.

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7 The diagrams show a spring and a graph of the length of the spring against the load applied to it.

7
length / cm
6

5
spring
length 4

3
load
2

0
0 20 40 60 80 100
load / N

What is the extension of the spring when a load of 40 N is applied to it?

A 1.5 cm B 2.5 cm C 4.0 cm D 6.5 cm

8 A girl of mass 50 kg runs at 6.0 m / s.

What is her momentum?

A 300 J B 300 kg m / s C 900 J D 900 kg m / s

9 Which list contains only vector quantities?

A acceleration, energy, force, mass


B acceleration, force, momentum, velocity
C distance, energy, mass, speed
D distance, momentum, power, speed

10 Electricity can be generated using different energy resources.

Which energy resource is used to generate electricity without needing any moving parts?

A geothermal
B hydroelectric
C solar
D water waves

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11 A lamp has a power input of 5.0 W. It wastes 1.0 W of power heating the surroundings.

What is the efficiency of the lamp?

A 20% B 50% C 80% D 120%

12 A pendulum bob swings along the path WXYZ and back again.

Resistive forces can be ignored.

pendulum bob
W Z
X Y

Which statement describes the total energy of the bob?

A It has a maximum value at X.


B It has a maximum value at Y.
C It has a maximum value at Z.
D It has the same value at W, X, Y and Z.

13 The equation used to find the pressure caused by a liquid can be written as

p=h×Y×Z

where p is the pressure and h is the depth of the liquid.

Which row gives the quantities Y and Z?

Y Z

A cross-sectional area gravitational field strength


B cross-sectional area volume
C density cross-sectional area
D density gravitational field strength

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14 The diagram shows a gas that is trapped in a cylinder by a piston. The volume of the gas is
120 cm3 and the pressure of the gas is P.

gas piston

The piston is moved slowly to the left so that the volume of the gas is reduced to 30 cm3. The
temperature of the gas does not change.

What is the new pressure of the trapped gas?

P P
A B C P D 4P
4 2

15 A piece of melting ice at 0 °C and a beaker of boiling water are both in a laboratory. The
laboratory is at 20 °C.

boiling water

melting ice
Bunsen burner
heating water

What is happening to the temperature of the melting ice and what is happening to the
temperature of the boiling water?

temperature of temperature of
melting ice boiling water

A constant constant
B constant increasing
C increasing constant
D increasing increasing

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16 A puddle of water is formed after a rain shower on a windy day.

Which statement explains the effect of the wind on the rate of evaporation of the water in the
puddle?

A The wind gives molecules in the water extra kinetic energy and so increases the rate of
evaporation.
B The wind removes evaporated water from near the surface and so decreases the rate of
evaporation.
C The wind removes evaporated water from near the surface and so increases the rate of
evaporation.
D The wind takes energy from molecules near the surface and so decreases the rate of
evaporation.

17 A copper container of mass 0.20 kg contains 0.10 kg of water.

The specific heat capacity of copper is 385 J / (kg °C) and the specific heat capacity of water
is 4200 J / (kg °C).

How much energy, in joules, is needed to raise the temperature of the copper container and the
water by 10 °C?

A (0.20 × 385 × 10) – (0.10 × 4200 × 10)

B (0.20 × 385 × 10) + (0.10 × 4200 × 10)


 4200 + 385 
C (0.10 + 0.20) ×   × 10
 2 
D (0.10 + 0.20) × (4200 + 385) × 10

18 On a very cold day, a boy puts one hand on the metal handlebars of his bicycle. He puts the
other hand on the rubber hand grip.

The metal feels colder than the rubber hand grip, although they are both at the same
temperature.

Why is this?

A The metal has a higher melting point than the rubber.


B The metal has a lower thermal capacity than the rubber.
C The metal is a better thermal conductor than the rubber.
D The metal radiates more infra-red radiation than the rubber.

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19 The diagrams show four spherical objects of the same colour and same type of surface. Two of
the objects are small and two are large. Two of the objects are at the same high temperature and
two are at the same low temperature.

Which object emits infra-red radiation at the greatest rate?

