Created by Trevor Fox © 2022 UH-60 Study Guide Updated: 11 September 2022

Note: This study guide was created for my own self-study. It is fairly
comprehensive, however there is no way to tell if it will be comprehensive enough
for you to study for your APART. This study guide should be used in conjunction
with reading the actual source material, and is in no way a substitute for reading
the required publications. Additionally, there are two sections in the Aircrew
Catalogue of Academic Topics in the dATM that are not covered at all in this study
guide. Those topics are “Tactical and mission operations” and “Weapon system
operation and employment”.

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Created by Trevor Fox © 2022 UH-60 Study Guide Updated: 11 September 2022
 UH-60M APART Study Guide
Contents
NVGs and Night Operations

Emergency Procedures

Limitations

Systems

Regulations and Publications

Army Aviation SOP

Aerodynamics

Aeromedical Factors

Performance Planning

Preflight Expanded Steps

Startup and Shutdown Warnings, Cautions, and Notes

Base Task Standards

Army Aviation Doctrine, Tactical Employment, and Air Assault Ops

Thank You!

Created by Trevor Fox © 2022 UH-60 Study Guide Updated: 11 September 2022
NVGs and
Night
Operations
NVG NOMENCLATURE, CHARACTERISTICS, LIMITATIONS, AND OPERATIONS
Describe how light passes through the ANVIS.
OPMPFE
Objective Lens (inverts image, minus blue filter)
Photocathode (changes photons to electrons)
Microchannel Plate (multiplies electrons)
Phospher Screen (electrons to protons, creates the lighted image)
Fiber Optic Inverter (inverts the image)
Eyepiece Lens (allows the eye to see the image)

What is Automatic Brightness Protection (ABC)?

ABC automatically adjusts microchannel plate (MCP) voltage to maintain image brightness at preset
levels by controlling the amount of electrons that exit the MCP.
ABC is to protect the wearers vision, not to protect the goggles.

What is Bright Source Protection (BSP)?

Reduces the voltage to the photocathode when exposed to bright light sources.
This protects the goggles from damage and enhances its life (however, it lowers resolution).
Exposure to bright light sources could result in damage to the photocathode, MCP, or the operator's
eye.

What is an operational defect?

Defects that relate to the reliability of the image intensifier and are an indication of instability. An
operational defect is an immediate cause for rejection.

What are the operational defects?

FESE
Flashing, Flickering, or Intermittent Operation
Edge Glow
Shading
Emission Point

Describe Flashing, Flickering or Intermittent Operation.

Light appears to flicker or flash. Can be in either one or both monoculars.

Describe Edge Glow.

A bright area in the outer portion of the viewing area (could be caused by a series of emission points).
Check by covering the light entering from the objective lens. If it remains, it is edge glow.

Describe Shading.
You will not see a fully circular image, regardless of the adjustment. Begins at the edge and works
inward. There will be a high contract area with a distinct line of demarcation.

NVGs and Night Operations 1

Describe an Emission Point.
A steady or fluctuating pinpoint of bright light in the image area and does not go away when all light is
blocked from the OBJ lens.

What is a cosmetic blemish?

A manufacturing imperfection / maintenance imperfection that does not affect image intensifier
reliability.
Not normally a cause for rejection unless they interfere with ability to perform the mission.

What are the cosmetic blemishes?

IF I C BOB
Image Distortion
Fixed Pattern Noise
Image Disparity
Chicken Wire
Bright Spots
Output Brightness Variation
Black Spots

Describe Image Distortion.

Evidenced by vertical objects (poles / trees) appearing to bend when you move your head vertically or
horizontally.
Ground surfaces may appear to swell or sink as well.

Explain Fixed Pattern Noise.

AKA Honeycomb
Faint hexagonal pattern throughout the viewing area that most often occurs at highlight levels.

Explain Image Disparity.

Difference in brightness between the two image intensifier assemblies within the same binocular.

Explain Chicken Wire.

An irregular pattern of dark thin lines in the field of view either throughout the image or in parts of the
image.
Under worst conditions, these lines will form hexagonal shaped lines (think of it as the beginning of
honeycomb)

Explain Bright Spots.

These are SIGNAL induced - a bright spot is a small bright area that may flicker or remain constant.

Explain Output Brightness Variation.

Evidenced by Areas of varying brightness in or across the image area.
DO NOT CONFUSE WITH SHADING. There are no distinct lines of demarcation

NVGs and Night Operations 2

Explain Black Spots.
These are blemishes in the image intensifier or dirt, hair or debris between the lenses.

What 6 things do we use to talk about the characteristics of the NVGs?

DIAL VP
Definition
Intensification
Acuity
Limited field of view
Voltage low indicator
Power Supply

What is the definition of the NVGs?

Helmet mounted binocular vision, passive light intensifier device that allows pilots to fly at terrain flight
altitudes during low ambient light levels.

What is the intensification of the NVGs?

2000 - 3000 times

What is the visual acuity of the NVGs?

Best is 20/25 when looking through the center of the tubes. At the periphery, the acuity can decrease to
20/70

What is the field of view of the NVGs with a proper OSAP?

40° FOV

How do you know if you have low battery (voltage) on the NVGs?
A blinking red light at the bottom of the helmet mount (comes on at approximately 2.2 - 2.4 VDC).

How much time is remaining on the battery pack if the low voltage indicator comes on?
Approximately 30 minutes.

What are the 3 sources of power available for the NVGs?

1) Battery pack
2) Aircraft via power converter
3) COPS (Clip On Power Source)

What is the breakaway force for the NVGs?

10-15 Gs

NVGs and Night Operations 3

What are the considerations for using NVGs?
CALM WWAD SOS
Color Discrimination
Airspeed and Groundspeed Limits
Lights
Magnification
Weather
Weapons
Aircraft Lighting
Depth Perception and Distance Estimation
Scanning Techniques
Obstruction Detection
Spatial Disorientation

Explain the NVG consideration - Color Discrimination

Color Discrimination is absent under NVGs
Monochromatic (single color): green hue due to type of phosphor used
Chromatic Adaptation: green hue may cause crewmembers to experience a pink, brown, or purple after
image when they remove NVGs. (this is normal).

Explain the NVG consideration - Airspeed and Groundspeed Limits

NEVER OUT FLY YOUR VISIBILITY / THE CAPABILITY OF THE NVG's.
Consider:
• Type, age, and condition of NVGs
• Cleanliness of aircraft windscreen or sensor window
• Moisture content in the air (humidity)
• Individual and collective proficiency and capability
• Weather Conditions (fog, rain, low clouds, dust) and ambient light.

Explain the NVG consideration - Lights

PET
Performance Relations - proportional to ambient light available (high ambient light = high visual
acuity and potential fixed pattern noise, honeycomb, chicken wire) / (low ambient light = low visual
acuity and potential scintillation)
Effects of Bright Light: ABC (voltage to the micro-Channel plate reduced) and BSP (voltage to the
Photo Cathode)
Tunnel Vision: landing light, searchlight or IR - avoid concentrating on the area illuminated by the
light.

Explain the NVG consideration - Magnification

NVGs do not magnify an image; they enhance the illumination of an object.
Magnification is 1:1 (meaning there is none).

NVGs and Night Operations 4

Explain the NVG consideration - Weather
Aviators may fail to detect entry into or presence of IMC because we can see through slight obscurations
(fog, rain, haze, dust, smoke)
Watch for:
• HALOs: artificial light may produce brighter appearing halos around the source
• Scintillation: (video noise)
• Loss of celestial lights / moon

Explain the NVG consideration - Weapons

While firing, aircrews may briefly lose sight of the target - cause for concern for the impact area.
The recovery from bright flash illumination is more rapid with NVGs than unaided.

Explain the NVG consideration - Aircraft Lighting

ANVIS-6 designed to operate with blue - green cockpit lighting
Red Cockpit lighting is not compatible and NOT AUTHORIZED
External aircraft lighting should be turned off depending on the operation.

Explain the NVG consideration - Depth Perception and Distance Estimation

Depth perception in a given situation is dependent upon:
• Available light
• Type and quality of NVGs
• Degree of contrast in the FOV
• User experience

Explain the NVG consideration - Scanning Techniques

Aviators head and eyes must rotate slowly and continuously to view an entire area.

Explain the NVG consideration - Obstruction Detection

Obstructions w/ poor reflective surfaces (wires, small tree limbs) are difficult to detect. Best way to find
wires is to look for the support structures.

Explain the NVG consideration - Spatial Disorientation

Maneuvers requiring large bank angles or rapid attitude changes tend to induce spatial disorientation.
An aviator should avoid making drastic changes in attitude / bank angles and use proper scanning and
viewing techniques.

NIGHT VISION LIMITATIONS AND TECHNIQUES

What are some limitations of night vision?
Reduction in visual acuity
Color vision decreases / disappears
The night blind spot

NVGs and Night Operations 5

What are the 3 night vision techniques that can be used to overcome reduced visual acuity and color
vision?
SOS
Scanning
Off Center Viewing
Shapes or Silhouettes

How can scanning help overcome some of the night vision limitations?
Begin scanning at the greatest distance which an object can be perceived and look left and right, slowly
moving inward. Overlap viewing areas by 10 degrees. Us the stop-turn method (stopping no more than
2-3 seconds)

How does off center viewing help overcome some of the night vision limitations?
Because of the night blind spot, if you stare directly at an object, you will not be able to see it. You
should look 10 degrees above, below, or to the side of the object.

How does the night vision technique Shapes or Silhouettes help overcome some of the night vision
limitations?
Reduced visual acuity at night requires objects be identified by their shapes or silhouettes. Familiarity
with architectural designs / vehicles / important terrain relief is imperative.

VISUAL ILLUSIONS
What are the visual illusions?
FFSHAVSCC (For F*cks Sake, HAVe Some Class Carl)
Fascination/Fixation
False Horizon
Size/Distance Illusion
Height/Depth Perception Illusion
Autokinesis
Vection (Inducted Motion Illusion)
Structural Illusion
Confusion with Ground Lights
Crater Illusion

Describe Fascination/Fixation
Fascination: Task Saturation (in cockpit) - so engrossed with a problem or task within the cockpit, they
fail to scan outside
Fixation: Target Fixation (out of cockpit) - fixating on object outside the cockpit you fail to scan /
crosscheck
Solution: refrain from staring; scan

NVGs and Night Operations 6

Describe False Horizon.
Aviator confuses cloud formations with the horizon or the ground, thus they may fly the aircraft in a
banked attitude.
Solution: Scan instruments and other visual cues

Describe the Size/Distance Illusion.

Crewmember misinterprets an object of unfamiliar size and shape by comparing it with what they are
accustomed to seeing based on experience. There are 3 types.

Describe the 3 types of Size/Distance Illusion.

1) Size Constancy Illusion – an example is landing at an unfamiliar runway. A narrower runway
may lead a pilot to believe he/she is higher and further away.
2) Shape Constancy Illusion – Commonly encountered with sloping runways. An upsloping runway
may give the pilot the illusion of being too high
3) Aerial Perspective Illusion – visual cues are of a different size or perspicuity (clarity and
discrimination) than expected. An example is mistaking short immature trees for full grown
ones. Also, objects within a hazy environment are often thought to be further away than they
actual area.

Describe the Height/Depth Perception Illusion.

The height - depth perception illusion is due to a lack of sufficient visual cues and causes an aircrew to
lose depth perception (i.e. flying over desert, snow, water the aviator may fly extremely low due to lack
of cues.)
Solution: trust instruments and scan horizon

Describe Autokinesis.
Primarily occurs at night when ambient visual cues are minimal and a small dim light is seen against a
dark background. Aviator visually fixates on light for 6-12 seconds, the light appears to move up to 20
degrees in any direction and continues to "move".
Solution: avoid fixating on objects, develop a good scan.

Describe Vection (Induced Motion Illusion).

Falsely perceived self-motion (at a stop light, car next to you starts moving and you think you’re
moving).
Solution: proper scanning - experience / knowledge of the occurrence

Describe the Structural Illusion.

Caused by effects of heat waves, rain, snow, sleet, or the shape of the windscreen - objects may appear
obscure / not their true shape/size.
Solution: experience / knowledge.

NVGs and Night Operations 7

Describe Confusion with Ground Lights.
Aviator mistakes ground lights for stars - which prompts aviator to place the aircraft in an unusual
attitude to keep the misperceived ground lights above them.
Solution: conduct a proper scan, aided and unaided.

Describe the Crater Illusion

Landing at night, under NVG conditions, the IR searchlight is too far under the nose of the aircraft - it will
cause the illusion of landing with up-sloping terrain in all directions (a crater).
Solution: proper use of landing and search light and scanning.

TYPES OF VISION
What are the 5 major components of the eye?
1) Cornea
2) Iris
3) Pupil
4) Lens
5) Retina

What is the Cornea?

A circular, transparent protective tissue that projects forward and protects the eye

What is the Iris?

The colored portion of the eye which adjusts the size of the pupil to regulate the amount of light
entering the eye.

What is the Pupil?

The dark portion in the center of the Iris. It allows light to enter the eye and stimulate the retina.

What is the Lens?

A transparent, biconvex membrane that directs (refracts) light upon the retina.

What is the Retina?

A complex, structured membrane that contains photoreceptor cells called rods and cones. Rods and
cones are connected to nerve cells that transmit information to the brain via the optic nerve.

What are the 3 types of vision?

PMS
Photopic - day OR bright/high light levels
Mesopic - dusk/dawn OR medium to low level light
Scotopic - night OR low light levels

NVGs and Night Operations 8

Describe Photopic vision.
• Vision used in daylight or when there is a high level of artificial illumination.
• The cones are primarily used. The rhodopsin is bleached out and rods become less effective.
• Characterized by sharp image interpretation and color vision.
• Best visual acuity: 20/20

Describe Mesopic vision.

• Used at dawn, dusk or during full moonlight.
• Uses rods and cones.
• Characterized by decreased visual acuity and decrease in color perception.
• Best visual acuity: varies based on conditions.

Describe Scotopic vision.

• Used under low light levels.
• Rods are primarily used and cones become ineffective.
• Characterized by a loss of color perception, visual acuity and detail.
• Best visual acuity - 20/200

What are the visual deficiencies?

MANSHPR
• Myopia - nearsightedness (distant objects are not seen clearly)
• Astigmatism - unequal curvature of the cornea causes an out of focus condition when looking at
things in 2 different planes (i.e. power poles vs power lines)
• Night Myopia - slightly myopic individuals experience visual difficulty at night when viewing
blue-green light causing blurred vision.
• Surgical Procedures - PRK/LASIK
• Hyperopia - farsightedness (close objects are not seen clearly)
• Presbyopia - The lens of the eye becomes hardened (happens during the normal aging process)
and could cause clouding of the lenses (cataracts).
• Retinal Rivalry - eyes trying to focus on two different things at the same time (like the HUD). Can
cause pain.

DISTANCE ESTIMATION AND DEPTH PERCEPTION

What are the two types of cues we use for distance estimation?
Binocular Cues and Monocular Cues

What are binocular cues?

Depend on the slightly different view each eye has of an object.
Binocular perception is of value only when the object is close enough to make a perceptible difference in
the viewing angle of both eyes. Thus, binocular cues are of little value, as most of what we focus on is
far beyond the scope of usefulness of binocular cues.

NVGs and Night Operations 9

What is a monocular cue?
Factors that aid in distance estimation and depth perception.

What are the monocular cues?

GRAM
Geometric Perspective
Retinal Image Size
Aerial Perspective
Motion Parallax

What is Geometric Perspective and what cues fall within Geometric Perspective?
An object may appear to have a different shape when viewed at varying distances and from different
angles.
LAV
Linear Perspective
Apparent Foreshortening
Vertical Position in the Field

Explain Linear Perspective.

Parallel lines, such as railroad tracks, appear to converge as distance from the observer increases.

Explain Apparent Foreshortening.

The true shape of an object or terrain feature appears elliptical (oval and narrowed appearance) when
viewed from a distance.

Explain Vertical Position in the Field.

Objects or terrain features farther away from the observer appear higher on the horizon than those
closer to the observer.

What is Retinal Image Size and what cues fall within Retinal Image Size?
An image focused on the retina is perceived by the brain to be of a given size.
KITO
Known Size of Objects
Increasing/Decreasing Size of Objects
Terrestrial Association
Overlapping Contours

Explain Known Size of Objects.

Familiarity with an object or classification of objects allows us to determine the relative distance to that
object. The nearer an object is to the observer, the larger its retinal image.

Explain Increasing/Decreasing Size of Objects.

If size is increasing, object is coming closer - if size is decreasing the object is moving farther away - if
size is constant, object is staying the same distance.

NVGs and Night Operations 10

Explain Terrestrial Association.
Objects normally associated together (helicopter and heliport / airport) are judged to be at about the
same distance and assist in determine size.

Explain Overlapping Contours.

When objects overlap, the overlapped object is farther away.

What is Aerial Perspective and what cues fall into Aerial Perspective?
The clarity of an object and the shadow cast by it are perceived by the brain and are cues for estimating
distance.
FLP
Fading of Colors and Shades
Loss of Detail or Texture
Position of Light Source and Direction of Shadows

Explain Fading of Colors and Shades.

Objects viewed through haze, fog or smoke are seen less distinctly and appear to be at a greater
distance than they actually are.
If light is unrestricted - the opposite is true because you can see the object more distinctly / more details
- so it appears closer.

Explain Loss of Detail or Texture.

As a person gets farther from an object, discrete details become less apparent (a corn field from high
altitude looks like a green blob and everything seems to blur together - but up close, you can tell it is
clearly a corn field with distinct rows and patterns).

Explain Position of Light Source and Direction of Shadows.

Every object casts a shadow from a light source. The direction in which the shadow is cast depends on
the position of the light source. If the shadow of an object is towards the observer, the object is closer
than the light source is to the observer.

Describe Motion Parallax.

(Most Important for depth perception) - Apparent relative motion of stationary objects as viewed by an
observer who is moving across the landscape
Near objects appear to move against the direction of travel
Far objects appear to move with the direction of travel slightly, or stay stationary.

USE OF INTERNAL AND EXTERNAL LIGHTS

What is the preferred color of light for use in the cockpit at night?
Blue-Green

NVGs and Night Operations 11

Why is blue/green light preferred?
It does not disrupt dark adaptation. It falls naturally on the retinal wall and allows the eye to focus on
the object without becoming fatigued. In addition, the intensity required for blue/green as opposed to
red is less, resulting in a lower infrared signature and less glare.

What is a disadvantage to using blue/green lighting?

Items that are printing in blue/green might washout.

DARK ADAPTATION, NIGHT VISION PROTECTION, AND CENTRAL NIGHT BLIND SPOT
What is dark adaptation?
Dark adaptation is the process by which the eyes increase their sensitivity to low levels of illumination.

Why is the starting level of dark adaptation important?

The lower the starting level the less time is required. Each person adapts in varying degrees and at
different rates.
Exposure to intense sunlight for 2-5 hours decreases visual sensitivity for up to 5 hours.

What happens to the rods during dark adaptation?

Biochemical reaction causes a buildup of rhodopsin (visual purple) and when fully dark adapted the rods
become 10,000 times more sensitive than at the start. Total light sensitivity can increase 100,000 times
through a dilated pupil.

How long does dark adaptation usually take?

30-45 minutes - depending on the individual.

How long does it take to re-adapt after exposure to high intensity lighting?
Several to 45 minutes depending on the duration and brightness.

What are the ways that you can protect your night vision?
ROSCEL
Red lens goggles and red lighting
Oxygen supply
Sunglasses
Cockpit lighting
Exterior lighting
Light flash compensation

What benefit do red lens goggles and red lighting have on night vision?
If worn prior to flight, they can start you into your dark adaptation process.
They can also preserve up to 90% of your dark adaptation.

NVGs and Night Operations 12

What benefit does pre-breathing oxygen / having oxygen available have yon your night vision?
You start to lose night vision at 4,000 feet PA because of lack of oxygen to the RODS.
Lack of oxygen to the rods significantly reduces their sensitivity, increasing the time required for dark
adaptation and decreasing their ability to see at night. RHODOPSIN IS OXYGEN DEPENDENT.

What benefit does wearing sunglasses have on your night vision?

Sunglasses (ND-15 and higher) minimizes the negative effects of sunlight on rhodopsin production,
which also maximizes rate of dark adaptation and improves night vision sensitivity and acuity.

What can you do to cockpit lighting to help preserve your night vision?
Adjust to the lowest readable level that allows instruments, charts, and maps to be interpreted without
prolonged staring or exposure.

What can you do to the exterior lights to help preserve your night vision?
Dim or turn them off if possible / if the mission allows.

What are some ways we can use light flash compensation?

• Close one eye
• Use short bursts for automatic weapons firing
• Alter course away from the light source

Describe the night blind spot.

Occurs when the fovea becomes inactive under darkness or low level illumination - central vision
becomes less effective and the night blind spot develops.
The night blind spot covers 5-10 degrees of central vision. This is due to the fact that there are no rods
on the fovea centralis (the center of vision).

Because of the night blind spot - what will happen as object distance increases from the observer?
Larger and larger objects can/will be missed completely without a good scan.

How do we compensate for the night blind spot?

Use off center viewing and proper scanning techniques.

Describe the day blind spot.

The day (physiological) blind spot is present all the time (including at night). This blind spot results from
the position of the optic disk on the retina. The optic disk has no light-sensitive receptors.
The physiological blind spot covers an area of approximately 5.5-7.5 degrees and is located about 15
degrees from the fovea.

What compensates for the Day blind spot?

Binocular vision - each eye compensates for the blind spot in the optic disk of the opposite eye.

NVGs and Night Operations 13

HEMISPHERICAL ILLUMINATION
What are the hemispherical light sources?
Natural: Lunar, Solar, and Starlight
Artificial: Cities, Automobiles, Fires, Flares, etc.

At what rate does the moon change its angle?

15 degrees/hour (1 degree every 4 minutes)

What are the phases of the moon?

New Moon
First Quarter
Full Moon
Third Quarter

What is EENT?
End Evening Nautical Twilight
Sun = 12 degrees below the horizon after sunset
Roughly 48 minutes after sunset

What is BMNT?
Before Morning Nautical Twilight
Sun = 12 degrees below the horizon before sunrise
Roughly 48 minutes before sunrise.

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NVG Operations Night Mission Operations

NVGs and Night Operations 14

 UH-60M
Emergency
Procedures
Change 5 (IAW
FRCs)
Definitions
Warnings, along with fires, and emergencies without associated W/C/A messages are located in the
_______ section.
RED

Cautions are in the ________ section.

YELLOW

Advisories and Annunciators with an associated emergency procedure are in the ______ section.
GREEN

Mission Equipment emergency procedures without associated W/C/A messages are in the ______
section.
BLUE

__________________ is the most important consideration during any emergency.

Aircraft control

Land as Soon as Possible (Definition)

A landing at the nearest suitable landing area (e.g. open field) without delay. The primary consideration
is to ensure the survival of occupants.

Land as Soon as Practicable (Definition)

A landing at a suitable landing area. The primary consideration is the urgency of the emergency.

Autorotate (Definition)
Adjusting the flight controls as necessary to establish an autorotational descent and landing.

Emergency Engine Shutdown (Definition)

Engine shutdown without delay

Lockout (Definition)
Manual control of engine RPM while bypassing DEC/EDECU functions.

Lockout - Steps
ENG POWER CONT lever - Pull down and advance full forward while maintaining downward pressure,
then adjust to set NR as required.

