Image Production and Evaluation

CLUSTER 2
IMAGE PRODUCTION AND EVALUATION

1. The relationship between the intensity of incident light falling 19. Which of the following is the controlling factor of minimizing
on one side of a processed film and intensity of the light distortion?
transmitted through the film is a measure of radiographic mA
DENSITY 20. Magnification distortion can be reduced by a decrease in
2. Which of the density readings taken from the densitometers is OFD
out of the acceptable range 21. Penumbra can be lessen by increasing the
DENSITY UNITS mAs
3. An increase of at least 30% in mAs is required to produced 22. A supine chest taken in 40 in SID will demonstrate?
significant increase in A LARGER HEART SIZE
DETAIL 23. Which of the following conditions is not related to a high
4. An increase of film density results from an increase in
incidence of penumbra?
mAs
LARGE EFFECTIVE FOCAL SPOT
5. Which of the following is the most opaque?
24. Which type of motion usually present when a seriously injured
BONE
patients is radiograph?
6. When a Technologist is radiographing a PA chest, using an air
gap technique which of the following would used? INVOLUNTARY
A 6-INCHES OFD 25. Which of the following is unrelated to recorded detail?
7. Which of the following will affect have a dramatic effect on a IMMOBILZATION OF THE BODY PART
radiographic contrast? 26. Which of the following is detrimental to recorded detail?
1. A CHANGE IN GRID RATIO NON-SCREEN FILM
2. A CHANGE IN KILOVOLTAGE (15%) 27. The smaller the effective focal spot the
3. A DECREASE IN FIELD SIZE GREATER THE TUBE CAPACITY
8. A radiograph that demonstrate numerous shades of similar 28. Which of the following does not affect image sharpness or
densities is referred to as film with recorded detail?
LONG SCALE CONTRAST OBJECT FILM DISTANCE
9. Increasing the OFD will magnify the image and increase the 29. Definition is directly influenced by the
CONTRAST WAVELENGTH USED
10. When going from medium speed to a high screen, there will 30. Shorter exposure time increases
be a increase in an amount of exposure and FOGGING
INCREASED DETAIL 31. Which of the following exerts the greatest control on
11. The TONAL relationship between one density and another
radiographic definition
constitutes the
SIZE OF THE TUBE FOCAL SPOT
RADIOGRAPHIC CONTRAST
32. Radiographic definition is lost when a film demonstrate
12. Which of the following radiographic techniques would be
excessive
produce a radiograph with longest contrast?
MOTION
200 mA, h/s, 85 KVP
34. Which of the following combination of milliamperage and time
13. In order to produce 2x magnification for a cranium in the
would be ideal for an uncooperative irrational patient requiring a
lateral position with an FFD at 40 in OFD should be
KUB?
84 INCHES
14. The geometric unsharpness (UG)of margins in a radiograph 1000 mA, 1/100 SEC.
35. Which of the following Radiographic techniques would
image to as the
I. UMBRA produce the greatest quantity of photons
15. Which of the following is the method of producing motion and 600 mA, 2/5 SECONDS
decreasing the effects of tissue? 36. A technique of 200 mA , 3/20 seconds at 110 kVp could
USING A COMPRESSION DEVICE properly be converted to a technique of 100 mA, 94 kV at how
16. Which of the following is the major cause of the many seconds?
magnification? 3/10 SECONDS
OFD 37. An original technique of 200mA 1/2seconds and 75kV may be
17. Which of the following conditions is unrelated to a high adjusted to 400Ma, 80kV at how many seconds?
incidence of penumbra? ¼ SECONDS
HIGH kVp 38. If the milliamperage selector where set at 1000mA, what
18. Size distortion when increases when fouincrease the exposure time would be required to produce 80mAs?
OFD 2/25 SECONDS
39. Which of the following techniques would produce the greatest
amount of radiographic density?
300MA, 2/5 SECONDS
CLUSTER 2
40. A technique of 100 mA, 1/2 sec convert to an equivalent mAs at 59. In the department without a central replenishment facility,
500 mA, 2 secs at how many kilovolts to maintain the density? developer and fixer replenishment tank up to how many gallons of
92 kV each solutions?
41. Which technique would produce most density? 50
400 mA, 3/20 sec 60.What developing agent helps to provide upper scale density?
42. At which of the following exposure times does 200 mA at 1/2 sec HYDROQUINONE
convert to an equivalent mAs at 500 mA? 61. What developing agent helps to provide intermediate densities?
1/5 SECONDS PHENIDONE
43. Which of the following is not a factor in controlling the exposure 62. What agent is the activator in the developer or a source of alkali?
rate of an x-ray beam? HYDROXIDE
FILTRATION 63. What is the advisable time/period change processing solutions in
44. If the milliampere was set at 300 and the mAs produced was 15, an automatic processors?
the exposure would be EVERY THREE MONTHS
1/20 SECONDS 64. What device is used to evaluate the sensitometric readings from
45. If the kilovoltage were at 46 kV, how much of a minimum change the processed image?
would have to occur in order to produce a noticeable increase in SENSITOMETER
density? 65. What filter is available for photofluorographic and cine-
7 kV fluorographic panchromatic films?
46. To convert, maintaining the same density, the technique of non- DARK GREEN
grid, 60 mAs, 70 kVp, 80in FFD to 6:1 grid, 22.5 mAs, 40 in FFD, 66. What artifacts caused by raised nick on roller scratching film as it
how many kilovolts would be required? passes by?
80 kV PI LINES
47. If the standard is 300 mA, 1/20 sec, 80 kVp, the adjustment 67. What is the flexible support of the emulsion?
should be 75 mA, 1/5 sec and how many kilovolts? EMULSION
80 kV 68. What is the very good vehicle for the silver compound?
48. The intensification factor of the screens refers to their? BASE
DENSITY 69. Which of the following devices are employed to reduced patient
49. High relative humidity will decrease? exposure to x-rays
RETICULATION 1.GRIDS 2.COLLIMATORS 3.FILTERS
50. The KV required to penetrate an adult skull adequately is 70. A 16:1 grid compared to an 8:1 grid will
approximately? ABSORBED MORE SOFT X-RAY
65 kVp 71. Which of the following has a direct effect on the efficiency of a
51. Which of the following anatomic parts would attenuate the most bucky grid in removing scattered radiation?
radiation? GRID RATIO
PSOAS MUSCLE 72. Unabsorbed radiation is also called?
52. A decrease in kilovoltage is required for? SECONDARY
ATROPHY 73. A grid has a lead strip of 0.25mm apart and high will have a ratio
53. The purpose of the fixing agent is to? of ?
REMOVE FIXING SOLUTION 8:1
54. The hardener in the fixing solution is? 74. Which type of grid has lead lines running only in one direction?
POTASSIUM HYDROXIDE LINEAR
55. Which of the following DOES NOT greatly affect imaging quality 75. Which of the following terms does not apply to grid?
but is expensive? AMPLITUDE
OVER REPLENISHMENT OF THE FIXER 76. The use of grid will protect the?
