PHILIPPINE SOCIETY OF AGRICULTURAL AND BIOSYSTEMS ENGINEERS

REGION IV-A
ABE ONLINE REVIEW CLASS 2023

PREBOARDS EXAMINATION
______________________________________________________________________________

AB STRUCTURES AND ENVIRONMENT ENGINEERING AND BIOPROCESS ENGINEERING

AND ALLIED SUBJECTS

INSTRUCTIONS: Shade the letter of the corresponding answer on the answer sheet provided.

The 3.5 m long cantilever beam shown carries a concentrated load of 200 kN (P) at mid-length. The beam
has a modulus of elasticity of 200 GPa, and moment of inertia of 60.8 x 106 mm4.
P

3.75 3.75
m m

1. How much is the deflection (mm) at mid-length?

a. 1.84 b. 23.5
c. 29.4 d. 14.7

2. What force (kN) should be applied at the free end to prevent deflection?
a. 7.8 b. 62.5
c. 41.7 d. 100.0

3. To limit the deflection at mid-length to 9.5 mm, how much force (kN) should be applied at
the free end?
a. 54.1 b. 129.3
c. 76.8 d. 64.7

A simply supported steel beam spans 9 m. It carries a uniformly distributed load of 10 kN/m including
beam weight. Other beam properties are:
Area = 8,530 mm2 Flange thickness = 14.6 mm
Depth = 306 mm Moment of inertia = 145 x 106 mm4
Flange width = 204 mm Modulus of elasticity = 200 Gpa

4. What is the maximum flexural stress (MPa) in the beam?

a. 107 b. 142
c. 54 d. 71

5. To prevent excessive deflection, the beam is propped at midspan using a pipe column. Find
the resulting axial stress (MPa) in the column with outside diameter of 200 mm, 10 mm thick,
4 m height and Modulus of elasticity of 200 GPa.
a. 4.7 b. 18.8
c. 9.4 d. 2.8
 6. How much is the maximum bending stress (MPa) in the propped beam?
a. 26.7 b. 15.0
c. 17.8 d. 35.6

7. Find the quantity of Cement (C), Sand (S) and Gravel (G) needed for a slab that is 30 ft long,
30 ft wide and 0.5 ft thick. Use Class A mixture and Fuller’s method.
a. 112 bags, 5.5 m3, 11 m3 b. 101 bags, 6 m3, 12 m3
3 3
c. 100 bags, 5 m , 10 m d. 102 bags, 6.5 m3, 13 m3

Figure 1 Figure 2

8. Find the perimeter of the wall in Figure 1.

a. 65 ft b. 213 ft
c. 70 ft d. 230 ft

9. Find the perimeter of the fence in Figure 2, if the gate is 5 m in width.

a. 251.62 m b. 250.62 m
c. 261.62 m d. 260.62 m

10. Find the number of CHB 4 needed to complete the 1.6-m fence in Figure 2.
a. 5213 b. 5123
c. 5212 d. 5122

11. What is the recommended proportion of concrete for underwater retaining walls?
a. Class A b. Class AAA
c. Class AA d. Class B

A mono pitch shed with 15 m long (purlin) and 6 m long (rafter) is to be roofed using corrugated GI
sheet. Use 0.3 m end lapping distance and 2 ½ corrugation (side lapping).

12. Determine the most economical number of GI sheets per row.

a. 20 b. 22
c. 24 d. 25
13. What are the lengths of CGI sheets to be used?
 a. 8 ft and 12 ft b. 10 ft and 12 ft
c. 9 ft and 12 ft d. 11 ft and 12 ft

14. According to the NSCP (2015), greenhouse roof bars, purlins and rafters shall be designed to
carry this concentrated load, in addition to the uniform live load.
a. 0.45 N b. 45 N
c. 450 N d. 4.5 N

15. Wind loads on the MWFRS may be determined for low rise buildings using this procedure:
a. directional b. envelope
c. wind tunnel d. strength design

16. Determine the classification of a square column with effective unbraced length of 10-ft and
12-in depth.
a. short b. medium
c. intermediate d. long

17. These types of construction belong to the highly fire restrictive zone.
a. Type I and II b. Type III and IV
c. Type II and III d. Type IV and V

18. Most agricultural structures are under this Group of occupancy.

a. Group J b. Group G
c. Group H d. Group I

19. What is the building height limit for agricultural structures?

a. 1.5 m b. 1.5 ft
c. 15 m d. 15 ft

20. The actual dry bulb temperature from an evaporative cooler is 21 C. If the outside air has dry
bulb temperature of 35°C and wet bulb temperature of 18.9 °C, determine the efficiency of
the evaporative cooler.
a. 88 % b. 85 %
c. 87 % d. 84 %

