PPL HAVUZ

SORULARI
010
AIR LAW & ATC PROCEDURES
1. Which of the following correctly describes runway end lights?
a)    Fixed; uni-directional; red.
b)    Fixed; omni-directional; red.
c)    Fixed; uni-directional; green.
d)    Fixed; omni-directional; green.

2.    An A/C marshaller with his right arm down and his left arm repeatedly moved upwards and backwards is indicating to the pilot of an aircraft to:
a)      Open up the starboard engine/s or turn to port.
b)      Increase the RPM of the port engine.
c)      Proceed under guidance of another marshaller.
d)      Open up the starboard engine/s or turn to stbd.

3.    All fixed aerodrome signs that are mandatory shall:

a)      Be comprised of a red inscription on a black background.
b)        Be comprised of a yellow inscription on a black background.
c)      Be comprised of a red inscription on a white background.
d)     Be comprised of a white inscription on a red background.

4.    When located within an aerodrome signals square, the signal used to indicate that owing to the bad state of the maneuvering area, or for any
other reason, special precautions must be observed in approaching to land or in landing is:
a)      A horizontal red square with two yellow diagonals.
b)      A horizontal yellow square with one red diagonal.
c)      A horizontal red square with one yellow diagonal.
d)      A horizontal yellow square with two red diagonals.

5.    Civil aerodrome identification beacons normally comprise:

a)    A white beacon flashing a two-letter Morse group.
b)      A green beacon flashing a two-letter Morse group.
c)    A red beacon flashing a two-letter Morse group.
d)    A blue beacon flashing a two-letter Morse group.

6.    A taxiway marking comprised of a pair of parallel yellow lines together with a pair of parallel broken yellow lines painted at 90° across a taxiway
delineate:
a)    The intersection of two taxiways.
b)    A holding position at the end of a taxiway and runway entry point beyond which no part of an aircraft may project without
prior permission from ATC.
c)    The entry point of a pre-departure run up area.
d)    The exit point of an apron to a taxiway.

7. What is the meaning of a flashing red light signal directed from an aerodrome ATSU towards an aircraft either in the air or on the ground? In the
Air
a)    Do not land, the aerodrome is unavailable for landing.
b)    Do not land, orbit and await permission to land.
c)    Give way to other aircraft and continue circling.
d)    Proceed to finals upon completion of the current orbit.

8    Which of the following combinations offer the correct meaning of white flashes directed from an aerodrome to an aircraft?
a) Return to the aerodrome
b) Land immediately.
c) Land at this aerodrome after receiving
d) Land at your discretion.

9.    A continuous red light directed to an aircraft in flight from an aerodrome means: On the Ground
a)    Do not land, aerodrome unavailable for landing.
b)      Give way to other aircraft and continue circling.
c)    Do not land, wait for permission.
d)    Proceed to finals after completion of current orbit.

10.   ICAO specify that the element of a paved taxiway surface that should be marked is:
a)    Centre line.
b)    Sides.
c)    Centre line and sides.
d)    Centre line, sides, entry and exit points.

11.    ICAO specifies that the fixed unidirectional runway threshold lights should be colored:
a)    Red.
b)    White.
c)    Green.
d)    Alternate green and red.

12.    The definition of Alerting Service is a:

a)    Unit of the air traffic service specifically for the co-ordination of search and rescue.
b)    Service provided to notify appropriate organizations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue aid, and assist such
organizations as required.
c)    Branch of the air traffic service under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Defense providing a communication network between all
agencies both civil and military providing search and rescue facilities.
d) A land based search and rescue co-ordination unit.

13.    If a situation wherein apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants (alert phase); responsibility for alerting the necessary
search and rescue units lies with:
a)    The air traffic unit who received the distress message albeit 121.5MHz.
b)      The Rescue Co-ordination Centre.
c)    Any responsible person.
d)    The pilot in distress.

14.    A PPL holder may:

a)    Operate as co-pilot on a revenue earning flight.
b)    Operate as commander for remuneration on a private flight.
c)    Operate as any crew member for remuneration on a private flight.
d)    Not operate as either commander or co-pilot on a revenue earning flight.

15.    What are the minimum number of dual instruction hours required to be flown by a JAA PPL candidate?
a)    20 hours.
b)    30 hours.
c)      22 hours.
d)    25 hours.

16.    The minimum number of flying hours required for the issue of a JAR FCL Private Pilot License (Aero plane) is:
a)    40.
b)    35.
c)    50.
d)    45.

17.    The minimum age at which a student pilot may undertake her/his first solo flight is:
a)    16 years.
b)  17 years.
c)  18 years.
d)  19 years.

18.    The holder of a JAA License must hold a current Medical Certificate in order to exercise the privileges of that license. The prescribed Medical
Certificate must be issued in accordance with:
a)    JAR FCL - Part 1.
b)    JAR OPS - Part 1.
c)    JAR FCL- Part 3.
d)    JAR OPS - Part 2.

19.    A JAA pilot license (A) holder must not act as pilot in command of a single pilot aero plane unless she/he is in possession of a valid:
a)    Valid VFR type rating.
b)    Valid JAA OPS group rating.
c)    Valid JAA FCL type rating.
d)    Medical Certificate together with a valid class or type rating appropriate to the aero plane to be flown.

20.    Flight time entered into a pilot's log book is defined as being:

a)    The time from when the aero plane takes off until it finally lands with the intention of shutting down the engine.
b)    The time from when the engine starts before take-off until it is shut down after landing.
c)    The time from when the aero plane first moves under its own power until it next comes to rest after landing.

d)    The time from when the aero plane first enters the maneuvering area until it next comes to rest after landing.

21.    A license holder having been advised that invasive medical surgery has become essential:
a)    Should undertake such treatment without reference to the aviation medical authority as such action is voluntary.
b)    Should advise the aviation medical authority only if the treatment involves a general anesthetic.
c)       Should seek the advice of the aviation medical authority as expeditiously as possible.
d)    Should seek the advice of her/ his general practitioner as expeditiously as possible.

22.    Alternate aerodrome is:

a)    A planned en-route aerodrome where an aircraft may land if necessary to uplift fuel but where passengers may not be embarked or
disembarked.

b)    An aerodrome to which a flight may proceed if it becomes impracticable or inadvisable to land at the planned destination.
c)    Any aerodrome that may be used for a landing in an emergency.
d)    An aerodrome to which a flight may proceed if it becomes impracticable or inadvisable to land at the first diversion.

23.    The transition layer is defined as:

a)    The layer between the transition level and the transition altitude.
b)    The layer between the transition altitude and the transition level.
c)    The layer between 3000ft altitude and the transition altitude.
d)    The layer between the transition altitude and the planned operating flight level.

24.    Terminal Control Areas may be defined as:

a)    Airspace at the confluence of airways not available to IFR traffic.
b)    Airspace for specific use of arriving traffic.
c)    Airspace for specific use of departing traffic.
d)    Airspace at the confluence of airways and other routes adjacent to one or more major aerodromes.

25.    No aircraft is allowed to fly over a congested area below 1OOOft above the highest fixed obstacle within 600 meters of the aircraft,
except:
a)    During a low level navigation exercise.
b)    When practicing a forced landing under the direction of a qualified flying instructor.
c)    When taking off or landing.
d)    When orbiting to try and establish position.

26.    What altimeter sub-scale setting should be used when flying underneath a Terminal Control Area (TMA)?
a)    The Regional QNH.
b)    The QNH of an aerodrome situated beneath the TMA or CTA.
b)    Either the Regional QNH or the QNH of an aerodrome situated beneath the TMA, whichever is the lower.
c)    The QFE of an aerodrome situated beneath the TMA or CTA.

27. If a flight plan has been filed and the Pilot in Command lands at an aerodrome other than the filed destination, she/he must notify the ATCU
unit at the planned destination:
a)    Within 45 minutes of the ETA at the planned destination.
b)    Within 45 minutes of the landing time at the diversion airfield.
c)    Within 30 minutes of the scheduled arrival time at the diversion airfield.
a)    Within 30 minutes of the ETA at the planned destination.

28.      For the purpose of submitting a flight plan, if there is not available at the departure aerodrome an air traffic services unit, the
flight plan should be submitted:
a)      Two days before departure by post to the unit serving or designated to serve the departure aerodrome.
b)    In person to the nearest ATC unit serving or designated to serve the departure aerodrome.
c)    In person or by telephone or fax or if these services are not available, by radio to the unit serving or designated to serve
d)    At least 24 hours before the planned departure time to the unit serving or designated to serve the departure aerodrome using the

29.    If the visibility, distance from cloud and cloud ceiling are equal to or better than the specified minima, ICAO defines such
conditions as:
a)    IMC or Instrument Meteorological Conditions.
b)    RVR or Runway Visual range.
c)    VMC or Visual Meteorological Conditions.
d)    CAVOK or Cloud and Visibility OK.

30.    If, during a daytime flight an aircraft commander noticed that the aircraft's anti-collision light had failed, the correct course of action
would be to:
a)    Continue with daytime operations provided the light is repaired at the earliest opportunity.
b)    Land as soon as possible and have the light repaired.
c)      Complete the flight, at which time the aircraft must not be flown again until the light is repaired.
d)    Have the light repaired prior to completion of the next day's 'Check A'.

31. radar vectoring;   
a)    The directional control of aircraft for the purpose of nautical navigation and collision avoidance.
b)    Collision and adverse meteorological avoidance derived from specified advisory headings based on the use of radar.
c)    Provision of nautical guidance to aircraft in the form of specific headings, based on the use of radar.
d)    Provision of headings and altitudes based on the use of radar.

32.    An aircraft commander aware that the fuel state has become critical whilst waiting for a landing clearance within a busy Control
Zone should transmit .......(i)...... in order to alert ATC that a priority landing is required.
a)    Minimum Fuel, Minimum Fuel, Minimum Fuel.
b)    May Day, May Day, May Day or Pan Pan, Pan Pan, Pan Pan.
c)    Fuel Minimum, Fuel Minimum, Fuel Minimum.
d)    Land Now, Land Now, Land Now.

33. The ICAO definition of radar vectoring is:   

a)    An Approach Control Service.
b)       Precision Approach Radar (PAR).
c)    An Area Control Service.
d)    Delivery Service

34.    If ATC reports the active runway conditions as “wet wet wet”, it is understood that the runway:
a)    Has visible areas contaminated by standing water.
b)    The runway is covered by at least 2mm of standing water.
c)    The runway is wet but there is no standing water.
d)    The runway is covered by patches of standing water at least 2mm in depth.

35.    When extensive water patches are visible on a runway surface the conditions are reported as:
a)    Damp, damp, damp.
b)    Wet, wet, wet.
c)    Braking action reduced.
d)    Flooded.

36.    Flight Information Service (FIS) provides:

a)    Advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights.
b)    Safe separation for participating aircraft.
c)    To all aircraft within controlled airspace such information relevant to to the safe conduct of all flights.
d)    Updated information regarding aerodrome runway status, weather and en-route frequencies within the FIR.

37.    A special air report should be made to an air traffic service:

a)    If the forecast weather deviates from the pre-flight forecast.
b)    Only if the forecast visibility changes to the extent that an aircraft commander must change her/ his operating conditions to IMC.
c)    After encountering and becoming clear of any moderate weather phenomena such as icing, wind shear and turbulence.
d)    After encountering and becoming clear of any severe weather phenomena such as icing, wind shear and turbulence,
mountain wave or other phenomena that was not forecast.

38.    If the actual or forecast conditions give the visibility and cloud base as equal to or in excess of the specified minimum weather provisions and
a)    IMC.
b)    VMC.
c)    SMWP.
d)    VFR.

39.  If you overtake another aircraft, you must overtake to the:

a)   Left of the other aircraft in the air, but to its right on the ground.
b)    Left of the other aircraft, both in the air and on the ground.
c)    Right of the other aircraft, both in the air and on the ground.
d)    Right of the other aircraft in the air, but to its left on the ground.

40.  If aero plane 'X' is converging with aero plane 'Y' from the rear and is within 70° of aero plane 'Y's extended center line, aero plane 
'X' is considered to be in an overtaking position and must pass to:
a)    The left of aero plane 'Y'.
b)    The right of aero plane 'Y'.
c)    The closest side of aero plane 'Y'.
d)    The furthest side of aero plane 'Y'.

41.  When two or more aircraft are on final approach, without overriding instruction from an ATCU or in an emergency, the aircraft
having the right of way is:
a)    The one that has the greatest rate of descent.
b)    The one that is closest to the runway threshold, regardless of altitude.
c)    The one that is at the lower altitude.
d)    The one that is at the greater altitude.

42. The aircraft which has the right of way should maintain:

a)    Heading and speed.
b)    Heading and height.
c)    Height and speed.
d)    Heading, height and speed.

43.  Two aircraft are closing on a constant relative bearing almost head on, both aircraft should avoid collision by:
a)    Turning left.
b)    Turning right.
c)    Turning either left or right.
d)    Turning in the directing that will best facilitate collision avoidance.

44.  The PIC of an aircraft during the course of a night flight notices that a navigation light has failed. She/he should:
a)    Transmit an Urgency Message on the RTF frequency in use and continue with the plan flight to the first point of landing.
b)    Establish that an all-round anti-collision light is still functional and if so, select the navigation lights to 'off' and continue to the
planned destination.

c)    Continue to the planned destination, enter the defect in the technical log which must be repaired before the next flight.

d)    Land as soon as is practicably possible unless given permission to continue to the planned destination by an appropriate
Air Traffic Control Unit.
45.  ICAO recommends that a minimum of.............. shall be applied between a light or medium aircraft taking off behind a heavy aircraft
or a light aircraft taking off behind a medium aircraft when the aircraft are using the same runway if the projected flight path of the
second aircraft will cross the projected flight path of the first aircraft at the same altitude or less than 300m (1OOOft) below. Select the
time that correctly completes this statement.
a)    one minute.
b)      three minutes.
c)    four minutes.
d)    two minutes.

46.  Acceleration Stop Distance Available (ASDA) is :

a)    The take-off distance available (TODA) plus the clearway.
b)    The length of the take of run available (TORA) plus the length of the stop way if provided.
c)    The emergency stop distance available (EMDA) plus the clearway if provided.
d)    The take-off run available (TORA) x 1.33%.

47. The term 'Air Traffic' is defined as:

a)    Airborne aircraft.
b)    Airborne aircraft and those occupying an active runway.
c)    Any aircraft maneuvering under its own power.
d)    All aircraft in flight or operating on the maneuvering area of an aerodrome.

48.  The Take-Off Runway Available (TORA) may be defined as:

a)    That part of the runway declared as suitable under normal operating conditions for the ground run of an aero plane during
take-off.
b)    The accelerate-stop distance suitable to an aero plane during take-off under normal operating conditions.
c)    The clearway available to clear an obstacle at 35ft at the end of the take-off run under normal operating conditions.
d)    The clearway available to clear an obstacle at 50ft at the end of the take-off run under normal operating conditions.

49.  In the context of Search and Rescue, the term “Distress phase” means:
a)    An aircraft and its occupants are threatened by grave and imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance.
b)    A 'Pan Pan' call has been transmitted.
c)      There is apprehension concerning the safety of an aero plane and its occupants.
d)    A flight requires the assistance of the emergency services.

50.  The vertical extent of a Control Zone is:

a)    From the surface up to a specified upper limit.
b)    From the surface up to 2000ft AGL.
c)    From 1500ft AGL to the base of the TMA.
d)    From the surface to an altitude of 2000ft.

51.  An airspace where flight information and alerting services are given shall be designated as:
a)    Uncontrolled airspace.
b)    Flight information regions (FIR).
c)    Advisory routes and class F airspace.
d)    Controlled airspace.
 Görerek Uçuş
Kurallarına göre, İlgili
ATC ünitesinden izin
alınmaksızın, VFR
Bulut alt tavanı
tarafikler ilgili Bulut alt tavanı Bulut alt tavanı Bulut alt tavanı
1000 ft'in
meydanın kontrol 1000 ft'in altında 1500 ft'in 2000 ft'in altında
altında veya
sahasına giremez, iniş veya görüş 5 altında veya veya görüş 5 B
görüş 8
ve kalkış yapamazlar . km.'nin görüş km.'nin km.'nin
km.'nin
VFR şartların altındadır. altındadır. altındadır.
altındadır.
sağlanamadığı bu
durum hangisinde
doğru olarak
tanımlanmıştır.
Uçağın
bulunduğu
Uçağın idaresi Uçağa sahip
Kaptan Uçak sahibi kontrollü hava
kapsamındaki nihai olan şirket A
Pilot'dur. şirket / kişi sahasının
otorite; (operator)
yönetiminden
sorumlu ATC
Acil tıbbi Mecburi iniş
Çarpışmaların bakıma ihtiyacı planlamak
Diplomatik
önlenmesi kapsamında; olan hastayı zorunda olan
klerans sahibi Askeri uçaktır. D
İniş içina en öncelikli taşıyan uçaktır.
uçaktır.
uçak; ambulans (Emergency
uçaktır. Traffic)
Uçağa sahip
Başka bir ülkenin Uçağın ait Uçağın uçabilirlik
olan Hava sahasını
otortesindeki bir hava kayıtlı olduğu sertifikasının
oreratörün işgal ettiği
sahasında uçan trafik dervletin kayıtlı olduğu C
bulunduğu ilgili devletin
hangi kurallara uymak havacılık ilgili devletin
zorundadır. ülkenin kurallarına
kurallarına,
kurallarına,
kurallarına
Tenik bir arıza
nedeniyle başka bir
ülkeye inmek zorunda üçüncü dördüncü
Birinci özgürlük İkinci özgürlük B
kalan bir uçak hangi özgürlük özgürlük
özgürlük kapsamındaki
kuralları uygular.
Şikago
Konversiyonunun
yayımladığı EK-14
Hiç biri Kolaylıklar Havaalanları Güvenlik C
hangi kapsamdaki
standarlar ve
tavsiyelerden oluşur
Her bir ülke
kendi hava Katılımcı her
Sadece 52 Dünyadaki tüm
sahası devletin
Şikago konversiyonuna devletin devletlerin
bütününde diğerlerini C
göre; katılımına izin katılımına izin
tam bir tanıması
verildi. verildi
egemenliğe gereklidir.
sahiptir.
Eurocontrol Avrupa Avrupa hava
Avrupadaki sivil Avrupadaki Avrupada hava
hava sahası sahasındaki
havacılık ulusal hava sahasının
yönetiminin hangi bölgesel C
düzenlemelerind sahalarının işlevsel olarak
alanında temel rol seyrüseferlerin
e, yönetimi yönetilmesinde
oynamaktadır. planlanmasında
 Hava sahasını
Sadece uçağın
Sadece kontrol eden
Bir uçağın pilotu
Sadece ATC uçtuğu hava kontrollü hava ünitenin aksini
uçağıdaki transponderı sahasındaki
hangi şartlarda
direktifi olduğu ATS'nin
sahasında istemeiği D
zamanlarda uçulduğu sürece, uçuş
çalıştımalıdır. amaçları
zaman süresinin
doğrultusunda
tamamında

Tamamlayıcı
Standart aletli Özel terminal / Destekleyici Standart aletli
STAR nedir. ayrılış yaklaşma Terminal (IFR) yaklaşma D
usulleridir. usulleridir. yaklaşma usulleridir.
usulleridir.
JAR-FCL'le göre tek
pilotlu, tek motorlu bir 40 yaşına
uçak için geçerli olan kadar 2 yıl, Lisan tarihinden
pilot lisansının
2 Yıl 1 Yıl sonra 5 yıl
A
daha sonra 1
geçerlilik süresi ne yıl
kadardır.
JAR-FCL'le göre; Sağlık
Lisansı kategorileri kaç 1, 2,3 1, 2, 3, 4 1,2 class 1 only C
tanedir.
Uçuş
personeline
Uçuş
Uçuş gümrük, polis,
personeline Mürettebat
Ekip Üyenin Belgesi'nin personelinin sağlık ve
havaalanlarınd üyenin lisansını
(CMC) amacı nedir? tanıtımının göçmenlik gibi
a geçiş izni değiştirmek için
sağlanmasıdır. formzlitelerden
sağlamaktır.
muafiyet
sağlamaktır.
Şikago Konversiyonun
hangi EK'i
Havaalanlarının EK 11 EK 14 EK 10 EK 6 B
düzenlenmesi
kapsamaktadır.
Taxi esnasında yerde
beyaz renkli işaretler Manvera
Pist içinde Taxi yolunda Park sahasında. A
görüyorsanız sahasında
neredesinizdir.
Manevra Sadece VFR Havadan Tüm sinyaller
Bir hava alanındaki
sahasının her şartlarda kolayca işaretlerini
sinyal sahası için temel C
yerinden kolayca kullanılabilir görülebilir içerecek kadar
prensip hangisidir.
görülebilir olması olması olması büyük olmalıdır
Şikago Konversiyonun
hangi EK'i Hava Trafik
Servisleri
kapsamındaki standart EK 11 EK 14 EK 10 EK 6 A
ve hedeflenen usulleri /
kabiliyetleri
kapsamaktadır.
ATIS yayını mesajı
süresi en fazla ne 2 Dakika 30 saniye 1 Dakika 3 Dakika B
kadardır.
Aksi belirtilmediği
sürece MSA (Min.
Emniyet Yüksekli) 30 NM. 10 NM. 25 NM. 15 NM. C
alanın yarı çapı ne
kadardır.
 Uçak kayıt işaretleri
hangi birim tarafından
Uçağın kayıtlı
tespit edilen; Uluslararası sivil
Uçağın kayıtlı Uluslararası olduğu
harflerden, havacılık
olduğu devlet telekominikasyo devletin ilgili C
rakamlardan veya harf organizasyonu
tarafından n birliği otoritesi
ve rakkam tarafından
tarafından
kombinasyonlarından
oluşur.
 Except when a
clearance is
obtained from an
ATC unit, VFR ceiling is ceiling is
flights shall not ceiling is less less than less than
take off or land than 1.000 ft or 1.500 ft or ceiling is less than 1.000 ft 2.000 ft or
at an aerodrome the ground the ground or the ground visibility is the ground B
within a CTR or visibility is less visibility is less than 8 km. visibility is
enter the than 5 km. less than 5 less than 5
aerodrome traffic km. km
zone or traffic
pattern when
the;

an aircraft on a an Air Ambulance carrying an aircraft

The highest
diplomatic a military a very sick person needing that is
priority for D
flight (Head of aircraft. immediate medical emergency
landing has:
state), attention, landing.

An airplane is
planning a flight
that will require a
technical landing
2nd
in a neighboring 1st freedom 3rd freedom 4th freedom B
freedom
state. Which
freedom of the
air will be
exercised?
What does
Annex 14 on
none of all Facilitation Aerodromes Security C
international civil
aviation contain?
Standard
Standard Special
Supplementary terminal Terminal
What is a STAR instrument terminal Arrival
D
arrival
routes arrival Routes
According to
JAR-FCL, single five years
two years up to age 40
pilot single- after
engine class
two years one year years then one year A
licence
ratings are valid thereafter
issue
for
According to
JAR-FCL 3,
class 1
Medical 1, 2,3 1, 2, 3, 4 1,2 C
only
certificates
classes are
Which of the
following
Annexes to the
Chicago
convention
Annex 11 Annex 14 Annex 10 Annex 6 B
contains
minimum
specifications
for the design of
aerodromes?
When taxiing on
a surface with
Movement Parking
white markings, Runway Taxiway A
area area
you are rolling
on a:
Which of the
following
Annexes to the
Chicago
convention
contains
international
Annex 11 Annex 14 Annex 10 Annex 6 A
standards and
recommended
practices for air
traffic services
(ATS)?
The Minimum
Sector Altitude
(MSA), which
must be
established
30 NM. 10 NM. 25 NM. 15 NM. C
around a
navigation aids,
is in general
valid within a
sector of:
The Minimum
Sector Altitude
airport
(MSA), which
navigation aids runway tower reference A
must be
point (ARP)
established
around:

Doğr
B u
Soru A Seçeneği C Seçeneği D Seçeneği
Seçeneği Ceva
p
Görerek Uçuş
Kurallarına göre,
İlgili ATC
ünitesinden izin
alınmaksızın,
VFR tarafikler Bulut alt
Bulut alt
ilgili meydanın Bulut alt tavanı tavanı
tavanı 2000
kontrol sahasına 1000 ft'in 1500 ft'in Bulut alt tavanı 1000 ft'in
ft'in altında
giremez, iniş ve altında veya altında altında veya görüş 8 B
veya görüş
kalkış görüş 5 km.'nin veya görüş km.'nin altındadır.
5 km.'nin
yapamazlar . altındadır. km.'nin
altındadır.
VFR şartların altındadır.
sağlanamadığı
bu durum
hangisinde
doğru olarak
tanımlanmıştır.
 Diplomatik Acil tıbbi bakıma ihtiyacı
İniş için en Askeri Emergency
klerans sahibi olan hastayı taşıyan D
öncelikli uçak; uçaktır. Trafik
uçaktır. ambulans uçaktır.

Tenik bir arıza

nedeniyle başka
bir ülkeye inmek
zorunda kalan Birinci İkinci dördüncü
üçüncü özgürlük B
bir uçak hangi özgürlük özgürlük özgürlük
özgürlük
kapsamındaki
kuralları uygular.
Şikago
Konversiyonunu
n yayımladığı
Annex-14 hangi
Hiçbiri Kolaylıklar Havaalanları Güvenlik C
kapsamdaki
standarlar ve
tavsiyelerden
oluşur
Özel
Standart aletli Tamamlayıcı / Standart
terminal aletli (IFR)
STAR nedir. ayrılış Destekleyici Terminal yaklaşma D
yaklaşma
usulleridir. yaklaşma usulleridir. usulleridir.
usulleridir.
JAR-FCL'le göre
tek pilotlu, tek
motorlu bir uçak
Lisan
için geçerli olan 40 yaşına kadar 2 yıl,
pilot lisansının
2 Yıl 1 Yıl tarihinden A
daha sonra 1 yıl sonra 5 yıl
sınıf yetkisi
geçerlilik süresi
ne kadardır.
JAR-FCL 3'e
göre; Sağlık
class 1
Lisansı 1, 2,3 1, 2, 3, 4 1,2 C
only
kategorileri kaç
tanedir.
Şikago
Konversiyonun
hangi Annex'i
Havaalanlarının
Annex 11 Annex 14 Annex 10 Annex 6 A
düzenlenmesi
kapsamaktadır.
Taxi esnasında
yerde beyaz
Manvera Park
renkli işaretler Pist içinde Taxi yolunda A
sahasında sahasında.
görüyorsanız
neredesinizdir.
Şikago
Konversiyonun
hangi Annexleri
Hava Trafik
Servisleri
kapsamındaki Annex 11 Annex 14 Annex 10 Annex 6 A
standart ve
hedeflenen
usulleri /
kabiliyetleri
kapsamaktadır.
 Aksi
belirtilmediği
sürece MSA
(Min. Emniyet 30 NM. 10 NM. 25 NM. 15 NM. C
Yüksekli) alanın
yarı çapı ne
kadardır.
Minimum Sektör
İrtifası (MSA), meydan
seyrüsefer
aşağıdakilerden pist ortası kule referans A
yardımcıları
hangisine göre noktası
belirlenir?
*1-(4)While taxiing you notice the following sign. It is a/an ............sign and it appears with
...Annex numarası verilecek düzenlenecek........
A) Mandatory – White inscription on red background.
B) Information – Yellow inscription on black background.
C) Direction – Black inscription on yellow background.
D) Location – Black inscription on yellow background.

*2-(4)Which of the following can not be used as registration markings?

A) 4 letter Q-codes.
B) Emergency signals in Morse Code.
C) 3 letter combinations used as code of signals (prescribed by ITU).
D) All 3-letter repetitive markings like LLL, SSS, YYY.

*3-(4)If the edge lights are ……., centerline lights are ……….. and markings are ……….. you are
definitely on a …………..
A) White, white, white, taxiway.
B) White, red, white, runway.
C) Blue, green, yellow, taxiway.
D) White, white, yellow, runway.

*4-(4)What do nationality and registration marks consist of?

A) Numbers only.
B) It must be a combination of numbers and letters.
C) Letters only.
D) Numbers or letters, or a combination.

*5-(5)A report from an aircraft in flight prepared under requirements for position, and
operational and/or meteorological reporting is what?
A) A PIREP.
B) A SIGMET.
C) A NOTAM.
D) A position report.

*6-(4)Which of the following nationality and registration markings would be permitted?

A)G-YLLL.
B)N-YQNH.
C)A81TTT.
D)AS2PAN.

*7-(3)Which states can join EASA as full members?

A) All European Union States.
B) Selected European States.
C) All JAA States.
D) All ICAO Contracting States.
020
AGK (PPL) Additional Question Proposals (020)

by Caglar UCLER on 03.12.2015

1. Max. Exhaust Gas Temperature is theoretically associated with: (17)

a) Mixture ratio very close to idle cut-out.
b) Mass ratio of 1/15.
c) Cruising mixture setting.
d) Full rich setting.

Teorik maksimum egzoz gazı sıcaklığı aşağıdakilerden hangisi ile ilişkilendirilir? (17)

a) Karışımın çok fakir olması.

b) 1/15 kütle oranı.
c) Seyir karışım ayarı.
d) Tam zengin karışım.

2. Fuses are rated to a value by: (18)

a) The number of amperes they will carry.
b) The number of volts they will pass.
c) Their wattage.
d) Their resistance measured in ohms.

Sigortalar neye göre tanımlanır? (18)

a) Taşıdıkları amper değerine göre.
b) Taşıdıkları volt değerine göre.
c) Watt değerlerine göre.
d) Ohm cinsinden tanımlı dirençlerine göre.

3. For piston engines, mixture ratio is the ratio between the: (13)
a) Volume of fuel and volume of air entering the carburetor.
b) Mass of fuel and volume of air entering the carburetor.
c) Mass of fuel and mass of air entering the cylinder.
d) Volume of fuel and volume of air entering the cylinder.

Piston motorlarında karışım oranı aşağıdakilerden hangisidir? (13)

a) Karbüratöre giren yakıt ve havanın hacimsel oranı.

b) Karbüratöre giren yakıt ve havanın kütlesel oranı.
c) Silindire giren yakıt ve havanın kütlesel oranı.
d) Silindire giren yakıt ve havanın hacimsel oranı.
4. The power of a piston engine decreases during climb with a constant power lever setting, because of
the decreasing: (9)
a) Engine temperature.
b) Humidity.
c) Temperature.
d) Air density.

Sabit güç ayarı ile tırmanan uçağın motor gücü neden düşer? (9)

a) Motor ısısı düştüğü için.

b) Nem azaldığı için.
c) Isı düştüğü için.
d) Hava yoğunluğu azaldığı için.

5. The crank assembly consists of (9)

a) Crankshaft, connecting rods and pistons.
b) Oil filter, crankshaft, pistons and connecting rods.
c) Crankcase, crankshaft, connecting rods and pistons.
d) Crankshaft, camshaft, valves, valve springs and push rods.

Krank montaj grubu nelerden oluşur? (9)

a) Krank mili, bağlantı çubukları ve pistonlar.

b) Yağ filtresi, krank mili, pistonlar ve biyel kolları.
c) Krank muhafazası, krank mili, bağlantı çubukları ve pistonlar.
d) Krank mili, kam mili, supaplar, supap yayları ve itme çubukları.

6. In a piston engine, the purpose of an altitude mixture control is to: (17)

a) Weaken the mixture strength because of reduced exhaust back pressure at altitude.
b) Enrich the mixture strength due to decreased air density at altitude.
c) Correct for variations in the fuel/air ratio due to decreased air density at altitude.
d) Prevent a weak cut when the throttle is opened rapidly at altitude.

Pistonlu motorlarda irtifa karışım kontrolü (mixture) neden kullanılır? (17)

a) Düşük egzoz geri basıncını telafi etmek için.

b) Yüksek irtifadaki düşük yoğunluk sebebi ile karışımı zenginleştirmek için.
c) Yüksek irtifadaki düşük yoğunluğa göre yakıt/hava oranını ayarlamak için.
d) Yüksek irtifada ani güç verildiğinde motorun zayıf karışım sebebi ile durmasını önlemek için.
7. The reading on the oil pressure gauge is the: (11)
a) Difference between the pressure pump pressure and the scavenge pump pressure.
b) Pressure in the oil tank reservoir.
c) Pressure of the oil on the inlet side of the pressure pump.
d) Pressure of the oil on the outlet side of the pressure pump.

Yağ basınç göstergesinde okunan değer aşağıdakilerden hangisidir? (11)

a) Basınç pompası ve emiş pompasında oluşan basınç değerlerinin farkı.

b) Yağ tank haznesindeki basınç.
c) Basınç pompasının girişindeki basınç.
d) Basınç pompasının çıkışındaki basınç.

8. On the ground, during a left turn, the turn indicator indicates: (25)
a) needle in the middle, ball to the left
b) needle to the left, ball to the right
c) needle to the left, ball to the left
d) needle in the middle, ball to the right

Rulede (yerde) sola dönüş esnasında dönüş göstergesi ne gösterir? (25)

a) İğne ortada, top solda.

b) İğne solda, top sağda.
c) İğne solda, top solda.
d) İğne ortada, top sağda.

9. A stall warning system is based on a measure of: (30)

a) Airspeed.
b) Attitude.
c) Difference of groundspeed and IAS.
d) Aerodynamic incidence (angle of attack).

“Stall” uyarı sistemi neyin ölçümü ile çalışır? (30)

a) Gösterge hızı (IAS).

b) Hava aracı konumu.
c) Yer hızı (groundspeed) ile gösterge hızının (IAS) farkı.
d) Aerodinamik hücum açısı (angle of attack).
10. When flying from a sector of warm air into one of colder air, the altimeter will: (22)
a) Underread.
b) Overread.
c) Be just as correct as before.
d) Show the actual height above ground.

Sıcak havanın olduğu bir sektörden, soğuk havanın olduğu bir sektöre uçulması durumunda altimetre:
(22)

a) Az gösterir.
b) Çok gösterir.
c) Önceki gibi doğru olur.
d) Gerçek yerden yüksekliği gösterir.

AGK (PPL) Additional Question Proposals (020)

by Erkan Günaydınoğlu on 17.12.2015

11. In a four-stroke engine, when does the piston go down, increasing the effective volume? (9)
a) Induction, power
b) Induction, exhaust
c) Induction, compression
d) Compression, exhaust

Dört zamanlı bir piston motorunda piston hangi zamanda aşağıya inerek efektif hacmi arttırır? (9)
a) Emme, yanma
b) Emme, egzoz
c) Emme, sıkıştırma
d) Sıkıştırma, egzoz

12 Which of the following is the most accurate definition of the Design Ultimate Load? (8)
a) Design Limit Load multiplied by Safety Factor.
b) Maximum take-off load, multiplied by Safety Factor.
c) Minimum take-off load, divided by Safety Factor
d) Design Limit Load divided by Safety Factor.

Aşağıdakilerden hangisi tasarım son dayanma yükünün (Design Ultimate Load) en doğru tanımıdır? (8)
a) Tasarım Sınır Yükü X Güvenlik Katsayısı
b) Maksimum Kalkış Yükü X Güvenlik Katsayısı
c) Minimum Kalkış Yükü / Güvenlik Katsayısı
d) Tasarım Sınır Yükü / Güvenlik Katsayısı.
13. What is a valid structural safety factor for general aviation aircraft? (8)
a. 1
b. 1,5
c. 6
d. 21

Genel havacılık uçakları için aşağıda verilen değerlerden hangisi yapısal güvenlik katsayısıdır? (8)
a. 1
b. 1,5
c. 6
d. 21

14. The power output of an internal combustion engine can be increased by (9)
a. Increasing the size of the fuel tank
b. Decreasing the length of the stroke
c. Decreasing the area of the cylinder
d. Increasing the engine R.P.M.

İçten yanmalı bir motorun gücü aşağıda verilen yöntemlerden hangisi ile arttırılabilir? (9)
a. Yakıt tankının hacmini arttırarak
b. Piston kurs (stroke) boyunu azaltarak
c. Silindir kesit alanını azaltarak
d. Motor RPM değerini arttırarak

15. Theoretically, a 100 Ah battery will supply 25 amps for (18)

a. 4 hours
b. 25 hours
c. 100 minutes
d. 25 minutes

100 Ah kapasiteli bir akü ile 25 amper akım ne kadar süre sağlanır? (18)
a. 4 saat
b. 25 saat
c. 100 dakika
d. 25 dakika

16. Detonation could result from using (13)

a. A higher grade fuel than recommended
b. Too high RPM
c. Too weak mixture
d. Too low manifold pressure

Detonasyon aşağıdakilerden hangisinin sonucu ortaya çıkar?

a. Tavsiye edilenden yüksek oktan değerli yakıtın kullanılması
b. Yüksek RPM
c. Zayıf karışım
d. Düşük manifold basıncı
17. What is the best suitable fuel for a general aviation aircraft with a piston gasoline engine? (14)
a. Jet A1
b. Kerosene
c. Avgas 100LL
d. Avtur

Benzinli piston motorlarda aşağıdaki yakıtlardan hangisi kullanılır? (14)

a. Jet A1
b. Kerosene
c. Avgas 100LL
d. Avtur

18. Which one of the followings is the correct color label for Avgas 100 LL? (14)
a. Red
b. Green
c. Blue
d. Black

Aşağıdaki renk kodlamalarından hangisi Avgas 100 LL için doğrudur? (14)

a. Kırmızı
b. Yeşil
c. Mavi
d. Siyah

19. You notice that the oil pressure is fluctuating and indicating lower than normal and the oil temp is
rising. What should you do? (11)
a. Apply full power for ten seconds.
b. Assume the indications are faulty and continue the flight.
c. Land as soon as possible.
d. Continue until the engine fails, then carry out a forced landing.

Yağ basıncının normalden düşük bir değer etrafında oynaması ve yağ sıcaklığının artması durumunda
aşağıdakilerden hangisi yapılmalıdır? (11)
a. On saniye tam güç uygulanmalı
b. Göstergelerin yanlış olduğu kabul edilip uçuşa devam edilmeli
c. En kısa sürede inilmeli
d. Motor susana kadar uçuşa devam edilmeli, sonrasında zorunlu iniş yapılmalı

20 It is important to carry out regular checks for water in the gasoline fuel system. If water is present, it
will mainly cause ... (14)
a. air intake icing.
b. contamination of the fuel system resulting in loss of engine power.
c. ice to form in the fuel lines.
d. loss of engine power whilst only taxying.
Benzinli motorların yakıt sisteminde düzenli olarak su içeriğinin kontrolü önemlidir. Yakıt içinde su
bulunması... (14)
a. hava alığı buzlanmasına neden olur.
b. yakıtı sisteminin kontaminasyonu neticesinde güç kaybına neden olur.
c. yakıt hatlarında buzlanmaya neden olur.
d. sadece taksi esnasında güç kaybına neden olur

21 Constant-speed propellers provide a better performance than fixed-pitch propellers because they:
(16)
a) Produce a greater maximum thrust than a fixed-pitch propeller.
b) Have more blade surface area than a fixed-pitch propeller.
c) Produce an almost maximum efficiency over a wider speed range.
d) Have a higher maximum efficiency than a fixed-pitch propeller.

Sabit hızlı pervanelerin sabit açılı pervanelere göre daha iyi performans göstermesinin sebebi nedir? (16)
a) Sağladıkları maksimum güç daha fazladır.
b) Daha büyük bir kanat yüzeyleri vardır.
c) Daha geniş bir hız aralığında maksimum verime yakın bir noktada çalışırlar.
d) Daha yüksek bir verim sunarlar.
 AGK POWERPLANT

*1-(9)Powerplant may be classified according to:

I. number of strokes in a cycle.
II. type of ignition.
III. place where combustion takes place.
A)I only.
B)I and II.
C)All of them.
D)II and III.

*2-(16)With which of the following can a pilot monitor the power output of a fix pitch
propeller?
A)Oil pressure gauge.
B)RPM gauge.
C)Mixture lever.
D)The fuel consumption gauge.
*3-(17)
a. Retarding the throttle.
b. Switching off the magneto switch.
c. Cutting off the mixture.
Put the procedures mentioned above in a correct order so that the engine can be safely shut
down.
A)a c b.
B)a b c.
C)c b a.
D)b a c.

*4-(12)The Otto-cycle is often referred as a "continuous cycle". The term continuous comes
from the continuous ........ demand of the engine.
A)lubrication.
B)cooling.
C)cleaning.
D)ignition.

*5-(13)If the throttle lever of an aircraft controls the amount of fuel consumed:
I. It is an injection type engine.
II. It is a carburated engine.
III. It is a diesel engine.
Which of the statements listed above is definitely true?
A)I and III.
B)III only.
C)II only.
D)I only.

*6-(11)Which is not an obligatory component in each oil system?

A)Filters.
B)Oil coolers.
C)Oil tanks.
D)Oil lines.
*7-(9) An increase in which of the following will increase the total power output of a piston
engine?
A)Compression ratio.
B)Number of cylinders.
C)RPM.
D)All of them.

*8-(12)Which of the following statements are true?

I. The four-stroke cycle is a continuous cycle.
II. Each valve opens twice along the 4 strokes of a piston engine.
III. The crank assembly includes the connecting rod, the piston and the cylinder.
IV. The four-stroke cycle is dependent on continuous ignition.
A)Only III.
B)II and IV.
C)III and IV.
D)Only IV.

*9-(9)The distance between the TDC and the BDC of a piston is:
A)The total volume.
B)Combustion chamber.
C)The length of a stroke.
D)The height of the cylinder.

*10-(11)The resistance of a fluid against flowing is called ……………. which is ……………..

proportional to the temperature and that’s why decreasing temperature makes it …………….
for a liquid to flow. Fill in the blanks.
A)Disflowability – directly – harder.
B)Viscosity – indirectly – easier.
C)Viscosity – directly – easier.
D)Viscosity – indirectly – harder.

*11-(11)Which one is not among the functions of lubricating oil?

A) Reduce friction.
B) Anti icing.
C) Damping.
D) Isolating.
 ELECTRICS -1ST PHASE

1-(18) When an "open circuit" occurs in an electrical supply system, the :

a) component will operate normally, but will not switch off.
b) loss of continuity will prevent its working components from functioning.
c) load as indicated by the ammeter will increase.
d) fuse or CB should isolate the circuit due to excess current drawn.

2-(18) Regarding (1) a fuse and (2) a circuit breaker:

a) (1) and (2) are not resettable.
b) (1) is not resettable, (2) is resettable.
c) (1) is suitable for high currents, (2) is not suitable for high currents.
d) (1) is not suitable for high currents, (2) is suitable for high currents

3-(18) The input and output of a static inverter are respectively:

a) AC and AC.
b) AC and DC.
c) DC and AC.
d) DC and DC.

4-(18) An inverter is a:
a) filter against radio interference.
b) unit used to convert DC into AC.
c) device for reversing the polarity of the static charge.
d) static discharger.

5-(18) The purpose of bonding the metallic parts of an aircraft is to :

a) provide a double earth for electrical devices.
b) isolate all components electrically and thus make the static potential constant.
c) provide safe distribution of electrical charges and currents.
d) prevent electrolytic corrosion between mating surfaces of similar metals.
Aircraft General Knowledge

1. A modern light aircraft with a cantilever wing the weight is supported by;
a)     the metal skin.
b)    internal wire bracing.
c)     the ribs.
d)    one or more deep spars.

2. The component parts of the wing shown in the diagram are:

A B C D
a)     Primary Spar               Ribs                                 Stringer                   Longeron
b)    Front Spar                    Secondary Spar                Ribs                        Metal skin
c)     Front Spar                 Ribs                                 Rear Spar               Metal skin
d)    Stringers                      Secondary Spar                Ribs                        Below skin

3. The 'Ply Rating' of a tyre;

a)     indicates the number of rayon or nylon cords.
b)    shows how many breaker strips are embedded in the tyre.
c)     has nothing to do with the strength of the tyre.
d)    is an index of the strength of the tyre.

4. On a light aircraft fitted with a mechanically steered nose wheel, steering on the ground is normally
effected by;
a)     cables operated from the aileron control wheel.
b)    use of the differential braking technique, only.
c)     hydraulic jacks which allow self-centring.
d)    control rods/cables operated by the rudder pedals.

5. On the trailing edge of control surfaces, usually one of the ailerons, of some light aircraft there is a
small fixed metal tab. The purpose of this is;
a)     to discharge static electricity.
b)    a label for manufacturer's reference number.
c)     to allow a licensed engineer to adjust trim on the ground.
d)    to allow the pilot to adjust lateral trim on the ground to compensate for a load change.

6. The principal reason why light training aircraft have fixed undercarriages is that:
a)     training aircraft need to manoeuvre on the ground.
b)    training aircraft need to ensure that kinetic energy on landing is absorbed.
c)     training aircraft need to be supported at a convenient height.
d)    the reduced performance caused by the additional drag of a fixed undercarriage is offset by its 

7. Tyre creep may be identified by;

a)     two yellow diametrically opposed arrows painted on the tyre sidewalls.
b)    a tyre pressure check.
c)     alignment marks painted on the tyre sidewall and wheel flange.
d)    two white blocks painted on the wheel flange.

8. Most nose wheels on modern light aircraft are:

a)     oleo pneumatic shock-absorber struts.
b)    spring steel struts.
c)     spring coil struts.
d)    compressed rubber struts.

9. Aquaplaning speed;
a)     increases as the depth of tread on the tyres reduces.
b)    increases as the depth of water on the ground increases.
c)     can be calculated, in knots, by multiplying the square root of the tyre pressure in PSI by nine.
d)  Must be measured in miles per hour.

10. A flying control lock;

a)     will constrain the control column to its design limits so as not to overstress the airframe during normal 
b)    must always be used when flying in gusty conditions.
c)     is used to lock the controls on the ground to prevent damage in high wind conditions.
d)    is only necessary on the elevators.

11. If a fire occurs in a wheel and tyre assembly, and immediate action is required to extinguish it, the
a)     dry powder.
b)    Methyl bromide (CH3Br)
c)     bromotrifluoromethane (BTF).
d)    water acid.

12. Awl vents in an aircraft tyre:

a)     prevent damage to the tyre which might be caused at high altitude because of pressure trapped 
b)    enable tyre creep to be detected.
c)     assist in balancing the wheel assembly.
d)    prevent tyre slippage.

13. Tyre creep;

a)     can be prevented by painting lines on the tyre and wheel.
b)    refers to the movement of an aircraft against the brakes.
c)     can be recognised by the misalignment of markings painted on the tyre and the wheel.
d)    can be prevented with glue.

14. The undercarriage legs of many light aircraft, particularly the nose leg, are sprung and damped
a)     an oleo.
b)    a hydraulic jack.
c)     a pneumatic strut.
d)    a seruodyne.

15. Water-based fire extinguishers are most suitable for use on:
a)     combustible metals and fuel.
b)    electrical equipment and paper.
c)     paper and furnishing fabrics.
d)    wheel and brake fires.

16. ABCF fire extinguisher;

a)     gives off highly toxic fumes and should never be used in an enclosed cockpit.
b)    is quite safe to use in an enclosed cockpit.
c)     is only suitable for wood or fabric fires and is, therefore, of no use in a cockpit.
d)    is quite safe to use in an enclosed cockpit if the cockpit is subsequently ventilated.