56.What solution is carried over the top of the tanks into a wire to a PATIENT FROM SCATTERED RADIATION
drain? 77. Barium sulfate on the film surface of a cassette would cause an
OVERFLOW artifact that would appear as a?
57. What system that keeps the solution at proper strength and HIGH-DENSITY SPOT
extending solution life? 78. The anode heel effect is an important consideration when taking
REPLENISHMENT radiographs of the
58. Which of the following does not include the replenishment system SKULL
HEAT EXCHANGER 79. Aluminum filtration modifies the x-ray beam by removing most
of the?
CLUSTER 2
SHORTER WAVELENGTH RAYS OFD
80. An increase in filtration from 1mm Al to 3mm Al will reduce the 102. Motion unsharpness is controlled primarily by___
skin exposure rate dose? SUSPENDING RESPIRATION
1/5 103. When going to a medium speed to a high speed, there will be a
81. When non screen films is used, the developing time is? decrease in necessary amount of exposure and
DECREASED BY 2 MIN INCREASE DETAIL
82. In order to prevent pressure marks, x-ray film should stored 104. Poor storage or handling practices that can result in film fog
ON END include
83. The silver halide latent image is produced by? I. OUTDATED FILM
SODIUM SULPHITE II. EXPSURE TO EXCESSIVE TEMPERATURE
84. The manifest image is composed of? III. EXPOSURE TO CHEMICAL FUMES
SODIUM THIOSULFATE 105. Increased object film distance would primarily decrease
85. Which of the following substances does not emit light when DENSITY
bombarded by x-rays? 106. When proper radiographic detail cannot be obtained because of
BARIUM PLATINOCYANIDE excessive part film distance, change in technique may be used to
86. The visible image is composed of improve death?
POTASSIUM-BROMIDE CYRSTALS INCREASE IN FOCALFILM DISTANCE
87. High speed film and intensifying screens enable the use of 107. Density in the radiograph s the
LOWER mAs VALUES OVERALL BLACKNESS OF THE RADIOGRAPH
88. Poor film screen contact results in? 108. Grid measures 15 inches in width, with 32 grid frequency. How
DECREASED DEFINITION strip are there in this total width?
89. Which of the following does NOT influence the basic fog level of 480
radiographic film? 109. Unabsorbed radiation is called
FILM SPEEED SCATTERED
90. What is the cause of abrasion? 110. to convert single phase to three exposure factors, the mAs
DIRTY ROLLERS should be____
91. The condition of osteolysis required? TRIPLED
I. THE USE OF A LARGE FOCAL SPOT 111. The KV required to penetrate an adult skull adequately is
approximately •
II. A DECREASE IN EXPOSUREVFACTORS
85 kV
III. THE UTILIZATION OF A HIGH RATIO GRID 112. Effective methods of controlling motion include
92. 350 Ma and 120 mn providing I. CAREFULL EXPLANATION OF PROCEDURE TO
42 mAs
THE PATIENT
93. When using bucky with a focused grid, if the lateral edges of the
III. RESTRAINING DEVICES
film loss density, it an indication that the 113. Which of the following radiographic techniques would produce a
TUBE IS NOT PERPENDICULAR TO THE GRID radiograph with the shortest contrast?
94. Type of grid that is NOT grid placement error 100 mA, 3/5 sec., 6:1 grid, 6 inches OFD
AIR GAP GRID 114. Other new benefits of using intensifying screens.
95. Which of the following is not related to high penumbra? I.REDUCE OUTPUT REQUIREMENT OF THE X RAYS
HIGH mAs SYSTEM
96. A decrease kilovoltage required for II. SHORTER EXPOSURE TIME ANDMOTION ARTIFACTS ARE
OSTEOMALACIA REDUCED
97. Grid frequency is defined as the III. REDUCED DOSE EQUIVALENT VALUE
NUMBER OF LEAD STRIP PER CENTIMETRE 115. Which of the following factors does NOT affect image sharpness
98. Which of the following will cause the advantage of moving grid to or recorded detail?
a stationary grid? KILOVOLTAGE
INCREASE EFFECTIVE FOCAL SPOT 116. Compared with the small focal spot, the advantage of using
99. Which of the following has an effect on the producing of large focal spot is____
secondary and scattered radiation? FASTER IMAGE RECEPTOR CANBE USED
I. THICKNESS OF THE PART BEING X RAYED 117. Which of the following is the controlling factor in minimizing
II. DENSITY OF THE TISSUE BEING X RAYED distortion?
III. KILOVOLTAGE OFD
100. An increase in film density results from an increase 118. Beam quality is primarily controlled by
MAs KILOVOLTAGE
101. Definition is directly influenced by the 119. Focal spot size selection is most critical during
CLUSTER 2
I. MAGNIFICATION RADIOGRAPHY
120. Which type of grid has lead inner running only in one direction? 138. What film changes using a film magazine that is preload in the
LINEAR darkroom prior to the angiographic study?
121. The primary purpose of a filter used in the diagnostic x ray MULTI CASSETTE CHANGER
machine is 139. What is the primary reason why blue tint is added to the base of
TO REDUCE THE SKIN DOSE radiographic film?
122. Which of the following BEST describe the primary radiation? DECREASE THE PARALLAX EFFECT
EMERGES FROM THE TUBE AND RACHS THE PATIENT 140. If you measure the minimum size and space between objects
123. Which of the following grid types should be used so that x-ray that can be visualized on the final image is called?
tube may be angled along the (cut) of the grid without cut off LINE PAIRS PER MILLIMETER
FOCUSED 141. What is the other term for food replenishment?
124. Intensifying screen speed increases, therefore recorded detail TIMED
decreases as 142. Which of the following is NOT classified as artifacts?
PHOSPHOR SIZE INCREASES LOCATION
125. Non-flammable polyester is also called 143. Which of the following is not one of the major systems of an
FILM BASE automatic processor?
126. What is the color of radiographic film base to minimize the effect DEVELOPMENT SYSTEM
of ambient light passing through large unexposed areas of the 144. Which of the following is not classified as artifacts?
radiograph? LOCATION
TINTED BLUE 145. Which of the following is preventing the reduction of unexposed
127. Orthochromatic emulsions are sensitive to wavelength: emulsion?
LESS THAN 620 NM NaCO3
128. Panchromatic emulsions are sensitive to which of the following 146. Unwanted markings on a radiograph that are darker than the
wavelength: surrounding image are called
1. WHOLE VISIBLE SPECTRUM ARTIFACTS
2. SHORTE WAVELENGTH 147. Which of the following are the distinct pattern of static artifacts?
3. WAVELENGTH LESS THAN 620 NM TREE, CROWN, AND SMUDGE
129. If 100 speed intensifying screen were matched to 100 speed 148. When sodium sulphite is used as an x ray processing chemical,
radiographic film the system would rated it is
100 PRESERVATIVE
130. What time is often referred to as of standard, medium or fast 149. What is the common cost of contamination of the solution?
speed? SPLASHING
DIRECT 150. The other term for green sensitive films is
131. A quantitative measurement of the response of the film to ORTHOCROMATIC FILM
exposure and development is known as: 151. If the x ray is partially absorbed, its interaction is called
DENSITOMETER PHOTOELECTRIC
132.What term is often erroneously substituted for exposure 152. The invisible image is that produced in the film emulation b
technique? exposure to light or x ray is called
NON SCREEN LATENT IMAGE
133. What x ra film usually dual emulsion is designed to be used in 153. To remove the algae in the processing tank, requires a filter of
combination with intensifying screens? 10 MICRON
MEDICAL SCREEN 154. Too much density is caused by
134. What film that response to the fluorescence light given off by OVEREXPOSURE
activated intensifying screens 156. Which of the following is thinner than 5um?