A B C D

high low high low


temperature temperature temperature temperature

20 Which wave has an amplitude equal to half its wavelength?

displacement 1.0
/ cm

A 0
0 1 2 3 4 distance / cm

–1.0

displacement 1.0
/ cm

B 0
0 1 2 3 4 distance / cm

–1.0

displacement 1.0
/ cm

C 0
0 1 2 3 4 distance / cm

–1.0

displacement 1.0
/ cm

D 0
0 1 2 3 4 distance / cm

–1.0

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21 Which diagram shows what happens when plane waves pass the edge of the object shown?

A B

object object

C D

object object

22 An image is formed by a plane mirror. A second image is formed by a lens used as a magnifying
glass.

Which row states the nature of each of these images?

plane mirror magnifying glass

A real real
B real virtual
C virtual real
D virtual virtual

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23 The diagram shows light passing from air into glass. Two angles p and q are marked.

normal

p
air
glass
q

Which pair of equations can both be used to calculate the refractive index n of the glass?

speed of light in air sin p


A n= , n=
speed of light in glass sin q

speed of light in glass sin p


B n= , n=
speed of light in air sin q

speed of light in air sin q


C n= , n=
speed of light in glass sin p

speed of light in glass sin q


D n= , n=
speed of light in air sin p

24 Which part of the electromagnetic spectrum is used to send television signals from a satellite to
Earth?

A infra-red
B microwaves
C ultraviolet
D visible light

25 A girl notices that, when she shouts into a cave, she hears an echo.

Which wave property causes the echo?

A diffraction
B dispersion
C reflection
D refraction

© UCLES 2016 0625/22/O/N/16 [Turn over


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26 Which property of a sound wave affects the loudness of the sound?

A amplitude
B frequency
C speed
D wavelength

27 In two separate experiments, a magnet is brought near to an unmagnetised iron bar. This causes
the bar to become magnetised.

experiment 1 N magnet S X iron bar

experiment 2 S magnet N iron bar Y

Which magnetic pole is induced at X and at Y?

pole induced at X pole induced at Y

A N N
B N S
C S N
D S S

28 A student suggests three methods for demagnetising a piece of steel.

1 placing it in an east-west direction and hammering it hard


2 placing it in an east-west direction and heating it until red hot
3 removing it slowly from a coil carrying alternating current

Which of the methods will demagnetise the piece of steel?

A 1 only B 2 only C 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

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29 The diagram shows a lamp in a circuit.

Which change to the circuit would increase the current in the lamp?

A adding another resistor in parallel with the one in the circuit


B adding another resistor in series with the one in the circuit
C decreasing the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of the battery in the circuit
D moving the lamp to point P in the circuit

30 The diagram shows a circuit.

The reading on the ammeter is 12 A.

How much charge passes through the ammeter in 2.0 minutes?

A 0.10 C B 6.0 C C 24 C D 1440 C

31 A copper wire has a resistance of 2.0 Ω.

A second copper wire is twice as long as the first wire, and its diameter is twice the diameter of
the first wire.

What is the resistance of the second wire?

A 1.0 Ω B 2.0 Ω C 8.0 Ω D 16.0 Ω

© UCLES 2016 0625/22/O/N/16 [Turn over


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32 Which combination of resistors in parallel has an effective resistance of 0.50 Ω?

A B

1.0 Ω 2.0 Ω

1.0 Ω 2.0 Ω

C D

1.0 Ω 4.0 Ω

3.0 Ω 4.0 Ω

33 In the circuit shown, the voltmeter reads 2.0 V. A charge of 5.0 C passes through the resistor in a
certain time.

How much energy is supplied to the resistor in this time?

A 0.40 J B 2.5 J C 10 J D 20 J

34 Two NAND gates are connected together as shown.

input 1
output
input 2

The arrangement acts like a single logic gate.

What is the name of this single logic gate?

A AND B NOR C NOT D OR

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35 An electric kettle has a metal casing. The cable for the kettle contains a wire that is connected to
the earth pin of the plug.

Which danger does this guard against?

A the cable to the kettle becoming too hot


B the casing of the kettle becoming live
C the casing of the kettle becoming wet on the outside
D the casing of the kettle overheating

36 An electric current can produce a heating effect and a magnetic effect.

Which row shows the effect that a relay uses and one application of a relay?

effect used by a relay one application of a relay

A heating effect allowing a small current to switch on a large current


B heating effect changing the voltage of an a.c. supply
C magnetic effect allowing a small current to switch on a large current
D magnetic effect changing the voltage of an a.c. supply

37 What happens in the process of nuclear fission?

A electrons are added to a nucleus


B electrons are removed from a nucleus
C the nucleus of an atom splits
D two atomic nuclei join together

38 A β-particle enters a uniform magnetic field directed out of the page.

uniform
β-particle magnetic field
out of the page

In which direction is the β-particle deflected by the field?

