Form Number : R Paper Code : ________________

R Target : Pre-Medical 2022/RANK BOOSTER TEST - 5

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME
(Academic Session : 2021 - 2022)

PRE-MEDICAL
ENTHUSIAST COURSE
RANK BOOSTER TEST - 5
Test Type : MINOR Test Pattern : NEET

Important Instructions

1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat only. If any

student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination and shall have to

accept any other penalty imposed upon them.

2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.

3. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.

4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.

5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.

6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer is harmful.

7. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of Blue / Black Ball Point Pen

only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.

8. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited.

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2022

Corporate Office : ALLEN CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
+91-744-2757575 [email protected] www.allen.ac.in

Indore Office : ALLEN CAREER INSTITUTE, Agrawal Palace, Plot. 02, Opp. Bhoraskar Hospital, Nath Mandir Road,
South Tukoganj, Indore (MP) - 452001 +91-731-4728500

INDORE 1/25
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Target : Pre-Medical 2022

Topics
ENTHUSIAST COURSE : RBT-5
PHYSICS : LAWS OF MOTION

CHEMISTRY: CHEMICAL BONDING

BIOLOGY : DIGESTION AND ABSORPTION

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Target : Pre-Medical 2022/RANK BOOSTER TEST - 5

HAVE CONTROL ¾® HAVE PATIENCE ¾® HAVE CONFIDENCE Þ 100% SUCCESS

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
1. Two blocks are in contact on a frictionless 5. Two fixed frictionless inclined planes making an
table. One has mass m and the other 2m. A angle 30º and 60º with the vertical are shown
force F is applied on 2m as shown in the in the figure. Two blocks A and B are placed
on the two planes. What is the relative vertical
figure. Now the same force F is applied from
acceleration of A with respect to B?
the right on m. In the two cases respectively,
the ratio of force of contact between the two
blocks will be :

(1) 4.9 ms–2 in horizontal direction

(1) same (2) 9.8 ms–2 in vertical direction
(2) 1 : 2 (3) Zero
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 4.9 ms–2 in vertical direction
(4) 1 : 3 6. A ball weighing 10 gm hits a hard surface ver-
tically with a speed of 5m/s and rebounds
2. A uniform thick rope of length 5m is kept on
with the same speed. The ball remain in con-
frictionless surface and a force of 5N is applied tact with the surface for 0.01 sec. The aver-
to one of its end. Find tension in the rope at 1m age force exerted by the surface on the ball
from this end- is :
(1) 1N (2) 3N (1) 100 N
(3) 4N (4) 5N (2) 10 N
3. A lift is moving up with an acceleration of 3.675 (3) 1 N
2
m/sec . The weight of a man- (4) 150 N
(1) increases by 37.5% 7. A block of mass 5 kg and surface area 2 m2
just begins to slide down on an inclined plane
(2) decreases by 37.5%
when the angle of inclination is 30º. Keeping
(3) increases by 137.5% mass same, the surface area of the block is
(4) remains the same doubled. The angle at which it starts sliding
down is :
4. An empty plastic box of mass m is found to
(1) 30º
accelerate up at the rate of g/6, when placed
(2) 60º
deep inside water. How much sand should be
put inside the box so that it may accelerate down (3) 15º
at the rate of g/6 ? (4) none
(1) 2m/3 (2) 2m/5
(3) m/5 (4) 6m/7
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Target : Pre-Medical 2022

8. A force of 100 N is applied on a block of mass 11. Three blocks m1, m2 and m3 of masses 1.5 kg,
3 kg as shown in figure. The coefficient of friction 2.0 kg and 1.0 kg respectively are placed on a
between the surface of the block is 1/4. The rough surface (µ = 0.20) as shown in fig. if a
friction force acting on the block is force F is applied so as to give blocks an
2
acceleration of 3.0 m/s , then the force that the
1.50 kg block exerts on the 2.0 kg block will
be approximately-

30°
m2
F=100N m1 m3
F
(1) 15 N downwards
(2) 25 N upwards
(1) 7 N (2) 15 N
(3) 20 N downwards
(4) 20 N upwards (3) 21 N (4) 5 N
9. The blocks A and B are arranged as shown 12. A man of mass 60 kg is standing on a horizontal
in the figure. The pulley is frictionless. The mass conveyer belt (fig). When the belt is given an
–2
of A is 10 kg. The coefficient of friction between accelerationof 1 ms , the man remains
block A and horizontal surface is 0.20. The stationary with respect to the moving belt. If g
–2
minimum mass of B to start the motion will be- = 10 ms , the net force acting on the man is-

P
A a = 1 ms -2

(1) 2 kg (2) 0.2 kg (1) –0.6 N (2) 6 N

(3) 5 kg (4) 10 kg (3) 60 N (4) 600 N
10. A block of mass m lying on a rough horizontal
plane is acted upon by a horizontal force P and
13. The upper portion of an inclined plane of
another force Q inclined at an angle q to the
inclination a is smooth and the lower portion
vertical. The block will remain in equilibrium if
is rough. A particle slides down from rest
the coefficient of friction between it and the
from the top and just comes to rest at the
surface is :-
foot. If the ratio of the smooth length to rough
Q length is m : n, the coefficient of friction is :
ém + nù
(1) ê n ú tana
ë û
P

æm+nö
(2) ççè ÷
n ÷ø
cot a

P + Q sin q P cos q + Q æm-nö

(1) mg + Qcos q (2) mg – Q sin q (3) çç ÷÷
è n ø
cot a

P + Q cos q P sin q + Q 1
(3) mg + Q sin q (4) mg – Qcos q (4) 2

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Target : Pre-Medical 2022/RANK BOOSTER TEST - 5

14. Two blocks A and B each of same mass are 17. A stone of mass 250 g is tied to the end of
attached by a thin inextensible string through an a string of length 1.0 m. It is whirled in a
ideal pulley. Initially block B is held in position horizontal circle on a smooth plane with a
as shown in figure. Now the block B is released. frequency of 30 rev./min. What is the tension
Bolck A will slide to right and hit the pulley in in the string ?
time tA. Block B will swing and hit the surface
in time tB. Assume the surface as frictionless.