The Emergency Response Method (using the mnemonic FADEC-F) is defined as:
Fly the aircraft. Attain a safe rotor speed, attitude, altitude, speed , and heading (RAASH)
Alert the crew to the problem
Diagnose the emergency
Execute EP steps IAW FRCs (underlined, immediate action steps from memory)
Communicate the plan of action to the crew and supporting agency (ATC, wingman, etc.)
Fly the aircraft

UH-60M Emergency Procedures C5 (IAW FRCs) 1

Emergency Procedures
Indications:
• #1 ENG OUT + #2 ENG OUT + Steady Tone
• Changes in NP, TGT, NG, Q, P, NR, ENG OUT warnings and audio.
• Change in engine noise.
DUAL ENGINE FAILURE

DUAL-ENGINE FAILURE
AUTOROTATE

Indications:
• #1 or #2 ENG OUT or Steady Tone
• Changes in NP, TGT, NG, Q, P, NR, ENG OUT warnings and audio
• Change in engine noise
Additional Indications:
• ENG 1 OIL PRESS or ENG 2 OIL PRESS
• FUEL 1 PRESS LOW or FUEL 2 PRESS LOW
SINGLE-ENGINE FAILURE

SINGLE-ENGINE FAILURE
Achieve safe single engine airspeed (if possible)
External cargo/stores - Jettison (if required)

Indications:
• FIRE (Master Warning)
• ENG EMER OFF HANDLE - Illuminated
• Smoke trail/visible flames/visible arcing or flame, sharp smell
• APU fire T-handle illuminated
FIRES: APU/ELECTRICAL/ENGINE

FIRES: APU/ELECTRICAL/ENGINE
If ENG EMER OFF Handle/APU fire T-handle illuminates in flight:
Airspeed adjust to 80 KIAS or less
ENG POWER CONT lever - OFF
ENG EMER OFF handle/APU fire T-handle – Pull (as appropriate)
FIRE EXTGH switch - MAIN/RESERVE as required

LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE

FIRES: APU/ELECTRICAL/ENGINE
If an electrical fire is present:
BATT and GENERATORS switches - OFF

LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE

UH-60M Emergency Procedures C5 (IAW FRCs) 2

Indications:
• LOW ROTOR RPM (Master Warning) + Steady Tone
• Decreasing NR
• Low Q/TGT malfunctioning engine and high Q/TGT on other engine
ENGINE CONTROL MALFUNCTION - (DEC/EDECU) LOW SIDE FAILURE

ENGINE CONTROL MALFUNCTION - (DEC/EDECU) LOW SIDE FAILURE

If an engine control unit fails to the low side and the other engine is unable to provide sufficient torque,
NR will decrease

If % RPM R continues to decrease and single engine flight is not possible:

ENG POWER CONT lever (low Q/TGT engine) - LOCKOUT (Maintain Q approximately 10% below
the other engine).

STABILATOR UNCOMMANDED NOSE DOWN PITCH ATTITUDE CHANGE

If an uncommanded nose down pitch down attitude occurs:
Cyclic mounted stabilator slew-up switch - Adjust (as required to arrest nose down pitch rate)

Indications (on the ground):

• Feedback
• Main rotor/Tail rotor vibration/Severe main rotor flapping
• Binding
• Resistance
• Sloppiness
FLIGHT CONTROL/ROTOR SYSTEM VIBRATIONS OR MALFUNCTIONS ON THE GROUND

FLIGHT CONTROL/ROTOR SYSTEM VIBRATIONS OR MALFUNCTIONS ON THE GROUND

ENG POWER CONT levers - OFF
ENG FUEL SYS selectors - OFF
FUEL BOOST PUMP switches - OFF

Indications (in flight):

• Feedback
• Main rotor/Tail rotor vibration/Severe main rotor flapping
• Binding
• Resistance
• Sloppiness
FLIGHT CONTROL/ROTOR SYSTEM VIBRATIONS OR MALFUNCTIONS IN FLIGHT

FLIGHT CONTROL/ROTOR SYSTEM VIBRATIONS OR MALFUNCTIONS IN FLIGHT

LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE

UH-60M Emergency Procedures C5 (IAW FRCs) 3

Indications:
• Immediate maximum power
• System instruments may be inoperative
• Loss of automatic flight control functions
• Loss of electric power
• (probably a bright flash of light)
LIGHTNING STRIKE

LIGHTNING STRIKE
ENG POWER CONT levers - Adjust (as required to control NP and NR)

LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE

Indications:
• NR decrease from 100% to 96% with an increase in Q during steady state flight
• No engine malfunction
• Unusual helicopter vibrations
MAIN TRANSMISSION FAILURE

MAIN TRANSMISSION FAILURE

LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE

Indications:
• Nose of the helicopter will yaw left/right regardless of airspeed
• At higher airspeed, a right yaw may develop more slowly but may continue to increase
• At high power settings, a left yaw may develop more slowly, but can become more significant if
power is decreased
• If tail rotor components are lost, the nose will pitch down. Continued level flight may not be
possible following this type of failure
LOSS OF TAIL ROTOR CONTROL

LOSS OF TAIL ROTOR CONTROL

If during cruise flight a right yaw becomes uncontrollable:
AUTOROTATE - Maintain airspeed at or above 80 KIAS
ENG POWER CONT levers - OFF (during deceleration when intended point of landing is assured)

LOSS OF TAIL ROTOR CONTROL

If at low airspeed or hover a right yaw becomes uncontrollable:
Collective - Reduce
ENG POWER CONT levers - OFF (5 to 10 feet above touchdown)

LOSS OF TAIL ROTOR CONTROL

If an uncontrolled left yaw develops during low airspeed or hover:
ENG POWER CONT levers - Retard
Collective - Increase (NR will decrease)
ENG POWER CONT levers - OFF (5 to 10 feet above touchdown)
Collective - Adjust for landing

UH-60M Emergency Procedures C5 (IAW FRCs) 4

FUEL 1 BYPASS + FUEL 2 BYPASS Cautions appear
LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE

FUEL PRESS 1 LOW + FUEL PRESS 2 LOW Cautions appear

LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE

Indications:
• HYD PUMP 1 FAIL + HYD PUMP 2 FAIL
Additional Indications:
• TRIM FAIL + FPS FAIL + T/R SERVO 1 FAIL Cautions
• T/R SERVO 2 ON + BACK-UP PUMP ON Advisories
HYD PUMP 1 FAIL AND HYD PUMP 2 FAIL

HYD PUMP 1 FAIL AND HYD PUMP 2 FAIL

LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE (Restrict control movements to moderate rate)

Indications:
• HYD PUMP 1 FAIL + T/R SERVO 1 FAIL + PRI SERVO 1 FAIL Cautions
HYDRAULIC PUMP 1 FAIL WITHOUT BACK-UP PUMP ON ADVISORY

HYDRAULIC PUMP 1 FAIL WITHOUT BACK-UP PUMP ON ADVISORY

BACK-UP HYD PUMP switch - ON

Indications:
• T/R SERVO 1 FAIL Caution
T/R SERVO 1 FAIL WITH NO BACK-UP PUMP ON ADVISORY OR T/R SERVO 2 ON ADVISORY DOES NOT
APPEAR

T/R SERVO 1 FAIL WITH NO BACK-UP PUMP ON ADVISORY OR T/R SERVO 2 ON ADVISORY DOES NOT
APPEAR
TAIL SERVO switch - BACK-UP

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UH-60M Emergency Procedures C5 (IAW FRCs) 5

UH-60M Limits
(Change 4)
Any time an operational limit is exceeded, an appropriate entry shall be made on DA Form _______.
Entry shall state what limit or limits were _______, ______, ___________, and any additional data that
would aid maintenance personnel in the maintenance action that may be required. The helicopter
shall not be ________ until corrective action is taken.
2408-13-1
exceeded, range, time beyond limits
flown

RED and YELLOW striped tapes and red readouts indicate the limit above or below which continued
operation is ______________.
YELLOW tapes and readouts indicate ______________.
GREEN tapes and readouts indicate ______________.
likely to cause damage or shorten component life.
the range when special attention should be given to the operation covered by the instrument.
the safe or normal range of operation.

Maximum wind velocity for rotor start or stop is ___ knots from any direction.
45 knots

Operating an engine against the gust lock is ____.

Prohibited

Maximum rotor speed for emergency rotor brake applications is _____ NR.
76%

Routine stops will be with engine(s) off, NR below ___% and with _____ - ______ psi applied to stop
the rotor in not less than ___ seconds.
40%
150-180 psi
12 seconds

Minimum rotor brake pressure for engine start is ___ psi. Maximum rotor brake pressure for engine
start is ___ psi.
450 psi
690 psi

Use of the rotor brake with engine(s) operating is restricted to ______ and ____ engine starts and
operations at ____ only.
single
dual
IDLE

UH-60M Limits 1
Single and dual engine starts and operation at ____ with rotor brake on are not time limited.
IDLE

Single-engine operation with gust lock engaged will be performed by ________ at ____ only.
authorized pilot(s)
IDLE

(Transmission) oil pressure should remain steady and should be in the ____ - ____ range to ensure
that when fluctuations occur, they remain in the acceptable range...
45-60 psi

If (transmission) oil pressure is not steady during steady state forward flight or in a level hover, or if
oil pressure is steady but under ___ psi, make an entry on DA Form 2408-13-1. Sudden pressure drop
(more than ___ psi) without fluctuation requires an entry on DA Form 2408-13-1.
45 psi
10 psi

NP1 / NP2
12 sec Trans: 105-107%
Transient: 101-105%
Continuous: 95-101%
Transient: 91-95%

NP1 / NP2
AVOID OPERATIONS IN ___ - ___% AND ___ - ___% RANGE EXCEPT DURING START AND SHUTDOWN
20-40%
60-90%

NR - Power On
Transient: 101-107%
Continuous: 95-101%
Transient: 91-95%

NR - Power Off (Autorotation)

Maximum: 110%
Transient: 105-110%
Normal: 90-105%

Gas Generator Speed (NG)

12 Second Transient: 105-106%
Continuous: 0-105%

UH-60M Limits 2
Torque (Q)
DUAL ENGINE
• Above 80 KIAS
o 10 Second Transient: 100-144%
o Continuous: 0-100%
• 80 KIAS or below
o 10 Second Transient: 120-144%
o Continuous: 0-120%
SINGLE ENGINE
• 10 Second Transient: 135-144%
• Continuous: 0-135%

Turbine Gas Temperature (TGT)

12 Second Transient: 903-949°C
2.5 Minutes Transient (Contingency Power): 879-903°C
Start Abort Limit: 851°C
10 Minute Limit: 846-879°C
30 Minute Limit: 793-846°C
Normal: 0-793°C

Engine Oil Temperature

30 Minute Limit: 135-150°C
Continuous: -20-135°C

Engine Oil Pressure

5 Minute Limit: 100-120 psi
Normal: 26-100 psi
Idle: 22-26 psi

Main Transmission Oil Temperature

Precautionary: 105-140°C
Continuous: -20-105°C

Main Transmission Oil Pressure

Precautionary: 65-130 psi
Continuous: 30-65 psi
Idle and Transient: 20-30 psi

Fuel Quantity
Normal: >200 (Each Tank)
Precautionary: 0-200 (Each Tank)

UH-60M Limits 3
The pneumatic starter is capable of making the number of consecutive start cycles listed below, when
exposed to the environmental conditions specified, with an interval of at least ___ seconds between
the completion of one cycle and the beginning of the next cycle
60

At ambient temperatures of ___ and below, ___ consecutive start cycles may be made, followed by a
__ minute rest period, followed by ___ additional consecutive start cycles. A ___ minute rest period is
then required before any additional starts.
15°C, 2, 3, 2, 30

At ambient temperatures above ___ up to ____, ___ consecutive start cycles may be made. A ___
minute rest period is then required before any additional start cycles.
15°C, 52°C, 2, 30

The minimum ground-air source (pneumatic) required to start the helicopter engines is __ psig and
___ ppm at ___ (300°F). The maximum ground-air source to be applied to the helicopter is ___ psig at
___ (480°F), measured at the external air connector on the fuselage.
40 psig, 30 ppm, 149°C, 50 psig, 249°C

Crossbleed starts shall not be attempted unless the ___ advisory does not appear, and operating
engine must be at ___ or above and rotor speed at ___
ENG 1 ANTI-ICE ON or ENG 2 ANTI-ICE ON , 90% NG, 100 % NR

Engine overspeed check in flight is ___. Engine overspeed checks, on the ground, are authorized by
____ only
Prohibited, designated maintenance personnel

Fuel boost pumps shall be off except as required by emergency procedures and the following
limitations. Fuel boost pumps shall be on when operating with JP-4 or equivalent (as specified in
Operator's Manual):
(1) At 5000 feet pressure altitude and above.
(2) When operating in crossfeed with JP-4 at any altitude.
Due to fuel volatility, when converting from JP-4 to JP-5/JP-8, three helicopter refueling operations must
be completed before performing operations with fuel boost pumps off.

Max Gross Weight

22,000 lbs

Max gross weight for UH-60M external lift mission.

23,500 lbs

UH-60M Limits 4
Max gross weight for ESSS helicopter on ferry mission (airworthiness release required).
24,500 lbs

External lift missions above ___ pounds can only be flown with cargo hook loads above ___ pounds
and up to ____ pounds.
22,000 lbs
8,000 lbs
9,000 lbs

Maximum weight is further limited by cargo floor maximum capacity of ___ pounds per square foot.
Refer to Chapter 6.
300

Maximum capacity for each storage compartment is ___ pounds.

125

The four cabin ceiling tiedown fittings have a limited load capability of ____ pounds
4,000 lbs

The 17 tiedown fittings installed on the cargo floor can restrain a ______ pound load in any direction.
(Chapter 6)
5,000 lbs

The upper net restraint rings are rated at a _______ pound capacity in any direction. (Chapter 6)
3,500 lbs

The maximum weight that may be suspended from the cargo hook is ____ pounds. The external load
limit of the airframe will not be exceeded when using cargo hook.
9,000 lbs

The maximum weight that may be suspended from the rescue hoist is ___ pounds.
600

Maximum airspeed with external cargo hook loads up to ___ pounds is ___ KIAS and greater than ___
pounds and a corresponding gross weight greater than ____ pounds will vary due to the external load
physical configuration, but shall not exceed ___ KIAS
8,000 lbs
140 KIAS
8,000 lbs
22,000 lbs
120 KIAS

UH-60M Limits 5
Maximum airspeed for one engine inoperative is ___ KIAS.
130

Maximum airspeed for autorotation at a gross weight of 16,825 pounds or less is ___ KIAS.
150

Maximum airspeed for autorotation at a gross weight of 16,825 pounds or more is ___ KIAS.
130

Sideward/rearward flight limits. Hovering in winds greater than __ knots (__ knots with external fuel
tanks) from the sides or rear is prohibited. Sideward/Rearward flight into the wind, when combined
with windspeed, shall not exceed __ knots (__ knots with external fuel tanks).
45, 35,
45, 35

SAS inoperative airspeed limits:

(1) One SAS inoperative - 170 KIAS.
(2) Two SAS inoperative - 150 KIAS.
(3) Two SAS inoperative in IMC - 140 KIAS.

Hydraulic system inoperative limits:

(1) One hydraulic system inoperative - 170 KIAS.
(2) Two hydraulic systems inoperative - 150 KIAS.
(3) Two hydraulic systems inoperative in IMC - 140 KIAS.

Landing light. If use is required, the landing light must be extended prior to reaching a maximum
forward airspeed of ___ KIAS. With landing light extended, airspeed is limited to ___ KIAS.
130 KIAS
180 KIAS

Searchlight. If use is required, the searchlight must be extended prior to reaching a maximum forward
airspeed of ___ KIAS. With searchlight extended, airspeed is limited to ___ KIAS .
100 KIAS
180 KIAS

The maximum airspeed for autorotation shall be limited to ___ KIAS with Volcano installed.
100

Maximum airspeed with skis installed is ___ KIAS.

155

UH-60M Limits 6
Cabin door(s) may be fully open up to ___ KIAS.
145

If you are required to open the cabin doors in flight, the aircraft must be below _____ and crew
members opening the cabin door must be secured to the aircraft...
80 KIAS

Gunner or BAM window(s) may be fully open up to ___ KIAS.

170

BAM windows shall not be transitioned open or closed above ____.

120 KIAS

Flight with cockpit door(s) removed is ______

Prohibited

Stabilator Failure Note: Vne becomes variable to indicate the airspeed limit applicable for the current
stabilator position, except in no case shall the autorotation limit exceed ___ KIAS.
120

The stabilator shall be set _____ at speeds _____ KIAS and below.
full down
40

The stabilator shall be set at __ at speeds above __ KIAS.

0°
40

PROHIBITED MANEUVERS.
a. Hovering turns greater than 30°per second are prohibited. Intentional maneuvers beyond
attitudes of +/-30°pitch or over 60°roll are prohibited.
b. Simultaneous moving of both ENG POWER CONT levers to IDLE or OFF (throttle chop) in flight is
prohibited.
c. Rearward ground taxi is prohibited.

Manual operation of the stabilator in flight is _______ except as required by formal training and
maintenance test flight requirements or as alternate stabilator control in case the AUTO mode
malfunctions.
Prohibited

UH-60M Limits 7
Prolonged ______ and _____ are to be avoided to prevent accumulation of _____ in the helicopter
and heat damage to ______
Rearward flight
Downwind hovering
Exhaust Fumes
Windows on open cargo doors

Maneuvers entered from a low power setting may result in transient droop of ___ NR or greater.
5%

Above ___ KIAS avoid abrupt, _____ to prevent excess tail rotor system loading.
80
full pedal inputs

Maneuvering limitations with a rescue hoist load are limited to a maximum of ___ angle of bank in
forward flight. Side flight is limited by bank angle and is decreased as airspeed increases. Rearward
flight with hoist load is limited to ___ knots. Rate of descent is limited to ______.
30°
35
1,000 FPM

Bank angles shall be limited to ___ when a PRI SERVO FAIL caution appears.
30 degrees

Do not exceed a touchdown sink rate of ___ feet-per- minute on level terrain and ___ feet-per-minute
on slopes with gross weights of up to 16,825 pounds; above 16,825 pounds gross weight do not
exceed ___ feet-per-minute on level terrain and ___ feet-per-minute on slopes.
540 , 360
300 , 180

Maximum forward touchdown speed is limited to ___ knots ground speed on level terrain.
60

Slope landing limitations are ___ noseup, right wheel up or left wheel upslope. The slope limitations
shall be further reduced by __ for every __knots of wind.
15 degree
2 degrees
5 knots

UH-60M Limits 8
___ nose downslope. Landing in downslope conditions with tail winds greater than ___ knots shall not
be conducted. A low-frequency oscillation may occur when landing nose-down on a slope with the
cyclic near the aft stop.
6 degree
15 knots

At slope angle of 10° an indicated oil pressure of ___ to ___ psi is normal; and at 15° slope angle, a
pressure in the range of ___ to ___ is normal due to pitching of the helicopter.
30, 35
10, 15

The main gearbox may be operated up to ___ minutes at a time with pressure fluctuations when the
helicopter is known to be at a nose-up attitude (i.e., slope landings or hover with extreme aft CG).
30 minutes

The ice detecting system is calibrated for ____ KIAS. When flying at airspeeds above ____ knots, the
ice rate meter will indicate _________ LWC than the actual conditions.
100
100
higher

Helicopters with the following equipment installed, operational, and turned on are permitted to fly
into ___ or ___ icing conditions: (5 things)
Trace, Light
(1) Windshield Anti-ice.
(2) Pitot Heat.
(3) Engine Anti-ice.
(4) Engine Inlet Anti-ice Modulating Valve.
(5) Insulated Ambient Air Sensing Tube.

For flight into moderate icing conditions, all equipment in b. and ______must be installed,
operational, and turned on
Blade deice kit

Flight into heavy or severe icing is ________

Prohibited

UH-60M Limits 9
During prolonged ground operation of the backup pump using MIL-H-83282 or MIL-H-5606 with the
rotor system static, the backup pump is limited to the following temperature/time/cooldown limits
because of hydraulic fluid overheating:
FAT °C Operation Cooldown
-54°-32° Unlimited --
33°-38° 24 Minutes 72 Minutes
39°-52° 16 Minutes 48 Minutes

To prevent APU overheating, APU operation at ambient temperature of _____ and above with engine
and rotor operating, is limited to ___ minutes. With engine and rotor not operating, the APU may be
operated _____ up to an ambient temperature of ___.
43°C
30 mins
Continuously
51°C

If APU OIL HOT caution appears a ___ minute cooling period is required, before checking oil level.
30

Windshield anti-ice check shall not be done when FAT is over _____
27°C

Intentional flight into severe turbulence is _______

Prohibited

Intentional flight into thunderstorms is _______

Prohibited

Intentional flight into turbulence with a _______ attached and an inoperative _______ is prohibited
Sling load
Collective trim

BFT Normal operating temperature range:

-26°C to 71°C

The jettisoning of fuel tanks in other than an emergency is __________

Prohibited

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UH-60M Limits 10
Aircraft
Systems
UH-60M
Engines and Related Systems
What are the 4 sections of the engine?
Cold Section
Hot Section
Power Turbine Section
Accessory [Gearbox] Section

What are the functions of the HMU?

PM CAN VDTO
Pumps fuel at a high pressure (400-832 psi, 300 psi idle) for better atomization.
Meters fuel via the LDS, PAS, and DEC (Torque Motor) inputs.
Collective pitch compensation through the LDS. When collective is moved, Ng is reset for immediate
Np response.
Accel/decel fuel flow limiting to prevent compressor stalls, engine damage and flameout.
Ng limiting (will occur before TGT limiting in extreme cold weather) and Ng shutdown (at 110% Ng).
Variable Geometry Positioning of the inlet guide vanes for optimum performance.
DEC Lockout via the PAS to bypass torque motor inputs from the DEC.
Torque Motor input to trim Ng output.
Opens the vapor vent for fuel priming.

What are the functions of the ODV?

HOPS
Hot start prevention (shuts of fuel when activated by hot start preventer)
Overspeed Protection (limits fuel flow when signal is sent from DEC)
Purges main fuel manifold and nozzles at shutdown to prevent coking.
Sequencing of main fuel for engine starting and operation.

What are the 3 windings in the Alternator?

NIP
Ng signal to the cockpit (green)
Ignition power to the exciters during start (black)
Power for DEC (yellow)

What happens during a complete alternator failure?

Loss of Ng cockpit indication with corresponding ENG OUT warnings and audio (Ng < 55%).
NOTE: There will be no loss of NP1 and NP2, or Q, and Overspeed Protection is still available due to DEC
being backed up by airframe power.

Aircraft Systems UH-60M 1

What are the functions of the DEC?
FT (TINT) HHOT
Fault indication through the TQ indicator.
Trims HMU output through the torque motor based on:
TGT limiting at 879±9 Dual Engine or 903±10 when other engine is below 50% Q(DEC, sooner
with EDECU).
Isochronous NP Governing to maintain NP at the reference set by the pilot.
NP reference from the cockpit via the Eng Speed Trim Switch (INCR/DECR) from 96-100%.
Torque matching/Load sharing increases power on the low engine up to 3% above the
reference.
Hot Start Preventer tells ODV to shutoff fuel when TGT 900°C,NG<60%, NP<50%.
History Counter Signal
Overspeed Protection at 120±1%.
Transient Droop Compensation. 4-1 improvement to reduce transient droop.

When does the EDECU switch from the 10-minute TGT limiting value to the higher 2.5-minute TGT
limiting value?
When any of the following occur:
1) NP drops below 96%
2) Greater than 3% droop between reference NP and actual NP.
3) Greater than 5% per second NP droop rate exists and NP less than or equal to NP reference.

What functions are locked out when going to (DEC) lockout?

1) TGT Limiting
2) Isochronous Np Governing
3) Np Reference from the cockpit
4) Torque Matching/Load Sharing

If an engine fails to the highside (DEC failure), will the other engine RPM rise with it? For how long?
Yes, but only until NP is 3% above the reference NP.

In what 3 (emergency) situations will TGT limiting not work?

