Question 1

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What today's network design would contain the scope of disruptions on a network should a
failure occur?

Select one:
a. The deployment of distribution layer switches in pairs and the division of access layer
switch connections between them
b. The reduction in the number of redundant devices and connections in the network core
c. The installation of only enterprise class equipment throughout the network
d. The configuration of all access layer devices to share a single gateway

Question 2
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Which among the listed below is a characteristic of in-band device management as

discussed in this chapter?

Select one:
a. It uses a terminal emulation client.
b. It is used to monitor and make configuration changes to a network device over a network
connection.
c. It is used for initial configuration or when a network connection is unavailable.
d. It uses a direct connection to a console or AUX port.

Question 3
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In network troubleshooting, which command can be issued on a router to verify that

automatic summarization is enabled?

Select one:
a. show ip protocols
b. show ip eigrp neighbors
c. show ip interface brief
d. show ip eigrp interfaces

Question 4
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Which network design solution among the choices listed below will best extend access layer
connectivity to host devices?

Select one:
a. Implementing wireless connectivity
b. Implementing redundancy
c. Etherchannel implementation
d. Dynamic routing implementation
Question 5
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What is the useof in-band device management and how it is done?

Select one:
a. It is used for initial configuration or when a network connection is unavailable.
b. It is used to monitor and make configuration changes to a network device over a network
connection.
c. It uses a terminal emulation client.
d. It uses a direct connection to a console or AUX port.

Question 6
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In this chapter, what is the function of PoE pass-through?

Select one:
a. Allows a multilayer switch to forward IP packets at a rate close to that of Layer 2 switching
by bypassing the CPU
b. Allows switches, phones, and wireless access points to receive power over existing
Ethernet cables from an upstream switch
c. Allows a switch to disable redundant Layer 2 paths in the topology to prevent Layer 2
loops
d. Allows multiple physical switch ports to be aggregated together and act as a single
logical link to increase bandwidth on trunk links

Question 7
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Which among the listed below are the 2 functional parts of the network that can be
combined to form a collapsed core design in Cisco Enterprise Architecture?

Select one:
a. Access and distribution layer
b. Provider edge and access layer
c. Distribution and core layer
d. Enterprise edge and access layer

Question 8
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Core Layer is a design model layer that forwards traffic from/to different local networks.

Select one:
True
False

Question 9
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Which among the listed below as discussed in Cisco Enterprise Architecture which two
functional parts of the network are combined to form a collapsed core design?

Select one:
a. Core and distribution layer
b. Provider edge and access layer
c. Access and distribution layer
d. Enterprise edge and access layer

Question 10
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How much traffic for a 12port gigabit switch capable of generating when operating at full
wire speed?

Select one:
a. 12 Gb/s, by providing full bandwidth to each port
b. 1 Gb/s, because data can only be forwarded from one port at a time
c. 26 Gb/s, because of overhead requirements
d. 24 Gb/s, because this is the maximum forwarding rate on Cisco switches

Question 1
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Which two networks are part of the summary route 192.168.32.0/22? (Choose a letter)

Select one:
a. 1 & 3
b. 5 & 6
c. 2 & 6
d. 2 & 3

Question 2
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A certified wireless professional wishes to extend the range of the existing IEEE 802.11n
network without changing the AP. What can the administrator do to accomplish this?

Select one:
a. Split the wireless traffic between the 802.11n 2.4 GHz band and the 5 GHz band.
b. Change to WPA2 authentication.
c. Upgrade the firmware on the AP.
d. Deploy a Wi-Fi Repeater.

Question 3
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A certified network administrator is trying to add a new router into an established OSPF
network. The networks attached to the new router do not appear in the routing tables of the
other OSPF routers. Given the information in the partial configuration shown below, what
configuration error is causing this problem?

Router(config)# router ospf 1

Router(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 area 0

Select one:
a. The network number is configured improperly.
b. The process id is configured improperly.
c. The network wildcard mask is configured improperly.
d. The OSPF area is configured improperly.

Question 4
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A certified network administrator of RMS Company has just changed the router ID on a
router that is working in an OSPFv2 environment. What should the administrator do to reset
the adjacencies and use the new router ID?

Select one:
a. Issue the clear ip ospf process privileged mode command.
b. Configure the network statements.
c. Shutdown interfaces
d. Change the OSPFv2 process ID.

Question 5
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Which three steps in the design and implementation of a multiarea OSPF network are
considered planning steps? (Choose a letter)

Select one:
a. 2, 4 & 5
b. 2, 3 & 4
c. 2, 4 & 6
d. 1 , 2 & 4

Question 6
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A CCIE network administrator is verifying a multi-area OSPF configuration by checking the

routing table on a router in area 1. The administrator notices a route to a network that is
connected to a router in area 2. Which code appears in front of this route in the routing
table within area 1?

Select one:
a. C
b. O E2
c. O IA
d. O

Question 7
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A connection to a switch went down suddenly, how long can it take for a network using
RSTP to converge again after a topology change?

Select one:
a. 15sec
b. 10sec
c. 6sec
d. 50sec

Question 8
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A certified network expert is configuring a LAN with a redundant first hop to make better
use of the available network resources. Which protocol should the engineer implement?

Select one:
a. HSRP
b. GLBP
c. FHRP
d. VRRP

Question 9
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In OSPF discussions what is used to facilitate hierarchical routing in OSPF?

Select one:
a. the use of multiple areas
b. frequent SPF calculations
c. the election of designated routers
d. Autosummarization
Question 10
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A CCNA network administrator configures a router with the command sequence:

R1(config)# boot system tftp://c1900-universalk9-mz.SPA.152-4.M3.bin
R1(config)# boot system rom
What is the effect of the command sequence?

Select one:
a. The router will search and load a valid IOS image in the sequence of flash, TFTP, and ROM.
b. On next reboot, the router will load the IOS image from ROM.
c. The router will load IOS from the TFTP server. If the image fails to load, it will load the IOS
image from ROM.
d. The router will copy the IOS image from the TFTP server and then reboot the system.

Question 1
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In FHRP operation, two or more routers are represented as a single ______ router.

Select one:
a. Core
b. Virtual
c. Perimeter
d. Switch
Question 2
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As discussed in chapter 2 , what will exist when the spanning tree protocol has worked and
the network has converged?

Select one:
a. One root bridge per network, one root port per non root bridge, one designated port per
segment, non-designated ports.
b. One root bridge per network, one root port on each bridge, one designated port on each
bridge, all non-designated ports are blocked.
c. One root bridge per network, one root port on each switch, one non-designated port on
each segment, other ports are blocked.
d. One root bridge per segment, one root port per non root bridge, one designated port per
segment, non-designated ports.
Question 3
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Among the listed below, how can an enterprise network be designed to optimize
bandwidth?

Select one:
a. by limiting the size of failure domains
b. by deploying a collapsed core model
c. by organizing the network to control traffic patterns
d. by installing devices with failover capabilities

Question 4
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In MRT Construction head office, a network administrator is preparing the implementation

of Rapid PVST+ on a production network. How are the Rapid PVST+ link types determined
on the switch interfaces?