INTENSIFYING SCREEN TURN ARROUND ASSEMBLY
135. What I the ideal temperature for the storage of fresh, unexposed 157. The most common reason for contaminated developer is
radiographic film? MIXING FIXER IN THE DEVELOPER TANK
60 TO 80 DEGREES FAHRENHEIT 158. What is the cause of kink marks?
136. What artifacts which occur because of rapid movement of the ROUGH HANDLING
film on the darkroom? 159. An x ray intensifying screen is composed of all of the following
TREE LIKE STATIC EXCEPT
137. What is the storage temperature of the radiographic film after AN EMULSION LAYER
processing? 160. When the film passes through the fixing tank and wash tank it
90 TO 95 DEGREE FARENHEIT will sees through a
RECIEVING FILM
CLUSTER 2
161. Panchromatic emulsion are sensitive to which of the following PHOTONS HIT THE IR
wavelengths? 4. SALT AND PEPPER APPEARANCE
I. WHOLE VISION SPECTRUM 181. The principal reason why radiographic intensifying screen is
162. Which of the following ingredient is not normally found in the film used
emulsion? REDUCE PATIENT RADIATION EXPOSURE
SILVER NITRATE 182. The invisible image is composed of
163. Which of the following does not apply when you compare the METALLIC SILVER GRAINS
base cellulose nitrate? 183. Film should be stored at
THICKER 10-21 DEGREE CELCIUS
164. Without the hardener the emulsion becomes so soft that it will 184. The most factor which affect film sensitometry includes
cause I. TIME DEVELOPER
ALL OF THE CHOICES II. TEMPERATURE OF DEVELOPER
165. Which segment of the circulation system is most important to III. ACTIVITY OF DEVELOPER
archive quality? 185. Average gradient refers to
WASHING THE SLOPE OF A CURVE
166. The segment of circulation most likely to contain a filter is: 186. A warped cassette result in
DEVELOPER BLURRING OFTHE RADIOGRAPHIC IMAGE
167. A non-screen technique is used in radiography primarily 187. Screen contact is tested by
because it MAKING AN EXPOSURE OF A FINE WIRE MESH PLACED ON
PRODUCES HIGHER CONTRAST THE TOP OF CASSETTE AND SREEN
168. How many years an original radiograph is stored? 188. A common cause of transitory poor screen contact is
3-5 AIR TRAPPING WITHIN THE CASSETTE
169. What chemical that rapidly produces fine detail shades of gray? 189. The light output from the calcium tungstate screens in what light
PHENIDONE
spectrum?
170. A small amount of fixer, if splashed into the developing solution,
BLUE
can render the developer
190. Poor screen contact result in
CONTAMINATED
BLURRING OF RADIOGRAPHIC IMAGE
171. What system is designed so that a precise amount of developer
191. The back of cassette is made of material opaque to x rays
and fixer is fed into the (cut) every centimeter of film that passes over
the entrance roller? because
REPLENIHMENT IT TENDS TO PREVENT FOGGING OF FILM BY SCATTERED
172. Which of the following statement is true? RADIATION FROM BEHIND THE CASSETTE
SOLUTIONS IN THE MANUAL PROCESSING HAVE A LONGER 192. Poor screen contact will result in
SOLUTION LIFE THAT THAT DECREASED SHARPNESS OF DETAIL IN THE RADIOGRAPH
173. What chemistry acts as a buffer and a source of alkali? 193. The sharpness of detail of a thin part is increased by the used of
HYDROXIDE NON SCREEN EXPOSURE
174. What is the active ingredients of the radiographic fine 194. Screen are cleaned
emulsion? ACCORDING TO THE MANUFACTURERS SPECIFICATIONS
SILVER HALIDE 195. The phosphor most commonly used in manufacturing
175. Which of the factors does not influence the basic fog level of intensifying a screen is
radiographic film? CALCIUM TUNGSTATE
FILM SPEED 196. Newer phosphors used in manufacturing intensifying screen is
176. What is /are the primary agents of the developer? include all except
I. REDUCING CESIUM IODIDE
177. What agent is used to minimize fog and maintain chemical 197. Increase speed of calcium tungstate screen is obtained primary
balance between fresh and chemicals? by
POTASSIUM BROMIDE INCREASING THE THICKNESS OF THE PHOSPHOR
178. Which of the following can cause oxidation of the developer 198. The primary light output from a gadolinium oxy sulfide screen in
and diminishing its chemistry? what light spectrum
EXHAUSTION
GREEN
179. What material is used for cassettes to reduce attenuation by up
199. What part of the developer chemistry is most affected by
to and permits reduction in patient dose?
changes in temperature
BAKELITE
PHENIDONE
180. Quantum mottle refers to?
1. THE SOURCE OF NOISE IN THE IMAGE 200. The average replenishing rate for developer solution is
2. IT IS CAUSED WHEN TOO FEW X RAY 60-70 CC PER FILM
CLUSTER 2
201. A crossover rack is located 223. LIGHT EMISSION

AT THE TOP OF THE VERTICAL RACK ASSEMBLY 224. Fast films differ from slow films principally in ____ of the silver