A towards the top of the page


B into the page
C out of the page
D towards the bottom of the page

© UCLES 2016 0625/22/O/N/16 [Turn over


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214
39 The radioactive nucleus 83 Bi decays to another nucleus by the emission of a β-particle.

What is the proton number and what is the nucleon number of the nucleus formed by this decay?

proton number nucleon number

A 81 210
B 81 212
C 84 213
D 84 214

40 Radioactive source S emits α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays. A detector is placed 5 cm away
from S. A thin sheet of paper is placed as shown in the diagram.

thin sheet of paper

S detector

5 cm

Which emissions from the source can be detected?

A α-particles and β-particles only

B α-particles and γ-rays only

C β-particles and γ-rays only

D α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2016 0625/22/O/N/16


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Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

PHYSICS 0625/23
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) October/November 2016
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*5649030721*

Soft pencil (type B or HB recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 18 printed pages and 2 blank pages.

IB16 11_0625_23/6RP
© UCLES 2016 [Turn over

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2

1 The graph shows how the distance travelled by a vehicle changes with time.

S
distance
Q R

P
0
0 time

Which row describes the speed of the vehicle in each section of the graph?

P to Q Q to R R to S

A constant zero constant


B constant zero decreasing
C increasing constant decreasing
D increasing zero constant

2 A stone falls freely from the top of a cliff. Air resistance may be ignored.

Which graph shows how the acceleration of the stone varies with time as it falls?

A B

acceleration acceleration

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

acceleration acceleration

0 0
0 time 0 time

© UCLES 2016 0625/23/O/N/16


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3

3 The speed-time graph for an object is shown.

speed X Y
10
m/s

W
Z
0
0 10 30 50
time / s

Below are four statements about the acceleration of the object.

Which statement is true?

A The acceleration in the first 10 s is (10 ÷ 10) m / s2.


B The acceleration increases between W and X.
C The acceleration decreases between Y and Z.

D The deceleration between Y and Z is (10 ÷ 50) m / s2.

4 An astronaut on the Moon weighs less than on Earth.

What is the reason for this difference, and how does his mass on the Moon compare with his
mass on Earth?

reason for weight difference mass on Moon


the Moon has a weaker
A less than on Earth
gravitational field
the Moon has a weaker
B same as on Earth
gravitational field
the Moon has a weaker
C less than on Earth
magnetic field
the Moon has a weaker
D same as on Earth
magnetic field

© UCLES 2016 0625/23/O/N/16 [Turn over


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5 The diagrams show an empty container, and the same container filled with liquid.

The empty container has a mass of 120 g. When filled with the liquid, the total mass of the
container and the liquid is 600 g.

empty container container filled with liquid


120 g 600 g

The volume of liquid in the container is 600 cm3.

What is the density of the liquid?

A 0.020 g / cm3 B 0.80 g / cm3 C 1.0 g / cm3 D 1.2 g / cm3

6 An object travels in a circular path at constant speed.

Which statement about the object is correct?

A It has changing kinetic energy.


B It has changing momentum.
C It has constant velocity.
D It is not accelerating.

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7 Different loads are hung on a spring. The diagram shows the length of the spring with and without
the loads attached.

20 cm

40 cm

65 cm

200 N

400 N

What is the extension of the spring when the load is 400 N?

A 5 cm B 25 cm C 40 cm D 45 cm

8 A vehicle of mass 900 kg is travelling with a velocity of 20 m / s.

What is the momentum of the vehicle?

A 45 kg m / s B 450 kg m / s C 18 000 kg m / s D 180 000 kg m / s

9 Which list contains only scalar quantities?

A acceleration, energy, force, mass


B acceleration, force, momentum, velocity
C distance, energy, mass, speed
D distance, momentum, speed, velocity

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10 A ball is dropped onto a floor.

Its speed just before hitting the floor is 3.0 m / s.

Which change would result in a speed of 6.0 m / s just before hitting the floor?

Ignore any effects due to air resistance.