Engine Starts, Compressor Stall, Lockout

Is the TGT temp displayed in the aircraft the actual temperature of the engine? Why?
No, it has a -112 degree C bias (the engine is running hotter than the indication).

What parameters will activate HSP? Can it be overridden?

TGT > 900C, NG < 60%, NP < 50%.
It can be disabled for emergency starts by pressing and holding the overspeed test button (TEST A/B) for
the engine being started during the start sequence.

Aircraft Systems UH-60M 2

Flight Controls and AFCS
What is the main function of the MMU?
Minimize inherent control coupling. (Basically, decrease pilot workload)

What are the 4 types of mixing the MMU provides, what do they compensate for, and what input
does it provide?
• Collective to Pitch - Compensates for the rotor downwash on the stabilator. Provides forward
input to the rotor as collective is increased and aft as it is decreased.
• Collective to Roll - Compensates for translating tendency. Provides left input to rotor as
collective is increased, right as it is decreased.
• Collective to Yaw - Compensates for torque effect. Increases TR pitch as collective is increased,
and decreases TR pitch as collective is decreased.
• Yaw to Pitch - Compensates for the vertical thrust component of the canted TR. Provides aft
input to rotor as TR pitch is increased, and forward as TR pitch is decreased.

What is electronic coupling? What does it compensate for?

Collective/Airspeed to Yaw - helps compensate for the torque effect. Decreases TR pitch as airspeed
increases and TR and cambered fin become more efficient. Maximum mixing occurs from 0-40 knots,
then decreases to 100 knots, after which no mixing occurs.

What controls electronic coupling (what is it a function of)?

#2 FCC

What are the speeds associated with electronic coupling?

• 0-40 knots - Maximum Mixing.
• 40-100 knots - Mixing decreases.
• >100 knots - No Mixing.

What are the 5 subsystems of AFCS?

1) SAS
2) Trim
3) FPS
4) Coupled Flight Director
5) Stabilator

What is the central component to the AFCS system (where the AFCS systems gain their
information/signals to operate?
#1 and #2 Flight Control Computers (FCCs)

Which FCC is the only FCC that sends signals to the trim actuators?
The #2 FCC

Aircraft Systems UH-60M 3

How does each FCC know the status of the other?
The Cross Channel Data Link (CCDL)

Airspeed, Barometric Altitude, and Barometric Rate are provided to the FCCs through which system?
Air Data Computers

The primary function of the ____ is to compute attitude, heading, present position, and turn rate.
EGI

What are the inner loop and outer loop systems in the FCCs?
Inner loop – SAS
Outer loop – Trim

What are some of the characteristics of the inner loop of the FCCs?
Fast in response, limited in authority, does not move the flight controls.

How much control authority does the outer loop of the FCCs have and at what rate?
100%, at a rate of 10% per second.

What are static and dynamic stability?

Static Stability is long term and is the tendency to return to the pilot's desired heading, attitude, or
airspeed.
Dynamic Stability is short term and is the tendency to resist movement.

What does SAS provide? In what axes? What type of stability does it provide (dynamic/static)?
SAS enhances dynamic stability by providing short term rate dampening in the pitch, roll and yaw axis.

What are the brains of SAS1? SAS2?

SAS 1 - #1 FCC
SAS 2 - #2 FCC.

What is the muscle for SAS?

Pitch, Roll, and Yaw SAS Actuators.

How much control authority does SAS have? What if one SAS fails?
5% each for a total of 10%. If one SAS fails, the other will double its gain, but only to its max of 5%
control authority.

When will the SAS OFF caution appears?

Loss of actuator pressure, or if both SAS1 and SAS2 are turned off.

Aircraft Systems UH-60M 4

How is a SAS malfunction identified?
Erratic motion in the helicopter.

What axes (motions) does Trim work in?

Pitch, Roll, Yaw, Collective

What is the muscle for Trim?

3 Trim Actuators (Roll, Yaw, Collective), and 1 Trim Servo (Pitch)

What system monitors Trim?

#2 FCC

What must be on for Trim to be fully operational (because of yaw trim)?

SAS / BOOST

What are the 3 functions of Trim?

Force Gradient, Muscle for FPS, and Electronic Coupling

If a Trim actuator becomes jammed, what allows the controls to still be moved? What force is
required?
Slip clutches allow the flight controls to be moved if an actuator becomes jammed. It requires 80 lbs
maximum in Yaw, 13 lbs maximum in Roll, and 22 lbs maximum in collective.

What type of actuators used for pitch, roll, yaw, and collective trim?
Pitch - Electrohydromechanical actuator.
Roll, Yaw, Collective - Electromechanical actuators.

What does FPS provide? In what axes? What type of stability does it provide (dynamic/static)?
It provides a basic autopilot function in the Pitch, Roll and Yaw axis. Provides long term static stability.

When coupled with trim, how much control authority does FPS have?
100%

What systems must be on for FPS to work?

SAS/BOOST, Trim, SAS 1 and/or SAS 2. Stabilator is not required performance will increase when
operated in the auto mode.

What basic autopilot functions does FPS provide below 50kts? Above 50kts?
< 50 Knots > 50 knots
Pitch Attitude Hold Airspeed / Attitude Hold
Roll Attitude Hold Attitude Hold
Yaw Heading Hold Heading Hold or Turn Coordination

Aircraft Systems UH-60M 5

What are the brains for FPS? Muscle?
Brains – FCCs
Muscle - Trim Actuators

When/How is turn coordination activated?

When roll attitude is greater than 1 degree for any of the following:
1) Lateral cyclic greater than 1/3 inch stick displacement from trim.
2) Cyclic TRIM REL is pressed.
3) Roll attitude is beeped beyond 2.5 degrees bank angle.

What is the purpose of the Stabilator?

Enhance the handling qualities of the helicopter and improves static and dynamic stability about the
pitch axis.

What are the 5 functions of the Stabilator?

SCALP
Streamlines w/ rotor downwash at low airspeeds (below 30 knots) to minimize nose up attitude.
Collective Coupling to minimize pitch attitude excursions due to collective inputs.
Angle of Incidence decreases above 30 knots to improve static stability.
Lateral Sideslip to Pitch coupling to reduce susceptibility to gusts. Stabilator goes up for nose right,
and down for nose left.
Pitch Rate Feedback to improve dynamic stability. Dampens pitch excursions due to turbulence or
"G" forces.

What are the brains for the Stabilator? Muscle?

Brains - 2 FCCs.
Muscle - 2 Stabilator Actuators.

On the MFD, what does it mean when the stabilator indicator is white, yellow, and red?
White: AUTO MODE
Yellow: MANUAL MODE
Red: When stabilator fail flag is displayed.

What is the purpose of the Flight Director?

Provide autopilot functions

Aircraft Systems UH-60M 6

The steering commands derived from the navigation and flight instruments allow FPS to perform what
tasks with a coupled Flight Director?
MAAM MA
Maintain a desired heading
Acquire a selected course
Acquire and track localizer and glide slope for ILS approach
Maintain fixed altitude and/or airspeed
Make a programmed accel/decel and climb/descent to a predetermined airspeed or altitude.
Acquire and track an FMS route.

What are the FD/DCP engagement parameters for the IAS (airspeed hold) mode?
50-150 KIAS

What are the FD/DCP engagement parameters for the HDG (heading hold) mode?
Above 50 KIAS

What are the FD/DCP engagement parameters for the ALT (barometric altitude hold) mode?
Above 50 KIAS

What are the FD/DCP engagement parameters for the RALT (radar altitude hold) mode?
0-1500 ft AGL

What are the FD/DCP engagement parameters for the VS (vertical speed hold) mode?
0-2000 fpm AND above 50 KIAS

What are the FD/DCP engagement parameters for the GA (go around) mode, and what will it provide?
Any airspeed or hover
Gives: 70 KIAS, 750 FPM climb.

What are the FD/DCP engagement parameters for the ALTP (altitude pre-select) mode?
Can be armed in flight or on the ground (will capture within 300’)

What are the FD/DCP engagement parameters for the FMS Navigation mode, and what will it
provide?
Above 50 KIAS
Provides roll command to follow the FMS flight plan.

What are the FD/DCP engagement parameters for the VOR, LOC, and GS Navigation modes, and what
will it provide?
Above 50 KIAS
VOR and LOC modes provide roll commands for the desired course, and GS mode provides collective
commands to follow the glide slope.

Aircraft Systems UH-60M 7

What does the DECL (ILS Deceleration) mode provide when activated?
Pitch command to slow the helicopter to 70 KIAS by 200’ AGL using the DECEL mode (0.5 kts per second
deceleration).

What are the 3 different HVR modes that can be activated with the coupled Flight Director?
HVR DECL (deceleration mode)
HVR VHLD (velocity hold)
HVR POSN (position hold)

At what airspeed can HVR HOLD modes be engaged?

Below 60 knots

What HVR mode is engaged when pressing the “Z-axis plunge” on the trim beeper below 60 knots,
and what other hold mode will be engaged (below 1500’ AGL)?
HVR DECL will be engaged along with RALT hold below 1500’ AGL

When HVR DECL is activated through the z-axis plunge, what will the DECL mode do, and can the rate
be changed?
The helicopter will be slowed at 2.5 knots per second, and the lateral velocity will be kept at 0. The
helicopter will continue to slow until it is below 1 knot and HVR POSN will be engaged.
The deceleration rate can be adjusted from 1.5 to 3.5 knots per second by pushing forward or aft on the
cyclic trim beeper.

How can HVR VHLD be engaged?

By pressing the HVR hold button on the FD/DCP between 1-60 knots, or by pressing the cyclic TRIM REL
button while in HVR DECL mode. Also, if in HVR POSN and the TRIM beeper switch is held for more than
1 second, HVR VHLD will be engaged.

What will HVR VHLD maintain while engaged?

The longitudinal and lateral velocity references at the reference ground speed at the time of
engagement (lateral and longitudinal speed).

What happens if you press the TRIM REL button while in HVR VHLD mode? Cyclic Trim Beeper?
If the TRIM REL button is pressed, HVR VHLD will be disengaged and when the TRIM REL button is
released, it will re-capture at the current longitudinal and lateral velocities.
If the cyclic TRIM beeper is pressed, it will increase/decrease the VHLD velocity at a rate of 3.5 knots per
second.

What are the maximum ground speeds forward, aft, and laterally in HVR VHLD?
Forward: 50 knots
Aft: 20 knots
Laterally: 20 knots

Aircraft Systems UH-60M 8

How can HVR POSN mode be activated?
It will automatically capture when either HVR VHLD or HVR DECL modes are engaged and the helicopter
velocity drops below 1 knot GS.

When in HVR POSN mode, and the cyclic TRIM beeper is pressed, what will happen?
If less than one second, the POSN reference will be adjusted by 1-2 feet in that direction. If more than
one second, HVR VHLD will be engaged.

When in HVR POSN mode, will pressing against the cyclic without pressing the cyclic TRIM REL switch
change the hover reference point?
As long as ground speed does not exceed 2 knots, it will not be affected. Above 2 knots, DECL mode will
engage and POSN will re-engage over the new position.

What will happen if you z-axis plunge above 60 knots?

Unusual attitude recover mode will be engaged. It will:
• Engage barometric altitude hold
• Level the wings (within the limitations of the trim system)
• Engage IAS hold at:
o 80 knots (between 60-80 knots)
o Current speed (between 80-120 knots)
o 120 knots (above 120 knots)

Below 50 knots, what will the collective trim beeper do?

Left/Right – Pedal turn of approximately 3 degrees per second. Once released, maintains heading.
Up/Down – Will adjust the reference altitude for collective FD functions. Once released, altitude hold (if
previously engaged) is re-engaged at the new altitude.

Above 50 knots, what will the collective trim beeper do (if heading mode is not engaged)?
Left/Right – Standard rate turn until released, then back to wings level (previously set attitude).
Up/Down – Will adjust the reference altitude for collective FD functions. Once released, altitude hold (if
previously engaged) is re-engaged at the new altitude.
The collective AFCS Trim Button is deactivated any time the heading hold mode is engaged.

Powertrain
What are the 5 transmission modules?
• 2 - Input Modules
• The Main Module
• 2 - Accessory Modules

What is the tilt in the main transmission?

3° forward tilt

Aircraft Systems UH-60M 9

Where are the freewheeling units located?
The input modules

What is mounted on the accessory modules?

A main generator and a hydraulic pump

What sensor is located on the #2 accessory module?

Rotor speed. (There is also one on the #1 accessory module in the A+ and L models for transient droop
response.)

What switch is located on the #1 accessory module?

Oil Pressure Switch (Light at 14 PSI +/- 2)

How long can the gearboxes run without oil?

30 Minutes

Utility Systems
If the APU generator is the sole source of power, what limitations exist (with the systems)?
The windshield anti-ice and backup pump cannot be used simultaneously.

Why shouldn't ice be allowed to accumulate on the windshield?

Ice shedding can cause engine FOD.

What is the purpose of the OAT sensor?

Provides a signal to the controller for heating EOT (element on time) of the rotor blades. The lower the
OAT, the longer the EOT will be.

How many IR sensors are located on the helicopter for fire detection?
5 - 2 in each engine compartment and 1 in the APU compartment.

What happens when the APU Fire T-Handle is pulled?

1) Shuts off fuel to the APU
2) Sends a stop signal to the ESU (turning off the ignition to the APU)
3) The directional valve is armed for the APU compartment.

Where does the extinguishing agent go if more than one lever is pulled?
The LAST lever pulled.

When does the crash activated fire extinguishing system activate? Where does the fire extinguishing
agent go?
10 Gs or more. Both engine compartments.

Aircraft Systems UH-60M 10

What bottle must be discharged if there is no AC power to the helicopter?
The reserve

What firefighting capability is lost when there is no AC power to the helicopter?

No 2 Engine

What is AVCS (what is its purpose)?

Active Vibration Control System – reduces vibrations by mechanically generating additional vibrations
out of phase with the main rotor in the 90-105 NR range. It compensates for changes in helicopter
configurations throughout flight such as weight and CG.

What is the muscle for AVCS?

3 Force Generators (FGs)

What does each FG contain to produce force?

2 Mechanical Units (MUs)

Heating/Ventilation, Lighting, Servicing Parking and Mooring, Emergency Equipment

How much is max torque decreased with the heater on?
5% (7.5% with Auxiliary Cabin Heater)

When will the heater automatically disengage?

During engine starts, and when it reaches 90° to 96°C

What are the minimum parking requirements?

1) Rotor brake or gust lock engaged
2) Wheel brakes set
3) Tailwheel locked
4) Wheels chocked

How long after shutdown must you wait to check engine oil level? When must it be at the full line?
20 minutes. Flights over 6 hours.

What hydraulic pump temperature requires an entry on the 2408-13-1?

>132°C

How many first aid kits are in the helicopter? Fire extinguishers? Crash axes?
• 3 First Aid Kits
• 2 Fire Extinguishers
• 1 Crash Axe

Aircraft Systems UH-60M 11

What are the emergency exits on the helicopter?
Either cockpit door (or windows if Navy style windows are installed), or cabin windows.

Fuel System
Describe the fuel flow through the engine?
PFHLO - Path Finders Have Little Ovaries
From the low pressure fuel pump, to the fuel filter, HMU, liquid to liquid cooler, ODV, and finally to the
fuel nozzles.

What are the methods of refuel, and what are the maximum fuel pressures and flows associated with
each?
• Gravity
• Pressure - 55 PSI at 300 GPM
• Closed Circuit - 15 PSI at 110 GPM.

When do the FUEL LOW cautions appear?

Approximately 172 lbs.

When must a fuel sample be completed?

1) Before the first flight of the day
2) After adequate settling time after cold refueling
3) If the fuel source is suspected to be contaminated

Where does the APU get fuel from?

The #1 fuel tank

When is the prime/boost pump actuated (3 conditions cause it to activate)?

1) During engine starts when the starter is engaged
2) When the FUEL PUMP switch is moved to the FUEL PRIME position.
3) When the APU is started and operating

Can an engine be primed when the other engine is running?

No, the prime pump capacity is not enough to prime an engine when the opposite engine is running.

What is the capacity of the fuel tanks? What type of refueling will allow for the most fuel to be added
to the tanks?
360 Gallons (180/tank)
Gravity refuel will allow the most fuel to be added.

Aircraft Systems UH-60M 12

Hydraulic System
How much pressure do the hydraulic systems supply?
3000 PSI

How are the #1 and #2 hydraulic pumps driven? The backup pump?
The #1 and #2 pumps are driven by the accessory modules (in response to RPM R). The backup pump is
driven by an AC electric motor.

How many filters are located on each pump? When do the impending bypass buttons pop up for each
filter?
2 - a pressure and a return filter.
The red buttons will pop when pressure goes up 70 +/- 10 psi above normal.

Why is bypass required for the hydraulic system? Is there a bypass on the return and pressure filters?
When will the bypass valve open?
To prevent hydrostatic lock. There is no bypass on the pressure filter. The return filter bypass valve
opens at 100 +/- 10 psi above normal.

When do RSVR LOW cautions appear?

60% fluid remaining

What does the #1 hydraulic system supply pressure to?

1) The first stage of all primary servos
2) The first stage of the tail rotor servo

What does the #2 hydraulic system supply pressure to?

1) The second stage primary servos
2) The pilot assist servos.

What does the backup hydraulic system supply pressure to?

1) Emergency pressure to the #1 and #2 hydraulic systems
2) The second stage of the tail rotor servo
3) The APU accumulator

The pitch trim servo requires how much pressure? How does the pressure change from one amount to
another?
1000 PSI. It is reduced via a pressure reducer.

When does the impending bypass button pop up on the Pilot Assist Module?
1375 PSI

Aircraft Systems UH-60M 13

What 2 things can only be pressurized by the backup hydraulic system?
Second stage of the tail rotor servo and the APU accumulator.

What are the time differences for the backup pump to come on when the main generator is operating
vs when the APU generator is operating?
.5 seconds when the main generator is operating and 4 seconds when operating from the APU generator
or external power.
The depressurization valve reduces output pressure of the pump upon startup of the electric motor to
reduce its current demand and torque requirement.

What 5 lights cause the backup pump to come on?

1) RSVR 1 LOW
2) HYD PUMP 1 FAIL
3) T/R SERVO 1 FAIL
4) HYD PUMP 2 FAIL
5) APU ACCUM LOW

What boost servos are on the helicopter?

Collective, Yaw and Pitch.

What happens if there is a leak in the APU Accumulator?

The flow rate should increase. When it increases to 1.5 GPM (normally the flow is 1 GPM), the velocity
fuse in the utility module will shutoff flow to the accumulator, preventing all of the fluid from being
drained from the backup pump.

Can both #1 and #2 primary servos be turned off at the same time? Why?
No, they cannot because of an electrical interlock.

Describe a leak in the #1 system.

• A leak is detected and the RSVR 1 LOW Caution appears
• LDI isolates the #1 TAIL RTR SERVO, turns on the backup pump, and pressurizes the #2 TAIL RTR
SERVO.
If the leak continues:
• The HYD PUMP 1 FAIL caution will appear, the transfer valve in the #1 transfer module will move
over, the #1 hydraulic pump will be isolated and the backup pump will pressurize the #1 system.
• Hydraulic logic will automatically restore the #1 TAIL RTR SERVO.
If the leak continues:
• The BACK-UP RSVR LOW caution will appear and the pilot must isolate the #1 PRIM SERVO.
• If the pilot does not isolate the servo, all of the hydraulic fluid will be lost through the backup
pump, and the backup and #1 systems will be inoperative.

Aircraft Systems UH-60M 14

Describe a leak in the #2 system
• A leak is detected and the RSVR 2 LOW caution will appear.
• LDI isolates the Pilot Assist Area (BOOST SERVO OFF, SAS OFF, FPS FAIL, and TRIM FAIL cautions
will appear).
If the leak continues:
• The HYD PUMP 2 FAIL caution will appear, and the backup hydraulic pump will come on.
• The transfer valve in the #2 transfer module will move over, the #2 hydraulic pump will be
isolated, and the backup pump will pressurize the #2 system.
• Hydraulic logic will restore the pilot assist area.
• If the leak stops there, the pilot must do a power on reset to get back FPS and TRIM.
If the leak continues:
• The BACK-UP RSVR LOW caution will appear and the pilot must isolate the #2 PRIM SERVO.
• If the pilot does not isolate the servo, all of the hydraulic fluid will be lost through the backup
pump, and the backup and #2 systems will be inoperative.

What will happen if the #1 pump fails?

• HYD PUMP 1 FAIL Caution will appear and T/R SERVO 1 FAIL caution will appear.
• Hydraulic Logic will turn on the backup pump.
• Pressure from the backup pump will reposition the transfer valve in the No.1 transfer module,
pressurizing the No.1 system, and it will operate the second stage tail rotor servo.
• The pilot should move the TAIL SERVO switch to Backup and then Normal for continued system
redundancy in the tail rotor.

What will happen if the #2 pump fails?

• HYD PUMP 2 FAIL Caution will appear
• TRIM FAIL, FPS FAIL, BOOST SERVO OFF, and SAS OFF cautions will briefly appear.
• Hydraulic Logic will turn on the backup pump.
• Pressure from the backup pump will reposition the transfer valve in the No.2 transfer module,
pressurizing the No.2 system (including the Pilot Assist Area).
• The BOOST SERVO OFF and SAS OFF cautions will disappear.
• The pilot should do a power on reset to get full control of the pilot assist area.

Pneumatic System
How many bleed ports are on the engine and what do they do?
3. One provides air to the anti-ice start bleed valve and the other two provide air to the pneumatic
system and engine inlet anti-ice.

What is the purpose of the APU?

It is used to start the main engines, cabin heating, and electrical power for ground and emergency in-
flight electrical operations.

Aircraft Systems UH-60M 15

What is the air source for starting the APU?
The APU Accumulator

When does the APU ACCUM LOW advisory appear?

2600 PSI

What should you do if the APU fails?

If the APU FAIL light appears, note and analyze the bite indications before cycling the battery, or
attempting another start.
If the APU ACCUM LOW light hasn't come on, you can pull the manual override lever on the accumulator
manifold and hold it until the APU has reached self-sustaining speed.

How much is max torque reduced with use of engine anti-ice?

20% TRQ

When do the ENG ANTI-ICE ON advisories appear?

• When the ENG ANTI-ICE is on
• During low power settings until Ng reaches 88-92%.
• In the event of an electrical failure the start bleed valve will open and the advisories will appear.

When must the engine inlet anti-ice come on? When might it come on? When won't it come on?
Must - 4°C and below
May - Above 4°C to 13°C
Will Not - Above 13°C

When will the ENG INLET ANTI-ICE ON advisories appear?

When the temperature of the inlet fairing gets above about 93°C.

What are the requirements for performing a cross-bleed start?

Anti-ice advisory on the source engine must be off, Ng above 90%, and RPMR at 100%.

Main and Tail Rotor Groups

What type of bearings are used in the main rotor system? Tail rotor?
Main - Elastomeric bearings
Tail - None. The tail rotor is a bearingless tail rotor system.

What type of rotor system is the main rotor? Tail rotor?

Main - Fully Articulated (it can feather, flap, and lead/lag)
Tail – Rigid

Aircraft Systems UH-60M 16

What is the cant of the tail rotor? How much total lifting force does is supply in a hover?
20° cant which provides 2.5% of the total lifting force in a hover.

What does a TAIL ROTOR QUADRANT caution indicate?

That a tail rotor cable has been severed.

What happens if both tail rotor cables fail?

The centering spring will position the tail rotor servo linkage to provide 10.5 degrees of pitch.

If both cables fail, is trimmed flight available? At what airspeeds?

Trimmed flight is available between 25 KIAS to 145 KIAS (depending on gross weight).