p2 p2
(1) N (2) N
4 2
(1) tA = tB
(2) tA < tB (3) p2 N (4) 2p2 N
(3) tA > tB 18. On horizontal smooth surface a mass of 2 kg
(4) data are not sufficient to get relationship is whirled in a horizontal circle by means of a
between tA and tB. string at an initial angular speed of 5
revolutions per minute. Keeping the radius
15. Two blocks A and B are as shown in figure.
constant the tension in the string is doubled.
The minimum horizontal force F applied on
The new angular speed is nearly:
block ‘B’ for which slipping begins at ‘B’ and
ground is : (1) 14 rpm (2) 10 rpm
(3) 2.25 rpm (4) 7 rpm
19. A mass is supported on a frictonless horizontal
surface. It is attached to a string and rotates
about a fixed centre at an angular velocity w0.
If the length of the string and angular velocity
are doubled, the tension in the string which was
(1) 100 N (2) 120 N initially T0 is now,
(3) 50 N (4) 140 N (1) T0 (2) T0/2 (3) 4T0 (4) 8T0
16. The figure shows the velocity and acceleration 20. In the following figure, the length of the rod AB
of a point like body at the initial moment of its is L. A weight of 1000 Kg. is suspended from
motion. The acceleration vector of the body its two ends with the help of two strings of length
remains constant. The minimum radius of cur- L. The tension in the rod will be
vature of trajectory of the body is A L B

L L

O
M 103kg

5 ×103
(1) 2 meter (2) 4 meter (1) N (2) 5 ×103 N
3
(3) 8 meter (4) 16 meter.
(3) 5 ×103 × 3 N (4) Zero
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Target : Pre-Medical 2022

21. In the given diagram, with what force must the 24. Which one of the following cannot be explained
man pull the rope to hold the plank in position? on the basis of Newton's third law of motion ?
Weight of the man is 60 kg. Neglect the weights
of plank, rope and pulley- (1) Rowing of a boat in a pond

(2) Motion of jet in the sky

(3) Rebounding of a ball from a wall

(4) Returning back of body, thrown above

25. Lift is moving vertically upwards with an

acceleration 2g.
(1) 15 kg (2) 30 kg
(3) 60 kg (4) 120 kg
22. A monkey of mass 40 kg climbs on a massless 2g
rope of breaking strength 600N. The rope will
2
break if the monkey- (g = 10 m/s ) 2mA
(1) Climbs up with a uniform speed of 5 m/ B m
s
2
(2) Climbs up with an acceleration of 6 m/s
(I) Acceleration of block ‘A’ with respect to
(3) Climbs down with an acceleration of 4 m/ lift is ‘g’ downward
2
s
(II) Reading of the spring balance is 8mg
(4) Climbs down with a uniform speed of 5 m/
s (III) Ratio of acceleration of block ‘B’ w.r.t.
23. A block of mass 4 kg is suspended through two ground to acceleration of block ‘A’ w.r.t.
light spring balances A and B. Then A and B ground is 3
will read respectively
(IV) Ratio of acceleration of block ‘B’ w.r.t.
1
lift to acceleration of block ‘A’ w.r.t. lift is
2
A
Which of the following option is correct.
B

4kg (1) I, II, III

(2) I, II, IV
(1) 4 kg and zero kg
(3) II, III, IV
(2) zero kg and 4 kg
(3) 4 kg and 4 kg (4) None of these
(4) 2 kg and 2 kg

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Target : Pre-Medical 2022/RANK BOOSTER TEST - 5

26. In the figure, all surfaces are smooth. The 28. A particle moves in xy plane. The position
smaller block does not slip upon larger block. vector of part icle at any time t is
The external force F is r
r = {(2t )iˆ + (2t 2 ) jˆ}m . The ratio of change of q

at time t = 2 seconds (where q is the angle

m which its velocity vector makes with positive
x-axis) is
F
M 2 1
q (1) rad/s (2) rad/s
17 14

4 6
(3) rad/s (4) rad/s
(1) Greater than (M + m)g tanq 7 5
(2) Less than (M + m)g tanq 29. Three blocks are placed at rest on a smooth
(3) Equal to (M + m)g tanq inclined plane with force acting on m1 parallel
to inclined plane. Find the contact force between
(4) Equal to (M + m)g cotq
m2 and m3 :-
27. A man (mass m) holds himself and plank
(mass M) in equilibrium with the help of 3 (m1 + m 2 + m3 )F
(1)
pulley + string system. The force exerted by m3
man upon rope is
m3F
(2)
m1 + m2 + m3

(3) F – (m1 + m2)g

(4) F
30. A cylinder of mass 10 kg is rolling on a plane
man with an initial velocity of 10 m/s. If coefficient
Plank of friction between the surface and cylinder is
0.5 then before stopping, it will cover a distance
of (g = 10 m/s2) :-
(M + m)g (1) 2.5 m (2) 0.5 m
(1)
7 (3) 7.5 m (4) 10 m
31. A coin placed on a rotating turn-table stops,
(M + m )g
(2) when it is placed at a distance of 9 cm from its
8
centre. If the angular velocity of the turn table
is trippled, it will just stop at a distance r from
(M + m )g
(3) centre. The value of r is :
6
(1) 1 cm (2) 3 cm
(M + m )g (3) 9 cm (4) 27 cm
(4)
5

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Target : Pre-Medical 2022

32. Three blocks of mass m1, m2 and m3 are lying 35. Three blocks are connected as shown in fig.
in contact with each other on a horizontal m1 = 6 kg, m2 = 4 kg and m3 = 8 kg. If coefficient
frictionless plane as shown in the fig. If a of friction between the table and blocks be 0.4,
horizontal force F is applied on m1 then the force the acceleration with which system moves is
at the contact plane of m1 and m2 will be:- (g = 10 m/sec2) :-

T1 a
F m1 m3
m2 m3 T m2

T1

m1
( m 2 + m 3 )F
(1) (m + m + m )
1 2 3

4
m 1F (1) m/sec2 (2) 1 m/sec2
(2) (m + m + m ) 3
1 2 3

2 1
(3) m1F (3) m/sec2 (4) m/sec2
3 3
( m 1 + m 2 )F 36. A right circular cone is fixed with its axis vertical
(4) (m + m + m )
1 2 3 and vertex down. A particle is in contact with
its smooth inside surface and describes circular
33. An aeroplane flying in the sky dives with a speed motion in a horizontal plane at a height of 20
of 100 m/sec in a vertical circle of radius 200 cm above the vertex. Find its velocity in m/s.
m. Weight of the pilot sitting in it is 75 kg. The (Take g = 10 m/s2)
force with which the pilot presses his seat when
aeroplane is at the highest position is :-
(1) 200 kg - wt
(2) 400 kg - wt
(3) 100 kg - wt
(4) 300 kg - wt
34. An object, with a mass 10 kg. moves with a (1) 2 (2) 2
constant velocity of 10 m/sec. A constant force
then acts for 4 sec on the object and gives it a (3) 4 (4) 2 2
speed of 2 m/sec in opposite direction. The 37. A sphere is accelerated upwards with the help
acceleration produced is :- of a cord whose breaking strength is five times
(1) 3 m/s2 its weight. The maximum acceleration with which
the sphere can move up without cord breaking
(2) –3 m/s2
is :-
(1) 4 m/s2
(1) 4g (2) 3g
(4) –4 m/s2
(3) 2g (4) g