Select one:
a. Link types must be configured with specific port configuration commands.
b. Link types can only be configured on access ports configured with a single VLAN
c. Link types are determined automatically.
d. Link types can only be determined if PortFast has been configured.

Question 5
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How much traffic for a 24port Gbit switch at hand capable of generating when operating at
full wire speed?

Select one:
a. 48 Gb/s, because of overhead requirements
b. 48 Gb/s, because this is the maximum forwarding rate on Cisco switches
c. 24 Gb/s, by providing full bandwidth to each port
d. 12 Gb/s, because of overhead requirements

Question 6
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Among the choices listed below, which port state will switch ports immediately transition to
when configured for PortFast?

Select one:
a. Forwarding
b. Listening
c. Learning
d. Blocking

Question 7
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As discussed in this chapter, what is an advantage of PVST+?

Select one:
a. PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through load sharing.
b. PVST+ reduces bandwidth consumption compared to traditional implementations of STP
that use CST.
c. PVST+ requires fewer CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.
d. PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through autoselection of the root bridge.

Question 8
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Which STP port role is adopted by a switch port if there is no other port with a lower cost to
the root bridge?

Select one:
a. disabled port
b. alternate
c. root port
d. designated port

Question 9
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Why do a network administrator change a switch priority to a higher value than that of
other switches in the network?

Select one:
a. To make sure that no ports on the switch are blocked.
b. To make sure that the switch is chosen as the root bridge.
c. To make sure that the switch is not chosen as the root bridge.
d. To help the network converge more quickly.
Question 10
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In network troubleshooting, which command is used to display the bandwidth of an

interface on an EIGRP-enabled router?

Select one:
a. show ip route
b. show ip interface brief
c. show interfaces
d. show ip protocols
Question 11
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Which two network design features require Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to ensure correct
network operation?

Select one:
a. static default routes & implementing VLANs to contain broadcasts
b. redundant links between Layer 2 switches & removing single point of failure with multiple
Layer 2 switches
c. implementing VLANs to contain broadcasts & redundant links between Layer 2 switches
d. link-state dynamic routing that provides redundant routes & static default routes

Question 12
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How many switches in a network must be running STP or RSTP in order to avoid broadcast
storms?

Select one:
a. At least one.
b. All of them.
c. At least one in each loop.
d. At least the switch that is chosen as the root bridge.

Question 13
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How much traffic for a 12port gigabit switch capable of generating when operating at full
wire speed?

Select one:
a. 24 Gb/s, because this is the maximum forwarding rate on Cisco switches
b. 1 Gb/s, because data can only be forwarded from one port at a time
c. 12 Gb/s, by providing full bandwidth to each port
d. 26 Gb/s, because of overhead requirements

Question 14
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In the Cisco Enterprise Architecture, which two functional parts of the network are combined
to form a collapsed core design. This is usually implemented in a small to medium network
setup?

Select one:
a. access layer & enterprise edge
b. provider edge & access layer
c. distribution layer & enterprise edge
d. core layer and distribution layer

Question 15
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Which of the following statement is true?

Select one:
a. A switch creates a single collision domain and separate broadcast domains. A router
provides a separate broadcast domain as well.
b. A switch creates separate collision domains and separate broadcast domains. A router
provides separate collision domains.
c. A switch creates separate collision domains but one broadcast domain. A router provides
a separate broadcast domain.
d. A switch creates a single collision domain and a single broadcast domain. A router creates
a single collision domain.

Question 16
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What is the purpose of Spanning Tree Protocol in a switched LAN as discussed in this
chapter?

Select one:
a. To provide a mechanism for network monitoring in switched environments
b. To prevent switching loops in networks with redundant switched paths
c. To prevent routing loops in networks with redundant paths
d. To manage the VLAN database across multiple switches

Question 17
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As shown in the exhibit below, which protocol information is being displayed in the output?
Select one:
a. FHRP
b. VRRP
c. GLBP
d. HSRP
Question 18
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A connection to a switch went down suddenly, how long can it take for a network using
RSTP to converge again after a topology change?

Select one:
a. 6sec
b. 15sec
c. 10sec
d. 50sec
Question 19
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In ABC Construction Co., a network administrator is planning redundant devices and cabling
in a switched network to support high availability. Which benefit will implementing the
Spanning Tree Protocol provide to this design?

Select one:
a. Network access can be expanded to support both wired and wireless devices.
b. Redundant paths can be available without causing logical Layer 2 loops.
c. Faster convergence is available for advanced routing protocols.
d. Multiple physical interfaces can be combined into a single EtherChannel interface.
Question 20
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In managing Cisco devices, what is a characteristic of out-of-band device management?

Select one:
a. Out-of-band device management requires a direct connection to a network interface.
b. It requires a terminal emulation client.
c. It requires at least one network interface on the device to be connected and operational.
d. It requires Telnet, SSH, or HTTP to access a Cisco device.

Question 21
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In network troubleshooting, which command can be issued on a router to verify that

automatic summarization is enabled?

Select one:
a. show ip interface brief
b. show ip eigrp neighbors
c. show ip protocols
d. show ip eigrp interfaces
Question 22
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Immediately after a router completes its boot sequence, the network administrator of Gilas
Telecoms wants to check the routers configuration. From privileged EXEC mode, which of
the following commands can the administrator use for this purpose?

Select one:
a. show NVRAM &show running-config
b. show startup-config & show running-config
c. show version &show running-config
d. show flash &show startup-config

Question 23
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In today's current switch technology, Which statement describes a characteristic of Cisco

Meraki switches?

Select one:
a. They are cloud-managed access switches that enable virtual stacking of switches.
b. They are campus LAN switches that perform the same functions as Cisco 2960 switches.
c. They are service provider switches that aggregate traffic at the edge of the network.
d. They promote infrastructure scalability, operational continuity, and transport flexibility.
Question 24
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An administrator is troubleshooting a switch and wants to verify if it is a root bridge. What

command can be used to do this?

Select one:
a. show cdp neigh
b. show running-config
c. show spanning-tree
d. show startup-config

Question 25
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In terms of network reliability, the ability of a network to be up most of the time. Sometimes
referred to as 99.999, or "five nines".

Select one:
a. Integrity
b. Scalability
c. Flexibility
d. Reliability

Question 26
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As discussed which is true of the PVST+ protocol?

Select one:
a. It was the first version of STP to include the PortFast feature that allows access ports to
transition directly to the forwarding state.
b. It is Cisco's implementation of Rapid STP.
c. It allows different VLANs to have different root bridges and allows ports to be blocked for
some VLANs but not others.
d. It supports the use of VLANs and requires that ISL frame tagging should be used on VLAN
trunk links.

Question 27
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As discussed in this chapter, which of the following listed below is a layer 2 protocol used to
maintain a loop-free network and this refers to the IEEE 802.1D standard?

Select one:
a. RIP
b. STP
c. VTP
d. CDP
Question 28
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In reference to module 2 of this course, which is true of the difference between STP and
RSTP?