A Drop the ball from double the height above the floor.
B Drop the ball from four times the height above the floor.
C Use a ball with double the mass.
D Use a ball with four times the mass.

11 Which list contains only energy resources that derive their energy from the Sun?

A geothermal, nuclear, tidal


B hydroelectric, water waves, wind
C geothermal, hydroelectric, solar
D nuclear, solar, water waves

12 A lamp has a power input of 5.0 W. It wastes 1.0 W of power heating the surroundings.

What is the efficiency of the lamp?

A 20% B 50% C 80% D 120%

13 A container is filled with liquid to a certain depth h.

container
h
liquid

The pressure of the liquid at the bottom of the container depends on several factors.

Which is one factor on which the pressure does not depend?

A the strength of the Earth’s gravitational field


B the density of the liquid
C the depth of the liquid
D the strength of the Earth’s magnetic field

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14 Which diagram best represents the movement of a smoke particle displaying Brownian motion?

A B

smoke smoke
particle particle

C D

smoke
particle

smoke
particle

15 The volume of a gas is measured at different pressures.

The pressure p and the volume V of the gas are found to be related by the equation:

pV = constant.

Which quantities are kept constant and which quantities change?

density of gas mass of gas temperature of gas

A    key
B    = constant
C    = changed
D   

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16 A piece of melting ice at 0 °C and a beaker of boiling water are both in a laboratory. The
laboratory is at 20 °C.

boiling water

melting ice
Bunsen burner
heating water

What is happening to the temperature of the melting ice and what is happening to the
temperature of the boiling water?

temperature of temperature of
melting ice boiling water

A constant constant
B constant increasing
C increasing constant
D increasing increasing

17 A scientist has two thermometers available: a liquid-in-glass thermometer and a thermocouple


thermometer.

Which thermometer is better for measuring a very high temperature, and which thermometer is
better for measuring a rapidly varying temperature?

very high temperature rapidly varying temperature

A liquid-in-glass liquid-in-glass
B liquid-in-glass thermocouple
C thermocouple liquid-in-glass
D thermocouple thermocouple

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18 A copper container of mass 0.20 kg contains 0.10 kg of water.

The specific heat capacity of copper is 385 J / (kg °C) and the specific heat capacity of water
is 4200 J / (kg °C).

How much energy, in joules, is needed to raise the temperature of the copper container and the
water by 10 °C?

A (0.20 × 385 × 10) – (0.10 × 4200 × 10)

B (0.20 × 385 × 10) + (0.10 × 4200 × 10)


 4200 + 385 
C (0.10 + 0.20) ×   × 10
 2 
D (0.10 + 0.20) × (4200 + 385) × 10

19 The diagrams show four spherical objects of the same size. Two of the objects are white and two
are black. Two of the objects are at the same high temperature and two are at the same low
temperature.

Which object emits infra-red radiation at the greatest rate?

A B C D

high high low low


temperature temperature temperature temperature

20 A man is talking at the side of a house. He can be heard by a woman at the front of the house
even though she cannot see him.

What is the explanation for this?

A Sound waves are longitudinal and light waves are transverse.


B Sound waves are transverse and light waves are longitudinal.
C The sound waves have a long wavelength and the light waves have short wavelength.
D The sound waves have a short wavelength and the light waves have long wavelength.

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21 An image is formed by a plane mirror. A second image is formed by a lens used as a magnifying
glass.

Which row states the nature of each of these images?

plane mirror magnifying glass

A real real
B real virtual
C virtual real
D virtual virtual

22 The speed of light in air is 3.0 × 108 m / s.

The critical angle for light in a transparent plastic material placed in air is 37°.

What is the speed of light in the plastic material?

A 1.8 × 108 m / s

B 2.4 × 108 m / s

C 3.8 × 108 m / s

D 5.0 × 108 m / s

23 Which description applies to infra-red radiation?

A longitudinal and electromagnetic


B longitudinal but not electromagnetic
C transverse and electromagnetic
D transverse but not electromagnetic

24 A girl notices that, when she shouts into a cave, she hears an echo.

Which wave property causes the echo?

A diffraction
B dispersion
C reflection
D refraction

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25 A man stands 110 m from a high wall. He makes a short, sharp sound and then hears an echo
from the wall.

The speed of sound in air is 330 m / s.

How long after making the sound does the man hear the echo?