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Target : Pre-Medical 2022/RANK BOOSTER TEST - 5

38. The system shown in fig. is in equilibrium. The 41. In the following figure, the pulley is massless and
maximum value of W, so that the maximum frictionless. There is no friction between the
value of static frictional force on 100 kg body body and the floor. The acceleration produced
is 450 N, will be :- in the body when it is displaced through a
certain distance will be :-

45°
100 kg
P
M

P P P P
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) 100 N (2) 250 N M 2M 3M 4M
(3) 450 N (4) 1000 N 42. A particle of mass m is
39. Two bodies having masses 10 kg and 5 kg are
moving in concentric orbits of radii 4 and 8 such
w
that their time periods are the same. Then the
ratio of their centripetal accelerations is
k
m
1
(1) (2) 2
2

1
(3) 8 (4) 8
fixed to one end of a light spring of force
40. A painter is applying force himself to raise constant k and unstretched length l.
him and the box with an acceleration of 5 m/
s2 by a massless rope and pulley arrangement The system is rotated about the other end of the
as shown in figure. Mass of painter is 100 kg spring with an angular velocity w, in gravity free
and that of box is 50 kg. If g = 10 m/s2, then space. The increase in length of the spring will
: be-

mw 2 l mw 2 l
(1) (2)
k k - mw 2

mw 2l
(3) (4) none of these
k + mw 2

43. A particle of mass m describes a circle of radius

r. The centripetal acceleration of the particle is
(1) tension in the rope is 1050 N 4/r2. What will be the magnitude of momentum
(2) tension in the rope is 2250 N of the particle?
(3) force of contact between the painter and m m
(1) 2 (2) 2
the floor is 375 N r r
(4) none of these
m
(3) 4 (4) none
r
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44. A particle moves with constant angular velocity 48. The formation of the Cl2 molecule can be
in circular path of certain radius and is acted understood in terms of
upon by a certain centripetal force F. If the (1) the transfer of electron from one chlorine atom
angular velocity is doubled, keeping radius the to another
same, the new force will be :- (2) the sharing of a pair of electrons between the
(1) 2F (2) F
2 two chlorine atoms
(3) Both (1) and (2)
F
(3) 4F (4) (4) None of the above
2
49. Which of the following Lewis representation of
45. Two blocks of mass M1 and M2 are connected the molecules NF3, O3 and HNO3 is correct?
with a string which passes over a smooth pul-
ley. The mass M1 is placed on a rough inclined F N F + +
O O N O H
plane as shown in the figure. The coefficient of O O
F O
friction between the block and the inclined plane
is m. What should be the maximum mass M2 so I II III

that block M1 slides downwards Choose the correct option.

(1) Only I
T2 (2) Only II
T1
M1
M2 (3) Only III
(4) I, II and III
q

50. In PO 34 - ion the formal charge on the oxygen

(1) M 2 = M1 (sin q + m cos q) atom of P - O bond is
(1) +1 (2) -1
(2) M 2 = M1 (sin q - m cos q)
(3) - 0.75 (4) +0.75
(3) M 2 = M1 /(sin q + m cos q)
51. Allene (C3H4) contains
(4) M 2 = M1 /(sin q - m cos q) (1) one double bond, one triple bond and one
46. The number of dots around the Lewis symbol single bond
represents (2) one triple and two double bonds
(1) the number of valence electrons (3) two triple and one double bond
(2) the number of protons (4) two double and four single bonds
(3) the number of inner electrons 52. Which one of the following contains both ionic
(4) All of the above and covalent bonds?
47. Which of the following is not correct? (1) C6H5Cl
(1) Na + Cl ® NaCl
+ -
(2) H2O
(2) Ca + 2F ® CaF2
2+ -
(3) NaOH
(3) Na + F ® NaF
+ -
(4) CO2
(4) Ca2+ + 2Na+ ® CaNa2
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Target : Pre-Medical 2022/RANK BOOSTER TEST - 5

53. The formation of positive and negative ions involve
1 21 14
pm pm m
I. removal and addition of electrons from neutral 57. 14 8 O 12
1p O 8p
m

atoms respctively. O O O O

II. Ionisation enthalpy and electron gain enthalpy II II

respectively. 8 pm
O
12
8 pm
12

Choose the correct option. O O

III
(1) I is correct; II is incorrect
In th given resonating structures, which one is
(2) I is incorrect; II is correct
called resonance hybrid?
(3) Both I and II are incorrect (1) Structure I (2) Structure II
(4) Both I and II are correct (3) Structure III (4) Structure I and II
54. Lattice energy fo a solid increases if 58. The structure represents the molecule's structure
more accurately is called
(1) size of ions is small
(1) resonace hybrid (2) canonical structure
(2) charges of ions are small
(3) resonating structure (4) None of the above
(3) ions are neutral 59. Which of the following molecules represents
(4) none of these resonance?

55. The bond order in (1) O3 (2) CO 32-

H2,O2 and N2 is (3) CO2 (4) All
(1) 1, 2, 3 (2) 1, 3, 2 60. Which one of the following is not correct
representation of resonance?
(3) 1, 2, 2 (4) 2, 1, 1

+
m A. O C O O C O
9p
=9
19
8p
r1 m I II
+
O C O
III
56. r2
=1
O O O
80
pm

C C C
pm

B.
0

O O O
36

O O O
I II III
In the figure r1 and r2 represent respectively
(1) covalent and van der Waals' radius Choose the correct option.
(1) Only A
(2) van der Waals' and covalent radius
(2) Only B
(3) covalent and covalent radius
(3) None of the above
(4) van der Waals' and van der Waas' radius
(4) Both A and B are correct structure

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61. The net dipole moment of H2O molecule is 68. Which of the following species has tetrahedral
(1) zero molecular geometry?
(2) 1.85 D (1) BH -4 F (2) NH -2
(3) Less then H2S
(3) CO 32- (4) H3O+
(4) All are correct options
62. Which of th following molecule has net dipole 69. Resonating structures are represented through
moment zero? which type of arrows?