Select one:
a. RSTP is able to support VLANs by using Cisco proprietary enhancements but STP is not.
b. STP uses a proposal and agreement process to allow switches to negotiate on port roles,
but RSTP assigns the roles centrally.
c. STP stops sending user data while the whole network converges, but RSTP closes down
and converges each link separately.
d. RSTP is the default version on all Cisco switches now, but STP was the default until IOS
version 11.4

Question 29
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Which technology is required when switched networks are designed to include redundant
links?

Select one:
a. virtual private networks
b. virtual LANs
c. link aggregation
d. Spanning Tree Protocol
Question 30
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Which switch among the listed below would STP choose to become the root bridge in the
selection process?

Select one:
a. 32768: 11-22-33-44-55-66
b. 32768: 22-33-44-55-66-77
c. 32769: 22-33-44-55-66-78
d. 32768: 11-22-33-44-55-65
Question 1
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In troubleshooting EtherChannels as shown in the diagram below. An EtherChannel was

configured between switches S1 and S2, but the interfaces do not form an EtherChannel.
What is the problem?
Select one:
a. The switch ports were not configured with speed and duplex mode.
b. The switch ports have to be configured as access ports with each port having a VLAN
assigned.
c. The EtherChannel was not configured with the same allowed range of VLANs on each
interface.
d. The interface port-channel number has to be different on each switch.

Question 2
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Based on the discussion in this chapter, which command syntax will initiate EtherChannel
interface configuration mode?

Select one:
a. interface interface-identifier
b. channel-group group-identifier
c. interface range interface-identifier
d. interface port-channel interface-identifier

Question 3
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When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel by the use of PAgP, which
mode will form the bundled channel only if the port receives PAgP packets from another
device?
Select one:
a. auto
b. active
c. desirable
d. passive

Question 4
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Using LACP, besides of being a multivendor protocol which among the listed below
describes as it advantage?

Select one:
a. provides a simulated environment for testing link aggregation
b. increases redundancy to Layer 3 devices
c. decreases the chance of a spanning-tree loop
d. allows automatic formation of EtherChannel links

Question 6
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In the understanding of wireless LAN technologies what wireless LAN technology that
operates in the range of a few feet (Bluetooth)?

Select one:
a. WLAN
b. WPAN
c. Wi-fi(Wireless Fidelity)
d. WIMAX

Question 7
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Among the 802.11 standards what is the frequency assigned for 802.11g?

Select one:
a. 900Mhz
b. 5Ghz
c. 2.4Ghz
d. 3Ghz

Question 8
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As discussed in wireless LAN technologies and standards, what wireless LAN technology that
is an IEEE 802.16 WWAN standard that provides wireless broadband access of up to 30mi
(50km)?

Select one:
a. WIMAX
b. Satellite broadband
c. Cellular broadband
d. WLAN
Question 9
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Which statement is correct as discussed in this chapter regarding the use of PAgP to create
EtherChannels?

Select one:
a. It is Cisco proprietary.
b. It requires full duplex.
c. It increases the number of ports that are participating in spanning tree.
d. It requires more physical links than LACP does.

Question 10
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In implementing EtherChannel technology, which PAgP mode combination will establish an

EtherChannel?

Select one:
a. switch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to auto.
b. switch 1 set to on; switch 2 set to desirable.
c. switch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to on.
d. switch 1 set to desirable; switch 2 set to desirable.

Question 1
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A network specialist of Avengers Corporation is troubleshooting an OSPFv2 network and

discovers that two routers connected by a point-to-point WAN serial link are not
establishing an adjacency. The OSPF routing process, network commands and area ID are all
confirmed as correct, and the interfaces are not passive. Testing shows that the cabling is
correct, that the link is up, and pings between the interfaces are successful. What is most
likely the problem?

Select one:
a. The subnet masks on the two connected serial interfaces do not match.
b. Ip addresses of the 2 serials are the same or conflict
c. A clock rate has not been set on the DCE interface of the serial link.
d. The OSPFv2 process IDs on each router do not match.

Question 2
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A network problem occurs suddenly, what is the initial approach that should be used to
troubleshoot a broadcast storm in a switched network?

Select one:
a. Manually remove redundant links in the switched network.
b. Replace the cables on failed STP links.
c. Insert redundant links to replace the failed STP links.
d. Replace all instances of STP with RSTP.

Question 3
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Among the 802.11 standards what is the frequency assigned for 802.11g?

Select one:
a. 3Ghz
b. 900Mhz
c. 2.4Ghz
d. 5Ghz

Question 4
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A remote class room can successfully access video-intensive streaming lectures via wired
computers. However, when an 802.11n wireless access point is installed and used with 25
wireless laptops to access the same lectures, poor audio and video quality is experienced.
Which wireless solution would improve the performance for the laptops?

Select one:
a. Upgrade the access point to one that can route.
b. Decrease the power of the wireless transmitter.
c. Adjust the wireless NICs in the laptops to operate at 10GHz to be compatible with
802.11n.
d. Add another access point.

Question 5
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A new network specialist has been asked to verify the metrics that are used by EIGRP on a
Cisco device. Which two EIGRP metrics are measured by using static values on a Cisco
device?

Select one:
a. Load & hello
b. MTU & bandwidth
c. Delay & load
d. Bandwidth & delay

Question 6
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A network link connected to a switch went down. How long can it take for a network using
spanning tree topology to converge again after a topology change?

Select one:
a. up to 20 seconds
b. up to 10 seconds
c. up to 50 seconds
d. up to 15 seconds

Question 7
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ASBRs are capable of summarizing which type of routes?

Select one:
a. External
b. Default
c. Internal
d. internet

Question 8
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A newly hired certified network engineer of RMS Industries is troubleshooting a switch and
wants to verify if it is a root bridge. Which of the following listed below is the right
command to display the correct information?

Select one:
a. show vlan
b. show running-config
c. show startup-config
d. show spanning-tree

Question 9
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A network expert discovers a rogue AP in the network. The rogue AP is capturing traffic and
then forwarding it on to the legitimate AP. What type of attack is this?

Select one:
a. Man in the middle
b. Jamming
c. WEP/WPA attacks
d. Bluetooth attacks

Question 10
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A network specialist of PRS Industries is troubleshooting an OSPFv2 network and discovers

that two routers connected by a point-to-point WAN serial link are not establishing an
adjacency. The OSPF routing process, network commands and area ID are all confirmed as
correct, and the interfaces are not passive. Testing shows that the cabling is correct, that the
link is up, and pings between the interfaces are successful. What is most likely the problem?

Select one:
a. The OSPFv2 process IDs on each router do not match.
b. The subnet masks on the two connected serial interfaces do not match.
c. Ip addresses of the 2 serials are the same or conflict
d. A clock rate has not been set on the DCE interface of the serial link.

Question 1
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Among the 802.11 standards what is the maximum speed of 802.11g?

Select one:
a. 64Mb/s
b. 54Mb/s
c. 600Mb/s
d. 2Mb/s
Question 2
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In Scaling Networks course, link aggregation should be implemented at which layer of the
hierarchical network?