What will happen if the helicopter is shut down after one cable is severed?
The other tail rotor cable will become disconnected.

Electrical System
What type of current is the primary source of power for the helicopter (AC/DC)?
AC

When does the APU GEN ON advisory appear?

When only the APU generator is supplying power to the system. It will not appear when either the No.1
or No.2 generator is supplying power.

How is primary DC power obtained?

From 2 converters with the batteries as a secondary power source.

How are the main generators cooled?

With transmission oil

What busses are powered when only the battery switch is on?
BUB - Battery Utility Bus
Battery Bus
DC Essential Bus

What allows power from one generator to power all of the other generators main busses?
Current Limiters

Aircraft Systems UH-60M 17

What are the functions of the GCU?
FUC VOU
Feader Fault - when there is a short circuit, the generator is disabled.
Under Frequency Protection - during ground operations only, it is disabled by the WOW switch. It
disables gens below 93%-95%.
Current Limiting - If there is excessive current demand to the generator, it will be disabled.
Voltage Regulation - regulates to 115/200 VAC.
Over Voltage - if output voltage rises above 125 VAC, the generator will be disabled.
Under Voltage - if the output voltage drops below 100+/-5 VAC, the generator is disabled.

How long can the SLAB battery operate in flight if it is the sole source of power?
Approximately 15 minutes (less when using the searchlight).

When does the BATT LOW CHARGE caution appear?

When voltage on the BUB drops below 20.5 VDC.

What does a GEN BRG caution indicate? When does it have to be written up?
A GEN BRG caution indicates a worn or failed bearing. It needs to be written up if the GEN BRG caution
appears for more than 1 minute.

Can we continue to fly if a GEN BRG appears? For how long?

Yes, the auxiliary bearing will allow 10 additional hours of operation after the caution appears.

Premium Content
For Question and Answer flashcards go to:

Aircraft Systems UH-60M 18

Regulations
and
Publications
ATP REQUIREMENTS
How many days are allowed to progress from one RL to the next? (TC 3-04.11)
90 days, excluding days lost due to
• TDY or deployment where unable to fly
• Med or non-med suspension
• Grounding of A/C by HQ
• Leave approved by CDR.
• A/C non availability due to movement to deployment/redeployment and aircraft preset/reset
(less than 50% available)
• Documented flight cancellations due to weather and/or maintenance that have had a significant
impact on flight operations.

If the exclusion period for RL progression exceeds 45 consecutive days, what must happen? (TC 3-
04.11)
The crewmember must restart their current phase of RL progression.

If you are removed from RL1 due to a training deficiency and reclassified as RL2 or RL3, must you still
meet the ATP requirements for RL1? (AR 95-1)
Yes

Can RL3 designated crewmembers perform 2000 or 3000 series tasks? (TC 3-04.11)
No

Can an RL2 designated rated crewmember fly with a PC? (TC 3.04.11)
Yes, they can fly with a PC and perform all tasks in each mode of flight as authorized on the CTL
previously evaluated as "S" by an IP or SP.

Does an RL1 designated crewmember need to perform a certain number of iterations of each 1000,
2000, and 3000 series task on the CTL? (TC 3-04.11)
Yes, RL1 crewmembers must perform one iteration of each 1000, 2000, and 3000 series task listed in the
CTL during the training year.

After not flying an H60 for how many days, must a crewmember undergo refresher training? What RL
will they be designated? (TC 3-04.11)
After 180 days.
RL3

What are the semiannual flying-hour requirements for RCMs in each FAC level? (UH-60 ATM)
FAC 1 - 48 hours
FAC 2 - 30 hours
FAC 3 - none

Regulations and Publications 1

What is the semiannual flying-hour requirement for NVGs for RL1 RCMs? Can any of those hours be
flown in the simulator? (UH-60 ATM)
9 hours of NVG flight.
3 hours can be in the H-60FS.

What is the annual flying-hour requirement for simulator hours (if within 200 SMs of a SFTS device)?
(UH-60 ATM)
FAC 1 - 18 hours
FAC 2 - 12 hours
FAC 3 - 10 hours semiannually regardless of distance.

What is the annual hood/weather requirement in the ATM?

None. It will be determined by the commander.

What is the aircraft currency requirement? (AR 95-1)

A flight in the last 60 days as PI or PC in the aircraft mission, type, design, and series to be flown.

What is the NVG currency requirement? (3-04.11)

At least 1 hour of flight in their aircraft category at the flight controls while wearing NVGs every 60 days.

How many days to you have to turn in your hand carried records after reporting for duty? (AR 95-1)
14 days.

If an aviator fails to meet ATP requirements and an extension is granted, what restrictions are
imposed? (AR 95-1)
The aviator is restricted from performing pilot-in-command duties (primary, additional, or alternate) in
the aircraft, and if applicable, briefing officer duties, until the missed ATP requirements are met.

CREW COORDINATION
What are the crew coordination Elements and Objectives? (UH-60 ATM and ACT Training)
• Elements
o Communicate positively
o Be explicit
o Announce actions
o Acknowledge actions
o Direct assistance
o Offer assistance
o Coordinate action sequence and timing
o Provide aircraft control and obstacle advisories

Regulations and Publications 2

 • Objectives (TWIX-P)
o Establish and maintain Team Relationships
o Establish and maintain Workloads
o Exchange Mission Information
o Cross-monitor Performance (X-monitor).
o Plan mission and rehearse

Airspace Regulations and Usage

What are the 2 categories of airspace? (AIM)
Regulatory and Non-Regulatory

What are the 4 types of airspace? (AIM)

Controlled
Uncontrolled
Special Use
Other

What are the 2 regulatory types of special use airspace? (AIM)

Prohibited and Restricted

What are the 4 types of non-regulatory special use airspace? (AIM)

Warning Areas
Military Operations Areas (MOAs)
Alert Areas
Controlled Firing Areas (CFAs)

What is a prohibited area? (AIM, GP, TC 3-04.5)

Areas where flight is prohibited (for reasons of security or national welfare).

What is a restricted area? (AIM, GP, TC 3-04.5)

Areas where operations are hazardous to non-participating aircraft. Contain unusual, often invisible,
hazards to aircraft (i.e. artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles).

What is a warning area? (AIM, GP, TC 3-04.5)

Similar to a restricted area only the US government does not have jurisdiction over the airspace. Extends
from 3 NM out from the coast of the US.

What is a military operations area? (AIM, GP, TC 3-04.5)

Used to separate military training activities from IFR aircraft. Examples of activities conducted in MOAs
include, but are not limited to: air combat tactics, air intercepts, aerobatics, formation training, and low-
altitude tactics. Military pilots flying in an active MOA are exempted from the provisions of 14 CFR
Section 91.303(c) and (d) which prohibits aerobatic flight within Class D and Class E surface areas, and
within Federal airways. Additionally, the Department of Defense has been issued an authorization to
operate aircraft at indicated airspeeds in excess of 250knots below 10,000 feet MSL within active MOAs.

Regulations and Publications 3

What is an alert area? (AIM, GP, TC 3-04.5)
In place to inform nonparticipating pilots of areas that may contain a high volume of pilot training or an
unusual type of aerial activity.

What are Basic Cloud Clearance (BCC) requirements? (AR 95-1, AIM)
500’ Below the clouds
1000’ Above the clouds
2000’ Horizontal distance from the clouds

What are the vertical and lateral limits, communication requirements, equipment requirements, and
weather requirements for class A airspace? (AIM, AR 95-1)
• Vertical Limits: 18,000' MSL to FL600
• Lateral Limits: Entire contiguous US and Alaska including airspace 12NM out from the coast.
• Communication: Must have clearance to enter
• Equipment: IFR Equipped
• Weather: N/A
• Note: Must be IFR.

What are the vertical and lateral limits, communication requirements, equipment requirements, and
weather requirements for class B airspace? (AIM, AR 95-1)
• Vertical Limits: Usually SFC to 10,000MSL. Each "layer" is individually tailored.
• Lateral Limits: Individually tailored.
• Communication: Must have clearance to enter
• Equipment: 2 Way Radio, Mode C Transponder
• Weather: 3SM visibility and Clear of Clouds

What are the vertical and lateral limits, communication requirements, equipment requirements, and
weather requirements for class C airspace? (AIM, AR 95-1)
• Vertical Limits: SFC to 4,000' above airport elevation (inner), 1200' to 4,000' above airport
elevation (outer)
• Lateral Limits: 5NM (inner), 10NM (outer)
• Communication: Establish 2 way radio communication with ATC.
• Equipment: 2 Way Radio, Mode C Transponder
• Weather: 3SM visibility and BCC (Basic Cloud Clearance).

What are the vertical and lateral limits, communication requirements, equipment requirements, and
weather requirements for class D airspace? (AIM, AR 95-1)
• Vertical Limits: SFC to 2,500' above airport elevation.
• Lateral Limits: Individually tailored for IAPs however generally 5 NM.
• Communication: Establish 2 way radio communication with ATC.
• Equipment: 2 Way Radio
• Weather: 3SM visibility and BCC.

Regulations and Publications 4

What are the vertical and lateral limits, communication requirements, equipment requirements, and
weather requirements for class E airspace? (AIM, AR 95-1)
• Vertical: Either starts at the ground, 700' AGL, 1200' AGL or 14,500' MSL (if it isn't specified
otherwise), up to 18,000' MSL. Also includes the airspace above FL600.
• Lateral: Entire contiguous US and Alaska extending 12 NM of the coast.
• Communication: None if VFR.
• Equipment: No requirement
• Weather:
o <10,000' MSL - 3 SM visibility and BCC.
o ≥10,000' MSL - (5-111) 5 SM visibility, 1000' above, 1000' below, 1 SM horizontal.

What are the vertical and lateral limits, communication requirements, equipment requirements, and
weather requirements for class G airspace? (AIM, AR 95-1)
• Vertical and Lateral: SFC to base of Class E.
• Communication: None
• Equipment: No requirement
• Weather:
Day Night
< 1200’ AGL ½ SM 1 SM
Clear of Clouds Clear of Clouds
> 1200’ AGL 1 SM 3 SM
< 10,000’ MSL BCC BCC
> 1200’ AGL 5 SM
> 10,000’ MSL 1000’ above, 1000’ below, 1 SM horizontal

How is each class of airspace depicted on a sectional chart? (Sectional Chart Legend)
Class A - Not depicted
Class B - Solid Blue Line
Class C - Solid Magenta Line
Class D - Segmented Blue Line
Class E (sfc) - Segmented Magenta Line
Class E beginning at 700' AGL - Magenta Vignette
Class E beginning at 1200' AGL - Blue Vignette.

What are the dimensions of Federal (Victor) Airways, and what airspace is it classified as? (AIM, GP)
4 NM either side of center line. Extends from 1200' AGL to 18,000' MSL. It is Class E airspace.

What are the weather requirements for SFVR? (AR 95-1)

1/2 SM and clear of clouds unless a higher minima is specified at the airfield.

Regulations and Publications 5

What do 3 digits indicate on a MTR? 4 digits? (AIM, TC 3-04.5, Chart Legend)
3 numbers indicate that the MTR includes at least one segment above 1500' AGL.
4 numbers indicate MTRs with no segment above 1500' AGL.

Which DOD FLIP contains information about MTRs? (GP)

AP/1B

ALSE
What are the required personal items to fly per AR 95-1?
1) Leather Boots approved for aviation.
2) Flight Helmet
3) Flight Suit (A2CUs)
4) Flight Gloves
5) Under layer of cotton, NOMEX, wool, or any blend thereof
6) ID Tags

What are the required ALSE items required to fly per AR 95-1?
1) First Aid Kit
2) Extraction Device
3) Approved Survival Knife
4) Fire Starter
5) Signaling Device
6) Survival Radio

Who will ensure that all required ALSE is onboard prior to takeoff? (AR 95-1)
The PC

What are the oxygen requirements for an unpressurized aircraft? (AR 95-1)
Oxygen will be used by:
• Aircrew
o >10,000' PA for more than 1 hour.
o >12,000’ PA for more than 30 minutes.
o >18,000’ PA prebreathing is required by the aircrew
• Aircrew and other occupants
o >14,000' PA for any period of time.

What are the life preserver requirements according to AR 95-1?

Life Preservers - All personnel aboard an aircraft without single engine flight capability and flown
beyond gliding distance of land will wear life preservers. All other AC will have life preservers readily
available.

When are you required to have an Emergency Breathing System (SeaMK, HEEDS, etc.)? (AR 95-1)
When performing over water operations that are required to wear life preservers, or performing deck
landing operations.

Regulations and Publications 6

Where is the tourniquet located on the ALSE vest?
Left Shoulder

Inadvertent IMC Procedures

What are the procedures for IIMC according the ATM?
1) Announce IIMC, maintain A/C control, immediately make transition to instrument flight, and initiate a
climb.
2) Initiate the correct IIMC recovery procedures:
a. Attitude - level the wings on the attitude indicator.
b. Heading - maintain heading; turn only to avoid known obstacles or as briefed for multiship
operations.
c. Torque - adjust as necessary
d. Trim - as necessary
e. Airspeed - adjust as necessary.
3) Contact ATC as required. Comply with ATC instructions, local regulations and SOP.

Who will announce IIMC?

Whoever goes IIMC. Both pilots may or may not be inadvertent.

Who will announce altitude to climb?

The PC

Weight and Balance

What are the 2 classifications of aircraft, and what classification is the UH60A/L? (AR 95-1, TM)
Class 1 and Class 2.
The UH60A/L is a class 2 aircraft.

What does class 2 mean? (AR 95-1)

Those aircraft whose weight or CG limits can be readily exceeded by loading arrangement normally used
in tactical operations or those AC designed primarily for transporting troops and other passengers.
Therefore, a high degree of loading control is needed.

How often do class 1 and 2 aircraft need to be weighed? (AR 95-1)

Class 1 - 36 months
Class 2 - 24 months

For what other reasons will an aircraft need to be reweighed? (AR 95-1)
1) Overhaul or major airframe repair
2) Modifications of 1% or more of AC's basic weight are applied.
3) Any modification or component replacement (including painting) for which weight and CG can't
be accurately computed.
4) Weight and CG data records are suspected to be in error.

Regulations and Publications 7

What are the PC's requirements for weight and balance in accordance with AR 95-1?
Ensure:
1) The accuracy of computations on the DD 365-4
2) That a completed DD 365-4 is aboard the aircraft.
3) Verify that weight and CG will remain within allowable limits for the entire flight. Several forms
completed for other loadings can be used to meet this requirement, but the actual loading being
verified must be clearly within the extremes of the loading shown on the 365-4 used for
verification.

How often do weight and balance records need to be reviewed? (AR 95-1)
Every 12 months. They have until the last day of the 12th month to complete the review.

Flight Plan Preparation and Filing

What is the purpose of a VFR flight plan? IFR?
VFR - enables search and rescue to identify an overdue aircraft and where it might be.
IFR - to communicate the pilot's intentions to ATC.

Do flight plans have to be filed to go on a flight in an Army aircraft? (AR 95-1)

Yes, unless it's a local flight and an operation's log is used. AR 95-1 states that aircraft will not be flown
unless a flight plan (military or civilian) has been filed or an operation's log completed.

If your aircraft is instrumented for IFR and flown by an instrument rated pilot, do you have to file an
IFR flight plan. (AR 95-1)
Yes. Unless:
1) The flight is primarily for VFR training.
2) Time will not permit mission completion under IFR.
3) Mission can only be accomplished under VFR
4) Excessive ATC departure, en route, or terminal area delays are encountered.
5) Hazardous weather conditions must be avoided.
6) Aircraft is being flown single pilot

Is a crew and passenger manifest required for every flight? (AR 95-1)
Yes. A crew and passenger manifest is required for all flights.

When does an VFR flight plan "time out" of the FSS system? (AIM)
If it is not activated or updated by the pilot within 1 hour of the proposed departure time.

When does an IFR flight plan "time out" of the ATC system? (AIM)
If it is not activated or updated by the pilot within 2 hours of the proposed departure time.

When departing a non-military airport, what must the pilot do in regards to the time he takes off?
Why? (AR 95-1, GP)
The pilot must ensure that the actual departure time is passed on to the tie-in FSS, so that the aircraft
does not arrive unannounced.

Regulations and Publications 8

What should be included in the ETE to Alternate block on an IFR flight plan? (TC 3-04.5)
The time from the MAP to the missed approach holding point, one circuit in holding, then from the
missed approach holding point to the alternate including approach and landing time.

How long before flight should a flight plan be filed? (GP, AIM)
At least 30 minutes. However, base ops may have their own time requirements.

When can an IFR flight plan be canceled by the pilot? (AIM)

Anytime the aircraft is operating in VFR conditions outside of class A.

Will an IFR flight plan automatically be canceled when landing? (AIM, GP)
If the airport of landing has an operating control tower, the flight plan is automatically canceled upon
landing.
If the airport of landing does not have an operating control tower, the pilot must cancel the flight plan.
This can be done after landing, or before landing, if the landing will be made in VFR conditions.

What is the pilot's responsibility in regards to closing flight plans at military and non-military
installations? (AIM, GP)
Military Installation - The pilot should verbally confirm closing the flight plan with tower or base ops
(usually it's done automatically).
Non-Military Installation - The pilot must close the flight plan through the nearest FSS.

Forms, Records, and Publications in the Aircraft

What forms are required to be in the aircraft? (AR 95-1)
1) Operator's Checklist
2) Operator's Manual (TM -10) including changes and related SOF or TB's
3) Current DD 365-4
4) Aircraft logbook forms (2408 series).

The aircraft logbook forms that are required on the aircraft are as follows: (DA PAM 738-751)
1) 2408 - Equipment Log Assembly
2) 2408-4-1 - Weapon record data
3) 2408-12 - Army Aviator's Flight Record
4) 2408-13 - Aircraft status info record
5) 2408-13-1 - Aircraft inspection and maintenance record
6) 2408-13-2 - Related Maintenance Actions Record
7) 2408-13-3 - Aircraft technical inspection worksheet
8) 2408-14-1 - Uncorrected fault record
9) 2408-18 - Equipment Inspection List
10) 2408-31 - Aircraft ID Card
11) Form 1896 - Jet Fuel Identaplate

Regulations and Publications 9

What is in an aircraft weight and balance file? (DA PAM 738-751)
1) DD Form 365 - record of weight and balance personnel
2) 365-1 (Chart A) - basic weight checklist record
3) 365-2 (Chart B) - Aircraft weighing record
4) 365-3 (Chart C) - Basic weight and balance record
5) Chart E - Loading Data and special weighing instructions
6) 365-4

What publication lists the forms, pubs, and records that are required in the aircraft?
DA Pam 738-751

VFR/IFR Minimums and Procedures

If planning an IFR flight through class G airspace, what are the altitude considerations? (GP)
Remain at least 1000' AHO in flat terrain, or 2000' AHO in designated mountainous terrain. Also, you
must meet the "semi-circular rule".

For IFR planning, must you avoid flying through a restricted area? (GP)
Yes. Unless on an airway, avoid flying through a restricted area by 3 nm. During flight, ATC will clear a
pilot through if it is a Joint Use restricted area and the using agency releases the airspace to ATC.

Can you fly through an MOA while on an IFR flight?

ATC will clear you through a MOA if radar separation can be provided.

What are helicopter fuel reserve requirements VFR and IFR? (AR 95-1)
VFR: 20 minutes at cruise
IFR: 30 minutes at cruise

How long is a weather forecast valid? (AR 95-1)

1 hour 30 minutes from the time the forecast is received

When filing IFR to a destination airfield, what must the destination weather be? (AR 95-1)
The predominant weather must be equal to or greater than the published weather planning minimums
for the approach to be flown at ETA through 1 hour after ETA.

Can visibility minimums be reduced? (AR 95-1)

Category A visibility minimums may be reduced by 1/2, but not less than 1/4 mile or metric equivalent.
Not authorized if noted on the approach chart, or for Copter approaches.

If the weather at the airfield that you are filing to is not known and if there is no weather reporting
service at the airfield, then what weather forecast can you use? (AR 95-1)
GFA (Graphical Forecast for Aviation)

Regulations and Publications 10

When is an alternate required if you are filing IFR to a destination airfield? (AR 95-1)
(MWR)
M - NAVAIDs are unmonitored
W - Predominant weather is forecast to be less than 400-1 (ceiling and vis) above the weather
planning minimums for the approach to be flown
R - Radar is required
NOTE - Alternate is not required if descent from enroute minimum altitude for IFR operation,
approach, and landing can be made in VFR conditions.

During IFR planning, what criteria must the alternate airfield meet? (AR 95-1)
(WxRAMS)
Wx - Worst weather is forecast to be greater than or equal to 400-1 above the weather planning
minimums for the approach to be flown OR descent from enroute minimum altitude for IFR
operation, approach and landing can be made in VFR conditions.
R - Radar can't be required for the approach.
A - It can't be “A N/A” in FLIP
M - Navigation aids must be monitored.
S - Surface based class B, C, D, or E must exist and be in effect.

Can a GPS-based instrument approach be planned for at an alternate airfield? (AR 95-1)
Yes, but only if one hasn’t been planned for at the destination. A GPS based approach cannot be
planned for at both the destination and alternate.

What are the takeoff minimums if the aviator flying the aircraft on takeoff has less than 50 hours of
actual weather time (for helicopters)? (AR 95-1)
100' ceiling, 1/4 mi visibility or RVR of 1200'

If, upon arrival at your destination, the weather is below approach weather minimums, can you do
the approach anyway? (AR 95-1)
Yes, upon arrival at your destination, an approach may be initiated, regardless of ceiling and visibility.

If an IFR approach plate says "Dual VORs Required" and you only have one VOR can you execute the
approach? (AR 95-1)
Yes, dual VOR equipment requirements specified on approach charts do NOT apply to Army aircraft.

At the completion of an IFR approach, when officially may you descend below the MDA or DH?
(AR 95-1)
When you have one of the following in sight:
1) Approach lights
2) Runway threshold
3) Other marking (i.e. runway paint markings) identifiable with the approach end of the runway.
AND the aircraft is in a position from which a safe landing can be made.

Regulations and Publications 11

What part of ATC instructions/clearance are required to be read back? (GP, AIM)
Ground – Runway assignments and hold short instructions
Air – Altitude assignment/restrictions, radar vectors, and altimeter settings when received from
Approach Control.

What additional reports are required to be made to ATC or FSS without specific ATC Request?
(WHAM SLUT V) (FIH)
• Weather conditions which have not been forecast or hazardous conditions that have been
forecast.
• Holding (time/altitude when reaching fix, and when departing a fix....not required for
instrument training with military terminal facility with radar service)
• Altitude change
• Missed approach (include request)
• Safety of flight information
• Loss of nav/comm ability
• Unable to climb/descent 500 FPM
• TAS change of 5% or 10 knots from FP (whichever is greater)
• VFR on top altitude change

Should you make a radio call FAF inbound? (FIH)

If NOT in Radar Contact

When not in radar contact, when should you report an updated estimate (of time). (FIH)
When it becomes apparent that an estimate previously submitted is in error in excess of three minutes.

What are the 3 emergency transponder codes? (FIH)

7500 - Hijacked (Seven-Fife, man with knife)
7600 - Lost Communications (Seven-Six, can't hear nix)
7700 - Emergency (Seven-Seven, going to heaven)

During lost commo, what route would you follow? (FIH)

In the order below:
1) Route last assigned
2) Route ATC told you to be expected
3) Route filed in your flight plan
Note: if being radar vectored, proceed direct to the fix being radar vectored to.

During lost commo, what altitude should you fly? (FIH)

The highest of:
1) Altitude last assigned
2) Altitude ATC told you can be expected
3) Minimum altitude for IFR operations (i.e. MEA, feeder route)

Regulations and Publications 12

During lost commo, if you reach your clearance limit, and the clearance limit is where you approach
begins, do you hold or execute the approach? (FIH)
If you have received an EFC time, and it has not passed, hold until EFC and then commence the
approach.
If you have not received an EFC time, commence the approach according to your flight plan (as
amended).