21. Determine the mean expected time of land preparation if the optimistic, most likely, and
pessimistic times are 5, 7, and 12 days, respectively.
a. 7.5 b. 7
c. 6.5 d. 6

22. Determine the mean expected time of planting if the optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic
times are 3, 4, and 8 days, respectively.
a. 5.5 b. 6
c. 4.5 d. 5

23. According to PAES 401, ceiling height for a swine housing shall be at least:
a. 1.6 m b. 2.4 m
c. 1.8 m d. 4.2 m
 24. According to PAES 402, for 10,000 birds, the total space requirement shall be at least:
a. 0.125 ha b. 12.5 ha
c. 1.250 ha d. 125 m2

25. According to PAES 403, for 10,000 layers, the total space requirement for cage type housing
shall be at least:
a. 0.5 m2 b. 50 m2
2
c. 5 m d. 500 m2

26. In an AmkC circuit, what is the phase difference between the voltage across a pure inductor and
the current flowing through it?
a. 0° b. 45° c. 90° d. 180°

27. The voltage across a 10-ohm resistor is 20 volts. What is the power dissipated by the resistor?
a. 200 W b. 2 W c. 400 W d. 4 W

28. In a parallel circuit with three different resistors (R1, R2, and R3), if R1 = 4 ohms, R2 = 6 ohms,
and R3 = 8 ohms, and the total resistance is 2.4 ohms, what is the value of the equivalent
resistance of the parallel combination?
a. 1.33 ohms b. 3.33 ohms c. 2.4 ohms d. 0.8 ohms

29. Which features are necessary to protect the electrical system of damp agricultural buildings from
moisture damage?
a. Skylights and ventilation fans for increased air circulation
b. Decorative wall panels to enhance the building’s appearance
c. Insulated roofing materials to regulate temperature and prevent condensation
d. Switches and outlets with shutoff doors for moisture protection

30. When a ground fault is detected by a GFCI outlet, what action does it take?
a. It increases the power supply to the circuit
b. It immediately shuts off the electricity to prevent shocks
c. It resets the breaker in the main electrical panel
d. It sends a warning signal to a central monitoring system

31. If you increase the number of loops in a coil of wire while keeping the area constant, what effect
will this have on the induced voltage when the magnetic flux changes?
a. Decrease the induced voltage c. Increase the induced voltage
b. Have no effect on the induced voltage d. Create a reverse voltage

32. What is the purpose of a capacitor in an AC circuit?

a. To store electrical energy c. To limit the current flow
b. To convert AC to DC d. To provide resistance

33. According to Kirchhoff’s current law (KCL), what is the relationship between the currents
entering and leaving a junction in an electrical circuit?
a. The currents are equal c. The currents are subtractive
b. The currents are additive d. The currents are inversely proportional
34. Which of the following scenarios is a GFCI outlet designed to protect against?
a. Short circuits within appliances
b. Power surges caused by lightning
c. Overloading a circuit with too many devices
d. Accidental electrical paths through water or a person

35. Which of the following best describes a common maintenance practice for ensuring optimal
generator operation?
a. Increasing the load on the generator to its maximum capacity regularly
b. Keeping the generator in a humid environment to prevent overheating
c. Conduct regular load bank testing to prevent carbon buildup
d. Running the generator only during power outages to conserve fuel

36. The size of the settling basin with settling velocity of 0.075m/s and the flow rate of wastewater to
be treated is 2.56 m3/s. 100% of the particles will be removed.
a. 35m2 b. 32m2 c. 27m2 d. 25m2

37. In computing for the size of anaerobic lagoons, the sludge volume must be determined. The
sludge accumulation ratio for swine production is about
a. 0.0295 b. 0.0485 c. 0.0667 d. 0.0729

38. It is the sum of the organic and total ammoniacal nitrogen.

a. Total nitrogen c. Total Kjeldahl nitrogen
b. Nitrate-nitrogen d. Ammonium nitrogen

39. What is the terminal settling velocity of spherical solid particles with specific gravity of 2.4 and
average diameter of 0.05 mm in water at a temperature of 15℃ (μ = 1.138x10-3 Ns/m2)?
a. 0.0017 m/s b. 0.017 m/s c. 0.021 m/s d. 0.0021 m/s