Select one:
a. Distribution and core
b. Core only
c. Access and distribution
d. Access, distribution, and core
Question 3
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Question text

In networking link aggregation is the most cost-effective way at present of solving interface
traffic congestion that is caused by a high level of traffic passing between two switches?

Select one:
a. add more VLANs to reduce broadcast domains
b. insert a router between the switches
c. aggregate ports by using EtherChannel
d. increase uplink speed

Question 4
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In wireless LAN technologies what wireless LAN technology that operates in the range of a
few hundred feet?

Select one:
a. Wi-Fi
b. WLAN
c. Bluetooth
d. WIMAX

Question 5
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In understanding wireless security which type of security threat best describes this situation?
An employee connects wirelessly to the company network using a cell phone. The employee
then configures the cell phone to act as a wireless access point that will allow new
employees to connect to the company network.

Select one:
a. cracking
b. spoofing
c. rogue access point
d. denial of service

Question 6
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The ALAB Communications Company network administrator is configuring an EtherChannel

link between switches SW1 and SW2 by using the command SW1(config-if-range)#
channel-group 1 mode passive. Which command must be used on SW2 to enable this
EtherChannel?

Select one:
a. w
b. w
c. c
d. w

Question 7
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In wireless LAN security what is an advantage of SSID cloaking?

Select one:
a. SSIDs are very difficult to discover because APs do not broadcast them.
b. It provides free Internet access in public locations where knowing the SSID is of no
concern.
c. Clients will have to manually identify the SSID to connect to the network.
d. It is the best way to secure a wireless network.

Question 8
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When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel by the use of PAgP, which
mode will form the bundled channel only if the port receives PAgP packets from another
device?

Select one:
a. desirable
b. auto
c. passive
d. active

Question 9
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Among the types of wireless attacks, which one captures wireless traffic that can be read,
stole passwords or leaks sensitive informations?
Select one:
a. Packet Sniffing
b. Jamming
c. War Driving
d. Bluetooth Attacks

Question 10
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Referring to the diagram below. Which switching technology would allow each access layer
switch link to be aggregated to provide more bandwidth between each Layer 2 switch and
the Layer 3 switch?

Select one:
a. trunking
b. PortFast
c. EtherChannel
d. HSRP

Question 11
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 Flag question

Question text

The trunk link between two 2960 switches has reached its capacity. How can solve this
problem in the most economical way?

Select one:
a. Combine physical ports into a high-speed logical link by configuring EtherChannel.
b. Decrease the size of the inter-switch collision domain by configuring additional VLANs.
c. Replace the two 2960 switches with highier port capacity switches.
d. Increase the speed of the ports.

Question 12
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In deploying wireless LAN, you have finished physically installing an access point on the
ceiling at your office. At a minimum, which parameter must be configured on the access
point in order to allow a wireless client to operate on it?

Select one:
a. AES
b. WEP
c. SSID
d. PSK

Question 13
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 Flag question

Question text

If three 802.11b access points need to be deployed in close proximity, which three
frequency channels should be used?

Select one:
a. 3, 6, 11
b. 1, 6, 11
c. 5, 6, 11
d. 1, 5, 6

Question 14
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Referring to the diagram below of Chooks-to-Go office. Which switching technology would
allow each access layer switch link to be aggregated to provide more bandwidth between
each Layer 2 switch and the Layer 3 switch?

Select one:
a. trunking
b. EtherChannel
c. HSRP
d. PortFast

Question 15
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What Cisco switch feature supports higher capacity throughput in switched networks by
combining multiple switch ports in 1 switch?

Select one:
a. Network diameter
b. Port upgrade
c. Redundant links
d. Link aggregation

Question 16
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Whichamong the listed below describes an EtherChannel implementation as mentioned in

Link Aggregation chapter?

Select one:
a. A trunked port can be part of an EtherChannel bundle.
b. EtherChannel operates only at Layer 2.
c. PAgP cannot be used in conjunction with EtherChannel.
d. EtherChannel can support up to a maximum of ten separate links.
Question 17
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In the understanding of wireless LAN technologies what wireless LAN technology that
operates in the range of a few feet (Bluetooth)?

Select one:
a. WPAN
b. Wi-fi(Wireless Fidelity)
c. WIMAX
d. WLAN
Question 18
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What type of wireless attack that uses the method by flooding an AP with deauthentication
frames?

Select one:
a. Packet Sniffing
b. War Driving
c. Jamming
d. Man in the middle
Question 19
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 Flag question

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In the understanding of wireless LAN technology and standards, what is the frequency
range of the IEEE 802.11a standard?

Select one:
a. 5Gbps
b. 5GHz
c. 2.4Gbps
d. 2.4GHz
Question 20
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A newly hired network engineer has been instructed to implement EtherChannel in a

corporate network. What does this configuration consist of?

Select one:
a. providing redundant devices to allow traffic to flow in the event of device failure
b. grouping two devices to share a virtual IP address
c. providing redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic
d. grouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between two switches

Question 21
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Question text

Using 2 switches, which PAgP mode combination will establish an EtherChannel?

Select one:
a. switch 1 set to desirable; switch 2 set to desirable.
b. switch 1 set to on; switch 2 set to desirable.
c. switch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to auto.
d. switch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to on.

Question 22
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What is the frequency range of the IEEE 802.11b standard as discussed in wireless LAN
standards?

Select one:
a. 2.4GHz
b. 2.4Gbps
c. 5GHz
d. 5Gbps

Question 23
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Among the 802.11 standards what is the frequency assigned for 802.11g?

Select one:
a. 900Mhz
b. 3Ghz
c. 2.4Ghz
d. 5Ghz

Question 24
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Among the 802.11 standards what is the frequency assigned for 802.11g?

Select one:
a. 2.4Ghz
b. 3Ghz
c. 5Ghz
d. 900Mhz

Question 25
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Question text

Among the 802.11 standards what is the maximum speed of 802.11a?

Select one:
a. 600Mb/s
b. 2Mb/s
c. 54Mb/s
d. 64Mb/s

Question 26
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During a Cisco certification exam, a network engineer is configuring a small network as

shown below, an etherChannel was configured between switches S1 and S2, but the
interfaces do not form an EtherChannel. What is the problem?

Select one:
a. The switch ports have to be configured as access ports with each port having a VLAN
assigned.
b. The EtherChannel was not configured with the same allowed range of VLANs on each
interface.
c. The interface port-channel number has to be different on each switch.
d. The interface port-channel number has to be different on each switch.

Question 27
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Among the listed below what organization that set or influence WLAN standards?

Select one:
a. APEC
b. AWG
c. IEEE
d. FBI

Question 28
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During the wireless implementation planning what type of wireless antenna is best suited
for providing coverage in large open spaces, such as hallways or large conference rooms?

Select one:
a. parabolic dish
b. directional
c. Yagi
d. omnidirectional
Question 29
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In AP technology which type of management frame may regularly be broadcast by an AP?

Select one:
a. probe request
b. beacon
c. probe response
d. authentication

Question 30
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In implementing EtherChannel technology, which PAgP mode combination will establish an

EtherChannel?