202. How often should a crossover rack be cleaned? halide crystals
DAILY CONCENTRATION
203. Development temperature should be checked 225. The spectral response of a emulsion refers to its
PERIODICALLY THROUGHOUT THE WORKING PERIOD ABSORPTION OF VISIBLE LIGHT
204. An easily observable difference between xray film and regular 226. Calcium tungstate screen emit
photographic film is BLUE LIGHT
THICKNESS AND RIGIDITY FILM OF THE BASE 227. Orthochromatic film is sensitive to
205. Average silver halide crystal size in radiographic film is GREEN LIGHTS
approximately 228. When green emitting rare earth screens are used with properly
matched film ____ safelights are required
1.0 um
RED
206. Which of the following has been employed as a film base
229. Which of the following is most likely to fog film?
CELLULOSE NITRATE
I. AN IMPROPER SAFELIGHT FILTER
207. The photographic emulsion commonly used in x-ray fil consist of 230. The most commonly employed radiographic image receptor is
SILVER HALIDE AND GELATIN ____ film
208. A common base of contemporary x-ray film is SCREEN
POLYESTER 231. Which of the following is the least important characteristics of
209. In the manufacture of radiographic film screen film
DIRECT EXPOSURE FILM CONTAINS A THICKER EMULSION COST
LAYER WITH MORE SILVER HALIDE CRYSTALS THAN SCREEN 232. A high contrast emulsion is characterized by
FIM SMALL, UNIFORM GRAIN SIZE
210. Dimensional stability is the property of maintaining the size and 234. The component of the developer that helps to keep unexposed
shape of the crystals from the developing agent
BASE POTASSIUM BROMIDE
235. Which of the following automatic processing chemistries best
211. The principal purpose of gelatin in the emulsion is to
controls the image on a radiographic density range that is most
SUPPORT THE SILVER HALIDE CRYSTALS UNIFORMITY
important
212. Conventional x-ray film used with intensifying screens has PHENIDONE
EMULSION COATED ON BOTH SIDES OF THE BASE 236. The most common result of inadequate washing is
213. Which of the is usually thinner than 5um EXCESS HYPO RETENTION
SUPERCOATING 237. Which of the following ingredients of the developer is
214. Conventional radiographic screen film is approximately ____ responsible for producing the black part of the radiograph
thick HYDROQUINONE
0.25 MM 238. The temperature of the wash water should be approximately
215. The special imaging properties of crystals known as the 5 DEGREES F BELOW THE DEVELOPER
photographic effect are thought to be due to 239. The developer ingredient that controls ph is
SILVER SULFIDE SODIUM CARBONATE
216. The term sensitivity speck refers to 240. Which of the following will not be found in the fixer
AN EMULSION CONTAMINANT GLUTARALDEHYDE
217. The latent image is actually formed in the 241. Radiographic Cones and cylinders are employed principally to
SILVER HALIDE CRYSTAL reduce
218. In the manufacture of the emulsion, which of the following PATIENT DOSE
molecules is particularly light sensitive 242. The two general types of devices designed to control scatter
AgBr radiation are
219. What do we call the radiation exiting the patient that is GRIDS AND BEAM RESTRICTORS
responsible for latent image formation 243. One helpful feature of a light localizing collimator is increased
REMNANT FILTRATION
244. This principal reason for using a grid is to
220. The formation of a manifest image follows many sequential
INCREASES RADIOGRAPHIC CONTRAST
steps, the first of which is
246. The use of a grid will result
IONIZATION CONTROL OF SCATTER RADIATION
221. The most common employed radiologic image 247. The efficiency of a grid for reducing scatter radiation is related
SCREEN FILM principally to the
222. Which of the following is not a characteristics the technology GRID RATIO
should consider when reaching film
CLUSTER 2
248. Use of which of the following devices will reduce radiographic SMALL FOCAL SPOT
contrast 272. Focal spot blur can be reduce by
FILTERS DECREASING OID
249. Added filtration influences selection of 273. High spatial resolution is affected principally by which of the
HIGH ENERGY X-RAYS following
250. Which of the following is the least important indicator of grid FOCAL SPOT SIZE
performance 274. The step in processing is designed to
GRID STRIP HEIGHT SOFTEN THE EMULSION
251. The simplest type of grid is the 275. The purpose of stop bath is to
LINEAR GRID REMOVED EXCESS FROM THE EMULSION
252. Under replenishment of the developer will result in a 276. What stage of processing involve a synergistic reaction?
GREAT DECREASE IN CONTRAST THE TIME OF FIXATION
253. Control of the replenishment system is accomplished by a 277. Replenishment of which tank in the processing system is most
MICRO SWITCH important?
254. The approximate developer conditions in ta 90-s processor are DEVELOPER
95 DEGREE F, 22 SECONDS 278. When films in the receiving bin are damp, least likely cause is
255. Circulation of the developer at the rate of approximately____ will REDUCED TRANSPORT TIME
ensure adequate 279. Double capacity can process a film is
15 1/MINUTE 180 SECONDS
256. The transport system includes all but the following 280. The minimum flow rate for wash water is __ gallon(s) per minute
DRYING CHAMBER 3
257. The three ____ in master roller is the part of a 281. The principal purpose of the circular system is to
TURN AROUND ASSEMBLY AGITATE THE CHEMISTRY
258. If a radiograph turns yellow during storage, it may be the result 282. Which of the following contributes to the increased speed pf rare
of earth screens?
INCOMPLETE WASHING CONVERSION EFFICIENCY
259. With a 90-s processor, immersion time in the developer is 283. Rare earth screens
approximately SHOW HIGHER X-RAY ABSOPRTION IN THE DIAGNOSTIC
20-SECONDS RANGE THAN CALCIUM TUNGSTATE SCREENS
260. The classification of artifact include all except 284. In comparison with calcium tungstate screens, rare earth
LOCATION ARTIFACTS screens
261. Which of the following would be identified as a handling artifact ABSORB THREE TO FIVE TIMES AS MANY X-RAYS
KINK MARKS 285. Rare earth intensifying screens
262. The distinct patterns of static artifact do not include ARE MORE EXPENSIVE THAN CALCIUM TUNGSTATE
263. The undesirable absorption of primary beam x-rays by a grid is SCREENS
called 286. The routine care screen requires that they be
GRID CUT-OFF PERIODICALLY CLEANED
264. Which of the following would be included in the three major 287. Remnant x-rays includes those that
classifications of moving grids? EXIT THE PX TOWARD THE IMAGE RECEPTOR
RECIPROCATING GRID 288. As the field size is increased, scattered radiation
265. One factor that does not affect the percentage of scatter INCREASE
radiation reaching the image receptor is 289. One factor that influences the production of scattered radiation
mAs that is generally not under the control of the technologist is
266. Which of the following is not a grid positioning error PATIENT THICKNESS
AIR GAP GRID 290. In some radiographic techniques the primary purpose of adding
267. In general, which of the following has the greatest contrast a compensating filter is to
improvement factor? CHANGE THE DISTRIBUTION OF RADIATION
CROSSHATCHED GRIDS 291. In general, as the thickness of the part being radiographed
268. The diagnostically useful portion of the characteristics curve increases
includes the THE PATIENT EXPOSURE INCREASES
STRAIGHT-LINE PORTION 292. X-ray beam restriction to the area of interest is principally
269. The main component of radiographic noise required to reduce
QUANTUM MOTTLE PATIENT DOSE
270. The sharpness of detail in the radiograph is best increased by 293. An aperture diaphragm should allow x-rays to expose an area
the use of JUST SMALLER THAN THE IMAGE RECEPTOR
SMALL EFFCTIVE FOCAL SPOT 294. The simplest of all beam restricting devices is an
271. The best way to control focal spot blur without affecting optical APERTURE DIAPHRAGM
density with be to use a very
CLUSTER 2
295. A properly designed light localizing variable aperture collimator 318. Film density in development is primarily related to
will TIME OF DEVELOPMENT
BE DESIGNED TO REDUCE OFF FOCUS RADIATION 319. The average replenishing rate for fixer is approximately
296. Which of the following radiographic techniques is likely to 100-110 CC/FILM
produce best visualization of lower structures 320. One of the most common causes of wet film emerging from an
72 kVp, 100 mA, 100 ms automatic processor is
297. The principal cause of motion blur is movement of the GENERAL LACK OF HARDENER IN DEVELOPER OR FIXER
PATIENT 321. Fresh x-ray film should be stored at approximately
298. Sharpness of detail n radiograph is principal improved by 60-70 DEGREE F/ 50-60% RELATIVE HUMIDITY
REDUCING PX MOTION 322. Which of the following conditions requires a decrease in the
299. Sharp resolution of detail in a radiograph is improved by the use normal exposure factors to penetrate the part properly?
of
ATROPHY
SLOWER SCREENS
323. The single mechanical factor that does the most to control
300. In radiographic examination of the lumbar spine, which of the
following techniques would produce greatest exposure to the patient? radiographic details is the
70 kVp/200 mAs POTTER-BUCKY DIAPHRAGM
301. If other factors remains constant, which of the following would 324. For maximum speed and contrast, film in 68 degree Celsius
result in highest radiographic density developed for about _____?