A 0.33 s B 0.67 s C 1.5 s D 3.0 s

26 A student suggests three methods for demagnetising a piece of steel.

1 placing it in an east-west direction and hammering it hard


2 placing it in an east-west direction and heating it until red hot
3 removing it slowly from a coil carrying alternating current

Which of the methods will demagnetise the piece of steel?

A 1 only B 2 only C 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

27 In two separate experiments, a magnet is brought near to an unmagnetised iron bar. This causes
the bar to become magnetised.

experiment 1 N magnet S X iron bar

experiment 2 S magnet N iron bar Y

Which magnetic pole is induced at X and at Y?

pole induced at X pole induced at Y

A N N
B N S
C S N
D S S

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28 A student holds a rod in his hand.

cloth

hand
rod

He rubs the rod with a cloth. The rod gains a positive charge.

Of which material could the rod be made, and which transfer of charge has happened?

material of rod transfer of charge

A metal negative charge from rod to cloth


B metal positive charge from cloth to rod
C plastic negative charge from rod to cloth
D plastic positive charge from cloth to rod

29 The diagram shows a lamp in a circuit.

Which change to the circuit would increase the current in the lamp?

A adding another resistor in parallel with the one in the circuit


B adding another resistor in series with the one in the circuit
C decreasing the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of the battery in the circuit
D moving the lamp to point P in the circuit

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30 The graph shows the relationship between the current in a circuit component and the potential
difference (p.d.) across it. The graph has a straight section and a curved section.

current

0
0 p.d.

What happens to the resistance of the component in these two sections as the current increases?

straight section curved section

A resistance increases resistance decreases


B resistance increases resistance increases
C no change in resistance resistance decreases
D no change in resistance resistance increases

31 In the circuit shown there is a current of 10 A.

How much charge passes through the resistor in 2.0 minutes?

A 0.083 C B 5C C 20 C D 1200 C

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32 The four circuits shown each contain four diodes.

In which circuit is the direction of the current in the resistor always from the red terminal to the
black terminal?

A B

12 V 12 V

red black red black


terminal terminal terminal terminal

C D

12 V 12 V

red black red black


terminal terminal terminal terminal

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33 The diagram shows a potential divider.

6V

0V

When brighter light falls on the light-dependent resistor (LDR), its resistance changes.

What happens to the resistance of the LDR and what happens to the current in it?

resistance of LDR current in LDR

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

34 The diagram shows two logic gates connected together.

low (0) P Q
low (0)

The two inputs are both low (0).

What are the logic states at P and at Q?

P Q

A high (1) high (1)


B high (1) low (0)
C low (0) high (1)
D low (0) low (0)

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35 Two electrical appliances are connected to the mains supply.

The cable connected to one appliance includes an earth wire.

The cable connected to the second appliance does not need an earth wire.

What is a reason for this difference?

A One appliance has a metal case, but the other appliance does not.
B One appliance is fitted with a fuse, but the other appliance is not.
C One appliance is fitted with a switch, but the other appliance is not.
D One appliance needs more current than the other appliance.

36 An electric current can produce a heating effect and a magnetic effect.

Which row shows the effect that a relay uses and one application of a relay?

effect used by a relay one application of a relay

A heating effect allowing a small current to switch on a large current


B heating effect changing the voltage of an a.c. supply
C magnetic effect allowing a small current to switch on a large current
D magnetic effect changing the voltage of an a.c. supply

37 Which particle is absorbed by a nucleus to cause nuclear fission?

A a neutron
B a proton

C an α-particle

D a β-particle

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38 An α-particle enters a uniform magnetic field directed out of the page.

uniform
magnetic field
out of the page

α-particle

In which direction is the α-particle deflected by the field?

A into the page


B out of the page
C to the left
D to the right

39 Radioactive source S emits α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays. A detector is placed 5 cm away
from S. A thin sheet of paper is placed as shown in the diagram.

thin sheet of paper

S detector

5 cm

Which emissions from the source can be detected?

A α-particles and β-particles only

B α-particles and γ-rays only

C β-particles and γ-rays only

D α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays

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40 Uranium-238 is radioactive and decays to thorium-234 by the emission of a particle.

238 234
92 U → 90 Th + particle

Which particle is emitted in this process?