Select one:
a. switch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to auto.
b. switch 1 set to on; switch 2 set to desirable.
c. switch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to on.
d. switch 1 set to desirable; switch 2 set to desirable.

Question 31
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 Flag question

Question text

As a newly hired network administrator of RMS Telecom Corporation you have been asked
to implement EtherChannel on the corporate network. What does this configuration consist
of?

Select one:
a. stack two devices to share a virtual IP address
b. grouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between two switches
c. providing redundant devices to allow traffic to flow in the event of device failure.
d. providing redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic

Question 32
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What is the maximum distance with maximum data rate for 802.11a as per wireless LAN
standards?

Select one:
a. Over 200 feet
b. About 90-100 feet
c. About 150 feet
d. About 50-75 feet

Question 33
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 Flag question

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The use of PAgP to create EtherChannels is discussed in link aggregation chapter as part of
Scaling Network. Which statement below as discussed in this course is true about PagP?

Select one:
a. It increases the number of ports that are participating in spanning tree.
b. It requires more physical links than LACP does.
c. It mandates that an even number of ports (2, 4, 6, etc.) be used
d. It is a Cisco Proprietary

Question 34
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If a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel by the use of PAgP, which mode will
form the bundled channel only if the port receives PAgP packets from another device?

Select one:
a. passive
b. desirable
c. on
d. auto

Question 35
Complete
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 Flag question

Question text

As discussed in wireless LAN security, an employee connects wirelessly to the company

network using a cell phone. The employee then configures the cell phone to act as a
wireless access point that will allow new employees to connect to the company network.
Which type of security threat best describes this situation?

Select one:
a. denial of service
b. Man in the middle
c. cracking
d. rogue access point

Question 36
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What is the maximum data rate specified for IEEE 802.11b WLANs as described in wireless
standards?

Select one:
a. 54 Mbps
b. 11 Mbps
c. 100 Mbps
d. 10 Mbps

Question 37
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 Flag question

Question text

In the understanding of wireless LAN technologies what wireless LAN technology that
operates in the range of a few feet (Bluetooth)?

Select one:
a. WPAN
b. WLAN
c. Wi-fi(Wireless Fidelity)
d. WIMAX
Question 38
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An airline company has recently implemented an 802.11n wireless network. Some users are
complaining that the wireless network is too slow. Which solution is the best method to
enhance the performance of the wireless network?

Select one:
a. Disable DHCP on the access point and assign static addresses to the wireless clients.
b. Split the traffic between the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequency bands
c. Upgrade the firmware on the wireless access point.
d. Replace the wireless NICs on the computers that are experiencing slow connections.
Question 39
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As discussed in this chapter which 2 protocols are link aggregation protocols?

Select one:
a. 802.3ad & PagP
b. STP & RSTP
c. EtherChannel & STP
d. PAgP & STP

Question 40
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As discussed in wireless LAN technologies and standards, what wireless LAN technology that
is an IEEE 802.16 WWAN standard that provides wireless broadband access of up to 30mi
(50km)?

Select one:
a. WLAN
b. Cellular broadband
c. Satellite broadband
d. WIMAX

Question 41
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A student uses a laptop to upload an assignment to a file server. Which wireless frame type
did the laptop send to locate and associate with the campus access point?

Select one:
a. ssid frame
b. data frame
c. beacon frame
d. management frame

Question 42
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In wireless LAN technology and standards what classification do Bluetooth belongs?

Select one:
a. WWAN
b. WPAN
c. Wi-Fi
d. WLAN
Question 43
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Question text

In specific 802.11 wireless lan standard what maximum speed can 802.11ac reach?

Select one:
a. 600Mbps
b. 54Mbps
c. 1300Mbps
d. 11Mbps

Question 44
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Which security mode is the least secure choice when a home wireless router is configured. It
is also the first security mode used for wireless?

Select one:
a. WEP
b. WPA2-Personal
c. WPA
d. TKIP

Question 45
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As describe in wireless lan technology standard which three Wi-Fi standards operate in the
2.4GHz range of frequencies?
Select one:
a. 802.11b, 802.11ac & 802.11a
b. 802.11n, 802.11g & 802.11ac
c. 802.11b, 812.11g & 802.11n
d. 802.11ac, 802.11a & 802.11d

Question 46
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Understanding scaling networks, which feature supports higher throughput in switched

networks by combining multiple switch ports?

Select one:
a. Link aggregation
b. Redundant links
c. Convergence
d. Network diameter

Question 47
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Based on the discussion in this chapter, which command syntax will initiate EtherChannel
interface configuration mode?

Select one:
a. interface interface-identifier
b. channel-group group-identifier
c. interface port-channel interface-identifier
d. interface range interface-identifier

Question 48
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A remote class room can successfully access video-intensive streaming lectures via wired
computers. However, when an 802.11n wireless access point is installed and used with 25
wireless laptops to access the same lectures, poor audio and video quality is experienced.
Which wireless solution would improve the performance for the laptops?

Select one:
a. Add another access point.
b. Decrease the power of the wireless transmitter.
c. Upgrade the access point to one that can route.
d. Adjust the wireless NICs in the laptops to operate at 10GHz to be compatible with
802.11n.

Question 49
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Which statement is correct as discussed in this chapter regarding the use of PAgP to create
EtherChannels?

Select one:
a. It requires full duplex.
b. It requires more physical links than LACP does.
c. It increases the number of ports that are participating in spanning tree.
d. It is Cisco proprietary.

Question 50
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In specific 802.11 wireless lan standard what maximum speed can 802.11n reached?

Select one:
a. 600Mbps
b. 54Mbps
c. 128Mbps
d. 1Gps

Question 1
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If you planning to built a large network composed of datacenters, nationwide branches

office, stores, remote overseas offices which of these works better for larger network such as
this?

Select one:
a. Single-area OSPF
b. Rip v1
c. Rip v2
d. Multi-area OSPF
Question 2
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Which three steps in the design and implementation of a multiarea OSPF network are
considered planning steps? (Choose a letter)

Select one:
a. 1 , 2 & 4
b. 2, 4 & 5
c. 2, 3 & 4
d. 2, 4 & 6
Question 3
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In understanding multiarea OSPF network which statement describes a multiarea OSPF

network?

Select one:
a. It consists of multiple network areas that are daisy-chained together.
b. It has multiple routers that run multiple routing protocols simultaneously, and each
protocol consists of an area.
c. It requires a three-layer hierarchical network design approach.
d. It has a core backbone area with other areas connected to the backbone area.

Question 4
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In OSPF discussions what is used to facilitate hierarchical routing in OSPF?

Select one:
a. frequent SPF calculations
b. the election of designated routers
c. Autosummarization
d. the use of multiple areas

Question 5
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As discussed in this chapter multiarea OSPF what OSPF LSA type is used to inform routers of
the router ID of the DR in each multiaccess network in an OSPF area?

Select one:
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 4
d. type 3

Question 6
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Understanding multiarea OSPF what is one advantage of using multiarea OSPF?