During lost commo, if you reach your clearance limit, and the clearance limit is NOT where your
approach begins, do you hold or continue? (FIH)
If you have received an EFC, hold and leave the clearance limit at your EFC.
If you do not have an EFC, continue to the fix where the approach begins, hold until the ETA from your
flight plan and then commence the approach.

During a radar approach, when do you initiate lost commo? (FIH)

If no transmissions are received for:
1 minute for vectoring prior to final approach
15 seconds on final for an ASR
5 seconds on final for a PAR

If you have lost commo during a GCA approach, what are the procedures? (FIH)
1) Attempt to contact on another frequency
2) Squawk 7600
3) If you cannot proceed VMC, execute an IAP of your choosing
4) Maintain higher of last assigned altitude OR MSA until established on a segment of the
approach.

During holding, when does outbound timing begin? (AIM)

Over or abeam the fix, whichever occurs later.

How is the abeam point determined when holding over a NAVAID? (AIM)
VOR
By the first change of the TO/FROM flag or,
By observing the 90 degree radial from the VOR
NDB
By observing the 90 degree bearing to the NDB

When does outbound timing start during intersection holding? (AIM)

Wings level on the outbound heading.

If you receive clearance to leave the fix during holding, do you have to wait until you are back over the
fix to depart holding? (AIM)
Yes, you must depart from over the fix, unless ATC states "cleared from you present position".

Regulations and Publications 13

During holding, how much should your wind correction be outbound compared to inbound? (TC 3-
04.5)
You should multiply your inbound correction by 3 for an outbound correction.

If a course reversal is published on an IAP, when would it not be authorized? (AIM, TC 3-04.5)
“No PT” appears on the plate.
Radar vectoring is provide to the final approach course
A holding pattern is published in lieu of a procedure turn
A timed approach is executed from a holding fix
Otherwise directed by ATC

If you are cleared for the option, what are you allowed to do? (AIM)
Touch-and-go
Low approach
Missed approach
Stop-and-go
Full stop

When will a diverse departure be authorized, and how would you execute it? (AIM, GP)
If the airport has at least one IAP, and there are not published departure procedures, a diverse
departure can be flown. Fly runway heading until 400' above runway elevation before executing any
turns and maintain a 200 Ft/NM climb gradient (unless otherwise published).

What is the maximum airspeed during a Copter approach? (AIM, TC 3-04.5)

90 KIAS

What airspeed should a Copter missed approach be flown at? (AR 95-1)
70 KIAS

What is the normal “remain within” distance for a Copter approach? (TC 3-04.5, AIM)
5 NM

If you are flying a GPS based approach and receive a RAIM failure or the GPS does not sequence to the
“active approach” mode before the FAF, what should you do? After the FAF? (AR 95-1)
Request an alternate approach.
Climb to the missed approach altitude and execute the missed approach.

If you are using an Electronic Flight Bag (EFB), what should the minimum battery level be prior to
flight? (AR 95-1)
At least 10% for each hour of flight, but not less than 50%.

If you are using an EFB without paper backups, how many EFBs must be carried? (AR 95-1)
one per pilot

Regulations and Publications 14

If you are in IMC and either of the EFBs fail (assuming one per pilot), what should you do? (AR 95-1)
Exit IMC conditions as soon as practicable until the inop EFB is restored or paper pubs are on board.

If you are asked to taxi, and your aircraft has wheels, what is expected? (GP, AIM)
Taxi (without the preface of air or hover) is used to describe ground taxi for helicopters with wheels.

If you are asked to Hover Taxi, what airspeed/altitude is expected? (GP, AIM)
Within ground effect and less than approximately 20 knots (actual height will vary).

If you are asked to Air Taxi, what airspeed/altitude is expected? (GP, AIM)
Generally at speeds greater than 20 knots and less than 100' AGL. However, the pilot is solely
responsible for selecting a safe altitude/airspeed for the operation.

What phrase would you use to communicate to ATC that your fuel supply is at a state that, upon
reaching the destination, you can accept little or no delay. (It's not an emergency, but could become
an emergency if delays are encountered). (GP)
Minimum Fuel

What are the different segments of an instrument approach? (AIM, TC 3-04.5)

1) Initial Approach Segment
2) Intermediate Approach Segment
3) Final Approach Segment
4) Missed Approach Segment

What is the difference between a straight-in approach and a straight-in landing? (GP)
A straight-in approach (IFR) is an instrument approach wherein the final approach is begun without first
having executed a procedure turn.

A straight-in landing is a landing made on a runway aligned within 30° of the final approach course
following completion of an instrument approach.

DOD FLIP and Maps

On a VFR Sectional, what is indicated by an airport where the runways are drawn in a bold line
without a circle around it? (Map Legend)
It indicates that the runway is a hard-surfaced runway greater than 8069 feet long.

On a VFR sectional, what does a star next to a tower frequency mean? (Map Legend)
That the tower operates part time.

On a VFR sectional, what does a star on top of the airfield symbol (depiction of the runways) mean?
(Map Legend)
There is a rotating airport beacon in operation from sunset to sunrise.

Regulations and Publications 15

On an approach plate, what is an MSA and what does it provide? (GP)
Minimum Safe Altitude. It is for emergency use and provides at least 1000 feet of obstacle clearance
within a 25 NM radius of the fix that the procedure is predicated upon. It is either a Minimum Sector
Altitude or Emergency Safe Altitude.

An Emergency Safe Altitude provides obstacle clearance of 1000 feet in non-mountainous terrain and
2000 feet in mountainous terrain within 100 NM of the fix. It is generally only used in military
procedures.

What is an MIA? (GP)

Minimum IFR Altitude - The minimum altitude for IFR operations. If no minimum altitude is prescribed,
the minimum altitude is 1000' AHO (non-mountainous) or 2000' AHO (mountainous) within 4 NM of the
course to be flown.

What is an MEA, and what does it ensure? (GP)

Minimum Enroute IFR Altitude - The lowest altitude between radio fixes which assures acceptable
navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements between those fixes.

What is a MOCA, and what does it ensure? (GP)

Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude - The lowest altitude between radio fixes which meets
obstacle clearance requirements for the entire route segment and which assures acceptable
navigational coverage only within 22 NM of a VOR.

What is a MCA and how is it identified? (GP)

Minimum Crossing Altitude - The lowest altitude at certain fixes at which an aircraft must cross when
proceeding in the direction of a higher MEA. It is identified by a "flag" with an "X" in it.

What is a MRA, and how is it identified? (GP)

Minimum Reception Altitude - The lowest altitude at which an intersection can be determined. It is
identified by a "flag" with an "R" in it.

What is a MAA? (GP)

Maximum Authorized Altitude - The maximum usable altitude for an airspace structure or route
segment. On a route segment it is the highest altitude that assures navigation aid signals.

What is a MVA? (GP)

Minimum Vectoring Altitude - The lowest MSL altitude at which IFR aircraft can be radar vectored. It
meets obstacle clearance requirements, but is not published on charts. It is only available to controllers.

Regulations and Publications 16

What is an OROCA? (GP)
Off Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude - An off route altitude which provides obstruction clearance
within each bounded lat/long quadrant as shown on IFR charts. It may not provide NAVAID signal
coverage.

What is a changeover point? (GP)

A changeover point indicates the point on an airway where you should change over to the next
navigational frequency.

What is a mileage breakdown point, and how is it identified? (GP, Map Legend)
A mileage breakdown point is a point on a route where the leg segment mileage ends, and a new leg
segment mileage begins, often at a route turning point. It is indicated by an "x" on the route.

What does a sideways "T" on a route indicate? (Map Legend)

MEA, MOCA, and/or MAA change at other than a NAVAID.

What is an MDA, and what type of approach is it used on? (GP)

Minimum Descent Altitude is the MSL altitude to which descent is authorized on final approach, or
during a circle-to-land maneuver, used in conjunction with a non-precision approach.

What is a DA/DH, and what type of approach is it used on? (GP)

Decision Altitude / Decision Height is a specified altitude or height at which a decision must be made to
either continue the approach or execute a missed approach used in conjunction with a precision
approach. DA is referenced to MSL and DH is referenced to Threshold Elevation.

What is HAA, and what type of minimums is it used in conjunction with? (GP)
Height Above Airport is the height of the MDA above the published Airport Elevation, used in
conjunction with circling minimums.

What is HAT, and what type of minimums is it used in conjunction with? (GP)
Height Above Touchdown is the height of the DH or MDA above the highest elevation in the Touchdown
Zone, used in conjunction with straight in minimums.

What is the Touchdown Zone? (GP)

The first 3,000’ of the usable landing surface, and used to determine the TDZE (Touchdown Zone
Elevation).

Regulations and Publications 17

What is HAL, and what type of approach is it used for? (GP)
Height Above Landing is the height above a designated helicopter landing area used for helicopter
instrument approach procedures.

What is HATh, and what type of minimums is it used in conjunction with? (GP)
Height Above Threshold is the height of the DH or MDA above the runway Threshold Elevation, used in
conjunction with straight in minimums.

Premium Content
For Question and Answer flashcards go to:

Regulations and Publications 18

Army Aviation
SOP (1MAR21)
How often should Aviation Crew Members ensure they are current on the reading file?
Upon assignment, prior to flight and/or review quarterly.

Can aided and unaided aircraft be mixed in the same formation?

No, except as needed in an urban environment.

ACMs should fly a minimum of ______ hour(s) unaided flight per semi-annual period.
1

What is the minimum recommended altitude for unaided night flights?

200' AHO (except during landing and takeoff).

All ____ and ____ aviators are authorized to operate the APU regardless of seat designation unless
otherwise restricted by the commander.
RL1
RL2

A minimum or ___ hours semi-annually of Hood, Weather, or SFTS "W" time is required for each
aviator, of which ____ will be flown in the aircraft.
3
1.5

Anytime the visibility and/or ceiling approach minimum briefed weather conditions, the PC or AMC
will immediately initiate plans to adjust the mission under the following conditions: The flight
descends > ____ during the day or _____ at night from the planned altitude in order to maintain cloud
clearance, and/or slows > ______ during the day, or > _____ during Night/NVG from the planned
airspeed due to visibility.
300'
150'
20 KIAS
10 KIAS

For IIMC plans, the Base Altitude is the lowest altitude that provides obstacle clearance. If able, add
________ (________ mountainous) to the elevation of the highest terrain or obstacle in the AO.
1000'
2000'

In regards to IIMC planning, normally base airspeed and airspeed changes should be used when
____________________.
aircraft separation cannot be made by heading changes.

In regards to IIMC planning, standard heading adjustment will be _________________.

base +/- 10 degrees times the chalk # to the clear side of the formation.

In regards to IIMC planning, standard altitude adjustment will be ________________.

base +/- 500' for subsequent chalks.

Army Aviation SOP 1

Can an MBO brief a mission when he is part of the crew?
No, self-briefing is not authorized.

Can commanders conduct self-approval for missions in which they are flying as the PC/AMC?
Only commanders in the grade of LTC (05) or above.

Who are the standard approval authorities for Extremely High Risk, High Risk, Moderate Risk, and Low
Risk Missions?
EH - First GO in the chain of command
H - First O-6 in the chain of command (normally the Aviation BDE CDR)
M - BN/SQDN/TF Commander
L - Company/Troop Commander

If a "VOCO" approval is attained, what must be written on the R-COP?

Rank and initials/name of the VOCO approval, along with the DTG and the name of whom the VOCO
came through.

For the purpose of attaining a mission approval, what is considered a "Bona-fide Absence" (of the
BN/SQDN/TF CDR) allowing field grade Air Ambulance Commanders, XO or S-3 to accept and approve
the risk for operations that are moderate or below?
BN/SQDN/TF CDR not being physically present at the BN/SQDN/TF location and cannot be contacted.

Crew members should ensure that their ALSE gear is turned in to the ALSE shop NLT ______ prior to its
expiration.
5 days

Name the following Weapons Control Status:

Weapon is stowed, chamber is visually cleared of rounds, bolt is locked to the rear, weapon selector is
on SAFE, and there are not rounds in the feed tray.
Clear

Name the following Weapons Control Status:

Weapon is stowed, ammunition is in the feed tray, cover is closed with the bolt forward, and weapon
selector is on FIRE.
Stowed

Name the following Weapons Control Status:

Weapon is manned, ammunition is in the feed tray, cover is closed with the bold forward, and
weapon selector is on FIRE.
Loaded

Name the following Weapons Control Status:

Weapon is manned, ammunition is in the feed tray, cover is closed with the bolt locked fully to the
rear and weapon selector is on FIRE when firing and on SAFE when not firing.
Armed

Can extensions (duty day, flying hour, etc) be forced on a crewmember/crew?

No, all extensions must be requested.

Army Aviation SOP 2

Commanders should not plan duty days that exceed a maximum of ____________.
12 hours total.

Rest periods are defined as _________ after release from duty until the start of the next duty day.
10 hours

Is a phone call in garrison and/or momentary awakening (<30min) during other than garrison
considered an interruption of a rest period?
No.

If a rest period is interrupted for more than 30 minutes the command has 2 options:
1. Restart the rest period.
2. Start the individual’s duty day (ensure risk is accepted at the appropriate level for amount of
rest received prior to interruption)

What amount of time is considered a reset day, and how often should individuals be scheduled for
one?
24 consecutive hours in which no duty related tasks are performed.
Every 14 days.

A shift in individual duty day cycle by ____ or more hours ________ requires a ______ reset unless
approved by the BN/SQDN CDR.
6, earlier, 24

Company commanders can extend duty days up to ____ hour(s) and flight hours by ____ hour(s).
14, 1

Battalion commanders may extend duty day up to ____ hour(s), and flight hours by ____ hour(s)
16, 2

What are the standard flying hour limitations for a 1 day period for Day, Mixed (D,N,NG,H,W), and
NVD (pure)?
8, 7, 6

If a simulator period is "flown" prior to actual aircraft flight in the same duty period, do the flight
hours flown in the sim count toward the maximum number of flying hours that can be flown in a duty
day?
Yes.

Prior to flying terrain flight (<500' AGL) outside military reservations, what must occur?
A flight recon for hazard and crews will adhere to the procedures in the Local Flying Rules.

Avoid flight routes that are within ___ of towers or wires that have a height that is within _____ of the
en route altitude for that segment of flight.
1 km
100'

Army Aviation SOP 3

Minimum height for overflight of wires is _______.
50'

In regards to Mission Planning, avoid planning route segments that require heading changes of more
than ______.
60 degrees

In regards to Mission Planning, the SP should be _______ from the departure point and aligned within
a _______ arc from the course.
3-8km
30 degree

In regards to Mission Planning, ACPs should be placed _______ apart.

5-20km

In regards to Mission Planning, the RP should be ______ from the LZ and within ________ from the LZ
heading.
3-8km
15 degrees

The standard for LZ arrival in the SOP is ________ from the GTC intended landing point, ________
from the air movement table touchdown time, ________ from the planned landing heading.
+/- 50 meters
+/- 30 seconds
+/- 15 degrees

In regards to Multiship Operations, during the commo check if the subsequent chalk does not respond
within _______, the next chalk continues the commo check.
10 seconds

In regards to Multiship Operations, how does the flight indicate they are ready for takeoff?
In REVERSE chalk order report when REDCON 1. When lead reports "REDCON 1", the flight is ready for
takeoff.

In regards to Multiship Operations, lead will provide a minimum of _____ warning prior to departure.
5 seconds

In regards to Multiship Operations, during takeoff, (unless otherwise briefed) lead will takeoff and
smoothly accelerate to ______, climbing < _______ fpm, and use ______ turns.
60 KIAS
500
1/2 standard rate

In regards to Multiship Operations, when the flight is formed, trail will call ____________.
"SADDLE, # of aircraft in flight and FENCE OUT"

In regards to Multiship Operations, at what distance is "CLOSING" called?

When within 10 rotor disks.

Army Aviation SOP 4

A "Fence Out" check consists of the following items:
WAILMR
Weapons armed safe as required
ASE set as desired
IFF/Transponder modes 1,2,3,4 on as briefed.
Lighting as briefed
MPD/MFD/EDM configured (as appropriate)
Recorder on (if installed)

In regards to Multiship Operations, what is the rotor disk separation for the following formations:
Tight, Close, Loose, and Extended
Tight - 1-2 disks
Close - 3-5 disks
Loose - 6-10 disks
Extended - Greater than 10 disks

In regards to Multiship Operations, what is the standard rotor disk separation En route, RP Inbound,
Landing, and Outbound SP for Day and Night/NVG?

En Route RP Inbound Landings Outbound SP

Day 3 2 1 2
Night/NVG 3 3 2 3

What height are the ground-based wires or towers hazard classifications for Alpha, Bravo, and Charlie
hazards?
A - >100'
B - 50'-100'
C - <50'

In regards to Multiship Operations, when executing a lead change lead should make a heading change
_______ and departs the formation. He manuevers the aircraft to a minimum of _____ rotor disks to
the announced (clear) side. After turning parallel to the flight, lead should slow _____.
30-90 degrees
8
10 KIAS

Name the following Weapons Control Status:

Do not fire except in self-defense.
Weapons Hold

Name the following Weapons Control Status:

PC Fires only at targets positively identified as hostile IAW established ROE as well as directed
engagement and bypass criteria.
Weapons Tight

Army Aviation SOP 5

Name the following Weapons Control Status:
PC may engage any target not positively identified as friendly IAW established ROE as well as directed
engagement and bypass criteria.
Weapons Free

In regards to Multiship Operations, what is the visual signal to signal lost communications in a UH-60
during the day and at night?
D - Flash Visual Position
N - Flash Visual/IR Landing Light or White Flashlight.

For planning purposes, each combat troop will be considered ____ lbs to account for additionally
carried equipment.
300

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Army Aviation SOP 6

Aerodynamics
Relative Wind
What is relative wind?
Airflow relative to an airfoil. It is parallel and opposite the direction of movement of the airfoil.

What is Rotational Relative Wind?

It is just how we refer to relative wind in a helicopter. Rotational refers to the method of producing
relative wind.

What is Resultant Relative Wind?

At a hover, resultant relative wind is rotational relative wind modified by induced flow. When the
helicopter has horizontal motion, airspeed further modifies resultant relative wind.

Airflow During a Hover

Where are vortices created during a hover?
Vortices are created at the rotor tip.

What distance is considered to be OGE?

1 Rotor Diameter

Describe airflow during a hover IGE.

Air flows down through the rotor system and
vortices are created at the rotor tips. Because of
the close distance to the ground, the downward
and outward flow of air tends to restrict vortex
generation. In addition, due to the proximity to
the ground, the induced flow velocity is reduced
because the ground interrupts the airflow which
increases AOA, reduces induced drag, allows for a
more vertical lift vector, and increases rotor
efficiency.

Describe airflow during a hover OGE.

Air flows down through the rotor system and
vortices are created at the rotor tips. These
vortices build much greater than during IGE hover
because they are not being restricted by ground
interference. In addition, induced flow velocity is
higher than during IGE hover causing a decrease
in AOA. This means that a higher pitch angle is
required on the blades, so that creates more
drag.

Aerodynamics 1
Why does it require more power to hover OGE than IGE (2 main reasons)?
1) Increased induced flow velocity OGE meaning a lower AOA.
2) Bigger rotor tip vortices decrease the surface area of the blade that is producing lift.

Does the angle of attack change from an IGE hover to an OGE hover?
No.

Total Aerodynamic Force

What is TAF?
It is the resultant force of lift and drag. It acts as the center of pressure on the airfoil.

What is TAF the sum of?

It is the sum of lift and drag.

What direction does TAF act in normal flight?

TAF is normally inclined up and rear.

What are the 3 types of drag, and what causes them?

• Parasite Drag - Incurred from the non-lifting
components of the aircraft. Increases as
airspeed increases and is the main cause of
drag at high airspeeds.
• Profile Drag - Incurred from the frictional
resistance of the blades passing through the
air. It increases moderately at high airspeeds.
• Induced Drag - Incurred as a result of the
production of lift. It decreases as airspeed
increases.

Dynamic Rollover
What 3 conditions must be present for dynamic rollover to occur?
1) Pivot Point
2) Rolling Motion
3) Exceeding the critical angle.

What are the 3 types of dynamic rollover?

1) Rollover on level ground
2) Rolling downslope
3) Rolling upslope

Aerodynamics 2
What are the physical factors associated with dynamic rollover?
1) Main Rotor Thrust
2) CG
3) Tail Rotor Thrust
4) Crosswind Component
5) Ground Surface
6) Sloped Landing Area
7) In some aircraft the presence of a low fuel condition that causes the CG to move upward.

What are the human factors associated with dynamic rollover?

1) Inattention
2) Inexperience
3) Inappropriate Control Input
4) Failure to Take Timely Corrective Action
5) Loss of Visual Reference

What is the best action if recovery is possible from dynamic rollover?

Make smooth moderate control inputs.

Translating Tendency
What is translating tendency?
The tendency of the helicopter to drift in the direction of tail rotor thrust (to the right).

How is it compensated for?

It is compensated for in the MMU and AFCS, as well as pilot input.

Dissymmetry of Lift
What is dissymmetry of lift?
Dissymmetry of lift is the unequal lift between the advancing half and retreating half of the rotor disk
caused by different wind flow velocities across each half.

How is it compensated for?

Blade flapping and cyclic feathering.

What happens when the blades flap? Is AOA increased or decreased on advancing and retreating
blades?
When the blades flap, the upward and downward motion changes the induced flow velocity, in turn
changing the AOA. AOA is decreased on the advancing half and increased on the retreating half.

Why does blowback occur? How is it compensated for?

When the blades flap, the maximum upflap position is at the nose and the maximum downflap position
is at the tail. This causes blowback. It is compensated for by cyclic feathering from the aviator (forward
cyclic).

Aerodynamics 3
Retreating Blade Stall
Describe retreating blade stall.
When the helicopter is in forward flight, forward speed of the helicopter decreases the relative velocity
of the retreating half of the rotor disk. Because of the decrease in a velocity, a higher AOA is required to
generate the same lift as the advancing side. In addition, there is a smaller area of the disk creating lift
(due to the no lift areas) on the retreating side which places an even greater demand on that area to
create the lift required. Eventually, the AOA becomes so high that it stalls.

What are the 2 main factors that cause retreating blade stall?
1) High forward airspeeds (decreased relative velocity on the retreating side)
2) Increased no-lift areas on the retreating side (reduced surface area creating lift).

Describe the 3 no lift areas. What happens as speed increases?

Inboard to Outboard:
• Reverse Flow - Air flows backward from the trailing edge to the leading edge of the blade.
• Negative Stall - The blade stalls with a negative AOA.
• Negative Lift - The blade has a negative AOA creating negative lift.
As airspeed increases, the areas grow larger.

What indications would be experienced during retreating blade stall?

Vibrations and buffeting and a roll left and nose pitch up.

What are conditions conducive to retreating blade stall?

1) High Blade Loading (High Gross Weight)
2) High DA
3) High G-maneuvers
4) Low Rotor RPM
5) Turbulent Air

How do you reduce or stop retreating blade stall?

1) Reduce Collective
2) Reduce Airspeed
3) Reduce the Severity of the Maneuver
4) Reduce Altitude (Descend if possible)
5) Increase Rotor RPM to normal limits

What on the PPC relates to retreating blade stall?

Vne and Max Angle

Compressibility
Describe the compressibility of air at low and high airspeeds.
At low airspeeds, air is incompressible. Air density remains relatively constant. At higher airspeeds, as air
compresses its air density changes.

Aerodynamics 4
What is transonic airflow?
Transonic airflow is when some parts of the airflow on the airfoil is subsonic and some is supersonic.