17. It is good practice, when flying over large areas of water, that life jackets;
a)     should be carried under the pilots' seats.
b)    are worn, uninflated.
c)     should be inspected periodically for leaks.
d)    are worn inflated.

18. A true 'monocoque' structure:

a)     would have bulkheads set in place to separate the different sections of the aircraft.
b)    would have a framework consisting of light gauge steel tubes welded together.
c)     is sometimes referred to as 'Strained Skin' construction.
d)    would have no apertures at all.

19. Semi-monocoque can be defined as;

a)     a stressed skin with supported apertures containing an internal structure framework.
b)    a framework of light-gauge steel tubes welded together to form a space frame of triangular shape.
c)     a structure with no apertures at all.
d)    an apertureless structure with load bearing formers being supported by stringers and longerons over a 

20. What kind of flaps increase the wing area as well as the camber?
a)     Slotted flaps.
b)    Split flaps.
c)     Kruger flaps.
d)    Fowler flaps.

21. What major advantage has semi-monocoque structure over monocoque structure?
a)     It is lighter
b)    Easier to assemble
c)     Withstands greater flight loads
d)    Better strength to weight ratio

22. The empennage normally consists of a horizontal surface, a vertical fin,a rudder and an elevator.
Which part provides directional stability?
a)    The horizontal surface,
b)    The elevator,
c)    The rudder
d)    The vertical fin

23. From which type of flight control is movement around the vertical axis controlled?
a)     The aileron
b)    The rudder
c)     The elevator
d)    Altimeter

24. Before beginning the refueling operation, which precaution should be taken to protect against an
electrical potential difference between the aircraft and fuel truck?
a)     Connect a static bounding wire between the fuelling truck and the ground,
b)    Connect a static bounding wire between the fuelling truck and the aircraft,
c)     Connect a static bounding wire between the aircraft  and the ground,
d)    Shut down all electrical equipment in the aircraft,

25. To calculate Calibrated Air Speed from Indicated Air Speed, account must be taken of:
a)     instrument error.
b)    position error.
c)     temperature error.
d)    instrument and position error.

26. Complete the following sentence to give the most correct statement. At constant air temperature
and volume, if its pressure is increased:
a)     its density will decrease.
b)    its density will be unaffected because the volume remains constant.
c)     its density will be unaffected because the temperature remains constant.
d)    its density will increase.

27. Which of the options below completes the most accurate statement concerning aircraft instruments
a)   Turn Coordinator and Artificial Horizon only
b)   Artificial Horizon, Vertical Speed Indicator and ASI.
c)   Direction Indicator, Artificial Horizon. Turn Indicator only.
d)   Turn Coordinator, Artificial Horizon, Turn Indicator, Direction Indicator 

28. What will be the effect on air density of a reduction in air pressure while humidity and temperature
remain constant?
a)     The air density will decrease.
b)    The air density will increase.
c)     The air density will remain unchanged.
d)    The density of the air is independent of pressure at constant volume.

29. The air pressure that acts on anything immersed in it:

a)     is also known as Dynamic Pressure.
b)    is also known as Static Pressure.
c)     is greater at altitude than at sea level.
d)    is also known as Total Pressure.

30. A magnetic heading:

a)     is the sum of the compass heading, compass deviation and variation.
b)    is not affected by turning errors.
c)     is always referenced to True North.
d)    is the sum of the compass heading and compass deviation.

31. An altimeter contains one or more aneroid capsules. Inside these capsule is ;
a) static pressure and outside a very low residual pressure.
b) static pressure and outside is dynamic pressure.
c) a very low residual pressure and outside is static pressure.
d) dynamic pressure and outside is static pressure.
32. How is the vacuum provided to drive gyroscopic instruments?
a)     By an engine driven pump.
b)    By the static vent.
c)     By the alternate static source.
d)    By a vacuum reservoir charged before flight.

33. An altimeter:
a)     contains a barometric capsule, connected to a total pressure source, that contracts during a descent.
b)    contains a barometric capsule that expands during a descent.
c)     consists of a sealed instrument case connected to a static pressure source. The instrument case 
contains a sealed, partially-evacuated aneroid capsule which contracts during a descent.
d)    contains a partially evacuated capsule that expands during a descent.

34. The gyro in an artificial horizon is:

a)     an earth gyro rotating in a vertical plane about the aircraft's lateral axis.
b)    an earth gyro rotating in a horizontal plane about a vertical axis.
c)     an earth gyro rotating in a vertical plane about the aircraft's longitudinal axis.
d)    a tied gyro rotating in a horizontal plane about the aircraft's longitudinal axis.

35. If, while an aircraft is descending, the static vent leading to the Vertical Speed Indicator becomes
blocked, the indicator will:
a)     continue to show the same reading.
b)    indicate a climb.
c)     indicate a descent.
d)    show a zero reading, after a short delay.

36. A Direction Indicator (Dl) may be aligned with the magnetic compass:
a)     when the wings are level and the aircraft is in either accelerated or un-accelerated flight.
b)    periodically, to offset the affect of acceleration during a turn.
c)     to eliminate the effect of liquid swirl.
d)    by using the caging knob to rotate the Dl azimuth card when the aircraft's wings are level and the 
aircraft is in un-accelerated flight.

37. If, during descent, the static sources to the airspeed indicator and altimeter become blocked by ice:
a)     the airspeed indicator will over-read and the altimeter will under-read.
b)    the airspeed indicator will under-read and the altimeter will over-read.
c)     both instruments will over-read.
d)    both instruments will under-read.

38. The purpose of the compass deviation card fixed next to an aircraft's magnetic compass is to:
a)     compensate for the influence of magnetic material carried on the person of the pilot and/or passengers.
b)    indicate the discrepancy between the heading shown on the compass and the actual magnetic 
c)     indicate the discrepancy between the aircraft's track and magnetic north.
d)    indicate the discrepancy between the aircraft's track and true north.

39. When considering the changes in density of the air with altitude, which of the following four options
a)     The temperature increase with increasing altitude causes density to increase.
b)    The reduction in pressure with increasing altitude causes density to reduce.
c)     The temperature reduction with increasing altitude causes density to increase.
d)    The increase in pressure with increasing altitude causes density to reduce.

40. Magnetic compasses suffer from a problem called "dip", which is:
a)     the tendency of the needle to tilt during turns.
b)    the deviation which cannot be eliminated by a compass swing.
c)     is caused by the vertical component of the earth's magnetic field present at high latitudes.
d)    is caused by the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field present at all latitudes.

41. The Direction Indicator must be aligned on the runway before take off because:
a)     the gyro will only just have reached its correct speed at this point.
b)    the magnetic variation may have changed since start up.
c)     it has no means of detecting magnetic north
d)    the runway in use may have been changed.

42. Assuming that the pressure at sea level is ISA, but the temperature is 10°C higher than ISA, the 
density will be:
a)     as per ISA.
b)    greater than ISA.
c)     less than ISA.
d)    unaffected.

43. Ignoring any Instrument or Position Errors, in what conditions will the Air Speed Indicator indicate
the True Airspeed of an aircraft?
a)     In ISA, sea-level conditions only.
b)    At any altitude or temperature.
c)     At any altitude, provided that the temperature lapse rate is in accordance with ISA.
d)    At any altitude, but only when ISA conditions prevail.

44. Density:
a)     reduces with altitude increase.
b)    is unaffected by temperature change.
c)     increases with altitude increase.
d)    reduces with temperature reduction.

45. A gyro driven directional indicator has to be re-aligned periodically with the magnetic compass
a)     mechanical drift.
b)    apparent drift.
c)     transport error.
d)    all of the above..

46. When referring to the magnetic compass in the Northern Hemisphere, pilots must bear in mind that:
a)     turning errors are maximum when turning through North and South, and minimum when turning 
through East and West.
b)    turning errors are maximum when turning through East and West, and minimum when turning through 
c)     turning errors increase, the nearer the aircraft is to the Magnetic Equator, and diminish as the aircraft 
approaches the Magnetic Poles.
d)    acceleration errors increase the nearer the aircraft is to the Magnetic Poles, and diminish as the aircraft 
approaches the Magnetic Equator.

47. The rigidity in space of a gyro:

a)     keeps its axis pointing in a fixed direction in space unless it is acted on by an external force.
b)    is decreased by manufacturing the rotor from brass.
c)     is maximum at the magnetic equator.
d)    is minimum at the magnetic equator.

48. The principle of operation of the Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI) is that it:
a)     compares static pressure in a capsule, sensed through a direct static vent, with that in the 
instrument's case, sensed though a metered vent. The VSI is, thus, able to detect the rate of change of
static pressure with height.
b)    compares total pressure from the pitot tube with static pressure from the static vents. The VSI is calibrated 
to show the difference between the two as a vertical speed in feet per minute.
c)     compares dynamic pressure from the pitot tube with static pressure from the static vents. The VSI is 
calibrated to show the difference between the two as a vertical speed in feet per minute or metres per second.
d)    senses total pressure only, from the pitot tube, and converts the change in total pressure with height into a 
rate of climb or descent, measured either in feet per minute or metres per second.

49. During one complete Otto-Cycle, the crankshaft revolves

a)     Four times.
b)    Twice.
c)     Once.
d)    A number of times depending on the number of cylinders.

50. In a wet sump lubrication system, the oil is normally stored in:
a)     A separate tank
b)    The engine sump
c)     Both the engine sump and a separate tank
d)    The engine lubricating gallery

51. The temperature of the coolant used in a liquid-cooled engine is controlled by;
a)     A Cowling
b)    Oil cooler shutters
c)     A thermostat
d)    Radiator
52. At low engine RPM and power settings, the:
a)     Ignition should be more advanced.
b)    Mixture should be rich.
c)     Priming pump should be switched on.
d)    CHT will be normally very high.

53. During a prolonged climb you notice that the engine oil pressure is reducing and the oil
temperature is rising. You discount any failure of the lubrication system. What then, is the most
probable cause and remedy?
a)     You are climbing at too high an airspeed causing overcooling of the lubrication system, thus    increasing 
oil viscosity. You should reduce power and reduce airspeed.
b)    The low airspeed and high engine speed combination reduces cooling of the lubrication system, 
thus lowering oil viscosity. You should reduce power and increase airspeed.
c)     You are climbing at too high an airspeed causing overcooling of the lubrication system, thus lowering oil 
viscosity. You should increase power but reduce airspeed.
d)    The low airspeed and high engine speed associated with the climb are reducing cooling of the lubrication 
system, thus increasing oil viscosity. You should increase power and reduce airspeed.

54. The most probable cause of the fluctuating needle of the oil pressure gauge while the aircraft is in
level flight with the engine running at cruise RPM, is;
a)     A low oil supply.
b)    The presence of air in the oil tank.
c)     A loose electrical connection.
d)    The low power setting.

55. If the engine gets too hot, the mixture may ignite before the spark plug fires.
a)     This is called detonation.
b)    The mixture should be weakened to assist in cooling the engine.
c)     The throttle should be opened to assist in cooling the engine.
d)    This is called pre-ignition.

56. The power output of a four-stroke piston engine at sea level:

a)     Is proportional to the volume of mixture induced into the cylinder.
b)    Remains constant as RPM increases.
c)     Increases initially, and then remains constant as RPM increases.
d)    Increases as RPM increases.

57. Airflow through the venturi of a carburetor causes a;

a)     Rise in pressure and a drop in velocity at the narrowest point.
b)    Drop in pressure and a rise in temperature at the narrowest point.
c)     Drop in pressure and a rise in velocity at the narrowest point.
d)    Drop in pressure and a drop in velocity at the narrowest point.

58. If the earth wire on a magneto becomes disconnected from the magneto while the engine is
a)     The engine will stop.
b)    The primary windings will be damaged.
c)     The engine will continue to operate but will fire on all but the one cylinder concerned.
d)    The engine will not stop when the magnetos are switched off.

59. Within one complete Otto-Cycle, each valve of a four-stroke piston engine will open:
a)     Once.
b)    Twice.
c)     During the power stroke.
d)    During the induction stroke.

60. In the engine fuel system, what is the relationship between the ambient pressure in the float
chamber of a carburetor and the static pressure in a carburetor’s venturi?
a)     The static pressure in the venturi will be greater than the ambient pressure in the float chamber.
b)    There is no difference, because the terms ambient and static pressure have the same meaning.
c)     The static pressure in the venturi will be lower than the ambient pressure in the float chamber.
d)    The ambient pressure of the float chamber is equal to the dynamic pressure in the venturi.

61. Complete the following sentence by choosing the most suitable one of the four options to make an
accurate statement. In a dry sump lubricating system;
a)     Oil pressure gauges are unnecessary.
b)    Since there are scavenge pumps, oil pressure pumps are not used.
c)     A scavenge pump returns the oil to a separate oil storage tank.
d)    A separate oil storage tank is not required.

62. Engine compression ratio is the ratio of the;

a)     Total volume to the clearance volume.
b)    Clearance volume to the swept volume.
c)     Swept volume to the total volume.
d)    Swept volume to the clearance volume.

63. The main advantage of a constant speed propeller over a fixed pitch propeller lies in;
a)     A higher maximum thrust available.
b)    A higher maximum efficiency.
c)     A more blade surface area available.
d)    A stable efficiency over a wide engine-speed range.

64. Detonation could be triggered by;

a)     Too weak a mixture.
b)    Too low a manifold pressure.
c)     A higher octane-grade fuel than recommended. 
d)    Too high an RPM.

65. A propeller blade is twisted along its length in order to;

a)     Give a progressively increasing blade angle from root to tip.
b)    Give a progressively increasing pitch from root to tip.
c)     Compensate for the decreasing linear speed of the blade from root to tip.
d)    Maintain the optimal Angle of Attack from root to tip.

66. Pre-ignition:
a)     Is also known as pinking.
b)    Is the same thing as detonation.
c)     Is usually caused by a hot spot in the combustion chamber.
d)    Happens because of a giant spark produced at the plugs.

67. Aircraft piston engines are fitted with two independent ignition systems;
a)     The statement above is incorrect.
b)    One is used and the other remains a back-up.
c)     One of the magnetos must start ignition before the other one joins it.
d)    For more efficient combustion and reliability.

68. Baffles:
a)     Are placed within the lubrication system to slow down the passage of oil into the engine.
b)    Reduce the flow of air around the engine.
c)     Are air guides which direct the airflow fully around the cylinder.
d)    Are air openings which help to cool the engine oil.

69. To achieve the correct valve timing in a piston engine, the valves are opened via a camshaft
running at;
a)     Twice of the crankshaft speed.
b)    The same engine speed.
c)     Twice of the engine speed.
d)    Half of the crankshaft speed.

70. The primary object of lubrication is to:

a)     Reduce vibration and increase efficiency.
b)    Reduce friction and help internal cooling.
c)     Help cleaning and increase engine life.
d)    Increase power output.

71. When the pilot moves the mixture level of a piston engine towards a leaner position, the
a)     Amount of fuel entering the combustion chamber is reduced.
b)    Volume of air entering the carburetor is reduced.
c)     Amount of fuel entering the combustion chamber is increased.
d)    Volume of air entering the carburetor is increased.

72. When the carburetor air intake is fed with “hot air”, the power output of the engine will be reduced 
because:
a)     The mixture will have a lower density.
b)    The density of the mixture will be increased.
c)     The air pressure in the induction manifold will be increased.
d)    The mixture will be weaker.

73. What is the main advantage of a magneto ignition system over a battery ignition system for an
aircraft reciprocating engine?
a)     Easy to manufacture.
b)    Operation safety.
c)     A magneto has its own source of electrical energy and it is not dependent upon a battery.
d)    Since the magneto always receives its energy from the aircrafts electrical system, it is more reliable.

74. What happens in a magneto ignition system when the ignition switch is placed in the “Off” 
a)     The fuel supply is shut off.
b)    The primary circuit is connected to ground.
c)     The contact breaker breaks the low tension circuit.
d)    The secondary circuit is fed y the condenser.

75. A monocoque structure may be described as:

A - containing no openings and no internal support structure where all self and imposed loads are
carried by the skin.
B - containing some openings which are structurally reinforced to maintain the integrity the load bearing skin.
C - containing a load bearing structure that transmits self and imposed loads proportionately to the integral
load bearing skin.
D - containing no openings

76. The speed scale of an airspeed indicator is colour coded. The green band is:
A - the normal operating range (Vno)
B - the flap extension range (Vfe)
C - the caution range (Vne)
D -the landing gear retraction range (VIo) where

77. A gyroscope when spinning, is said to have rigidity in space. Rigidity is a function of:
A - RPM, rotor mass, and position of its centre of gravity..
B - RPM and position of its centre of gravity.
C - RPM and rotor mass.
D -Centre of gravity position and rotor mass.

78. Deviation from the maintenance schedule specified in the Certificate of Airworthiness (C of A):
A - will require the issue of a new C of A if the specified maintenance is not completed within 50 flying hours.
B - will not affect the C of A but invalidates any subsequent Certificate of Release to Service.
C - invalidates the C of A but not any subsequent Certificate of Release to Service.
D - renders the C of A invalid until the specified maintenance is carried out.

79. Ferrous objects in close proximity to a magnetic compass will:

A - induce significant errors in the magnetic heading indication.
B - not affect the magnetic compass as its housing is screened from magnetic field distortion.
C - not affect flight operations provided the heading indicator is synchronized with the magnetic compass
before the ferrous items are brought on board.
D - induce some small errors in the magnetic-compass due to changes in flux density.

80. An aircraft that has been over stressed:

A - must be inspected by a qualified engineer before the next flight.
B - must be inspected by the pilot in command and if no defect is found she/he will not be required to make an
appropriate entry in the aircraft technical log.
C - must be inspected by at least two pilots licensed on the type which one of whom must be the pilot in
D - must be subjected to a duplicate inspected by two engineers before the next flight.

81. The valve which allows oil to either flow through or by-pass a serviceable engine oil cooler is:
A - pressure activated
B - manually activated.
C - pneumatically activated.
D - temperature activated

82. The total pressure entering the the pitot-static system represented by the arrow is:
A - pitot pressure + dynamic pressure.
B - static pressure + dynamic pressure.
C - adiabatic + pitot pressure.
D - pitot + adiabatic pressure.

83. At what power setting is serious carburetor icing likely to occur if operating at an ambient
A - climb power.
B - cruise power.
C - descent power.
D - maximum continuous.

84. It is important to carry out regular checks for water in the fuel system as the presence of water will
A - intake and carburetor venturi icing.
B - the fuel to freeze..
C - fuel system contamination resulting in the loss of engine power.
D - incomplete combustion.

85. The crank shaft in a four stroke piston engine:

A - controls the clearance of the valves.
B -converts rotary motion into reciprocating movement.
C -converts linear motion into reciprocating movement.
D -converts reciprocating movement into rotary motion.

86. After starting a cold engine, if the oil pressure gauge does not indicate within approximately 30
A - the engine RPM should be increased and the oil pressure re-checked.
B - this may be ignored if the oil temperature is still low and the oil level was checked before start-up.
C -the engine must be stopped immediately.
D-refer to the Pilot's Operating Handbook (POH)for the appropriate action.

87. If the starter warning light remains on after the starter button (starter switch) has been released:
A - the alternator output level should be checked.
B - the engine should be immediately stopped.
C- the engine RPM should be increased as it is too low for starter auto disconnect.
D - manually disengage the starter.

88. When refuelling, to ensure that the correct type of fuel is used, both the fuel itself and tank labels
are colour coded. The primary colour for all labels relating to 1OOLL is …(i)… and the colour of the fuel 
itself should be …(ii)… .
(i) (ii)
A - red blue
B - black red
c - blue straw
D - red straw

89. The normal location of an electrically driven boost / alternate pump is:
A - the lowest part of a fuel tank.
B -upstream of the engine driven pump.
C - the tank to tank fuel transfer line.
D -forward of the engine fire wall bulkhead.

90. When a fuel priming pump is used before starting an engine, the fuel is normally delivered directly
A - the carburetor float chamber.
B - the combustion chamber.
C - the delivery shroud of the fuel injector manifold.
D - the induction manifold or inlet valve port.

91. A piston engine fuel/ air mixture ratio, ideally should be in the region of:
A - 1:7 by weight.
B - 1:9 by volume.
C - 1:12 by weight.
D - 1:15 by volume.

92. What is the function of an id!e cut off valve in a piston engine airplane?
A - It controls engine slow-running via the carburettor idle jet.
B - changes fuel flow to the main jet from the idle jet when power is increased.
c _ it shuts down the engine automatically if the cylinder head temperature rises due to long periods at idle
on the ground.
D - It inhibits fuel flow from a discharge nozzle in the carburettor when selected.

93. When leaning the fuel/air mixture at altitude, to achieve the most efficient mixture, the control is
A - decreases. The mixture control is then moved slightly to the RICH side of peak RPM.
B - increases. The mixture control is then left in that position.
c - increases by approximately 50 RPM. The mixture control is then moved slightly more towards the LEAN
D - decreases by approximately 50 RPM. The mixture control is then moved slightly more towards the LEAN

94. The restrictive throat of a carburetor Venturi changes the characteristics of the air that passes
A - a dynamic pressure increase and a velocity decrease.
B- a dynamic pressure decrease and a velocity increase.
C- a drop in ambient pressure and velocity increase.
D - a dynamic pressure increase and ambient pressure increase.

95. Which of the following prevents excessive engine oil pressures?

A - An oil pressure relief valve.
B - A vernier thermometer
C - A filter by-pass valve.
D - A non-return valve (NRV).

96. The valve that allows oil to by-pass a blocked engine oil cooler is:
A - pressure activated.
B- temperature activated.
C - manually activated.
D - density activated.

97. Elemental to one complete Otto Cycle is that each piston moves:
A - up once and down once.
B - up twice and down twice.
C - up four times and down four times.
D - up twice and down once.

98. The compression ratio of a piston engine is defined as the ratio of:
A - the cylinder volume when the piston is at bottom dead centre to the total cylinder volume.
B - total cylinder volume to the volume remaining above the piston when it is at top dead centre.
C - cylinder volume with the piston at bottom dead centre (8DC) to cylinder volume with the piston at
top dead centre (TDC).
D - total cylinder volume to the volume remaining below the piston when it is at top dead centre.

99. Information transmitted to the cockpit mounted engine oil temperature gauge· is provided by a 
A - within the hot sections of the engine.
B - upstream of the oil cooler.
C - within the engine sump.
D - after passing through the oil cooler but before reaching the hot sections of the engine.

100. Detonation of the fuel/ air mixture in a piston engine is usually associated with:
A - a designed interrupted ignition sequence during start-up when backfiring occurs.
B - rich mixtures and low cylinder head temperatures.
C - carbonised sparking plugs due to protracted engine operation using overly rich mixtures.
D - weak mixtures and high cylinder head temperatures.

101. Carbon deposits on spark plugs otherwise known as fouling may be prevented by:
A - cleaning them daily.
B - running the engine at high RPM with a lean mixture for about 5 minutes.
C - not running the engine continuously at high RPM with a lean mixture.
D - avoiding prolonged running of the engine at low RPM.

102. In respect of an aircraft piston engine ignition system, the high tension supply to the spark plugs
originates from:
A - the magneto's primary and secondary self-generation and distribution system.
B - the battery during start-up and low idle, then the magneto once the engine is running at fast idle.
C - the battery and is transformed by the magneto.
D - the magneto and then transformed by the battery

103. When a magneto is selected OFF, the switch located in the primary circuit
A - is closed and the circuit is earthed.
B - is opened, breaking circuit continuity.
C - is opened and the circuit is earthed.
D - is closed and the high tension circuit is closed.

104. A magneto that inadvertently becomes disconnected from its ignition switch will:
A - cause a dead cut when the other magneto is switched off.
B - cause the engine to continue running when both magneto switches are turned off.
C - cause the failure of one plug in each cylinder.
D - cause the engine to misfire when the other magneto is switched off.

105. Spark plugs receive their high tension supply from:

A - the alternator.
B - a magneto, independent of the aircraft electrical system.
C a magneto distributor supplied from the aircraft electrical system.
D - a magneto supplied from the aircraft battery.

106. The principle of operation of an impulse coupling employed in an aircraft engine ignition system is
A - advances ignition to compensate for slow combustion in a cold engine.
B - increases the rotation speed of the magneto to generate a high tension spark sufficient to ignite a
cold fuel air mixture.
C - retards ignition to ensure pre-ignition of an enriched starting mixture does not occur.
D - accelerates capacitor discharge to the secondary winding that in turn generates a shower of sparks
sufficient to ignite a cold fuel air mixture.

107. A 100 amp/ hour battery will, in theory, supply 20 amps for up to:
A - 2 hours.
B - 4 hours
C – 5 hours
D – 6 hours

108. Both starter switch and starter motor draw current from the battery. When activated, the current
flow through a starter switch compared with that flowing through the starter motor:
A -is much lower.
B - is much higher.
C - is the same.
D - initially higher when the starter motor resistance is high, but reduces to become less as the starter motor

109. The purpose of a cockpit mounted compass deviation card is to:

A - correct the compass headings for ferrous items that may be added to or removed from the A/C.
B - show the difference between the aircraft magnetic track and true north.
C - display the difference between the compass headings and actual magnetic headings.
D - correct the gyro headings for ferrous items that may be added to or removed from the A/C.

110. Two 12 volt 40 ampere-hour capacity batteries connected in series would result in a total capacity
A - 80 ampere-hours at 12 volts.
B - 40 ampere-hours at 24 volts.
C - 20 ampere-hours at 24 volts.
D - 40 ampere-hours at 12 volts.

111. Two 12 volt 40 ampere hour capacity batteries connected in parallel would result in a total voltage
and capacity of:
A - 12 volts and 80 ampere-hours.
B - 24 volts and 40 ampere-hours.
C - 24 volts and 20 ampere-hours.
D - 12 volts and 40 ampere-hours.

112. If a static vent became blocked at cruise level, how would this affect the barometric instruments
during a subsequent descent? Select the correct response.
ALTIMETER ASI
A- remain static over-read
B- remain static under-read
C- under-read over-read
D- under-read remain static

113. A Dl may be aligned with the magnetic compass by:

A-        using the caging knob to rotate the Dl azimuth card when turning onto a heading. 
B-        using the caging knob to rotate the Dl azimuth card when the wings are level.
C-       housing  the caging knob which will automatically align the azimuth Dl card with the magnetic 
D-       by maintaining  the wings level, disengaging the caging knob and allowing the gyro to realign with the 
magnetic compass.
114. Select from the following those statements you consider to be characteristic of a direction
1-Mechanical friction in the gyro gimbal bearings although small, produces real drift.
2- The gyro will tilt during acceleration and wander during any turn greater than rate 1.
3-It is unaffected during acceleration or during a turn.
4-Any precession of the gyro may be corrected by the pilot by using the slaving knob.
5-Earth rotation and motion through space produces apparent drift from the fixed position in space to which it
A - 1,2,4 and 5
B - 1 ,3,4 and 5
C - 2,3,4 and 5.
D - 1,2,3 and 4.

115. Which of the following employ either an air or electrically driven gyro?
1-Radio Magnetic Indicator
2-Horizon Indicator
3-Turn Coordinator
4-Rate of Turn Indicator
5-Vertical Speed Indicator
6-Heading Indicator
A - 2,3,4,5 and 6
B - 1,2,3 ,5 and 6
C - 1,2,3,4 and 6
D - 1,3,4,5 and 6

116. The function of an engine driven vacuum pump is to create sufficient airflow:
A - across a turbine that, in turn, drives the gyros.
B - through a helical impulse impeller which drives the gyros.
C - onto the gyro rotor to drive it around.
D - through a spiral impeller which drives the gyros.

117. A tied gyro, elemental to a direction indicator has its axis in the horizontal or yawing plane of the
aircraft. It suffers from apparent wander (drift) because of:
A - friction generated by moving parts in the gimbal bearings.
B - fluctuations in vacuum pressure as engine RPM changes.
C rotation of the earth about its axis.
D - its rigidity in space.

118. The gyro of a heading indicator continuously processes during flight operations and should be
regularly realigned with the magnetic compass:
A - when the wings are level during accelerated flight or slowing down.
B - when the wings are level with all non-essential electrical loads switched off.
C - during straight constant speed flight or constant speed climb or descent.
D - when the wings are level in straight and level constant speed flight.

119. A Dl or heading indicator is susceptible to apparent drift which is a function of:

A -rotor speed instability
B - internal friction
C - inherent rigidity in space.
D -Earth rotation about its own axis.

120. If an un-pressurized aircraft is fitted with an alternative static source that is within the cockpit,
A - less.
B - greater.
C - the same.
D -variable as it will be susceptible to temperature difference.

121. Tyre creep may be monitored by:

A -alignment marks painted on and across the tyre wall and wheel flange.
B- two diametrically opposed yellow arrows painted on the tyre side wall.
C -stretch marks on the tyre wall and possible tyre deflation.
D - position and condition of the inflation valve.

122. The operation of a mechanically steered nose wheel is normally accomplished by:
A - cables connected to the aileron control wheel.
B -the use of differential braking technique.
C -push-pull control rods and/ or cables operated by the rudder pedals.
D -a single hydraulic actuator and two way sequence valve.
123. The recommended practice in respect of life jackets for flight in light aircraft over extensive areas
of water is that they should be:
A - stowed under individual seats.
B - worn un-inflated.
C - worn inflated at all times.
D - worn only in the event of ditching as such garments can impede cockpit management

124. If the direction indicator and artificial horizon appear to be functioning correctly but the vacuum
A - blockage to filter on the inlet side of the engine driven vacuum pump.
B - failure of the vacuum gauge.
C failure of the DC electrical supply from the instrument bus bar.
D failure of the AC electrical supply from the instrument bus bar.

125. The A, B, and C component parts of the wing structure illustrated below are:

A B C
A- primary spar framer secondary spar
B- primary spar former rear spar
C- front spar rib rear spar
D- main spar rib tertiary spar
126. A VSI is a rate instrument that senses …X… pressure which it then converts to a rate of change of 
X Y Z
A- static pitot vectorial
B- pitot pitot vertical
C- static static vertical
D- pitot static vertical
127. Aircraft maintenance carried out that does not concur with the maintenance schedule quoted in
A - not affect the validity of the C of A.
B - invalidate the C of A until the required maintenance is completed.
C - require a c of A renewal after the required maintenance has been completed and before the aeroplane is
D - invalidate the previous Certificate of Release to Service as the maintenance schedule will not have been

128. Identify the fuselage components A,B and C illustrated below.

A B C
A - longeron former rib
B -bulkhead longeron former
C - former stringer framer
D - stringer bulkhead rib

129. The function of a flying control stop is to:

A - inhibit excessive control surface movement and prevent damage during gusty conditions.
B - inhibit excessive deflection of the flying control surface by the pilot
C - constrain the control column to its design limits so as not to over stress the airframe during normal
D - inhibit the control column during turbulent flight conditions.

130. Wheel spats that have become heavily contaminated with soil and grass:
A - are designed to be cleared by wheel rotation.
B - must be discarded before the next flight.
C - are designed with a specific volume that will not inhibit normal operations if contaminated.
D - must be removed, cleaned and freed of all contamination and re-fitted before the next flight.

131. Amongst other things, nose wheel shimmy could be caused by either insufficient pressure in the
shimmy damper or:
A - too low a pressure in the nose wheel tyre.
B - failure of the torque link.
C - excessive tyre creep.
D - nose wheel tyre flat spots caused by excessive braking.
132. Pre-flight inspection of the landing gear includes tyre creep, oleo leaks and correct tyre inflation
but should also include an awareness of:
A - tyre flat spots due to aquaplaning or skidding and side wall condition.
B - matching tread patterns of main landing gear tyres.
C - wire locking of schreider inflation valve.
D - wheel freedom of rotation.

133. High cylinder head temperatures can be reduced in flight by:

A - increasing power and airspeed to augment the cooling airflow around the engine..
B - closing the cowl flaps which will increase the cooling airflow over the engine.
C - enriching the fuel/ air mixture to reduce combustion chamber temperature.
D - climbing into colder air thus augmenting the cooling airflow over the engine.

134. In icing conditions, if a static vent became blocked during level flight, during a subsequent climb,
how would (i) the ALTIMETER, (ii) the VSI and (iii) the ASI be affected.
(i) ALTIMETER (ii) VSI (iii) ASI
A - remain static remain static under read
B - remain static under read over read
C - under read remain static over read
D - over read under read under read

135. The most probable cause of vacuum driven gyroscopic instruments that are slow to respond to
changes in aircraft attitude would be.
A - engine driven vacuum pump failure.
B - failure of the vacuum pressure relief valve causing excessive system vacuum pressure.
C - high friction in the gyro bearings.
D - a partial system leak or a partial blockage of the vacuum system air filter.

136. An aircraft piston engine designed with a dry sump lubricating system:
A - employs a scavenge pump that returns the oil from the sump to a storage tank.
B - employs a pressure pump that tops up the oil in the sump from the storage tank.
C - does not employ a storage tank.
D - is gravity fed from a storage tank.

137. In either a wet or dry sump piston engine, the oil pressure sensor is located:
A - on the inlet side off the scavenge pump.
B - on the outlet side of the pressure pump.
C -on the outlet side of the scavenge pump.
D - on the inlet side of the pressure pump.

138. A wet sump engine:

A - stores all of the oil in a sump which usually forms part of the crank case.
B - employs a scavenge pump that returns some of the oil from the sump to a storage tank.
c - employs a small storage tank as it is a legal requirement for a reserve oil quantity to be carried.
D - scavenges all of the oil to the wet sump where it is filtered and pumped to the storage tank and re-

139. The definition of a monocoque structure is:

A - an integral stressed skin with no apertures and no supporting internal structure..
B - a stressed skin with structurally supported apertures.
C - a stressed skin containing a light internal structural framework.
D - an integral stressed skin with no apertures containing a light internal structural framework.

140. Aircraft engines are fitted with cowlings:

A - to protect persons in the vicinity of a live engine.
B - to contain damage in the event of an engine failure.
C - to ensure a smooth airflow meets the wing root leading edge at an optimal angle of attack.
D - to allow air to be ducted around the cylinder heads for cooling purposes and to reduce drag.

141. The static pressure in a carburettor venturi compared to the ambient pressure in the float chamber
A - higher
B - the same.
C - higher or lower as it will be dependent upon the density of the fuel air mixture.
D - lower.

142. As altitude is increased, an adjustment has to made to the fuel/ air mixture because atmospheric:
A - density increases and the fuel/ air mixture is enriched.
B - density decreases and the fuel/ air mixture is enriched.
C - density decreases and the fuel/ air mixture becomes leaner.
D - density increases and the fuel/ air mixture becomes leaner.

143. The function of an accelerator pump fitted to a carburettor is to deliver sufficient fuel to the engine
when the throttle is rapidly advanced. An accelerator pump is usually:
A - a plunger immersed in the float chamber and connected to the throttle via a mechanical linkage.
B - ancillary to the main fuel pump which opens via a valve connected to the throttle linkage and
delivers neat fuel directly to the inlet manifold.
C - manually operated by the pilot to prevent a lean cut when rapidly advancing the throttle.
D - a plunger immersed in the float chamber and connected to the mixture control via a mechanical linkage.

144. With increased altitude, the fuel mixture entering the combustion chamber becomes …(i)… as air 
density …(ii)… . Select one of the four responses below that will correctly complete the above 
(i) (ii)
A - enriched reduces.
B - enriched increases.
C - weaker reduces.
D - weaker increases.

145. An enriched mixture at high power settings is desirable because:

A - the air is denser at high power settings.
B - fuel is a cooling agent.
C - extra power can be generated particularly with prevailing high pressure systems and higher than normal air
D - insufficient fuel at high power settings could result in excessively hot lubricating oil being washed from the
cylinder walls.

146. The tendency for control surfaces to flutter at high speed can be avoided by:
a)    Adjusting servo tabs on the trailing edge
b)    Fitting a mass balance forward of the leading edge of the control surface
c)     Using balance tabs on the leading edge
d)    Fitting spring tabs to the trailing edge

147. The most common type of modern light aircraft fuselage construction is:
a)    Monocoque
b)    Truss or framework construction
c)     Wood and canvass
d)    Semi monocoque/stressed skin

148. Increased lift at lower airspeeds is achieved by deploying:

a) The elevator
b) The trailing edge flaps
c) The rudder
d) The aileron

149. Rotation of the aircraft about its lateral axis is called:

a) Side slipping
b) Roll
c) Yaw
d) Pitch

150. Rotation of the aircraft about its longitudinal axis is known as:
a) Side slipping
b) Roll
c) Yaw
d) Pitch

151. The correct working cycle of a four stroke engine is:

a)    exhaust, power, induction, compression
b)    induction, compression, power, exhaust
c)     induction, power, compression, exhaust
d)    exhaust, induction, power, compression

152. The temperature of the gasses within the cylinder of a four stroke engine during the power stroke,
after completion of combustion:
a)    Decrease
b)    Increase
c)     Follow Charles’s Law
d)    Remain constant

153. Which of the following design features would not increase the effectiveness of the air-cooling of
an aircraft piston engine?
a)    The fitting of baffles and directional air ducts
b)    “Fining” the cylinders
c)    Manufacturing major engine components using low conductivity materials
d)    Fitting cowl flaps and gills

154. By what activation method does the valve which allows oil to either flow through or by-pass a
serviceable engine oil cooler work?
a)    Temperature activated
b)    Pressure activated
c)     Manually activated
d)    Electrically activated

155. Excessive oil pressure can be resolved by using:

a)    An oil pressure relief valve
b)    A thermal cut-out
c)     A radiator
d)    An oil tank overflow

156. The scavenge pump:

a)    Is of a similar design as the pressure pump but has a smaller capacity
b)    Is located at the exit of the oil cooler
c)     Has a fine mesh filter at its outlet to protect the oil cooler matrix
d)    Is of the same design as the pressure pump but has a larger capacity

157. Magnetos are:

a)    Generators, driven by the cam-shaft, used to supply electrical equipment
b)    Used to generate low voltage sparks for the spark plugs
c)     Fitted within the distributor, and fire in the same sequence as the spark plugs
d)    Self-contained, engine-driven, electrical generators which produce high voltage sparks

158. The function of the contact breaker in the primary circuit of a magneto is to:
a)    Allow the magneto to be switched on and off
b)    Time the sparks to the spark plugs
c)    Assist in the collapse of the magnetic field created by the permanent magnet generator
d)    Prevent the build up of excess static charge

159. Of the following statements, which relates factually to an Impulse Coupling?

a)    It supplies a stream of high voltage impulses to a trailing brush on the distributor rotor
b)    It supplies the primary coil of the magneto with a low voltage during engine start
c)    It is a mechanical device which uses a spring to temporarily increase the speed of rotation of the 
d)    All of the above

160. Aircraft engine ignition systems incorporate a means of spark augmentation:

a)    Because, at high engine speeds, a fat spark is needed to extract maximum power from the air-fuel mixture
b)    Because the speed of rotation of the engine, during starting, is too low for the magneto to produce 
sufficient energy to ignite the air-fuel mixture
c)     In order to overcome the problem of spark-retard during starting
d)    All of the above

161. While carrying out the Dead Cut Check, with the right magneto selected, you notice that the engine
filters, and you suspect it will stop running. You should:
a)    Allow the engine to stop completely
b)    Quickly switch to the left magneto
c)     Quickly switch to both magnetos
d)    Open the throttle to keep the engine running, then select both magnetos

162. At what power setting is serious carburettor icing likely to occur if operating at an ambient
temperature of +30°C and a relative humidity of 50%?
a)    Climb power
b)    Cruise power
c)     Take-off power
d)    Descent power
163. Detonation:
a)    Is harmful to the pistons
b)    Is also known as ‘piston slap’
c)     Is part of normal engine running
d)    Cannot be identified externally

164. It is best to run the engine with the mixture:

a)    Slightly rich, as the surplus fuel helps cool the engine
b)    Chemically correct, as this is most efficient
c)     Slightly rich, as the surplus air helps cool the engine
d)    Slightly weak, as the surplus air helps cool the engine

165. As the aircraft climbs, density _____ and the weight of air entering the engine _____. Therefore, the
mixture will become _____.
a)    Decreases    increases      richer
b)    Increases     decreases     weaker
c)    Decreases  decreases    richer
d)    Decreases   decreases     weaker

166. As air enters the restriction of a venturi, its velocity _____, static or ambient pressure _____ and
a)    Increases       increases     increases
b)    Increases    decreases    decreases
c)     Decreases     increases    decreases
d)    Decreases     decreases    increases

167. Some carburettors are fitted with a diffuser which:

a)    Prevents the mixture becoming too lean as the rpm increases
b)    Prevents the mixture becoming too lean as the rpm decreases
c)    Prevents the mixture becoming too rich as the rpm increases
d)    Prevents the mixture becoming too rich as the rpm decreases

168. An accelerator pump is used to prevent a flat spot. A flat spot arises:
a)    When the throttle is opened quickly and the mixture becomes temporarily too rich
b)    When the throttle is closed quickly and the engine is starved of fuel
c)     When the throttle is closed and the mixture becomes temporarily too rich
d)    When the throttle is opened quickly and the mixture becomes temporarily too weak to support 

169. The electrically driven auxiliary fuel pump on a piston engine is located:
a)    At the lowest point of the fuel tank
b)    Upstream of the tank selector valve
c)     In the tank-to-tank fuel transfer line
d)    Upstream of the engine driven pump

170. A fuel priming pump normally delivers fuel directly to:

a)    The induction manifold or inlet valve port
b)    The carburettor float chamber
c)     The combustion chamber
d)    The accelerator pump outlet

171. In the aircraft tanks, fuel is most likely to be contaminated by water from:
a)    Poorly fitting fuel caps
b)    Contamination during refuelling
c)     Leaks in the tanks that have let in rain
d)    Atmospheric air remaining in partially-filled tanks

172. It is important to ensure that the priming pump is locked after use because:
a)    It may cause a fuel leak, result in an increased fire risk
b)    It may cause fuel to be sucked from the fuel tank into the carburettor, causing an extremely rich mixture
c)    It may allow fuel to be sucked from the fuel strainer into the inlet manifold, causing an extremely 
rich mixture
d)    If it vibrates closed, it will cause the engine to stop

173. With a constant throttle setting and a fixed pitch propeller, during acceleration the engine RPM
a)    Increase
b)    Remain unchanged
c)     Decrease
d)    Initially increase, but then decrease
174. As viewed from the cockpit, a clockwise turning propeller, the torque reaction will cause:
a)    The tail to rise
b)    A roll to the left
c)     A roll to the right
d)    The tail to drop

175. Of the following, which will increase the angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller blade?
a)    Increased TAS and increased RPM
b)    Increased TAS and decreased RPM
c)    Decreased TAS and increased RPM
d)    Decreased TAS and decreased RPM

176. For an aircraft with a fixed pitch propeller, propeller efficiency will be:
a)    Low at low TAS and high at high TAS
b)    High at low TAS and low at high TAS
c)     Constant at all airspeeds
d)    Low at both very low TAS and very high TAS and optimum at cruising TAS

177. To correctly set the fuel/air mixture whilst in flight, the control is moved to the lean position until
engine RPM:
a)    Drops and then mixture control is then moved slightly to the RICH side of peak RPM
b)    Rises and then the mixture control is left in that position
c)     Decreases by approximately 150 RPM. The mixture control is then moved slightly more towards the lean 
d)    Decreases. The mixture control os then left in that position

178. The normal method for shutting down an aircraft engine is to:
a)    Switch the starter switch to off
b)    Move the mixture to idle cut-off (ICO)
c)     Close the throttle
d)    Close the throttle and move the mixture to ICO

179. On take-off, the throttle should be operated:

a)    Smoothly, to avoid a weak cut, allowing the engine to respond as fast as it is able, permitting the 
b)    Smoothly, but it may be opened abruptly if several aircraft are waiting to take off
c)     Smoothly, following a count of three
d)    As required by the air traffic situation

180. Below is a schematic diagram of a light aircraft DC electrical system using a centre-zero reading
a)    The battery is fully charged
b)    The alternator has failed
c)     The battery is flat
d)    All electrical loads have been switched off

181. Below is a schematic diagram of a light aircraft DC electrical system. The most probable cause of
a)    The battery is fully charged
b)    The alternator has failed
c)     The battery is flat
d)    All electrical loads have been switched off

182. A double-pole electrical system:

a)    Is not required in aircraft which are made of non-conductive materials
b)    Requires on cable taking the current from the generator or alternator to the component and 
another to complete the circuit back to the generator or alternator
c)     Has the return current flowing back through the metal of the airframe to complete the circuit
d)    Is fail-safe, and so does not require a battery

183. The instruments usually powered by a vacuum pump system are:

  I)  Direction Indicator
  II) Turn Coordinator
  III) Attitude Indicator or Artificial Horizon
IV)Altimeter
  V) Magnetic Compass
a) I and II
b) I and III
c) I, III and IV
d) I, III and V
184. Which of the following is not a component of a dry vacuum system?
a)    A vacuum generator
b)    A vacuum controller
c)     A filter to clean the air
d)    A system lubrication device

185. One disadvantage of a dry vacuum pump when compared to a wet vacuum pump is that:
a)    Dry pumps tend to be less reliable
b)    Dry pumps fail catastrophically with no warning
c)     Dry pumps require regular lubricating
d)    Dry pumps are tolerant of contamination

186. On your instrument panel, the suction gauge is showing system failure. However, the gyro-driven
a)    In the suction gauge
b)    In the suction system
c)     With the low vacuum warning light
d)    In the gyro driven instrument

187. The exhaust gas temperature gauge:

a)    Is an engine instrument designed to protect the engine from excessive heat
b)    Can indicate whether the air-fuel mixture being drawn into the combustion chamber is too lean or 
c)     Requires power from the DC bus-bar
d)    Does the same job as the cylinder head temperature gauge

188. The cylinder head temperature gauge:

a)    Obtains its temperature information from the hottest engine cylinder, by means of a probe 
consisting of two dissimilar metals joined together
b)    Is primarily a fuel management instrument
c)     Requires alternating current to power the instrument needle
d)    Obtains its information from a probe which is installed about four inches from the cylinder head on the 

189. The mechanical tachometer:

a)    Uses the friction generated in a drag-cup to rotate a shaft, which is connected to a pointer, against the 
pressure of a hairspring
b)    Is driven directly from the prop shaft. Gears reduce the speed of rotation so that a generator can be used 
to produce a voltage proportional to shaft speed which is indicated on a gauge calibrated in RPM
c)     Is driven directly from the alternator drive
d)    Works on the principle of a magnetic field being induced in a drag-cup and creating a torque which 
rotates a shaft attached to the pointer on the dial of a tachometer

190. When an aircraft is in flight, the pressure sensed by the forward facing hole in the pitot tube is:
a)    Static pressure only
b)    Total pressure plus dynamic pressure
c)    Dynamic pressure plus static pressure
d)    Dynamic pressure only

191. If an unpressurised aircraft has an alternate static source within the cockpit, the alternate static
a)    Must be selected immediately there is any fluctuations of the Airspeed Indicator
b)    Will be higher than the outside static source
c)     Will be unreliable because of ingress of moisture from the pitot head
d)    Will be lower than the outside static source

192. If the power supply to the pitot heater failed during flight in icing conditions and the aircraft
subsequently descended, the readings on the Altimeter, the VSI and the ASI would, if ice had blocked
the pitot (total pressure) tube:
a)    Read correctly          under-read          over-read
b)    Under-read             read correctly        over-read
c)    Read correctly        read correctly       over-read
d)    Read correctly    Read correctly    under-read

193. What is the purpose of the ball in the Turn and Slip Indicator or Turn Coordinator?
a)    The ball indicates rate of turn
b)    The ball indicates angle of bank
c)    The ball indicates slip and skid
d)    The ball indicates rate of descent in a turn
194. If the variation is west of true north:
a)    Add it to the desired true track to get the correct magnetic heading
b)    Add it to your aircraft’s magnetic heading to get the desired true track
c)     Subtract it from the desired true track to get the correct magnetic heading
d)    The angle of dip will be greatest

195. If the gyroscope of a turn indicator runs at a lower RPM than its design specification, how will the
actual rate of turn of the aircraft compare to the rate of turn shown on the turn indicator?
a) The actual rate of turn of the aircraft will be same as the rate indicated
b) The actual rate of turn of the aircraft will be less than the rate indicated
c) The turn indicator will not indicate a rate of turn
d) The actual rate of turn of the aircraft will be greater than the rate indicated

196. When a compass swing is being carried out:

a)    The location of the aircraft must coincide with a suitable isogonal
b)    It will enable the aircraft’s variation to be determined
c)    The aircraft’s heading compass reading is compared with readings from a highly accurate ‘land’ or 
‘datum’ compass
d)    The whole aircraft must be electrically dead
030
PPL Flight Planning & Performance

01. The stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is Controllable in landing configuration is abbreviated as
a VSO.
b VS1.
c VS.
d VMC.