40. A function of waste management that serves to reduce the pollution potential of the waste.
a. Utilization b. Collection c. Storage d. Treatment

41. Which of the following is not a consideration for the design of a cattle waste management
system?
a. Characteristic of waste c. Environment
b. Social concern d. None of the above

42. Which of the following is not a treatment process that separates liquid waste material from the
solid waste materials.
a. Grit chamber c. Composting
b. Centrifugation d. Settling basin

43. According to PAES 412-2, the height of the windrows for composting should be
a. 0.5-0.8 m b. 0.8-1 m c. 1-2 m d. 2-5 m
44. Which contributes the most greenhouse gas emission from Philippine agriculture.
a. Rice cultivation c. Agricultural soils
b. Enteric fermentation d. Manure management

45. Recommended retention time of liquid swine manure for anaerobic digestion.
a. 25 days b. 40 days c. 30 days d. 60 days

46. Determine the total volume of cylindrical anaerobic digester for dairy cattle production with 150
heads and 8.93 kg of manure per head per day with a total solid content of 1.16 kg per head per
day. The reactor influent has 5% total solids (wet basis), manure density is about 1 L/kg, and
hydraulic retention time is about 30 days.
a. 105 m3 b. 100 m3 c. 108 m3 d. 110 m3

47. A compost mixture is to be formulated using the following ingredients: 1.5 kg of grass (65%
MCwb), 2 kg of leaves (20% MCwb), and 3 kg of food scraps (90% MCwb). What is the
moisture content of the resulting mixture?
a. 55% b. 62% c. 76% d. 84%

48. Which of the following is not included as waste volume in the design of anaerobic lagoons
a. Manure volume c. Wastewater volume
b. Clean water volume d. Sludge volume

49. In the design of anaerobic lagoons, this is the volume needed to maintain sustainable biological
activity in the waste treatment system
a. Minumum treatment volume c. Waste volume
b. Sludge volume d. Sludge accumulation ratio

50. Global warming potential of methane

a. 25 b. 1 c. 298 d. 1180

51. Exergy is availability or available work. It is the combination of the first and second law of
thermodynamics. As the ambient temperature increases, exergy
a. Decreases c. Increases
b. Remains the same d. May decrease or increase

52. Steam at T = 320°C flows in a cast iron pipe (k = 80 W/m.C) whose inner and outer diameters are
D1 = 5 cm and D2 = 5.5 cm, respectively. The pipe is covered with 3-cm-thick glass wool
insulation with k = 0.05 W/m.C. Heat is lost to the surroundings at T = 30°C, with a heat transfer
coefficient of ho = 18 W/m2.C. Taking the heat transfer coefficient inside the pipe to be hi = 60
W/m2.C, determine the rate of heat loss from the steam per unit length of the pipe.
a. 2.2 W/m b. 17.7 W/m c. 111.2 W/m d. 188.2 W/m

53. The dimensionless number used in mass transfer that represents the ratio of the convective mass
transfer to the rate of diffusive mass transport ie is
a. Lewis number c. Rayleigh number
b. Schmidt number d. Sherwood number
54. Consider the flow of a fluid in a stationary pipe. The fluid in motion comes to a complete stop at
the surface and assumes a zero velocity relative the surface. This is known as the no-slip
condition and it is due to the
a. Fluid friction c. Fluid temperature
b. Fluid viscosity d. Surface temperature

55. The mass of water vapor present in 1 kg of dry is called

a. Absolute humidity c. Humidity ratio
b. Relative humidity d. Specific humidity
56. A device where two moving fluid streams exchange heat without mixing is called
a. Blender b. Diffuser c. Heat exchanger d. Nozzle

57. Consider the adiabatic mixing of two air streams with the same mass flow rate. The state of the
mixture on the psychrometric chart is
a. Middle point on the straight line connecting the two states
b. Middle point on the constant enthalpy line between saturation and average air
temperature
c. Point on the constant enthalpy line intersecting the saturation line
d. Point on the constant wet bulb temperature line interacting the saturation line

58. What is the most common food pathogen, with fast growth rates and a prime cause of spoilage
especially in refrigerated, moist foods?
a. Bacteria b. Yeast c. Molds d. Viruses

59. A refrigerator is removing heat from a cold medium at 4°C at a rate of 7200 kJ/h and rejecting the
waste heat to a medium at 30°C. If the coefficient of performance of the refrigerator is 3, the
power consumed by the refrigerator is
a. 18.8 W b. 667 W c. 2,400 W d. 6,000 W