200 mA, 500 ms , 90cm SID 5 MINUTES
302. General purpose x-ray tube usually inherent filtration of 325. Starter solution is composed of
• 0.5 mm Al POTASSIUM BROMIDE
303. Dyes are added to intensifying screens primarily to 326. The most common for contaminated developer is
CONTROL LATERAL DISPERSION OF LIGHT DRIPPING FIXER FROM THE FIXER RACK INTO THE
304. The primary purpose of a filter used in the diagnostic x-ray DEVELOPER TANK WHEN REMOVING OR REPLACING FIXER
machine is RACK
TO REDUCE THE SKIN DOSAGE 327. The normal fixing time in an automatic processor is
305. The total amount of filtration (including inherent filtration) for the ABOUT TWICE DEVELOPING TIME
average diagnostic machine above 70 kV is 328. What is the total thickness of a typical intensifying screen in
2.5 mm Al mils?
306. The chief purpose of a filter of aluminum placed beneath the 15
aperture of radiographic tube is to 329. Assuring good screen/film contact also assures reduce in:
ABSORB SOME OF THE LONGER WAVELENGTH BLUR
307. When using a Bucky with a focused grid, if the lateral edges of 330. Average gradient refers to
the film lose density, it is an indication that the SLOPE OF A CURVE
FOCAL FILM DISTANCE IS NOT CORRECT 331. In manual processing procedures the maximum density and
308. High ratio grids, in the control of radiographic quality contrast can be obtained by using the generally accepted time and
FILTER OUT A HIGH DEGREE OF SCATTERED RADIATION temperature for the development of the screen type of film which is
309. The type of radiation called primary is that which 5 MINUTES at 68˚
EMERGES FROM THE TUBE AND REACHES THE PATIENT 332. The film emulsion is composed of:
310. A wedge filter is used to SILVER HALIDE PLUS GELATIN
COMPENSATE FOR VARYING TISSUE DENSITIES 334. What solution is dramatically affected by contamination?
311. The Potter Bucky diaphragm and the stationary grid are used to DEVELOP
ELIMINATE A LARGE PORTION OF SECONDARY RADIATION 335. Which of the following is measurement in development
312. The factor which produces the greatest unsharpness is temperature in automatic process, except
MOTION KELVIN
314. The wavelength of an x-ray beam is determined by 336. What system keeps the solution at proper strength and extends
VOLTAGE DIFFERENTIAL BETWEEN ANODEAND CATHODE its life?
315. Geometric unsharpness is controlled primarily by REPLENISHMENT
DECREASING OID 337. Gadolinium and lanthanum compounds are?
316. The average developer immersion time in an automatic “90 HIGH SPEED RARE EARTH PHOSPHOR
second” processor is approximately 338. Type of dental film used in the examination of the entire mouth
20 SECONDS is
317. For orthochromatic sensitive x-ray film, a suitable darkroom light PANORAMIC
is 339. For maximum speed and contrast, film in 68˚ F developer
KODAK GBX should be developed about?
5 MINUTES
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340. What do you call the room that is devoid of all white light in 10kV
which the processing cycle of the exposed x-ray film takes place? 361. A technique of 200mA, ¼ sec has been used to produce a film
DARKROOM of satisfactory density. If the milliamperage was changed to 500, the
341. Regular rare earth screen use time needed to obtain the same milliamperage, all other factor s
400 SPEED remaining constant, would be
342. The average replenishment rate for fixer is approximately? 1/10 SECONDS
100 – 110 CC/Film 362. Size distortion will increase when
343. Which of the following views is an intraoral film used? 1. OBJECT-FILM DISTANCE IS INCREASED
MANDIBULAR SYMPHISIS 2. FOCUS-FILM DISTANCE IS DECREASED
344. Dry to drop time is 363. Simplest among the beam-restricting devices
THE TIME IT TAKES FOR A FILM TO BE FED THROUGH A AN APERTURE DIAPHRAGM
PROCESSOR AND DROP INTO THE FILM RECEIVING BIN 364. A Potter-Bucky diaphragm is known as
345. Which of the following refers to the distribution in size and space GRID IN MOTION DURING EXPOSURE
of the silver halide grains in the emulsion? 365. The developing time for screen-type film at 72˚ should be
FILM GRAININESS 4 MINUTES
346. Which of the following artifacts is most likely to occur before 366. Automatic processor operates at 90-95˚ F, what is the room
processing? temperature conducted in manual processing?
CHEMICAL FOG 68˚ F
347. Which type of sensitized artifacts produce multiple branching 367. What chemical is ceasing the reduction during automatic
dark lines? processor?
TREE STATIC POTASSIUM BROMIDE
348. Short-scale contrast is defined by 368. What is the four basic components of an intensifying screen?
MORE CONTRAST BASE, REFLECTIVE LAYER, PHOSPHOR LAYER AND
349. When discussing intensifying screens, which of the following PROTECTIVE COAT
statements is true? 369. What is the primary reason why blue tint is used to the base of
THE BOTH PHOSPHORESCENCE AND FLUOROSCENCE the radiographic film?
350. The developing time for screen-type film at 72˚ should be INCREASE PARALLAX EFFECT
_____minutes 370. The most important factor which affect film sensitometry
20 MINUTES includes ________?
351. The intensifying screen use the chemical phosphor known as A. ACTIVITY OF DEVELOPER
the B. TEMPERATURE OF DEVELOP
CALCIUM TUNGSTATE C. TIME OF DEVELOPMENT
352. Which of the following does not include in replenishment *ALL OF THE CHOICES
system? 371. This indicates the temperature within the processing tanks.
DISPLAY
HEAT EXCHANGERS
372. Which of the following functions to provide mechanical support
354. The fog level of unprocessed film is approximately how many
for silver halide crystals by holding them uniformly dispersed in
mR?
place?