02. A decrease in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following Consequences on take-off performance:
a a reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb performance
b an increased take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance
c an increased take-off distance and improved initial climb performance
d a reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance

03- A headwind component increasing with altitude, as compared to zero wind condition, (assuming IAS is constant)
a improves angle and rate of climb.
b does not have any effect on the angle of flight path during climb.
c has no effect on rate of climb.
d decreases angle and rate of climb.

04- A constant tailwind

a Decrease the descent distance over ground.
b increases the angle of descent.
c increases the rate of descent.
d Decrease the angle of the descent.
05- The pilot of a light aircraft has calculated a 15000 ft service ceiling, based on the forecast general conditions for the flight and a take-off
mass of 1500 kg. If the take-off mass is 12000 kg, the service ceiling will be:
a higher than 15000 ft.
b lower than 15000 ft.
c only absolute ceiling will change with Mass .
d Service ceiling and absolute ceiling both will be lower than 45000 ft.
06- The centre of gravity of an aeroplane is that point through which the total mass of the aeroplane is said to act. The weight acts in a
direction
a always parallel to the aeroplane's vertical axis.
b parallel to the gravity vector.
c at right angles to the flight path.
d governed by the distribution of the mass within the aeroplane.

07-The centre of gravity of an aeroplane:

a is in a fixed position and is unaffected by aeroplane loading.
b may only be moved if permitted by the regulating authority and endorsed in the aeroplane's
certificate of airworthiness.
c can be allowed to move between defined limits.
d must be maintained in a fixed position by careful distribution of the load.
08- During take-off you notice that, for a given elevator input, the aeroplane rotates much more rapidly than expected. This is an indication
that :
a the aeroplane is overloaded.
b the centre of gravity may be towards the aft limit.
c the centre of gravity is too far forward.
d the centre of pressure is aft of the centre of gravity.
09-If nose wheel of a light aircraft moves forward during gear retraction, how will this movement affect the location of the centre of gravity
(cg) on the aeroplane?
a It will not affect the cg location.
b It will cause the cg to move aft.
c It will cause the cg to move forward.
d The cg location will change, but the direction cannot be told the information given.

10-The stalling speed of an aeroplane will be highest when it is loaded with a:

a high gross mass and aft centre of gravity.
b low gross mass and forward centre of gravity.
c low gross mass and aft centre of gravity.
d high gross mass and forward centre of gravity.
11- With the centre of gravity on the forward limit which of the following is to be expected?
a A decrease of the stalling speed.
b A decrease in the landing speed.
c A decrease in range.
d A tendency to yaw to the right on take-off.

12- Which is true of the aeroplane empty mass?

a It is dry operating mass minus fuel load.
b It is a component of dry operating mass.
c It is dry operating mass minus traffic load.
d It is the actual take-off mass, less traffic load.

13- Dry Operating Mass is the mass of the aeroplane less

a usable fuel and traffic load.
b usable fuel.
c traffic load, potable water and lavatory chemicals.
d usable fuel, potable water and lavatory chemicals.

14- When considering the effects of increased mass on an aeroplane, which of the following is true?
a Flight endurance will be increased.
b Stalling speeds will be lower.
c Gradient of climb for a given power setting will be higher.
d Stalling speeds will be higher.

15- Moment (balance) arms are measured from a specific point to the body station at which the mass is located. That point is known as
a the centre of gravity of the aeroplane.
b the focal point.
c the axis.
d the datum.

16- Which one of the following is correct?

a Arm = Force / Moment
b Arm = Moment / Force
c Moment = Force / Arm
d Arm = Force X Moment

17- Given: Total mass: 7500 kg Centre of gravity (cg) location station: 80.5 Aft cg limit
station: 79.5 How much cargo must be shifted from the aft cargo compartment at
station 150 to the forward cargo compartment at station 30 in order to move the cg
location to the aft limit?
a 65.8 kg.
b 62.5 kg.
c 68.9 kg.
d 73.5 kg.
18- Assume: Aeroplane gross mass: 4750 kg Centre of gravity at station: 115.8 What will be the new position of the centre of gravity if 100 kg
is moved from the station
30 to station 120?
a Station 118.25
b Station 118.33
c Station 117.69
d station 122.23

19- The Density Altitude

a is used to establish minimum clearance of 2.000 feet over mountains.
b is equal to the pressure altitude.
c is used to determine the aeroplane performance.
d is used to calculate the FL above the Transition Altitude.

20- An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on landing performance:
a a reduced landing distance and degraded go around performance
b an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance
c an increased landing distance and improved go-around performance
d a reduced landing distance and improved go-around performance

21- Which of the following combinations will give the most limiting weight if identical slope and wind component values exist?
a an up-sloping runway with a tailwind component
b a down-sloping runway with a tailwind component
c an up sloping runway with a headwind component
d a down-sloping runway with a headwind component

22- How does the best angle of climb and best rate of climb vary with increasing altitude?
a Both decrease.
b Both increase.
c Best angle of climb increases while best rate of climb decreases.
d Best angle of climb decreases while best rate of climb increases.

23- Stalling speed in landing configuration are certified with:

a flap in landing configuration and gear down
b flap in clean configuration and gear down
c flap in take of position and gear down
d flap in clean configuration and gear up

24- Changing the take-off flap setting from high flap like 20° to low flap like 10° will normally result in :
a a shorter take-off distance and an equal climb.
b a longer take-off distance and a better climb.
c a better climb and an equal take-off distance.
d a shorter take-off distance and a better climb.

25. What will be the effect on an aeroplane's performance if aerodrome pressure altitude
is decreased?
a) It will increase the take-off ground run.
b)     It will decrease the take-off distance required.
c) It will increase the take-off distance required.
d) It will increase the accelerate stop distance.

26. Why is trailing edge flap used for landing?

a) The approach speed is increased and a flatter approach path is flown which improves forward vision
b)     The approach speed is reduced and a steeper approach path is flown which improves forward vision
c) The approach speed is reduced and a flatter approach path is flown which improves forward vision
d) The approach speed is increased and a steeper approach path is flown which improves forward vision

27.The length of a clearway may be included in:

a) the accelerate-stop distance available.
b)     the take-off distance available.
c) the take-off run available.
d) the distance to reach lift-off speed.

28.How does runway slope affect allowable take-off mass, assuming other factors remain
constant and not limiting?
a)      A downhill slope increases allowable take-off mass.
b) A downhill slope decreases allowable take-off mass.
c) An uphill slope increases the allowable take-off mass.
d) Allowable take-off mass is not affected by runway slope.

29.Which of the following parameters will decrease the take off ground run?
1 decreasing take off mass
2 increasing take off mass
3 increasing density
4 decreasing density
5 increasing flap setting
6 decreasing flap setting
7 increasing pressure altitude
8 decreasing pressure altitude
a) 2, 4, 5 and 7
b) 2, 3, 6 and 7
c)      1, 3, 5 and 8
d) 1, 4, 6 and 8

30. In which of the following distances can the length of a stopway be included?
a) In the take-off run available.
b) In the all-engine take-off distance.
c) In the one-engine failure case, take-off distance.
d)     In the accelerate stop distance available.

31. Assuming that the required lift exists, which forces determine an aeroplane's angle of
climb?
a) Thrust and drag only.
b)     Weight, drag and thrust.
c) Weight and thrust only.
d) Weight and drag only.

32. How does the best angle of climb and best rate of climb vary with increasing altitude
for an aeroplane with a normal aspirated piston engine?
a) Both increase.
b) Best angle of climb decreases while best rate of climb increases.
c) Best angle of climb increases while best rate of climb decreases.
d)     Both decrease.

33. The angle of climb with flaps extended, compared to that with flaps retracted, will
normally be:
a) Increase at moderate flap setting, decrease at large flap setting.
b) Larger.
c)      Smaller.
d) Not change.

34. Vx and Vy with take-off flaps will be:

a) higher than that for clean configuration.
b) changed so that Vx increases and Vy decreases compared to clean configuration.
c)      lower than that for clean configuration.
d) same as that for clean configuration.

35. What speed, from the figure below, should be flown for maximum range?
a) A
b) B
c)      C
d) D

36. What is the effect of tail wind on the time to climb to a given altitude?
a) The time to climb decreases.
b)     The time to climb does not change.
c) The effect on time to climb will depend on the aeroplane type.
d) The time to climb increases.

37. Other factors remaining constant, how does increasing altitude affect Vx and Vy in terms of TAS?
a) Vx will decrease and Vy will increase.
b) Both will remain the same.
c) Both will decrease.
d)     Both will increase.

38. Considering TAS for maximum range and TAS for maximum endurance, other factors remaining constant,
a) both will decrease with increasing altitude.
b) both will stay constant regardless of altitude.
c)      both will increase with increasing altitude.
d) TAS for maximum range will increase with increased altitude while TAS for maximum endurance will decrease with increased altitude.
39. What effect would a 1% down-slope have on the landing distance required?
a)      Increase it by 5%
b) Decrease it by 5%
c) Increase it by 10%
d) Decrease it by 10%

40. If the stalling speed in the landing configuration is 50 knots, VREF would be:
a)      65 knots
b) 75 knots
c) 71 knots
d) 69 knots

41. What effect will a higher aircraft mass have on the rotate speed and take off safety speed?
a) It will decrease both speeds
b) It will increase rotate speed and decrease take off safety speed
c)      It will increase both speeds
d) It will decrease rotate speed and increase take off safety speed

42. That part of a runway surface which is used for normal operations during take off, excluding any clearway or stopway, is referred to as:
a)      the Take-Off Run Available (TORA)
b) the Accelerate-Stop Distance Available (ASDA)
c) the Take-Off Distance Available (TODA)
d) the Emergency Distance Available (EMDA)

43. What is the effect of an increase in mass on the stalling speed and landing distance required?
a) Increased stalling speed and decreased landing distance
b) Decreased stalling speed and decreased landing distance
c)      Increased stalling speed and increased landing distance
d) Decreased stalling speed and increased landing distance

44. Comparing a forward CG position with an aft one, the forward cg position will cause a

a) decrease of the stalling speed.

b) decrease in the landing speed.
c) decrease in range.
d) tendency to yaw to the right on take-off.

45. The maximum zero-fuel mass:

1- is a regulatory limitation
2- is calculated for a maximum load factor of +3.5 g
3- is based on the maximum permissible bending moment at the wing root
4- is defined on the assumption that fuel is consumed from the outer wings tank first
5- is defined on the assumption that fuel is consumed from the centre wing tank first
The combination of correct statements is:

a) 2, 3, 5
b) 1, 3, 5
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3

46. At the flight preparation stage, the following parameters in particular are available for
determining the mass of the aircraft:

1- Dry operating mass

2- Operating mass

Which statement is correct:

a) The dry operating mass includes take-off fuel.

b) The operating mass includes the traffic load.
c) The operating mass is the mass of the aircraft without take-off fuel.
d) The dry operating mass includes fixed equipment needed to carry out a specific flight.
47. Considering only structural limitations, on long distance flights (at the aeroplane's
maximum range), the traffic load is normally limited by:

a) The maximum take-off mass.

b) The maximum zero fuel mass.
c) The maximum landing mass.
d) The maximum zero fuel mass plus the take-off mass.

48. Given:

Maximum structural take-off mass= 146 900 kg

Maximum structural landing mass= 93 800 kg
Maximum zero fuel mass= 86 400 kg
Trip fuel= 27 500 kg
Block fuel= 35 500 kg
Engine starting and taxi fuel = 1 000 kg
The maximum take-off mass is equal to:

a) 120 900 kg
b) 120 300 kg
c) 113 900 kg
d) 121 300 kg

49. The take-off mass of an aeroplane is 117 000 kg, comprising a traffic load of 18 000 kg
and fuel of 46 000 kg. What is the dry operating mass?

a) 99 000 kg
b) 64 000 kg
c) 71 000 kg
d) 53 000 kg

50.Which is true about the aircraft basic empty mass?

a) It is dry operating mass minus traffic load.
b) It is dry operating mass minus fuel load.
c) It is a component of dry operating mass.
d) It is the actual take-off mass, less traffic load.

51.Loads must be adequately secured in order to:

a) avoid any damage to the freight.
b) avoid unplanned centre of gravity (cg) movement and aircraft damage.
c) prevent excessive 'g'-loading during the landing flare.
d) allow steep turns.

52. Given the following information, calculate the loaded centre of gravity (cg).
__________________________________________________________________
STATION MASS (kg) ARM (cm) MOMENT (kgcm)
___________________________________________________________________
Basic Empty Condition 12045 +30 +361350
Crew 145 -160 -23200
Freight 1 5455 +200 +1091000
Freight 2 410 -40 -16400
Fuel 6045 -8 -48360
Oil 124 +40 +4960

a) 56.53 cm aft datum.

b) 60.16 cm aft datum.
c) 56.35 cm aft datum.
d) 53.35 cm aft datum.

53.Considering the take-off decision speed V1, which of the following is correct?

a) If an engine failure is recognized before reaching V1, the take-off must be aborted.
b) V1 may not be less than V2min, the minimum take-off safety speed.
c) V1 is sometimes greater than the rotation speed VR.
d) If an engine failure is recognized after reaching V1, the take-off must be aborted.

54. What will be the influence on the aeroplane performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is increased?
a) It will increase the take-off distance available.
b) It will increase the take-off distance.
c) It will decrease the take-off run.
d) It will decrease the take-off distance.

55. Which of the following distances will increase if you increase V1, but VR remains unchanged?
a) All Engine Take-off distance
b) Take-off distance
c) Accelerate Stop Distance
d) Take-off run

56. What is the result of a large take off flap setting compared to a small take off flap
setting on required Take-off Distance (TOD) and the field length limited Take-off Mass (TOM)?
a) Decreased TOD required and increased field length limited TOM.
b) Increased TOD required and decreased field length limited TOM.
c) Increased TOD required and increased field length limited TOM.
d) Decreased TOD required and decreased field length limited TOM.

57. Which one of the following is not affected by a tail wind?

a) the obstacle limited take-off mass.
b) the field limited take-off mass.
c) the take-off run.
d) the climb limited take-off mass.

58. Considering VR, which statement is correct?

a) VR is the lowest climb speed after engine failure.
b) VR is the lowest speed for directional control in case of engine failure.
c) VR is the speed at which rotation should be initiated.
d) In case of engine failure below VR the take-off should be aborted.

59. Which of the following sets of factors will increase the climb-limited TOM (every factor considered independently)?
a) Low flap setting, low PA, low OAT.
b) Low flap setting, high PA, low OAT.
c) Low flap setting, high PA, high OAT.
d) High flap setting, low PA, low OAT.

60. An aeroplane is in a power off glide at speed for minimum glide angle. If the pilot increases pitch attitude the glide distance:
a) increases.
b) decreases.
c) remains the same.
d) may increase or decrease depending on the type of aeroplane.

61. (CAP 698 Performance Manual SEP1 Figure 2.4 )

With regard to the graph for landing performance, what is the minimum headwind
component required in order to land at the airport which the properties are given below?
Given:
Runway length: 1300 ft, Runway elevation: MSL
Weather: assume ISA conditions
Mass: 3200 lbs
Obstacle height: 50 ft

a) 10 kt.
b) 15 kt.
c) No wind.
d) 5 kt.
62.Two identical aeroplanes at different masses are descending at idle thrust. Which of the following statements correctly describes their
descent characteristics ?
a) At a given angle of attack the lighter aeroplane will always glide further than the heavier aeroplane.
b) There is no difference between the descent characteristics of the two aeroplanes.
c) At a given angle of attack, both the vertical and the forward speed are greater for the heavier aeroplane.
d) At a given angle of attack the heavier aeroplane will always glide further than the lighter aeroplane.

63. The maximum speed in horizontal flight occurs when:

a) The thrust is equal to minimum drag.
b) The maximum thrust is equal to the total drag.
c) The thrust is equal to the maximum drag.
d) The thrust does not increase further with increasing speed.
If Center of
Gravity (CG)
Reduction in Reduction Reduction in
is close to Better climb
specific fuel at climb induction C
forward limit, rate
consumption rate drag
what will be
its effect?
Dry Useful load
TOM –OM Landing Take-Off
Operating –
(Operating Mass(LM) + Mass(TOM) D
Mass (DOM) Operating
mass) Trip fuel – Useful load
= mass
What is given
name that
determined
by the
manufacturer
of the
aircraft,
specified in
Aircraft Flight Moment Moment
CG limits Datum A
Manual limits arm
(AFM) and
allowed to fly
an aircraft
and the
forward and
aft positions
of center of
gravity ?
What is the
mass of a
2250 lt. fuel
having a 2743 kg. 1845 kg. 18450 kg. 1020 kg. B
specific
gravity of
0.82?
If the Centre It is easier to
of Gravity is maintain the
Spin Reduce
in behind of Decrease glide angle
recovery range and
the aft limit, longitudinal due to
becomes endurance D
which one of static aircraft
more due to the
the following stability pitching
difficult. extra drag.
is not one of upward
its effects? trend.
If trip fuel is
subtracted
Maximum
from take-off Maximum Zero fuel
take-off Traffic load B
mass, the landing mass mass
mass
result should
not exceed:
In calculation
before flight ,
if CG moves
out of its Load or
limits during luggage in
flight, it aircraft is Removing
Adding mass. All. D
should be moved to mass.
rearranged other
until location.
balancing.
How do you
make it?
The runway
length which
is used for
take-off run, Accelarate Take-off
Take-off Landing
issued by the and Stop Run
Distance Distance
relevant Distance Distance C
Available Available
authorities Available Available
(TODA) (LDA)
and has (ASDA) (TORA)
adequate
conditions is
named:
The runway
extension
which is used
Stopway Clearway TODA TORA A
for stopping
during take-
off is:
Which of
these speeds
is read on the
indicator that
is
uncorrected IAS CAS EAS
TAS (True Air
against (Indicated (Calibrated (Equivalent A
Speed)
factors such Air Speed) Air Speed) Air Speed)
as altitude,
air
temperature
and position
errors?
Which of
these speeds
is obtained
IAS EAS
from GS (Ground TAS (True Air
(Indicated (Equivalent D
Calibrated Air Speed) Speed)
Air Speed) Air Speed)
Speed (CAS)
with air
density and
altitude
corrections?

When engine
failure or any
other
emergency
situation
occurs during
the takeoff V1 V2 VLOF VS A
run, the
speed that
pilot decides
whether to
continue or
not, is:
Which of the
following is Width,
Width of
not one of length and Relative air Angle of
vertical D
the factors shape of the flow attack
stabilizer
that affects wing profile
lift force?
Which is not
a factor
affecting the Weight Excess thrust Altitude Wind D
angle of the
climb?
What will
be the sink
rate? Is it
Which
possible to
factor/factors
make a
should be
How far can What is the successful
considered
the aircraft endurance of landing All D
by pilots
glide? the aircraft? with
relating with
stopped
gliding
engine
performance:
with this
type of
aircraft?
Which of the
followings
Number of
does not Glide angle Glide rate Wind D
engines
affect gliding
perfomance?
Which of the The slope of
followings the runway Landing mass
Wind
does not and and landing RPM effect D
effect
affect landing hydroplaning speed effect
distance? effect
Which of the
followings
does not
Aircraft mass Altitude Heading Temperature C
affect
maximum
flight range?

The ground
The ground
roll distance The landing
Which one is roll distance The landing
is the distance is
the correct is the distance is the
horizontal the horizontal
statement horizontal horizontal
distance distance from A
about the distance distance from
from brake brake release
landing from touchdown to
release to to the screen
performance? touchdown stop
the screen height
to stop
height
has no effect
has no effect
on climb has no effect increases
A headwind on glide angle
angle and on climb and climb and A
component, and increases
increases glide angles. glide angles.
climb angle.
glide angle.
is defined as
is defined as
the angle
the angle
increases between
The flight is not affected between
with a longitudinal A
path angle by headwind. chord and
headwind . axis and
relative
relative
airflow.
airflow.
How can the
forces acting
Drag is equal
on an If there is no
to a Lift is equal Weight is
aeroplane be thrust, there is A
component to drag. equal to lift.
balanced no drag.
of weight.
during a
glide?
What is the
difference
Traffic load
between Traffic load Crew only Fuel only A
and crew
DOM and
ZFM?
does not
Increasing increases increases climb does not
affect climb A
temperature, TODR. angle. affect TODR.
angle.
Which one of
Increasing Decreasing
these Down flap
mass and up mass and Decreasing
conditions configuration A
flap down flap mass only
increases the only
configuration configuration
Vmd speed?
In the landing
configuration,
the
if the speed the aeroplane
aeroplane the the aeroplane
of the needs shorter
needs longer aeroplane stops at same A
aeroplane at distance to
distance to can not stop. distance.
threshold is stop.
stop.
greater than
Vref;
What will be
It decreases It decreases It increases
the effect of It increases the
the climb the climb the climb
larger flap climb angle
angle angle angle A
setting on the because of
because of because of because of
climb drag.
drag. lift. lift.
performance?
What is the
relationship
V1≤VR V2≤VR V2≤V1 V2=VR A
between take
off speeds?
the
approach
If the actual the landing
the landing the approach path will be
landing mass distance will
distance will path will be steeper and A
is higher than be
be longer. steeper. threshold
planned, unaffected.
speed
higher.
The the thrust
the
maximum does not
maximum the thrust is
speed in increase the drag is
thrust is equal to A
horizontal further with minmum.
equal to the minimum drag.
flight occurs increasing
total drag.
when: speed.
Regarding
unaccelerated
dependent independent a function of a function of
horizontal
on aircraft of the aircraft the pressure the density A
flight,
mass. mass. altitude. altitude.
Minimum
Drag is:
Which term is
used to
describe the
altitude
where the Service Pressurisation Aerodynamic Absolute
A
rate of climb ceiling ceiling ceiling ceiling
reduces to a
specified
value higher
than zero?
TÜRKÇE SORULAR

Ağırlık
Merkezi(Center of
Spesifik yakıt İndükleme
Gravity-CG)’nin Daha iyi tırmanış Tırmanış
sarfiyatında sürüklemesinde C
ön limite yakın oranı oranında azalma
azalma azalma
olmasının etkisi
nedir?
Kuru Operasyon LM +
Faydalı yük(UL) – Kalkış
Kütlesi(Dry TOM – İşletim Yolculuk
işletim Kütlesi(TOM) – D
Operating Mass- kütlesi(OM) yakıtı(Trip
kütlesi(OM) Faydalı yük(UL)
DOM) = Fuel)
İmalatçı
tarafından
belirlenen, uçak
manuelinde
belirtilen ve bir
Datum
uçağın uçmasına CG limitleri Moment limitleri Moment kolu A
hatları
izin verilen en ileri
ve en geri ağırlık
merkezi
pozisyonlarına ne
isim verilir?
Özgül ağırlığı 0.82
olan 2250 litre 2743 1845 18450 1020 B
yakıt kaç kg.dır?
Uçaktaki yukarı
Ekstra yunuslama
CG arka limitin
Uzunluk sürüklemeden eğilimi
arkasında ise Spinden çıkış
eksenindeki dolayı menzil ve nedeniyle D
etkilerinden zorlaşır.
stabilite azalır. havada kalış süzülüş açısını
değildir?
azalır. muhafaza
kolaylaşır.
Uçağın kalkış
ağırlığından, uçuş
boyunca yakacağı
Maksimum
yakıt ağırlığı Maksimum Kalkış Sıfır Yakıt
İniş Trafik Yükü(TL) B
çıkarıldığında bu Kütlesi (MTOM) Kütlesi (ZFM)
Kütlesi(MLM)
değer hangi
değeri
geçmemelidir?
Yerde hesaplama
sırasında; uçuşun
herhangi bir
aşaması için CG
limit dışında Uçaktaki yükün ya
Kütle Hepsi
hesaplanırsa, yük da bagajın yerini Kütle çıkararak. D
ekleyerek. doğrudur.
dengeye gelene değiştirerek.
kadar ayarlama
yapılmalıdır. Bunu
ne şekilde
yaparsınız?
İlgili otorite
Mevcut
tarafından
Mevcut Hızlanma Kalkış Mevcut Kalkış Mevcut İniş
yayınlanmış ve
ve Durma Mesafesi Mesafesi Koşu Mesafesi Mesafesi
kalkış yapacak
(Accelarate and (Take-off (Take-off Run (Landing C
uçağın yerdeki
Stop Distance Distance Distance Distance
koşusu için yeterli
Available-ASDA) Available- Available-TORA) Available-LDA)
şartları taşıyan
TODA)
pist uzunluğudur.
Kalkış esnasında
durmak için
kullanılabilen ek Stopway Clearway TODA TORA A
pist uzantısına ne
denir?
Hangisi, irtifa,
hava sıcaklığı,
pozisyon hatası
gibi etkenlere
CAS
karşı IAS (Indicated Air EAS (Equivalent TAS (True Air
(Calibrated A
düzeltilmemiş Speed) Air Speed) Speed)
Air Speed)
olarak hız
göstergesinden
okunan hız
değeridir?
Hangisi CAS
hızının, uçulan
ortamdaki hava
yoğunluğu ve IAS (Indicated Air GS (Ground EAS (Equivalent TAS (True Air
D
yükseklik dikkate Speed) Speed) Air Speed) Speed)
alınarak
hesaplanmış
halidir?
Kalkışta motor
veya herhangi bir
arıza esnasında
pilotun kalkışa
V1 V2 VLOF VS A
devam edip
etmeyeceğine
karar vereceği hız
hangisidir?
Aşağıdakilerden
Hava
hangisi kaldırma Kanat kesitinin Dikey
akımının
kuvvetine tesir şekli, genişliği ve Hücum açısı. stabilizenin D
sürati (nisbi
eden faktörlerden uzunluğu. genişliği.
akım).
değildir?
Hangisi, tırmanış
Fazla thrust
açısını etkileyen
Ağırlık (Excess İrtifa Rüzgar D
faktörlerden
thrust)
değildir?
Pilotun göz Uçak ne Çökme oranı ne
Uçak ne kadar
önünde kadar havada olacaktır ve Hepsi D
uzağa süzülebilir?
bulundurması kalacaktır? uçulan uçak tipi
gereken süzülüş durmuş motor ile
performansı ile başarılı bir iniş
ilgili faktörler; yapabilir mi?
Hangisi, süzülüş
performansını
etkileyen Süzülüş açısı Süzülüş oranı Rüzgar Motor sayısı D
faktörlerden
değildir?
Hangisi, iniş
mesafesini Pistin eğimi ve İniş ağırlığı
Motor devir
etkileyen hydroplaning (su ve iniş hızının Rüzgarın etkisi, D
sayısı
faktörlerden yastığı) etkisi, etkisi,
değildir?
Hangisi
maksimum uçuş
menzilini
Uçak kütlesi İrtifa İstikamet Sıcaklık C
etkileyen
faktörlerden
değildir?
 PPL Uçuş Performans

Öğrenci No
Adı Uçuş Performans
Soyadı
Sınıfı Sınav Süresi: 01:00
Tarih

İmza

Sınav Talimatı

 Öğrenciler AFA Tanıtım kartlarını sınava getirmek ve sınav sırasında

masalarının sağ üst bölümüne yerleştirmek zorundadır.
 Sınav salonuna kitap, kağıt, doküman, ve/veya resim gibi malzemelerin
getirilmesi yasaktır. Çanta, kulaklık gibi cihazlarda sınav saloununda
bulundurulmamalıdır.
 Grafik, diyagram vb. şekillerin dışında kalan tüm yazılar tükenmez kalem ile
yazılmalıdır.
 Hesaplamar için Gözetmenden boş beyaz kağıt istenebilir. Bu kağıtlarda sınav
kağıtları ile birlikte Gözetmene teslim edilecektir.
 Sınav bitiminde, cevap kağıtları toplanana kadar tüm öğrenciler yerlerinde
oturmalı ve beklemelidir.
 Aksi belirtilmedikçe, sınav salonundan dışarıya kullanılmış ve/veya
kullanılmamış kağıtların çıkartılması yasaktır.
 Sınav kurallarına ters düşen hertürlü malzemenin kullanımı engellenecektir.
 Gözetmen ile iletişim kurmak isteyen öğrenci el kaldırarak izin istemelidir.
 Gözetmenin izni olmadan bir öğrenci oturduğu yerden kalkamaz.

Öğrenci No: __________

 PPL Uçuş Performans

Aşağıda verilen çoktan seçmeli sorularda bir adet doğru şık bulunmaktadır. Doğru olan şıkkı
işaretleyiniz.

1) Which of the following documents must be carried by aircraft engaged in international air
navigation?
A) Certificate of Airworthiness
B) Certificate of Registration
C) Crew licenses
D) all of the above

2) A British Airways scheduled flight takes off from Heathrow and terminates in Frankfurt,
Germany where it disembarks passengers. This flight is exercising Freedom:
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5

3) Which of the following statements is correct concerning ICAO States?

1. a scheduled air service does not require the permission of another State to
operate through its territory
2. Fuel, oil and stores carried by an aircraft of State A which lands in State B
are not subject to Customs duty if they are retained on board
3. a non-scheduled air service does not require permission of another State to
operate through its territory
4. State A has the right to refuse permission to an aircraft of State B to carry
passengers, mail or cargo from one point to another in State A
A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 2, 3, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 3, 4

4) The liability of owners or operators of aircraft for damage to third persons or property on
the ground or water was discussed at the:
A) Montreal Convention
B) Rome Convention
C) Le Hague Convention
D) Tokyo Convention

5) Where can you find information on Search and Rescue procedures?

A) Annex 14
B) Annex 12
C) Annex 17
D) Annex 5

6) One of the following conventions regulates the liability of the air carrier to Passengers and
Consignors?
A) The Montreal convention
B) The Hague convention
C) The Warsaw convention
D) The Rome convention
Öğrenci No: __________
 PPL Uçuş Performans

7) The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) was formed as a result of:
A) The Geneva convention
B) The Maastricht convention
C) The Treaty of Rome
D) The Chicago convention

8) The age of an applicant for a CPL shall not be less than ……….. years of age?
A) 17 years of age
B) 18 years of age
C) 16 years of age
D) 21 years of age

9) Which one of the following Annexes includes minimum specifications for a crew license?
A) Annex 2
B) Annex 1
C) Annex 11
D) Annex 13

10) What is the minimum and maximum age for the public transport flight with airline
transport pilot license is according to Annex?
A) 21 and 59 years
B) 18 and 60 years
C) 20 and 64 years
D) 18 and 59 years

11) A JAR FCL pilot license is issued for a maximum period of:
A) 2 years
B) 3 years
C) 5 years
D) 10 years

12) “TODA” take-off distance available is:

A) The length of the runway available plus the length of clearway available (if provided)
B) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of clearway available (if provided)
C) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway and clearway (if provided)
D) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway

13) How many red lights must a pilot see, whose aircraft, in final approach, is following a normal glide
path defined by a PAPI?
A) 1 B) 3 C) None D) 2

Öğrenci No: __________

 PPL Uçuş Performans

14) A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth is:
A) Flight Information Region.
B) Control zone.
C) Advisory airspace.
D) Control area

15) Aerodrome traffic is:

A) All traffic on the maneuvering area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome
B) All traffic on the maneuvering area.
C) All traffic on the movement area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome.
D) All traffic in the aerodrome circuit.

16) Which procedure you follow if during an IFR flight in VMC you have two way communication
failures?
A) Continue the flight at the assigned level and route; start approach at your ETA.
B) Continue the flight maintaining VMC and land as soon as practicable.
C) Maintain your assigned level and route and land at the nearest aerodrome that has VMC
conditions.
D) Return to the aerodrome of departure.

17) The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off runs available
prepared as a suitable area where:
A) An aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off
B) A landing aircraft can be stopped if overcoming the end of runway.
C) A landing aircraft can be stopped only in emergency.
D) An aircraft taking-off or landing can be stopped.

18) “ASDA” (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is:

A) The length of the runway plus the length of stopway available (if stopway provided)
B) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway (if stopway provided)
C) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway and clearway (if provided)
D) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway

19) “Clearway” is defined rectangular area established to:

A) Permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height.
B) Reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running off a runway.
C) Protect aircraft during take-off or landing operations.
D) Permit the aircraft to stop if it fails the take-off.

20) The Conventions of The Hague, Montreal and Tokyo apply to:
A) Civil, military, Police and Customs aircraft
B) Civil, military and Police aircraft
C) Civil and military aircraft
D) Civil aircraft

Öğrenci No: __________

 PPL Uçuş Performans

21) Which part of the AIP contains information relating to existing prohibited, restricted and
danger areas?
A) AD
B) GEN
C) ENR
D) The AIP does not contain this information

22) What does ICAO Annex 18 regulate?

A) The Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods
B) Aerodromes
C) Personnel Licensing
D) Air Traffic Services

23) Accelerate Stop Distance Available (ASDA) is ………………………………………

A) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway and clearway.
B) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway.
C) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway.
D) The length of the take-off run available.

24)Clearway is an area established to …………………………………

A) reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running off a runway.
B) permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height.
C) save aircraft during take-off or landing.
D) an aircraft can stop in case of an abandoned take-off.

25) Runway threshold lights shall be ………………………………….

A) fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway.
B) fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of approach to the runway.
C) fixed lights showing green.
D) fixed lights showing white.

26) Aerodrome signs shall be in the following configuration:

A) mandatory instruction signs: black background with red inscriptions.
B) mandatory instruction signs: red background with black inscriptions.
C) information signs: red background with black inscriptions.
D) information signs: yellow or black background with black or yellow inscriptions.

27) What shall be the length of approach lighting system for precision approach CAT II and III?
A) 900m
B) 420m
C) 270m
D) 300m

28) In the visual approach slope indicator system, VASIS, how many light units shall be in each wing
bar?
A) 3
B) 5
C) 2
D) 4

Öğrenci No: __________

 PPL Uçuş Performans

29) The aerodrome category for rescue and firefighting shall be based on ……………..
A) the length of aero plane
B) longest aero planes normally using the aerodrome and their fuselage width
C) the width of aero plane
D) the weight of aero plane

30) Aerodrome Identification Beacon at a land aerodrome shall show………….

A) flashing yellow
B) flashing white and green
C) flashing blue
D) flashing green

31) Taxiway edge lights shall be ………………………………..

A) fixed blue lights
B) fixed green lights
C) fixed yellow lights
D) flashing blue lights.

32) In the PAPI system, the pilot will see the two units nearest the runway as red and the two units
farthest from the runway as white when……….
A) below the approach slope
B) above the approach slope
C) on the approach slope
D) on or close to the approach slope.

33) The runway end safety area should extend from the end of a runway strip at least ……
A) 90 m
B) 60 m
C) 50 m
D) 70 m

34) Taxiway center line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be ………………………..
A) fixed lights showing blue
B) fixed lights showing white
C) fixed lights showing green
D) fixed lights showing green and yellow.

35) When the runway width is 45m, the number of stripes shall be ……………………..
A) 6
B) 8
C) 12
D) 16

36) The objective of the investigation of an accident or incident shall be the

A) prevention of accidents and incidents in order to help court process
B) prevention of accidents and incidents
C) prevention of accidents and incidents to establish liability of airlines
D) help the aircraft manufacturers

Öğrenci No: __________

 PPL Uçuş Performans

37) Who is responsible for the initiation of an accident investigation?

A) The Authority of the State in which the accident took place.
B) The Operators of the same aircraft type.
C) The aircraft manufacturer.
D) The State of the design and manufacturer.

38) The national civil aviation security program shall be established by

A) ECAC and the contracting state
B) ICAO
C) ICAO and ECAC
D) Each contracting state

39)Which of the following statements concerning changes to AIP information is correct?

Permanent changes are published as AIP Amendments or AIP Supplements
Temporary changes whose duration is 3 months or more are published as AIP Supplements
Permanent changes are published as AIP Amendments
Temporary changes whose duration is less than 3 months but which contain extensive text
or graphics are published as AIP Supplements
A) 1,2,4
B) 1,4
C) 2,3,4
D) 1,2

40)A NOTAM will be sent by;

A) Second-class post
B) First-class post
C) Teleprinter (telex)
D) Telephone

Öğrenci No: __________

 PPL Uçuş Performans

What is the main To ensure that To ensure that To decrease To increase A

reason for the aircraft is the aircraft is stability and aileron
determining a both stable not overloaded inscrease effectiveness
forward and an aft and controllability
CG limit? controllable

Before each flight, I II I and II Neither I nor C

we need to check II
the mass and
balance of the
aircraft in order:

I. To ensure that
the aircraft is not
overloaded
II. To ensure that
the centre of gravity
is in limits
If the Maximum Decrease the Take off Plan load Pull the A
Take-Off Mass is load carefully shifting control stick
exceeded before between harder
flight, a pilot cargo
should: compartments

If the Centre of Take off Pull the control Plan load Push the C
Gravity is in front of carefully stick harder shifting to stick more
the forward limit, a bring the CG
pilot should in the limits

A light aircraft is 30 lt 2.16 kg 30 kg 21.6 kg D

loaded with 30 litres
of AVGAS with a
specific gravity of
0.72. How would
you enter the fuel
mass in the mass &
balance sheet?
What is the mass of 69.4kg 36kg 63kg 72kg B
a 50lt fuel having a
specific gravity of
0.72?

Öğrenci No: __________

 PPL Uçuş Performans

The position of the Dividing the Dividing the Subtracting Subtracting A

centre of gravity can total moment total mass by the total mass the total
always be by the total the total from the total moment from
determined by: mass. moment. moment. the total
mass.

Select the correct The safe The safe range The safe The safe C
statement for the range falls falls between range falls range falls
CG safe range: between the the front and between the between the
front and rear rear CG limits front and rear front and rear
CG limits but but only CG limits and CG limits but
does not includes the aft includes both only includes
include them. limit. limits. the fwd limit.
If all the moments Nose, or Trailing edge of Centre line of Main wheels A
are positive when forward of the the wing. the nose or centreline.
calculating mass aircraft. tail wheel
(weight) and depending on
balance, the the aircraft
position of the type.
datum would be at
the:
The distance from the force. the moment. the index. the moment D
the datum to the arm or
Centre of Gravity of balance arm.
a mass is known as

The datum for At the fire But does not Between the Between the B
determining the CG wall. have to be nose and the leading and
has to be along the between the tail. trailing edge
longitudinal axis: nose and the of the MAC.
tail.

If the maximum The aircraft No damage will No damage The D

structural landing will be unable occur providing will occur undercarriage
mass is exceeded: to get the aircraft is providing the could
airborne. within the aircraft is collapse on
regulated within the landing.
landing mass. performance
limited
landing mass.
In cruise flight, a decrease not change the increase have no A
centre of gravity longitudinal manoeuvrability longitudinal effect on
moving aft will: static stability static stability longitudinal
static stability

Öğrenci No: __________

 PPL Uçuş Performans

Who establishes the The insurers The State of The JAA The D
limits C of G? Authority manufacturer

When the centre of extremely extremely extremely extremely C

gravity is at the unstable and stable and stable and will
unstable and
forward limit, an require small require small require require
aeroplane will be: elevator elevator control excessive excessive
control to to change pitch. elevator elevator
change pitch. control to control to
change pitch.
change pitch.
If an extra load is Decrease. Increase Stay the Change B
loaded into an same. depending on
aircraft the stall whether the
speed is likely to: load was
placed FWD
or AFT of the
C of G.
For a given to the to the maximum to a low total to a low total A
configuration, the maximum allowable mass mass with the mass with the
stall speed of an allowable with the most most aft CG. most forward
aeroplane will be mass with the aft CG. CG.
highest when most forward
loaded: CG.

If the centre of become become lighter become become D

gravity of an heavier making the lighter making heavier
aeroplane moves making the aeroplane more the aeroplane making the
forward during flight aeroplane easy to more difficult aeroplane
the elevator control more easy to manouevre in to manouevre more difficult
will : manouevre in pitch. in pitch. to manouevre
pitch. in pitch
The centre of point; mass; datum; datum; mass; point; A
gravity is the … on downwards moment; upwards moment;
an aircraft through downwards upwards
which the total … is
considered to act
vertically …

Öğrenci No: __________

040
 HUMAN PERFORMANCE PPL QUESTIONS

1. Complete the following statement. In the ICAO Standard Atmosphere (ISA), as altitude increases in the Troposphere, air density:
decreases.
also increases.
stays the same.
will not be affected as air density is independent of altitude.

2. Complete the following statement. In the ICAO Standard Atmosphere (ISA), as altitude increases in the Stratosphere,
temperature:
also increases.
decreases.
fluctuates between positive and negative temperatures.
remains almost constant at -56 degrees Celsius.

3. Complete the following statement. In the ICAO Standard Atmosphere (ISA), as altitude increases in the Troposphere,
pressure:
also increases.
decreases.
stays the same.
will not be affected as pressure is independent of altitude.

4. Complete the following statement. At altitude the pressure of oxygen in the atmosphere is:
the same as at mean sea level (MSL).
higher than at MSL.
lower than at MSL
unaffected, as partial pressure is independent of altitude.

5. At what altitude will atmospheric pressure be approximately half that at sea-level?

36,000 ft.
18,000 ft.
10,000 ft.
8000 ft.
6. As an unpressurised aircraft climbs the amount of oxygen available to the pilot decreases because of:
a decrease in atmospheric pressure.
a decrease in atmospheric temperature.
a decrease in the proportion of oxygen in the atmosphere.
an increase in the proportion of nitrogen in the atmosphere.

7. In which layer or layers of the atmosphere do conventional aircraft fly?

i. The Troposphere
ii. The Stratosphere
iii. The Ionosphere
i and ii.
ii and iii.
i and iii.
i only.

8. Complete the following statement. The ICAO Standard Atmosphere (ISA) sea-level pressure is equal to:
1013.25 mb.
1014.00 mb.
1014.25 Hpa.
50 inches of mercury.

9. In the Earth's Atmosphere, how does the proportion of Oxygen in the air change with altitude?
As altitude increases, the proportion of Oxygen in the air decreases.
As altitude increases, the proportion of Oxygen in the air increases.
There is no change in the proportion of Oxygen in the air with changing altitude. It remains constant throughout the Atmosphere.

In the Troposphere, the proportion of Oxygen in the air decreases with increasing altitude, but remains constant throughout the
Stratosphere.

10. Complete the following statement. In the ICAO Standard Atmosphere (ISA), as altitude increases in the Troposphere,
temperature:
also increases.
decreases.
stays the same.
will not be affected as it is independent of altitude.

11. Complete the following statement. If the atmospheric pressure decreases, the partial pressure of the oxygen in the
atmosphere will:
increase.
decrease.
stay the same.
not be affected as it is independent of atmospheric pressure.

12. Complete the following statement. At altitude, the volumetric proportion of oxygen in the atmosphere is:
the same as at mean sea level (MSL).
higher than at MSL.
lower than at MSL.
dependent on the actual altitude.

13. If a pilot's body is short of oxygen, he will suffer from:

Hyperventilation.
Anoxia.
Hypsigiena.
Hypoxia.

14. Which body system is responsible for distributing oxygen around the body?
a) The Nervous System.
b)The Respiratory System.
c) The Circulatory System.
d)The Oxidation System.

15. Which of the following is not a part of the human ear?

Tympanum.
Semi-circular canal.
Cornea.
Otoliths.

16. Suffering from the "bends" is a result of which gas coming out of solution from the blood?
Carbon dioxide.
Carbon monoxide.
Oxygen.
Nitrogen.

17. After donating blood, what is the minimum time a pilot should wait before flying?
2 hours.
12 hours.
24 hours.
48 hours.

18. Which gas, which is absorbed by the body during normal breathing, plays an important role in decompression sickness?

Oxygen.
Carbon Dioxide.
Carbon Monoxide.
Nitrogen.

19. Which of the following gases, causes to hyperventilations semptoms?

Oxygen.
Nitrogen.
Carbon Dioxide.
Carbon Monoxide.

20. Hyperventilation is a problem which:

does not affect healthy people.
only affects the elderly.
only occurs at altitudes higher than those at which normal light aircraft operations take place.
pilots should be familiar with and know how to control.

21. Following a deep dive, a scuba diver ascending too rapidly to the surface may suffer from a condition known as
"decompression sickness" or the "bends". The same condition may occur in a pilot who flies too high very soon after scuba
diving. Decompression sickness is caused by the release of bubbles of which gas from the blood?

Carbon Dioxide.
Oxygen.
Water Vapour.
Nitrogen.
22. At low altitudes if your passenger started to breathe abnormally and display some of the signs of hypoxia, he is probably
suffering from:
Hyperventilation.
Motion sickness.
Carbon monoxide poisoning.
Hypothermia.
23. Complete the following statement. When a person is experiencing stress or fear, adrenaline is released into the blood stream
causing immediate:
fatigue.
loss of consciousness.
decrease in the pulse-rate.
increase in the pulse-rate.