(1) HF (2) H2O (3) BF3 (4) CHCl3 (1) ® (2) «

63. The decreasing order of dipole moments of the (3) ƒ (4) ƒ

molecules HF, H2O, BeF2, NF3 is 70. The formation of hydrogen molecule takes place
(1) HF > H2O > BeF2 > NF3 when
(2) H2O > HF > NF3 > BeF2 (1) the energy state is minimum
(3) BeF2 > NF3 > HF > H2O (2) two hydrogen atomic orbitals undergo large
extent of overlapping
(4) NF3 > BeF2 > H2O > HF
(3) Both (1) and (2)
64. The decreasing order of the repulsive interaction
of electron pairs is (Here, lp = lone pair, bp = (4) None of the above
bond pair) 71. Which of the following does not represent
(1) lp-lp > lp-bp > bp-bp positive overlap?
(2) lp-bp > lp-lp > bp-bp
(3) lp-lp > bp-bp > lp-bp + +
(4) bp-bp > lp-lp > lp-bp
65. Which of the following molecules have same (1) z
molecular geometry?
_ _
I. CH4, II. BF3, III. NH +4 , IV. SF4
px p x
Choose the correct option.
(1) I and II (2) III and IV
_ _ z
(2)
+

(3) I and III (4) I, III and IV pz pz

66. Which of the molecules has trigonal bipyramidal
_
geometry with bond angles 120° and 90°? x
+
+

(3) pz
(1) SF6 (2) PCl5 s

(3) CH4 (4) BF3 _ _ z

(4)
+

pz pz
67. In which of the following molecules/ion all the
bonds are not equal? 72. In the formation of BeCl2, molecule, the two sp
hybrid orbitals are oriented in opposite direction
(1) XeF4 (2) BF4- forming an angle of
(3) C2H4 (4) SiF4 (1) 90° (2) 180°
(3) 120° (4) 145°

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Target : Pre-Medical 2022/RANK BOOSTER TEST - 5

73. Isostructural species are those which have the 77. In forming (i) N2 ® N +2 and
smae shape and hybridisation. Among the given
species identify the isostructural pairs. (ii) O 2 ® O 2+ ; the electrons respectively are
(1) [NF3 and BF3] removed from
(2) [ BF4- and NH +4 ]
æ* *
ö æ* *
ö
(3) [BCl3 and BrCl3] (1) ç p 2r y or p 2r x ÷ and ç p 2r y or p 2r x ÷
è ø è ø
(4) [NH3 and NO -3 ]
æ ö
(2) ( s * 2rz ) and ç p 2r y or p 2r x ÷
74. The types of hybrid orbitals of nitrogen in NO , +
2
è ø

NO -3 and NH +4 respectively are expected to

æ* *
ö
be (3) ( s 2rz ) and ç p 2r y or p 2r x ÷
è ø
(1) sp, sp3 and sp2
(2) sp, sp2 and sp3 æ* *
ö æ ö
(4) ç p 2r y or p 2r x ÷ and ç p 2r y or p 2r x ÷
(3) sp2, sp and sp3 è ø è ø

(4) sp2, sp3 and sp 78. Which one of the following constitutes a group
75. In case of bonding molecular orbital the electron of the isoelectronic species?
density is located
(1) C 22- , O -2 , CO, NO
(1) away from the space between nuclei of the
bonded atom (2) NO + , C 22- , CN - , N 2
(2) between the nuclei of the bonded atoms
(3) CN - , N 2 , O 22- , CO 23-
(3) in the outer shell
(4) in the inner orbital (4) N 2 , O -2 , NO + , CO

Molecular 79. According to MO theory,

orbitals
Increasing energy

Atomic Atomic (1) O +2 is paramagnetic and bond order is greater

orbitals orbitals
X than O2
76. yA yB
(2) O +2 is paramagnetic and bond order is less
Y
than O2
In the above diagram choose HOMO and (3) O +2 is diamagnetic and bond order is less
LUMO.
than O2
(1) HOMOs - X, LUMOs - Y
(2) LUMOs - X, HOMOs - Y (4) O +2 is diamagnetic and bond order is more

(3) MOHOs - X, HOMOs - Y than O2

(4) LUMOs - X, LUMOs - Y

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80. Which of the following overlaps lead to s 85. Which of the following molecules have same
bonding? bond order?
s-orbital p-orbital H2, He2, C2 and O2
(1) Choose the correct option.
(1) H2 and C2
s-orbital p-orbital
(2) (2) C2 and O2

p-orbital p-orbital
(3) He2 and C2
(3) (4) H2 and He2
86. The electronic configuration of Be2 molecule is
p-orbital d-orbital

(4) s1s 2 s* 1s 2 s 2s 2 s* 2s 2 . The bond order of

Be2 molecule will be
81. The doubly occupied molecular orbitals present
in a molecule and there is no unpaired electron, (1) zero (2) one (3) two (4) three
the substance is called 87. Which of th following options represents the
corrct bond order?
(1) diamagnetic (2) paramagnetic
(3) ferromagnetic (4) ferrimagnetic (1) O -2 > O 2 > O +2
82. Which of the following is not correct with respect (2) O -2 < O 2 < O 2+
to bond length of the species?
(3) O -2 > O 2 < O +2
(1) O 2 > O -2 (2) C 2 > C 22-
(4) O -2 < O 2 > O +2
(3) Li +2 > Li 2 (4) N +2 > N 2
88. Which molecule/ion out of the following does not
83. When O2 is converted into O 22+ contain unpaired electrons?
(1) both paramegnetic character and bond order (1) N +2 (2) O2
increases
(2) bond order decreases (3) O 22- (4) B2

(3) paramagnetic character increases 89. Which of the following molecules is stable?
(4) paramagnetic character decreases and the (1) CH3CH(OH)2
bond order inreases (2) CCl3CH(OH)2
84. The bond order in NO is 2.5 while that in NO+ is (3) CH3-C(OH)2-CH3
3. Which of the following statements is true for (4) All of these
these two species?
90. The boiling point of a substance increases with
(1) Bond length in NO+ is greater than in NO increase in
(2) Bond length in NO+ is equal to than in NO (1) intermolecular hydrogen bonding
(3) Bond length in NO is greater than in NO+ (2) intramolecular hydrogen bonding
(4) Bond length is unpredictable (3) molecular mass
(4) Both (1) and (3)