60. A glass of water with a mass of 0.3 kg at 30°C is to be cooled to 4°C by dropping ice cubes at
0°C into it. The latent heat of fusion of ice is 334 kJ/kg, and the specific heat of water is 4.18
kJ/kg.C. The amount of ice that needs to be added is
a. 32.6 g b. 93.0 g c. 97.6 g d. 1,949 g

61. A guava with an average mass of 0.15 kg and average specific heat of 3.65 kJ/kg.C is cooled
from 30°C to 5°C. The amount of heat transferred from the guava is
a. 13.7 kJ b. 15.7 kJ c. 16.4 kJ d. 25.5 kJ

62. Which of the following is not usually considered in refrigeration facility design?
a. Length of air blow and impingement on stored product
b. Microorganisms present in the product
c. Product entering temperature
d. Uniformity of temperatures

63. What is the disadvantage of manual refrigerator defrosting?

a. More electrical consumption c. Takes too much time
b. Fast frosting d. Might damage the evaporator coil
64. Refrigeration load calculation is performed to determine the proper size of the equipment
required to provide cooling, to effectively operate the system, and to estimate operating cots.
Design calculation where both magnitude and occurrence are considered is called
a. Peak load calculation c. Hour-by-hour calculation
b. Maximum load calculation d. Diversity load calculation

65. Cold storage facilities should be inspected regularly to spot problems early, so that preventive
maintenance can be performed in time to avert serious damage. Which of the following does not
affect building dimensions change?
a. Condensation and/or leaks c. Product capacity
b. Temperature change d. Settling

66. The purpose of supply chain management is to

a. Provide customer satisfaction c. Improve quality of the product
b. Integrate supply and demand management d. Increase production

67. Factors considered in determining the type of rice harvesting system

a. Availability of labor c. Lodging of crop
b. Shattering losses d. Timeliness of harvest

68. Handling device that have a high mechanical efficiency. Minimum damage to products being
transported. Carrying capacity is high. Materials can be conveyed over long distances.
a. Belt conveyor c. Chain conveyor
b. Screw conveyor d. Pneumatic conveyor

69. Reduction of grain into meal or flour, including size reduction, hulling, scarifying, polishing,
sorting, mixing is called
a. Cutting b. Crushing c. Milling d. Grinding

70. Determine the fineness modulus for the following sieve analysis: Mesh/percent retained: 3/8: 2%,
mesh 4: 6%, mesh 8: 10%, mesh 14: 40%, mesh 28: 28%, mesh 48: 12%, mesh 100: 2%, Pan: 0%
a. 1.8 b. 3.12 c. 3.70 d. 4.00

71. Supposing the purity of a seed sample is 80%, and viability is 90%. What will be the pure live
seed?
a. 62 b. 72 c. 80 d. 90

72. A solid sphere of radius R is falling through a viscous medium. The terminal velocity attained by
the falling body will be proportional to
a. R2 b. R c. 1/R d. 1/R2

73. When the vapor pressure of water held by the grain is equal to the vapor pressure of the
surrounding air, no moisture transfer occurs and there exists moisture equilibrium between the
grain and the air. If, however, the vapor pressure of the water held by the grain is greater than the
vapor pressure of the air, then what condition exists?
a. Absorption b. Adsorption c. Desorption d. Hysteresis

74. Maximum moisture content for safe storage in palay seed is?
a. 10 b. 12 c. 14 d. 18
75. Dough kept overnight in warm place becomes soft and spongy due to
a. Absorption of CO2 b. Cohesion c. Fermentation d. Osmosis

76. Which among the following is the most appropriate reason for storing green mango at low
temperature?
a. Respiration and photosynthesis are completely inhibited
b. The rate of respiration and photosynthesis are reduced
c. The rate of photosynthesis is reduced
d. The rate of respiration is reduced

77. When a granular material is permitted to flow from a point into a pile, the shape of the pile is
characteristic of the material. The angle which the side of the pile makes with the horizontal is
called
a. Angle of friction b. Angle of hopper c. Angle of repose d. Slope

78. What is food security?

a. It relates to efforts to prevent terrorism from poisoning food supplies
b. It is about ensuring everyone’s access to food
c. Its component elements include availability, utilization, and stability, as well as access
d. Food security focuses on ending micronutrient malnutrition

79. Which of the following is a direct cost of accident?

a. Compensation paid to the worker
b. Cost of lost time of the injured worker
c. Money paid for the treatment of the worker
d. Money paid for the treatment and compensation paid to the worker