24.  What is the composition of gas in the troposphere?

a) %78 O2 %21 Nitrogen % 1 Other gases
b) %21 O2 %78 Nitrogen % 1 Helium
c) %78 O2 %21 Nitrogen % 1 Hydrogen
d) %21 O2 %78 Nitrogen % 1 Other gases

25.  What part of the eye is responsible for the greatest part of the focusing?
a) Iris
b) Cornea
c) Lens
d) Pupil

26.  What is the name of the part of the retina on which best acuity is achieved?
a) Optic nerve
b) Optic chiasma
c) Fovea
d) Optic centre
27.  What are two functions of the ear?
a) Hearing and filtering noise
b) Hearing and balance
c) Balance and filtering noise
d) Hearing noise and filtering balance

28.  What is the current approach to human error?

Realization that humans are infallible and that systems and procedures should be brought into line to prevent system/procedural errors
Realization that humans are fallible and that systems and procedures should be designed to minimize human error
Realization that humans are infallible and that systems/procedures should be designed to minimize human error
Realization that humans are fallible and that systems and procedures should be brought into line to prevent system and procedural errors

29.  What are the three cognitive elements necessary to create and adequate situational awareness?
Where is the aircraft, how is the weather, how is the fuel doing
Where is the aircraft, where could the aircraft be, what is the safe endurance
Where is the aircraft, where is it going, how is the fuel doing
Where is the aircraft, where has it been, where is it going

30.  What are the categories into which stress is divided?

Acute and severe
Severe and chronic
Acute and chronic
Mental and physical
d)

31.  Select from the following list environmental stressors?

Heat
Humidity
Divorce
Lack of rest
Loss of job
Noise

1, 2, 3, 6
1, 2, 4, 6
1, 2, 6
1, 2, 3, 5, 6

33.  What are the two biological functions for sleep?

Sleep refreshes the body and the brain
Sleep refreshes the long term and short term memories
Sleep ensures homeostasis in the bodies’ internal and external environment
Sleep reduces the body functions and increases the long term memory store

34. Complete the following statement. After SCUBA diving to a depth of just over 30 ft, using compressed air, it is recommended
that a person does not fly for:
12 hours.
24 hours.
48 hours.
6 hours.

35. That part of atmospheric pressure caused by the presence of Oxygen in the air is known as:
Liquid Oxygen.
Air Pressure.
The Partial Pressure of Oxygen.
Vacuum.

36. Compared to a non-smoker, someone who smokes is likely to experience the effects of hypoxia at…
a higher altitude.
a lower altitude.
the same altitude.
any altitude.

37. A likely symptom, or likely symptoms, of Hypoxia might be….

cyanosis.
increased heart rate.
formication.
all of the above.

38. Why do aircrew and passengers suffer from lack of Oxygen at high altitude?
Because of the rapid decrease in temperature with altitude.
Because of the decrease in the proportion of Oxygen in the air with increasing altitude,
Because the air at altitude is thin.
Because of the lower atmospheric pressure at altitude.
39. The condition whereby the body does not receive enough oxygen to function correctly is known as…
Hypotension.
Hyperventilation.
Hyperglycaemia.
Hypoxia.

40. What would be the most likely initial symptoms of lack of oxygen?
Difficulty in carrying out mental tasks, and loss of inhibitions.
Memory loss.
Poor muscular control.
Nausea and a light-headed sensation.

41. Which of the following factors is responsible for regulating breathing?

The pressure of the atmosphere.
The differential pressure across the diaphragm.
The level of Carbon Dioxide in the blood.
The capacity of the lungs.

42. If, while piloting an aircraft, you suspect that you are suffering from spatial disorders (e.g. a feeling of tumbling backwards
after a rapid transition from a climb to straight and level flight), the correct action to take would be….

to trust your senses, because instruments can give false information.

to concentrate on looking out.
to trust your aircraft's instruments.
to close your eyes for a few seconds to regain your orientation.

43. The percentage of all accidents caused by human factors is:

a)     70%-75%
b)    40%-50%
c)     50%-60%
d)    90%-100%

44. A healthy pilot should be able to operate without suffering the effects of hypoxia up to altitudes of:
a)     10 000 feet
b)    16 000 feet
c)     18 000 feet
d)    20 000 feet

45. The percentage of Oxygen in the atmosphere remains at 21%, by volume:

a)     Up to 10 000 feet
b)    Up to 18 000 feet
c)     Up to 8 000 feet
d)    Throughout the majority of the atmosphere

46. Pilots need to breathe supplementary Oxygen when flying at high altitude because of:
a)     The decreased temperature
b)    Decreased atmospheric pressure, and a decrease in the partial pressure of Oxygen
c)     A decrease in the proportion of Oxygen by volume
d)    The upper limit of the Troposphere
47. The mechanism that maintains a constant flow of blood around the body is called:
a)     The Respiratory System
b)    The Reproduction System
c)     The Nervous System
d)    The Circulatory System

48. The main function of the red blood cell is to:

a)     Carry Oxygen to the tissues
b)    Assist in the clotting process
c)     Produce antibodies to fight infections
d)    Deliver digested food products to the tissues

49. Carbon monoxide is dangerous because:

a)     Its smell and taste are not easily recognizable to the inexperienced pilot
b)    Hemoglobin has 10 times the affinity for it than it has for Oxygen
c)     Hemoglobin has 110 times the affinity for it than it has for Oxygen
d)    Hemoglobin has 210 times the affinity for it than it has for Oxygen

50. Hypoxia is defined as:

a)     The condition where there is insufficient Oxygen to meet the body’s needs
b)    The altitude at which a person begins to show symptoms of decompression sickness
c)     The condition where Carbon Monoxide replaces Oxygen in the white cells
d)    The condition where Carbon Dioxide will not bind to hemoglobin

51. At low altitude, the most common symptoms of hyperventilation include:

a)     Anxiety, scuba diving, vibration and poor visual acuity
b)    Feeling of well-being, shock, heat and poor visual acuity
c)     Motion sickness, poor visual acuity, heat and scuba diving
d)    Dizziness, visual disorder, anxiety, tingling around feet, hands and lips

52. The iris is responsible for controlling:

a)     The rate of dark adaption
b)    The amount of light entering the eye
c)     The rate of light adaption
d)    The amount of accommodation

53. In order to see an object best, at night, a pilot should:

a)     Look directly at the object, blinking several times
b)    Look slightly to one side of the object
c)     Look directly and intensely at the object
d)    Look away from the object and then repeatedly look back at it

54. The ability of the lens to change shape to focus an image on the retina is called:
a)     Acuity
b)    Acclimatization
c)     Accommodation
d)    Auto-kinesis

55. The sensors called ‘Rods’:

a)     Are sensitive to lower light levels than the ‘Cones’
b)    Are used primarily by day
c)     Are highly sensitive to colour changes
d)    Are concentrated on the optic nerve

56. A person who has ‘Myopia’:

a)     Has a shorter than normal eyeball and vision is corrected with a Concave lens
b)    Has a longer than normal eyeball and vision is corrected with a Convex lens
c)     Has a shorter than normal eyeball and vision is corrected with a Convex lens
d)    Has a longer than normal eyeball and vision is corrected with a Concave lens

57. Astigmatism is the name for:

a)     The ability of the lens to change shape
b)    An eyeball which is too short
c)     A mis-shapen cornea
d)    Colour blindness

58. The light-sensitive tissue lining the rear of the eyeball which contains rods and cones is known as:
a)     The pupil
b)    The cornea
c)     The retina
d)    The iris

59. The parts of the ear are the:

a)     Incus, malleus and the stapes
b)    Outer, middle and inner
c)     Cochlea, otoliths and tympanum
d)    Ear lobe, ear canal and ear drum

60. The bones in the middle ear are known collectively as:
a)     The otoliths
b)    The monoliths
c)     The ossicles
d)    The saccules

61. A fit young person can detect a range of sounds between:

a)     20 and 20 000 Hertz
b)    500 and 3 000 Hertz
c)     700 and 5 000 Hertz
d)    50 and 10 000 Hertz

62. The function of the Eustachian tube is to:

a)     Equalise pressure between the middle and inner ear
b)    Connect the inner ear to the back of the throat
c)     Allow circulation of fluid in the semi-circular canals
d)    Equalise pressure between the outer and middle ear

63. Permanent hearing loss may result from continuous exposure to:
a)     Noise in excess of 120 decibels
b)    Dusty conditions, allowing a build-up in ear wax
c)     Noise in excess of 90 decibels
d)    Excessive heat which boils the fluid in the semi-circular canals

64. The main function of the vestibular apparatus is to:

a)     Detect angular and linear accelerations
b)    Mechanically transmit sound to the cochlea
c)     Prevent excessive sounds from damaging the ear drum
d)    Prevent excessive sounds from damaging the otoliths

65. To maintain spatial orientation in the absence of visual references, the pilot should
a)     Believe the sensation of his vestibular apparatus
b)    Immediately climb to get above cloud
c)     Believe the “seat of the pants” sensation from the somatosensory system
d)    Believe the aircraft instruments

66. Motion sickness arises when there is:

a)     Vertical displacement from the horizontal axis
b)    Disorientation caused by loss of visual references
c)     A mismatch between visual and vestibular signals
d)    Vertical displacement from the longitudinal axis

67. What is the cause of conductive deafness?

a)     Damage to the Pinna
b)    Blockage of the Eustachian Tube
c)     Damage to the Ossicles and/or the Ear-Drum
d)    Low ambient pressure
68. Which part of the ear senses linear accelerations?
a)     The Ossicles
b)    The Eustachian Tube
c)     The Auditory Nerve
d)    The Otoliths in the Vestibular Apparatus

69. The condition of Gastroenteritis makes a pilot:

a)     Fit to fly
b)    Fit to fly if no attack has been experienced for an hour
c)     Fit to fly provided appropriate medication is being taken
d)    Unfit to fly

70. If a pilot is suffering from a cold or flu, he:

a)     Is unfit to fly
b)    Is fit to fly if taking appropriate medication
c)     Is fit to fly if no sneezing has being experienced for one hour
d)    Is fit to fly if he can clear his ears

71. For what period of time must a pilot refrain from flying after being given an anesthetic?
a)     24 hours following a local anesthetic and 48 hours following a general anesthetic
b)    12 hours following a local anesthetic and 24 hours following a general anesthetic
c)     12 hours following a local anesthetic and 48 hours following a general anesthetic
d)    24 hours following both local anesthetic and a general anesthetic

72. Perception is one of the most important aspects of information processing because:
a)     Sensory information is modelled into a meaningful structure
b)    Good judgements and decisions are made at this stage
c)     Corrective actions and responses are carried out at this stage
d)    It incorporates selective, divided and focused attention

73.“Chunking” is:
a)     The grouping of check list items to reduce turn round time
b)    A bizarre method of word association technique
c)     A method of increasing the number of unrelated items held in working memory
d)    The associative phase of learning a skill
74.The three parts of long-term memory are classified as:
a)     Ultra short, short and working
b)    Selective, divided and focused
c)     Static, dynamic and motor
d)    Semantic, episodic and procedural

75. An illusion is:

a)     A deliberate modification of the truth to catch out the unwary pilot
b)    When perception is not the same as the real world
c)     The difference between divided and selective attention
d)    A condition arising when deprived of visual or auditory stimuli

76. If a pilot flies a visual approach to a runway which has a pronounced upward slope of which he is unaware, what will be the likely
result?
a)     The pilot will fly an approach which is shallower than intended, leading to the possibility of undershooting.
b)    The pilot will fly an approach which is steeper than intended, leading to the possibility of overshooting.
c)     The pilot will fly an approach which is shallower than intended, leading to the possibility of overshooting.
d)    The pilot will fly an approach which is steeper than intended, leading to the possibility of undershooting.

77. If a pilot flies a visual approach to a runway which has a pronounced downward slope which he is unaware, what will be the likely
result?
a)     The pilot will fly an approach which is shallower than intended, leading to the possibility of undershooting.
b)    The pilot will fly an approach which is steeper than intended, leading to the possibility of overshooting.
c)     The pilot will fly an approach which is shallower than intended, leading to the possibility of overshooting.
d)    The pilot will fly an approach which is steeper than intended, leading to the possibility of undershooting.

78. If a pilot is flying above a layer of stratus cloud with a sloping upper surface, how is the pilot most likely to misperceive the visual
image?
a)     The pilot may mistake the slope as a lowering cloud base, and divert to an alternate airfield.
b)    The pilot may feel that he is climbing and initiate a descent.
c)     The pilot may mistake the upper surface of the cloud layer as the “true” horizon and apply bank as he selects an attitude
which puts the aircraft’s wings parallel to the cloud surface.
d)    The pilot may feel that he is descending and initiate a climb.

79. Hazy conditions may lead a pilot to perceive:

a)     Objects outside the aircraft as being further away than they actually are
b)    Objects outside the aircraft as being closer than they actually are
c)     Objects outside the aircraft as being more numerous than they actually are
d)    Objects outside the aircraft in exactly the same way as in conditions of good visibility

80. How will a pilot perceive a runway to which he is flying an approach, but which is smaller than the runways he is used to?
a)     The runway will appear nearer than it is in reality
b)    The runway will appear further away than it is in reality
c)     The pilot will get the impression that he is low and close
d)    The pilot will perceive no difference between this runway and the ones he is used to

81. How will a pilot perceive a runway to which he is flying an approach, but which is bigger than the runways he is used to?
a)     The runway will appear nearer than it is in reality
c)     The pilot will get the impression that he is high and distant
d)    The pilot will perceive no difference between this runway and the ones he is used to

82. As captain of an aircraft you will need to show good leadership skills. Which one of the following is not one such skill?
a)     Forward planning
b)    Maintaining good situational awareness
c)     Being aware of one’s limitations and capabilities
d)    Aggressive assertiveness

83. Mental Overload usually…

a)     Leads to better performance
b)    Leads to degraded performance
c)     Has no effect on performance
d)    Causes changes in the speed and accuracy of performance which vary from individual to individual

84. A moderate level of arousal will:

a)     Lead to a breakdown in health over a period of time
b)    Produce interest in external events and performing tasks
c)     Lead to slow processing of sensory information
d)    Lead to deterioration of performance due to narrowing of attention

85. Having successfully overcome a stressful situation once, how will the person react if placed in the same or similar situation a second
time?
a)     There will be a little difference
b)    Stress will increase because he will be afraid of what he knows lies ahead
c)     Stress will reduce because, having already successfully overcome the stressful situation, he will be confident he can do so
again
d)    Experience can not affect reaction to stress

86. The relationship between arousal and performance means:

a)     Performance is degraded by under-arousal and improved by over-arousal
b)    Performance is improved by both under and over-arousal
c)     Performance is degraded by both under and over-arousal
d)    Performance is improved by under-arousal and degraded by over-arousal

87. Sitting below the eye datum point:

a)     Prevents the pilot’s head from coming into contact with the cockpit roof
b)    Means that part of the undershoot may be obscured, on the approach
c)     Allows faster egress from the cockpit in an emergency
d)    Means that part of the overshoot may be obscured, on the approach

88. Which of the following occur(s) when a pilot is sitting too high in a cockpit?
I Good downward outside view
ii Poor view of instruments
iii Upwards outside view obstructed
a)     I only
b)    I and ii only
c)     I, ii and iii
d)    Ii and iii only

89. The effects of Dalton's law can cause:

a.     Evolved gas disorders
b.    Trapped gas disorders
c.     Hypoxia
d.    Bends

90. Where can you find medical fitness requirements for pilots?
a.     JAR-FCL 1
b.    JAR-FCL 2
c.     JAR-FCL 3
d.    JAR-FCL 4

91. What is the most correct regarding hypoxia?

a.     It is an abnormal reduction of the haemoglobin content of the red blood cell
b.    It is the result of insufficient oxygen in the blood stream
c.     It causes chest pain
d.    It is caused by too much CO2 in the air

92. Where are the ossicles (the group of tiny bones (the hammer/malleus, anvil/incus and stirrup/stapes)?
a.     In the semicircular canals.
b.    In the inner ear.
c.     In the vestibule.
d.    In the middle ear.

93. What is hyperventilation?

a.     Excessive rate and depth of respiration leading to abnormal loss of CO 2 from the blood.
b.    A condition which prevents the diffusion of O2 from the lungs to the bloodstream.
c.     Elevated arterial blood pressures, both systolic and diastolic.
d.    A reduction in the O2 carrying abilities of the blood.

94. Hypermetropia is commonly called

a.     Farsightedness.
b.    Near-sightedness.
c.     Nutritional deficiency.
d.    Colour blindness.

95. The most dangerous symptoms of hypoxia at altitude are

a.     Hyperventilation.
b.    Breathlessness and reduced night vision
c.     Euphoria and impairment of judgement
d.    Sensation of heat and blurred vision
96. Which is an example of an error caused by liveware – hardware interface problems?
a.     A procedure that is not used friendly.
b.    Noise interference.
c.     Switches, controls or displays with poor design.
d.    Mental pressure.

97. What is the effect of increasing altitude on the total pressure and partial pressure of the main gases in the atmosphere?
a.     The total pressure will decrease and the partial pressures will remain constant
b.    The total pressure will decrease and the partial pressures will increase
c.     The total pressure will decrease and the partial pressures will decrease
d.    The total pressure remains constant and the partial pressures will decrease

98. At an altitude where the pressure is half of that at sea level a person will have to
a.     breathe pure oxygen
b.    breathe pressurized oxygen
c.     use supplementary oxygen
d.    breathe slow to avoid hypoxia

99. Breathing pure oxygen (without pressure) will be sufficient up to an altitude of

a.     45000 FT
b.    40000 FT
c.     80000 FT
d.    60000 FT

100. Which part of the ear could be affected due to air pressure changes during climb and/ or descent?
a.     The eustachian tube and the tympanic membrane (ear drum)
b.    The sacculus and utriculus
c.     The cochlea
d.    The semicircular canals

101.  When Trapped intestinal gases can cause severe pain?

a.     Only in pressurized aircraft when flying at higher flight levels
b.    During descent as well as during climb, when the cabin pressure altitude is exceeding 2.000 FT
c.     More frequent when flying above 18.000 FT in a non pressurized aircraft
d.    At lower altitudes

102.                      “Time of Useful Consciousness” after a decompression at 35.000 Ft is

a.     approximately 3 minutes
b.    between 30 and 60 seconds
c.     approximately 5 minutes
d.    less than 20 seconds

103.        What is a normal blood pressure?

a.   Diastolic 80 mm Hg
b.   Diastolic 80 mm Hg
c.   Diastolic 120 mm Hg
d.   Diastolic 140 mm Hg

104.                       A sloping cloud formation, an obscured horizon and a dark scene spread with ground lights and stars can create an
illusion known as:
a.     False horizon
b.    Coriolis illusion
c.     Autokinesis
d.    Elevator illusion

105.                      The intensity of a sound is measured in:

a.     Hertz
b.    Curies
c.     Decibels
d.    Cycles per second
 PPL QUESTIONS
(P.BİRLER HOCA)
1. Where does the exchange of oxygen and carbondioxide+water vapour take place (37)
a. The arteries
b. The veins
c. The capillaries
d. The pulmonary veins and arteries
2. Hemoglobin has a preference to carbon monoxide over oxygen by a factor of(42)
PS. Cevaplar daha basite indirgenecek
a. 120-80
b. 100-120
c. 210-250
d. 150-180
3. At what height is the partial pressure of oxygen in the lungs approximately half that at sea
level?(37)
a. 8.000 feet
b. 10.000 feet
c. 18.000 feet
d. 34.000 feet
4. What increases the risk of decompression sickness occurring in flight?(37)
a. Smoking
b. Alcohol
c. Snorkel diving shortly before flight
d. Scuba diving shortly before flight
5. Tidal volume is(36)
a. The volume of air inhaled with each normal breath
b. The volume of air exhaled with each normal breath
c. The volume of air breathed when diving
d. The volume of air inhaled and exhaled with each normal breath
6. Henry’s Law has application in Human Performance to(36)
a. Hypoxia
b. Decompression Sickness (DCS)
c. Otic Barotrauma
d. Oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange in alveoli
7. What causes conductive deafness?(39)
a. Damage to the outer ear
b. Damage to the pinna
c. Damage to the ossicles or the eardrum
d. Damage to the middle ear
8. What is the other name of “Anemic hypoxia”?(37)
a. Hypoxic hypoxia
b. Hypemic hypoxia
c. Stagnant hypoxia
d. Histotoxic hypoxia
1.A pilot suffering from gastro-enteritis is...(41)

probably ok to fly.

not fit to fly.

fit to fly as long as the pilot feels fit enough.

fit to fly unless he is taking medication.

2. What does the middle ear contain?(39)

Fluid, and the three ossicles that transmit sound.

The outer ear canal and vestibular apparatus.

Air, and the three ossicles that transmit sound.

Fluid, the cochlea and semicircular canals.

3. When on the approach to a runway with an upward slope, the visual illusion created by this might
cause you to....(38)

make a quicker and steeper approach than normal

make a lower and shallower approach than normal

make a higher and shallower approach than normal

overshoot the runway

4. Approximately how long can the human brain survive without severe damage after being totally
deprived of oxygen?(37)

4 minutes

1 minute

8 minutes

14 minutes

5. If a runway is wider than expected, then a pilot will tend to...(38)

fly a higher approach than normal, with the possibility of under shooting the runway.
 fly a higher approach than normal, with the possibility of landing short of the runway.

fly a lower approach than normal, with the possibility of over shooting the runway.

fly a higher approach than normal, with the possibility of over shooting the runway.

6. A pilot in straight and level flight but accelerating may experience the perception of...(39)

turning.

descending.

pitching nose down.

pitching nose up.

7. Which of the following conditions is the most common form of sudden pilot incapacitation?(41)

Heart attack.

Gastroenteritis.

Stroke.

Collapsed lung.

8. Where in the lungs does gas exchange occur?(36)

Bronchi

Alveoli

Trachioles

Bronchioles

9. Why is it important that a pilot should not fly when he/she has a cold?(41)

The pressure between the inner ear and the atmospheric air may not be equalised.

The pressure between the inner ear and the middle ear may not be equalised.

The pressure between the middle ear and the atmospheric air may not be equalised.

The pressure between the lungs and the atmospheric air may not be equalised.
 Blood
pressure
all of
may be Age Stress Smoking
them
increased
due to:

The ability
of a pilot
to The
withstand maximum
Fatigue
even load all of
Presbycusis in the
moderate limits of them.
pilot
forces can the
be aircraft
affected
by:

Which of
the
following
will give A brightly lit A
A
the An up- aerodrome narrower
down-
illusion sloping in an than
sloping
that the runway otherwise normal
runway
aircraft is dark area runway
too low
during an
approach?

To transport To transport
To expel
carbon oxygen To prevention
The main function of unwanted
monoxide carbondioxide of
haemoglobin is to : carbolic
around the around the decompression
acid
body body
3. The eye adapts to differing
light levels by:
A. Chemical changes in the
pupil.
B. The lens becomes
progressively opaque
C. Chemical changes in the
retina
D. A misshapen of cornea

4. TUC following loss of

pressurisation at 35.000 ft is:
A. 3 - 4 minutes.
B. 5 minutes upwards.
C. 30 - 60 seconds.
D. 10 - 15 seconds.
7.Smoking reduces red blood
cell ability to carry oxygen
because:
A. the inspiratory tract becomes
obstructed.
B. CO takes a larger lung
volume.
C. haemoglobin has a greater
affinity for CO.
D. CO gets trapped in the alveoli
and restricts internal
respiration.
8. Anxiety and fear can cause:
A. spatial disorientation.
B. hyperventilation.
C. hypoxia.
D. hypoglycaemia.
9.Hypovigilance:
A. tends to occur at the end of
the mission as a result of a
relaxation in the operators
attention.
B. only affects certain
personality types.
C. may occur at any moment of
the flight.
D. essentially occurs several
minutes after the intense take-
off phase.
10.A selective attention
mechanism is required:
A. because of the limitations of
the sense organs.
B. because of limitations in our
store of motor programmes.
C. because of the limited
capacity of the central decision
maker and working memory.
D. because the capacity of the
long term memory is limited.
11.Which statement about
partial pressure is correct?
A. Partial pressure decreases
approximately 2% per 1000
feet.
B. One can calculate the partial
pressure of a gas in a mixture by
using Boyles law.
C. The sum of the partial
pressure of individual gases, in
a mixture of gases, is equal to
the total pressure.
D. Partial pressure of oxygen in
air is always approximately 20%.
A pilot, climbing in a non-
pressurised aircraft and without
using supplemental oxygen will
pass the critical threshold at
approximately:
A. 38 000 ft.
B. 25 000 ft.
C. 5000 ft.
D. 22 000 ft.
The Otoliths (Utricles and
Succules) detect:
A. Angular acceleration.
B. Linear Acceleration.
C. Linear and angular
acceleration.
D. G forces.

The part of the eye where we

have the best visual acuity is:
a. The pupil.
b. The fovea.
c. The iris.
d. The peripheral retina.
Highest workload demand
normally occurs at

A.Take-off
B.Climb
C.Approach and landing
D.Cruise
What is "Situation Awareness"

A.Being in a situation where

you're "out of control"
B.Know where you are, what
you're doing, and what its
outcome will be
C.Being secure & confident at all
times
D. As a pilot, flying as precise as
possible
050
What is the science of The science the study The science of
meteorology? meteroids of relative of clouds weather–
humidity related
phenomena

"Pressure No, it stays No, it Yes There is

decreases with constant depends on insufficient
altitude." Is this above the information.
statement tropopause. temperature.
correct?
What is the density thickness cloud base cloud top
main difference
between a
Stratus and a
Cumulus
clouds in terms
of shape?
Which of the Cumulonimbus Altocumulus Towering Stratus
following Lenticularis Cumulus
clouds should a
pilot prefer to
penetrate if
he/she had no
other chance?

Daily variation of the Be unaffected by Be at a Decrease as Increase as

surface temperature a change of wind minimum in wind speed the wind
will: speed calm increases speed
conditions increases.
Which of the Melting Condensation. Evaporation. Heating
processes listed
below can cause air
to become saturated?
The actual change of The adiabatic The The actual The
the temperature in the lapse rate (ALR) temperature lapse rate (LR)
environmental
air mass with height curve lapse rate
is known as: (ELR)
From the list below, Nimbostratus, Altostratus, Cirrus, Stratus,
select the Low, Cumulonimbus, Altocumulus, Cumulonimbus, Altocumulus,
Medium and High Cirrus Cirrus Stratus Cirrus
clouds in ascending
order.
When ATIS Every 30 minutes Every hour Any time the Only when the
broadcasts update? aerodrome or aerodrome
weather information
information changes
change
The altimeter will The altitude The altitude The The vertical
always read: above MSL with above airfield temperature distance
1013 set to sub with QNH set corrected flight above the
scale. to sub scale. level with pressure level
regional QFE reffer to set in
set sub scale.
 Which one is not the
way of heat transfer in Advection Convection Inversion Conduction
the atmosphere?
Which one of them is
being actually
measured in the
QNH QFE QFF QNE
periodically by the
meteorological
stations?
very tiny condensated
Cloud is… water in the air all of them
water droplets water vapor
During the adiabatic
always increases or
proces, temperature always increases Doesn’t change
decreases decreases
...
an observer
Meteorological as an eye
visibility is measured transmissometer. sight of anemometer. ceilometer.
by, known objects
in a distance.
If a plane flies to west forces the
forces the plane forces the
over the 0⁰ latitude plane to
to move towards plane to move doesn’t effect.
line, the Corriolis move towards
south. slower.
effect north.
 050 METEOROLOGY PPL 2015

1. (47) Going from the equator to the north pole, the altitude of the tropopause
a) increases and its temperature increases
b) decreases and its temperature increases
c) increases and its temperature decreases
d) decreases and its temperature decreases

2. (47) In the mid-latitudes the stratosphere extends on an average from

a) 85 to more than 200 km
b) 0 to 11 km
c) 50 to 85 km
d) 11 to 50 km

3. (47) What is a characteristic of the troposphere?

a) It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere
b) There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude
c) The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 8 kilometres
d) There is an overall increase of temperature with an increase of altitude

4. (48) The 0° isotherm is forecast to be at FL 50. At what FL would you expect a

temperature of -6° C?
a) FL 110
b) FL 20
c) FL 100
d) FL 80

5. (50) Advection is :
a) the same as convection
b) vertical motion of air
c) the same as subsidence
d) horizontal motion of air

6. (48) Temperature variation during 24 hours is least over:

a) Sea.
b) Grass.
c) Mountain.
d) Forest.

7. (48) Lines connecting points of equal pressure are called:

a) Isotherm
b) Isotach
c) Isobar
d) Isostar
8. (59) In order to calculate QFE from QNH, which of the following must be known ?
a) Elevation and the temperature at the airfield.
b) Temperature at the airfield.
c) Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at MSL.
d) Elevation of the airfield

9. (59) If the QFE at an airport (200 metres above sea level) is 1000 hPa, what is the
approximate QNH? (1 mb = 27 feet)
a) 985 hPa
b) 1025 hPa
c) 990 hPa
d) 1035 hPa

10. (48) An outside air temperature of -35°C is measured while cruising at FL 200. What
is the temperature deviation from the ISA at this level
a) 5°C colder than ISA
b) 10°C warmer than ISA.
c) 5°C warmer than ISA.
d) 10°C colder than ISA.

11. (49) Evaporation is the change of:

a) Liquid water to water vapor.
b) Water vapor to ice.
c) Invisible water vapor to liquid water.
d) Ice directly to water vapor.

12. (51) Which clouds have the greatest turbulence ?

a) Nimbostratus.
b) Cumulonimbus.
c) Towering cumulus
d) Altocumulus castellanus.

13. (52) Fog which reaches only 2 metres above ground is:
a) Smog.
b) Mist.
c) Shallow fog.
d) Drifting fog.

14. (50) A wind which has changed anti-clockwise in direction can be said to have:
a) Backed
b) Veered
c) Reduced
d) Calm

15. (50) If you stand with your back to the wind in the northern hemisphere, the low
pressure will be:
a) Behind you
b) On your right
c) On your left
d) On your right
16. (49) What cloud type is prone to +RA?
a) CC
b) AS
c) ST
d) NS

17. (49) The precipitation form +TSRA is most probably related to the following cloud
type:
a) CB
b) CU
c) NS
d) TCU

18. (62) In which of the following METAR is the probability the biggest for the formation of
fog the following night?
a) 1850Z 15003KT 6000 SCT120 05/04 Q1032 BECMG 1600 =
b) 1850Z 25010KT 4000 RA BKN012 OBC030 12/10 Q1006 TEMPO 1500 =
c) 1850Z 06018G30KT 5000 OVC010 04/01 Q1024 NOSIG =
d) 1850Z 21003KT 8000 SCT250 12/M08 Q1028 NOSIG =

19. (51) Which of the following processes within a layer of air may lead to the building of
CU and CB clouds?
a) Subsidence.
b) Convection.
c) Radiation.
d) Advection

20. (51) What is the main composition of clouds classified as "high level clouds"?
a) Water droplets.
b) Water vapour.
c) Ice crystals.
d) Supercooled water droplets.

21. (51) What type of cloud can produce hail showers?

a) CS
b) NS
c) CB
d) AC

22. (51) Which of the following cloud types is least likely to produce precipitation ?
a) CI
b) AS
c) CB
d) NS

23. (62) What is the meaning of the abbreviation "BKN"?

a) 6 - 8 octas.
b) 3 - 4 octas.
c) 5 - 7 octas.
d) 1 - 2 octas.
 24. (62) When will the surface wind in a METAR record a gust factor ?
a) When gusts are at least 10 knots above the mean wind speed
b) When gusts are at least 15 knots above the mean wind speed
c) With gusts of at least 25 knots
d) With gusts of at least 35 knots

25. (62) Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the
regulations, abbreviated to "CAVOK"?
(MSA above ground: LSZB 10000 FT, LSZH 8000 FT, LSGG 12000 FT, LFSB 6000 FT)
a) LSZH 26024G52KT 9999 BKN060 17/14 Q1012 RETS TEMPO 5000 TSRA =
b) LSGG 22003KT 9999 SCT120 BKN280 09/08 Q1026 BECMG 5000 =
c) LSZB 30004KT 9999 SCT090 10/09 Q1006 NOSIG =
d) LFSB 00000KT 9000 SCT080 22/15 Q1022 NOSIG =

26. (49) Which of the following phenomena should be described as precipitation at the
time they are observed?
a) FZFG
b) BCFG
c) SN
d) HZ

27. (62) Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR ?

LTXX 010120Z 00000KT 0200 R14/0800 R16/P1500 FZFG VV001 M03/M03
Q1022 BECMG 0800 =
a) Meteorological visibility for runway 14 800 metres, fog with hoar frost, RVR for runway 16
more than1500 metres
b) Meteorological visibility 200 metres, RVR for runway 16 1500 metres, temperature -3°C,
vertical visibility 100 metres
c) Meteorological visibility 200 feet, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500 metres, vertical
visibility 100 feet, fog with hoar frost
d) RVR for runway 14 is 800 metres, vertical visibility 100 feet, calm, meteorological
visibility improving to 800 metres in the next 2 hours

Temperature Scientist The decrease The The temperature B

decreases with continue in pressure increase in has no effect on
altitude in their being more pressure air density.
standard research on dominant with
atmosphere. this subject than the altitude
Regarding this decrease in decreases
change in temperature, the density.
temperature, causes the
density should density to
increase with decrease.
altitude but it
decreases.
What is the
reason?
What would Inversion Instability Showers Sea breeze A
you most likely and and
expect when windshear turbulence
you are taking
off after a long
clear night in
winter?
What would Light icing, Severe Snow Moderate/severe D
you expect in a light turbulence grains icing,
Cumulonimbus turbulence only severe/extreme
cloud? turbulence
What would Severe Light Showers Halo around sun A
you expect if turbulence turbulence
you see a due to
Altocumulus mountain
Lenticularis in waves
the sky?
What would Windshear Inversion Updraft Upgust A
you most likely
expect in a
microburst?
Potential Downburst, Drizzle, icing, Inversion, Ice pellets, A
hazards in a icing, turbulence instability, stability,
Thunderstorm turbulence, showers turbulence
are: hail
What would Formation Rain showers Ice pellets Freezing fog A
you expect of ice due to
when you see supercooled
FZRA in a precipitation
METAR?
Visibility may There are no The layer is It is a low There is no wind A
reduce below vertical unstable pressure at all
inversion layer exchanges area
because
In METARs Magnetic True North Geographic Equator B
and TAFs, North North
wind is
reported with
reference to:
When you Magnetic True North Geographic Equator A
contact ATC or North North
ATIS, wind is
reported with
reference to:
You are QFF QNH QNE QFE B
landing to an
airfield. The
altimeter reads
the elevation
of the
aerodrome
when … is set.
What is Air moving Air moving Ascending Descending air. A
convergence? in out air

What is Air moving Air moving Ascending Descending air. B

divergence? in out air
METEOROLOGY PPL QUESTIONS

1. The International Standard Atmosphere assumes a lapse rate of:

A) 4°C/1000 ft.
B) 1.5°C/1000ft.
C) 3°C/1000ft.
D) 1.98°C/1000ft.

2. You are at FL120 with an outside air temperature is -2°C. Where would you find the freezing level?

A) FL110
B) FL100
C) FL090
D) FL140

3. What are the proportions of gases in the atmosphere?

A) Oxygen 21%, Nitrogen 78%, other gasses 1%.
B) Oxygen 21%, Hydrogen 78%, other gasses 1%.
C) Nitrogen 78%, Argon 21%, Oxygen 1%.
D) Nitrogen 78%, Oxygen 21%, Hydrogen 1%.

4. The layer closest to the earth's surface where the most of weather phenomena occurs:
A) Tropopause.
B) Troposphere.
C) Stratosphere.
D) Mesosphere.

5. Relative humidity:
A) is not affected by temperature.
B) is not affected by air expanding and contracting.
C) does not change when water is added.
D) changes when water is added, even if the temperature is the same.

6.  Where is most of the water vapor in the atmosphere contained?

A) Tropopause.
B) Stratosphere.
C) Troposphere.
D) Stratopause.

7. The temperature at 3000 ft. above mean sea level is forecast to be 3°C. What is the deviation from ICAO Standard
Atmosphere?

A) ISA -6
B) ISA +6
C) ISA +5
D) ISA -7

8. A line drawn on a chart joining places having the same barometric pressures at the same level and time is?

A) An isotherm.
B) An isallobar.
C) A contour.
D) An isobar.

9. What is the significance of closely spaced isobars?

A) They indicate a large pressure gradient and strong winds.
B) They indicate a weak pressure gradient and light winds.
C) They indicate a weak pressure gradient and strong winds.
D) They indicate a large pressure gradient and light winds.

10.  The pressure change with height of the atmosphere:

A) decreases at an increasing rate as height increases.
B) decreases at a constant rate as height increases.
C) decreases at a decreasing rate as height increases.
D) decreases at a constant rate up to the tropopause and then remains constant.

11.  Density at the surface will be low when:

A) pressure is high and temperature is high,
B) pressure is high and temperature is low.
C) pressure is low and temperature is low.
D) pressure is low and temperature is high.

12.  As altitude increases in troposphere

A) temperature decreases and density increases.
B) temperature, pressure and density decrease.
C) temperature and pressure increase and density decreases.
D) temperature decreases whilst pressure and density increase.

13.  What is the density at sea level in the International Standard Atmosphere?
A) 12.25g/m3
B) 1225g/m3
C) 1.225g/m3
D) 122.5g/m3

14.  Under what conditions would density be the minimum value at any given place?

A) Low altitude, high temperature and high humidity.

B) High altitude, high temperature and high humidity.
C) High altitude, high temperature and low humidity.
D) Low altitude, low temperature and low humidity.

15.  What is density defined as?

A) Mass per unit volume.
B) Mass per unit area.
C) Weight of air per unit area.
D) Volume divided by mass.

16.  "The sun gives out ……………... amounts of energy with ……………... wavelengths. The earth gives out relatively
……………… amounts of energy with relatively ……………... wavelengths." Complete the sentence above using the
correct words:

A) large, long, small, short.

B) small, short, large, long.
C) large, long, small, long.
D) large, short, small, long.

17.  The method by which energy is transferred from one body to another with which it is in contact is called:

A) radiation.
B) convection.
C) conduction.
D) latent heat.

18.  The surface of the earth is heated by:

A) convection.
B) conduction.
C) long wave solar radiation.
D) short wave solar radiation.

19.  The diurnal variation of temperature is:

A) greater over the sea than over land.
B) less over desert areas than over temperate grassland,
C) reduced anywhere by the presence of cloud.
D) increased anywhere as wind speed increases.

20.  An inversion is when:

A) there is no horizontal gradient of temperature.
B) there is no change of temperature with height.
C) there is an increase of temperature as height increases,
D) there is a decrease of temperature as height increases,

21.  An active low pressure system is approaching. What difference would you notice in the altimeter reading of an
aircraft parked in the ground, over a 30 minute period?
A) The reading would remain the same.
B) The reading would show an increase in height.
C) The reading would fluctuate rapidly.
D) It is impossible to determine how the altimeter would react.

22.  During the winter months, which of the following weather conditions would most likely be produced by an
anticyclone?

A) Subsidence due to surface cooling creating extensive cloud.

B) During the day, the surface warming would create an unstable atmosphere with extensive convective cloud.
C) During the night, as the land cools, there would be an increase in the vertical cloud development.
D) General subsidence with adiabatic warming, clear skies, and an inversion.

23.  Lack of cloud at low level in a stationary high is due to:

A) instability.
B) rising air.
C) sinking air.
D) divergence at high level.

24.  A trough of low pressure at the surface is generally associated with:

A) convergence causing increased cloud and precipitation.
B) divergence causing increased cloud and precipitation.
C) subsidence causing increased cloud and precipitation.
D) subsidence causing decreased cloud and precipitation.

26.  What is the relationship between QFE and QNH at an airport 54 ft. below MSL?
A) QFE is equal to QNH
B) QFE is less than QNH
C) QFE is greater than QNH
D) There is no clear relationship.

27.  An aircraft flies from aerodrome "A", (QNH= 1020 hPA) , to aerodrome "B", (QNH= 999 hPA) . Aerodrome "A" is
800 ft. above mean sea level and aerodrome "B" is 540 ft. above mean sea level. If the altimeter sub scale is not
changed from 1020, what is the altimeter indication on landing.
(Assume 1 mb = 30 ft.)
A) 1470 ft.
B) 170 ft.
C) 1170 ft.
D) -170 ft.

28.  With which setting on the altimeter subscale will the altimeter read zero at aerodrome level?
A) QFF
B) QNH
C) QNE
D) QFE

29.  You are flying at a constant indicated altitude with the QNH of 1015 set within the subscale and you notice the
outside air temperature has been falling constantly. What can you expect to have happened to your true altitude?

A) The true altitude will have decreased.

B) The true altitude will have increased.
C) The true altitude will have remained the same.
D) The true altitude will have increased then decreased.

30.  When flying towards a low pressure system at a constant indicated altitude, the true altitude will be;
A) lower than indicated.
B) higher than indicated.
C) the same as indicated,
D) lower than indicated at first then the same as indicated later.

31.  An aircraft flies at a constant indicated altitude from airfield A (QNH= 1009 hPA) to airfield B (QNH= 1019 hPA) .
If the subscale is not reset from 1009, what would be expected when over airfield B?
A) The indicated altitude would be the same as actual altitude.
B) The indicated altitude would be less than actual altitude.
C) The indicated altitude would be more than actual altitude.
D) The indicated altitude may be greater or less depending on the airfield elevation.

32.  The process of change of state from a liquid to a gas is known as:
A) condensation in which latent heat is released.
B) evaporation in which latent heat is released.
C) condensation in which latent heat is absorbed.
D) evaporation in which latent heat is absorbed.

33.  A change of state directly from a solid to a vapor is:

A) insolation.
B) condensation.
C) evaporation.
D) sublimation.

34.  The process of change of state from a gas to a liquid is known as:
A) evaporation in which latent heat is absorbed.
B) evaporation in which latent heat is released.
C) condensation in which latent heat is absorbed.
D) condensation in which latent heat is released.

35.  In a mountain wave situation, the worst of the turbulence is most likely to be found when flying:
A) at about mid-height between the lenticular and roll cloud.
B) in or just below the roll cloud,
C) in the cap cloud.
D) in the lenticular cloud
36.  Which of the following cloud types can stretch across at least two cloud levels?
A) ST
B) NS
C) CI
D) SC

37.  The use of the suffix "nimbus" or the prefix "nimbo" in cloud names means?
A) Rain bearing.
B) Wispy, detached orfiberous.
C) Medium cloud.
D) Dark and threatening.

38.  Cu is an indication of:

A) stability.
B) instability.
C) the approach of a warm front.
D) the approach of a cold front.

39.  Isolated thunderstorms (TS) in summer are caused by:

A) convection.
B) cold fronts.
C) warm front occlusions.
D) cold front occlusions.

40.  From which cloud do you get hail?

A) SC
B) CB
C) NS
D) TS

41.  The correct name for heaped type cloud is;

A) cumulus.
B) cirrus.
C) stratus.
D) virga.

42.  Which of the following cloud types can stretch across all three cloud levels (low, medium and high level)?
A) CI
B) ST
C) AC
D) CB

43.  What is the most common freezing precipitation?

A) Freezing pellets.
B) Freezing rain and freezing drizzle.
C) Freezing graupel.
D) Freezing hail and freezing snow.

44.  Meteorological textual information defines the height of cloud bases as follows:
A) METAR - AGL TAF - AMSL
B) METAR - AGL TAF - AGL
C) METAR - AMSL TAF - AMSL
D) METAR - AMSL TAF - AGL

45.  Precipitation produced by stratus is normally?

A) Heavy showers.
B) Heavy rain.
C) Drizzle.
D) Light showers.

46.  Coriolis force in the Northern Hemisphere will cause moving air to be apparently deflected to:
A) the left and cause the wind to blow parallel to the isobars at about 2000 ft. agl.
B) the right and cause the geostrophic wind to blow parallel to the isobars at about 2000 ft. agl.
C) the left and cause the wind to blow slightly across the isobars at about 2000 ft. agl.
D) the right and cause the wind to blow slightly across the isobars at about 2000 ft. agl.

47.  What prevents air from flowing directly from a high to a low pressure area:
A) centripetal force.
B) centrifugal force.
C) pressure force.
D) Coriolis force.
48.  Wind is caused by?
A) Mixing of fronts.
B) Horizontal pressure difference.
C) Earth rotation.
D) Surface friction.

49.  Which of the following frontal systems is most likely to produce thunderstorm activity?
A) A cold front.
C) A ridge of high pressure.
D) A quasi-stationary front.
B) A warm front.

50.  Clear ice forms as a result of:

A) large supercooled water droplets spreading as they freeze.
B) ice pellets splattering on the aircraft.
C) small supercooled water droplets splashing over the aircraft.
D) water vapor freezing to the aircraft.

51.  In the METAR shown below, the cloud base has been omitted. At what height might you expect the cloud base to
be if cumulus cloud was present?
28005KT 9999 SCT??? 12/05 Q1020 NOSIG =
A) SCT095
B) SCT082
C) SCT280
D) SCT028

52.  The abbreviation BKN, with respect to cloud cover means:

A) 1 - 4 oktas
B) 3 - 4 oktas
C) 5 - 7 oktas
D) half cover

53.  In a METAR a gust is reported when:

A) it is 10 kt greater than the mean wind speed.
B) it is 15 kt greater than the mean wind speed.
C) it is 20 kt greater than the mean wind speed.
D) it is 5 kt greater than the mean wind speed.

54.  A METAR may be defined as being?

A) A routine weather report for a large area.
B) An aerodrome forecast containing a TREND for the next two hours.
C) A routine weather report concerning a specific aerodrome.
D) A forecast weather report concerning a specific aerodrome.

55.  The visibility group R20/0050 in a METAR means:

A) as measured by runway measuring equipment for Runway 20, a current runway visibility of 50 meters.
B) for Runway 20, a current visibility of 500 meters measured by runway visual range equipment.
C) the runway visibility reported is 50 meters as measured by the runway visual range equipment within the last 20 minutes.
D) on Runway 20, the current visibility is less than 5000 meters.

56.  BECMG 1820 BKN030 in a TAF means:

A) becoming between 1800 UTC and 2000 UTC 3-4 oktas of cloud at 300 ft. agl.
B) becoming from 1820 UTC 5-7 oktas of cloud at 3000 ft. agl.
C) becoming from 1820 UTC 3-4 oktas of cloud at 300 ft. agl.
D) becoming between 1800 UTC and 2000 UTC 5-7 oktas of cloud at 3000 ft. agl.

57.  A temperature group of 28/24 in a METAR means that:

A) the temperature is 28°C at the time of the reporting, but is expected to become 24°C by the end of the TREND report.
B) the dry bulb temperature is 28°C and the wet bulb temperature is 24°C.
C) the dew point is 28°C and the temperature is 24°C.
D) the temperature is 28°C and the dew point is 24°C.

58.  TEMPO in a TAF means:

A) a temporary variation to the main forecast that will last for less than one hour, or, if recurring, for less than half the
period indicated.
B) a temporary variation to the main forecast lasting less than three hour.
C) the development of unpredictable temporary conditions that may be a hazard to aviation.
D) a variation to the base line conditions laid down in the main forecast that will continue to prevail until the end of the main
forecast.