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91. Tracheal tubes are the respiratory organs for :- 97. Read the following statements :-
(1) Sponges (2) Flatworms (A) Buccal cavity opens into pharynx which is
(3) Insects (4) Human common path of food and air.
92. Schneiderian membrane is found in :- (B) Cartilageous glottis prevents the entry of
(1) Nasal passage (2) Trachea food into trachea.
(3) Larynx (4) Loop of henle (C) All the papillae which are found on the dorsal
surface, contain test-buds.
93. Largest cartilage of larynx :-
(D) Oesophagus is long tube which opens into
(1) Thyroid
stomach.
(2) Cricoid
Out of these, how many statements is/are
(3) Arythenoid correct ?
(4) Santorini (1) One (2) Two
94. Cartilage of Santorini composed of :- (3) Three (4) All
(1) Elastic 98. What is the function of gall-bladder ?
(2) Hyaline (1) Storage of bile juice.
(3) White fibrous (2) To concentrate the bile juice.
(4) Calcified (3) Synthesization of bile juice.
95. Which one is correct for lungs :- (4) Both 1 and 2.
(1) Hollow and spongy 99. Proteolytic enzyme secretes by gastric glands
(2) Solid and spongy of stomach. Name out the proteolytic enzyme
(3) Left lung = 3 lobes and right lungs = 2 lobes and their secretory cell in human stomach ?
(4) All (1) Pepsin and oxyntic cells
96. Consider the following four statements (i-iv) and (2) Pepsin and chief cells
select the option which includes all the correct (3) Trypsin and chief cells
ones only :- (4) Trypsin and parietal cells
(i) Forewings of Cockroach are long, leathary, 100. Read the following statements :-
narrow and also called Elytra
(A) Fatty acid & glycerol are absorbed through
(ii) Hindwings of Cockroach are transparent mucosa of small intestine into blood.
and membranous which are helpful in flight
(B) Fatty acid & glycerol are absorbed through
(iii) In male Periplaneta wings extends up to mucosa of small intestine into lymph.
the last abdominal segment
(C) Simple sugar and alcohal are absorbed in
(iv) Nervures, network of fine tubular structure stomach.
in wings
(D) Most of the absorption is took place in small
Options :- intestine.
(1) Statement (i), (ii) and (iii) From above statements which is/are incorrect?
(2) Statement (i) and (iv) (1) A and C (2) B and D
(3) Statement (ii) and (iii) (3) B and C (4) Only A
(4) Statement (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

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101. Given below the diagram of ductule system of 103. Pepsinogen (inactive form) is converted into
liver, gall-bladder and pancreas and identify the active form of enzyme pepsin with the help of
labelling of alphabets A, B and C & select the which of the following compound :-
correct option?
(1) Proenzyme

(2) Hydrochloric acid

A
(3) Electrolyte
B
(4) Bicarbonates
C
104. What will happen if the secretion of parietal cells
of gastric glands is blocked with an inhibitor

(1) A = Cystic duct ; B = Common bile duct; (1) Gastric juices will be deficient in chymosin
C = Pancreatic duct
(2) Gastric juices will be deficient in pepsinogen
(2) A = Hepatic duct ; B = Common bile duct;
C = Pancreatic duct (3) In the absence of HCL secretion, inactive
pepsinogen is not converted to active enzyme
(3) A = Cystic duct ; B = Hepatic duct;
pepsin
C = Common bile duct
(4) A = Cystic duct ; B = Common hepatic (4) Enterokinase will not be released from the
duct; C = Pancreatic duct duodenal mucosa and so trypsinogen will not
be converted to trypsin
102. Given below the diagram of the transverse
section of alimentary canal. Label it correctly 105. Match the glands of column I with their secretion
and choose the correct option accordingly :- of column II and choose the right option :-
A
Column - I Column - II
B
A. Neck cells i. HCl, Intrinsic factor
C
D B. Peptic/Chief cells ii. Mucous
C. Parietal/Oxyntic cells iii. Pepsinogen
D. Hepatocyte iv. Bile
(1) A-Muscularis, B-Serosa, C-Submucosa,
D-Mucosa
Codes :-
(2) A-Muscularis, B-Serosa, C-Mucosa,
D-Submucosa A B C D
(1) ii iii i iv
(3) A-Serosa, B-Muscularis, C-Mucosa,
(2) iii ii i iv
D-Submucosa
(3) iv ii iii i
(4) A-Serosa, B-Muscularis, C-Submucosa, (4) ii iv iii i
D-Mucosa

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106. Which action of digestive enzyme is/are correct 109. Find out the correct match :-
regarding its site of action, substrate and the
end product :- Column-I Column-II
(A) Hepatic lobule (I) Base of villi
Enzyme Site of Substrate End product (B) Crypts of Liberkuhn (II) Glisson's capsule
Action (C) Sphincter of oddi (III) Gall bladder
i. Rennin Calf's Casein Ca (D) Cystic duct (IV) Hepato-pancreatic
stomach Paracaseinate duct
ii. Pepsin Human's Proteins Two or more
stomach molecules of (1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
amino acids (2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
iii. Nuclease Small Nucleosides Nucleosides (3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
intestine and-iPO 4 (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
iv. Entero- Small Trypsinogen Trypsin
110. Read the following four statements (A-D) :-
kinase intestine
(A) Duct of santorini is accessory pancreatic
(1) All actions are correct duct
(B) Bile increases peristalsis of the intestine
(2) Actions i, ii and iii are correct
(C) Pancreatic juice is produced by endocrine
(3) Actions i, ii and iv are correct part of pancreas
(D) Succus entericus contains 95% water &
(4) Only action iii is correct 5% digestive enzymes.
107. Pick out the wrong reaction from the following:- How many of the above statements are wrong :-
Options :-
(1)DNA ¾¾¾¾¾¾
® Deoxyribonucleotides
Deoxyribonuclease
(1) Three
(2) Four
(2) Monoglycerides ¾¾¾
Lipase
®Glycerides + fatty acids
(3) Two
(3) RNA ¾¾¾¾ ¾
Ribonuclease
® Ribonucleotides (4) One
111. Choose correct statement w.r.t. stomach :-
(4) Nucleosides ¾¾¾¾¾
Nucleosidases
®
(A) Stomach is located in the lower left portion
of abdominal cavity
Nitrogenous bases + Pentose sugars
(B) Stomach has three major parts, cardiac,
108. Which hormone is called fireman of small fundic and pyloric.
intestine :- (C) The opening of the stomach into the
duodenum is guarded by the pyloric sphincter
(1) Cholecystokinin
(1) A and B
(2) Enterocrinin (2) B and C
(3) Secretin (3) A, B and C
(4) Only A
(4) Gastrin