Why does transonic airflow occur on an airfoil?

As air flows over the airfoil, it speeds up and slows down. When the airfoil (the tip of the rotor blade) is
traveling near the speed of sound, the airflow will exceed the speed of sound (become supersonic) when
it naturally speeds up going across the airfoil.

What is the critical Mach number? What happens if it is exceeded?

Critical Mach is the highest airspeed that can be attained without reaching supersonic flow. If it is
exceeded, the flow will become supersonic

What forms when airflow slows from supersonic to subsonic?

As airflow slows from supersonic to subsonic airspeed, a shockwave is formed.

What happens to the aerodynamic center of the airfoil when the shockwave moves aft? What does
this cause the blade to do?
The aerodynamic center of pressure moves away from its normal location and moves aft. This causes
the leading edge to be deflected downward, which may result in structural failure of the blade.

What indications would be experienced during compressibility?

Rotor roughness, vibration, cyclic shake, nose pitch down, and right roll.

What are conditions conducive to compressibility?

1) High Airspeed
2) High Rotor RPM
3) High Gross Weight
4) High DA
5) High G-Maneuvers
6) Low Temperature (the speed of sound decreases as temp decreases)
7) Turbulent Air

How is this different from retreating blade stall?

Retreating blade stall occurs with Low RPM.

How do you recover from compressibility effects?

1) Reduce blade pitch (lower collective)
2) Reduce Rotor RPM
3) Reduce the severity of the maneuver
4) Reduce airspeed

Settling With Power

What is another name for settling with power?
Vortex Ring State

Aerodynamics 5
Describe what happens during settling with power?
Settling with power is a condition in which the helicopter settles in its own downwash. The helicopter
normally produces vortices around the blade tips, however when the helicopter starts a near vertical
descent, the upward flow of air creates vortices starting at the hub and moving outward as well. These
vortices reduce the rotor disc surface area that is creating lift, eventually not producing enough lift to
keep the helicopter from descending.

What 3 things must be present for settling with power to occur?

1) Vertical or near vertical descent of at least 300 FPM. Actual critical rate depends on gross
weight, rotor RPM, DA, and other pertinent factors.
2) Slow forward airspeed (less than ETL)
3) Rotor system using between 20% to 100% of the available engine power with insufficient power
to arrest the descent. Low rotor RPM can aggravate the situation.

Describe the induced flow during settling with power.

During normal hovering flight induced flow velocity is highest at the
rotor tips and lowest at the center of the disk. During settling with
power, the induced flow starts becoming upward rather than downward Normal

starting at the center of the disk and moving outward.

What are conditions conducive to settling with power? Settling with Power

1) Steep approach at a high rate of descent

2) Downwind approach
3) Formation flight approach (where SWP could be caused by turbulence of preceding aircraft)
4) Hovering above the max hover ceiling
5) Not maintaining a constant altitude control during an OGE hover
6) During masking/unmasking

How could you prevent settling with power?

Descend on flight paths shallower than about 30 degrees.

How can you recover from settling with power?

During the initial stage (when large amounts of power are available), a large application of collective
pitch may arrest the descent. Otherwise, apply cyclic in any direction to gain airspeed and arrest the
upward induced flow. If altitude permits, lower the collective.

Transverse Flow
What is transverse flow effect?
Basically, when in forward flight, the air passing over the rear portion of the disk has a greater
downwash angle than the air passing through the forward portion. This creates more lift on the forward
portion of the disk than the rear portion of the disk.

Aerodynamics 6
Describe the airflow during transverse flow.
In the forward portion of the disk, the air is more horizontal, and in the rear portion of the disk, the air is
more vertical.

How is the angle of attack different on the forward and aft portion of the disk? Why is it different?
On the forward portion of the disk, the AOA is increased (compared to the rear) because of the more
horizontal flow of air, which increases lift. In the rear portion of the disk, the AOA is decreased
(compared to the front) because of the more vertical flow of air, which decreases lift.

What airspeed would you experience

transverse flow?
Between 10 and 20 knots.

What does transverse flow cause the

aircraft to do?
It causes the helicopter to have a
right rolling motion.

Autorotation
What is an autorotation?
When the engine is disengaged from the rotor system, and the upward flow of air through the rotor
system drives the rotor.

What are the 3 blade regions associated with autorotation and where are they located?
Stall Region - Inboard 25%
Driving Region - In the middle 25-70%
Driven Region - Approximately the outer 30%.

What can cause the size of the regions to vary?

Blade pitch setting, rate of descent, and rotor RPM.

What region(s) is/are responsible for thrust/acceleration?

Drag/deceleration?
The driving region is responsible for acceleration and thrust of the blade, while the driven region creates
lift which slows the rotation of the blade, and creates drag.

Effective Translational Lift

What is ETL?
ETL is an increase in efficiency of the rotor blades once the helicopter outruns the circulation of old
vortexes and begins to work in relatively undisturbed air.

What airspeed does ETL typically occur?

Between 16 and 24 knots.

Aerodynamics 7
What happens to induced flow as ETL is experienced? Drag? AOA?
The flow of air through the rotor system becomes more horizontal as the helicopter moves forward
which decreases induced flow, as well as induced drag. AOA is subsequently increased.

What is experienced in the aircraft?

The nose pitches up and the aircraft rolls right.

What other 3 aerodynamic phenomenon cause the effects on the aircraft?

The combined effects of dissymmetry of lift, gyroscopic precession, and transverse flow effect cause this
tendency.

Identify the parts in the following image:

(Answers on next page)

Aerodynamics 8
A) Induced Flow
B) Resultant Relative Wind
C) Angle of Attack
D) Chord Line
E) Lift
F) Total Aerodynamic Force
G) Resultant
H) Drag
I) Rotational Relative Wind (Free Stream Velocity)

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Aerodynamics 9
Aeromedical
Factors
Flight Restrictions Due to Exogenous Factors
When should you inform a flight surgeon?
Aircrew members will immediately inform their flight surgeon or APA (aeromedical physician assistant)
when they have participated in activities or received treatment for which flying restrictions may be
appropriate.
This includes exposure to any exogenous factors listed in this regulation (AR 40-8) as well as any
treatment or procedure performed by a non-flight surgeon or APA.

What treatments or procedures performed by a non-flight surgeon or APA need to be reported to

them?
1) Any medical or dental procedure requiring use of medication after the treatment.
2) Any medical or dental procedure requiring use of any type of anesthesia or sedation.
3) Treatment by mental health professionals, including but not limited to psychological, social,
psychiatric, alcohol, or substance abuse counseling.
4) Any chiropractic or osteopathic manipulative treatment.
5) Any treatment given by a homeopath, naturopath, herbalist, or practitioner of other types of
alternative medicine.
6) Any emergency room or urgent care visits.

What are the regulations on medication use?

Use of all medications will be with the knowledge of flight surgeon or APA.
Self-medication is permitted only in accordance with the OTC medication APL.

What does AR 40-8 say about use of dietary supplements, herbal and dietary aids, and performance
enhancers?
All supplements, herbal and dietary aids and preparations, and performance enhancers are prohibited
unless cleared by the flight surgeon or APA in consultation with applicable APLs.

What activity requires 6 hours of restriction?

Centrifuge runs, with no residual effects

Which activities require 12 hours of restriction?

ASIA
Anesthesia - local
Simulator sickness - 12 hours after full recovery
Immunizations - if no adverse reactions
Alcohol - and no residual effects.

Which activities require 24 hours of restriction?

PHDS
Plasma donation
Hypobaric chamber runs above 25,000'.
Decompression experience if cabin altitude will exceed 10,000'.
Scuba Diving/Hyperbaric Chambers

Aeromedical Factors 1
What activity requires 48 hours of restriction?
Anesthesia - general, spinal, epidural.

What activity requires 72 hours of restriction?

Blood donation greater than 200cc.
Cannot be regular blood donors. (More than 2 times per year)

What does AR 40-8 say about restriction due to CS/Tear Gas?

No residual effects and local effects have resolved.

If you experience decompression sickness what are the restrictions?

You cannot fly until cleared by a flight surgeon.

What does AR 40-8 say about tobacco?

It degrades physical performance including vision. Aircrews are discouraged from use of tobacco.

What does AR 40-8 say about strenuous physical activity?

They may adversely affect the ability of aircrew members to perform their respective flight tasks safely.

What does AR 40-8 say about vision?

If a crewmember requires corrective lenses for 20/20 vision, they are restricted unless they are wearing
contact lenses or glasses that correct to 20/20.

Hypoxia
What is Hypoxia?
A lack of oxygen in the body.

What are the 4 types of hypoxia?

1) Hypoxic
2) Hypemic
3) Stagnant
4) Histotoxic

What is hypoxic hypoxia?

Not enough oxygen in the air (altitude)

What is hypemic hypoxia? What can it be caused by?

A reduction in the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood. There is less hemoglobin to combine with
oxygen.
Caused by carbon monoxide, anemia, blood loss.

What is stagnant hypoxia? What can it be caused by?

Lack of circulation of oxygen through the body.
Caused by heart failure, arterial spasm, high G's.

Aeromedical Factors 2
What is histotoxic hypoxia? What can it be caused by?
Interference with the use of oxygen by the body tissues.
Caused by alcohol, narcotics, certain poisons.

What are the stages of hypoxic hypoxia and what altitude and oxygen saturation is associated with
each stage?
ICDC
Indifferent (0-10,000')(90-98% O2 Saturation) - Decrease in night vision at 4,000'.
Compensatory (10,000-15,000')(80-89% O2 Saturation) - The body starts to compensate for the effects
of oxygen deficiency (increase in respiration, heart rate, etc). Symptoms include: drowsiness, poor
judgement, impaired coordination, and impaired efficiency.
Disturbance (15,000-20,000)(70-79% O2 Saturation) - The body can no longer compensate for the O2
deficiency. Symptoms include: fatigue, sleepiness, dizziness, headache, breathlessness, euphoria, loss of
senses, slow mental process, change in personality, or cyanosis (blue skin).
Critical (20,000-25,000')(60-69% O2 Saturation) - Within 3-5 minutes judgement and coordination
deteriorate. Symptoms include: mental confusion, dizziness, incapacitation, unconsciousness, and
death.

How can we prevent hypoxia?

1) Limit time at altitude
2) Use supplemental oxygen
3) Pressurize the cabin

How can we treat hypoxia?

1) Give 100% oxygen
2) Descend below 10,000'

Stress and Fatigue

What is the definition of stress?
The nonspecific response of the body to any demand placed upon it.

What is a stressor?
Any event which requires you to adjust or adapt in some way.

What are the types of stressors?

PEP-C
Psychosocial - life events, work, illness, family issues.
Environmental - Altitude, speed, temperature, cockpit design, IMC
Physiological - self imposed stressors (DEATH...see next question)
Cognitive - our perception of the problem.

Aeromedical Factors 3
What are the physiological (self imposed) stressors?
DEATH
Drugs
Exhaustion - lack of rest or physical condition.
Alcohol - 1 ounce of pure alcohol = 2000' PA
Tobacco - Adds 5,000' to physiological altitude, and decreases night vision by up to 20%.
Hypoglycemia and poor nutrition.

What are thy body's responses to stress?

PEB-C
Physical - heart rate, blood pressure, breathing.
Emotional - anxiety, irritability, depression
Behavioral - work performance, conflict, violence, suicide
Cognitive - concentration, judgement, attention, impaired memory

What are some ways to manage stress?

CAV-L
Change your thinking (positive self talk)
Avoid Stressors
Venting Stess (talk, physical exercise)
Learn to Relax (deep breathing, meditation, hobbies)

What is the definition of fatigue?

State of feeling tired, weary, or sleepy that results from prolonged mental or physical work, extended
periods of anxiety, exposure to harsh environments, or loss of sleep.

What are the different types of fatigue?

1) Acute
2) Chronic
3) Motivational Exhaustion/Burnout

What is acute fatigue?

Type of fatigue that occurs between 2-3 regular sleep periods. It is treated with normal sleep. You can
recover with 1 regular sleep cycle.
Symptoms: inattention, errors and irritability.

What is chronic fatigue?

Inadequate recovery from successive periods of acute fatigue. It may take several days to several weeks
to recover.
Symptoms: insomnia, depressed mood, irritability, weight loss, poor judgement, loss of appetite, slow
reaction time and poor motivation.

Aeromedical Factors 4
What is motivational exhaustion/burnout?
In this type of fatigue the body ceases to function occupationally and socially. Recovery can take
months.

Middle Ear Discomfort

What is middle ear discomfort caused by?
During descent, pressure of external air is greater than the pressure in the middle ear and the eardrum
is forced inward.

What conditions make the discomfort worse?

More susceptible with a cold or sore throat, sinusitis, etc. and descending altitude. It is more evident
during rapid descents at low altitudes.

How can middle ear discomfort be prevented?

1) Don't fly with a cold, sore throat, sinusitis, etc.
2) Descend at a slow/normal rate.
3) Clear your sinuses early and often by swallowing, yawning, and tensing muscles in the throat.

What is the treatment for middle ear discomfort?

1) Stop the descent and perform the Valsalva maneuver. Never do the valsalva during ascent.
2) If it's not cleared, climb to an altitude until cleared, reduce the rate of descent and equalize the
ears and sinuses frequently during descent
3) Contact a flight surgeon if the problem persists.

Spatial Disorientation
What spatial disorientation (SD)?
A pilot’s erroneous perception of position, altitude, or motion in relation to the gravitational vertical or
the Earth’s surface.

What are the countermeasures and mitigation techniques for SD?

• Understand risk factors and plan for preconditions before flight.
• Employ good crew coordination
• Assess mission environment
• Don't attempt visual flight below WX mins or areas of deteriorating weather.
• Maintain instrument proficiency and initiate prompt IIMC procedures if needed.
• Trust your instruments and make them read right.
• If SD is suspected or recognized, reference instruments with a good cross check and attempt to
ignore conflicting sensory inputs.
• Announce SD and transfer the controls.

What are the types of SD?

Type 1: Unrecognized
Type 2: Recognized
Type 3: Incapacitating

Aeromedical Factors 5
Describe Type 1.
(Most Dangerous) - Aviator does not perceive any indication of spatial disorientation.
He does not think anything is wrong - and may fail to correct the disorientation resulting in a fatal
aircraft mishap.

Describe Type 2.
The pilot perceives a problem (resulting from SD). The pilot may fail to recognize it as SD.

Describe Type 3.
The pilot experiences such an overwhelming sensation of movement that he cannot orient himself by
using visual cues or the aircraft instruments.
Not fatal if co-pilot can gain control of the aircraft.

What are the 3 systems that affect equilibrium maintenance and SD?
1) Visual - Most important, 80% of our orientation
2) Vestibular – Inner ear organs (semicircular and otolith)
3) Somatosensory - Sensors in the joints, muscles, etc.

The inner ear contains the vestibular system which contains the motion & gravity detecting sense
organs. Each vestibular contains two distinct structures, what are they?
1) Semicircular Canals
2) Otolith Organs

What do the semi-circular canals provide and how do they provide it?
Sense changes in angular acceleration (pitch, roll, or yaw attitude).
There is "endolymph" fluid in the canals that moves on the three planes stimulating hairs through the
cupula which then is transmitted to the brain.

What do the otolith organs provide and how do they provide it?
Provides gravity and linear acceleration / deceleration sensory indications
Provides it through sensory hairs that bend from movement of the otlithic membrane when under
gravitational forces / accel / decel forces.

What are the types of Vestibular Illusions and what causes each type?
1) Somatogyral Illusions (semicircular canals) are caused by a misperception of direction or
magnitude of rotation.
2) Somatogravic Illusions (otolith organs) are caused by changes in linear acceleration/deceleration
and gravity.
3) Oculoargravic Illusions – Visually analogous to somatogravic illusions and occur under similar
conditions.

Aeromedical Factors 6
What are the Somatogyral Illusions?
1) Leans (most common)
2) Graveyard Spin (usually fixed wing)
3) Coriolis Illusion (most dangerous)
4) Post-Roll (Gillingham Illusion)

Describe the Leans.

Pilot fails to perceive angular motion - rolling in and out of banking maneuvers may cause a false
perception of attitude and the pilot will "lean" his body until the false sensation leaves

Describe the Graveyard Spin.

The pilot enters a spin, recovers from the spin, but feels as though he is spinning in the other direction,
and reenters the initial spin direction again.

Describe the Coriolis Illusion.

Prolonged turn is initiated and pilot makes a head motion in a different geometrical plane, can result in
a head over heels tumbling sensation
If the controls are not quickly taken by the co-pilot, the aircraft may never recover.

Describe the Post-Roll (Gillingham) Illusion.

Can manifest after a roll maneuver. Pilot may initiate a roll rate into a coordinated turn, complete the
maneuver, but then incorrectly provide control input to add additional bank in the same direction with
the misperception of a decrease in bank

What are the Somatogravic Illusions?

1) G-Excess Illusion
2) Elevator Illusion

Describe the G-Excess Illusion

Occurs in a sustained (>1) G environment with a head movement in a steep turn. If a pilot turns his/her
head up to the inside of steep turn at high G, it may be interpreted as an underbank and the pilot may
overbank the aircraft with an inadvertent descent.

Describe the Elevator Illusion.

A type of G-excess illusion whereby a false sense of pitch may be experienced with significant upward or
downward acceleration. A sudden increase in vertical G-force drives the eyeballs downward. May be
perceived as nose high and dive the aircraft.

Describe the Oculoargravic Illusion.

Visually analogous to the somatogravic illusions and occur under similar conditions. It is due to the
visual misperception of a fixed object (such as, the instrument panel) moving up or down due to
acceleration or deceleration.

Aeromedical Factors 7
Describe Alternobaric Vertigo (Pressure Vertigo)
This is not actually an illusion. Changes in atmospheric pressure can sometimes lead to vestibular
dysfunction. May arise due to changes in altitude, a middle ear equilibration maneuver (Valsalva or
Tyonbee), or pressure differences between the two ears. Usually only lasts 10 seconds or less.

***Visual Illusions are covered in the NVG section of the study guide IAW the UH-60 ACAT***

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Aeromedical Factors 8
Performance
Planning
What is the Engine Torque Factor (ETF)? Will it ever be above 1.0? What is the range?
ETF is the ratio of individual engine torque available compared to a specification engine at a reference
temperature of 35°C. It will never be above 1.0. The range is from .85 to 1.0.

What is the Aircraft Torque Factor (ATF)? What is the range?

ATF is the average of both of the ETFs for the aircraft. It can range from .90 to 1.0

What is the torque ratio (TR)?

The TR provides an accurate indication of available power by incorporating ambient temperature effects
on engine performance. For temperatures below 35°C, the denser air makes the engines more efficient
(to a point...about -5°C due to Ng limiting).

Can the ATF Torque Ratio be computed by averaging the ETF Torque Ratios?
No, it must be computed separately using the chart.

What is does Max Torque Available represent?

It reflects the maximum torque the engines can produce without exceeding TGT limiting (dual engine –
10 minute limit, single engine - 2.5 minute limit), NG limiting, or fuel flow limiting.

When is Max Torque Available (MTA) considered a structural limitation? Environmental?

If MTA is above the dual-engine or single-engine torque limits, the aircraft is said to be structurally
limited. The engines are capable of producing the power, but the components of the XMSN are
incapable of sustaining the torque loads continually without damage.

If MTA is below the dual-engine or single-engine torque limits, it is said to be environmentally limited.
Due to the environmental conditions, the engines are incapable of producing specification power and
XMSN torque limits will not be reached.

What type of limiting can limit MTA when it is a structural limitation (dual engine)?
TGT or Ng limiting can limit MTA.

In what conditions would TGT limiting restrict MTA? NG limiting?

TGT would restrict MTA in hotter conditions, and Ng limiting would restrict MTA in colder conditions.

If you have two different ETFs, will you actually see the MTA dual engine number in the cockpit? What
will you see?
No, each engine will rise to its single engine MTA.

What will happen if you demand more power than MTA?

The rotor will droop.

Performance Planning 1
How is MTA affected by bleed air (anti-ice and heater)?
MTA is reduced by 20% with Engine Anti-Ice on, and 5% with the Cockpit/Gunner Heater On (7.5% with
Cockpit/Gunner Heater and auxiliary bleed-air cabin heater on). (UH-60M)

If you are cruising at 42% TQ and you have 100% MTA, and you turn on anti-ice, will you see a change
in torque?
No, MTA is reduced off the top. MTA will be reduced to 80%, but since you are only operating at 42%
you will not notice a change in torque.

When is MAX ALLOWABLE GWT IGE/OGE a structural limit? Environmental?

If MAX ALLOWABLE GWT IGE/OGE is equal to the max gross weight of the A/C (22,000 lbs), then the
aircraft is structurally limited. The engines may be capable of lifting more weight, but the airframe is not.

If MAX ALLOWABLE GWT IGE/OGE is less than the max gross weight of the A/C (22,000 lbs) then the
aircraft is environmentally limited. Although the airframe is capable of lifting the weight, the engines
cannot lift that weight based on the environmental conditions.

If you are hovering at your GO/NO GO TQ IGE, and bring the aircraft up to an OGE hover, what torque
value will you see?
MTA

If actual hover TQ does not match PREDICTED HOVER TQ, what could have caused this?
1) A/C weight is not as predicted.
2) Environmental conditions may have changed.
3) There could be a crosswind or strong winds. Hover values are based on zero wind conditions.
4) Hovering over other than level, smooth surfaces can affect hover TQ.
5) There was an error in deriving the value from the chart (or incorrectly entered into IPAC).

Why is MTA in the cruise section higher than MTA in the departure section?
Due to ram air in the engine inlets which increases engine efficiency.

What will happen if you are cruising above CRITICAL TQ and have a single engine failure?
If the flight controls are not readjusted, the rotor will droop. If airspeed is not adjusted, level flight
cannot be maintained.

What do MIN/MAX IAS number represent?

They represent the minimum and maximum speeds that can be flown and maintain straight and level
flight while keeping Q below MTA.

What does MAX CONTINUOUS TQ represent?

The maximum torque the engines can produce continuously and remain out of the 30 minute operating
limits (TGT, Ng, ENG Oil Temp).

Performance Planning 2
How does bleed air affect cruise fuel flow (anti-ice and heater)?
Dual Engine:
• Engine Anti-Ice: +100 lbs/hr.
• Cockpit/Gunner Heater On: + about 20 lbs/hr.
• Cockpit/Gunner Heater and auxiliary cabin heater system on: + About 30 lbs/hr.

When would you use MAX ENDURANCE airspeed? What is the relationship with drag, fuel flow and
MAX ENDURANCE?
Max endurance allows the aircraft to fly straight and level for the longest period of time (time aloft or
loiter time). At max endurance, total drag is the lowest, and the fuel burn rate is the lowest.

When would you use MAX RANGE airspeed? How is MAX RANGE adjusted for headwind/tailwind
conditions?
Max range can be used to produce the greatest flight range per pound of fuel. It can be used if you need
to travel a longer distance while using minimum fuel. Increase IAS by 2.5 knots per 10 knots of
headwind, and decrease IAS by 2.5 knots for every 10 knots of tailwind.

Why doesn't MAX R/C match MAX ENDURANCE airspeed?

Due to pitot tube sensing errors during climbs and descents, the IAS values need to be adjusted to
account for these errors.

How is MAX R/C used?

MAX R/C is used by going the MAX R/C IAS and using MTA.

What does the SINGLE ENGINE MIN airspeed represent? What if you fly slower than that on one
engine?
It is the minimum airspeed possible without losing altitude during SE operations. At the minimum SE
airspeed, the aircraft would be operating at MTA and TGT would be at the 2.5 minute value. If you fly
slower than SE MIN IAS, you would not be able to maintain level flight.