59.  When a TREND is included at the end of a METAR, the trend is a forecast valid for:
A) 1 hour after the time of observation.
B) 2 hours after the time of observation
C) 2 hours after it was issued.
D) 1 hour after it was issued.
60.  How would a forecast easterly wind of 22 knots, gusting to 32 knots be represented in a TAF?
A)   09022-32KT
B)   090/22 G32 KT
C)   09022KTG32
D)   09022G32KT

61.  As air rises and cools, its relative humidity will:

A) increase
B) decrease
C)  decrease until the dew point is reached
D)  stay the same

62.  Decode the cloud bases being described in this METAR for an aerodrome:
A)  1-2 oktas at 3500 ft., 2-3 oktas at 4300 ft., 5-8 oktas at 24000 ft.
B)  1-2 oktas at 350 ft., 3-4 oktas at 430 ft., 5-7 oktas at 2400 ft.
C)  2-3 oktas at 3500 ft., 4-5 oktas at 4300 ft., 6-7 oktas at 24000 ft.
D)  1-2 oktas at 3500 ft., 3-4 oktas at 4300 ft., 5-7 oktas at 24000 ft.

63.  You are setting your altimeter at an aerodrome, where the elevation is 54 ft. above MSL. The QNH you have been
given is 1031 hPa. What would you expect the aerodrome QFE to be?

A)  1029 hPa
B)  1001 hPa
C)  1032 hPa
D)  1009 hPa

64.  The thickness of the troposphere varies with

A) latitude
B) longitude
C) rotation of the earth
D) the wind

65.  Which statement is true concerning the tropopause from the equator to the poles?
A) The tropopause decreases, the tropopause temperature increases
B) The tropopause decreases, the tropopause temperature decreases
C) The tropopause increases, the tropopause temperature increases
D) The tropopause increases, the tropopause temperature decreases

66.  The 0°C isotherm is forecast to be at FL 50. At what FL would you expect a temperature of -6°C?
A) FL 110
B) FL 20
C) FL 100
D) FL 80

67.  An inversion is characterized by:

A) Constant temperature with increasing altitude
B) Parts of the air mass at each level is warmer than surrounding air.
C) The tendency to increase relative humidity with increasing altitude.
d Increasing temperature with increasing altitude.

68. Tropopause is between:

A. Troposphere - Stratosphere
B. Troposphere - Mezosphere
C. Troposphere - Thermospere
D. Stratosphere - Mezosphere

69.  An inversion is a layer of air which is

A) absolutely unstable
B) absolutely stable
C) conditionally unstable
D) conditionally stable

70.  The dry adiabatic lapse rate has a value of

A) 0.5°C/100m
B) 2°C/1000ft
C) 0.65°C/100m
D) 3°C/1000ft

71.  From which of the following pieces of information can the stability of the atmosphere be derived?
A) Surface temperature
B) Environmental lapse rate
C) Dry adiabatic lapse rate
D) Pressure at the surface

72.  In order to calculate QFE from QNH, which of the following must be known ?
A) Elevation and the temperature at the airfield.
B) Temperature at the airfield.
C) Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at MSL.
D) Elevation of the airfield.

73.  If the QFE at ÇORLU (660 feet above sea level) is 980 hPa, what is the approximate QNH ? (1 mb= 30 feet)
A) 1015 hPa
B) 998 hPa
C) 1003 hPa
D) 1010 hPa

74.  At FL 180, the air temperature is -35°C. The air density at this level is:
A) Greater than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180.
B) Less than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180.
C) Equal to the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180.
D) Unable to be determined without knowing the QNH.

75.  In relation to 'air density' which of the following responses are correct:
A) Cold air is less dense than warm air.
B) Dry warm air is less dense than cold air.
C) If the temperature is decreasing the air density will decrease
D) Air density is not influenced of air humidity.

76.  Which of the following combinations contain the greatest air density?
A) High pressure and high temperature.
B) High pressure and low temperature.
C) Low pressure and high temperature.
D) Low pressure and low temperature.

77.  The lowest assumed temperature in the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) is :
A) -44.7°C
B) -273°C
C) -56.5°C
D) -100°C

78.  What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?

A) A stable layer of air
B) An unstable layer of air
C) Air mass thunderstorms
D) Cold front

79.  The diurnal variation in temperature is largest when the sky is,
A) clear and winds are strong
B) clear and winds are weak
C) overcast and winds are weak
D) overcast and winds are strong

80.  QNH is defined as

A) QFE reduced to MSL using the values of the standard atmosphere
B) pressure at MSL in the standard atmosphere
C) pressure at MSL in the actual atmosphere
D) QFE reduced to MSL using the values of the actual atmosphere

81. QNH 1025 hPa at an altitude of 660 feet AMSL: What will the approximate QFE be?
A) 990 hPa
B) 1000 hPa
C) 1010 hPa
D) 1050 hPa

82. Under which condition does pressure altitude have the same value as density altitude ?
A) When the altimeter has no position error.
B) At sea level when the temperature is 0°C.
C) At standard temperature.
D) When the altimeter setting is 1013,2 hPa.

83. At an altitude of 1650 feet AMSL, a temperature of +15°C is measured. What will the temperature be at an altitude
of 8200 feet, if you consider the temperature gradient of the Standard Atmosphere?
A) +4°C
B) +2°C
C) 0°C
D) -2°C

84. Which of the following statements is true ?

A) QNH is always higher than QFE
B) QNH is always lower than QFE
C) QNH can be equal to QFE
D) QNH is always equal to QFE

85. Which force, in the Northern Hemisphere, acts at a right angle to the wind and deflects it to the right until parallel
to the isobars ?

A) Centrifugal.
B) Pressure gradient.
C) Coriolis.
D) Advection.

86. In the Northern Hemisphere the surface wind is blowing around a low pressure:
A) Anti-clockwise, oblique to the isobars towards the low pressure center.
B) Anti-clockwise, oblique to the isobars outwards the low pressure center.
C) Clockwise, oblique to the isobars outwards the low pressure center..
D ) Clockwise, oblique to the isobars towards the low pressure center.

87. Due to the diurnal variations of temperature the following types of wind arise:
A) Sea and land breeze.
B) Trade-winds.
C) Monsoon winds.
D) Anabatic winds.

88. Which clouds have the greatest turbulence ?

A) Cumulus.
B) Cumulunimbus.
C) Nimbostratus.
D) Altocumulus castellanus.

89. If you stand with your back to the wind in the northern hemisphere, the low pressure will be:
A) On your left
B) On your right
C) Behind you
D) Ahead of you

90. How is wind measured?

A) 8-10 m above the ground on a mast with an anemometer
B) 2 m above the ground in a weather shelter
C) 2 m above the ground on a mast with an anemometer
D) 8-10 m above the ground on a mast with a pluviometer

91. What is sublimation?

A) The change of state from ice to water
B) The change of state from water to water vapor
C) The change of state from water vapor to water
D) The change of state from ice to water vapor or from water vapor to ice

92.  What is evaporation?
A) The change of state from ice to water
B) The change of state from water to water vapor
C) The change of state from water vapor to water
D) The change of state from ice to water vapor or from water vapor to ice

93. What is condensation?

A) The change of state from ice to water
B) The change of state from water to water vapor
C) The change of state from water vapor to water
D) The change of state from ice to water vapor or from water vapor to ice

94. An aircraft is approaching under visual flight rules an airfield whose runway is parallel to the coast. When
downwind over the sea, the airfield is on the left. What wind effect should be anticipated on final approach and
landing during a sunny afternoon ?

A) Crosswind from the left

B) Crosswind from the right
C) Tailwind
D) Headwind

95. As a parcel of air warms, its ability to hold water vapor:

A) Decreases
B) Increases
C) Remains unaltered
D) Depends, whether the parcel is rising or not

96. Moist air is:

A) Denser than dry air
B) Warmer than dry air
C) Less dense than dry air
D) Colder than dry air

97. The difference between temperature and dew point is greater in

A) air with low temperature
B) moist air
C) air with high temperature
D) dry air

98. The amount of water vapor which air can hold largely depends on:
A) Relative humidity.
B) Air temperature.
C) Stability of air.
D) Dew point.

99. A parcel of air is said to be saturated if it has a relative humidity of:

A) 50 %
B) 100 %
C) Greater than 90 %
D) Greater than 80 %

100. Rising air cools because

A) It becomes more moist
B) Surrounding air is cooler at higher levels
C) It expands
D) It contracts

101. Convective clouds are formed

A) In stable atmosphere
B) In unstable atmosphere
C) In summer during the day only
D) In mid-latitudes only

102. Which of the following types of clouds are evidence of unstable air conditions?
A) ST, CS.
B) CU, CB.
C) SC, NS.
D) CI, SC.

103. Which of the following clouds are classified as medium level clouds in temperate?
A) CI, CC.
B) SC, NS
C) AS, AC.
D) CS, ST.

104. Which of the following clouds may extend into more than one layer?
A) Stratus.
B) Nimbostratus.
C) Altocumulus.
D) Cirrus.

105. Which of the following cloud is classified as low level cloud ?

A) ST
B) CS
C) AS
D) CC

106. Which types of clouds are typical evidence of stable air conditions?

A) ST, AS
B) CU, CB
C) NS, CU
D) CB, CC

107. The family of medium clouds include altostratus, altocumulus and nimbostratus. In moderate latitudes their
height of base ranges from:
A) 3000 to 5000 feet.
B) 2000 to 10000 feet.
C) 2000 to 12000 feet.
D) 6500 to 23000 feet.
108. What will be the classification of high level clouds and where will the base be?
A) above 14000ft, Nimbus
B) above 16500ft, Cumuliform
C) above 16500ft, Cirriform
D) above 7000 ft., Cumuliform

109. Which cloud type may extend from low to high level (vertical development)?
A) CB
B) NS
C) CI
D) AC

110. What type of cloud can produce hail showers?

A) CS
B) NS
C) CB
D) AC

111. With what type of cloud is "GR" precipitation most commonly associated?
A) CC
B) AS
C) ST
D) CB

112. With what type of cloud is "DZ" precipitation most commonly associated?

A) CB
B) ST
C) CC
D) CU

113. With what type of cloud is "+TSRA" precipitation most commonly associated?
A) CB
B) AS
C) SC
D) NS

114. What is the meaning of the abbreviation "SCT"?

A) 6 - 8 octas.
B) 3 - 4 octas.
C) 5 - 7 octas.
D) 8 octas

115. When is the RVR reported regarding ICAO standards?

A) When the RVR decreases below 2000 m.
B) When the meteorological visibility decreases below 800 m.
C) When the RVR decreases below 800 m.
D) When the meteorological visibility decreases below 1500 m.

116.        What does a Transmissiometer measure ?

A) Wind speed.
B) Cloud base.
C) Visibility.
D) Breaking action.

117.        What does RVR stand for ?

A) Reduced visibility range.
B) Reduced vertical range.
C) Runway visual range.
D) Radio VHF and range

118.        When last 10 minutes wind velocity deviates more than 10 kts from mean value during the same period of
time, this will be indicated as:
A) A gust
B) A squall
C) Tempo 10 kts
D) Geostrophic wind.

119.        What does the abbreviation "NOSIG" mean?

A) No significant changes
B) No report received
C) No weather related problems
D) Not signed by the meteorologist

120.        In which weather report would you expect to find information about icing conditions on the runway?
A) TAF
B) SIGMET
C) GAFOR
D) METAR

121. According to the following 1850 UTC METAR reports, which has the highest probability of fog formation?

A) VRB02KT 2500 SCT120 14/M08 Q1035 NOSIG =

B) 22004KT 6000 -RA SCT012 OVC030 17/14 Q1009 NOSIG =
C) VRB01KT 8000 SCT250 11/10 Q1028 BECMG 3000 =
D) 00000KT 9999 SCT300 21/01 Q1032 NOSIG =

122. Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to "CAVOK"?
A) LSZH 26024G52KT 9999 BKN060 17/14 Q1012 RETS TEMPO 5000 TSRA =
B) LSGG 22003KT 9999 SCT120 BKN200 09/08 Q1026 BECMG 5000 =
C) LSZB 30004KT 9999 SCT090 10/09 Q1006 NOSIG =
D) LFSB 00000KT 9000 SCT080 22/15 Q1022 NOSIG =

123. Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to "CAVOK"?
A) LFSB 24008KT 9999 SCT050 18/11 Q1017 RERA NOSIG =
B) LSZB 28012KT 9999 OVC100 16/12 Q1012 BECMG 5000 =
C) LSZH VRB02KT 9000 BKN080 21/14 Q1022 NOSIG =
D) LSGG 22006KT 9999 BKN090 17/15 Q1008 RERA NOSIG =

124. Refer to the TAF for Etimesgut airport.

A) Light drizzle and fog
B) Continuous moderate rain
C) Heavy rain showers
D) Moderate snow showers

125. Refer to the TAF for Isparta airport. TAF LTFC 281340 281524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620
26020G30KT 8000 +SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA = Flight Antalya to Isparta, ETA 1800 UTC. At ETA Isparta what is
the lowest quoted visibility forecast ?

A) 10 or more km
B) 8 NM
C) 10 NM
D) 8 km

126. Refer to the TAF for Etimesgut airport. LTAD 281040 281221 14010KT 6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG 1416
12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1619 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 1921 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020 =
Flight from Antalya to Etimesgut, ETA 1800 UTC. At ETA Etimesgut what surface wind is forecast ?
A) 120° / 15 kt gusts 25 kt
B) 140° / 10 kt
C) 300° / 15 kt maximum wind 25 kt
D) 250° / 20 kt

127. Refer to the TAF for Etimesgut airport. LTAD 281040 281221 14010KT 6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG 1416
12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1619 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 1921 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020 =
Flight from Antalya to Etimesgut, ETA 1800 UTC. At ETA Etimesgut what visibility is forecast ?

A) 5 km
B) 3 km
C) 5 NM
D) 6 km

128. Refer to the following TAF extract: BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001 What
visibility is forecast for 2400 UTC?
A) Between 500 m and 2000 m.
B) 2000 m.
C) 500 m.
D) Between 0 m and 1000 m.

129. Refer to the following TAF extract: BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001 What does
the abbreviation "VV001" mean?
A) RVR greater than 100 m.
B) RVR less than 100 m.
C) Vertical visibility 100 FT.
D) Vertical visibility 100 m.

130. How long from the time of observation is a TREND in a METAR valid?

A) 9 hours.
B) 2 hours.
C) 1 hour.
D) 30 minutes.

131. Which of the following correctly decodes a TAF that reads:

EGNX 130410 130615 21005kt 0550E DZ BCFG VV002?

A) For East Midlands Airport issued on the 13th day of the month at at 0400UTC to 1000 UTC with a trend from 0615 UTC
surface wind 21 ooT at 5kt visibility 5500 meters to the east in moderate drizzle becoming fog with a vertical visibility of 200
meters.
B) For East Midlands Airport issued on the 13th day of the month for the period 0400 UTC to 1000 UTC with a trend
from0600 UTC to 1500 UTC: surface wind 210°T at 5kt visibility 550 meters to the east in drizzle becoming fog with a vertical
visibility of 200ft.
C) For East Midlands Airport issued on the 13th day of the month at at 041OUTC and valid for the forecast period on
the13th day from 0600- 1500 UTC: surface wind from 21oor at 5kt with a surface visibility of 550 meters to the east in
moderate drizzle and patches of fog with a vertical visibility of 200ft.
D)     For East Midlands Airport observed at 0615 UTC on the 13th day of the month; the surface wind was from 210°T at 5kt
with a surface visibility of 550 meters to the east in moderate drizzle with a vertical visibility of 200ft.

132. Lenticular clouds observed above the top of a range of hills seen from an A/C that is approaching from the
downwind or leeward side of the range/ indicate the possibility of:
A) Strong katabatic up currents above the tops of the hills.
B) Strong katabatic downdraughts and turbulence after the ridge is passed.
C) Strong downdraughts immediately before the ridge of the range is reached, with the possibility of severe turbulence
in or below roll cloud with turbulence and strong updraughts after passing the ridge to the windward side.

D) Strong anabatic up currents above the tops of the hills.

133. An aircraft flying at low level in the vicinity of a range of hills across which a strong wind is blowing may
experience:

1- Severe turbulence below any rotor zone.

2- Downdraughts which may completely overcome the rate of climb of some low powered light aircraft.
3- A greater than normal risk of icing in cloud over the crest of the hills.

A) only 1 and 3 are correct.

B) 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
C) only 1 and 2 are correct.
D) only 2 and 3 are correct.

134. Which of the following is true of the lowest level windshear?

A) It is rare where there is an inversion level close to the surface.
B) It is only found under the core of the anvil of a cumulonimbus cloud.
C) It is very common within jet streams.
D) It may be experienced 15 to 20 miles ahead of a moving thunderstorm.

135. Seen from the surface, the passage of a warm front is characterized by which of the following cloud types?

A) Cirrus, Cirrocumulus, Altocumulus, Altostratus Cumulus, Cumulus Fractus

B) Cirrostratus, Cirrocumulus, Cumulus, Nimbostratus, Fractostratus.
C) Cirrus, Cirrostratus, Altostratus, Nimbostratus, Stratus.
D) Cirrostratus, Cirrocumulus, Altostratus, Nimbocumulus, Stratus.

136. Which of the following frontal systems is more likely to produce thunderstorm activity?
A) A cold front.
B) A warm front.
C) A ridge of high pressure
D) An occluded front.

137. Frontal fog may exist:

A)     behind a cold front.
B)     ahead of a warm or occluded front.
C)      ahead of a cold front.
D)     at the surface interface of a cold front.

138. Hazards to aviation due to the presence of cumulonimbus or thunderstorm cloud at their mature stage may be
experience
A) Only when the aircraft is within the cloud.
B) Only when the aircraft is within or underneath the cloud.
C) When the aircraft is within 10 nm of the cloud.
D) Within 10 nm of the cloud around its mid level prior to maturity.

139. What meteorological conditions most favor the formation of radiation fog?

A) High relative humidity, moderate wind and cloudy sky.
B) Low relative humidity, no wind and clear sky.
C) Low relative humidity, cold air and a warm surface under clear sky.
D) High relative humidity, light wind and clear sky.

140. The temperature at 2000ft AMSL is forecast to be +5°C: compared to the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA)
this is:

A) ISA -6.
B) lAS +6.
C) ISA +5.
D) ISA -4.

141. The atmospheric layer within which the greatest majority of weather occurs and within which light aircraft operate
is the:

A) Troposphere.
B) Tropopause.
C) Stratosphere.
D) Atmosphere.

142. The atmosphere is heated mainly by:

A) Direct solar energy not filtered by the ozone layer absorbed by the lower atmosphere.
B) Heat re-radiated from the Earth's surface.
C) Exchanges of latent heat during the process of moisture in the atmosphere changing state.
D) Warm air from high equatorial regions spreading out and descending into more northerly and southerly latitudes.

143. When flying in the vicinity of a range of hills lying north/ south across which the wind is blowing west to east,
exposure to hazardous downdraughts is most likely to occur:
A) When flying west towards the hills from the east.
B) When flying north to south parallel to the range.
C) When flying east towards the range from the west.
D) When flying south to north parallel to the range.

144. For cumulonimbus cloud to develop, there needs to exist:

A) From the surface upwards, a shallow layer of very unstable moist air.
B) A deep layer of very stable moist air with a shallow lapse rate.
C) From the surface up, a deep layer of very unstable moist air with a shallow lapse rate.
D) From the surface upwards, a deep layer of very unstable moist air.

145. You arrive at a south coast aerodrome three hours after sunrise during a summer morning and the weather report
indicates CAVOK. As the coast line is predominantly east/ west and a sea breeze is beginning to establish, which of the
following would you expect to be an into wind runway?

A) 36.
B) 21.
C) 27.
D) 18.

146. Amongst others, which of the following conditions are most likely to produce thunderstorm activity:

A) A high moisture content together with a steep environmental lapse rate.

B) A shallow environmental lapse rate together with a low relative humidity.
C) A shallow environmental lapse rate together with a high moisture content.
D) A front formed by an advancing tropical continental air mass.

147. The type of fog that develops rapidly both by day and by night is:
A) Advection.
B) Radiation.
C) Hoar.
D) Sea smoke.

148. An unstable air mass when forced to rise due to orographic lifting will produce:
A) Cloud of extensive vertical development.
B) Thick stratiform cloud, probably nimbostratus.
C) None, as the air will subside and warm adiabatically after the summit is passed.
D) Lenticular cloud.

149. A piston engine aircraft with carburator flying in clear air may be subjected to the accretion of:
A) Precipitation icing.
B) Clear ice.
C) Rime ice.
D) Carburetor ice.

150. If an airfield is 240ft above mean sea level (AMSL) and the airfield QNH is 1024hPa calculate the airfield QFE given
that 1 hPa =30ft.

A) 1016hPa
B) 1021hPa
C) 1011hPa
D) 1032hPa

151. You observe the passage of the following cloud sequence: Cirrus, cirrostratus, altostratus, nimbostratus, which
would suggest the passage of:
A) a cold front.
B) an occluded front.
C) a quasi stationary front
D) a warm front.

152. Your planned route lies within a warm sector of a depression which would suggest:
A) Good visibility below scattered cumuliform cloud.
B) Good visibility above and below extensive stratiform cloud.
C) Poor visibility above stratus cloud but moderate to good visibility below.
D) Poor visibility both above and below extensive stratus cloud.

153. Providing the minimum sector altitude is not a determining factor, CAVOK in a TAF or METAR:
A) Means visibility 10 km or more and no cloud below 5000ft.
B) Means visibility 10 km or more with only few cloud below 5000ft.
C) Means visibility 10 nm or more and no cloud below 5000ft.
D) Means visibility 10 nm or more.

154. NOSIG appearing at the end of the METAR below means:

A) No expected significant variation to the observed weather during the two hour forecast period following the time of
observation.
B) No significant changes to the forecast conditions during the period of validity of the forecast.
C) No significant weather at the time of observation.
D) Nothing significant in general for that day.

155. The weather group +SHSNRA contained in Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) means:
A) Slight showers of snow and rain.
B) Slight showers of snow becoming rain.
C) Heavy showers of snow and rain.
D) Heavy showers of snow becoming rain.

156. A METAR- EGZZ 130350Z 32005kt 0400N DZ 10/10 BCFG VV002- in plain language means:
A) Observed on the 13th day of the month at 0350Z, surface wind 320°T/05kt, minimum visibility 400 meters to the
north, moderate drizzle, temperature +10°C, dew point + 10 °C with fog patches, vertical visibility 200ft.

B) Reported on the 13th day of the month at 0350Z, surface wind 320°/05kt, minimum visibility 400metres to the north, drizzle,
temperature +10°C dew point above 10 oc with fog patches, vertical visibility 200metres.

C) Observed on the 13th day of the month and valid between 0300 and 0500Z, surface wind 320°/05kt, minimum visibility 4000
meters to the north, drizzle temperature+10°C, dew point + 10°C, becoming fog patches, vertical visibility 200ft.

D) Reported on the 13th day of the month and valid between 0300 and 0500Z, surface wind 320°/05kt, minimum visibility 400
meters to the north, drizzle temperature +10°C, becoming fog patches, vertical visibility 200ft.

157. An aircraft with 1020hPa set on the altimeter sub-scale departs aerodrome 'A' which is 800ft above mean sea level
(AMSL). The flight is made to the planned destination aerodrome 'B' which is in an area of low pressure, but the
altimeter sub-scale is not updated en route. If the QNH at aerodrome 'B' is 999hPa, and the highest point on the
landing area is 500ft AMSL, what should the altimeter read? Assume 1hPa = 30ft.
A) 830ft
B) -130ft
C) 1130ft
D) -180ft
158. Select the statement that is most representative of land and sea breezes.
A) The surface wind is likely to be sea to land during the night.
B) The surface wind is likely to be from sea to land during the day.
C) By day the 1000ft wind is likely to flow parallel to the coast line.
D) By night the 1000ft wind is likely to flow parallel to the coast line

159. The code: BECMG FM 1100 -SHRA when used in a METAR means:

A) From 1100 UTC the cessation of rain showers.
B) Becoming from 1100 UTC slight rain showers.
C) Becoming fairly moderate weather from 1100 UTC.
D) From 1100 UTC the prevailing rain showers becoming slight.

160. BECMG 1820 BKN030 in a TAF means:

A) Gradually the wind changing to 18020kt, cloud cover changing to 5-7 oktas base 3000ft above ground level.

B) Becoming between 1800 and 2000 local time, 5 - 7 oktas, base 3000ft above aerodrome elevation.
C) Becoming between 1800 and 2000 UTC 5 - 7 oktas, base 3000ft above aerodrome elevation.
D) At 1820 UTC, cloud cover changing to 5 - 7 oktas base 3000ft above ground level.
060
GENERAL NAVIGATION

1.    What is the inclination of the Earth’s axis to its orbital plane?

a.    23,5
b.    66,5
c.    90°
d.    33,5

2.    What type of line will always be the shortest distance between two points on the earth

a.    A rhumb line

b.    A great circle
c.    A small circle
d.    A paralel of latitude

3.    What is the definition of night according to Turkish AIP ?

a.    From one hour after sunset to one hour before sunrise.
b.    From half an hour after sunset to half an hour before sunrise.
c.    From sunset to sunrise.
d.    From half an hour before sunset to half an hour after sunrise.

4.    What is the ICAO definition of night?

a.    From half an hour after sunset to half an hour before sunrise.

b.    The period between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight, or such
other period between sunset and sunrise as may be described by the appropriate authority.

c.    From sunset to sunrise.

d.    Any period decided upon by a aviation authority.

5.    The angle between the horizantal and vertical components of the Earth’s magnetic field is defined as:

a.    Angle of inclination.
b.    Magnetic Angle.
c.    Angle of Dip.
d.    Angle of Incidence.

6.    An aircraft is following the 45°N parallel of latitude. The track followed is a:
a.    constant-heading track
b.    rhumb line
c.    great circle
d.    constant-drift track

7.    Magnetic Variation is the angle between:

a.                  True North and the nearest line of Longitude
b.                  True North and Magnetic North
c.                  Magnetic North and the aircraft’s magnetic heading
d.                  Magnetic North and the aircraft’s true heading

8.    An Isogonal is a line of joining points of:

a.    Equal magnetic deviation.
b.    Zero magnetic variation
c.    Equal magnetic variation.
d.    Zero magnetic deviation.

9.    Deviation is the angle between:

a.    True North and the direction indicated by the compass needle.
b.    Magnetic North and direction indicated by the compass needle.
c.    Compass needle and the Earth’s magnetic field.
d.    Aircraft’s main and standby compasses.

10.  An Agonic line joins points of:

a.    Equal magnetic deviation.
b.    Zero magnetic variation
c.    Equal magnetic variation.
d.    Zero magnetic deviation

11.  Compass Deviation is the angle between:

a.                  True North and the heading indicated by the compass needle

b.                  Magnetic heading and the heading indicated by the compass needle

c.                  The heading indicated by the compass needle and the Earth’s magnetic field

d.                  The indications of the aircraft’s main and standby compasses

12.  With a calculated heading of 246° True, a local magnetic variation of 5°W and a compass deviation of 1°E, the
compass heading is:
a.    252°
b.    242°
c.    241°
d.    250°

13.  A direct-reading compass in an aircraft executing a level turn, at a constant rate, in the Northern Hemisphere, will
be subject to the largest turning error as the aircraft turns through:

a.    East and West

b.    North and South
c.    Northeast and Northwest
d.    Southeast and Southwest

14.  Which of the following statements is not correct?

a.    Turning errors are maximum when turning through North and South
b.    Acceleration errors are maximum on East/West headings
c.    Turning errors are maximum when turning through East and West
d.    Acceleration errors are minimum on North/South headings

15.  If the groundspeed of an aircraft is 90 knots, how far will it fly in 20 minutes?
a.    1800 nautical miles
b.    4.5 nautical miles
c.    30 nautical miles
d.    45 nautical miles

16.  What is the groundspeed of an aircraft which has taken 10 minutes to cover 20 nautical miles?

a.    200 nautical miles per hour

b.    200 kilometres per hour
c.    180 knots
d.    120 knots

17.  How long will it take to fly 5 NM at a groundspeed of 269 Kt ?

a.    0 MIN 34 SEC
b.    1 MIN 55 SEC
c.    1 MIN 07 SEC
d.    2 MIN 30 SEC

18.  GS = 122 kt.Distance from A to B = 985 NM. What is the time from A to B?
a.    8 HR 04 MIN
b.    7 HR 29 MIN
c.    8 HR 10 MIN
d.    7 HR 48 MIN

19.  The diameter of the Earth is approximately:

a.    18 500 km
b.    12 700 km
c.    6 350 km
d.    40 000 km

20.  Contour lines on aeronautical maps and charts connect points:

a.    Of equal latitude
b.    Having the same longitude
c.    Having the same elevation above sea level
d.    With the same variation

21.  A straight line on a Lambert Conformal Projection chart for normal flight planning purposes:

a.    is a Rhumb line

b.    is approximately a Great Circle
c.    is a Loxodromic line
d.    can only be a parallel of latitude

23.  The nominal scale of a Lambert conformal conic chart is the:

a.    Mean scale between pole and equator
b.    Scale at the standard parallels
c.    Scale at the equator
d.    Mean scale between the parallels of the secant cone

24.  A straight line drawn on a chart measures 4.63 cm and represents 150 NM. The chart scale is:
a.    1: 3 000 000
b.    1: 5 000 000
c.    1: 6 000 000
d.    1: 1 000 000

25.  The distance measured between two points on a navigation map is 42 mm (millimetres). The scale of the chart is
1:1 600 000. The actual distance between these two point is approximately:
a.    36.30 NM
b.    370.00 NM
c.    3.69 NM
d.    67.20 NM

26.  Compass Heading = 233° True Track = 256° Drift Angle = 10°R Deviation = -3° What is the variation?
a.    10 W
b.    36 E
c.    16 E
d.    20 W

27.  Variation is 6°W. Isogonic lines Jan 2002. Average annual increase 10'. What is variation in 2005.
a.    5,5 W
b.    6,3 W
c.    6,5 W
d.    5.5°E

28.  Magnetic heading: 060°, Magnetic variation: 8°W, Drift angle: 4° right, What is the true track?
a.    072°
b.    064°
c.    048°
d.    056°

29.  True track is 348°, drift 17° left, variation 32° W, deviation 4°E. What is the compass heading?
a.    337°
b.    359°
c.    033°
d.    007°

30.  The accuracy of VHF Direction Finding (VDF) could be affected by:

a. Propagation and site errors
b. Night effect
c. Airframe quadrantal errors
d. Coastal refraction

31.  Which of the following statements is wrong?

a. QDM - magnetic heading TO the station
b. QDR - magnetic bearing FROM the station
c. QTE - true bearing FROM the station
d. QDR - true bearing TO the station

33.  Which of the following statements best describes a Non-Directional Beacon (NDB)?

a.    A combination of aerials which provides a VOR display with information concerning NDB signals
b.    A relative bearing indicator and ADF needle
c.    A surface based transmitter which transmits radio signals in all directions
d.    A special aerial providing a controller with VDF information

35.  Which of the following phenomena does not affect the accuracy of the ADF?
a.                   Thunderstorms
b.                  Precipitation
c.                   High ground
d.                   CB 
 36. How would a pilot positively identify an NDB to which his ADF equipment is tuned?
a.                   By the NDB's morse code indication
b.                  By the direction in which the ADF needle swings
c.                   By the movement of the Radio Magnetic Indicator
d.                  By the accuracy of the QDM

38.  In what frequency range does VOR operate?

a.                  118 MHz to137 MHz
b.                  190 to 1750 kHz
c.                  1000 to 2000 MHz
d.                  108 MHz to 117.95 MHz

39.   What is the approximate theoretical maximum range that a pilot would obtain from a VOR situated at 400 feet
above mean sea level, in an aircraft flying at 2 500 feet?
a. 3750 feet
b. 100 nm
c. 88 nm
d. 70 nm.

40.  In which of the radio frequency bands does VOR operate?

a.   Ultra High Frequency
b.   Very High Frequency
c.  Low Frequency
d.  Micro Frequency

41.  The DME instrument in the aircraft gives the distance read out from the beacon.
a.   Horizontal
b.   Slant
c.   Oblique
d.   Return

42.  Which of the following phenomena does not affect VOR reception?

a. The terrain surrounding the VOR beacon
b. Transmitter elevation and receiver altitude
c. The cone of ambiguity overhead a VOR beacon
d. Coastal Refraction

49. In a time interval of one minute, your DME instrument shows that your aircraft has travelled 1.7 nautical miles
directly towards a VOR/DME beacon, what is the groundspeed of the aircraft?
a.                            102 knots
b.                             110 knots
c.                             96 knots
d.                             100 knots

51.Give an approximate value for the theoretical maximum range of a DME beacon at sea level in respect of an aircraft
flying at 3000 feet?
a.                             55 nautical miles
b.                            60 nautical miles
c.                             70 nautical miles
d.                            3000 nautical miles
 55.A transponder fitted to an aircraft is essential equipment to provide a controller with what type of information?

a.                             Primary radar returns

b.                            Secondary Surveillance Radar returns
c.                             Precision Approach Radar returns
d.                            Area Radar returns

57.What is the significance of the expression of 'Mode Charlie' when applied to the capability of an aircraft-mounted
transponder?
a.                             The transponder provides positional information only
b.                             The transponder provides information on both identification and altitude
c.                             The transponder provides QDM information only
d.                            The transponder provides QDM and QDR information only

58.What is the result of a pilot pressing a transponder's IDENT button?

a.              It causes a special symbol to appear briefly on the controller's radar screen, around the aircraft's
transponder return, allowing positive identification of the aircraft.
b.              It confirms to the controller that the pilot has the correct transponder code selected
c.              It selects the transponder's Mode Alpha capability
d.              It selects the transponder's Mode Charlie capability

59.How is a transponder's Mode Charlie position selected?

a.    The pilot moves the transponder selector knob to the SBY position
b.    The pilot moves the transponder selector knob to the TST position
c.    The pilot presses the IDENT button
d.    The pilot moves the transponder selector knob to the ALT position

60. If a controller asks you to "SQUAWK IDENT", you should:

a.    Confirm to him what code you have set on your transponder
b.    Enter onto the transponder the code he has given to you
c.    Press the IDENT button once, briefly

d.    Enter 7600 on your transponder and press the IDENT button

NAVIGATION PPL

61.The calibrated air speed (CAS) is obtained by applying to the indicated airspeed (IAS):
a.     An instrument and position/pressure error correction.
b.    An instrument and density correction.
c.     A compressibility correction.
d.    A compressibility and density correction.

63.Which of these statements about a small circle is false?

a)             The smaller arc of it does not represent the shortest distance on Earth.
b)            All lines of lattitude are small circles.
c)             Its plane doesn’t pass through the centre of the Earth.
d)            A radio wave never follows a small circle.

64.What is the angular distance in degrees for latitudes?

a)             N / S of the Equator to a maximum of 180 degrees N / S
b)            E / W of the Equator to a maximum of 90 degrees E / W
c)             N / S of the Equator to a maximum of 90 degrees N / S
d)            E / W of the Equator to a maximum of 180 degrees E / W

65.Which of these statements about a rhumb line is false?

a)             It is a line of constant direction on the Earth’s surface.
b)            All lines of lattitude are rhumb lines but not great circles.
c)             All meridians are both rhumb lines and semi great circles.
d)            If the rhumb line bearing of A from B is 090 (T), the rhumb line bearing of B from A is 270 (T).

66.Which of the following statements on the shape of the Earth is correct?

a)             The diameter of the Earth is the same at all latitudes.
b)            The longest diameter is between the poles.
c)             It is slightly flattened at the poles.
d)            The equatorial diameter is about 60 NM longer than the polar diameter.

67.Which one of the following statements on longitudes is correct?

a)             Longitude is stated in degrees up to 360°.
b)            The largest value of longitude is 180°.
c)             The value of longitude will never exceed 90 degrees.
d)            The largest value of change of longitude is 90.

68.The angular difference between the Magnetic North and the True North is;
a)             Inclination.
b)            Magnetic correction.
c)             Variation.
d)            Deviation.

69. Given, variation 6° E, deviation (-4°), True Heading 136 degrees. What is the compass heading?

a)             130°.
b)            134°.
c)             138°.
d)            126°.

70. Variation in a position is 13 W and true course is 136 degrees. Consider the following statements:

a. The compass heading is 149°.

b. Magnetic course is 149°.
c.     Looking north from this position the Magnetic North pole seems to be located to the
d.    east of the True North Pole.
e. The position most likely is located at Northern latitudes and on Eastern longitudes.

71. True heading is 355 degrees (T), variation is 12 degrees W and compass heading is 002 degrees. The
magnetic heading of the aircraft is …. and the deviation is…..?
a)             343° (M); -7°.
b)            007° (M); +5°.
c)             343° (M); +19°.
d)            007° (M); -5°.

72. One Nautical Mile equals to

a)             1852 km.
b)            6076 feet.
c)             0.869 Statute Miles.
d)            3281 Yards.

73.An aircraft, flying at 088° TC at a speed of 100 kts TAS, is affected by the wind blowing from 060 degrees at
a speed of 30 kts (060/30). Calculate the drift and the ground speed.
a) Right 8°, GS 74 kts.
b) Right 13°, GS 128 kts.
c) Right 8°, GS 117 kts.
d)Left 13°, GS 64 kts.

74. An airplane is flying at a speed of 74 kts. What is the estimated en-route time (ETE) for a distance of 68
nautical miles?
a) 0h 45 Minutes.
b) 1h 45 Minutes.
c) 0h 55 Minutes.
d) 0h 35 Minutes.

75. Pressure altitude= 10 000 feet; Temperature= -30°C. IAS: 180. Determine True Air Speed.
162 kt.
186 kt.
210 kt.
200 kt.

76.True Course= 124°; TAS= 110 kt; W/V= 340°/15 kt; Variation 3°E; Deviation between 120 and 150 degrees
Heading= – 2°.
What is the Compass Heading (CH)?
122°.
128°.
118°.
125°.

77. True Course= 124°; TAS= 110 kt; W/V= 340°/15 kt; Variation 3°E; Deviation between 120 and 150 degrees
Heading= – 2°.
What is the Ground Speed (GS)?
98 kt.
121 kt.
127 kt.
115 kt.

78. What rate of descent is required to descend from 2500 ft to 1000 ft in 5 NM if your groundspeed is 80
kts?
a) 300 ft/min.
b) 350 ft/min.
c) 400 ft/min.
d) 450 ft/min.

79.Calculate your true airspeed (TAS) for an indicated airspeed (IAS) of 100 knots, if you are flying at an
altitude of 5000 ft where the temperature is zero degrees Celsius.
a) 104 kt.
b) 105 kt.
c) 106.5 kt.
d) 108 kt.
80.Your true air speed is 106 kt, and the wind is 325°/10 kt. If the variation is 1 degree West, what magnetic
heading would you need to steer in order to maintain a desired true track of 068°?

a) 060°.
b) 062°.
c) 064°.
d) 066°.

81. If it takes you 41 minutes to cover a distance of 58 nautical miles, what is your ground speed?

a) 93 kt.
b) 77 kt.
c) 85 kt.
d) 87 kt.

82. Having travelled 30 NM, you discover you are 2 NM off track. What is your track error?
a) 3°.
b) 4°.
c) 6°.
d) 8°.

83. Which one is true?

a) The circumference of the equator is approximately 40000 km.
b) The angle between magnetic and compass north is called deviation.
c) Maximum deviation can be 180 degrees.
d) All of these.

84) True track= 350°, Variation= 10° East, Deviation= 5° East. What is the compass track?
a) 005°.
b) 355°.
c) 335°.
d) 345°.

85) True Track= 225°, TAS= 150 kt, W/V = 130°/25 kt. Ground Speed= ?
a) 140 kt.
b) 150 kt.
c) 160 kt.
d) 179 kt.

86) True Track= 225°, TAS= 150 kt, W/V = 130°/25 kt. True Heading= ?
a) 245°.
b) 235°.
c) 225°.
d) 215°.

87) An aircraft flies with an IAS of 240 kts. Its FL is 150 and the OAT is - 20° C. There is a tailwind of 20
kts. How long does it take to fly 450 NM?
a) 1,4 minutes.
b) 100 minutes.
c) 68 minutes.
d) 84 minutes.
88) Which one is true?
a) 0° paralel of latitude is longer than 30° N paralel of latitude.
b) 0° meridian is longer than 30° W meridian.
c) 0° paralel of latitude is shorter than 0° meridian.
d) Equinox is the 23° 27' latitude.

89) 88 Magnetic heading= 015°, Variation= +6°, TAS= 140 kt, W/V = 320°(T)/30 kt. What is the true track?

a) 017°.
b) 009°.
c) 023°.
d) 033°.

93) 92 Assuming no instrument and position errors, 150 kt of IAS, FL 100 under ISA conditions, what is
the TAS?
a) 181 kt.
b) 165 kt.
c) 170 kt.
d) 175 kt.

94) TAS= 160 kt, GS= 140 kt, Heading= 150°, Track= 144°. W/V = ?
a) 114°/26 kt.
b) 186°/36 kt.
c) 114°/36 kt.
d) 186°/26 kt.

95) Track= 300°, GS= 170 kt, W/V= 150°/30 kt. TAS = ?
a) 195 kt.
b) 300 kt.
c) 120 kt.
d) 145 kt.

96) Track= 300°, GS= 170 kt, W/V= 150°/30kt. Heading = ?

a) 145°.
b) 306°.
c) 180°.
d) 294°.

97) True Heading= 290°, VAR= - 12°, DEV= 8° E, drift is 5° L. True Track= ?
a) 273°.
b) 288°.
c) 302°.
d) 285°.

98) True Heading= 290°, VAR= - 12°, DEV= 8° E, drift is 5° L. Magnetic Track= ?
a) 295°.
b) 302°.
c) 293°.
d) 297°.
99) True Heading= 290°, VAR= - 12°, DEV= 8° E, drift is 5° L. Compass Track= ?
 a) 299°.
b) 296°.
c) 287°.
d) 289°.

100) If you fly a ground distance of 82 NM in 46 minutes, then your ground speed is;
a) 126 kt.
b) 95 kt.
c) 63 kt.
d) 107 kt.

105) Which of the following does not affect the operations range of a VOR?
a) Height of transmitter and receiver.
b) Intervening high ground or manmade structures.
c) Transmitter power.
d) Night operations.

106) Which of the following does not affect the accuracy of a VOR?
a) Site error.
b) VOR scalloping.
c) Quadrantal error.
d) Propagation error.

110) What are the three main GPS segments?

a) Control, Space, User
b) Ground, Airborne, Space
c) Monitor, Uplink, Control
d) Earth, Space, Moon

111) Principle of operation of primary radar is:

a) phase difference.
b) difference of dept of modulation.
c) differential range.
d) pulse technique.

112) The special SSR codes are as follows: emergency______, radio failure______, unlawful interference with
the conduct of the flight_______.
a) 7700; 7600; 7500.
b) 7700; 7600; 2000.
c) 7600; 7500; 7700.
d) 7500; 7600; 7700.

117- After flying for 16 min at 100 kt TAS with a 20 kt tail wind component, you have to return to the airfield of
departure. You will arrive after:
a 20 min
b 24 min
c 10 min 40 sec
d 16 min

118- When completing an ATS flight plan, clock times are to be expressed in :
a Central European Time
b Local mean time
c UTC
d local standard time

119 - In the ATS flight plan, for a non-scheduled flight which of the following letters should be entered in Item
8 (Type of Flight) :
aN
b N/S
cG
dX

120 - When completing an ATS flight plan for a flight commencing under IFR but possibly changing to VFR,
the letters entered in Item 8 (FLIGHT RULES) would be :
aX
b N/S
cG
dY

121 In the ATS flight plan Item 15, a cruising speed of 100 knots will be entered as :
a N100
b N0100
c 0100K
d KN100

122 In the ATS flight plan Item 15 (Cruising speed), when not expressed as a Mach number, cruising speed is
expressed as :
a IAS
b TAS
c CAS
d Groundspeed

123 If your destination airport has no ICAO indicator, in the appropriate box of your flight plan, you write:

a ////
b AAAA
c XXXX
d ZZZZ

124. When a pilot fills in a flight plan, he must indicate the wake turbulence category.
This category is a function of which mass?
a actual take-off mass
b estimated take-off mass
c maximum certified take-off mass
d maximum certified landing mass

126 The angle between the plane of the ecliptic and the plane of equator is approximately :
a. 27.5°
b. 25.3°

c. 23.5°

d. 66.5°

127 At what approximate date is the earth furthest from the sun (aphelion)?
a. Beginning of July
b. End of December
c. Beginning of January
d. End of September

128. Seasons are due to the:

a. Earth's elliptical orbit around the Sun

b. inclination of the polar axis with the ecliptic plane
c. Earth's rotation on its polar axis
d. variable distance between Earth and Sun

129. The planets move around the Sun

a. In circular orbits
b. In elliptical orbits
c. At constant angular speed
d. At constant velocity

130. The direction of the Earth's rotation on its axis is such that
a. Observed from the point above the North Pole, the rotation is counterclockwise.
b. An observer on the surface of the earth always will face West when observing sunrise
c. Any point on the surface of the Earth will move eastward
d. Any point on the surface of the Earth will move westward

131. Consider the following statements on the properties of a great circle:

a. The great circle will maintain their initial true direction
b. The parallels of latitudes are all great circles
c. The great circle running through two positions on the surface of the earth, is the shortest distance between
these two positions
d. All 3 answers are correct.