0.2 mR
GELATIN
355. Total blackening of the finished radiograph 373. Poor film screen contact result in
A. OPTICAL DENSITY DECREASED DEFINITION
B. RADIOGRAPHIC DENSITY 374. In the automatic processor, the time that film is immersed in the
C. DENSITY developer is approximately _________ seconds
*ALL OF THE CHOICES 20
356. The purpose of rinse bath is to: 375. What type of imperfection where chemical impurity serves to
NEUTRALIZE THE DEVELOPER trap electron to begin the latent image center?
357. Remnant x-ray are those that SENSITIVITY SPECK
EXIT THE PATIENT 376. Compared with calcium tungstate, the rare earth screen has a
358. An increased in filtration from 1mm-Al will reduce the skin BETTER SPATIAL RESOLUTION
exposure rate to about. 378. Three of the following are factors that determine the activity of
1/5 the developer solution and one is not. Select the factor that does not
359. As a general rule, grids should be used in radiographing body determine the developer activity.
part AGITATION DURING DEVELOPMENT
GREATER THAN 12CM 379. What is the time and temperature required for developing the
360. When performing dry-cast radiography, as a general rule film in an automatic processor?
kilovoltage should be increased 85˚ FOR 20 SECONDS
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380. The purpose of the wetting agent is to

SOFTEN THE EMULSION
381. What is the very good vehicle for the silver compound?
GELATIN
382. Why is a high kV technique (above 90 kV) recommended for
gastrointestinal (GI) studies?
IT IS NEEDED TO PENETRATE THE CONTRAST MEDIUM
383. Cathode side will always have
1. GREATER PENUMBRA
2. REATER X-RAY INTENSITY PROJECTED
• I AND II ONLY
384. Which of the following is considered the simplest type of grid?
LINEAR GRID
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1. The purpose of the automatic processor’s circulation system is Excessive humidity

to? 24. What is added to the developer to prevent excessive softening
Agitate, mix, and filter solutions of the emulsion and its sticking to processor rollers?
2. If the developer temperature in the automatic processor is higher Glutaraldehyde
than normal, what will be the effect on the finished radiograph? 25. Unopened boxes of radiographic film should be stored away
Loss of contrast from radiation and
Increased density Vertical position
3. Treelike, branching black marks on a radiograph are usually the 26. When an automatic processor is started up at the beginning of
result of: the day, or restarted after an extended standby period, the
Static electricity technologist should process an:
4. The squeegee assembly in an automatic processor: Unexposed, undeveloped 14x17-in film
Functions to remove excess solution from films 27. What is the recommended storage for unexposed and
Is located near the crossover rollers unprocessed films?
5. Most common reflective layer chemicals 45 days
Titanium dioxide 28. Exposed silver halide crystals are changed to black metallic
6. Average wattage of bulbs used as darkroom safelight, silver by the:
15 watts Reducers
7. Suitable for both green and blue sensitive film 29.The function(s) of the fixer in film processing is/are to:
Red light emitting filter 1. Remove the unexposed silver bromide crystals
8. Considered as the film impurity 2. Harden the emulsion
Silver sulphide 30. A film emerging from the automatic processor exhibits
9. Light sensitive silver halide crystals excessive density. This may be attributed to which of the
Silver bromide following?
10. Silver and nitric acid will yield Developer temperature too high
Ag NO3 Chemical fog
11. Introduced the first automatic processor 31. Boxes of film stored in too warm an area may be subject to:
Pako Film fog
12. Processors which doesn’t require a darkroom 32. Which of the following will result if developer replenishment is
Dry processing inadequate?
13. The first chemical that will provide swelling of the sensitized Films with excessively low contrast
area of the film 33. The squeegee assembly in an automatic processor
Sodium carbonate Functions to remove excess solution from films
14. Provides cessation of the action of the reducing agents within Is located near the crossover rollers
the film emulsion in automatic processor 34.The developer temperature in a 90s automatic processor is
Acetic acid usually about
15. Prevents the unsensitized area of the film from being 90°-95°F
Reduced restrainer 35.In film storage, FIFO principle is observed. FIFO means
16. Controls the swelling of the emulsion due to an increased First In, First Out
temperature in automatic processing? 36. It functions to meter into each tank the proper amount of
Glutaraldehyde chemistry to maintain volume and chemical activity:
17. Chelates in fixing solution Replenishment system
Salt 37. This chemical component neutralizes the developer and stop
18. Archival quality is achieved specifically in what processing its action
stage? Activator
Fixing 38. It stiffens and shrinks the emulsion
19. Reducing agents readily contain Hardener
Electrons 39. It keeps unexposed crystals from being chemically attacked
20. The conversion of the invisible latent image into a visible Restrainer
manifest image take place in the 40. It controls the oxidation process
Developer Preservative
21. Conditions contributing to poor radiographic film archival quality 41. Removes the undeveloped silver bromide from the emulsion
include: Fixing agent
1. Fixer retention 42. Acts as the buffering agent of the fixer
2. Insufficient developer replenishment Acetate
3. Poor storage conditions 43. Reducing agent of the developer which is responsible for
22. The function of the developing solution is to: producing black tones slowly
Reduce the latent image to a manifest image Hydroquinone
23. X-ray film is packaged in a foil bag to protect it from
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44. Sequestering agent of the fixer which functions to remove silver Labyrinth
ions 67. Which of the following is true about single-door system,
Boric acids except?
45. The hardener in the fixer which maintains chemical balance Relatively expensive
Potassium alum 68. Darkroom temperature should be maintained at.
46. Removes metallic impurities in the developer 18 and 20 degree Celsius
Chelates 69. It serves as a buffer and starter and a source of hydrogen ions
47. Developer solution which functions as an anti-fog agent in a solution.
Potassium bromide Acetic acid
48. Removes undeveloped silver bromide from the emulsion 70. The purpose of the rinse bath is to:
Ammonium thiosulfate Remove developer
49. This sequence permits chemical penetration to the emulsion, 71. Two developing agents are combined to produce:
especially in manual processing 1. Good detail
Wetting 2. Moderate-to-high contrast
50. This is where the development is terminated 72. To properly develop a film manually, the radiographer must
Stop bath follow established:
51. This is where the hardening of the gelatin takes place 1. Time
Stop bath 2. Temperature
52. In this step, swelling of emulsion occurs 73. Film processing includes developing and:
Wetting Rinsing, fixing, washing and drying
53. This step removes the excess chemical from the emulsion after 74. The basic constitutes in a developer are:
developing 1. Accelearator
Rinsing 2. Preservative
54. A processing sequence where removal of the remaining silver 3. Developing agents
halide from the emulsion occurs: 75. Which of the following is used as reducing agent in the
Fixing developing solution?
55. Components of dry area are the following, except. 1. Elon
Master tank 2. Hydroquinone
56. Darkroom floor should be made of what flooring materials: 76. Which of the following chemicals may be used as an
1. Non-slip accelerator in the developing solution?
2. Non-porous 1. Sodium carbonate
3. Water repellent 2. Sodium hydroxide
57. Which part in a film processor which assures that the film will 77. Which of the following is not considered an organic reducing
remain properly aligned. agent?