A an α-particle

B a β-particle
C a neutron
D a proton

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BLANK PAGE

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BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

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Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education
*0123456789*

PHYSICS 0625/02
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) For Examination from 2016
SPECIMEN PAPER
45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2)

The syllabus is accredited for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 23 printed pages and 1 blank page.

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1 Which quantity is measured in newton seconds (N s)?

A impulse
B moment
C power
D work done

2 Which measurement can be made using a micrometer screw gauge?

A the air pressure of a tyre


B the diameter of a wire
C the turning effect of a spanner
D the wavelength of microwaves

3 A parachutist is falling at terminal velocity, without her parachute open.

She now opens her parachute.

What is the direction of her motion, and what is the direction of her acceleration, immediately
after she opens her parachute?

direction of motion of direction of acceleration


the parachutist of the parachutist

A downwards downwards
B downwards upwards
C upwards downwards
D upwards upwards

4 An astronaut in an orbiting spacecraft experiences a force due to gravity. This force is less than
when she is on the Earth’s surface.

Compared with being on the Earth’s surface, how do her mass and her weight change when she
goes into orbit?

mass in orbit weight in orbit

A decreases decreases
B decreases unchanged
C unchanged decreases
D unchanged unchanged

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5 The diagram shows an experiment to find the density of a liquid.

cm3 cm3
50 50
40 measuring 40
cylinder
30 30
liquid
20 20
10 balance 10

g g

What is the density of the liquid?

A 0.5 g / cm3 B 2.0 g / cm3 C 8.0 g / cm3 D 10.0 g / cm3

6 An experiment is carried out to measure the extension of a rubber band for different loads.

The results are shown below.

load / N 0 1.0 2.0 3.0


length / cm 15.2 16.2 18.6
extension / cm 0 1.0 2.1 3.4

Which figure is missing from the table?

A 17.2 B 17.3 C 17.4 D 17.6

7 The diagram shows a satellite that is moving at a uniform rate in a circular orbit around the Earth.

Which statement describes the motion of this satellite?

A It is accelerating because its speed is changing.


B It is accelerating because its velocity is changing.
C It is not accelerating but its speed is changing.
D It is not accelerating but its velocity is changing.

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8 Which statement about an object moving in a straight line through air is correct?

A When it accelerates, the resultant force acting on it is zero.


B When it moves at a steady speed, the air resistance acting on it is zero.
C When it moves at a steady speed, the resultant force acting on it is zero.
D When it moves, there is a resultant force acting on it.

9 A beam pivoted at one end has a force of 5.0 N acting vertically upwards on it as shown. The
beam is in equilibrium.

5.0 N

2.0 cm 3.0 cm

pivot

weight
of beam

What is the weight of the beam?

A 2.0 N B 3.0 N C 3.3 N D 5.0 N

10 A car has a mass of 1000 kg and a momentum of 12 000 kg m / s.

What is its kinetic energy?

A 6 kJ
B 12 kJ
C 72 kJ
D 144 kJ

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11 Which diagram shows two forces X and Y with their resultant force?

resultant

resultant
Y
X Y

X
A B

resultant

resultant

Y X
Y

C D

12 A ball is dropped on to a hard surface and bounces. It does not bounce all the way back to where
it started, and so has not regained all of its original gravitational potential energy.

ball dropped
from here
ball bounces
to here

hard surface

Which statement accounts for the loss of gravitational potential energy?

A Energy was destroyed as the ball hit the ground.


B Energy was destroyed as the ball travelled through the air.
C The chemical energy and elastic energy of the ball have increased.
D The internal (heat) energy of the ball and its surroundings has increased.

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13 The Sun is the original source of energy for many of our energy resources.

Which energy resource does not originate from the Sun?

A geothermal
B hydroelectric
C waves
D wind

14 A dam across a lake is divided into two sections by a rock. Section X is longer than section Y but
the two sections are otherwise identical. The water in the lake by the dam is the same depth
everywhere. The diagram shows a view from above of the lake and the dam.

section X of dam

water in
lake
rock

section Y of dam

The water creates a total force on each section of the dam and an average pressure on each
section of the dam.

Which statement is correct?

A The average pressure on X equals the average pressure on Y.


B The average pressure on X is less than the average pressure on Y.
C The total force on X equals the total force on Y.
D The total force on X is less than the total force on Y.