132. A Rhumb line is :

a. the shortest distance between two points on a Polyconic projection
b. a line on the surface of the earth cutting all meridians at the same angle
c. any straight line on a Lambert projection
d. a line convex to the nearest pole on a Mercator projection

133. Parallels of latitude, except the equator, are:

a. both Rhumb lines and Great circles
b. Great circles
c. Rhumb lines
d. are neither Rhumb lines nor Great circles

134. The convergency of meridians

a. Is the distance between the meridians in degrees, minutes, and seconds
b. Is the angular difference between the meridians
c. Is independent of latitude and longitude
d. Is greater using rhumb line track than using great circle

135. An arc of 1 minute of a meridian equals

a. 1 nautical mile
b. 10 kilometres
c. 1 statute mile
d. 1 kilometre

136. "True North" is

a. The direction along a meridian
b. The direction along the meridian, toward the north pole when on the northern hemisphere and toward the south pole
when on the southern hemisphere
c. Is in any direction out from the true north pole
d. The direction along any meridian toward the true north pole

139. Deviation applied to magnetic heading gives:

a. magnetic course
b. true heading
c. compass heading
d. magnetic track

141. In producing chart projections, the following projection surfaces may be used:
a. Plane, Cylinder, Cone
b. Plane, Sphere, Cone
c. Cylinder, Sphere, Plane
d. Parabola, Cone, Plane, Cylinder

142. Given the following: True track: 192° Magnetic variation: 7°E Drift angle: 5° left What is the magnetic
heading required to maintain the given track?
a. 190°
b. 194°
c. 204°
d. 180°

143. An aircraft travels 100 statute miles in 20 MIN, how long does it take to travel 215 NM?
a. 50 MIN
b. 100 MIN
c. 90 MIN
d. 80 MIN

144. Fuel flow per HR is 31 US-GAL, total fuel on board is 260 Liter. What is the endurance?
a. 8 HR 39 MIN
b. 2 HR 22 MIN
c. 2 HR 13 MIN
d. 8 HR 23 MIN

145. Given: IAS 120 kt, FL 80, OAT +20°C. What is the TAS?
a. 132 kt
b. 102 kt
c. 120 kt
d. 141 kt

146. The International Date Line is located

a. At the apparent sun's anti meridian
b. At the Greenwich meridian
c. At the 180°E/W meridian, or in the vicinity of this meridian
d. At all latitudes on the 180°E/W meridian

147. Deviation applied to magnetic heading gives:

a. compass heading
b. true heading
c. magnetic course
d. magnetic track

148. The ICAO definition of ETA is the:

a. actual time of arrival at a point or fix
b. estimated time of arrival at destination
c. estimated time of arrival at an en-route point or fix
d. estimated time en route

149. Given: GS = 122 kt. Distance from A to B = 985 NM. What is the time from A to B?
a. 7 HR 48 MIN
b. 8 HR 04 MIN
c. 7 HR 49 MIN
d. 8 HR 10 MIN

150. 265 US-GAL equals? (Specific gravity 0.80)

a. 862 kg
b. 803 kg
c. 895 kg
d. 940 kg

151. Given: TAS 140 kt, FL 80, OAT +20°C. What is the CAS?

a. 120 kt
b. 129 kt
c. 151 kt
d. 163 kt

153. Given: Magnetic heading = 255° VAR = 40°W GS = 375 kt W/V = 235°(T) / 120 kt Calculate the drift angle?

a. 7° left
b. 7° right
c. 9° left
d. 16° right
Is it possible No, in no case. Yes, in case of Yes, because This is possible B
for a desired still air condition. these values are only when flying in
true track, always equal. north or south
true heading direction.
and actual
true track to
have the same
value?
An Aircraft at 08°30’N. 04°30’S. 04°30’N. 03°30’S. D
latitude
02°30’N tracks
180°(T) for 666
km. The final
latitude will
be:
For an aircraft 1 NM. 2 NM. 3 NM. 4 NM. A
travelling with
a
groundspeed
of 120 kt, find
the
approximate
off-track
distance in
nautical miles,
if the aircraft
flies 10 min
with a track
error of 3°.
For an aircraft 3 NM. 4 NM. 6 NM. 2 NM. A
travelling with
a
groundspeed
of 90 kt, find
the
approximate
off-track
distance in
nautical miles,
if the aircraft
flies 1 hour
with a track
error of 2°.
An aircraft is B
travelling with
a
groundspeed
of 120 kt for
half an hour
2° 4° 6° 8°
where the off-
track distance
from the
intended route
is 4 NM.
Calculate the
approximate
track error.

An aircraft 156° 146° 214° 136° A

turns to right
from a true
heading of
081° to a true
track of 227°
under a drfit
of 10°L.
Calculate the
degree of
rotation.
An aircraft 11° 17° 23° 203° A
turns to right
from a true
heading of
082° to a true
track of 099°
under a drift
of 6°R.
Calculate the
degree of
rotation.
An aircraft 17° 29° 25° 37° A
turns to left
from a true
heading of
112° to a
magnetic
track of 085°.
The drift is
4°Left and
the local
variation is
6°E.
Calculate the
degree of
rotation.
An aircraft Cannot be 20 NM 10 NM 40 NM C
flies for half calculated
an hour in still
wind
condition.
Calculate the
additional
distance it
could have
flown with a
tailwind of 20
kt during the
same amount
of time.
If an aircraft 400 feet 300 feet 240 feet 500 feet A
descends with
a rate of 1200
feet/minute,
calculate the
vertical
distance
travelled in 20
seconds.
The PIC of an 22, 29 and 33 29 only 29 and 33 22 and 29 D
aircraft with a
crosswind
limitation of
14kt for both
T/O and
landing has
the option of
three
operational
runways.
Given a
surface wind
of 250/18kt,
which of the
following
runways give
a crosswind
that is within
the aircraft’s
limitations?
An aircraft 11:57 UTC 11:04 UTC 11:49 UTC 11:45 UTC C
sets heading
overhead A at
11:00 UTC to
fly to B which
is 87nm away
on a track of
160 degress
true, the
forecast met
wind is 040
degress at
30kts and the
planned TAS
is 96kts. What
is the ETA
overhead B?

You are flying Approximately Approximately Approximately Approximately C

at 1200ft. 240 ft / min 780 ft / min 580 ft / min 1080 ft / min
What rate of
climb is
required to
reach 4000 ft
in 10 nm if
your
groundspeed
is 125 kts?
After 5 degrees 3 degrees 2.5 degrees 1 degree B
travelling 50
nm, you
discover you
are 2.5 nm off
track. What is
your track
error?
Given a chart 110 nm 150 nm 169 nm 220 nm B
scale of
1:1,000, 000
what is
represented
by a chart
distance of 11
inches?
(1 inch=2,54
cm)

Approximately 5060 1112 6080 8060 C

how many feet
are there in a
nautical mile?
An aircraft 6018 km 1170km 1890 km 1806 km D
travels north
along the
same
meridian from
latitude 30 15’
south to 14
00’ south.
What is the
distance flown
in kilometres?
To define a position on Latitude only. Longitude Both latitude and Either
Earth, it is enough to only. longitude. latitude or
give; longitude.
For landing on a 21 kt. 26 kt. 15 kt. None of
runway with the them.
magnetic direction of
225°, the W/V reported
by voice ATIS is 180°/30
kt. The local magnetic
variation is given as 15°
E. Calculate the
approximate crosswind
component.
An aircraft follows a 11:10 11.00. 10:50 11:32
radial to a VOR/DME
station. At 10:20 the
DME reads 100 NM. At
10:25 the DME reads 90
NM. The estimated time
overhead the VOR/DME
station is:
1 hour and 5 1 hour. 1 hour and 10 59 minutes.
The distance between
minutes. minutes.
the points ALFA and
BRAVO is 104 NM. If an
aircraft covers first 8
NM in 5 minutes, what
time does it take to
travel the entire route
ALFA-BRAVO with the
same groundspeed?
On a chart we read the 2,230 ft. 1,782 ft. 2,800 ft. 1,540 ft.
obstacle altitude 540
meters. Regarding the
rule of height clearance
1,000 feet over
obstacles, what is the
lowest altitude for
overflying the
obstacle?
If a pilot changes the Decrease for Decrease for Increase for 690 ft Increase for
altimeter setting from 690 ft 1,000 ft. 1,000 ft.
1000hPa to 1023hPa,
the altitude indication
will:
If a vertical speed 2 m/sec. 1 m/sec. 4 m/sec. 13 m/sec.
indicator of an aircraft
shows 400 ft/min, the
approximate rate of-
climb in meters-per-
second is:
10° N parallel 45° S parallel 010° W meridian. They are all
The total length of
circle. circle. the same.
which of the following
flight routes is shorter?
 40°. 30°. 20°. 50°.
The true heading for a
flight between two
points of a route is 200°
and the drift angle is
10°Right. What will be
the true heading for a
return flight between
the same points, if the
wind condition remains
unaffected?
When calculating Subtracted. Added. Added or Multiplicated.
magnetic direction from subtracted
a given true direction, depending on the
westerly variation location.
should be:
True heading Desired true True and Magnetic and
and desired and desired magnetic compass
A Wind Correction true course. magnetic heading. heading in no
Angle is the angle course. wind
difference between: condition.
45 minutes. 2 hours. 50 minutes. 1 hour and 10
The distance of the minutes.
route from the point X
to the point Y via the
control point Z is 84
km. If an aircraft covers
the first segment X-Z
(35 km) in 50 minutes,
what will be the total
time of flight between
the points X and Y?
Southern – Northern – Northern – East - Northern –
Point A(Southern West - 078. East - 102. 078. East - 112.
Hemisphere, 078°W),
and Point B which is
the
antipodal(=diametrically
opposite) of point A lies
definitely in the ……
Hemisphere, ……… to
the Prime Meridian and
has longitude of ……..
degrees!
During a cruise with a 288 knots. 300 knots. 144 knots. 330 km/h.
constant track, while
inbound to the 316
radial at 14:17, DME
indicates 24 NM. At
14:27 DME still
indicates 24 NM while
being outbound to the
136 radial. Find the
approximate
Groundspeed.
The angular difference Deviation – Magnetic Variation – Deviation –
between the Variation – correction – Deviation – Drift –
geographical meridian Magnetic Variation – Compass North – Heading –
and the magnetic North – Compass Magnetic North. Track.
meridian running Compass North – True
through the same North. North.
position is ………….
However students often
mix it with ……………..
which is actually the
angle between
……………. and
………………
If your true course = 017°, D
wind 340°/15 kt and True
Air Speed = 210 kt for a
VFR flight, what are drift
correction and ground
speed? 3°R, 198 kt 3°L, 208 kt 3°R, 208 kt 3°L, 198 kt
If your departure A
aerodrome elevation =
1500 ft and QNH = 1023
hPa, how many feet you
have to climb to reach FL
75? (Temperature = ISA , 1
hPa = 30 ft) 6300 ft 6600 ft 5700 ft 6000 ft
From which of the B
following would you
expect to find details of ATCC
the Search and Rescue broadcasts
organisation and
procedures? NOTAM AIP SIGMET
From which of the D
following would you
expect to find information
regarding known short
unserviceability of the
approach lights? ATCC broadcasts AIP SIGMET NOTAM
From which of the B
following would you
expect to find facilitation
information regarding
customs and health
formalities? NAV/RAD charts AIP ATCC NOTAM
From which of the B
following would you
expect to find the dates
and times when temporary
danger areas are active? SIGMET NOTAM RAD/NAV charts Only AIP
A METAR includes C
“SA1430 35002KT 7000
SKC 21/03 Q1024”. Which
of the following
information is contained in
this METAR? runway in use period of validity temperature/dewpoint day/month
After flying for 16 min at B
100 kt TAS with a 20 kt tail
wind component, you
have to return to the
airfield of departure. The
return leg will last: 20 min 24 min 16 min 10 min 40 sec
Flight planning chart for C
an aircraft states that the
time to reach the cruising
level at a given gross
mass is 36 minutes and
the distance travelled is 157 NM
157 NM (zero-wind). What
will be the distance
travelled with an average
tailwind component of 60
kt? 228 NM 128 NM 193 NM
For a VFR flight by a D
single engine aeroplane, if
empty mass = 1764 lbs,
equipment = 35 lbs, pilot +
front seat passenger = 300
lbs, cargo = 350 lbs, block
fuel = 360 lbs, trip fuel =
210 lbs and taxy fuel 10
lbs, what is the take-off
mass? 2809 lbs 2659 lbs 2764 lbs 2799 lbs
070
070 Operational Procedures

1. The Chicago Convention Annex which is applicable to the operation of aeroplanes in

commercial air transport is: (83)
a) Annex 2
b) Annex 6
c) Annex 9
d) Annex 1

2.In which manual is the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) included? (83)

a) The Aeroplane Flight Manual.

b) The Operations Manual.
c) In the Maintenance Documents.
d) In the Operations Officer's documents.

3. Information about evacuation procedures from an aeroplane can be found in the: (83)

a) Journey Logbook.
b) Flight Manual.
c) Operational Flight Plan.
d) Operations Manual.

4.As defined for search and rescue purposes, the word ‘distress’ means specifically that: (84)
An aircraft has lost contact with ATC and is late arriving at its destination.
An aircraft and its occupants are threatened by grave and imminent danger.
An aircraft is subject to any level of emergency.
There is apprehension concerning the safety of an aircraft and its occupants.

5. What is the ICAO annex 6 definition of "flight time" for an aeroplane:

The total time from take off until the engine is stopped
The total time from the moment the engine starts until it is shut down
The total time from the moment an aeroplane first moves for the purpose of taking off until
the moment it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight
The total time from brakes release until the aircraft comes to rest on the runway after
landing

6. Noise attenuation shall not be the determining factor in the designation of a runway, under the
following circumstances :
1. when cross wind component, including gust, exceeds 15 knots.
2. when the tail wind component, including gust, exceeds 5 knots.
3. when the runway is not clear or dry.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
a) 1,2,3.
b) 2,3.
c) 1,2.
d) 1,3.
7. According to ICAO noise abatement procedures during landing:
a) shall not prohibit the use of reverse thrust.
b) prohibit the use of reverse thrust.
c) apply in case of instrument approaches only.
d) apply in case of visual approaches only.

8. Who has the responsibility for establishing operating procedures for noise abatement purposes
during instrument flight in compliance with ICAO PANS OPS 8168 the:
a) operator
b) commander
c) state in which the aeroplane is operating
d) state of the operator

9. In VMC, a runway should not be chosen as preferential for noise abatement procedures when:
a) Tail wind component, including gusts, is less than 4 kt
b) It has no ILS or visual approach slope guidance
c) It has a tail wind regardless its magnitude
d) Cross-wind component, including gusts, is 10 kt or less

10. The final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft has the (83)
a. Pilot-in-command.
b. aircraft owner.
c. ATC controller whenever the aircraft is flying in controlled airspace
d. Operator.
Which
equipment
broadcasts
distinctive
signals on
designated
Emergency
frequencies Flight Data Cockpit Voice Mode C
Locator B
when it has Recorder Recorder Transponder
Transmitter
been manually
or automatically
activated (by
impact) for
determining the
location?
If an
emergency
situation which
endangers the
safety or
shall take all
security of the
precautions
aeroplane or shall never take shall take all
shall take all which does
persons any precaution precautions but
precautions not involve a
necessitates which involves a notify the
without violation of B
the taking of violation of local appropriate
notification to local
action which regulations or local authority
any authority regulations
involves a procedures without delay.
or
violation of
procedures
local
regulations or
procedures, the
pilot-in-
command;
A pilot in
command of a
flight during
which an
aircraft enters
the sovereign
airspace of a
foreign state
with the
intentions of
landing must
have ensured I, II, III and IV I, III and IV I, II and IV I, II and III D
that all
necessary and
relevant
documentations
is carried on
board the
aircraft,
including;
I - The
Certificate of
Registration
II - The
Certificate of
Airworthiness
III - The Crew
Licenses
IV - The
Maintenance
Records
 OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES PPL QUESTIONS
1. What is the common name of those operations in which an aircraft is used for specialized services such as agriculture,
construction, photography, surveying, observation and patrol, search and rescue, aerial advertisement, etc.?

a)    Private 
b)    Aerial work
c)    Schedule 
d)    Charter

2. Which one of the following documents contains the limitations, instructions and information necessary to the flight crew
members for the safe operation of the aircraft?
a)    Operational Manual
b)    Technical Log
c)    Flight manual
d)    Journey Log

3. Which one of the following documents contains the procedures, instructions and guidance for use by operational personnel in
the execution of their duties?
a)    Flight manual
b)    Operational Manual
c)    Technical Log
d)    Journey Log

4. Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aircraft, the pilot-in-command should submit a report to;
a)    the Authority of the State within which the aircraft is operating at the time of the unlawful interference 
b)    both the local authority and the Authority of the State of the operator 
c)    the local authority only 
d)    the Authority of the State of the operator only

5. A flight shall not be commenced until the pilot-in-command is satisfied that:

I - any necessary maintenance has been performed.
II - any load carried is properly distributed and safely secured.
III - the aeroplane operating limitations will not be exceeded.
a)    I and II
b)    II and III
c)    I, II and III
d)    I and III

6. A flight shall not be commenced unless the aeroplane carries sufficient fuel. The amount of fuel to be carried must permit,
when the flight is conducted in accordance with the visual flight rules by day, flight to the aerodrome of intended landing, and after
that, for at least ……. minutes at normal cruising altitude.
a)    30
b)    60
c)    45
d)    90

7. A flight shall not be commenced unless the aeroplane carries sufficient fuel. The amount of fuel to be carried must permit,
when the flight is conducted in accordance with the visual flight rules by night, flight to the aerodrome of intended landing and
thereafter for at least ……. minutes at normal cruising altitude.
a)    45
b)    30
c)    60
d)    90
8. The pilot-in-command shall ensure that breathing oxygen is available to …………………. in sufficient quantities for all flights at 
such altitudes where a lack of oxygen might result in impairment of the faculties of crew members or harmfully affect passengers.

a)    crew members 
b)    passengers
c)    cabin crew members and passengers
d)    crew members and passengers

9. An aeroplane shall be equipped with:

I - first-aid kits
II - portable fire extinguishers
III - a seat for each person
a)    I and II
b)    II and III
c)    I, II and III
d)    I and III

10. Aeroplanes when operated as VFR flights shall be equipped with a means of measuring and displaying:
I - magnetic heading
II - the time in hours, minutes and seconds
III - pressure altitude
IV - indicated airspeed
V - aircraft attitude
a)    I, II, III and IV 
b)    I, II and III
c)    I, II, IV and V
d)    I, II, III, IV and V

11. For an aeroplane equipped with any radio communication equipment, this equipment shall provide for communication on the
aeronautical emergency frequency …………….
a)    125 MHz. 
b)    212.5 MHz. 
c)    121.5 MHz. 
d)    121.5 kHz. 

12. The owner of an aeroplane shall ensure that the following records are kept for:
I - the total time in service of the aeroplane and all life limited components
II - the current status of compliance with all applicable mandatory continuing airworthiness information
III - appropriate details of modifications and repairs

IV - the time in service since the last overhaul of the aeroplane or its components subject to a mandatory overhaul life

a)    I, II and III
b)    I, II and IV
c)    I, III and IV
d)    I, II, III and IV

13. During a night flight, a pilot, seeing an aircraft coming from front left on approximate opposite parallel track, will first see the;

a)    green steady light 
b)    red steady light 
c)    white steady light 
d)    green and white flashing light

14. Which of the followings is a situation wherein apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft or marine vessel, and of the
persons on board.
a)    Alert Phase
b)    Distress Phase
c)    Emergency Phase
d)    Uncertainty Phase

15. Which of the followings is a situation wherein there is a reasonable certainty that a vessel or other craft, including an aircraft
or a person, is threatened by grave and imminent danger and requires immediate assistance.
a)    Alert Phase
b)    Distress Phase
c)    Emergency Phase
d)    Uncertainty Phase

16. Which of the followings is a situation wherein doubt exists as to the safety of an aircraft or a marine vessel, and of the
persons on board.
a)    Alert Phase
b)    Distress Phase
c)    Emergency Phase
d)    Uncertainty Phase

17. Whenever a distress transmission is intercepted by a pilot-in-command of an aircraft, the pilot shall:
I - acknowledge the distress transmission
II - record the position of the craft in distress if given
III - if possible take a bearing on the transmission
a)    I and II
b)    II and III
c)    I, II and III
d)    I and III

18. Operator may be ……………. engaged in or offering to engage in an aircraft operation.
a)    a person, organization or enterprise
b)    an organization or enterprise
c)    an enterprise
d)    a person or enterprise

19. The noise abatement procedures specified by the operator should be;
a)    for all aeroplane types, the same for all aerodromes. 
b)    different according to aerodromes and aeroplane types. 
c)    for an aeroplane type, the same for all aerodromes. 
d)    for all aeroplane types, the same for a specific aerodrome.

20. In VMC, a runway should not be chosen as preferential for noise abatement procedures when;
a)    Tail wind component, including gusts, is less than 4 kt 
b)    It has a tail wind regardless its magnitude 
c)    It has no ILS or visual approach slope guidance 
d)    Cross-wind component, including gusts, is 10 kt or less

21. Noise attenuation shall not be the determining factor in the designation of a runway, under the following circumstances;

I - when cross wind component, including gust, exceeds 15 knots.

II - when the tail wind component, including gust, exceeds 5 knots.
III - when the runway is not clear or dry.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is;
a)    II and III
b)    I, II and III
c)    I and II
d)    I and III

22. The correct statement about extinguishing agents on board aeroplanes is;
a)    Water may only be used for minor fires
b)    Halon is an effective extinguishing agent for use in aeroplanes
c)    Burning cargo in a cargo-aeroplane is usually extinguished by using carbon dioxide
d)    A powder extinguisher is suitable for extinguishing a cockpit fire

23. Which of the following is not a Search & Rescue Alerting phase?
a) Alert Phase.
b) Uncertainty phase.
c) Urgency phase.
d) Distress phase.

24. It's the pilot's responsibility to ensure that the aircraft is properly equipped for the planned flight. If there is any
doubt the pilot should consult:
a) Pilot's Operating Handbook.
b) Certificate of Airworthiness.
c) Certificate of Maintenance Review.
d) Minimum Equipment List.

25. All aircraft on the aircraft movement area of an aerodrome with engines running are display lights to indicate this.
Which one of the following is used for this purpose?
a) Landing light.
b) Red anti-collision light
c) Navigation lights.
d) Tail light.

26. Airplanes must be equipped with the following lights:

a) Right wing tip: green light, left wing tip: red light, tall: white light.
b) Left wing tip: green light, right wing tip: red light, tail: white light.
c) Left wing tip: white light, right wing tip: white light, tail: red light.
d) Left wing tip: white light, right wing tip: white light, tall: orange light.

27. In the course of a flight during daylight hours, a pilot notices that the aircraft's anti-collision light has failed. What
course of action should he take?
a) Land immediately at the nearest aerodrome.

b) Continue with the flight, as long as it can be completed in daylight, and get the light repaired at the earliest opportunity.

c) Land as soon as practically possible at the nearest suitable airfield.

d) Return to his base airfield and declare the aircraft unserviceable until the light has been repaired.

28. When must the anti-collision beacon on an aircraft be operating (if installed)?
a) Must be switched on after engine start-up and switched off before engine shut-down.
b) All the time the aircraft is flying.
c) Must be on all the time the engine of an aircraft is running.
d) Must be switched on shortly before takeoff and switched off when the aircraft vacates the runway.

29. At the scene of an aircraft accident, a survivor has made a ground signal showing a large cross with angles of 90° 
between the arms of the cross. What does this mean?
a) All survivors are uninjured.
b) Require assistance.
c) This is our position.
d) Require medical assistance.
30. Official data regarding operating limitations and allowed mass of your aircraft could be found in:
a) Aircraft's Flight Manual.
b) Maintenance Log.
c) Certificate of Airworthiness and in Certificate of Registration.
d) Official Gazette of Civil Aviation Authority.

31. The pilot of an aircraft taking-off from an airfield where the altimeter setting Is not readily available, shall set the
aircraft altimeter to:
a) 1013.2 hPa.
b) The altitude zero.
c) The elevation of the airfield.
d) The altimeter setting of the nearest controlled airport.

32. Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:
a)     from take off to landing.
b)     only during take off and landing.
c)      only during take off and landing and whenever necessary by the commander in the interest of safety.
d)    while at their station.

33. Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft's weight is such that flight can be safely
made, and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured? (Annex 6, Part I)
a The operator.
b Pilot in command
c The mechanic on board, or in his absence the co-pilot.
d The company's cargo technicians.

34. The M.E.L. (Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by :

a)     the manufacturer
b)     the operator
c)      the aircraft manufacturer's list
d)     the aircraft state of registry

35. The M.M.E.L. (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by :

a)     the operator.
b)     the manufacturer.
c)      the aircraft manufacturer's list.
d)     the aircraft state of registry.

36. Information concerning evacuation procedures can be found in the :

a)     journey logbook.
b)     flight manual.
c)     operation manual.
d)     operational flight plan.

37. The minimum equipment list of an airplane is to be found in the :

a)     flight record.
b)     JAR OPS.
c)      flight manual.
d)     operation manual.

38.The master minimum equipment list (MMEL) is established by:

a)     the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority
b)     the manufacturer of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority
c)      the manufacturer of the aircraft, but need not to be accepted by the authority
d)     the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the manufacturer

39.Who is responsible, under Annex 13 of the Chicago convention for the initation of an accident investigation?
a)     Operators of the same aircraft type
b)     The government of the state in which the accident took place
c)      The aircraft manufacturer
d)     The law enforcement authorities of the state in which the aircraft is registered

40. The objective of the investigation of an accident or incident shall be the:

a)     prevention of accidents or incidents
b)     prevention of accidents or incidents and apportion blame or liability
c)      prevention of accidents or incidents and to help the judges
d)     prevention of accidents or incidents and to help the manufacturers in design

41. A pilot in command of a flight during which an aircraft enters the sovereign airspace of a foreign state with the intentions of
landing.
a)     Must ensure before departure that his pilot’s licence has been validated by the foreign state

b)     Must be satisfied that the aircraft’s Certificated of Airworthiness is current and that the holds a type rating for the aircraft

c)     Must have ensured that all necessary and relevant documentations is carried on board the aircraft, including the Certificated 
of Airworthiness, that the aircraft is in an airworthy condition and that it is correctly registered

d)       Must be satisfied that the aircraft’s Certificated of Airworthiness is current, that he holds a type rating for the aircraft, and 
that he has passed an Air Law examination set by the foreign state

42. Which of the following documents is not required to be carried in an aircraft of an ICAO member state?
a)     Certificate of Registration
b)     Certificate of  Airworthiness
c)     Flight crew licences
d)     Flight crew driving license

43. The person responsible for planning flight and ensuring that the weather is suitable is;
a)     The CFI
b)     The Operations Manager
c)     The pilot in command
d)     The duty instructor

44. Which of the following is a Search & Rescue Alerting phases?

a)     Urgency phase, Uncertainty phase, Alert phase
b)     Uncertainty phase, Alert phase, Distress phase
c)     Alert phase, Distress phase, Urgency phase
d)     Distress phase, Urgency phase, Alert phase

45. If an aircraft has an accident, involving injury to persons or damage to the aircraft, who is responsible for reporting the
accident to the appropriate authority?
a)     The ATC watch officer
b)     The ATC supervisor
c)     The pilot in command
d)     The police

46. Which of the following is correct with reference to which aircraft required a noise certificate and which are exempt?

a)     All aeroplanes except certain STOL aircraft require a noise certificate.
b)     Non-public transport aircraft are exempt.
c)     All aircraft which can take off from hard dry runway is less than 610 metres are exempt.
d)     Training aircraft are exempt.

47. A situation wherein uncertainty exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants is :
a)     Distress phase
b)     Alert phase
c)     Uncertainty phase
d)     Emergency phase

48. If a component becomes detached from an aircraft in flight, seriously injuring someone on the ground, but not affecting the
continuation of the aircraft’s flight, how would ICAO define this occurrence ?
a)     An aircraft accident
b)     An aircraft incident
c)     An occurrence to be reported
d)     A fortuitous occurrence
080
POF (PPL) Additional Question Proposals - 080

by Caglar UCLER on 03.12.2015

1. How would the exterior appearance of an aircraft change, when trimming for speed increase aiming
constant altitude? (94)
a) The elevator is deflected further up by a downward deflected trim tab
b) The elevator is deflected further downward by means of a movable horizontal stabilizer
c) The exterior appearance of the aircraft will not change
d) Elevator deflection is increased further downward by an upward deflected trim tab

Hız artışında irtifayı korumak için trim yapıldığı zaman, uçağın dışardan görünüşünde ne değişiklik olur?
(94)

a) Aşağıya bakan trim tabının etkisi ile irtifa dümeni (elevator) daha fazla yukarı kalkar
b) Hareketli horizontal stabilize yardımı ile irtifa dümeni (elevator) daha fazla aşağıya iner
c) Bir değişiklik olmaz
d) Yukarı bakan trim tabının etkisi ile irtifa dümeni (elevator) daha fazla aşağıya iner

2. The relative thickness of an aerofoil is expressed in: (90)

a) Camber.
b) % chord.
c) Meters.
d) Inches.

Kanadın relatif kalınlığı aşağıdakilerden hangisi ile ifade edilir? (90)

a) Kambur oranı.
b) % kordo hattı boyu.
c) Metre.
d) İnç.
3. Ground effect has the following influence on the landing distance: (91)
a) Decreases the landing distance
b) does not change the landing distance
c) increases the landing distance
d) increases the landing distance , only if the landing flaps are fully extended.

Yer etkisi iniş mesafesini nasıl etkiler? (91)

a) Azaltır.
b) Değiştirmez.
c) Arttırır.
d) Sadece flaplar tam açıksa arttırır.

4. For [pt = total pressure; ps = static pressure; q = dynamic pressure] Bernoulli's equation can be
written as: (89)
a) pt - q = ps
b) pt = q - ps
c) pt = ps - q
d) pt + ps = q

[pt = toplam basınç; ps = statik basınç; q = dinamik basınç] ise Bernoulli denklemi aşağıdakilerden hangisi
ile ifade edilebilir? (89)

a) pt - q = ps
b) pt = q - ps
c) pt = ps - q
d) pt + ps = q

5. The static pressure is acting: (88)

a) In all directions.
b) Only perpendicular to the direction of the flow.
c) Only in the direction of the total pressure.
d) Only in direction of the flow.

Statik basınç hangi yönde etkili olur? (88)

a) Her yönde.
b) Sadece akışa dik.
c) Sadece toplam basınç yönünde.
d) Sadece akış yönünde.
6. The “CL – alpha” curve of a positive cambered aerofoil intersects with the vertical axis: (90)
a) In the origin (0/0).
b) Below the origin (0/0).
c) Nowhere.
d) Above the origin (0/0).

Pozitif kamburlu bir kanadın “CL – alfa” eğrisi, grafiğin dikey eksenini nerede keser? (90)

a) Merkezde (0/0).
b) Merkezin (0/0) altında.
c) Hiç bir yerde.
d) Merkezin (0/0) üzerinde.

7. A statically unstable aircraft is: (98)

a) Sometimes dynamically stable.
b) Sometimes dynamically unstable.
c) Never dynamically stable.
d) Always dynamically stable.

Statik kararsız bir hava aracı (98)

a) Bazen dinamik kararlı olabilir.

b) Bazen dinamik kararsız olabilir.
c) Hiç bir zaman dinamik kararlı olmaz.
d) Her zaman dinamik kararlı olur.

8. Induced drag at constant IAS is affected by: (91)

a) Engine thrust.
b) Aircraft weight.
c) Aircraft wing location.
d) Angle between wing chord and fuselage center line.

Sabit hızdaki (IAS) endüklenmiş sürüklemeyi aşağıdakilerden hangisi etkiler? (91)

a) Motor itkisi.
b) Hava aracının ağırlığı.
c) Hava aracı kanat lokasyonu.
d) Kordo hattı ile kabin merkez hattı arasındaki açı.
9. During the retraction of the flaps (to clean configuration) at a constant angle of attack the aircraft
starts to … , when all other factors of importance are constant. (95)
a) Sink.
b) Bank.
c) Climb.
d) Yaw.

İlgili diğer tüm değişkenlerin sabit olduğu düşünüldüğünde, sabit hücum açısındayken flaplar toplanırsa
hava aracı aşağıdaki hareketlerden hangisine başlar? (95)

a) Çöküş.
b) Yana yatma.
c) Tırmanma.
d) Dönme.

by Erkan Günaydınoğlu on 17.12.2015

10. The stalling angle of attack for the flaps down configuration is … … the stalling angle of attack for the
flaps up configuration. (96)
a) greater than.
b) smaller than.
c) same as.
d) smaller than or greater than, depending on CG position.

Flaplar aşağı pozisyondayken elde edilen stall açısı, flaplar yukarı pozisyondaki … (96)
a) stall açısından daha büyüktür
b) stall açısından daha küçüktür.
c) stall açısı ile aynıdır
d) stall açısından ağırlık merkezinin pozisyonuna bağlı olarak daha büyük ya da küçük olabilir.

11. In straight and level flight the center of pressure is behind the center of gravity. What is the direction
of action of the resultant force from the elevators and tailplane to maintain straight and level flight?
(93)
a) upward.
b) downward.
c) horizontally.
d) in a direction depending on the thrust/drag couple.

Düz ve yatay uçuşta basınç merkezi ağırlık merkezinin arkasındadır. Bu uçuşu sürdürebilmek için irtifa
dümeni ve yatay dengeleyici üzerinde oluşan bileşke kuvvetin yönü nedir?
a) Yukarı yönde
b) Aşağı yönde.
c) Yatay düzlemde
d) İtki/sürükleme çiftine bağlı olan bir yönde

12. With reference to the figure below, how do the speeds (V1) and (V2) relate to the relative
wind/airflow (V)? (90)

a) V1 < V2 and V2 < V

b) V1 = 0 and V2 = V
c) V1 > V2 and V2 < V
d) V1 = 0 and V2 > V

Aşağıdaki şekle göre, V1 ve V2 hızları bağıl hava akışına (V) göre nasıl ilişkilendirilebilir? (90)

a) V1 < V2 ve V2 < V
b) V1 = 0 ve V2 = V
c) V1 > V2 ve V2 < V
d) V1 = 0 ve V2 > V

13. In straight and level flight, if airspeed ... the angle of attack ... and the incidence angle... (90)
a) increases; decreases; decreases.
b) increases; increases; decreases.
c) decreases; decreases; decreases.
d) decreases; increases; remains constant.

Düz ve yatay uçuşta, uçağın hızı …, hücum açısı … ve oturma açısı (angle of incidence) … .
a) artarsa; azalır; azalır.
b) artarsa; artar; azalır.
c) azalırsa; azalır; azalır.
d) azalırsa; artar, değişmez.

14. An aircraft has a stalling speed of 100 kt in a steady level flight. When the aircraft is flying a level turn
with a load factor of 4.0, the stalling speed is: (96)
a) 40 kt.
b) 100 kt.
c) 200 kt.
d) 400 kt.

Bir uçağın düz ve yatay uçuşta stall hızı 100 knot değerindedir. Aynı uçak 4 şiddetinde bir yük faktörü ile
yatay dönüş yapıyorsa, stall hızı aşağıda verilenlerden hangisidir? (96)
a) 40 kt.
b) 100 kt.
c) 200 kt.
d) 400 kt.

15. As the angle of attack of a wing is increased, the center of pressure will reach its most forward
position on the wing... (90)
a) after stall recovery.
b) at the optimum angle of attack.
c) when the aircraft is stalling.
d) just before the wing stalls.

Bir kanadın hücum açısı artarken, basınç merkezi mümkün olan en ileri konuma aşağıdaki hangi durumda
ulaşır? (90)
a) Stall’dan kurtulduktan sonra.
b) Optimum hücum açısı değerinde.
c) Kanat stall durumundayken.
d) Kanat stall olmadan hemen önce.

16. A slotted flap will increase the CLmax by: (95)

a) increasing the critical angle of attack.
b) decreasing the skin friction.
c) increasing only the camber of the aerofoil.
d) increasing the camber of the aerofoil and improving the boundary layer.

Slotlu bir flap Clmax değerini hangi yöntem ile artıracaktır? (95)
a) Kritik hücum açısını arttırarak.
b) Yüzey sürtünmesini (skin friction) azaltarak.
c) Sadece kanat kamburluğunu arttırarak.
d) Kanat kamburluğunu arttırarak ve sınır tabakayı iyileştirerek.

17. Two identical aircrafts A and B are flying horizontal steady turns. Further data are:
A: W=1500 kg Bank= 20° TAS= 130 kt
B: W= 1500 kg Bank= 20° TAS= 200 kt
 Which of the following statements is correct? (99)

a) The turn radius A is larger than the turn radius B.

b) The load factor A is larger than the load factor B.
c) The rate of turn A is larger than the rate of turn B.
d) The lift coefficient A is smaller than the lift coefficient B

Tamamıyla aynı A ve B uçakları yatay, sabit hızlı dönüş yapmaktadır. Ayrıca aşağıdaki bilgiler mevcuttur:
A: W=1500 kg Bank= 20° TAS= 130 kt
B: W= 1500 kg Bank= 20° TAS= 200 kt
A ve B uçakları için aşağıda verilen ifadelerden hangisi doğrudur? (99)
a) A uçağının dönüş yarıçapı, B uçağının dönüş yarıçapından büyüktür.
b) A uçağının yük faktörü, B uçağının yük faktöründen büyüktür.
c) A uçağının dönüş hızı (rate of turn), B uçağının dönüş hızından büyüktür.
d) A uçağının kaldırma katsayısı, B uçağının kaldırma katsayısından küçüktür.

18. Why do some aircraft have dihedral wings? (98)

a) To increase longitudinal stability.
b) To reduce directional stability.
c) To increase directional stability.
d) To increase lateral stability.

Bazı uçakların kanatlarında neden dihedral açısı kullanılmaktadır? (98)

a) Boylamsal (longitidunal) kararlılığı arttırmak için
b) Doğrusal (directional) kararlılığı azaltmak için
c) Doğrusal (directional) kararlılığı arttırmak için
d) Yanal (lateral) kararlılığı arttırmak için.

19. Differential aileron deflection: (93)

a) increases the CLmax.
b) is required to keep the total lift constant when ailerons are deflected.
c) is required to achieve the required roll-rate.
d) Decreases the difference in drag between the right and left wings.

Sağ ve sol kanatta uygulanan farklı derecelerde aileron açısı (differential aileron): (93)
a) CLmax ile artar.
b) aileronlar oynatıldığında toplam kaldırma kuvvetini sabit tutmak için gereklidir.
c) gerekli dönüş hızına ulaşmak için gereklidir.
d) sağ ve sol kanatta oluşan sürükleme kuvvetini dengeler.

20. Which of the following conditions will cause increased stall airspeed? (96)
a) Power increased, flap setting increased
 b) Load factor increased, heavy icing of the wing
c) Angle of bank reduced, flap setting increased
d) Aircraft weight increased, power increased

Aşağıdaki koşullardan hangisi stall hızını arttırır? (96)

a) Gücün artması, flap açısının (setting) artması.
b) Yük faktörünün (load factor) artması, kanat üzerinde yoğun buzlanma.
c) Yatış açısının (Angle of bank) azalması, flap açısının (setting) artması.
d) Uçağın ağırlığının artması, gücün artması.
1. (91) The aeroplane drag in straight and level flight is lowest when the:
a) induced drag is lowest.
b) induced drag is equal to zero.
c) parasite drag equals twice the induced drag.
d) parasite drag is equal to the induced drag.

2. (90)An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight while the TAS is doubled. The change
in lift coefficient will be:
a) x 2.0
b) x 0.5
c) x 4.0
d) x 0.25

3. (90) Lift is perpendicular to the…………..:

a) chord line.
b) relative airflow.
c) horizon.
d) longitudinal axis.

4. (93) If the nose of an aeroplane yaws left, this causes:

a) a roll to the right.
b) a decrease in relative airspeed on the right wing.
c) a roll to the left.
d) an increase in lift on the left wing.

5. (91) Increasing speed in straight and level flight (1)……….… induced drag and (2)
…………parasite drag.

a) (1) decreases and (2) increases.

b) (1) increases and (2) decreases.
c) (1) decreases and (2) decreases.
d) (1) increases and (2) increases.

6. (98)For a normal stable aeroplane, the centre of gravity is located:

a) aft of the neutral point of the aeroplane.
b) at the neutral point of the aeroplane.
c) between the aft limit and the neutral point of the aeroplane.
d) with a sufficient minimum margin ahead of the neutral point of the aeroplane.

7. (90) The point, where the aerodynamic lift acts on a wing is:
a) the c.g. location.
b) the centre of pressure.
c) the point of maximum thickness of the wing.
d) the suction point of the wing.

8. (89) The (subsonic) static pressure:

a) increases in a flow in a tube when the diameter decreases.
b) is the total pressure plus the dynamic pressure.
c) is the pressure in a point at which the velocity has become zero.
d) decreases in a flow in a tube when the diameter decreases.

9. (90) The critical angle of attack:

a) decreases if the CG is moved aft
b) changes with an increase in gross weight
c) increases if the CG is moved forward
d) remains constant regardless of weight
10. (99) Load factor (n) :
a) n= 1/Bank angle
b) n= Wing loading
c) n= Lift/Weight
d) n= Weight/Lift

11. (95) A slat will

a) increase the lift by increasing the wing area and the camber of the aft portion of the wing.
b) prolongs the stall to a higher angle of attack.
c) increase the camber of the aerofoil and divert the flow around the sharp leading edge.
d) provide a boundary layer suction on the upper surface of the wing.

12. (96) The sensor of a stall warning system can be activated by a change in the location of
the
a) transition region.
b) centre of gravity.
c) centre of lift.
d) stagnation point.

13. (93) Which phenomenon is counteracted with differential aileron deflection?

a) Turn co-ordination.
b) Adverse yaw.
c) Aileron reversal.
d) Sensitivity for spiral dive.

14. (93) The pitch angle is defined as the angle between the:
a) longitudinal axis and the horizontal plane.
b) longitudinal axis and the chord line.
c) speed vector axis and the longitudinal axis.
d) chord line and the horizontal plane.

15. (96)The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors:
a) Decrease in a forward C.G. location, higher altitude and due to the slip stream from a
propeller on an engine located forward of the wing
b) Increase during turn, increased mass and forward C.G. location
c) Increase with increased load factor, more flaps but will not increase due to the bank angle
in a turn
d) Increase with increased load factor, icing conditions and an aft C.G. location

I. The normal Only I Only II I and II None

axis of an
aircraft is
always
vertical to the
ground.
II. The normal
axis is
perpendicular
to the other
two axes of
the aircraft.
Select the
correct
statements. B
Match the I-IV, II-VI, III-V I-V, II-IV, III-VI I-VI, II-V, III- I-V, II-VI, III-
relevant axis IV IV
and motions
around them:

I. Pitching II.
Rolling III.
Yawing

IV.
Longitudinal
axis V.
Lateral axis
VI. Normal
axis B
What happens Elevator Flaps are Elevator
Elevator
when you pull moves down lowered moves up
moves up
the control and creates a and creates
and creates
stick? nose-up a nose-up
a nose-
moment moment
down
moment C
What happens Elevator Flaps are Elevator Elevator
when you moves down lowered moves up moves up
push the and creates a and creates and creates
control stick? nose-down a nose-up a nose-
moment moment down
moment A
What happens Right aileron Both ailerons Both Left aileron
when you moves up, move up ailerons moves up,
move the left aileron move down right aileron
control stick moves down moves
to the right? down A
What happens Right aileron Both ailerons Both Left aileron
when you moves up, move up ailerons moves up,
move the left aileron move down right aileron
control stick moves down moves
to the left? down D
Ailerons give: Lateral Longitudinal c) Lateral
control about control about Directional control
the lateral the lateral control about the
axis. axis. about the longitudinal
normal axis. axis D
The main Rudder Aileron Horizontal Vertical
surface stabilizer stabilizer
providing
directional
stability is: D
The main Elevator Aileron Horizontal Vertical
surface stabilizer stabilizer
providing
longitudinal
stability is: C
Lift formula is Dynamic Static Total Dynamic
composed of: Pressure x pressure x lift pressure x pressure x
lift coefficient coefficient x lift drag A
 x wing area wing area coefficient x coefficient x
wing area wing area
How do you Pull the Push the Apply Push the
recover from control stick control stick opposite control stick
stall? and reduce and increase rudder- and
throttle throttle aileron decrease
inputs throttle B
What is the Glide Glide Glide Flap
effect of flap distance distance distance extension
extension on increases decreases decreases does not
glide because because of because of affect glide
distance? flaps provide decreased increased distance.
more lift. drag. drag. C
Flaps and increase the Decrease the Create a Decrease
slats lift coefficient lift coefficient nose-up drag
so the to slow the pitching
aircraft can aircraft. moment
be flown at a during take-
lower speed off A
To maintain increased Be kept Decreased at the
straight and constant critical
level flight at angle of
constant IAS, attack
AOA should
be ….. when
flaps are
extended. C
To maintain increased Be kept Decreased at the
straight and constant critical
level flight, angle of
AOA should attack
be ….. when
flaps are
retracted A
Principles of Flight PPL Questions

01. An aeroplane wing stalls when:

a)  The indicated airspeed is too low.
b)  The critical angle of attack is exceeded.
c)  The laminar airflow becomes turbulent.
d)  It is subjected to unusually high “G” forces.
01. Bir uçak kanadı aşağıda belirtilen durumlardan hangisinde stall olur ?
a) Gösterge sürati çok düşük olduğunda.
b) Kritik hücum açısı aşıldığında.
c) Laminer akım türbulansı akıma dönüştüğünde.
d) Çok yüksek ‘’G’’ kuvvetlerine maruz kaldığında.

02. After a disturbance in pitch, an aircraft oscillates in lateral axis with increasing amplitude. It is:
a)  Statically and dynamically unstable.
b)  Statically stable but dynamically unstable.
c)  Statically unstable but dynamically stable.
d)  Statically and dynamically stable.
02. Bir uçağın yanal ekseninde yaratılan bozunum sonrasında, bozunumun genliği artan bir salınıma
dönüşmesi (yunuslama) durumunda uçağın stabilitesi için aşağıdakilerden hangi durum geçerlidir ?
a) Statik ve dinamik olarak kararsız.
b) Statik kararlı fakat dinamik kararsız.
c) Statik kararsız fakat dinamik kararlı.
d) Statik ve dinamik kararlı.

03. A positively cambered aerofoil starts to produce lift at an angle of attack of approximately:
a)  Negative angle of attack.
b)  0 degrees.
c)  4 to 6 degrees.
d)  16 degrees.
03. Pozitif kamburluğa sahip bir kanat profilinde yaklaşık olarak aşağıdaki hangi hücum açısı değerinde kaldırma kuvveti
oluşmaya başlar ?
a) Negatif hücum açısında.
b) Sıfır derecede.
c) 4 – 6 derecede.
d) 16 derecede.

04. The stalling speed of an aircraft in straight and level flight is 60 kt, IAS. What is its stalling speed in a level 60º banked
turn?
a)  85 kt
b)  60 kt
c)  43 kt
d)  120 kt

04. Bir uçağın düz uçuş stall sürati 60kt. IAS’dır. Bu uçağın 60º yatışlı dönüş durumundaki stall sürati nedir ?

e)  85 kt
f)   60 kt
g)  43 kt
h)  120 kt
05. Considering the forces acting upon an aeroplane, at constant airspeed, which statement is correct?
a)  Weight always acts vertically downwards towards the centre of the Earth.
b)  Lift acts perpendicular to the chord line and must always be greater than weight.
c)  Thrust acts parallel to the relative air flow and is greater than drag.
d)  The lift force generated by the wings always acts in the opposite direction to the aircraft’s weight.

05. Sabit hızda uçan bir uçağa etki eden kuvvetler esas alındığında, aşağıdaki ifadelerden hangisi doğrudur ?

a) Ağırlık kuvveti herzaman dünyanın merkezine doğru etkiyen kuvvettir.

b) Taşıma kuvveti kordo hattına dik etkileyecek ve herzaman ağırlık kuvvetinden daha büyük olacaktır.
c) Etki kuvveti nispi rüzgara paralel ve sürükleme kuvvetinden büyük olacaktır.
d) Kanatlar tarafından üretilen taşıma kuvveti herzaman uçağın ağırlık kuvvetine ters yönde etkiliyecektir.

06. To trim an aircraft which tends to fly nose heavy with hands off, the top of the elevator trim wheel should be:

a)  Moved forward to raise the nose, and this would cause the elevator trim tab to move down, and the elevator to move up.

b)  Moved backwards to raise the nose, and this would cause the elevator trim tab to move down, and the elevator to move
up.

c)  Moved backwards to raise the nose, and this would cause the elevator trim tab to move up, and the elevator to move up.

d)  Moved backwards to raise the nose, and this would cause the elevator trim tab to move up, and cause the nose to rise.