Guide shoe Potassium alum
58. It is physical means of maintaining the level and activity of the 78. The purpose of the wetting agent is to:
processing solution. Reduce washing time
Replenishment 79. In order to provide increased concentration of solution in an
59. All are advantages of automatic processor, except. automatic processor, one uses the chemical:
Economical solution Phenidone
60. Jamming of the films somewhere in the roller transport system, 80. Agitation upon immersed of the film in the developer:
the radiographs would be firstly. Produces uniform development
Improperly developed and fixed 81. The hardener in the fixing solution is:
61. A chemical added to shrink and harden the film emulsion in Chrome alum
fixer. 82. The presence of the restrainer inhibits:
Potassium alum Over development
62. It is a polluting agent in fixer solution. 83. Conversion of the latent image to a metallic silver image is
Silver accomplished by:
63. Types of safelights that is usually located in the ceiling at a Development and fixation
height of 2 meter above the floor? 84. The transport system of an automatic film processor:
Indirect safelighting Moves the film through the processor at controlled speed
64. The standard safelight system used for darkroom is? 85. Which of the following chemicals prevents oxidation of the
7.5 to 15 watt with 6B wratten filter developing solution?
65. One of the factors affecting safelight is safe handling time. Sodium sulphite
What is the safe handling time of film under safelight condition? 86. The essential ingredients of the fixer are:
45 seconds Acid, hardener, hypo and preservative
66. There are four types of door entrance design, which among 87. Which of the following is component of wet section?
these four provide continuous ventilation for darkroom. 1. Processing tank
CLUSTER 2
2. Wash tank 45 seconds

3. Master tank 110. There are four types of door entrance design, which among
88. What is the activator in the developer? these four provide continuous ventilation for darkroom.
Sodium hydroxide Labyrinth
89. Which part in a film processor which assures that the film will 111. Darkroom temperature should be maintained at.
remain properly aligned. 18 and 20 degree Celsius
Guide shoe 112. It is the area where the unloading and loading of film from the
90. The emulsions get soft and swell during; cassettes takes place.
Developer Loading bench
91. It is physical means of maintaining the level and activity of the 113. It serves as a buffer and starter and a source of hydrogen
processing solution. ions in a solution.
Replenishment Acetic acid
92. The safelight that could be used with blue and green sensitive 114. Keep the solutions evenly mixed and provide chemical
emulsion; agitation.
Filter type GBX 2 Recirculation system
93. It acts as buffer and a source of alkali. 115. What are automatically added to the automatic processor to
Sodium carbonate compensate for the volume of work?
94. Jamming of the films somewhere in the roller transport system, Developer and fixer
the radiographs would be firstly. 116. Decreasing the developer temperature will result to.
Improperly developed and fixed Decrease density
95. Are advantages of automatic processor, except. 117. What is the part of automatic processor where it removes
Economical solutions moisture on the film?
96. Chemical that reduces oxidation. Drying chamber
Sodium sulfite 118. A smaller rack assembly composed of rollers and guide
97. It is a polluting agent in fixer solution. shoes.
Silver Crossover racks
98. The roller transport system includes the following, except. 119. The film to be processed is inserted into the automatic
Temperature control processor in the darkroom via .
99. Other component added to the basic developer if the developer Feed tray
is to be used in automatic processing. 120. What is the part of automatic processor in which the Rad
Hardener Tech get the radiograph for quality control inspection?
100. A fixer chemical that keeps reduce the drying time: Receiving bin
Aluminum sulfate 121. The fixing agent used to clear the undeveloped silver halide
101. Darkroom should be placed in imaging room in what location. crystal is
Centrally Aluminum thiosulfate
101. What is the required height for darkroom ceiling? 122. Fading or staining of the permanent image results when too much
2.5 - 3m remains on the film with improper washing.
102. There are two types of illumination, which one is used for Thiosulfate
cleaning the darkroom? 123. Safelight filters are chosen based on the
Ordinary lighting Film sensitivity
103. Types of safelights that is usually located in the ceiling at a 124. A common plus-density artifact caused from bending the film
height of 2 meter above the floor? is
Indirect safelighting Half-moon marks
104. Types of door entrance that does not required large amount of 125. A grid is usually employed in which of the following
space? circumstances
Rotating-door system 1. When radiographing a large or dense body part
105. What is the relative humidity to be maintained inside the 2. When using a high kilovoltage
darkroom? 126. Compared to a low grid, a high ratio grid will:
40 –60% relative humidity 1. Absorb more transmitted radiation
106. What is the minimum distance of safelamp from the working 2. Absorb more scattered radiation
surface, when direct safelighting is used? 127. Which of the following have an effect on recorded detail?
1.2 m 1. Focal spot size
107. What is the minimum floor area of the darkroom? 2. Type of rectification
10 square meter 128. Which of the following can impact the visibility of the anode
108. The standard safelight system used for darkroom is? heel effect?
7.5 to 15 watt with 6B wratten filter 1. SID
109. One of the factors affecting safelight is safe handling time. 2. Image recorded size
What is the safe handling time of film under safelight condition? 129. The line focus principle expresses the relationship between:
CLUSTER 2
The actual and effective focal spot Short scale of tone difference
130. With a given exposure, as intensifying screen speed 147. Primary beam filtration provides
decreases, how is radiographic density affected? Decreased contrast
Decrease 148. Collimators provides
131. Types of moving grid mechanisms include: Increased contrast
1. Oscillating 149. Using grid significantly
2. Reciprocating Decreases the quantity of the exit beam
132. If the radiographer is unable to achieve a short OID because 150. Which of the following is an efficient grid?
of the structure of the body part or patient condition, which of the 1. High grid frequency
following adjustments can be made to minimize magnification 2. High grid ratio
distortion? 151. The distance between the lead strips in a grid is equal to
A longer SID should be used The thickness of the interspace material
133. OID is related to recorded detail in which of the following 152. Air-gap technique, provides an effect on
ways? 1. Visibility of detail
Radiographic detail is inversely related to OID 2. Sharpness of detail
134. Radiographic recorded detail is directly related to: 153. Direct Digital Radiography is advantageous as it
SID Allows enhancement of image quality before the final print out
134. Which of the following factors contribute(s) to the efficient 154. Heel effect provides
performance of a grid? 1. Degradation of visibility of detail
1. Grid ratio 2. Degradation of sharpness of detail
2. Number of lead strips per inch 155. Constituent of the effective focal track
3. Amount of scatter transmitted through the grid X-ray photons
135. Which of the following would be useful for an examination of a 156. Using smaller focal spot will
patient suffering from Parkinson’s disease? Increase image sharpness
1. High-speed screens 157. Factors that affect the visibility of a radiographic image are
2. Short exposure time known as.
136. What is the best way to reduce magnification distortion? Photographic
Decrease OID 158. Heel effect results from
137. Which of the following will contribute to the production of 1. Target angulation inclined toward the cathode
longer-scale radiographic contrast? 2. Electrons traveling from the filament to the heel of
1. An increase in kVp the anode are just absorbed in the area
2. An increase in photon energy 3. More electrons are converted into x-rays at the top
138. Exposure rate increases with an increase in: dimension of the anode
1. mAs 159. Which of the following affects image distortion?