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15 The diagram shows a simple mercury barometer alongside a mercury manometer. The
manometer contains some trapped gas.
cm
90
vacuum
80

70
trapped
gas
60

50

76 cm 40
mercury
30

20

10

What is the pressure of the trapped gas?

A 10 cm of mercury
B 50 cm of mercury
C 66 cm of mercury
D 86 cm of mercury

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16 Very small pollen grains are suspended in a beaker of water. A bright light shines from the side.

Small, bright dots of light are seen through a microscope. The dots move in rapidly changing,
random directions.

eye

microscope

light

pollen grains
in water

What are the bright dots?

A pollen grains being hit by other pollen grains


B pollen grains being hit by water molecules
C water molecules being hit by other water molecules
D water molecules being hit by pollen grains

17 A sealed gas cylinder is left outside on a hot, sunny day.

What happens to the average speed of the gas molecules and to the pressure of the gas in the
cylinder as the temperature of the gas rises?

average speed of pressure of gas in


gas molecules cylinder

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

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18 The diagram shows four beakers A, B, C and D. The beakers contain different amounts of the
same liquid at the same temperature. The beakers are left next to each other on a laboratory
bench overnight. The diagrams are all drawn to the same scale.

From which beaker does the largest quantity of liquid evaporate?

A B C D

19 Which line in the table shows the relative expansion of the three states of matter from the most
expansion to the least expansion?

most expansion least expansion

A solids > liquids > gases


B solids > gases > liquids
C gases > liquids > solids
D gases > solids > liquids

20 The diagram shows a liquid-in-glass thermometer.

glass bulb stem

–10 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 110 °C

liquid liquid
thread

Which two features both affect the sensitivity of the thermometer?

A mass of liquid and diameter of liquid thread


B mass of liquid and length of stem
C thickness of glass bulb and diameter of liquid thread
D thickness of glass bulb and length of stem

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21 A student wishes to calculate the specific heat capacity of copper.

He has a block of copper and an electrical heater. He knows the power of the heater.

Which other apparatus does he need?

balance stop watch thermometer

A    key
B     = needed
C     = not needed
D   

22 A mass of 0.20 kg of a substance is initially solid.

It is heated at a steady rate of 500 W.

The graph shows how the temperature of the substance changes with time.

temperature
/ °C

0
0 100 300 time / s

What is the specific latent heat of fusion of the substance?

A 20 000 J / kg
B 30 000 J / kg
C 500 000 J / kg
D 750 000 J / kg

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23 The diagram shows some ice being used to lower the temperature of some warm water.

ice

warm water
glass

What is the main process by which the water at the bottom of the glass becomes cool?

A condensation
B conduction
C convection
D radiation

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24 The diagrams show water waves that move more slowly after passing into shallow water.

Which diagram shows what happens to the waves?

A B
fast slow fast slow

deep shallow deep shallow


water water water water

C D
fast slow fast slow

deep shallow deep shallow


water water water water

25 The diagram shows a ray of monochromatic light passing through a semi-circular glass block.

50° ray emerges in air


close to glass
surface

incident reflected
ray glass ray
air

What is the refractive index of the glass?

A 0.64 B 0.77 C 1.31 D 1.56

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26 An object O is placed close to a thin converging lens.

The diagram represents three rays from the top of O passing through the lens.

Which type of image is produced by the lens when the object O is in this position?

A real and diminished


B real and enlarged
C virtual and diminished
D virtual and enlarged

27 An echo-sounder on a ship produces a pulse of sound. The echo is received by the echo-sounder
after two seconds.

ship

echo-sounder

sea bed

The speed of sound in sea-water is 1500 m / s.

What is the depth of the sea-water below the ship?

A 750 m B 1500 m C 3000 m D 6000 m

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28 The diagram shows apparatus that can be used to make a magnet.

power supply

metal

coil

Which metal and which power supply are used to make a permanent magnet?

metal power supply

A iron 6 V a.c.
B iron 6 V d.c.
C steel 6 V a.c.
D steel 6 V d.c.

29 A positively charged plastic rod is placed just above a thick metal plate. The metal plate rests on
an insulator and is connected to the earth by a wire.

positive rod metal plate

+ + + + + +
earthing wire

insulator

A student disconnects the earthing wire and then removes the positively charged rod.

The experiment is repeated. This time the student removes the positively charged rod and then
removes the earthing wire.