06) Kumanda serbest durumda burnu aşağı düşme eğilimi olan bir uçağın trim ayarının yapılabilmesi için, fletner (trim)
konumu nasıl olmalıdır ?
a) Burnu kaldırmak için fletner makarası (trim) ileri sarılmış olmalıdır; bu konum irtifa dümeni trim tabını aşağı, irtifa dümenini
ise, yukarı doğru saptıracaktır.
b) Burnu kaldırmak için fletner makarası (trim) geri sarılmış olmalıdır; bu konum irtifa dümeni trim tabını aşağı, irtifa dümenini
ise, yukarı doğru saptıracaktır.
c) Burnu kaldırmak için fletner makarası (trim) ileri sarılmış olmalıdır; bu konum irtifa dümeni trim tabı ve irtifa dümenini
yukarı doğru saptıracaktır.
d) Burnu kaldırmak için fletner makarası (trim) geri sarılmış olmalıdır; bu konum irtifa dümeni trim tabının yukarı doğru
sapmasını ve burnun yükselmesini sağlayacaktır.

07. What force makes an airplane coordinated turn ?

a)  The horizontal component of lift.
b)  The vertical component of lift.
c)  Thrust.
d)   Drag force.
07. Uçağın koordineli dönüşünü hangi kuvvet sağlar ?
a) Kaldırma kuvvetinin yatay bileşeni.
b) Kaldırma kuvvetinin dikey bileşeni.
c) İtki.
d) Sürükleme kuvveti

08. The angle of attack at which an airplane stalls will:

a)  increase if the CG is moved forward.
b)  change with an increase in gross weight.
c)  increase with the increasing load factor
d)  remain the same regardless of gross weight.
08. Bir uçağın stall olduğu hücum açısı için aşağıdakilerden hangisi doğrudur?
a) CG ileri taşındığında stall hücum açısı büyür.
b) Uçağın brüt ağırlığındaki artışla hücum açısı değişecektir.
c) Yük faktörünün artışıyla hücum açısı artacaktır.
d) Uçağın brüt ağırlığından bağımsız olarak hücum açısı sabit kalır.
09. One of the main functions of flaps during approach and landing is to:
a)  decrease the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.
b)  permit a touchdown at a higher indicated airspeed.
c)  increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.
d)  increase the angle of attack.
09. Aşağıdakilerden hangisi flapların yaklaşma ve inişteki ana fonksiyonlarından birisidir ?
a) Uçağın hızını arttırmadan çöküş açısını azaltır.
b) Daha yüksek gösterge süratinde oturuşa izin verir.
c) Uçağın hızını arttırmadan çöküş açısını arttırır.
d) Hücum açısını arttırır.

10. On an aerofoil section, the force of Iift acts perpendicular to, and the force of drag acts
parallel to, the:
a)  Flightpath.
b)  Longitudinal axis.
c)  Chord line.
d)  Aerofoil section upper surface.

10. Bir kanat profili kesitinde aşağıdakilerden hangisine, kaldırma kuvveti dik, sürükleme kuvveti ise paralel etkiler?

a) Uçuş yolu.
b) Uzunlamasına eksen.
c) Kord hattı.
d) Kanat profili kesitinin üst yüzeyi.

11. If the aircraft weight is increased, without change of C of G position, the stalling angle of attack will:
a)  Remain the same.
b)  Decrease.
c)  Increase.
d) The position of the C of G does not affect the stall speed.

11. Eğer uçağın CG pozisyonu değiştirilmeden ağırlığı arttırılırsa, uçağın stall hücum açısı bundan nasıl etkilenecektir ?

a) Aynı kalacaktır.
b) Azalacaktır.
c) Artacaktır.
d) Uçağın CG pozisyonu stall hızını etkilemez.

12. The air flow over the wing’s upper surface in straight and level flight, when compared with the air flow that is unaffected by
the wing, will have:
a)  A higher velocity.
b)  A higher density.
c)  A reduced velocity.
d)  The same velocity.
12. Düz uçuş konumunda, kanadın üst yüzeyinden akan hava, alt yüzeyinden akan havaya göre;
a) Daha yüksek hıza sahiptir.
b) Daha yüksek yoğunluğa sahiptir.
c) Daha düşük bir hıza sahiptir.
d) Her iki hava akımıda aynıdır.

13. With the flaps Iowered, the stalling speed will:

a)  Increase.
b)  Decrease.
c)  Increase, but occur at a higher angle of attack.
d)  Remain the same.
13. Flaplar açıldığında, stall sürati,
a) Artar.
b) Azalır.
c) Artar, fakat daha yüksek hücum açılarında görülür.
d) Aynı kalır.

14. If the indicated Air Speed of an aircraft is increased from 50 kts to 100 kts, parasite drag will be:
a)  Four times greater.
b)  Six times greater.
c)  Two times greater.
d)  One quarter as much.

14. Eğer bir uçağın gösterge sürati 50 kts’dan 100 kts’a çıkarılırsa, parazit sürükleme bundan nasıl etkilenecektir?

a) Dört kat daha artar.

b) Altı kat daha artar.
c) İki kat daha artar.
d) Çeyrek birim artar.

15. ln a climb at a constant speed, the thrust is:

a)  Equal to the aerodynamic drag.
b)  Less than the aerodynamic drag.
c)  Greater than the aerodynamic drag.
d)  Equal to the weight component along the flight path.
15. Sabit hızda tırmanma konumunda, itki için aşağıdaki önermelerden hangisi doğrudur ?
a) Aerodinamik sürüklemeye eşittir.
b) Aerodinamik sürüklemeden azdır.
c) Aerodinamik sürüklemeden büyüktür.
d) Ağırlığın uçuş yönü eksenindeki birleşenine eşittir.

16. lf a disturbing force causes an aircraft to roll:

a)  Wing dihedral will stabilize the aircraft
b)  Wing dihedral will destabilize the aircraft
c)  Wing dihedral will increase yawing moment
d)  Wing dihedral has no effect on stability

16. Uçağa etkiyen bir kuvvet yuvarlanma (roll) hareketine sebep oluyorsa aşağıdakilerden hangisi doğrudur ?

a) Dihedral açısı uçağın kararlılığını artırır.

b) Dihedral açısı uçağın kararlılığını azaltır.
c) Dihedral açısı uçağın sapma momentini artırır.
d) Dihedral açısı kararlılığı etkilemez

17. When considering the changes in density of the air with altitude, which of the following is correct?
a)  The temperature increase with increasing altitude causes density to increase.
b)  The reduction in pressure with increasing altitude causes density to reduce.
c)  The temperature reduction with increasing altitude causes density to increase.
d)  The increase in pressure with increasing altitude causes density to reduce.

17. İrtifaya bağlı olarak havanın yoğunluğundaki değişim değerlendirildiğinde aşağıdakilerden hangisi doğrudur ?
a) İrtifanın artışıyla artan sıcaklık, yoğunluğun artmasına sebep olur.
b) İrtifanın artışıyla azalan basınç, yoğunluğun azalmasına sebep olur.
c) İrtifanın artışıyla azalan sıcaklık, yoğunluğun artmasına sebep olur.
d) İrtifanın artışıyla artan basınç, yoğunluğun azalmasına sebep olur.

18. If the Angle of Attack and other factors remain constant, and the airspeed is doubled, lift will be:
a)  Doubled(two times).
b)  One quarter of what it was.
c)  The same.
d)  Quadrupled(Four times).

18. Eğer hücum açısı ve diğer faktörler sabit tutulurken uçağın hızı iki kat arttırılırsa, kaldırma kuvveti bundan nasıl etkilenir ?

a) İki katına çıkar.

b) Mevcut değerinin çeyreği kadar artar.
c) Aynı kalır.
d) Dört katına çıkar.

19. As airspeed increases induced drag _____ , parasite drag _____ and total drag _____ .
a)  Increases Increases Increases
b)  Increases Decreases Increases then decreases.
c)  Decreases Decreases Decreases
d)  Decreases Increases Decreases then Increases

20. Air pressure:

a)  Acts only vertically downwards.
b)  ls measured in Pascals per square inch.
c)  Acts in all directions.
d)  Increases with altitude.
20. Aşağıdakilerden hangisi hava basıncı için doğrudur?
a) Sadece aşağı dik yönde etki yaratır.
b) Ölçüm birimi pascal / inch
c) Her yönde etkir.
d) İrtifayla birlikte artar.

21. An aircraft is disturbed from its flight path by a gust of wind. If it tends to return to its original flight path without pilot
intervention, the aircraft is said to possess:
a)  Instability.
b)  Negative Static Stability.
c)  Neutral Static Stability.
d)  Positive Static Stability.
21. Ani bir rüzgar ile uçuş yolundan saptırılan bir uçak, pilotun müdahalesi olmaksızın bir önceki uçuş yoluna dönme eğilimi
gösteriyorsa, aşağıdaki ifadelerden hangisi bu uçak için doğrudur ?
a) Kararsızdır.
b) Negatif statik kararlıdır.
c) Nötr statik kararlıdır.
d) Pozitif statik kararlıdır.

22. A stable aeroplane will:

a)  Require less effort to control.
b)  Be difficuIt to stall.
c)  Not spin.
d)  Have a built-in tendency to return to its original state following the removal of any disturbing force.
22. Kararlı bir uçak aşağıdaki özelliklerden hangisini gösterecektir?
a) Kontrolü için daha az pilot girdisi gerekir.
b) Stall olması zordur.
c) Viril (spin) konumuna girmeyecektir.
d) Bozuntu kaldırıldığında kendiliğinden bir önceki konumuna dönme eğilimine sahiptir.

23. When an aircraft is disturbed from its established flight path by, for example, turbulence, it is said to have positive stability
if it subsequently:
a)  Remains on the new flight path.
b)  Re-establishes its original flight path without any input from the pilot.
c)  Becomes further displaced from its original flight path.

d)  Continues to pitch in the disturbed direction until the displacement is resisted by opposing control forces.

23. Türbülans nedeniyle uçuş hattından sapan bir uçak, sonrasında aşağıdaki reaksiyonlardan hangisini gösterdiğinde pozitif
kararlı olarak tanımlanacaktır ?
a) Sapma sonrasındaki yeni uçuş hattını koruduğunda.
b) Pilot müdahalesi olmaksızın orjinal konumuna geri döndüğünde.
c) Etki sonrasında orjinal konumundan daha çok saptığında.
d) Sapmaya sebep olan kuvvetleri dengeleyecek karşı kuvvetler uygulanıncaya kadar etki yönünde sapmaya devam
ettiğinde.

24. Which of the answer options most correctly completes the sentence?
The amount of lift a wing produces is directly proportional to:
a)  The dynamic pressure minus the static pressure.
b)  The square root of the velocity of the air flowing over it.
c)  The air density.
d)  The air temperature.
24. Aşağıdakilerden hangisi ‘’Bir kanadın yaratacağı kaldırma kuvveti...................ile doğru orantılıdır’’ cümlesindeki boşluğa
yerleştirilecek uygun ifadedir ?
a) Dinamik basınç ile statik basıncın farkı.
b) Kanadın üzerinden geçen akım hızının kare köküyle.
c) Havanın yoğunluğuyla.
d) Havanın sıcaklığıyla.

25. A typical stalling angle of attack for an training aircraft wing is about:
a)  4°
b)  16°
c)  30°
d)  45°
25. Bir eğitim uçağının tipik stall hücum açısı aşağıdakilerden hangisinde doğru olarak belirtilmiştir ?
a) 4°
b) 16°
c) 30°
d) 45°

26. Assuming that the pressure at sea level is lSA, but the temperature is 10°C higher than lSA, the density will be:

a)  As per ISA

b)  Greater than lSA.
c)  Less than ISA.
d)  Unaffected.

26) ISA deniz seviyesi, atmosfer basıncında, ISA koşullarından 10°C daha sıcak bir ortamdaki yoğunluk değeri ne olacaktır ?
a) ISA değeri ile aynı olacaktır.
b) ISA değerinden yüksek olacaktır.
c) ISA değerinden düşük olacaktır.
d) Etkilenmeyecektir.

27. Which of the following doesn't affect the angle of stall for an airplane?
a)  Higher airspeed than the normal stall speed.
b)  Airspeed or pitch attitude.
c)  The pitch attitude with respect to the natural horizon.
d)  Momenterally control column movements.
27. Bir uçağın stall olduğu hücum açısı aşağıdakilerden hangisinden bağımsızdır?
a) Uçağın hızının, normal stall süratinden daha fazla olması
b) Uçağın yunuslama konumu ve hızı
c) Uçağın yunuslama konumunun nötr ufuk çizgisinin üstünde veya altında olması
d) Anlık lövye hareketlerinden

28. The primary and secondary effects of applying the left rudder alone are:
a)  Left yaw and left roll.
b)  Left yaw and right roll.
c)  Right yaw and left roll.
d)  Right yaw and right roll.
28. Sola direksiyon kumandası vermenin birincil ve ikincil etkileri aşağıdakilerden hangileridir?
a) Sola sapma ve sola yatış.
b) Sola sapma ve sağa yatış.
c) Sağa sapma ve sola yatış.
d) Sağa sapma ve sağa yatış.

29. By changing the Angle of Attack of a wing, the pilot can control the aeroplane’s:
a)  Lift and airspeed, but not drag.
b)  Lift, gross weight, and drag.
c)  Lift, airspeed, and drag.
d)  Lift and drag, but not airspeed.

29. Hücum açısı değerini değiştirerek, pilot aşağıda belirtilen uçağa ait hangi parametreleri kontrol edebilir ?

a) Kaldırma kuvveti ve hız.

b) Kaldırma ve sürükleme kuvvetleri ile bürük ağırlık.
c) Kaldırma ve sürükleme kuvvetleri ile hız.
d) Kaldırma ve sürükleme kuvvetleri.

30. When the control column is pushed forward, a balance tab on the elevator:
a)  Will move up relative to the control surface.
b)  Will move down relative to the control surface.
c)  Will only move if the trim wheel is operated.
d)  Moves to the neutral position.

30. Kumanda kolu ileri itildiğinde, irtifa dümeni üzerindeki balans tabının reaksiyonu ne yönde gerçekleşecektir?

a) Kumanda yüzeyine göre yukarı yönde.

b) Kumanda yüzeyine göre aşağı yönde.
c) Trim tamburasının hareket ettirildiği yönde.
d) Nötr pozisyona geçecek yönde.
31. The unit of force is the:
a)  Newton.
b)  Newton-metre.
c)  Joule.
d)  Mass-kilogram.
31. Kuvvetin birimi aşağıdakilerden hangisidir ?
a) Newton.
b) Newton-metre.
c) Joule.
d) Kilogram.

32. That portion of the aircraft's total drag created by the production of lift is called:
a)  Parasite drag, which is greatly affected by changes in airspeed.
b)  Induced drag, which is not affected by changes in airspeed.
c)  Induced drag, which is greatly affected by changes in airspeed.
d)  Parasite drag, which is inversely proportional to the square of the airspeed.
32. Taşıma (kaldırma) kuvveti sonucu ortaya çıkan sürükleme kuvveti türüne ne ad verilir ?
a) Hızdaki değişikliklerden büyük oranda etkilenen parazit sürükleme.
b) Hızdaki değişikliklerden etkilenmeyen indüklenmiş sürükleme.
c) Hızdaki değişikliklerden büyük oranda etkilenen, indüklenmiş sürükleme.
d) Hızın karesi ile ters orantılı olan, parazit sürükleme.

33. The presence of water vapour:

a)  In air will increase its density.
b)  In the atmosphere will increase the power output of a piston engine.
c)  In the atmosphere will increase the amount of lift generated by an aircraft.
d)  In air will reduce its density.
33. Ortamda su buharının varlığı hangi sonuca neden olacaktır ?
a) Hava yoğunluğunun artması.
b) Pistonlu motorun performansının artması.
c) Uçak tarafından üretilen kaldırma kuvvetinin toplamının artması.
d) Havanın yoğunluğunun düşmesi.

34. VNE is:

a)  The airspeed which must not be exceeded except in a dive.
b)  The maximum airspeed at which manoeuvres approaching the stall may be carried out.
c)  The maximum airspeed at which the aircraft may be flown.
d)  The maximum speed, above which flaps should not be extended.
34. Aşağıdakilerden hangisinde VNE hızı doğru olarak tanımlanmıştır ?
a) Dalış pozisyonu dışında hiçbir şekilde geçilmemesi gereken sürat.
b) Uçuş manevralarında stall konumuna yakın durumlarda ulaşılabilecek maksimum hız.
c) Uçağın uçabileceği maksimum hava hızı.
d) Flapların devreye sokulabileceği maksimum hız.

35. A pilot lowers the flaps while keeping the airspeed constant. In order to maintain level flight, the angle of attack:

a)  Must be reduced.
b)  Must be increased.
c)  Must be kept constant but power must be increased.
d)  Must be kept constant and power required will be constant.
35. Uçuş süratini sabit tutarken pilotun flapları açması durumunda düz uçuş konumunda kalabilmek için hücum açısının (AoA)
değeri ne olmalıdır ?
a) Hücum açısı (AoA) azaltılmalıdır.
b) Hücum açısı (AoA) arttırılmalıdır.
c) Hücum açısı (AoA) sabit tutulmalı ancak motor gücü arttırılmalıdır.
d) Hücum açısı (AoA) ve gerekli motor gücü sabit tutulmaldır.

36. When considering air:

1-Air has mass
2- Air is not compressible
3- Air is able to flow or change its shape when subject to even small pressures
4-The viscosity of air is very high
5-Moving air has kinetic energy
The correct combination of all true statements is:
a)  1, 2, 3 and 5.
b)  2, 3 and 4.
c)  1 and 4.
d)  1, 3, and 5.
36 Havanın sahip olduğu özellikler dikkate alındığında aşağıdaki şıklardan hangisi doğrudur?
1- Havanın bir kütlesi vardır.
2- Hava sıkıştırılamaz bir gazdır.
3- Hava çok düşük basınçlarda dahi konumunu ve şeklini değiştirme özelliğine sahiptir.
4- Havanın viskozitesi çok yüksektir.
5- Hareket halindeki hava kinetik enerjiye sahiptir.

a) 1, 2, 3 and 5.
b) 2, 3 and 4.
c) 1 and 4.
d) 1, 3, and 5.

37. The maximum allowable airspeed with flaps extended (VFE) is lower than cruising speed because:
a)  Flaps are used only when preparing to land.
b)  Too much drag is induced.
c)  Flaps will stall if they are deployed at too high an airspeed.
d)  At speeds higher than VFE, the aerodynamic forces would overload the flap and wing structures.
37. Flaplı uçuş konfigurasyonuna ait hız tanımı olan VFE’nin, uçağın seyir hızından küçük olma nedeni aşağıdakilerden
hangisinde doğru olarak açıklanmıştır ?
a) Flaplar sadece iniş öncesinde kullanıldığından,
b) Çok fazla sürükleme kuvveti indüklendiğinden.
c) Flaplar çok yüksek hızlarda açıldığında stall olacağından.
d) VFE hızından yüksek hızlarda, uçak üzerinde oluşan aerodinamik kuvvetler flaplara ve kanat yapısal elemanlarına aşırı
yük bindireceğinden.

38. If the velocity of an air mass in a Venturi tube is increased:

a)  The dynamic pressure will decrease and the static pressure will increase.
b)  The static pressure will remain constant and the kinetic energy will increase.

c)  The kinetic energy will increase, the dynamic pressure will increase and the static pressure will decrease.

d)  The mass flow will stay constant, the dynamic pressure will decrease and the static pressure will increase.

38. Bir venturi tüpündeki hava kütlesinin hızının arttırılması sonucunda aşağıdaki durumlardan hangisi ortaya çıkacaktır ?
a) Dinamik basınç değeri düşecek, statik basınç değeri yükselecektir.
b) Statik basınç değeri sabit kalırken, kinetik enerji artacaktır.
c) Kinetik enerji ve dinamik basınç artarken, statik basınç düşecektir.
d) Kütle akışı sabit kalacak, dinamik basınç değeri düşerken statik basınç değeri artacaktır.

39. As Indicated Air Speed (IAS) is reduced, in order to maintain altitude, the pilot must:
a)  Increase the angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force.
b)  Decrease the angle of attack to reduce the drag.
c)  Deploy the speed brakes to increase drag.
d)  Reduce the thrust.

39. Gösterge sürati (IAS) düştüğünde, irtifayı korumak için pilot aşağıdaki işlemlerden hangisini uygulamalıdır ?

a) Gerekli kaldırma kuvvetini koruyabilmek için hücum açısını arttırmalıdır.

b) Sürükleme kuvvetini düşürebilmek için hucum açısını azaltmalıdır.
c) Sürükleme kuvvetini arttırmak için sürat frenlerini açmalıdır.
d) İtkiyi düşürmelidir.

40. The surface that gives an aircraft directional stability is:

a)  The rudder.
b)  The horizontal tailplane.
c)  The rudder trim tab.
d)  The fin.
40. Uçağa istikamet kararlılığı sağlayan yüzey aşağıdakilerden hangisidir ?
a) Rudder
b) Yatay stabilize.
c) Rudder trim tabı.
d) Dikey stabilize.

41. The maximum value of the Coefficient of Lift is found:

a)  At negative angles of attack.
b)  At the stalling angle of attack.
c)  When lift equals drag.
d)  During steep turns.
41. Kaldırma kuvveti katsayısı (CL) aşağıda verilen durumlardan hangisinde maksimum değerine ulaşır ?
a) Negatif (AoA) hücum açısında.
b) Stall (AoA) hücum açısında.
c) Kaldırma kuvveti, sürükleme kuvvetine eşit olduğunda.
d) Keskin dönüş esnasında.

42. If the cross sectional area of an airflow is reduced:

a)  The mass flow remains constant and the velocity of the airflow increases.
b)  The velocity of the airflow remains constant and the mass flow increases.
c)  The mass flow remains constant and the static pressure increases.
d)  The velocity of the airflow remains constant and the kinetic energy increases.
42. Bir akışın kesit alanının azaltılması sonucu aşağıdaki durumlardan hangisi ortaya çıkar ?
a) Kütle akışı (Debi) sabit kalır ve akım hızı artar.
b) Akım hızı sabit kalır ve kütle akışı artar.
c) Kütle akışı (Debi) sabit kalır ve statik basınç değeri artar.
d) Akış hızı sabit kalır ve kinetik enerji artar.
43. The purpose of an anti-balance tab is to:
a)  Trim the aircraft.
b)  Reduce the load required to move the controls at all speeds.
c)  Reduce the load required to move the controls at high speeds only.
d) Prevent overdeflection of the control surfaces by increasing the load applied by the pilot.
43. Anti-balans tabının amacı aşağıdakilerden hangisinde doğru olarak açıklanmıştır ?
a) Uçağın trim ayarını yapmak.
b) Tüm uçuş hızlarında kontrol yüzeylerini hareket ettirmek için gerekli olan kuvveti düşürmek.
c) Sadece yüksek hızlarda konrol yüzeylerini hareket ettirmek için gerekli olan kuvveti düşürmek.
d) Pilotun fiziksel olarak uygulaması gereken gücü artırarak aşırı kumanda vermesini önlemek.

44. An aircraft wing is constructed with dihedral in order to give:

a)  Lateral stability about the longitudinal axis.
b)  Longitudinal stability about the lateral axis.
c)  Lateral stability about the normal axis.
d)  Directional stability about the normal axis.

44. Uçağın dihedral açısına sahip olmasının nedeni aşağıdaki ifadelerden hangisinde doğru olarak açıklanmıştır ?

a) Uzunlama ekseninin etrafındaki, yanal kararlılığı (lateral stability) sağlamak.

b) Yanal eksen (lateral) etrafındaki, uzunlamasına kararlılığı (longitudinal stability) sağlamak.
c) Normal (Düşey) eksen etrafındaki, yanal kararlılığı (lateral stability) sağlamak.
d) Normal (Düşey) eksen etrafındaki, istikametsel kararlılığı sağlamak.

45. An aerofoil section is designed to produce lift resulting from a difference in the:
a)  Negative air pressure below and a vacuum above the surface.
b)  Higher air pressure below the surface and lower air pressure above the surface.
c)  Vacuum below the surface and greater air pressure above the surface.
d)  Higher air pressure at the leading edge than at the trailing edge.
45. Bir kanat profil kesiti aşağıdaki hangi iki basınç değeri arasındaki farkı kullanarak kaldırma kuvveti elde etmek için
tasarlanmıştır ?
a) Alt yüzeydeki basınç değeri ile üst yüzeydeki vakum arasındaki farktır.
b) Alt yüzeydeki yüksek basınç değeri ile üst yüzeydeki alçak basınç değeri arasındaki farktır.
c) Alt yüzeydeki vakum ile üst yüzeydeki yüksek basınç değeri arasındaki farktır.
d) Hücum kenarındaki yüksek basınç değeri ile firar kenarındaki basınç değeri arasındaki farktır.

46. The maximum gliding distance from 6000 feet, for an aircraft in clean configuration, with a lift/drag ratio of 8:1, is
approximately 8 nautical miles. If flaps are deployed:
a)  The maximum gliding distance will increase.
b)  The maximum gliding distance will be less.
c)  Lift/Drag ratio will be unaffected but will be achieved at a lower airspeed.
d)  The maximum gliding distance will be unaffected.

46. Temiz (Flapsız, iniş takımları kapalı v.s) konfigurasyondaki bir uçağın kaldırma/sürükleme oranı 8:1, iken 6000feet
irtifadan maksimum süzülüş mesafesi 8 NM’dir. Bu esnasında flapların açılması halinde aşağıdakilerden hangisi gerçekleşir ?

a) Maksimum süzülüş mesafesi artar.

b) Maksimum süzülüş mesafesi azalır.
c) L/D oranı daha düşük hızlarda değişmeden korunabilecektir.
d) Maksimum süzülüş mesafesi değişmeyecektir.

47. An imaginary straight line running from the leading edge of an aerofoil to its trailing edge, is called the:

a)  Mean camber.
b)  Aerofoil thickness.
c)  Chord line
d)  Maximum camber.
47. Kanat profilinin hucum kenarı ile firar kenarını birleştirdiği varsayılan hayali düz çizgiye ne ad verilir ?
a) Ortalama kamburluk.
b) Kanat profili kalınlığı.
c) Kordo hattı.
d) Maksimum kamburluk.

48. Movement of the aircraft about its normal (vertical) axis is known as:
a)  Yawing.
b)  Rolling.
c)  Pitching.
d)  Side slipping.
48. Uçağın normal (dikey) ekseni etrafındaki hareketine ne ad verilir ?
a) Sapma.
b) Dönme, yuvarlanma.
c) Yunuslama.
d) Yana kayış.

49. The maximum speed at which the aircraft can be flown with flaps extended is called:
a)  VYSE.
b)  VFE.
c)  VNE.
d)  VN0
49. Uçağın flaplı konfigurasyonda uçabileceği maksimum hız aşağıdakilerden hangisidir ?
a) VYSE.
b) VFE.
c) VNE.
d) VN0

50. When the aircraft is in a spin, the direction of spin is most reliably found by reference to which of the following indications?

a)  Artificial horizon.
b)  Slip indicator.
c)  Direction indicator.
d)  Turn coordinator

50. Bir uçak viril/spin konumunda iken, spin dönü yönünü aşağıda belirtilen göstergelerden hangisi doğru bilgiyi sağlar?

a) Durum cayrosu (suni ufuk).

b) Kayış göstergesi.
c) Yön göstergesi.
d) Dönüş kayış göstergesi.

51. If the angle of attack is increased above the stalling angle:

a)  Lift and drag will both decrease.
b)  Lift will decrease and drag will increase.
c)  Lift will increase and drag will decrease.
d)  Lift and drag will both increase.

51. Hücum açısı, stol açısının üzerindeki bir değere çıkarıldığında aşağıdaki durumlardan hangisi ortaya çıkar ?

a) Kaldırma ve sürükleme kuvvetlerinin her ikiside azalır.

b) Kaldırma kuvveti azalırken sürükleme kuvveti artar.
c) Kaldırma kuvveti artarken, sürükleme kuvveti azalır.
d) Kaldırma ve sürükleme kuvvetlerinin her ikiside artar.

52. If a landing is to be made without flaps the landing speed must be:
a)  Reduced.
b)  Increased.
c)  The same as for a landing with flaps.
d)  The same as for a landing with flaps but with a steeper approach.
52. Flapsız iniş gerçekleştirilecekse iniş süratinin değeri ne olmalıdır ?
a) Flaplı konfigurasyondaki hızdan düşük olmalı.
b) Flaplı konfigurasyondaki hızdan yüksek olmalı.
c) Flaplı konfigurasyondaki hızla aynı olmalı.
d) Flaplı konfigurasyondaki hızla aynı fakat daha yüksek hucum açılı (negatif) yaklaşma uygulanmalıdır.

53. An aircraft rotates about:

a)  Its wings.
b)  Its centre of gravity (CG)
c)  Its main undercarriage.
d)  Its rudder.
53. Bir uçak dönüş hareketini aşağıdakilerden hangisi etrafında gerçekleştirir ?
a) Uçağın kanatları.
b) Uçağın ağırlık merkezi (CG)
c) Uçağın ana iniş takımları.
d) Uçağın kuyruk dümeni (rudder).

54. The angle of attack is the angle between the:

a)  Camber line and free stream flow.
b)  Chord line and the Longitudinal axis of the aeroplane.
c)  Chord line and the horizontal plane.
d)  Chord line and the relative airflow.
54. Hücum açısı hangi iki referans arasında tanımlanmış açıdır ?
a) Profilin kamburluk hattı ve serbest akım.
b) Kord çizgisi ve uçağın uzunlamasına ekseni.
c) Kord çizgisi ve yatay düzlem.
d) Kordo hattı ve bağıl hava akışı (relative airflow)

55. The tendency of an aircraft to develop forces which restore it to its original flight situation, when disturbed from a condition
of steady flight, is known as:
a)  Manoeuvrability.
b)  Controllability.
c)  Stability.
d)  Instability.
55. Bir uçağın, düzgün (sabit) uçuş konumunun bozulması sonrasında, orjinal uçuş konumuna dönmek için kuvvetler üretme
eğilimine ne ad verilir ?
a) Manevra kabiliyeti.
b) Kontrol edilebilme.
c) Stabilite (kararlılık).
d) Kararsızlık.
56. A moving mass of air possesses kinetic energy. An object placed in the path of such a moving mass of air will be subject
to:
a)  Static pressure and dynamic pressure.
b)  Static Pressure.
c)  Dynamic pressure.
d)  Dynamic pressure minus static pressure.
56. Hareket halindeki hava kütlesinin kinetik enerjisi vardır. Böylesi bir akım içine yerleştirilen bir cisme aşağıdaki basınç
türlerinden hangisi etkiyecektir?
a) Statik ve dinamik basınç değerleri.
b) Statik basınç.
c) Dinamik basınç.
d) Dinamik ve statik basınç değerleri arasındaki basınç değeri.

57. The purpose of a trim tab is:

a)  To assist the pilot in initiating movement of the controls.
b)  To zero the load on the pilots controls in the flight attitude required.
c)  To provide feel to the controls at high speed.
d)  To increase the effectiveness of the controls.
57. Trim tabının kullanım amacı aşağıdakilerden hangisinde doğru olarak tanımlanmıştır ?
a) Pilota kontrol yüzeylerini hareket ettirilmesinde yardımcı olmak.

b) Uçulan uçuş konumuna bağlı olarak kumanda yüzeylerinden lövyeye uygulanan yükleri ortadan kaldırmak.

c) Yüksek hızlarda pilotun kumanda yüzeylerini hissini sağlayacak yükleri oluşturmak.

d) Kumanda yüzeylerinin etkinliğini arttırmak.

58. The angle of climb is proportional to:

a)  The amount by which the lift exceeds the weight.
b)  The amount by which the thrust exceeds the drag.
c)  The amount by which the thrust exceeds the weight.
d)  The angle of attack of the wing.
58. Tırmanma açısı aşağıdaki önermelerden hangisi ile orantılıdır ?
a) Kaldırma kuvvetinin ağırlık değerini aşma mikrarı ile.
b) İtkinin sürükleme kuvvetini aşma miktarı ile.
c) İtkinin ağırlık değerini aşma miktarı ile.
d) Kanadın hucum açısı ile.

59. What must be the relationship between the forces acting on an aircraft in flight, for that aircraft to be in a state of
equilibrium?
a)  Lift must equal drag, and thrust must equal weight.
b)  Lift must equal weight, and thrust must equal drag.
c)  Lift must equal thrust plus drag.
d)  Lift must equal thrust, and weight must equal drag.

59. Bir uçağın denge konumunda olması için, uçuş esnasında uçağa etkiyen kuvvetler arasındaki ilişki ne olmalıdır ?

a) Kaldırma kuvveti sürükleme kuvvetine, itki ise ağırlığa eşit olamalıdır.

b) Kaldırma kuvveti ağırlığa, itki sürükleme kuvvetine eşit olamalıdır.
c) Kaldırma kuvveti, itki ve sürükleme kuvvetlerinin toplamına eşit olmalıdır.
d) Kaldırma kuvveti itkiye, ağırlık ise sürükleme kuvvetine eşit olmalıdır.

60. As airspeed increases, induced drag:

a)  Increases.
b)  Decreases.
c)  Is dependant on the weight of the aircraft.
d)  Remains unchanged.
60. Süratin artışı ile, indüklenmiş sürüklemedeki değişim aşağıdakilerden hangisinde doğru tanımlanmıştır ?
a) Artar.
b) Azalır.
c) Uçağın ağırlığına bağlıdır.
d) Değişmez aynı kalır.

61. Relative airflow is _____ and _____ the movement of the aircraft.
a)  Perpendicular to- Opposite to.
b)  Parallel to-Opposite to.
c)  Perpendicular to -In the same direction as.
d)  Parallel to-In the same direction as.

62. When flaps are lowered the stalling angle of attack of the wing:
a)  Remains the same, but CLMAX increases.
b)  Increases and CLMAX increases.
c)  Decreases, but CLMAx increases.
d)  Decreases, but CLMAx remains the same.

62. Flapların açılmasının kanadın stol hücum açısına etkisi aşağıdaki seçeneklerden hangisinde doğru tanımlanmıştır ?

a) Stol hücum açısı (AoA) aynı kalır fakat CLMAX artar.

b) Stol hücum açısı (AoA) ve CLMAX değerleri artar.
c) Stol hücum açısı (AoA) azalır fakat CLMAX artar.
d) Stol hücum açısı (AoA) azalır fakat CLMAX sabit kalır.

63. The lateral axis of an aircraft is a line which:

a)  Passes through the wing tips.
b)  Passes through the Centre of Pressure, at right angles to the direction of the airflow.
c)  Passes through the quarter-chord point of the wing root, at right angles to the longitudinal axis.
d)  Passes through the Centre of Gravity, parallel to a line through the wing tips.
63. Bir uçağın yanal ekseni aşağıdaki seçeneklerden hangisinde doğru olarak tanımlanmıştır ?
a) Kanat uçlarından geçen çizgidir.
b) Hava akımı yönüne dik olacak şekilde, Basınç merkezinden (Cp) geçen çizgidir.
c) Uzunlamasına eksene dik olacak şekilde, kökünün ¼ kordo noktasından geçen çizgidir.
d) Kanat uçlarını birleştiren çizgiye paralel, ağırlık merkezinden geçen çizgidir.

64. If the control column is moved to the left and forward:

a)  The left aileron moves up, right aileron moves down, elevator moves up.
b)  The left aileron moves down, right aileron moves up, elevator moves down.
c)  The left aileron moves up, right aileron moves down, elevator moves down.
d)  The left aileron moves down, right aileron moves up, elevator moves up.
64. Lövyenin sola yatış ve ileri itiş konumunun kumanda yüzeylerinde yaratacağı etki aşağıdaki seçeneklerden hangisinde
doğru olarak tanımlanmıştır ?
a) Sol kanatçık yukarı, sağ kanatçık aşağı, irtifa dümeni yukarı hareket eder.
b) Sol kanatçık aşağı, sağ kanatçık yukarı, irtifa dümeni aşağı hareket eder.
c) Sol kanatçık yukarı, sağ kanatçık aşağı, irtifa dümeni aşağı hareket eder.
d) Sol kanatçık aşağı, sağ kanatçık yukarı, irtifa dümeni yukarı hareket eder.

65. Density:
a)  Reduces with altitude increase.
b)  Is unaffected by temperature change.
c)  Increases with altitude increase.
d)  Reduces with temperature reduction.
65. Yoğunluğa ilişkin aşağıdaki önermelerden hangisi doğrudur ?
a) İtifanın artışıyla azalır.
b) Sıcaklık değişimlerinden etkilenmez.
c) İrtifanın artışıyla artar.
d) Sıcaklığın düşüşüyle azalır.

66. Ailerons give:

a)  Lateral control about the lateral axis.
b)  Longitudinal control about the lateral axis.
c)  Directional control about the normal axis.
d)  Lateral control about the longitudinal axis
66. Aşağıdaki seçeneklerden hangisinde kanatçığın görevi doğru olarak tanımlanmıştır ?
a) Yanal eksen etrafında yanal kontrol sağlar.
b) Yanal eksen etrafında boylamsal kontrol sağlar.
c) Normal eksen etrafında yönsel kontrol sağlar.
d) Uzunlamasına eksen etrafında yanal kontrol sağlar.

67. The primary and secondary effects of the aileron control are:
a)  Roll and pitch.
b)  Pitch and yaw
c)  Roll and yaw.
d)  Yaw and roll.

67. Kanatçık kontrollerin birincil ve ikincil etkileri aşağıdaki seçeneklerden hangisinde doğru tanımlanmıştır ?

a) Yatış ve yunuslama.
b) Yunuslama ve sapma.
c) Yatış ve sapma.
d) Sapma ve yatış

68. The International Standard Atmosphere specifies:

A -values of actual conditions of temperature, pressure and density that exist at all levels of the atmosphere.

B - sea level conditions of atmospheric temperature, pressure and density.

C - ambient conditions of atmospheric temperature, pressure and density for all altitudes.
D - standardized atmospheric values of temperature, pressure and density for all altitudes.
68. Uluslararası Standart Atmosfer modelinin içermiş olduğu veri (bilgi) aşağıdaki seçeneklerden hangisinde doğru olarak
tanımlanmıştır ?
a) Tüm irtifadaki sıcaklık, basınç ve yoğunluk parametrelerinin gerçek değerlerini gösterir.
b) Sıcaklık, basınç ve yoğunluk paremetrelerinin deniz seviyesindeki değerlerini gösterir.
c) Tüm irtifadaki ortam koşullarında tanımlı sıcaklık, basınç ve yoğunluk parametrelerini gösterir.
d) Tüm irtifadaki sıcaklık, basınç ve yoğunluk paremetrelerinin standart atmosferik değerini gösterir.

69. The International Standard Atmosphere assumes that the ambient temperature:
A - will decrease with height only if an inversion layer is present.
B - decreases with increase in height above the earth.
C - increases with increase in height above the earth.
D - increases with decrease in height above the earth.
69. Uluslararası Standart Atmosfer modelinin (ISA) ortam sıcaklığını tanımlarken esas aldığı koşul aşağıdaki seçeneklerden
hangisinde doğru olarak tanımlanmıştır?
a) Ortam sıcaklığı tersine katmanın varlığı söz konusu olduğunda artan irtifayla azalacaktır.
b) Ortam sıcaklığı, yerküre üzerinde artan yükseklikle azalacaktır.
c) Ortam sıcaklığı, yerküre üzerinde artan yükseklikle artacaktır.
d) Ortam sıcaklığı, yerküre üzerinde alçalan yükseklikle artacaktır.

70. Air density reduces with altitude because:

A - of the fall in water vapour content.
B - the pressure falls.
C - the temperature falls.
D - of adiabatic cooling.
70. Havanın yoğunluğunun artan irtifayla azalmasının nedeni aşağıdaki seçeneklerden hangisinde doğru olarak açıklanmıştır
?
a) Su buharı miktarının azalması nedeniyle.
b) Basıncın düşmesi nedeniyle.
c) Sıcaklığın düşmesi nedeniyle.
d) Adyabatik (ısı ve kütlenin korunduğu proses) soğuma nedeniyle.

71. If air is maintained at a constant temperature and volume while its pressure is increased, its density will:

A - increase.
B - decrease.
C - remain constant because the volume is constant.
D - vary only with changes in the environmental temperature.

71. Eğer havanın basıncı arttırılırken, sıcaklık ve hacmi sabit tutulursa, yoğunluğu bu süreçten nasıl etkilecektir?

a) Artacaktır.
b) Azalacaktır.
c) Hacim sabit olduğundan, yoğunluk değişmeyecektir.
d) Yoğunluk sadece çevresel sıcaklık değiştiğinde değişiklik gösterecektir.

72. In a light training aircraft a smooth stall is characterized by:

A - a nose pitch up and aircraft sink.
B - airspeed increase and wing drop.
C - airspeed stagnation and incipient spin.
D - a nose pitch down and aircraft sink.
72. Stol karakterize eden durum aşağıdaki hangi seçenekte doğru olarak belirtilmiştir ?
a) Burun yukarı kalkar ve uçak çöküşe geçer.
b) Sürat artar ve kanat bir tarafa düşer.
c) Sürat durur ve kontrol dışı spin/virile girilir.
d) Burun aşağı doğru düşer ve uçak çöküşe geçer.

73. The bending of an aeroplane's wing spar in flight is the product of opposing force lift which bends the wing .........(a) ... and
weight which acts in .......(b)...........
Select the answer which correctly completes this statement.

(a) (b)
A- upwards upwards
B- downwards downwards
C- upwards downwards
D- downwards upwards
73. Bir uçağın kanat spar’nın uçuş esnasında bükülmesi, kanadı ........... yönde büken kaldırma kuvveti ve ............ yönde
etkiye ağırlık gibi iki zıt kuvvetin sonucu ortaya çıkar.
 (a) (b)
A- Yukarı Yukarı
B- Aşağı Aşağı
C- Yukarı Aşağı
D- Aşağı Yukarı

74. An aircraft in straight and level flight is in equilibrium when:

A - the lift equals the drag and the thrust equals the weight.
B - the weight equals the drag and the lift equals the thrust.
C - the weight equals the lift couple and the drag equals the thrust couple.
D - the weight equals lift and the drag equals the thrust.
74. Düz uçuştaki bir uçak, aşağıda belirtilen durumlardan hangisinde denge konumundadır ?
a) Kaldırma kuvvetinin sürükleme kuvvetine, ağırlığında itkiye eşit olduğu durumda.
b) Ağırlığın sürükleme kuvvetine, kaldırma kuvvetinin ise itkiye eşit olduğu durumda.
c) Ağırlığın kaldırma kuvvetine, sürükleme kuvvetinin itkiye eşit olduğu durumda.
d) Ağırlığın kaldırma kuvvetine sürüklemenin de itkiye eşit olduğu durumda.

75. A coefficient of lift reaches its maximum value:

A-between 4° and 6° angle of attack in straight and level flight.
B - at or just prior to the stall.
C- at the minimum drag speed in the clean configuration.
D - at the normal operating speed (Vno) in clean configuration.
75. Kaldırma kuvveti katsayısı aşağıdaki durumlardan hangisinde maksimum değerine ulaşır?
a) Düz uçuşta 4°- 6° hücum açısı arasında.
b) Stol hücum açısından hemen önce ya da stall açısında.
c) Temiz konfigrasyon (flapsız, iniş takımları içeride) minimum sürükleme süratinde.
d) Temiz konfigrasyonda (flapsız, iniş takımları içeride) normal çalışma süratinde.

76. The reason for geometric washout being designed into an aeroplane wing is to:
A - decrease the effectiveness of the ailerons.
B - cause the outboard section of the wing to stall first.
C - cause the inboard section of the wing to stall first.
D -prevent progressive wing stall and loss of control.
76. Bir kanat tasarımında geometrik burkulmanın (washout) kullanılmasının sebebi nedir?
a) Kanatçıkların etkinliğini azaltmak için.
b) Stol un önce kanat ucundan başlaması için.
c) Stol un önce kanat kökünden başlaması için.
d) Kanat stol unün gelişmesini ve kontrol kaybını önlemek için.

77. Complete the following statement.The .....X..... wake turbulence is generated by a .....Y..... aircraft flying at .....Z.....
airspeed.

X Y Z
A - greatest light high
B - greatest heavy slow
c - least heavy slow
D - least light high

78. An increase in aircraft weight amongst other things will:

A - cause an increase in the stalling speed.
B - not affect the stalling speed.
C - cause a decrease in the stalling speed.
D - cause an increase in the flapless stalling speed but decrease in the clean stalling speed.
78. Uçağın ağırlığının artmasının sonucu ortaya çıkacak sonuçlardan birisi aşağıdaki seçeneklerden hangisinde doğru olarak
tanımlanmıştır?
a) Stol süratinin artmasına sebep olur.
b) Stol süratini etkilemez.
c) Stol süratinde düşüse sebep olur.

d) Flapsız stol süratini artırırken, (flapsız/iniş takımları içeride) temiz konfigürasyon stol süratinin azalmasına sebep olur.

79. If an aircraft is maintaining a constant angle of attack but increases its airspeed this will cause:
A - a decrease in lift but an increase in drag.
B - no change in lift generated by the wing/ but an increase in airframe drag.
C - an increase of both lift and drag.
D - an increase in lift but a decrease in drag.

79. Bir uçağın hücum açısını sabit tutarken, sürati arttırması sonucu aşağıdaki durumlardan hangisi ortaya çıkar ?

a)Kaldırma kuvvetinde düşüş, sürükleme kuvvetinde artış.

b)Kanat tarafından yaratılan kaldırma kuvvetinde değişme olmazken uçağın gövdesinden kaynaklanan sürüklemede artış.

c)Kaldırma ve sürükleme kuvvetlerinin her ikisinde de artış.

d)Kaldırma kuvvetinde artış fakat sürükleme kuvvetinde düşüş.

80. An aeroplane wing will stall at a given:

A - angle of incidence
B - angle of lift
C - dihedral angle
D- angle of attack
80. Bir uçak kanadının stol durumu aşağıdaki açısal tanımlardan hangisine göre belirlenmektedir ?
A- Mekanik montaj (Incidence) açısı.
B-   Kaldırma kuvveti.
C-   Dihedral açısı.
D-   Hücum açısı.

81. A stalling angle of attack is increased by slots because:

A-     They delay the break-up of the smooth airflow over the wing
B-     They dump positive pressure airflow from under the wing
C-    They increase the effective wing area at the leading edge
D-    They decease the ineffective wing area at the leading edge

81.Stall hücum açısı, slotlar kullanılarak arttırılabilmektedir. Bunun nedeni aşağıdaki seçeneklerden hangisinde verilmiştir ?

a) Slotlar, kanat üst yüzeyindeki akım ayrılmasını geciktirirler.

b) Slotlar, kanat alt yüzeyindeki yüksek basınçlı akımı boşaltırlar.
c) Slotlar, hucum kenarı bölgesindeki etkili kanatlarını arttırırlar.
d) Slotlar, hucum kenarı bölgesindeki etkisiz kanat alanını azaltırlar.

82. Study the vector diagram below representing the forces in a turn
Which of the following represents the total lift?
a-A
b-B
c-C
d-W
82. Aşağıdaki verilen ve dönüş esnasındaki kuvvet dağılımını gösteren vektör diagramını inceleyiniz.