80. The graphic representation of all the processing activities occurring on the plant is called
a. Flow process chart c. Operation process chart
b. Production chart d. Template

81. Determine the quantity of palay, in kilogram, at 30% wet basis required to produce 1 metric ton at
16% dry basis.
a. 833 b. 1,200 c. 1,230 d. 1,875

82. The most abundant constituents in fresh fruits and vegetables is water, which exists as a
continuous liquid phase within the fruits and vegetables. The process by which fresh fruits and
vegetables lose some of this water is called
a. Dry matter loss c. Transpiration loss
b. Respiration loss d. Shriveling loss

83. If the efficiency of a process is high, what should be low?

a. Input power b. Losses c. kWh consumed d. True component of power
84. The closeness with which the reading of an instrument approaches the true value of the variable
being measured is called
a. Accuracy b. Precision c. Resolution d. Sensitivity

85. Local velocity is measured by

a. Pitot tube b. Orifice plate c. Vena contrata device d. Venturi tube

86. The process of planning expenditure that will influence the operation of a processing plant over a
number of years is called
a. Capital budgeting c. Dividend valuation
b. Net present valuation d. Investment

87. Which is known as corrective maintenance?

a. Breakdown maintenance c. Predictive maintenance
b. Preventive maintenance d. Scheduled maintenance

88. A rice miller buys 100 ton of dried and clean palay at P25/kg. Assuming that the cost of operation
is P8/kg milled rice, how much should he sell (P/kg) to break-even? Neglect by-products and
assume milling recovery of 64%.
a. 33.00 b. 39.06 c. 47.06 d. 51.56

89. Farm to market roads (FMR) are access roads that connect major road arteries to the agricultural
production areas where farm produce are being mobilized and transported to the market by the
farmers and fishermen. Which of the following is not FMR design criteria?
a. FMR shall conform to the land use plan of the area
b. FMR shall link or be located in the key production areas of valuable crops
c. FMR shall be of service to the LGU, particularly connecting existing roadway system
d. FMR shall provide space for the safety and comfortable movement so vehicles

90. To keep processing and preparation areas cold and dry, it is important for the airconditioning and
refrigeration system to maintain the specified air temperature and:
a. Enthalpy c. Dewpoint temperature
b. Specific volume d. Relative humidity

91. Conventional testing of food quality at the point of consumption is not effective because:
a. Control of food hazards is reactive
b. Only QA / QC personnel are responsible for food safety
c. Food safety is only ensured at the point of testing
d. All of the above

92. Thermal diffusivity can be considered as:

a. The ability of a material to conduct thermal energy relative to its ability to store thermal
energy.
b. The ability of a material to conduct thermal energy relative to its ability to transmit
thermal energy.
c. The ability of a material to store thermal energy without changing phase.
d. The ability of a material to transmit thermal energy under constant temperature.
93. Liquids that show a direct proportionality between shear rate and shear stress are classified as:
a. Rheopectic b. Newtonian c. Bingham d. Shear-thickening

94. Fourier’s Law for Heat Conduction states that heat flowing through a wall is directly proportional
to the surface area, and inversely proportional to the thickness. The driving force for conductive
heat transfer is the:
a. Difference in thermal conductivity between the two surfaces of the wall.
b. Difference in thermal diffusivity between the two surfaces of the wall.
c. Temperature difference between the two surfaces of the wall.
d. Vapor pressure difference between the two surfaces of the wall.

95. The last line of defence in a food safety emergency is:

a. Traceability c. Product recall
b. Lawsuits against food manufacturers d. GMP

96. This term refers to the transfer of harmful micro-organisms from one food product to another
product through non-food surfaces:
a. Cross-contamination c. Reworking
b. Infection d. Bacteria

97. A double-pipe heat exchanger consists of a pipe located concentrically inside a main pipe; this is
known as a
a. Calandria c. Tubular heat exchanger
b. Shell-and-tube heat exchanger d. Scraped-surface heat exchanger

98. Any region prescribed in space or a finite quantity of matter enclosed by a boundary, where there
is no exchange of heat, mass, or work, is called:
a. Adiabatic system c. Isothermal system
b. Isolated system d. Steady-state system

99. An object that has a uniform temperature distribution is considered:

a. In a state of thermal equilibrium
b. In an isobaric condition.
c. In a state of phase equilibrium
d. In a state of chemical equilibrium

100. Solid salt (NaCl) crystals in a saturated NaCl-water solution is an example of:
a. Thermal equilibrium
b. Mechanical equilibrium
c. Phase equilibrium
d. Chemical equilibrium