Which statement is correct?

A When the earthing wire is disconnected first, the metal plate becomes positively charged.
B When the earthing wire is disconnected first, the metal plate becomes negatively charged.
C When the plastic rod is removed first, the metal plate becomes positively charged.
D When the plastic rod is removed first, the metal plate becomes negatively charged.

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30 The resistance of a wire depends on its length l and on its cross-sectional area A.

The resistance is

A directly proportional to l and directly proportional to A.


B directly proportional to l and inversely proportional to A.
C inversely proportional to l and directly proportional to A.
D inversely proportional to l and inversely proportional to A.

31 In the circuit shown, the ammeter reads 2.0 A and the voltmeter reads 12 V.

12 V

6.0 Ω

How much energy is transferred by the resistor in 10 seconds?

A 2.4 J
B 14.4 J
C 240 J
D 1440 J

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32 The diagram shows part of an electrical circuit.

3.0 A 4.0 Ω

A
2.0 Ω

The current in the 4.0 Ω resistor is 3.0 A.

What is the current in the ammeter?

A 4.5 A
B 6.0 A
C 9.0 A
D 12.0 A

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33 The circuit diagram shows a thermistor in a potential divider. A voltmeter is connected across the
thermistor.

The graph shows how the resistance of the thermistor changes with temperature.

resistance

temperature

As the thermistor becomes warmer, what happens to its resistance and what happens to the
reading on the voltmeter?

resistance voltmeter reading

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

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34 A circuit-breaker is designed to protect a circuit which usually carries a current of 2 A.

The time taken to break the circuit depends on the current, as shown in the graph.

160
time taken
140
to break the
circuit / s 120
100
80
60
40
20
0
0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 18 20

current / A

What happens when the current in the circuit is 2 A and what happens when the current is 18 A?

when the current is 2 A when the current is 18 A

A the circuit breaks in less than 5 seconds the circuit breaks in less than 5 seconds
B the circuit breaks in less than 5 seconds the circuit does not break
C the circuit does not break the circuit breaks in less than 5 seconds
D the circuit does not break the circuit does not break

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35 A solenoid is connected in series with a sensitive ammeter. The N pole of a magnet is placed
next to one end of the solenoid, marked X.

solenoid

N X

magnet

First, the N pole of the magnet is pushed towards X, then the magnet is pulled away from X.
During both stages the ammeter deflects.

Which type of magnetic pole is induced at X during these two stages?

as N pole moves as N pole moves away


towards X from X

A N pole N pole
B N pole S pole
C S pole N pole
D S pole S pole

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36 The diagram shows a transformer.

soft-iron core

primary secondary
coil coil

Which row describes the magnetic field in the soft-iron core and the magnetic field in the
secondary coil when the transformer is operating?

magnetic field
in soft-iron core in secondary coil

A changing changing
B changing constant
C constant changing
D constant constant

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37 The graph shows the output of an a.c. generator. The coil in the generator rotates 20 times in one
second.

+1
output
p.d. / V 0
0 0.05 0.10 time / s
–1

The speed of rotation of the coil steadily increases.

Which graph best shows how the output changes?

+1
output
A p.d. / V 0
0 0.05 0.10 time / s
–1

+1
output
B p.d. / V 0
0 0.05 0.10 time / s
–1

+2
output
p.d. / V
+1

C 0
0 0.05 0.10 time / s
–1

–2

+2
output
p.d. / V
+1

D 0
0 0.05 0.10 time / s
–1

–2

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38 The diagram shows a wire placed between two magnetic poles of equal strength.

A current passes through the wire in the direction shown. The current causes a downward force
on the wire.

wire

direction
of force
direction
of current

What is the arrangement of the magnetic poles?

S N
A

N S
B

N N
C

S S
D

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39 A beam of γ-rays passes between two charged metal plates as shown in the diagram.

γ-rays

How do the γ-rays pass between the two charged plates?

A The rays are deflected in a direction perpendicular to the page


B The rays are deflected towards the negative plate.
C The rays are deflected towards the positive plate.
D The rays will continue in the same direction.

40 A powder contains 400 mg of a radioactive isotope that emits α-particles.

The half-life of the isotope is 5 days.

What mass of this isotope remains after 10 days?

A 0 mg B 40 mg C 100 mg D 200 mg

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BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

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