Select one:
a. It does improves the routing efficiency by reducing the routing table and link-state
update overhead.
b. It enables multiple routing protocols to be running in a large network.
c. It increases the routing performance by dividing the neighbor table into separate smaller
ones.
d. It allows OSPFv2 and OSPFv3 to be running together.

Question 7
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In understanding of this chapter which characteristic describes both ABRs and ASBRs that
are implemented in a multiarea OSPF network?

Select one:
a. They both run multiple routing protocols simultaneously.
b. They are required to perform any summarization or redistribution tasks.
c. They are required to reload frequently and quickly in order to update the LSDB.
d. They usually have many local networks attached.

Question 8
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A CCIE network administrator is verifying a multi-area OSPF configuration by checking the

routing table on a router in area 1. The administrator notices a route to a network that is
connected to a router in area 2. Which code appears in front of this route in the routing
table within area 1?

Select one:
a. O IA
b. O
c. C
d. O E2

Question 9
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In understanding of multiarea OSPF where do inter-area route summarization be performed

in an OSPF network?

Select one:
a. ASBR
b. ABR
c. DR
d. any router

Question 10
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Which two networks are part of the summary route 192.168.32.0/22? (Choose a letter)

Select one:
a. 5 & 6
b. 1 & 3
c. 2 & 3
d. 2 & 6

Question 1
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As discussed in EIGRP module which table is used by EIGRP to store the best routes?

Select one:
a. the static table
b. the routing table
c. the topology table
d. the neighbor table
Question 2
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In understanding EIGRP operation when an EIGRP-enabled router uses a password to accept

routes from other EIGRP-enabled routers, which mechanism is used?

Select one:
a. Reliable Transport Protocol
E. Partial updates
b. EIGRP authentication
c. Diffusing Update Algorithm

Question 3
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In EIGRP operation if all router Ethernet interfaces in an EIGRP network are configured with
the default EIGRP timers, how long will a router wait by default to receive an EIGRP packet
from its neighbor before declaring the neighbor unreachable?

Select one:
a. 30 seconds
b. 15 seconds
c. 20 seconds
d. 10 seconds

Question 4
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In understanding chapter 7 what information does EIGRP maintain within the routing table?

Select one:
a. All routes known to the router
b. Only feasible successors
c. Adjacent neighbors
d. Only successors

Question 5
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In understanding of chapter 7 EIGRP uses the dual algorithm for finding shortest path?

Select one:
True
False

Question 6
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In your company where you work as Cisco network administrator, you are willing to stop
auto route summary in EIGRP, which command you will use to prevent auto summary?

Select one:
a. passive interface
b. no summary
c. no auto-summary
d. maximum path

Question 7
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In understanding dynamic routing protocols which table is used by EIGRP to store all
routing information that are learned from EIGRP neighbors?

Select one:
a. the neighbor table
b. the topology table
c. the static table
d. the routing table
Question 8
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In the aspect of configuring EIGRP which command must be entered on a serial interface of
a Cisco router to restore the bandwidth to the default value of that specific router interface?

Select one:
a. startup-config
b. copy running-config
c. reload
d. No bandwidth
Question 9
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The SMB company's network engineer is troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a router and
needs to confirm the IP addresses of the devices with which the router has established
adjacency. The retransmit interval and the queue counts for the adjacent routers also need
to be checked.
What command will display the required information?

Select one:
a. w
b. w
c. c
d. w

Question 10
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In understanding EIGRP which of the EIGRP route would have the preferred administrative
distance?

Select one:
a. an external route that is redistributed from OSPF
b. an internal route
c. an external route that is redistributed from RIP
d. a summary route

Question 1
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In understanding concepts of OSPF which three statements describe the routing protocol OSPF?

1. It supports VLSM.
2. It is used to route between autonomous systems.
3. It confines network instability to one area of the network.
4. It increases routing overhead on the network.
5. It allows extensive control of routing updates
6. It is simpler to configure than RIPv2.

Select one:
a. 2, 3, 6

b. 1, 2, 3

c. 1, 3, 5

d. 4, 5, 6

Question 2
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A network specialist of Avengers Corporation is troubleshooting an OSPFv2 network and discovers that
two routers connected by a point-to-point WAN serial link are not establishing an adjacency. The OSPF
routing process, network commands and area ID are all confirmed as correct, and the interfaces are not
passive. Testing shows that the cabling is correct, that the link is up, and pings between the interfaces
are successful. What is most likely the problem?

Select one:

a. The OSPFv2 process IDs on each router do not match.

b. A clock rate has not been set on the DCE interface of the serial link.

c. Ip addresses of the 2 serials are the same or conflict

d. The subnet masks on the two connected serial interfaces do not match.

Question 3
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In verifying multiarea OSPF which command can be used to verify the contents of the LSDB in an OSPF
area?

Select one:

a. show ip route ospf

b. show ip ospf neighbor

c. show ip ospf database

d. show running-config

Question 4
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What is one advantage of using multiarea OSPF?

Select one:

a. It increases the routing performance by dividing the neighbor table into separate smaller ones.

b. It improves the routing efficiency by reducing the routing table and link-state update overhead.

c. It allows OSPFv2 and OSPFv3 to be running together.

d. It enables multiple routing protocols to be running in a large network.

Question 5
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As discussed in scaling networks what type of OSPF LSA is originated by ASBR routers to advertise
external routes?

Select one:
a. type 1

b. type 5

c. type 3

d. type 2

Question 6
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Referring to the test result shown above. Given the output for this command, if the router ID has
not been manually set, what router ID will OSPF use for this RouterD?
Select one:

a. 172.16.5.1

b. 10.154.154.1

c. 192.168.5.316

d. 10.1.1.2

Question 7
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ASBRs are capable of summarizing which type of routes?

Select one:

a. internet

b. External

c. Default

d. Internal

Question 8
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Which show command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?

Select one:

a. show ip ospf database

b. show ip ospf neighbors

c. show ip ospf lsa database

d. show ip ospf link-state

Question 9
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Which describes a multiarea OSPF network?

Select one:

a. It consists of multiple network areas that are daisy-chained together.

b. It requires a three-layer hierarchical network design approach.

c. It has multiple routers that run multiple routing protocols simultaneously, and each protocol consists
of an area

d. It has a core backbone area with other areas connected to the backbone area.

Question 10
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Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator of the company ABC Industries a subsidiary of
the biggest beverage company in the Philippines is trying to configure R1 to run OSPFv3 but the
neighbor adjacency is not forming with the router connected to Fa0/0. What is the cause of the
problem?
Select one:

a. A link-local address has not been configured on interface FastEthernet0/0.

b. The OSPF process ID and area values are backwards in the interface configuration

c. No router ID has been configured.

d. FastEthernet0/0 has been configured as a passive interface.

Question 11
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Refer to the exhibit shown. What command statement must be issued to complete the
configuration at R1 for multiarea OSPF.

Select one:
 a. network 192.168.1.128 255.255.255.128 area 1

b. network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.127 area 0

c. network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.127 area 1

d. network 192.168.0 .0 0.0.127.255 area

Question 12
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What does an O routing table entry mean?