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112. Match the column - (1) Statements (b), (c) and (d)
Column I Column II Column III (2) Statements (a), (b) and (d)
Salivary Location Duct (3) Statements (c), (d)
A. Parotid P. Cheek I. Stenson's (4) Statements (a), (b) and (c)
duct
115. Read the following four statements (A-D) :
B. Sub lingual Q. Lower II. Wharton'
jaw s duct (A) Mucosa contains nevers, blood and lymph
C. Sub R. Below III Duct of vessels.
mandibular tongue . rivinus (B) Alcohol is absorbed in the stomach.
(1) A = P, I ; B = R, II ; C = R, III (C) Very significant digestive activity occurs in
large intestine.
(2) A = P, I ; B = R, III ; C = Q, II
(D) Fructose is absorbed by facilitated diffusion.
(3) A = Q, I ; B = P, II ; C = R, III
How many of the above statements are right.
(4) A = R, I ; B = Q, II ; C = P, III
(1) Four (2) One (3) Two (4) Three
113. Mark the odd one in each series and select the
116. Out of the following, how many are components
correct option.
of bile juice
(i) Gastrin, trypsin, secretin, duocrinin.
1. Bile salts 2. Cholesterol
(ii) Villi, Brunner's glands, crypts of Lieberkuhn,
3. Bilirubin 4. Phospholipids
gastric glands, brush border cells.
5. Enzymes
(iii) Pepsin, lipase, trypsin, rennin.
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5
(iv) Bile salts, bile pigments, gall bladder, gastric
117. I. PEM are widespread in South and South East
juice.
Asia, South Africa and North America.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) II. Kawashiorkar is produced by protein
(1) Trypsin Gastric Lipase Gastric deficiency unaccompaired by calorie deficiency.
glands juice If results from the replacement of mother's milk
(2) Duocrinin Villi Rennin Gall by a high calorie-low protein diet in childrens
bladder above one year of age.
(3) Gastrin Brunner's Trypsin Bile
(1) Only I correct (2) Only II correct
glands pigments
(4) Secretin Crypts of Pepsin Bile salts (3) Both correct (4) Both wrong
Lieberkuhn 118. Which of the following reaction/s is/are
114. Consider the following four statements (a-d) catalysed by brush border enzymes?
and select the option which includes all the a. Maltose ¾¾¾
Maltase
® Glucose + Glucose
correct ones only.
(a) Faecal accumulation in the rectum initiates b. Nucleosides ¾¾¾¾¾
Nucleosidases
® Sugar + Bases
a neural reflex causing an urge for its removal.
c. Starch ¾¾¾®
Amylase Disaccharides
(b) Reflex action for vomiting is controlled by
medulla d. Nucleic acid ¾¾¾¾
Nucleases
® Nucleotides
(c) Irregular bowel movements cause Choose the correct option.
constipation.
(1) a only (2) a & b only
(d) "vomiting" is the ejection of stomach contents
(3) a, b & c only (4) a, b, c & d
through anus.
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119. Which of the following is not a characteristic 123. Which of the following is not a disease due to
feature regarding protein energy malnutrition, nutritional deficiency?
marasmus? (1) Anaemia (2) Scurvy
(1) It is produced by a simultaneous deficiency (3) Diabetes (4) Marasmus
of proteins and calories.
124. Find the incorrect match.
(2) It is found in infant less than a year of age.
(1) Valve of Kerckring - Small intestine
(3) Patient shows wasting of muscles, thinning (2) Taeniae coli - Large intestine
of limbs, failure of growth and brain (3) Brunner's gland - Mucosa of duodenum
development. (4) Parotid gland - Largest salivary gland
(4) Some fat is left under the skin of patient, 125. Which is not the correct match regarding gland
extensive oedema and swelling of body parts and its associated duct?
are seen.
(1) Parotid - Stenson's duct
120. All the given statements are correct except one
(2) Submaxillary - Rivinus duct
choose the incorrect statement.
(3) Pancreas - Duct of Wirsung
(1) Significant digestive activity occurs in large (4) Liver - Ductus choledochus
intestine.
126. Mark the condition where food is not properly
(2) The activities of gastrointestinal tract are digested leading to feeling of fullness. This can
under neural and hormonal control for proper be caused due to inadequate secretion, food
coordination of different parts. poisoning, over eating etc.
(3) Glucose and some amino acids are (1) Vomiting (2) Constipation
absorbed with the help of carrier ions like Na+.
(3) Indigestion (4) Diarrhoea
(4) The egestion of faeces to the outside through
127. Which cells are not associated with gastric
the anal opening is a voluntary process and is
glands?
carried out by a mass peristaltic movement.
(1) Mucus neck cells
121. Which of the following enzyme present in saliva
acts as an antibacterial agent that prevents (2) Peptic cells
infection? (3) Paneth cells
(1) Salivary amylase (4) Parietal cells
(2) Thiocyanate 128. Tooth enamel is
(3) Lysozyme (1) Ectodermal, secreted by Ameloblast
(4) Chitinase (2) Mesodermal, secreted by Odontoblast
122. Trypsinogen is activated by an enzyme, ___, (3) Mesodermal, secreted by Ameloblast
secreted by the intestinal mucosa. (4) Ectodermal, secreted by Odontoblast
(1) Enterogastron 129. A person is suffering from macrocytic /
(2) Enterokinase megaloblastic anaemia. This anaemia can be
(3) Carboxypeptidase due to degenerative action of