Yukarıda belirtilen şekildeki vektör gösterimlerinden hangisi toplam kaldırma kuvvetini temsil etmektedir ?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) W

83. As an aeroplane's True Air Speed (TAS) increases:

A - parasite drag decreases and induced drag increases.
B -induced drag decreases and parasite drag increases.
C - induced drag increases and parasite drag increases.
D -induced drag decreases and parasite drag decreases.
83. Bir uçağın gerçek Hava sürati (TAS) arttığında aşağıdaki durumlardan hangisi ortaya çıkar ?
a) Parazit sürükleme azalırken, indüklenmiş sürükleme artar.
b) İndüklenmiş sürükleme azalırken, parazit sürükleme artar.
c) İndüklenmiş sürükleme artarken, parazit sürükleme azalır.
d) indüklenmiş ve parazit sürükleme her ikiside azalır.

84. A fixed trim tab such as those commonly found on ailerons should:
A - not be adjusted once set by the manufacturer.
B - be adjusted on the ground after a test flight to achieve longitudinally level flight (pitch)
C - be adjusted on the ground after a flight test to achieve laterally level flight (roll)
D - only be adjusted after receipt of written approval from the Authority.
84. Kanatçıklarda yaygın olarak kullanılan sabit trim tablarının ayarlanması ile ilgili doğru önerme aşağıdaki seçeneklerden
hangisinde belirtilmiştir?
a) Uçak üreticisi tarafından bir kez uygulanır ve bir daha değiştirilmez.
b) Boylamsal düz uçuşu (pitch) sağlamak için uygulanan test uçuşu sonrasında ayarlanır.
c) Yatışsız düz uçuşu (rol) sağlamak için uygulanan test uçuşu sonrasında ayarlanır.
d) Sivil havacılık otoritesinden alınan yazılı bir onay sonrasında ayarlanır.

85. A flying control surface is fitted with a simple trim tab. Once the trim tab is set in flight, any movement of the flying control
surface will result in the:
A - trim tab position remaining constant relative to the control surface
B - trim tab moving to a new position and will have to be re-set.
C - trim tab position remaining constant relative to the airflow.
D - trim tab moving in the opposite direction to the main flying control surface.
85. Üzerinde basit bir trim tab bulunan kontrol yüzeyinin, trim tab’ı ayarlandıktan sonra hareket ettirilmesi aşağıdaki
durumlardan hangisine sebep olacaktır?
a) Trim tabın kontrol yüzeyine göre konumu sabit kalacaktır.
b) Trim tab yeni bir konum alacak ve yeniden ayarlanması gerekecektir.
c) Hava akışına gore trim tabın konumu sabit kalacaktır.
d) Trim tab ana kumanda yüzeyine göre ters yönde hareket edecektir.

86. A factor that determines an aeroplane's stalling speed for a given weight is:
A - the square of the wing area.
B - the square root of the load factor.
C - the square root of the weight.
D - the square root of the airspeed.

86. Verilen bir ağırlık değeri için bir uçağın stall süratini belirleyen faktör aşağıdaki seçeneklerden hangisinde tanımlanmıştır ?

a) Kanat alanının karesi.

b) Yük faktörünün kare kökü.
c) Ağırlığın kare kökü.
d) Süratin kare kökü.

87. The angle of attack of an aerofoil may be defined as:

A - the angle subtended by the aerofoil chord line and the longitudinal axis.
B - the angle subtended by the aerofoil chord line and the relative airflow.
C - the angle subtended by the aerofoil mean chord line and the horizontal.
D - the angle subtended by the aerofoil mean chord line and the rigging angle.
87. Aşağıdaki seçeneklerden hangisinde kanat profilinin hücum açısının tanımı doğru olarak yapılmıştır ?
a) Kanat kesidi kordo hattı ile uzunlamasına eksen arasındaki açı.
b) Kanat kesidi kordo hattı ile bağıl (relative) hava akımı arasındaki açı.
c) Kanat kesidi kordo hattı ile yatay arasındaki açı.
d) Kanat kesidi ortalama kordo hattı ile germe açısı ile tanımlanan açı.

88. In straight and level flight, the air flow over the wing's upper surface compared with the air flow unaffected by the wing will
have:
A - the same velocity.
B - a reduced velocity.
C - a greater velocity.
D - a relative velocity.
88. Düz uçuşta, kanadın üst yüzeyinde geçen hava akımı, kanadın varlığından etkilenmeyen bir noktadaki hava akımı ile
karşılaştırıldığında aşağıdaki önermelerden hangisi doğrudur?
a) Hızları aynıdır.
b) Daha düşük bir akım hızı.
c) Daha yüksek bir akım hızı.
d) Bağıl (relative) bir hız değeri.

89. The movement of an airplane about its normal (vertical) axis is known as:
A - side slipping.
B - roll.
C - pitch.
D - yaw.
89. Bir uçağın normal (dikey) ekseni etrafında yaptığı harekete ne ad verilir ?
a) Yana kayış.
b) Yatış.
c) Yunuslama.
d) Sapma.
90. An aircraft is fitted with a balance tab controlled rudder, when viewed from the rear, forward movement of the rudder bar to
the left to yaw the aircraft to the left will move the balance tab to the:
A) tab to the right and the rudder to the left.
B) tab to the left and the rudder to the right.
C) tab to the right and rudder to the right.
D) tab to the left and rudder to the left.
90. Üzerinde balans tabı monte edilmiş bir istikamet dümeni (arkadan bakıldığında) uçağı sola saptırmak için sola
döndürüldüğünde, balans tabının hareketi hangi yöne doğru olacaktır?
a) Balans tabı sağa, istikamet dümeni sola.
b) Balans tabı sola, istikamet dümeni sağa.
c) Balans tabı sağa, istikamet dümeni sağa.
d) Balans tabı sola, istikamet dümeni sola.

91. Control surface mass balance:

A - balances the extra weight of the servo tab on the trailing edge.
B - makes the control easier for the pilot to move.
C - makes the control more difficult for the pilot to move.
D - prevents flutter of that control in the higher speed range.
91. Kontrol yüzeyine yerleştirilmiş olan kütle balanslarının görevi nedir?
a) Firar kenarındaki servo tabların yarattığı fazla ağırlığı dengelemek.
b) Pilotun kumanda yüzeyi hareketlerini kolaylaştırır.
c) Pilotun kumanda yüzeyi hareketlerini zorlaştırır.
d) Üzerinde bulunduğu kontrol yüzeyinin yüksek hızlarda flutter etkisine girmesini önler.

92. Differential aileron where the up-going aileron moves further than the down-going aileron is a design feature that helps to
counteract:
A - aircraft inertia.
B - adverse aileron drag to prevent adverse yaw
C - lateral positive stability.
D - lateral instability.
92. Kanatçıkların sapma oranları arasında fark oluşturacak şekilde tasarlanmış olan diferansiyel kanatçık uygulaması hangi
amaçla kullanılmaktadır ?
a) Uçağın ataletine karşı kuvvet oluşturmak amacıyla.
b) Ters sapmayı (adverse yaw) engellemek için ters kanatçık sürüklemesi yaratmak
c) Yanal pozitif kararlılık yaratmak için.
d) Yanal kararsızlık yaratmak için.

93. When an aeroplane is disturbed from its trimmed attitude, for instance when entering turbulent air, it is said to have
neutral stability if it consequently:
A - remains in the new attitude.
B - oscillates about its original attitude before eventually settling in its original attitude.
C - immediately re-establishes its original attitude.
D - departs further from its original attitude.
93. Bir uçağın trimlenmiş konumu turbülanslı akım ortamına girmesinde olduğu gibi bozulması durumunda nötr kararlı olarak
tanımlanabilmesi için hangi reaksiyonu vermesi gerekir ?
a) Yeni konumunda sabit kalır.
b) Bozunum nedeniyle salınım yaptıktan sonra tekrar orjinal konumuna geri döner.
c) Bozunumun hemen ardından salınım yapmaksızın orjinal konuma geri döner.
d) Orjinal konumundan uzaklaşır.

94. The centre of pressure by design is behind the aircraft centre of gravity which is balanced in straight and level flight by:

A - the tailplane producing a downward force.

B - the tailplane producing an upward force.
C - neither an upward nor downward tailplane force as the aircraft will be in equilibrium.
D - neither an upward or downward tailplane force as the aircraft will not be in equilibrium.
94. Uçağın dizayn karakteristiği gereği basınç merkezi (Cp) uçağın ağırlık merkezinin (CG) arkasında olması durumu, düz
uçuş konumunda basınç merkezi (Cp) uçağın ağırlık merkezinin arkasında olan bir uçağın düz uçuş konumunda balansı yatay
stabilizenin hangi konumunda sağlanır ?
a) Yatay stabilizenin aşağıya doğru kuvvet oluşturduğunda.
b) Yatay stabilizenin yukarı doğru kuvvet oluşturduğunda.
c) Yatay stabilizenin ne yukarı ne de aşağıya doğru kuvvet oluşturmadığı durumda.

d) Uçağın denge konumunda olmadığı ve yatay stabilizenin ne yukarı ne de aşağı doğru kuvvet oluştumadığı durumda.

95. One effect of the centre of gravity being at or close to its permitted forward limit will be:
A - dangerously low elevator forces being required during the flare prior to touch-down.
B - high elevator forces being required during the flare prior to touch-down.
C - a reduction in the basic stalling speed.
D - a significant increase in the basic stalling speed with possible loss of control close to the stall.
95. Aşağıdakilerden hangisinde ağırlık merkezinin (CG) ön limit noktasına yakın ya da üzerinde olmasının yaratacağı
etkilerden birisi doğru olarak belirtilmiştir?
a) Yere oturuş öncesinde palyede çok düşük yatay stabilize sapmaları gerekir.
b) Yere oturuş öncesinde palyede çok yüksek yatay stabilize sapmaları gereklidir.
c) (Flapsız) stall sürati azalır.

d) (Flapsız) stall süratinde önemli bir artışla birlikte, stall konumuna yaklaştıkça kontrol kaybı ihtimali olur.

96. Which of the following loads can not be considered as a ground load?
A- Shock loads during landing
B- Crosswind related sideloads
C- Ground effect hovering load
D- Towing load
96. Aşağıdakilerden hangisi uçağın yerde maruz kaldığı yüklerden biri değildir?
a- İniş sırasındaki şok yükleri
b- Yan rüzgar kaynaklı yükler
c- Yer etkisinden doğan ilave kaldırma yükü
d- Çekme (towing) yükleri

97. Which of the following statements about the spin is correct?

A- In a spin, IAS continuously increases.
B- Every aeroplane should be designed such that it can never enter a spin
C- During spin recovery the ailerons should be kept in the neutral position and only rudder is used.
D- Stall recovery is made using reverse aileron control
97. Spin hakkında aşağıdakilerden hangisi doğrudur?
a- Spin sırasında gösterge sürati (IAS) sürekli olarak artar.
b- Tüm uçaklar hiçbir zaman spin e girmeyecek şekilde tasarlanmalıdır

c- Spinden çıkmak için kanatçıklar nötr pozisyonda tutulur ve kontrol için yalnızca istikamet dümeni (rudder) kullanılır.

d- Stol dan çıkmak için ters kanatçık kumandası verilir.

98. Increase of wing loading will:

A- Increase the stall speed
B- Decrease the minimum gliding angle
C- Increase CLmax
D- Decrease take off speed
98. Kanat yükünün artması aşağıdakilerden hangisine neden olur?
a- Stol hızını artırır
b- Minimum süzülüş açısını azaltır
c- Clmax ı artırır
d- Kalkış süratini azaltır

99. During a coordinate turn in stagnant air, load factor of the aircraft depends on:
A- Density altitude
B- Turn rate
C- Roll angle
D- Weight

99. Durgun havadaki bir koordineli dönüş anında uçağa etki eden yük faktörü aşağıdakilerden hangisine bağlıdır?
a- Yoğunluk irtifasına
b- Dönüş oranına
c- Yatış açısına
d- Ağırlık

100. Which of the following is not an indication of stall?

A- Lack of engine control response
B- Decrease in the primary control effects
C- Unintended nose drop of the aircraft
D- Stall horn activation
100. Aşağıdakilerden hangisi, stolun belirtilerinden değildir?
a- Yanıt vermeyen motor kontrolleri
b- Uçağın kumanda etkilerinin azalması
c- Burnun istem dışı şekilde aşağıya düşmesi
d- Stol ikaz sistem kornasının ötmesi
090
 1. How should you read back the Ankara Regional Pressure Setting of 1015 mbs?(101)

'Ankara wun tousand wun fife millibars'

'Ankara wun zero wun fife'

'Regional Pressure wun zero wun fife'

'Regional Pressure Setting wun zero wun fife'

2. A pilot transmits his ETA as 'zero seven'. At what time is he estimating his arrival?(101)

At seven o'clock am.

At seven minutes past the hour.

In seven minutes.

In seventy minutes.

3. Which of the following items are NOT required to be read back?(101)

Conflicting traffic information

Speed instructions

Any item if the ATSU requests it

Runway in use

4. A position report shall contain the following information-(103)

Aircraft Identification, position, level, time, next position and ETA, POB.

Position, level, time, next position and ETA.

Aircraft Identification, position, level, time, next position and ETA.

Aircraft Identification, position, level, time, next position and ETA, IFR or VFR.

5. If ATC passed you an instruction which you thought was 'G-LO squawk 7043', what should your
reply be?(101)

'squawk 7043'

'say again squawk, Golf Lima Oscar'

 'squawk 7043, Golf Lima Oscar'

'Golf Lima Oscar, squawk 7043'

6.The correct abbreviation for call-sign Kartal BAHT is...(101)

Kartal B -T.

B-HT.

Kartal HT.

Kartal B-HT.

7. How should the time 1500 be transmitted?(101)

Wun Fife Zero Zero

Fifteen Hundred

Wun Fife Hundred

Minute Zero Zero

8. You are squawking 3671, mode charlie. You receive the following request: 'Golf Bravo Zulu,
confirm squawk'. How should you reply?(101)

'3671, Golf Bravo Zulu'

'3671 with Charlie, Golf Bravo Zulu'

'Confirm squawking 3671, Golf Bravo Zulu'

'Affirm squawk 3671 with mode charlie, Golf Bravo Zulu'

On the
readability
scale what
does
"Readability 5" Readable but Problem to
mean: with difficulty. Unreadable. understand. Perfectly readable.
How would you
correctly reply
Change to
to the ATC
HezarfenTower
instruction
118.025, TC- AYE.
"TC-AYB, G-CD,
Change to 118.025. Wilco, TC- AYE. 118.025TC-AYB.
Hezarfen
Tower,
118.025?

How shall a
pilot inform the
control tower
that he has to
abandon the
take-off Abandoning Cancelling take-
manoeuvre. take-off. Stopping off. Aborting take-off.
If you hear
from ATC Iunderstand
"WILCO’’ " the your message
correct and will comply
meaning is: HOLD I SAY AGAIN with it. roger.
Under what
runway
Runway
conditions is
covered with
the braking
wet snow and
action reported Runway
slush
to be Runway covered with conditions Runway covered wit
"Unreliable" ice. normal. snow.
The distress
signal and the
The air-ground
distress The FIS frequency The regional
frequency in The emergency freq
message to be designated for the guard
use at the in any case.
sent by an airspace concerned. frequency.
time.
aircraft in
distress be on
What is the
radiotelephony
call sign for
the
aeronautical
GROUND
station
providing
Surface
movement
control ? RADAR. ARRIVAL APPROACH
What is the
phrase
YES
response to
‘AFFIRM’? AFFIRMATIVE ROGER WILCO
You are the
Communications
lost and need
Urgency message relating to flight safety mes
radar vectoring Distress
direction finding
to the message
destination.
What categorty
message is it?

The instruction
from the tower Be alert for the Turn 180 degree
Vacate traffic leaving back and vacate Increase taxi speed
Runway left runway from Vacate runway from the runway via vacate runway from
means, taxiway C left side taxiway C. taxiway C.

Duyulabil
me
derecesi
olarak
“5” ne
anlama Zorlukla Anlaşma mükemmel
gelir? anlaşılıyor. Anlaşılmıyor problemi var duyuluyor. D
''TC- AYB
frekansını
zı
Hezarfen
kule
TC- AYE
frakansı Mesajınız alındı
frekansınızı
118.025 anlaşıldı onu
hazerfan kule
değiştirin. yapacağım TC-
118.025'e
'' ATC AYE
değiştirin.
talimatını
nasıl
doğru
cevaplarsı 118.025 TC-
nız? G-CD, 118.025. AYB. D
Kalkıştan B
vazgeçtiği
nizi
kuleye
nasıl
bildirirsini kalkıştan kalkışı iptal kalkıştan
z? vazgeçiyorum. duruyorum. ettim. vazgeçiyorum.
Atc den C
WILCO
kelimesini
duyarsanı
z doğru Mesajınızı aldım
anlamı Tekrar gereğini
nedir? Bekle söylüyorum yapacağım. Anlaşıldı.
Hangi A
pist ıslak
şartlar
kar ve sulu karla
altında pist buzla pist şartları pist kuru karla
kaplıysa
pistteki kaplıysa normalse kaplıysa
frenleme
'güvenilm
ez' denir.
Acil A
durumdak
i bir
uçaktan
İlgili hava
acil halihazırdaki Bölgesel Her durumda
sahasındaki
durum kullanılan hava- emercensi emercensi
FIS
mesaj ve yer frekansından kanalından frekanstan
frekansından
sinyali
nasıl
gönderilm
elidir.
Yer C
hareketler
ini kontrol
eden
havacılık
istasyonu YER
nun
radyotele
kominikas
yon çağrı
adı nedir? RADAR. VARIŞ YAKLAŞMA
'AFFIRM'' C
Mesajınızı
freyzi nin
Evet anladım gereğini
cevabı
yapacağım.
nedir? Evet anlaşıldı Anlaşıldı
Kayboldu B
nuz, gidiş
meydanın
a radar Acil
Yön bulma ile Uçuş
vektörü olmayan
ilgili konuşmalar. emniyet mesajı
ihtiyacınız durum mesajı
var. Bu
hangi tip Acil durum
mesajdır. mesajı
Kulenin B
pisti
soldan
terk
edin/Vaca
te
runway) C taksi yolundan 180 derece geri Taksi hızınızı
talimatını pisti terk eden pisti sol dönün pisti C arttırın veya pisti
n anlamı tafiğe dikkat taraftan terk taksi yolundan C taxi yolundan
nedir? edin. edin. terk edin. terk edin.
Ankara
bölgesel
altimetrik
basınç
değeri
1015mbs'n
asıl geri Ayarlanan
söylersiniz Ankara 1015 Ankara bir sıfır Bölgesel basınç bölgesel basınç
? mbs. bir beş. bir sıfır bir beş. bir sıfır bir beş. B
Bir pilot
tahmini
varış
tahminisini
''07''olarak Saatbaşını 07
7 dakika içinde. 70 dakika içinde.
bildirirse, dakika geçe
onun
tahmini
varışzama
nı nedir? Saat 7:00 am'de. B
Aşağıdaki
maddelerd
en
hangilerini
n tekrar
edilmesi(re ATSU'nun
ad back) İlgili diğer Sürat talimatlarındaki
gerekmez? trafiklerin bilgisi talimatları her madde Kullanılan pist A
Bir Uçak çağrı Uçak çağrı
pozisyon adı,pozisyonu,se Uçak çağrı adı,pozisyonu,se
raporu viyesi,zamanı,gel Pozisyonu,sevi adı,pozisyonu,se viyesi,zamanı,gel
aşağıdaki ecek pozisyonu yesi,zamanı,gel viyesi,zamanı,gel ecek pozisyonu
maddeleri ve tahmini varış ecek pozisyonu ecek pozisyonu ve tahmini varış
içermelidir. zamanı,uçaktaki ve tahmini ve tahmini varış zamanı IFR veya
kişi adedi. varış zamanı zamanı VFR
ATC'nin
size ilettiği
talimatı,siz
''G-LO
7043''
olarak
anladığınız
ı
düşündüğ
ünüzde
cevabınız
ne Squawk'ı tekrar Squawk 7043 G - G - LO Squawk
olmalıdır? Squawk 7043 edin G-LO LO 7043 B
Kartal
BATH
çağrı adı
için doğru
kısaltma…
… Kartal B-T B-HT Kartal HT Kartal B-HT C
Zaman
15:00 nasıl
iletilmelidir
? Bir,beş,sıfır,sıfır Binbeşyüz Bir,beşyüz Dakika sıfır,sıfır A
Transpond
erdan
mode C
gönderiyor
sunuz,taki
p
eden''GBZ
tranponder
i teyid
edermisini
z''talimatı
aldığınızda
, nasıl '3671 Evet,transponde
cevap transponderinizi rimin 3671 C
vermelisini teyid eder olduğunu teyid
z? 3671,GBZ 3671 C,GBZ misiniz?,GBZ'' ederim, GBZ A
 clearance to
enter, land
and departure
Which of clearance ,
the backtrack,
following cross or hold
lists are short of an
all ATC level active runway;
messages instructions, altitudes,
that must altimeter headings, frequency
read back settings, reporting changes, type
in full; surface points, of radar ATC route
wind, transponder service, clearances, runway
runway codes, serviceability of clearances, actual
information. frequencies. approach aid. weather reports. B
How
would
you
correctly
Change
reply to
to
the ATC
Stephenuille
instructio
Tower
n "TC-
120.375, G-
AYE,
CD.
Change
to Corlu
Tower, G-CD,
120.375? 120.375. Wilco, G-CD. 120.375 TC-AYE. D
No cloud A
below 5000
feet or
below the
minimum
CAVOK sector
means as altitude, No cloud below
abb. whichever is 5000 feet or
Ceiling greater; no above the
and CB, minimum
visibility thunderstor sector altitude,
OK, so ms or whichever is
what are precipitation greater; no CB,
the limits ; visibility 10 thunderstorms
of it? kms or or precipitation;
more, no visibility 5 kms
shallow fog, or more, no
or low shallow fog, or
drifting The runway is low drifting No departure airfield
snow dry snow diversion is available
If you C
hear from
ATC
"STAND
BY’’ " the
correct
meaning Wait and I will
is: HOLD I SAY AGAIN call you GO AHEAD
No A
reply is
expected
If an ‘’ALL
unless
STATION
individual
S’’ call is
stations are Acknowledgem It must be repeated
made:
asked to No reply is ent of an ALL after an
acknowledg ever to be STATIONS call acknowledgement of
e receipt made is mandatory receipt is made
When the D
pilot or
controller
misses
the one of
items of
the
instructio
ns or
requests
what is
the most Say again
appropria Say one …….(altitude,
te call? more Speak slower Say twice QNH,etc.)
When D
instructed
to
“cleared
to taxi to
apron via Continue
backtrack taxi and vacate
” during the runway
landing from the end
roll by the Leave the Leave the Turn 180 degree back
tower runway from runway from and taxi on the
control, the first the first runway opposite to
the pilot taxiway taxiway the landing direction
should; ahead behind for vacating runway.
What is B
the
ROGER
phrase AFFIRMATI
response VE AFFIRM WILCO
to
‘Confirm’.
What is B
the
reaction
expected
carry out
from an
a missed
aircraft
approach from
when proceed with
the present
received your message
position
“GO
without
AROUND
hesitation.
”
instructio
n from overtake the make a 360
Tower? aircraft head degree turn
The B
instructio
n from
the tower
“TC- AYB
Expedite Increase taxi
Taxi and Be alert for speed and Turn 180
Vacate the traffic vacate runway degree back
Runway leaving via taxiway C and vacate Increase taxi speed or
via C” runway from as soon as runway via vacate runway from
means, taxiway C possible taxiway C. taxiway C.
 COMMUNICATION PPL QUESTIONS

1.    If a controller passes an instruction and you understand it and will comply, the standard reply is:

a) Verify
b) Roger
c) Confirm
d) Wilco

2.    A time of 1300 UTC is transmitted as:

a) one thousand three hundred.

b) one three zero zero.
c) one three hundred UTC.
d) thirteen hundred UTC.

3.    The correct abbreviation for the callsign TC-ABC is;

a) Tango Charlie Alfa

b) Alfa Bravo Charlie
c) Tango Bravo Charlie
d) Charlie Bravo Charlie

4.    A pilot is required to read back;

a) SSR operating instructions, take off clearances, altimeter settings, VDF information, frequency changes.
b) altimeter settings, taxy information, terminal weather, runway clearances, approach aid.
c) serviceability
d) route clearances, speed instructions, weather reports, taxy clearances, runway state information. ATC route clearances,
runway clearances, conditional clearances, actual weather reports.

5.    The meaning of WILCO is;

a) I heard your message.
b) I will try to comply with your instructions.
c) I have understood your message and will comply.
d) I only heard part of your message.

6.    The time 1020 hours, transmitted at 0910 hours, would be transmitted as:
a) ten twenty hours.
b) 'one zero two zero'.
c) 'two zero'.
d) ten two zero.

7.    Which of the following lists are all ATC messages that must read back in full;
a) level instructions, altimeter settings, surface wind, runway information.
b) clearance to enter, land on, take off on, backtrack, cross or hold short of an active runway; speed instructions, SSR
instructions.
c) VDF information, frequency changes, type of radar service, serviceability of approach aid.
d) ATC route clearances, runway clearances, actual weather reports.
8.    An altitude of 1500 feet is transmitted as;
a) fifteen hundred feet.
b) one tousand fife hundred feet.
c) one fife hundred feet.
d) one fife zero zero feet.

9.    VERIFY' means:
a) repeat your last transmission.
b) check and confirm your last message.
c) read backVDF bearing.
d) confirm your last message.

10.  You call an ATSU and receive the reply "T BC Stand-By" you should:
a) acknowledge immediately; "Stand-by T BC".
b) say nothing, assuming no onward clearance and wait until called.
c) call the ATSU again after 5 min to obtain a clearance.
d) change frequency.

11.  When can you omit the callsign of an aeronautical station?

a) Only when given permission.
b) Never.
c) Only when the station does so first.
d) When there would be no confusion.

12.  Which of the following statements is correct?

a) Having established communications with an ATSU, and following the initial reply to "Go Ahead", you should put your
callsign at the end of each of your transmissions during regular two-way exchanges with the ATSU.

b) When replying to a ground station you put your callsign at the beginning of the message.
c) The position of the callsign depends on the type of air traffic service you are receiving.
d) When speaking to a ground station you put your callsign at the beginning of the message until the controller tells you to put
it at the end.

13.  Your radio check is reported as 'Readability 3', your transmission is:

a) unreadable.
b) perfectly readable.
c) reading only half the time.
d) readable but with difficulty.

14.  A pilot may abbreviate his aircraft callsign only;

a) when changing frequency.
b) after establishing communication with a ground station.
c) if it has first been abbreviated by the ground station on the frequency in use.
d) when he considers that no confusion is likely to occur.

15.  Callsign of ATC for control of aircraft and vehicles on maneuvering area?

a) TOWER
b) GROUND
c) DISPATCH
d) APRON
16.  The Q code for altitude is:
a)QDR
b)QNH
c)QDM
d)QFE

17.  In order to make messages effective you should:

a) speak slower
b) speak at a constant volume
c) use words twice
d) repeat the message

18.  READABILITY 5 means:
a) readable now and then
b) readable
c) unreadable
d) perfectly readable

19.  If you wish to say "Wait and I will call you" the correct phrase to use is:
a) HOLD
b) I SAY AGAIN
c) STANDBY
d) GO AHEAD

20.  When asking for a repeat of a message, you should say:

a) SPEAK SLOWER
b) REPEAT MESSAGE
c) SAY AGAIN
d) WORDS TWICE

21.  Your action in response to the instruction from ATC to "RECYCLE SQUAWK" is to:
a) reselect the numbers on the control unit
b) set the numbers to 7000
c) press the IDENT button
d) switch to standby and back to ON

22.  The minimum content of a readback of the message from ATC "T-CD CHANGE FREQUENCY TO Yeşilköy TOWER
118.1" is:
a) TO Yeşilköy T-CD
b) 118.1 T-CD
c) 118.1
d) CHANGING FREQUENCY X-CD

23.  The name or suffix on the callsign of an aeronautical station may be omitted:

a) never
b) provided that the aircraft is in visual contact with the aerodrome
c) only when first used by the ground station
d) once satisfactory comm’s have been established and providing there will be no confusion

24.  The phrase to use when you want to say "yes" is:

a) AFFIRMATIVE
b) AFFIRM
c) ROGER
d) WILCO

25.  How is the time 9.20 am reported on RT if there is no possibility of confusion about the hour?

a) ZERO NINE TWO ZERO

b) TWO ZERO
c) NINE TWO ZERO
d) DECIMAL TWO ZERO

26.  The abbreviation of an aircraft callsign TC-ABC is:

a) TC-BC
b) BC
c) ABC
d) T-BC

27.  The callsign of a station controlling surface vehicles in the manoeuvring area would be:
a) APRON
b) CLEARANCE
c) TOWER
d) GROUND

28.  If you wish to backtrack then your transmission should be:

a) REPORTING BACKTRACK
b) REQUEST BACKTRACK
c) BACKTRACKING
d) REQUEST VACATE RUNWAY

29.  The correct call to make asking for radio check on the ground is:

a) TC-ABC RADIO CHECK

b) Esenboğa Tower TC-ABC HOW DO YOU READ 118.1
c) Esenboğa Tower TC-ABC READABILITY CHECK 118.1
d) Esenboğa Tower TC-ABC RADIO CHECK 118.

30.  SQUAWK IDENT means:

a) select the SSR transponder code to 7000.
b) select the SSR transponder mode to 'ALT.
c) say again your callsign.
d) operate the SSR transponder 'Special Position Identification' feature.

31.  Which of the options below gives a correct order and content for a Position Report?
a) Call Sign, Route, Position, Level, ETA next Position, Heading , Request.
b) Call Sign, Position, Time, Level or Altitude, Next Position with ETA.
c) Position, Level or Altitude, Time, ETA at Next Position, Call Sign.
d) Route, Position, Time, Level or Altitude, ETA at Next Position, Call Sign.

32.  A Blind Transmission is:

a) a transmission of information relating to the safety of air navigation that is not addressed to a specific station or stations.

b) a transmission from an aircraft to obtain VDF guidance to descend from the initial approach altitude to a position from
which an approach can be completed visually.
c) a transmission from an aeronautical station to all aircraft on its frequency.
d) a transmission made in circumstances where two-way communications cannot be established but it is believed that the
called station is able to receive the transmission.

33.  With the SSR transponder selected ON, the ATC message TC-ABC verify your level' would be made to:

a) identify aircraft position.

b) check your altimeter setting.
c) check and confirm the accuracy of the Mode C level information displayed to the controller.
d) check with the pilot that Mode C is selected ON.

34.  Information regarding traffic on a conflicting path will be given in a particular sequence. Which of the following
sequences is correct:

a) distance from conflicting traffic; level and speed of conflicting traffic; relative bearing in relation to magnetic north.

b) relative speed of conflicting traffic; relative bearing of conflicting traffic in terms of 12 hour clock; distance from and
direction of flight of conflicting traffic.
c) relative bearing of conflicting traffic in terms of 12 hour clock; distance from and direction of flight of conflicting traffic; level
and type of aircraft of conflicting traffic.
d) direction and relative speed of conflicting traffic; relative bearing of conflicting traffic in relation to true north; relative
distance from conflicting traffic.

35.  When flying in VMC an aircraft with communications failure shall continue to fly VMC and:
a) land as soon as possible and report arrival to ATC.
b) land at the nearest airfield.
c) land at the nearest suitable airfield and report arrival to ATC by the most expeditious means.
d) land as soon as possible and report arrival to ATC by the most expeditious means.

36.  The correct RTF call when you are ready to take off is:
a) Roger take off.
b) Request take off.
c) Request departure clearance.
d) Ready for departure.

37.  In the event of a radio failure the SSR transponder should be set to:
a) 7700
b) 7600
c) 7500
d) 7000

38.  A conditional clearance should contain:

a) callsign, QNH, the clearance.
b) callsign, runway in use, the clearance.
c) callsign, the condition, the clearance.
d) callsign, airfield weather, the clearance,

39.  Taxy instructions issued by the controller will include a clearance limit which will normally be:

a) the threshold of the runway in use.

b) the holding point of the runway in use.
c) the entrance to the parking area.
d) the holding point of an intermediate runway.

40.  The phrase 'take off' is used by a pilot:

a) only to acknowledge take off clearance.
b) never. It is used only by a ground station.
c) only to request immediate clearance.
d) after the aircraft is airborne.

41.  Where ATIS is provided an arriving aircraft will acknowledge receipt of the broadcast:
a) when making the overhead call.
b) in the initial call to the airfield.
c) when downwind.
d) any time that is convenient.

42.  Which transponder mode gives an altitude readout:

a) Mode Alpha.
b) Mode Bravo.
c) Mode Charlie.
d) Mode Delta.

43.  The phrase "Squawk Charlie" means:

a) transponder.
b) select 'ALT' on the transponder.
c) confirm the transponder is selected ON.
d) select 7700 on the transponder.

44.  VACATE RIGHT' means:

a) turn right to leave the runway.
b) clear the runway immediately.
c) the next runway exit is on the right.
d) turn right after take off.

45.  If you suspect you have radio failure which of the following series of checks would you do first?

a) Correct frequency; correct volume; microphone plug; within radio range; check ground station
is open.
b) Correct frequency; correct volume; headset plugs; radio fuse; check ground station is open.
c) Correct frequency, correct squelch setting; headset plugs, radio fuse; check ground station is open.
d) Correct frequency; correct volume; headset plugs; within radio range; check ground station is open.

46.  In a radar environment heading information given by the pilot and heading instructions given by controllers are
in:
a) degrees magnetic.
b) degrees true.
c) degrees Celsius.
d) degrees Absolute.

47.  You receive the message "TC-ABC Squawk Ident". You should:

a) select STANDBY on the SSR transponder.
b) select ALT- altitude reporting facility (Mode C) on the SSR transponder.
c) operate the special position identification on the SSR transponder.
d) reply giving your callsign.

48. What does the abbreviation "HJ" mean?

a)             No specific working hours.
b)             Sunset to sunrise.
c)             Sunrise to sunset.
d)             Continuous day and night service.

49. What does the abbreviation "HX" mean

a)             Continuous day and night service.
b)             Sunrise to sunset.
c)             Sunset to sunrise.
d)            No specific working hours.

50. What is the correct way of spelling out TC-JYC in a radio message?
a)             Tango Charlie India Yankee Charlie
b)             Tango Charlie Juliett India Kilo
c)             Tango Charlie Juliett Yankee Charlie
d)             Tango Charlie India Victor Charlie

51. What is the correct way of transmitting 1001 as a QNH ?

a)             QNH one double "O" one

b)            QNH one zero zero one
c)             QNH one thousand and one
d)             QNH one double zero one

52. What is the correct way of transmitting the number 118.1 to indicate a frequency ?
a)             one one eight decimal one
b)             one eighteen one
c)             one one eight one
d)             one one eight point one

53. What is the correct way of transmitting the number 13500 ?

a)             one three five hundred
b)            one three thousand five hundred
c)             one three five zero zero
d)             thirteen thousand five hundred

54. During the transmission of numbers containing a decimal point :

a)             The term DECIMAL can be omitted if no chance of misunderstanding exists.
b)             The term DECIMAL can be omitted with friendly ATS units only.
c)             The term DECIMAL must always be transmitted.
d)             The term DECIMAL must be spoken only if followed by three digits.

55. The time is 4:15 P.M. What is the correct way of transmitting this time if there is
any possibility of confusion about the hour ?
a)             One six one five
b)             Four fifteen P.M.
c)             Sixteen fifteen
d)             Four fifteen in the afternoon

56. Which of the following calls is a "general call" ?

a)             TC-DEF Ankara CONTROL.
b)             TC-ABC, TC-BCD, TC-CDE Ankara CONTROL.
c)             ALL STATIONS Ankara CONTROL.
d)             TC-EFG, TC-FGH over.

57. My message will be more effective and understandable if I :

a)             Maintain the speaking volume at a constant level
b)             Use the words twice method
c)             Stress the end of message
d)             Stress every beginning of message

58. What does the phrase "Go ahead" mean:

a)             Taxi on
b)            Proceed with your message
c)             Pass me the following information...
d)             Yes

59. Which of these statements best describes the meaning of the phrase "Standby" ?
a)             Wait and I will call you
b)             Continue on present heading and listen out
c)             Select STANDBY on the SSR transponder
d)             Permission granted for action proposed

60. What does the phrase "Read back" mean:

a)             Did you correctly receive this message?
b)             Let me know that you have received and understood this message
c)             Repeat all, or the specified part, of this message back to me exactly as received
d)             Check and confirm with originator

61. Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: "I should like to know..." or "I wish to obtain..."?
a)             Confirm
b)             Report
c)             Acknowledge
d)            Request

62. Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: "An error has been made in this
transmission (or message indicated). The correct version is ...":
a)             QNH 1017, negative QNH 1016
b)            QNH 1017, correction QNH 1016
c)             QNH 1017, negative 1016
d)             QNH 1017, negative I say again 1016

63. What does the instruction "Orbit right" mean ?

a)             Make 360° turns to the right
b)             Turn right to avoid other traffic
c)             Right-hand circuits are in use
d)             Leave the runway to the right
64. When the term "Overcast" is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR),
the amount of clouds covering the sky is:
a)             5/8 or more
b)            8/8
c)             5/8 or less
d)             No clouds but poor ground visibility

65. How is the visibility in an aviation routine weather report (METAR) expressed in
plain language:
a)             In nautical miles only
b)             Up to 1500 m in metres, above in kilometres
c)             In feet and nautical miles
d)            Up to 5000 m in metres, above in kilometres

66. What is the correct way of expressing visibility ?

a)             Visibility 1.2 kilometres
b)             Visibility 1200 feet
c)             Visibility 1.2 nautical miles
d)            Visibility 1200 metres

67. A message preceded by the phrase "Transmitting blind due receiver failure" shall
be transmitted:
a)             On the regional guard frequency
b)            On the frequency presently in use
c)             On the international emergency frequency
d)             On all available aeronautical stations

68.          In a distress call, immediately following the MAYDAY prefix,what information should an aircraft next transmit, if
circumstances permit:
a)    The call-sign of the station addressed.
b)    The position of the aircraft.
c)    Aircraft type.
d)    The nature of the emergency.

69.         What should be the full content of a Distress call?

a)    Station Addressed, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY Call-sign, Position, Intention of Person in command.

b)        PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN , Position , Heading, Nature of Emergency, Intention of Person in command, Pilot
Qualification, Any Other Useful Information.
c)        MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, Call- sign of Station Addressed, Call sing of aircraft,Type of Aircraft, Nature of
Emergency, Intention of Person in command, Position , Level and Heading, Pilot Qualification ( wherever possible ) Any other
useful information .
d)    MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY , Nature of Emergency, Intention of Person in command, Endurance.

70.         What should be the content of an Urgency call?

a.Station Addressed, PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN, Call-sign, Position, Pilot Qualification Intention of Person in
command.
b.MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, Position, Heading, Nature of Emergency Intention of Person in command, Any Other
Useful Information.
c.PAN ,PAN,PAN, Call-sign of Station Addressed, Position , Nature of Emergency, Intention of Person in command,
Endurance.
d.PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN, Call-sign of Station Addressed ( time and circumstances permitting ) , Call sing of aircraft
,Type of Aircraft, Nature of Emergency, Intention of Person in command, Position, Level and Heading, Pilot Qualification (
wherever possible ) , Any other useful information.
71. When transmitting an emergency message, a pilot is required to give his aircraft’s position as:
a)        The present or last known position, together with altitude or level, and heading.
b)        A GPS position
c)        A position relative to the nearest airfield or aerodrome.
d)        A DME range from the station being addressed.

72. What should be the most correct content and order of a pilot’s reply to the ATC instruction, “Pass Your Message”?

a)            Aircraft Call-sign, Aircraft Type, Departure Point and Destination, Present Position,Altitude or Level, Additional
Details and Intention (e.g. Flight Rules, Next Point on Route.)
b)            Aircraf Call-sign, Aircraft Type, Departure Point and Destination, Present Positions, Request.
c)            Aircraft Call-sign, Aircraft Type, Position, Heading, Level, Request.

d)            Aircraft Type, Route Information, Position, Heading, Level, Additional Details and Intentions, Aircraft Call-sign.

73.         From which aeronautical communications service would you obtain automated broadcasts on aerodrome and
weather information?
a)            RIS
b)            FIS
c)            ATIS
d)            AGCS

74.  A pilot may abbreviate his call-sign only:

a)            After having established communication with an aeronautical ground station on the frequency in use.

b)            When he considers no confusion with another similar coll-sign is likely to occur on the frequency in use.

c)            When communicating with the departure and destination airfields.

d)            If it has first been abbreviated by the aeronautical ground station on the frequency in use.

75.   Emergency is indicated by which transponder code?

a)            7700
b)            7600
c)            7500
d)            7400

76.  Hijack is indicated by which transponder code?

a) 7700
b) 7600
c) 7500
d) 7400

77.  If a pilot receives an instruction from ATC which he cannot carry out, he should use the phrase:
a)            UNABLE TO COMPLY
b)            NEGATIVE INSTRUCTION.
c)            NO CAN DO.
d)            CANCEL INSTRUCTİON.

78.  'Readability 4 means:
A - your message is readable but with difficulty.
B - your message is readable but with background interference.
C - your message is perfectly readable and understood.
D - your message is readable.

79.   The instruction 'ORBIT LEFT' means:

A - turn left to avoid conflicting traffic.
B - standard left hand circuit.
C - expedite a collision avoidance turn to the left utilising at least 45° angle of bank
D - make a 360° turn to the left.

80. If any person transmitting a message makes an error, that person should:
A - stop speaking, then transmit 'I say again', followed by the correct message.
B - transmit 'correction', followed by the last group or phrase that was correctly transmitted, followed by the corrected
version to be transmitted.

C - use the phrase 'I say again', repeat the last incorrect word or phrase and then the corrected version of the message.

D - use the phrase 'repeat', then repeat the last correct word or phrase and then continue with the corrected message.

81. A Pilot hearing the transmission 'ALL STATIONS':

A - should not reply unless subsequently asked to acknowledge receipt. B - should transmit her/ his call-sign in reply.

C - should acknowledge receipt of the broadcast by transmitting 'ROGER'. D - should transmit 'ROGER AND OUT' when
acknowledging a broadcast.

82. 'SQUAWK 1244' means:

A - select the code 1244 on your SSR transponder.
B - go to Squawk on 124.4 MHz, they have your details. C - select Com 124.4 MHz and Squawk for ident.
D - select 1244 MHz on your SSR transponder.

83.The meaning of the ATC instruction 'GO AROUND' is:

A - make a 360° standard turn to allow traffic ahead to clear the runway.
B - go around the aircraft ahead on the manoeuvring area provided wing tip clearance is adequate. C - do not descend
below 50ft agl.
D - execute a missed approach.

84. The purpose of a request by ATC to the commander of an aircraft whose transponder is selected to ALT to 'confirm your
level'
would be:
A - to verify the aircraft's position.
8 - verify the altimeter sub-scale setting.
C - check the accuracy of the Mode 'C' Flight Level displayed on the controller's radar plot. D - verify the transponder is
working.

85. When a pilot hears a distress messages/ he should:

A - immediately acknowledge the message and offer to relay messages if required.
8 - change to another frequency as radio silence will be imposed on that frequency.
C - request another frequency from ATC due to the emergency RT traffic on that frequency.
D - maintain radio silence but monitor that frequency to ensure assistance is provided.

86.The emergency frequency 121.5:

A - may be used to practise emergency procedures including simulated urgency or distress situations.
8 - may be used to practise emergency procedures including simulated urgency but not distress situations. C - may not be
used to practise emergency procedures.
D - may be used to practise distress situations but not urgency procedures.

87.The meaning of the word 'CORRECT' is:

A - read back my last instruction correctly.
B.- True
c - the phrase or message following the last correct part of my transmission is correct. D - you will correct your last
instruction.

88.'DISREGARD' means:
A - disregard the last part of my last message.
B - consider that transmission as not sent.
C - disregard unverified information.
D - the last message was inappropriate and will be replaced.

89. The two categories of emergency message are:

A - PAN and MAYDAY.
B - Urgent and Emergency
C - Emergency and distress.
D - Urgency and Distress.

90. The correct prefix of an emergency transmission is either 'May Day' or 'Pan' which should be transmitted
prior to the 'urgency' or 'distress' message.
A - once.
B - twice.
C - three times.
D - twice when using 'Pan' and three times when using 'May Day'

91. Following the May Day prefix of a distress message the next transmitted element should be: A A- if known air craft
position..
B - the call-sign of the station being addressed
C - the nature of the emergency.
D - number of persons on board.

92. One element of a distress message is that the pilot should transmit the aircraft position in the context of: A - a direction
finding heading and range to the direction finding station.
B - present or last known position, level and heading.
C - the last position passed by the secondary surveillance radar operator.
D - time and course followed from the last positive position fix.

93.  The transponder is selected to IDENT position:

a) Upon the request of the controller

b) When an emergency happened
c) Whenever the pilot needs to do that
d) When crossing to another Control area

94.  Aircraft TC-ABC has been instructed on frequency 120.5 What is the correct response to indicate that it will follow this
instruction?
a) checking 120.5 TC-ABC
b 120.5 TC-ABC
c) willco TC-ABC
d) monitoring 120.5 TC-ABC

95. Which of the following is NOT a means of establishing radar identification of an aircraft:
a) use of SSR.
b) radar vectors.
c) bearing and distance information.
d) altitude information.

96. When an error has been made during transmission, the way to correct is to say:
a) “disregard”
b) “Cancel”
c) “correction” then saying the right instruction or request.
d) “reclear” then saying the right instruction or request

97.  Upon the instruction by the tower as “take-off immidiately or vacate runway”, which course of action should be taken by
the pilot?
a) Take-off immidiately without reading back
b) Go back to the holding point immidiately
c) Take-off immidiately if he/she can or vacate runway from the first taxiway (or as instructed by tower)
d) Take-off immidiately disregarding departure preparation

98.  On taxi, when the pilot gets a call from the controller as “remain this frequency”.
The pilot should;
a) Monitor the frequency until further instruction
b) Call back the tower at every 2 minutes
c) Monitor and when arrives to parking area changes to Ground Control.
d) Monitor and when arrives to holding point changes to Tower

99.  What are the main four legs in traffic pattern?

a) Crosswind, downwind, base, final
b) Take-off, Crosswind, downwind, base,
c) Take-off, Crosswind, downwind, final
d) Crosswind, downwind, final, over runway

100. What is the instruction given by tower to an aircraft for delaying purposes or to achieve
required spacing behind/preceding in traffic pattern?
a) Make right/left orbit
b) Hold your position
c) Maintain heading
d) Turn 180 degree back

101.  Unless otherwise advised pilots should ………..

a) remain on tower frequency until the runway is vacated
b) Swıtch to ground frequency after turning from the runway
c) Swıtch-off radio after runway is vacated
d) Change to ground frequency during landing roll