What does the SINGLE ENGINE MAX airspeed represent? What if you fly faster than that on one
engine?
It is the maximum airspeed possible without losing altitude during SE operations. At the maximum SE
airspeed, the aircraft would be operating at MTA and TGT would be at the 2.5 minute value. If you fly
faster than SE MAX IAS, you would not be able to maintain level flight. If a single engine failure occurs
and you are flying above this speed, rotor droop will occur.

What could happen if you exceed Vne?

The aircraft could encounter the effects of retreating blade stall, compressibility, and/or aircraft
structural damage.

Performance Planning 3
What could happen if you exceed the MAX ANGLE?
Retreating blade stall, possibly compressibility.

When must a PPC be recomputed?

If there is a change in any of the following:
1) ±5 degrees C
2) ±1,000' PA
3) ±500 lbs GW
4) ±.05 ETF

When must Dynamic In Flight Updates be calculated?

When either of the following apply with the intent to land or takeoff:
1) When operating within 3,000 lbs of MAX ALLOWABLE GROSS WEIGHT.
2) Increase of 1000' PA and/or 5 degrees C from PPC.

When is ARRIVAL DATA required to be computed?

If arrival conditions at destination have increased from departure data by any of the following amounts:
• Temp: 5 degrees C
• PA: 1000'
• GW: 500 lbs.

What values must be updated when performing a dynamic in-flight update?

1) MTA
2) Max allowable GWT OGE
3) TQ required to hover at MAX GWT OGE and IGE
4) Aircraft Operating Weight.

What is the rule of thumb regarding TQ's relation to weight?

1% Q = 200 lbs

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Performance Planning 4
 UH-60M
Preflight
Expanded
Steps
Publications - Check.
a. Required forms and publications
b. Availability of -10 and checklist

Fuel sample (main and external) - Check.

a. For contamination before first flight of the day.
b. For contamination after adequate settling time after cold refueling.
c. If the fuel source is suspected to be contaminated.

Fuselage - Nose area, check.

a. Windshield and wipers - Check.
b. Blade de-ice OAT sensor, FAT indicator probe(s), and ADC probes - Check.
c. Avionics compartment - Check equipment as required; secure door.
d. ([HH-60M] FLIR – Check condition (remove locking pin))
e. ([HH-60M] MMS – Check condition)
f. Antennas - Check.
g. (CMWS CHAFF - EOMS secure and clean.)
h. (Electronic laser warning sensor – Check secure and clean.)
i. Landing and searchlights - Check.

Cockpit area - Check (Left Side)

a. Cockpit door - Check.
b. Copilot seat, belts, and harness - Check.
c. (MCU Cockpit Control -)
d. Landing gear support fairing and step - Check.
e. Position light - Check.
f. Main landing gear - Check.
g. (HSS, VSP, ejector rack locking levers locked, fairings, and external tanks - Check; refueling caps
secure.)
h. Gunner's window - Check.
i. Ambient sense port - Check.

UH-60M Preflight Expanded Steps 1

Cabin top - Check.
a. Left engine - Check inlet.
b. (Left engine EIBF - Check Maintenance Indicator and ensure pin installed.)
c. Left pitot tube - Check.
d. Control access - Check flight controls, hydraulic reservoir, and filter indicators. Check
tempilabels for safe indication and security. Check area.
e. Control access cover - Close and check secured.
f. Right pitot tube - Check.
g. Right engine - Check inlet.
h. (Right engine EIBF - Check Maintenance Indicator and ensure pin installed.)
i. (Rescue Hoist – Check)
j. Antennas – Check

Cabin - Check.
a. Fire extinguishers - Check.
b. First aid kits - Check.
c. Pilot's and copilot's tilt-back release levers - Lock position.
d. Mission readiness circuit breaker panel – crewmember verify all circuit breakers in.
e. Cabin interior - Check security of stowed equipment.
f. Cabin seats, belts, harness, and intertial locks - Check.
g. ([HH-60M] Litter platforms and restraint belts – Check)
h. ([HH-60M] Medical Interior circuit breaker panels – Check)
i. ([HH-60M] ECS control panel switch – app OFF)
j. ([HH-60M] Rescue hoist searchlight control panel switches – OFF. ARM-TEST switch – TEST)
k. ([HH-60M] Cabin ICS panels – Set)
l. ([HH-60M] All oxygen regulators – Off)

Cargo hook - Check.

a. General condition and security.
b. Electrical connections condition and security.

UH-60M Preflight Expanded Steps 2

Fuselage - Check (Left Side).
a. Cabin door - Check.
b. (Volcano armament system - Check.)
c. Fuel tank filler ports - Check; caps secure, doors secured.
d. External pneumatic inlet port - Door secured.
e. Fire extinguisher containers thermal plug – Check.
f. (Electronic laser warning sensor – Check secure and clean.)
g. (IAFTS – Check aircraft overboard cavity drain fitting for any signs of fuel seepage)
h. Engine exhaust - Check.
i. (APU IPS exhaust - Check.)
j. APU exhaust - Check.
k. ([HH-60M] AMOGS heat exchange vent – Check)
l. (EOMS – Secure and clean)
m. (Chaff, flare dispensers – Verify munitions)
n. Lower anticollision light - Check.
o. Antennas - Check.
p. Tail landing gear – Check.

Tail Pylon - Check

a. Stabilator – Check locking pin and keeper; full extension and locked.
b. Antennas – Check
c. Position light - Check.
d. Upper anticollision light - Check.
e. (CWMS - EOMS secure and clean.)

Fuselage - Check (Right Side).

a. Antennas - Check.
b. (CMWS Chaff, flare dispensers – Verify munitions)
c. Aft avionics compartment – Ensure tail rotor cables clear; (ECS circuit breaker in); check door
secure
d. Engine exhaust - Check.
e. (Electronic laser warning sensor – Check secure and clean).
f. Fuel tank gravity filler port - Check cap secure; door secured.
g. (IAFTS – Check aircraft overboard cavity drain fitting for any signs of fuel seepage).
h. (Volcano armament system - Check.)
i. Cabin door - Check.
j. ([HH-60M] Rescue hoist – Check cable protection rail)
k. ([HH-60M] Rescue hoist searchlight – Check)

UH-60M Preflight Expanded Steps 3

Cockpit area - Check (Right Side).
a. Ice detector - Check.
b. Ambient sense port - Check.
c. (HSS, VSP, ejector rack locking levers locked, fairings, and external tanks - Check.)
d. Gunner's window - Check.
e. External electrical power receptacle - Door secured.
f. Main landing gear - Check.
g. Position light - Check.
h. Landing gear support fairing and step - Check.
i. (Electronic laser warning sensor – Check secure and clean).
j. (MCU cockpit control – verify off)
k. Cockpit door - Check.
l. Pilot seat, belt, and harness - Check.

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UH-60M Preflight Expanded Steps 4

 UH-60M Warnings,
Cautions, Notes
(Condensed) for
Preflight, Run Up, Hit
Check, and Shutdown
(Change 4)
PREFLIGHT
Before Exterior Check. (W)
Warning:
Don't preflight until armament systems are safe, switches off, safety pins installed, and locking
levers in locked position.

Main rotor blades - Check. (C, C)

Caution:
Don't deflect rotor blade down more than 6 inches below normal position when attaching tiedowns,
and don't tie down below normal droop position.
Caution:
Ensure no heat damage to rotor blades with UES

APU - Check; oil level. (W)

Warning:
Be careful when accessing the APU compartment to not trip on and damage the SATCOM and COM3
antennas.

RUN UP
Before Starting Engines. (W, W, C)
1st Warning:
All rotor tiedowns must be removed before engine operation.
2nd Warning:
Ensure all primary flight, propulsion, and emergency controls can be reached while fully restrained,
that you are at the design eye position, and have full movement of controls.
Caution:
Don't grab the foam pad around the glare shield to prevent damage.

Circuit Breakers and Switches - Set. (N)

Note:
If IMC is expected, the STBY INST switch must be held in test for 5 seconds. Look for BATT GOOD
cold capsule for 5 seconds to ensure 30 minutes of ESIS battery time.

BATT NO. 1 and NO. 2 switches – ON (N)

Note:
Beeping tones will be heard during digital ICS start up checks.

UH-60M Warning / Cautions / Notes 1

APU CONTR switch - ON. (N, N, N)
1st Note:
Once the switch is on, if the APU doesn't start and the APU ACCUM LOW advisory doesn't appear,
pull the manual override lever on the accumulator manifold to attempt another start and hold until
APU self-sustain speed.
2nd Note:
If the APU fails note the BITE indications before cycling the BATT switch or attempting another APU
start.
3rd Note:
During the first 4 seconds of the APU start, the APU Fire T-Handle and Master FIRE lights may appear
momentarily.

GENERATORS APU switch - ON. (W, W) (CMWS- W, W)

1st Warning:
Clear the stabilator before applying AC power and before energizing the stabilator system.
2nd Warning:
Make sure no person is within 3 feet of the TACAN antenna when power is applied due to potential
radiation hazard.
1st CMWS Warning:
While CMWS is booting it will be offline for 2-5 minutes and will be unable to protect the helicopter.
2nd CMWS Warning:
Don't transition from APU gen to main gens while the CMWS is booting. It could damage the system.

EDECU - Check signal validation code 25%. (N, N, N)

1st Note:
The indication will appear on the MFD Q indicator approximately 20 seconds after AC power. 25%
shall be verified to indicate 701D with DAS plug.
2nd Note:
The EDECU configuration can be verified on the FMS status page.
3rd Note:
The DEC will immediately display signal validation fault codes on the MFD Q indicator after
application of AC power (4 secs on, 2 off) during startup, and 30 seconds after both engines are
shutdown.

MASTER WARNING PANEL – Check #1 ENG OUT, #2 ENG OUT, LOW ROTOR R.P.M segment lights
appear (N)
Note:
If a segment light doesn't appear, pull out 1/4 inch and push back in to reset the bulb.

FAILURE RESET CPTR 1 and CPTR 2 switches – Press to reset FCC. (N)
Note:
EGIs must be in ORIENT phase before AFCS faults will reset.

UH-60M Warning / Cautions / Notes 2

Flight controls - Check first helicopter flight of the day. (W, C, N, W, N)
1st Warning:
Perform control sweeps to ensure flight controls don't interfere with gear.
Caution:
When hydraulic access cover is open, ensure blades are not directly over the nose to prevent
contact with WSPS.
1st Note:
With SAS/BOOST off, only apply enough force to the pedals to contact a system stop.
2nd Warning:
If PRI SERVO 1 FAIL or PRI SERVO 2 FAIL cautions appear during collective movement, do not fly
(servo bypass valve may be jammed).
2nd Note:
Check for no more than 1.5 inches of freeplay in the pedals and collective.

Stabilator - Check. (W)

Warning:
Don't fly the helicopter if any part of the stabilator check fails.

FMS initialization – Check as required. (N, N, N, N)

1st Note:
FMS defaults to the last known helicopter position, and will update when GPS is available.
2nd Note:
EGI2 may attempt to align and begin air alignment when AC power is applied.
3rd Note:
If INIT is not selected manually, it will automatically engage when GPS is available.
4th Note:
Only use the Calc PERFORMANCE function after verifying the correct configuration of aircraft.

Avionics – Check and set as required. (N)

Note:
If 8.33 kHZ spacing is required, enter a valid freq and ensure EURO ATC SK is toggled ON at least
once during a power cycle.

Set up MFD/FD/FMS for mission. (N)

Note:
Only two UTOs (unit task orgs) can be loaded into the system using the mission card. (Load
additional directly into the IDM as required. Successful initialization is displayed by "OPERATIONAL")

UH-60M Warning / Cautions / Notes 3

STARTING ENGINES. (C)
Caution:
To avoid damage to the blades during rotor brake start, ensure that they are positioned with +/- 20°
of aircraft centerline before engaging the rotor brake.

GUST LOCK ENGAGED caution – Verify off. (N)

Note:
The caution may not be visible on the CAS page, verify on EICAS.

STAB UNLOCKED caution – Verify off. (W, N)

Warning:
Operating engines/rotors with the stabilator unlocked, could cause it to contact the tail rotor.
Note:
The caution may not be visible on the CAS page, verify on EICAS.

Engine(s) - Start. (N, W, N, N, N, C, N, N, N, N, C, C, C)

[First 5 (N, W, N, N, N) are for the rotor brake]
1st Note:
If operating conditions permit, engines may be started with inop or not installed rotor brake.
Warning:
If rotor brake slips and causes rotors to turn, immediately shut down engine(s) or release the rotor
brake.
2nd Note:
During rotor brake operations, there will be no NP or Q until rotor brake is released.
3rd Note:
MAIN XMSN PRESS caution will remain and no pressure indication until rotor brake is released.
4th Note:
All No. 1 and No. 2 hydraulic cautions will remain until the rotor brake is released.
[1 Caution associated with the ignition switch]
1st Caution:
If the ENGINE IGNITION is off when the start is attempted, don't turn it on. Abort the start.
[The next 2 (N, N) have to do with fuel press lights]
5th Note:
FUEL PRESS LOW caution may appear during start but should extinguish before idle.
6th Note:
Do not use the fuel boot pump control switches to extinguish the FUEL 1 or 2 PRESS LOW cautions.
[The next 3 (N, N, C) have to do with the starter]
7th Note:
NG is permitted above 65% when starter drop out is indicated on the MFD, but must be out by the
time the engine reaches idle (due to 1 second delay).
8th Note:
If the ENGINE STARTER caution disappears when the starter button is released and the ENG POWER
CONT lever is OFF, you can continue the start by pressing and holding the starter button until 52-
65% Ng is reached.
2nd Caution:
Don't move the ENG POWER CONT lever from IDLE to OFF while pressing the starter button.

UH-60M Warning / Cautions / Notes 4

[The last 2 (C, C) have to do with the flight controls]
3rd Caution:
During the start and run-up, keep the cyclic neutral, the collective no more than one inch up, and
the pedals centered until RPM R reaches 50% (to prevent damage to anti-flap bracket bushings).
4th Caution:
For starts with rotor brake off, and during rotor engagements, minimize cyclic inputs (to prevent
droop stop pounding).

Start Abort Criteria

No rise (within 45 seconds) in:
1) TGT
2) P (ENG OIL PRESS)
3) NP1 or NP2 (if rotor brake is off)

4) ENGINE STARTER caution disappears before reaching 52% Ng.

5) TGT temp reaches 851°C before idle is attained (63% Ng).

Systems Check
1) NG 63% or greater and within 3% of each other.
2) NP1 or NP2 out of the avoid range of 20-40%, and 60-90%. (Advance PCLs as required)
3) XMSN P - Check (above 20 PSI and within limits)
4) P (ENG OIL PRESS) - check (above 22 PSI and within limits)
5) HYD PUMP 1 FAIL and HYD PUMP 2 FAIL cautions - check OFF.

Hydraulic leak test system - Check. (N)

1st Note:
Don't hold the switch in the TEST position when performing the HYD LEAK TEST.
2nd Note:
If the backup pump is still running following the hydraulic leak test, cycle the BACKUP HYD PUMP
switch to OFF then back to AUTO.

Tail rotor servo transfer - Check. (N)

Note:
If the BACK-UP PUMP ON advisory or the T/R SERVO 2 ON advisory don't appear there is a failure in
the leak detection/isolation system.

ENG POWER CONT lever(s) - FLY. (W, N)

Warning:
Restrict the rate of ENG POWER CONT lever's movement when the tailwheel lock pin is not engaged
to prevent the helicopter from turning.
Note:
For rotor brake operations, ensure approximately 45% NR for single engine, and 57% NR for dual
engine is reached prior to advancing PCLs

UH-60M Warning / Cautions / Notes 5

GEN 1 FAIL and GEN 2 FAIL cautions disappear above 97% NR. (N)
Note:
During single engine ground operation, with collective full down, NP/NR may indicate 99%. It is
more frequent during hot weather, and raising collective approximately 1/2 inch will bring it to
100%

HIT CHECK
Operational Engine Health Indicator Test (HIT) /Anti-Icing Check. (N, N, N, W, W, C)
1st Note:
The HIT check is done on the ground to find significant performance shifts, trend engine
performance, and verify proper operation of the anti-ice bleed start valve.
2nd Note:
HIT/ANTI-ICE check while in adverse conditions may be deferred (up to 5 flight hours) until suitable
location is reached.
3rd Note:
Perform the HIT check prior to each mission day.
1st Warning:
If any part of the engine anti-ice valve check fails, do not fly.
2nd Warning:
Don't cycle the anti-ice more than once. Don't fly if the TGT rise is less than 30 C or switch cycling is
required.
Caution:
If any part of the engine inlet anti-ice check fails, do not fly the helicopter. Malfunction can result in
40% max avail power loss at 30 minute TGT demands.

Sequential Operational HIT Check. (N)

Note:
During check the FORCE option is disabled, but the FORCE function remains visible.

In-Flight HIT Check. (N)

Note:
This check may be used in desert environment to minimize sand ingestion. Accomplish at an altitude
where there is a minimum of sand intrusion.

Shut Down
GENERATORS NO. 1 and NO. 2 switches - OFF. (N, N)
1st Note:
If using external power for shut down, connect it and place the EXT PWR switch to RESET.
2nd Note:
If external power is not available and a blind shutdown must be performed, complete normal
shutdown on No 2 engine before continuing.

UH-60M Warning / Cautions / Notes 6

ENG POWER CONT levers - IDLE. (W, C)
Warning:
Restrict the rate of the ENG POWER CONT lever movement when the tail wheel lock-pin is not
engaged to prevent the helicopter from turning.
Caution:
During shutdown ensure the cyclic is neutral or placed slightly into the wind, collective no more than
an inch above full down, and pedals centered.

Droop stops - Verify in, about 50% NR. (N)

Note:
If one or more droop stops do not go in during rotor shutdown, shut down an engine to lower rotor
idling RPM. If droop stops still do not go in, accelerate rotor to above 75% RPM R. Repeat rotor
shutdown procedures slightly displacing cyclic in an attempt to dislodge jammed droop stop. If
droop stops still do not go in, make certain that rotor disc area is clear of personnel and proceed
with normal shutdown procedures while keeping cyclic in neutral position.

BACKUP HYD PUMP switch – OFF. (C)

Caution:
Do not increase collective pitch at any time during rotor coast down.

ENG POWER CONT levers - OFF after 2 minutes at NG SPEED of 90% or less. (C)
Caution:
The engine must be cooled for 2 minutes at Ng of 90% or less before moving ENG POWER CONT
lever to OFF. If you fail to do this and it is necessary to re-start, do it within 5 minutes of shut down,
otherwise you must wait four hours before attempting restart.

DEC/EDECU signal validation fault codes - Check (N, N)

1st Note:
Loss of aircraft power to DEC will generate no fault codes
2nd Note:
After fault code is displayed as a Q value, they can be accessed on the FMS through, STS FFK, AIR
VEHICLE, then DEC-1 or DEC-2.

GENERATORS APU switch - OFF (N)

Note:
Wait 15 seconds after EGI 1 and EGI 2 switches are turned off before turning off the APU.

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UH-60M Warning / Cautions / Notes 7

UH-60M Base Task
(1000 series)
Rated
Crewmember
Standards
Semi-annual flying-hour requirements
• FAC 1 - 48 hours from the pilot's or copilot's seat.
• FAC 2 - 30 hours from the pilot's or copilot's seat.
• FAC 3 - none.
• NVG RL1 RCMs - 9 hours of NVG flight, of which 6 must be flown at night in the A/C. The other 3
can be in the H-60FS.

Annual simulation device flying-hour requirements.

• FAC 1 - 18 hours
• FAC 2 - 12 hours
• FAC 3 - 10 hours semiannually, can be prorated.
• RCMs may apply 12 hours of simulator time toward the aircraft flying hour minimums.

Common Standards for All Tasks

a) Do not exceed aircraft limitations
b) Crewmembers will comply with all evaluation considerations, warnings, cautions, and notes in
the task.
c) Perform crew coordination actions IAW chapter 8.

Common Standards for Hover

a) Heading ±10 degrees (± 20 degrees for AFCS off)
b) Altitude, ±3 feet (±5 feet for OGE). *
c) Do not allow drift to exceed 3 feet (10 feet for OGE hover). *
d) Maintain ground track within 3 feet.
e) Maintain a constant rate of movement appropriate for existing conditions.
Note. These standards (*) require that the other crewmembers announce drift and altitude changes
before exceeding the standard.

Common Standards for In-flight.

a) Heading ± 10 degrees.
b) Altitude ± 100 ft.
c) Airspeed ± 10 KIAS
d) Maintain ground track with minimum drift.
e) Maintain rate of climb or descent ± 200 FPM.
f) Trim ± 1/2 ball width.

Common Standards for all tasks with the APU/engines operating.

a) Maintain airspace surveillance (Task 1026)
b) Apply appropriate environmental consideration.

UH-60M Base Task Standards 1

Task 1000 - Participate in a Crew Mission Briefing.
1) PC will actively participate in and acknowledge an understanding of DA Form 5484.
2) PC will ensure a mission briefing is conducted using table 4-1, or a more detailed unit-approved
crew briefing CL.
3) Crewmembers will acknowledge a complete understanding of the briefing.

Task 1004 - Plan a Visual Flight Rules Flight

1) Determine whether A/C and crew are capable of completing the mission.
2) Determine whether flight can be performed under VFR per AR 95-1, FARs, host-nation/local
regs, and SOPs.
3) Determine departure, en route and destination procedures.
4) Select route(s) and altitudes that avoid hazardous weather conditions; do not exceed A/C or
equip limitations, and use VFR cruising altitudes per DOD FLIP.
5) For cross-country determine, distance ± 1 NM, TAS ±5 knots, GS ± 5 knots, ETE ± 1 minute for
each leg, MH ± 5 degrees.
6) Determine fuel required per 95-1 ±100 lbs.
7) Complete and file flight plan per 95-1 and DOD FLIP.
8) Perform mission risk assessment per unit SOP.

Task 1006 - Plan an Instrument Flight Rules Flight.

1) Determine whether A/C and crew are capable of completing the mission.
2) Determine whether flight can be performed under IFR per AR 95-1, FARs, host-nation/local regs,
and SOPs.
3) Determine departure, en route and destination procedures.
4) Select route(s) and altitudes that avoid hazardous weather conditions; do not exceed A/C or
equip limitations, and use IFR cruising altitudes per DOD FLIP.
5) If off airway, determine course ± 5 degrees.
6) Select approach compatible with weather, approach facilities, and A/C equipment; determine if
alternate airfield is required.
7) Determine distance ± 1 NM, TAS ±5 knots, GS ± 5 knots, and ETE ± 1 minute for each leg.
8) Determine fuel required per 95-1 and FM 3-04.240 ±100 lbs.
9) Complete and file flight plan per 95-1 and DOD FLIP.
10) Perform mission risk assessment per unit SOP.

Task 1010 - Prepare a Performance Planning Card

1) Compute all items on PPC with most current software.
2) Input appropriate info into the software.
3) Compute values using accurate conditions for time of T/O within the following parameters: FAT
± 5 degrees C; PA ± 1000'; GW ±500 lbs; ETF ± 0.05.
4) When manual calculations are required compute within: TQ values ± 2%; Weight values ± 500
lbs; Fuel flow ± 100 lbs/hr; Airspeeds ± 5 knots.
5) Correlate planning info to determine A/C and mission capabilities.

UH-60M Base Task Standards 2

Task 1011 - Determine Dynamic Aircraft Performance In-Flight
1) Verify planned performance values as required by environmental and aircraft configuration
differences.
2) Update A/C performance when either of the following conditions apply with intent to land or
takeoff:
a. When operating within 3000 lbs of MAX ALLOWABLE GWT OGE
b. Increase of 1000' PA
c. 5 degrees C from PPC.
3) Update A/C performance data using automated planning software or data found in the FRC for
the minimum of the following:
a. MTA
b. Max allowable GWT OGE
c. TQ required to hover at Max GWT OGE and IGE
d. A/C Operating Weight.
4) When not utilizing automated software, determine values within
a. TQ values ± 2%
b. Weight values ± 500 lbs.