(4) Erepsin (1) Chief cells (2) Oxyntic cells

(3) Peptic cells (4) Zymogen cells

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130. In the following diagram, correct statement for 133. Which of the following enzymes digest protein
A and B is in stomach?
(1) Trypsin
(2) Pepsin
(3) Lipase
(4) Both (2) and (3)
134. Which part of our body does secrete the
hormone secretin?
(1) Pharynx (2) Stomach
(3) Duodenum (4) Oesophagus
135. Gall stones may cause
(1) Anaemia
(1) A is gall bladder
(2) Jaundice
(2) B is gall bladder
(3) Kidney failure
(3) A is spleen
(4) Dysentery
(4) B is spleen
136. Hepatic portal system connects
131. Find out the correct match.
(1) Liver to digestive system
Column - I Column - II (2) Digestive system to heart
A. Hepatic lobule i. Base of villi
B. Crypts of ii. Glisson's capsule (3) Liver to kidney
Leiberkuhn (4) Only small intestine to liver
C. Sphincter of iii. Gall bladder 137. Lactase hydrolyses lactose into
oddi
(1) Glucose
D. Cystic duct iv. Hepatopancreatic
duct (2) Glucose and galactose
(3) Fructose
(1) A(i) B(ii) C(iv) D(iii)
(2) A(iv) B(iii) C(ii) D(i) (4) Glucose and fructose
(3) A(ii) B(i) C(iv) D(iii) 138. Emulsification of fat will not occur in absence
(4) A(i) B(ii) C(iii) D(iv) off
132. Which of the following processes require (1) Lipase
emulsification (2) Bile pigments
(1) Nucleic Acid ¾¾¾¾ ® nucleotides
Nuclease
(3) Bile salts
¾¾¾¾®
Nucleotidase
nucleosides (4) Pancreatic juice
(2) Sucrose ¾¾¾
Sucrase
® glucose + fructose 139. Select the dentition of human adult
(3) Fats ¾¾¾
Lipases
® Diglycerides (1) Thecodont, Homodont, Diphyodont
(2) Heterodont, Thecodont, Monophyodont
Protein ù
(3) Diphyodont, Thecodont, Heterodont
(4) Peptones úú ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾
Trypsin/Chymotrypsin
Carboxypeptidase
® Dipeptidase
Pr oteases úû (4) Heterodont, Acrodont, Diphyodont

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140. Identify B, C, D and E respectively in the given 144. Which of the following match is correct :-
structure of a section of small intenstional (1) Vitamin E – Water soluble – Sterility
mucosa showing villi.
(2) Vitamin D – Fat soluble – Beri beri
(3) Vitamin A – Fat soluble – Night blindness
(4) Vitamin B12 – Water soluble – Pellagra
145. How many enzymes in the list given below work
in alkaline pH.
Trypsin, Pepsin, Chymot rypsin,
Aminopeptidase, Lactose, Rennin,
Carboxypeptidase, Nuclease.
(1) six (2) three (3) four (4) five
146. Which of the following is correct :-
(1) Lacteal, villi, artery, vein
(1) Starch ¾¾¾¾
a - Amylase
® disaccharide
(2) Lacteal, capillaries, artery, vein
(3) Capillaries, lacteals, artery, vein (2) Fats ¾¾®
Bile Diglycerides
(4) Lacteal, capillaries, artery, crypt (3) Nucleic acid ¾¾¾¾ Nuclease
® Nucleotide
141. Identify A, B and C respectively in given flow ¾¾¾¾¾
Nucleosidease
® Nucleoside
chart.
(4) All the above
Sucrose Maltose Lactose
147. Read the following four statement (A–D) about
chylomicrons.
SUCRASE MALTASE LACTASE
(A) Chylomicrons are produced in the lumen
C A B of small intestine.
(1) Glucose, Galactose, Fructose (B) Chylomicron contains triglycerides,
(2) Glucose, Fructose, Galactose cholesterol and phospholipids
(3) Fructose, Glucose, Galactose (C) Chylomicron is protein free small vesicles.
(4) Galactose, Fructose, Glucose (D) Chylomicrons released from the lacteals into
epithelial cells.
142. Bile released into duodenum contains?
How many of the above statements are right?
(1) Bile salts, Cholesterol, Phospholipids
(1) four (2) one
(2) Bile pigment, Enzyme, Cholesterol
(3) two (4) three
(3) Bile salt, Bile pigment, Insulin
148. Which hormone stimulate release of bile from
(4) Only bile salts
gall bladder?
143. What is not common among maltase
(1) Enterogasterone (2) Gastrin
dipeptidases, nucleosidase?
(3) Secretin (4) CCK
(1) These are present in intestinal juice
(2) These act at a pH more than 7.
(3) These all are proteins
(4) These all are peoteolytic enzymes

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149. Read the following four statements (A-D) :- 152. Which of the following are only absorbed but
(A) Mucosa contains nevers, CSF and lymph not digested?
vessels. (1) Water, Glucose
(B) Alcohol is absorbed in the stomach. (2) Vitamins, Amino acid
(C) Very significant digestive activity occurs in (3) Mineral, Fructose
large intestine. (4) All the above
(D) Fructose is absorbed by facilitated diffusion. 153. The abnormal frequency of bowel movement
How many of the above statements are right. and increased liquidity of the facial discharge is
(1) Four (2) One known as :-
(3) Two (4) Three (1) Vomiting (2) Diarrhoea
150. Consider the following four statements (A-D) (3) Constipation (4) None of these
and select the option which includes the correct 154. Read the following statement and answer the
ones only :- asked question?
(A) Food is the only basic requirements of all (a) Spicy food may cause indigestion.
living organisms. (b) For its activity carboxypeptidase require
(B) The major components of our food are magnesium.
carbohydrates, proteins and fats. (c) Enterokinase enzyme is found in the intestinal
(C) Biomacromolecules in food cannot be juice.
utilised by our body in their original form. (d) Digestion of protein is accomplished in
(D) Food provides energy and organic materials small intestine.
for growth and repair of tissues. How many of the above statements are
(1) Statement (B) (C) and (D) correct :-
(2) Statement (A) and (C) (1) Three (2) Four
(3) Statement (A) (C) and (D) (3) One (4) Two
(4) Statement (A) (B) and (D) 155. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
151. Which of the following statement is right ? (1) Parotid salivary gland - In lower Jaw
(I) Pepsinogen is secreted by peptic cells. (2) Submaxillary - In cheeks
(II) Burners gland is found in the submucosa of (3) Sublingual - Below the tongue
duodenum. (4) Both 1 & 2
(III) Micells are produced in the epithelial cells 156. Shape of stomach and Duodenum is
of small intestinal.
(1) J & C shaped respectively
(IV) Scurvy is caused due to deficiency of vit.
(2) C & J shaped respectively
A.
(3) J & U shaped respectively
(1) I and III (2) II and III
(4) U & J shaped respectively
(3) I and II (4) II and IV