Select one:

a. Intra-area route

b. internal route

c. Inter-area route

d. External route

Question 13
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Question text

As discussed in most OSPF topics what does an O E1 or E2 routing table entry mean?

Select one:

a. Inter-area route

b. internal route

c. External route

d. Intra-area route

Question 14
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Refer to the show command test result shown above. What is indicated by the O IA in the
router output?
Select one:

a. The route was learned from within the area.

b. The route was learned from outside the internetwork.

c. The route was manually configured.

d. The route was learned from another area.

Question 15
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A network administrator is implementing OSPF in a portion of the network and must ensure
that only specific routes are advertised via OSPF. Which network statement would configure
the OSPF process for networks 192.168.4.0, 192.168.5.0, 192.168.6.0, and 192.168.7.0, now
located in the backbone area, and inject them into the OSPF domain?

Select one:

a. w

b. w

c. c

d. w

Question 16
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Which command statement below will a network engineer issue to verify the configured
hello and dead timer intervals on a point-to-point WAN link between two routers that are
running OSPFv2?

Select one:

a. show ip ospf interface fastethernet 0/1

b. show ip ospf neighbor

c. show ip ospf interface serial 0/0/0

d. show ipv6 ospf interface serial 0/0/0

Question 17
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Which two pieces of information are used by the OSPF MD5 algorithm to generate a
signature?

Select one:

a. Secret key & OSPF message

b. Interface ip address & secret key

c. OSPF router ID & loopback interface

d. Router hostname & mac-address

Question 18
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What routerhas all of its interfaces in the same area and have identical LSDBs.

Select one:

a. ABR

b. Internal Router

c. ASBR

d. Backbone Router

Question 19
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In configuring OSPF authentication which two pieces of information are used by the OSPF
MD5 algorithm to generate a signature?

Select one:

a. OSPF router ID & loopback interface

b. secret key & OSPF message

c. router hostname & mac-address

d. interface IP address & secret key

Question 20
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In understanding in OSPF networks what does an O E1 or E2 routing table entry mean?

Select one:

a. Inter-area route

b. Intra-area route

c. External route

d. Static route

Question 21
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What are the building blocks of OSPF?

Select one:

a. Bandwidth
b. Hello

c. Backbone area

d. LSA (Link State Advertisements)

Question 22
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A CCIE network administrator is verifying a multi-area OSPF configuration by checking the

routing table on a router in area 1. The administrator notices a route to a network that is
connected to a router in area 2. Which code appears in front of this route in the routing
table within area 1?

Select one:

a. O E2

b. O IA

c. O

d. C

Question 23
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Question text

Which area is referred to as the "backbone area"?

Select one:

a. Area 10

b. Area 0

c. Area 999

d. Area 1

Question 24
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OSPF type 2 LSA messages are only generated by the DR router to advertise routes in
multiaccess networks.

Select one:

True

False

Question 25
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 Flag question

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A certified network administrator of RMS Company has just changed the router ID on a
router that is working in an OSPFv2 environment. What should the administrator do to reset
the adjacencies and use the new router ID?

Select one:

a. Configure the network statements.

b. Issue the clear ip ospf process privileged mode command.

c. Shutdown interfaces

d. Change the OSPFv2 process ID.

Question 26
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During checking of routing table, a network engineer notices the following entry:
O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.16.3, 00:20:22, Serial0/0/0
What information can be gathered from this output?
Select one:

a. The route is located two hops away.

b. The edge of the OSPF area 0 is the interface that is addressed 192.168.16.3.

c. The metric for this route is 110.

d. This route is a propagated default route.

Question 27
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A router that has at least one interface that is attached to a non-OSPF network is called
ASBR.

Select one:

True

False

Question 28
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In understanding OSPF concepts which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF
cost in Cisco routers?
Select one:

a. Bandwidth and MTU

b. Bandwidth, Delay and MTU

c. Bandwidth

d. Hello

Question 29
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During router configuration what OSPF LSA type is used to inform routers of the router ID
of the DR in each multiaccess network in an OSPF area?

Select one:

a. type 3

b. type 0

c. type 2

d. type 1

Question 30
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This always appear in certification exams so remember this, which parameter or parameters
are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?

Select one:

a. Bandwidth

b. Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay and Load

c. Hello

d. Bandwidth,& hops

Question 31
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A certified network administrator of Gilas Medical Hospital has just changed the router ID
on a router that is working in an OSPFv2 environment. What should the administrator do to
reset the adjacencies and use the new router ID?

Select one:

a. Issue the clear ip ospf process privileged mode command.

b. Change the interface priority.

c. Configure the network statements.

d. Change the OSPFv2 process ID.

Question 32
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Which 3 features are OSPF routing protocol?

Select one:

a. Converge quickly, Identify the best route by the use of cost & before exchanging routing
information, OSPF routers find out neighbors.

b. Use highiest ip address, OSPF is a classful routing protocol & OSPF does not allow
authentication

c. Converge quickly, Identify the best router by the use of hops & OSPF routers identify
directly connected devices

d. Allows authentication, uses concept of area which helps for route summarization and
dependent to hop counts.

Question 33
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Question text

Refer to the test result taken from our test labs. R1 and R2 are connected to the same LAN
segment and are configured to run OSPFv3. They are not forming a neighbor adjacency.
What is the cause of the problem?
Select one:

a. The priority value of both R1 and R2 is 1.

b. The timer intervals of R1 and R2 do not match.

c. The IPv6 addresses of R1 and R2 are not in the same subnet.

d. The OSPFv3 process IDs of R1 and R2 are different.

Question 34
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As discussed in Scaling Network course when OSPFv2 neighbors are establishing

adjacencies, in which state do they elect a DR and BDR router?

Select one:

a. Loading state

b. Init state

c. Exchange state

d. Two-Way state

Question 35
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In understanding of multiarea OSPF where do inter-area route summarization be performed

in an OSPF network?

Select one:

a. DR

b. ABR

c. any router

d. ASBR

Question 36
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In troubleshooting OSPF issues why do OSPF serial interfaces usually require manual
bandwidth configuration?

Select one:

a. All serial interfaces default to a value of 1.544 Mb/s.

b. OSPF uses the bandwidth value to compute the router IDs

c. OSPF uses the bandwidth value to compute routes for its routing table.

d. Each side of an OSPF serial link should be configured with a unique value.

Question 37
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Which three steps in the design and implementation of a multiarea OSPF network are
considered planning steps? (Choose a letter)

Select one:

a. 1 , 2 & 4

b. 2, 3 & 4

c. 2, 4 & 6

d. 2, 4 & 5

Question 38
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What routing table descriptor is used to identify OSPF summary networks that originate
from an ABR?

Select one:

a. O IA

b. O E2

c. O

d. O E1

Question 39
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During the investigation of routing table, the network administrator notices the following
entry:
O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.10.3, 00:20:22, Serial0/0/0
What information can be gathered from this output?
Select one:

a. The edge of the OSPF area 0 is the interface that is addressed 192.168.10.3.

b. The route is located two hops away.

c. This route is a propagated default route.

d. The metric for this route is 110.