Task 1012 - Verify Aircraft Weight and Balance

1) Verify that CG and GWT remain within A/C limits for duration of flight per -10.
2) ID all mission or flight limits imposed by weight or CG.
3) Ensure DD form(s) 365-4 has been completed IAW AR 95-1.

Task 1013 - Operate Mission Planning Software

1) Configure and operate the software.
2) Evaluate and enter all pertinent weather data, as appropriate.
Select and enter appropriate:
3) Primary and alt routes.
4) Tactical/terrain flight mission planning control features.
5) Communication data
6) Load mission data to data transfer device, if applicable.
7) Generate mission products as required IAW the unit SOP

Task 1014 - Operate Aviation Life Support Equipment

1) Inspect/perform operational checks on ALSE
2) Use personal and mission ALSE
3) Brief passengers in using ALSE

UH-60M Base Task Standards 3

Task 1020 - Prepare Aircraft for Mission
1) Perform or ensure that a thorough passenger briefing has been conducted and that a passenger
manifest is on file IAW AR 95-1. Conduct the passenger briefing IAW the aircraft -10/CL and unit
SOP.
2) Ensure that the passengers/cargo is restrained IAW the -10.
3) Ensure that floor loading limits are not exceeded.
4) Install, secure, inspect, and inventory all mission equipment.
5) Prepare the A/C for the assigned mission.

Task 1022 - Perform Preflight Inspection

a. Perform preflight per -10/CL
b. Review the logbook for service intervals and deficiencies.
c. Enter appropriate info on the -13 and -13-1 if required.
Night/NVG considerations:
Use a flashlight with an unfiltered lens. Leaks and other defects are hard to see with colored lenses.

Task 1024 - Perform Before-Starting-Engine through Before-Leaving-Helicopter checks

1) Perform procedures and checks per the -10/CL and HIT check procedures.
2) Enter appropriate information on the -12, -13, -13-1, and HIT log.
3) View exceedance data as required.

Task 1026 - Maintain Airspace Surveillance

1) Brief airspace surveillance procedures prior to flight to include scan sectors.
2) Announce any unplanned drift or altitude changes, clear the A/C, and immediately inform other
crewmembers of air traffic or obstacles that pose a threat to the A/C
3) Announce when focused inside using a time limit appropriate for conditions and announce
when back outside.
4) Maintain airspace surveillance in assigned scan sectors.

Task 1028 - Perform Hover Power Check

1) Determine whether A/C weight exceeds Max GW.
2) Verify aircraft operating weight.
3) Determine if sufficient power is available to perform the mission.
Notes: Perform at 10' hover in the direction of T/O preferably into the wind. A 3-5 knot crosswind or
tailwind may increase TQ required by up to 4%.

UH-60M Base Task Standards 4

Task 1032 - Perform Radio Communication Procedures
a. Program, check and operate A/C avionics.
b. Configure appropriate tactical internet (J-VMF, EDM, and BFT) system for desired operation.
c. Transmit, receive, review, and delete messages (J-VMF, EDM, and BFT) and mission information
as required.
d. Establish radio contact with desired unit or ATC. When communicating with ATC, use correct
radio commo procedures and phraseology.
e. Operate ICS.
f. Explain 2 way radio failure procedures per DOD FLIP or host-nation regs.

Task 1034 - Perform Ground Taxi

1) Maintain speed appropriate for conditions
2) Maintain desired ground track ± 3'.

Task 1038 - Perform Hovering Flight

1) Perform smooth controlled ascent to hover.
2) Perform smooth controlled descent with minimum drift at touchdown.
3) For coupled hover, engage the appropriate hover modes.
Note: Air taxi is the preferred method for ground movement (< 100' AGL).

Task 1040 - Perform Visual Meteorological Conditions Takeoff

1) A/C in trim above 50' AGL or as appropriate for mission profile.
2) When operating within 3000 lbs of Max GWT OGE, estimate point where A/C will enter ETL and
establish an abort line to assist in determining type of takeoff.
3) Determine the type of takeoff that requires the appropriate amount of power to clear the
obstacles, taking into account GW, winds, power available, and distance from obstacles:
a. Constant angle
b. Vertical
c. Level Acceleration
d. Rolling takeoff
4) Additional standards for rolling takeoff:
a. Before liftoff –
i. Establish and maintain power as necessary
ii. Maintain alignment with T/O direction ± 5 degrees
iii. Accelerate to desired/planning takeoff speed not to exceed 60 KGS.
b. After liftoff –
i. Adjust power as required, not to exceed aircraft limits.
ii. Maintain ground track alignment with T/O direction with minimum drift
iii. Maintain max rate of climb airspeed ± 5 KIAS.
iv. Maintain aircraft aligned with runway (or surface) below max ROC airspeed.

UH-60M Base Task Standards 5

Additional Info
P* announce whether T/O from the ground or hover and intent to abort or alter the T/O, and select
reference points to maintain T/O flight path.

Task 1044 - Navigate By Pilotage and Dead Reckoning

1) Maintain orientation within 500 meters (.25NM) of the planned route, or the actual aircraft
position if deviation from the planned route is required.
2) Arrive at CPs/destination at ETA ± 1 minute.

Task 1046 - Perform Electronically Aided Navigation

1) Operate the installed electrically operated nav system per the TM and AWR.
2) Determine the position of the A/C along the route of flight within 300 meters.
3) Configure the FD/DCP and MFD for desired processed data.

Task 1048 - Perform Fuel Management Procedures

a. PC will verify that the required amount of fuel is onboard at the time of T/O
b. Initiate alternate course of action if actual fuel consumption varies from planned value, and
flight cannot be completed without the use of the required reserve.
c. Balance/manage fuel tank levels to maintain A/C within CGs limits

a. Initiate an in-flight fuel check within 10 minutes of leveling off or entering into mission profile.
b. Within 15 to 30 minutes after taking initial readings, compute the fuel consumption rate ± 50
lbs/hour and complete fuel consumption check.
c. Monitor the remaining fuel quantity and continuing rate of consumption.

Notes: Calculate initial fuel figures, fuel flow, burnout, and reserve times.

Task 1052 - Perform Visual Meteorological Conditions Flight Maneuvers.

Enter, operate in, and depart a traffic pattern

Task 1054 - Select Landing Zone/Pickup Zone/Holding Area

1) Perform map, photo or visual recon.
2) Determine that the LZ/PZ/HA is suitable for operations, and provide accurate detailed info to
supported unit.
3) (For power critical landings), establish altitude, airspeed, and flight path for conducting a high
reconnaissance commensurate with terrain and environmental conditions.
4) Determine approximate wind direction and velocity at touchdown point and identify other
pertinent wind characteristics in proximity to the LZ.
5) Assess the LZ size, axis, surface conditions, and obstacles
6) Plan ingress and egress routes to include escape routes required above and below ETL.
7) Confirm the winds and tentative plan formulated in the high recon by performing a thorough
low recon.

UH-60M Base Task Standards 6

Task 1058 - Perform a Visual Meteorological Conditions Approach
1) Select suitable landing area (analyze suitability, barriers, wind, approach path, touchdown point,
and takeoff direction)
2) Ensure sufficient power exists for type of approach/landing desired
3) Maintain constant angle to desired point of termination (hover) or touchdown (surface).
4) Maintain rate of closure appropriate for the conditions
5) Maintain ground track alignment with landing direction, as appropriate
6) Monitor wind conditions using cockpit indicators.
7) Determine wind direction and velocity at landing point.
8) Align A/C with landing direction below 50' AGL, or as appropriate for transition from terrain
flight.
9) Perform smooth and controlled termination to hover or touchdown to surface.

Task 1062 - Perform Slope Operations

a. Select suitable landing area
b. Set parking brake before landing
c. Perform a smooth and controlled descent and touchdown
d. Maintain heading ±5 degrees.
e. Do not allow aircraft to drift ± 3 feet until touchdown, then no drift is allowed.
f. Perform a smooth controlled ascent from the surface.
Notes: P* will announce intent, and note hovering attitude.
Before performing slope operations, crew must understand dynamic rollover and droop stop pounding.

Task 1064 - Perform a Roll-On Landing

1) Select suitable landing area
2) Maintain constant approach angle clear of obstacles to desired point of touchdown.
3) Maintain ground track alignment with landing direction, as appropriate.
4) Perform smooth, controlled touchdown and termination appropriate for conditions, below 60
knots GS, and aligned with landing direction ± 5 degrees prior to touchdown.
5) Ensure speed at touchdown is not slower than that appropriate for the conditions.
Notes: P* will announce intent to perform roll-on, when beginning the approach, intended point of
landing, and any deviation from the approach.
P will verify that brakes are released.

Task 1068 - Perform a Go-Around

1) Determine when go-around is required.
2) Immediately apply appropriate power to initiate go-around.
3) Immediately adjust pitch attitude to clear obstacles and achieve appropriate climb airspeed for
conditions.
Notes: P* will announce intent to do a go-around.

UH-60M Base Task Standards 7

Task 1070 - Respond to Emergencies
a. Conduct the Emergency Response Method (fly, alert, diagnose, execute, communicate-fly
[FADEC-F]) upon recognition of an emergency.
b. Select a suitable landing area, if required.

Task 1082 - Perform Autoroation

1) ID the malfunction, determine appropriate EP, and perform or describe immediate action
procedures outlined in the -10.
2) Select a suitable landing area.
3) Adjust airspeed as appropriate to ensure landing area.
4) Perform decel and termination as directed by IP or as appropriate for the type of emergency per
the -10.
Notes:
• Steady State Factors: RPM R within limits; Airspeed not below 80 KIAS; Torque, trim and A/C in
position to land at desired TD point.
• A right turn will cause a rapid rise in RPM R. A left turn will cause a slight to moderate rise in
RPM R, and when right cyclic is applied during rollout an even greater increase will be evident.
• Limit TQ below 10% for practice autos.

Task 1155 - Negotiate Wire Obstacles

1) Locate and estimate height of wires.
2) Determine the best method to negotiate the wire obstacle
3) Safely negotiate the wire obstacle minimizing time unmasked.

Task 1162 - Perform Emergency Egress

1) Perform or describe using emergency exits on the A/C per the -10.
2) Perform or describe the emergency egress of a pilot, NCM, or passengers from seats.
3) Perform or describe the emergency engine shutdown of the A/C per the -10.
4) Assist in marshaling passengers to designated assembly area.
5) Perform or describe duties as briefed in crew mission briefing.

Task 1166 - Perform Instrument Maneuvers

1) Tune and ID appropriate NAVAIDs, and GPS waypoints into nav system.
2) Determine, intercept, and maintain the desired radio nav course and headings ±5 degrees.
3) Determine, intercept, and maintain course relative to the RNAV procedures or GPS waypoint
within the specified RNAV containment for the airspace, procedure or segment to be flown (En
route 2.0NM, Terminal 1.0 NM, Approach 0.3 NM)
4) Maintain DME arc ±1 NM.

UH-60M Base Task Standards 8

Task 1167 – Perform Flight Maneuvers using Standby Flight Instrument System
Maneuver the aircraft to establish and maintain desired altitude, heading, and airspeed as appropriate.

Task 1169 – Perform Flight Director Operations

1) Operate the flight director IAW the aircraft operator's manual
2) Program the FMS for the desired flight plan.
3) Select the desired display on the MFD.
4) Select the appropriate modes on the FD/DCP.
5) Follow cyclic roll, cyclic pitch and collective position indicator cues as appropriate.

Task 1170 - Perform Instrument Takeoff

1) Comply with appropriate departure procedures (DPs).
2) Maintain power as required to climb at or above minimum climb rate on the DP.
3) Maintain accelerative climb attitude until climb airspeed is attained.
4) Maintain the aircraft in trim after ETL.
Notes: P* will announce when initiating the maneuver and intent to abort or alter T/O. P* will transition
to the instruments prior to entering actual or simulated IMC.

Task 1174 - Perform Holding Procedures

1) Tune and ID appropriate NAVAIDs
2) Determine, brief and enter the holding pattern
3) Comply with timing or DME distance specified and track holding pattern legs.
4) Send the appropriate report to ATC per DOD FLIP.

Task 1176 - Perform Nonprecision Approach

1) Perform the approach IAW published procedures
2) Intercept and maintain NDB, VOR courses within 5 degrees of centerline.
3) Intercept and maintain localizer courses within 2.5 degrees of centerline.
4) During ASR approaches, make immediate heading and altitude changes issued by ATC and
maintain heading ± 5°.
5) Intercept and maintain lateral course and vertical glide path courses within prescribed RNP
requirements for the airspace, approach segment or procedures flown (2.0 NM enroute, 1.0 NM
terminal, 0.3 NM on approach) utilizing RNAV flight cues.
6) Descend to altitude descent minimums using approved (LPV) or advisory (LNAV/VNAV) glide
path information as required.
7) Perform the Missed Approach Procedure as published or per ATC instructions upon reaching the
MAP if landing cannot be completed per AR 95-1.

UH-60M Base Task Standards 9

Task 1178 - Perform Precision Approach
1) Perform the approach
2) ILS - intercept and maintain localizer course ± 2.5° of centerline and glide slope ± 0.5° of glide
slope center.
3) PAR - make immediate altitude and heading changes issued by ATC and maintain heading ± 5°;
for final approach, maintain glide slope as directed by ATC.
4) Comply with DA or DH for the approach.
5) Perform the correct Missed Approach Procedure as published or per ATC instructions upon
reaching the MAP if landing cannot be completed per AR 95-1.
6) When coupled flight is selected, program FD/DCP for the appropriate approach and monitor for
correct aircraft response.

Task 1182 - Perform Unusual Attitude Recovery

1) Analyze aircraft attitude.
2) Without delay use correct recovery procedures:
a. Attitude - level the wings on the attitude indicator.
b. Heading - maintain heading; turn only to avoid known obstacles.
c. Torque - adjust as necessary
d. Trim - as necessary
e. Airspeed - adjust as necessary.

Task 1184 - Respond to Inadvertent Instrument Meteorological Conditions

1) Announce IMC, maintain A/C control, immediately make transition to instrument flight, and
initiate a climb.
2) Initiate the correct IIMC recovery procedures:
a. Attitude - level the wings on the attitude indicator.
b. Heading - maintain heading; turn only to avoid known obstacles or as briefed for
multiship operations.
c. Torque - adjust as necessary
d. Trim - as necessary
e. Airspeed - adjust as necessary.
3) Contact ATC as required. Comply with ATC instructions, local regs and SOP.
Notes: PC will announce minimum altitude to climb. P* will announce when initiating IIMC procedures,
and if disoriented and unable to recover.

Task 1194 - Perform Refueling Operations

1) Ensure safety procedures are complied with per FM 10-67-1, -10, and FM 3-04.113.
2) If installed, ensure that all doors and windows are closed on the refueling side (for hot refuel)
3) Ensure aircraft is refueled per FM 10-67-1, -10, FM 3-04.113, and SOP.
4) Enter appropriate info on 2408-12.

UH-60M Base Task Standards 10

Task 1253 – Operate Flight Management System – Central Display Unit
Load, configure, and utilize mission information as necessary to complete assigned mission.

Task 1254 – Operate Multifunction Display

1) Operate the installed MFD as IAW the aircraft current operator’s manual.
2) Select the appropriate display to obtain the desired information for the current mission profile.

Task 1260 – Operate Digital Map

1) Load digital map data via the DTS.
2) Operate bezel keys on the MFD to select desired map (TAC/ND) configuration and orientation.
3) Operating the multifunction slew controller (MFSC) or the collective slew controller to gain
desired information and to manipulate desired mission data on the digital map display.

Task 1425 – Employ Aviator Night Vision Imaging System

1) Conduct operator’s checks IAW -10 for the ANVIS
2) Properly mount the ANVIS on the flight helmet.
3) Adjust the ANVIS to obtain the optimal sight adjustment point (OSAP)

Task 1426 – React to Aviator’s Night Vision Imaging System Failure

1) Announce ANVIS failure by crew station.
2) If P* experiences ANVIS failure, transfer the flight the control to the P.
3) Troubleshoot ANVIS failure
4) Announce results of troubleshooting.

Task 1427 – Operate Heads-Up Display

1) Conduct operator’s checks for the HUD IAW -10
2) Mount HUD to the ANVIS
3) Power up the HUD IAW -10.
4) Program the HUD for mission requirements.
5) Shutdown the HUD IAW -10.

Task 1500 - Participate in a Crew-Level After Action Review

1) PC will conduct a detailed crew level AAR, using the example or a unit approved AAR checklist.
2) All crewmembers will actively participate in the review.

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UH-60M Base Task Standards 11

 Army Aviation
Doctrine, Tactical
Employment, and Air
Assault Operations
"The simultaneous or synchronized employment of ground forces with aviation maneuver and fires to
seize, retain, and exploit the initiative" and the way that Army Aviation integrates into ULO (Unified
Land Operations) is known as:
AGO - Air-Ground Operations

What are the core competencies of Army Aviation?

1. Provide Accurate and Timely Information Collection
2. Provide Reaction Time and Maneuver Space
3. Destroy, Defeat, Disrupt, Divert, or Delay Enemy Forces
4. Air Assault Ground Maneuver Forces
5. Air Movement of Personnel, Equipment, and Supplies
6. Evacuate Wounded or Recover Isolated Personnel
7. Enable Mission Command Over Extended Ranges and Complex Terrain

What does ACS stand for in regards to the battalion/squadron element of a CAB?
Air Cavalry Squadron

What does AB stand for in regards to the battalion/squadron element of a CAB?

Attack Battalion

What does AHB stand for in regards to the battalion/squadron element of a CAB?
Assault Helicopter Battalion

What does GSAB stand for in regards to the battalion/squadron element of a CAB?
General Support Aviation Battalion

What does ASB stand for in regards to the battalion/squadron element of a CAB?
Aviation Support Battalion

What does SSB stand for in regards to the battalion/squadron element of a CAB?
Security and Support Battalion

What does AOB stand for in regards to the battalion/squadron element of a CAB?
Airfield Operations Battalion

Which type of Airspace Control Measure uses altitude to separate users and as the transition between
airspace control elements?
CA (Coordinating Altitude)

Which type of Airspace Control Measure is used to separate FW and rotary-wing aircraft by
determining an altitude below which FW aircraft normally does not fly?
CL (Coordinating Level)

Which type of Airspace Control Measure is airspace that is reserved for specific activities in which the
operations of one or more airspace users are restricted?
ROZ (Restricted Operations Zone)

Army Aviation Doctrine, Employment, Air Assault 1

Which type of Airspace Control Measure are routes established below the CL to facilitate movement
without prior approval by the airspace control authority?
SAAFR (Standard Use Army Aircraft Flight Routes)

Which type of Airspace Control Measure / Fire Support Coordination Measure is a three-dimensional
block of airspace in a target area in which friendly aircraft are reasonably safe from friendly-surface
fires.
ACA (Airspace Coordination Area)

Which type of Airspace Control Measure are restricted air routes of travel specified for use by friendly
aircraft and established for preventing friendly aircraft from being fired upon by friendly forces. They
are established below the CA.
Air Corridors

Which tasks (tactical, enabling, and sustaining) are used to execute the Army Aviation's seven core
competencies?
1. Movement to Contact
2. Attack
3. Reconnaissance
4. Security
5. Air Assault
6. Mission Command Support
7. Personnel Recovery
8. Air Movement
9. Aeromedical Evacuation

An offensive task designed to develop the situation and to establish or regain contact is known as:
Movement to Contact

Army Aviation attack reconnaissance units conduct ________ in support of offensive, defensive, and
stability operations throughout the depth of the AO.
Attacks

______________ is a mission undertaken to obtain, by visual observation or other detection methods,

information about the activities and resources of an enemy or adversary, or to secure data concerning
the meteorological, hydrographic, or geographic characteristics of a particular area.
Reconnaissance

___________ operations are those operations undertaken by the commander to provide early and
accurate warning of enemy operations to provide the force being protected with the time and
maneuver space to react to the enemy, and to develop the situation to allow the commander to
effectively employ the protected force.
Security

A(n) _____________ is the movement of friendly assault forces by rotary-wing aircraft to engage and
destroy enemy forces or to seize and hold key terrain.
Air Assault

Army Aviation Doctrine, Employment, Air Assault 2

A(n) _______________ is the air transport of units, personnel, supplies, and equipment including
airdrops and air landings.
Air Movement

__________________ provides direct support, GS, and area support within the joint operations area
and joint security area in order to support the overall Arm Health System mission.
Aeromedical Evacuation

__________________ allows commanders to reposition rapidly to the decisive point on the

battlefield, develop the situation, and reach back to resources at their CP or at a higher headquarters
as required.
Command and Control Support

________________ is the sum of military, diplomatic, and civil efforts to prepare for and execute the
recovery and reintegration of isolated personnel.
Personnel Recovery

What are the 4 methods of recovery used by Aviation forces to support the ground force commander
or to recover their own personnel?
1. Unassisted (self recovery)
2. Immediate
3. Deliberate
4. External supported

What level of maintenance is performed by aviation flight companies/troops and aviation

maintenance companies/troops within the BN and aviation support companies within the ASB?
Field

What are the 5 main sections of an OPORD?

1. Situation
2. Mission
3. Execution
4. Sustainment
5. Command and Signal

____________________ is conducted to neutralize, destroy, or temporarily degrade enemy air

defense systems in a specific area by physical attack, EW, or both.
SEAD - Suppression of Enemy Air Defenses

In regards to an Air Assault, the _____________ is normally the brigade or battalion commander
whose subordinate echelon constitutes the assault force.
AATFC - Air Assault Task Force Commander

In regards to an Air Assault the ______________ is the commander of the largest ground maneuver
force, usually of the AATFC's subordinate commanders.
GTC - Ground Tactical Commander.

Army Aviation Doctrine, Employment, Air Assault 3

Within the BCT of an Air Assault, the ___________ is assigned to advice the BCT commander and the
AATFC on all matters relating to Army Aviation.
Brigade Aviation Officer

In regards to an Air Assault, the __________________ commands all aviation forces through all phases
of the air assault and follow-on ground tactical plan.
ATFC - Aviation Task Force Commander

The ________________ is a VHF network dedicated to air-to-ground coordination during operations

CAN - Combat Aviation Network

The ___________________ is typically a UHF command network dedicated to air-to-air

communications between the AMC and all aviation element leaders.
ABN - Air Battle Network

What are the 5 basic plans that comprise the air assault reverse planning sequence?
1. Ground Tactical Plan
2. Landing Plan
3. Air Movement Plan
4. Loading Plan
5. Staging Plan

The ______________________ is the first meeting between the AATF staff and supporting aviation
unit.
IPC - Initial Planning Conference

The ___________________ is a meeting between the AATF and supporting aviation units. Typically an
S-3 level meeting.
AMCM - Air Mission Coordination Meeting

The _____________ is a coordinated staff effort during which the AATFC approves the air assault plan.
AMB - Air Mission Brief

The ____________________________ is culminating the formal air assault planning process, and is a
rehearsal of the entire air assault mission.
Air Assault Task Force Rehearsal

The __________________ is a brief where the aviation unit and serial commanders brief all flight
crews executing the air assault mission.
AB - Aircrew Brief (also known as the Aircrew OPORD in ATP 3-04.1)

The _____________________ is a rehearsal of the air assault specifically focusing on the aviation
scheme of maneuver and contingencies associated with the movement of aircraft and how they apply
to the mission.
Aviation Task Force Rehearsal

Army Aviation Doctrine, Employment, Air Assault 4

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Army Aviation Doctrine, Employment, Air Assault 5

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