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157. Find the incorrect statement w.r.t. saliva/ 161. In the following table of secretory products of
salivary glands the stomach, choose the incorrect option.
(1) Thiocyanate in saliva is antimicrobial Component Source Function
(2) Mumps is a viral infection of parotid salivary (1) HCl Parietal Converts pepsinogen
glands cells to pepsin
(3) Submandibular or submaxillary salivary (2) Intrinsic Oxyntic Aids absorption of
glands factor cells vitamin B12
(3) Mucus Mucus Viscous, alkaline,
(4) Secretion of saliva is stimulated by
neck protective coating of
sympathetic nervous system
cells mucosa
158. Which of the following is/are correct description (4) Pepsin Chief Inactivates pepsinogen
w.r.t. salivary glands? cells
a. They are multicellular 162. The chylomicrons are small protein coated at
b. They are exocrine glands. globules which are formed in the
c. Their products are secreted directly into the (1) Intestinal lumen from micelles
fluid bathing the gland. (2) Intestinal mucosa
d. They are made up of isolated glandular cells (3) Lacteals
called as goblet cells. (4) Blood capillaries
Options 163. The reflex action in which there is ejection of
(1) a & b only (2) b & c only stomach contents through mouth is regulated
by __(A)__ present in __(B)__ of brain.
(3) d & c only (4) a, b & c only
Choose the correct option for A and B.
159. In given box how many structures are found in
mucosa of alimentary canal? A B
(1) Vomit centre Hypothalamus
Payer’s Patches, Brunner’s gland, (2) Satiety centre Hypothalamus
gastric gland, crypts of liberkuhan (3) Hunger centre Hypothalamus
(4) Vomit centre Medulla
(1) One 164. Which of the following is not a matching pair?
(2) Two (1) Kupffer cells – Phagocytic cells in liver.
(3) Three (2) Peyer's patches – Lymphoid tissue in ileum.
(4) Four (3) Haustra – Outpouchings in wall of colon.
160. In a transverse section of stomach the muscular (4) Villi – Present in colon to maximise
coat will reveal the following muscles from absorption of water, minerals and vitamins.
outside to inside? 165. The number of teeth that erupt only once in life
(1) Oblique – Circular – Longitudinal are
(2) Longitudinal – Circular – Oblique (1) 8 premolars and 4 molars
(3) Circular – Longitudinal – Oblique (2) 4 premolars and 8 molars
(4) Circular – Oblique – Longitudinal (3) 2 canines, 4 premolars and 3 molars
(4) 4 molars

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166. If the dental structure of an animal shows 169. Choose the statements which are true w.r.t. fat
diastema due to absence of canines, one can digestion and absorption.
deduce that the animal is a/an a. Digestion starts in stomach.
(1) Herbivore b. Digestion in small intestine also.
(2) Carnivore c. Emulsification by bile salts.
(3) Omnivore d. Na+ dependent absorption.
(4) Detritivore e. Facilitated diffusion.
167. Fill in the blanks : f. Formation of chylomicrons in enterocytes.
a. ____ of oxygen is transported per decilitre (1) b, c, d
of blood under normal conditions to tissues.
(2) a, b, c, e, f
b. Healthy man can inspire or expire
(3) a, b, c, d
approximately ____ of air per minute.
(4) c, d, e, f
c. On an average, a healthy man breathes ____
times per minute. 170. Identify the enzymes in the given reactions :
d. About ____ percent of O2 is carried in Starch ¾¾
A
® Disaccharides
dissolved state through the plasma.
Fats ¾¾B
® Diglycerides ¾¾
C
®
Choose the correct option.
Monoglycerides
A B C D Nucleic acids ¾¾
D
® Nucleotides
(1) 19.8 ml 6000 ml to 8000 ml 12 to 16 3
(2) 5 ml 500 ml 12 to 16 3 A B C D
(3) 5 ml 6000 ml to 8000 ml 12 to 16 3 (1) a-amylase Lipase Lipase Nuclease
(4) 5 ml 6000 ml to 8000 ml 18 times 7 (2) Disaccharidase Lipase Lipase Nuclease
168. This layer of the gut wall is formed of loose (3) Amylase Lipase Protease Nucleotidase
connective tissues containing nerves, blood and (4) Amylase Erepsin Lipase Nucleotidase
lymph vessels.
171. The regions of the alimentary canal which do
not secrete any digestive enzymes are
a. Colon b. Liver
c. Oesophagus d. Pancreatic islets
(1) a, b, c (2) a, b, c, d
(3) b, c (4) a, c
172. Some of the substances like fructose and some
amino acids are absorbed with the help of the
carrier ions like Na+. This mechanism is called
(1) A - Serosa as
(2) B - Mesothelium (1) Active transport
(3) C - Submucosa (2) Facilitated transport
(4) D - Muscularis interna (3) Simple diffusion
(4) Osmosis
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173. Which of the following is a fat soluble vitamin 178. Which of the following is not a disease due to
and its related deficiency disease? nutritional deficiency?
(1) Calciferol - Pellagra (1) Anaemia (2) Scurvy
(2) Ascorbic acid - Scurvy (3) Diabetes (4) Marasmus
(3) Retinol - Xerophthalmia 179. In the following diagram, correct statement for
(4) Cobalamine - Beri-beri A and B is
174. The falciform ligament in man connects to
(1) Liver with diaphragm
(2) Lungs with diaphragm
(3) Stomach with diaphragm
(4) Liver with stomach
175. Proteolytic enzymes present in the pancreatic
juice are
A. Pepsinogen
B. Procarboxy peptidase
C. Amylase
D. Chymotrypsinogen (1) A is gall bladder
(1) A, B and C are correct
(2) B is gall bladder
(2) A and B are correct
(3) A is spleen
(3) B and D are correct
(4) B is spleen
(4) A and C are correct
180. Read the following four statements (A–D) :-
176. Common passage of bile and pancreatic juice
is (A) In the secretion of submucosal glands,
enzymes are absent
(1) Ampulla of Vater
(B) Rennin enzyme found in gastric juice of
(2) Ductus choledochus
infants helps in digestion of milk sugar.
(3) Duct of Wirsung
(C) Principle organ for absorption of water is
(4) Duct of Santorini
stomach
177. All the given statements are correct except one
(D) Serosa is the innermost layer of alimentary
choose the incorrect statement.
canal
(1) Significant digestive activity occurs in large
intestine. How many of the above statements are correct?
(2) The activities of gastrointestinal tract are (1) Four (2) One
under neural and hormonal control for proper (3) Two (4) Three
coordination of different parts.
(3) Glucose and some amino acids are
absorbed with the help of carrier ions like Na+.
(4) The egestion of faeces to the outside through
the anal opening is a voluntary process and is
carried out by a mass peristaltic movement.

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