Question 40
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As discussed in this chapter multiarea OSPF what OSPF LSA type is used to inform routers of
the router ID of the DR in each multiaccess network in an OSPF area?

Select one:

a. type 1

b. type 2

c. type 3

d. type 4

Question 41
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An ASBR generates what type of LSAs for each of its external routes and floods them into
the area that it is connected to.

Select one:

a. Type 5

b. Type 1
c. Type 2

d. Type 3

Question 42
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What is one advantage of using multiarea OSPF?

Select one:

a. It does improves the routing efficiency by reducing the routing table and link-state
update overhead.

b. It enables multiple routing protocols to be running in a large network.

c. It allows OSPFv2 and OSPFv3 to be running together.

d. It increases the routing performance by dividing the neighbor table into separate smaller
ones.

Question 43
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When OSPFv2 neighbors are establishing adjacencies, in which state do they elect a DR and
BDR router?

Select one:

a. One-Way state

b. Init state

c. Loading state

d. Two-Way state

Question 44
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This will appear on the certification exam. As discussed in multiarea OSPF which command
can be used to verify the contents of the LSDB in an OSPF area?

Select one:

a. show ip route ospf

b. show running-config

c. show ip ospf database

d. show ip ospf interface

Question 45
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The network engineer of company XYZ has just changed the router ID on a router that is
working in an OSPFv2 environment. What should the administrator do to reset the
adjacencies and use the new router ID?

Select one:

a. Issue the clear ipospf process privileged mode command.

b. Shutdown interfaces

c. Change the OSPFv2 process ID.

d. Configure the network statements.

Question 46
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A network engineer of Genesis Industries is troubleshooting an OSPFv2 network and

discovers that two routers connected by a point-to-point WAN serial link are not
establishing an adjacency. The OSPF routing process, network commands and area ID are all
confirmed as correct, and the interfaces are not passive. Testing shows that the cabling is
correct, that the link is up, and pings between the interfaces are successful. What is most
likely the problem?

Select one:
a. Ip addresses of the 2 serials are the same or conflict

b. The OSPFv2 process IDs on each router do not match.

c. The subnet masks on the two connected serial interfaces do not match.

d. A clock rate has not been set on the DCE interface of the serial link.

Question 47
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Refer to the network topology diagram above. A certified network expert has configured the
OSPF timers to the values that are shown in the graphic. What is the result of having those
manually configured timers?
Select one:

a. The R1 dead timer expires between hello packets from R2.

b. The hello timer on R2 expires every ten seconds.

c. The neighbor adjacency has formed.

d. R1 automatically adjusts its own timers to match the R2 timers.

Question 48
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If all OSPF routers in a single area are configured with the same priority value, what value
does a router use for the OSPF router ID in the absence of a loopback interface?

Select one:

a. the IP address of the console management interface

b. the lowest IP address among its active interfaces

c. the highest IP address among its active interfaces

d. the IP address of the first Fast Ethernet interface

Question 49
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Why do OSPF serial interfaces usually require manual bandwidth configuration?

Select one:

a. OSPF uses the bandwidth value to compute routes for its routing table.

b. Each side of an OSPF serial link should be configured with a unique value.

c. All serial interfaces default to a value of 1.544 Mb/s.

d. Bandwidth value affects the actual speed of the link.

Question 50
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If you planning to built a large network composed of datacenters, nationwide branches

office, stores, remote overseas offices which of these works better for larger network such as
this?

Select one:

a. Single-area OSPF

b. Rip v1

c. Rip v2

d. Multi-area OSPF

Question 1
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When a customer purchases a Cisco IOS 15.0 software package, what serves as the receipt
for that customer and is used to obtain the license as well?
Select one:

a. End User License Agreement

b. Unique Device Identifier

c. Product Activation Key

d. Software Claim Certificate

Question 2
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In understanding Cisco IOS image which statement describes a difference between the IOS
15.0 extended maintenance release and a standard maintenance release?

Select one:

a. A new standard maintenance release will synchronize with the latest extended
maintenance release before the extended is made available.

b. The standard maintenance release enables faster IOS feature delivery than the extended
maintenance release does.

c. The extended maintenance release will deliver new IOS features as soon as they are
available.

d. They consist of two separate parallel trains.

Question 3
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As discussed in chapter 9 of Scaling Networks what is the major release number in the IOS
image name c1900-universalk9-mz.SPA.152-3.T.bin?

Select one:

a. 15

b. 10

c. 3

d. 52

Question 4
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In understanding IOS system image files what statement describes a Cisco IOS image with
the “universalk9_npe” designation for Cisco ISR G2 routers?
Select one:

a. It is an IOS version that offers all of the Cisco IOS Software feature sets.

b. It is an IOS version that provides only the IPBase feature set.

c. It is an IOS version that, at the request of some countries, removes any strong
cryptographic functionality.

d. It is an IOS version that can only be used in the United States of America.

Question 5
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In understanding IOS system image files which IOS 12.4 software package integrates full
features, including voice, security, and VPN capabilities, for all routing protocols?

Select one:

a. Advanced Security

b. Service Provider Services

c. Advanced Enterprise Services

d. Advanced IP Services

Question 6
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As discussed in this chapter, beginning with the Cisco IOS Software Release 15.0, which
license is a prerequisite for installing additional technology pack licenses?

Select one:

a. SEC

b. IPBase

c. UC

d. DATA

Question 7
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The client of a networking company requires VPN connectivity for workers who must travel
frequently. To support the VPN server, the customer router must be upgraded to a new
Cisco IOS software version with the Advanced IP Services feature set. What should the field
engineer do before copying the new IOS to the router?

Select one:

a. Issue the show running-configuration command to determine the features of the currently
installed IOS image file.

b. Delete the currently installed IOS by using the erase flash: command, and reload the
router

c. Issue the show version and the show flash commands to ensure that the router has
enough memory and file space to support the new IOS image.
d. Set the router to load the new IOS image file directly from the TFTP server on the next
reboot.

Question 8
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During the upgrade of IOS system image, a router is powered on, where will the router first
search for a valid IOS image to load by default?

Select one:

a. flash memory

b. ROM

c. NVRAM

d. RAM

Question 9
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A CCNA network administrator configures a router with the command sequence:

R1(config)# boot system tftp://c1900-universalk9-mz.SPA.152-4.M3.bin
R1(config)# boot system rom
What is the effect of the command sequence?
Select one:

a. On next reboot, the router will load the IOS image from ROM.

b. The router will search and load a valid IOS image in the sequence of flash, TFTP, and
ROM.

c. The router will copy the IOS image from the TFTP server and then reboot the system.

d. The router will load IOS from the TFTP server. If the image fails to load, it will load the IOS
image from ROM.

Question 10
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The PRD company network engineer is upgrading the Cisco IOS image on a Cisco ISR 4000
series. What command could the engineer use to verify the total amount of flash memory as
well as how much flash memory is currently available?

Select one:

a. show version

b. show interfaces

c. show flash0:

d. show startup-config