2. kVp 1. Object thickness
139. Which of the following will influence the recorded detail? 2. Object position
1. Screen speed 3. Object shape
2. Screen-film contact 160. Which of the following statement is TRUE?
3. Focal spot 1. With a thick object, the OID changes measurably across the
140. A focal spot size of 0.3 mm or smaller is essential for: object, thus thick objects are more distorted
Magnification radiography 2. If the object plane and the image plane are parallel, the
141. If a 6-inch OID is introduced during a particular radiographic image is not distorted
examination, what change in SID will be necessary to overcome 3. As the angle of object inclination increases, the amount of
objectionable magnification? foreshortening and elongation is more pronounced
The SID must be increased by 42 inches 161. Which of the following will increase radiographic contrast?
142. Which of the following has the greatest effect on radiographic Increasing the grid ratio
density? 162. Which of the following are methods of limiting the production
SID of scattered radiation?
143. Which of the following focal spot sizes should be employed 1. Using the prone position for abdominal exams
for magnification radiography? 2. Restricting the field size to the smallest practical
0.2 mm size
144. Recorded detail can be improved by decreasing: 163. Which of the following is/are essential to high-quality
1. The OID mammographic examinations?
2. Motion unsharpness 1. Small focal spot x-ray tube
145. Similar term of Source to Image Receptor Distance (SID)? 2. Long scale of contrast
FFD 164. Compared to a low-ratio grid, a high-ratio grid will:
146. A high contrast radiograph, displays 1. Absorb more primary radiation
2. Absorb more scattered radiation
CLUSTER 2
165. Using a short (25-30 –in) SID with a large (14x17-in) image 185. OID is related to recorded detail in which of the following
receptor is likely to: ways?
Increase the anode heel effect Radiographic detail is inversely related to OID
166. Which portion of the characteristic curve represents 186. When the use of grids is indicated in mammography, which of
overexposure of the film emulsion? the following would be most appropriate?
Shoulder portion 5:1 moving grid
166. In general, as the intensification factor increases, 187. Which of the following radiographic accessories functions to
Radiographic density increases produce uniform density on a radiograph?
167. Misalignment of the tube-part –film relationship results in: Compensating filter
Shape distortion 189. A radiograph made with a parallel grid demonstrates
168. Which of the following have an effect on recorded detail? decreased density on its lateral edges. This is most likely due to
1. Focal spot size Decreased SID
2. SID 190. The following are factors affecting the geometric detail,
169. Which of the following can affect demonstration of the anode EXCEPT:
heel effect? Use of grid
1. SID 191. Which among the following factors affect/s the visibility of the
2. Image receptor size image detail
170. Which of the following is most likely to produce a radiograph Use of grid
with a long scale of contrast? 192. The positions of the following items below are considered as
Increased photon energy the factors governing the distortion of the image detail, EXCEPT:
171. SID affects recorded detail in which of the following ways? Collimator
Recorded detail is directly related to SID 193. It refers to the AOI that appears larger than normal due to the
172. Types of moving grid mechanisms include: poor alignment of the factors governing the distortion of the image
1.Oscillating detail
2. Reciprocating Elongation
173. Which of the following is/are causes of grid cut-off when using 194. It refers to the AOI that appears smaller than normal due to
reciprocating grids? the poor alignment of the factors governing the distortion of the
Inadequate SID image detail
174. Foreshortening of an anatomic structure means that it is Foreshortening
Projected on the film shorter than its actual size 195. A grid ratio is determined by the relationship of:
175. Focal spot blur is greatest Height & width
Toward the cathode end of the x-ray beam 196. The higher the grid ratio, the greater the:
176. A focal spot size of 0.3 mm or smaller is essential for Clean-up of the grid
Magnification radiography 197. High ratio grids, in the control of radiographic quality
178. The variation in photon distribution between the anode and Filters high % of scatter radiation
cathode ends of the x-ray tube is known as: 198. In a grid which has lead strips 0.25mm apart and 4mm high,
The anode heel effect the grid ratio is:
179. Foreshortening can be caused by: 16:1
The radiographic object being placed at an angle to the film 199. Using a grid upside down will cause
180. Types of shape distortion include: Uniform lack of OD
1. Elongation 200. As a general rule, grid should be used in
2. Foreshortening Thickness of the body.
181. Although the stated focal spot size is measured directly under >12cm
the actual focal spot, focal spot size really varies along the length 201. The primary purpose of the grid
of the x-ray beam. At which portion of the x-ray beam is the Improve contrast
effective focal spot the largest? 202. A radiograph is made from 8:1 grid. If a 16:1 grid replaces the
At the anode end original 8:1 grid, to maintain the same OD we need to:
182. A decrease in recorded detail may be expected with a Increase amount of radiation
decrease in 203. As a general rule, a change in thickness of a body part per 1
SID cm will require kVp compensation.
183. Recorded detail can be improved by decreasing: 2
1. The OID 204. Which of the following factors will produce the greatest detail
2. Motion unsharpness unsharpness?
184. Which of the following devices is used to overcome severe Motion
variation in patient anatomy or tissue density, providing more 205. Geometric unsharpness is controlled primarily by:
uniform radiographic density? Increased OID
Compensating filter 206. Motion unsharpness is controlled primarily by:
CLUSTER 2
1. Respiration suspension 227. Which one of the following increases as field size increases?
2. Decreased exposure time Density
207. The inverse square law states that: 228. Acts as support for all the layers of intensifying screen is
Intensity of radiation varies inversely to the square of the SID. called.
208. Using the inverse square law, when the SID is doubled, Base
Radiation intensity will decrease to ¼ 229. Factors that affect the visibility of a radiographic image are
209. Controlling factors to obtain sharpness of the image detail known as.
1. Focal spot Photographic
2. SID 230. Which of the following factors when decreased will increase
3. OID density?
210. Distortion can be caused by 1. Grid ratio
1. Tube angle 2. Part thickness
2. The position of the organ or structure within the body 231. How will radiographic density affected when the SID is
3. The radiographic positioning of the part decreased by half?
211. It refers an accessory device used to confine the beam of the Increased
immediate examination to minimize the secondary radiation and 232. A radiographic image described as having many shades of
limit exposure area: gray would be.
Beam restrictor Low contrast
212. Which of the following devices will reduce radiographic 233. The visible differences between adjacent radiographic define.
contrast? Contrast
Filters 234. Which of the following will increase radiographic contrast?
213. What is the most common and most common error in grid Increasing the grid ratio
positrioning? 235. Radiographic contrast can be increased by.
Off-focus error Adding contrast media
214. It is also referred to as the lateral decentering 236. Recorded detail is defined as.
Off-center error Accuracy of structural lines recorded
215. This grid problem is caused by an improperly positioned grid 237. The relationship between focal spot size and distance results
at a specified SID in.
Off-level error Geometric unsharpness
216. It is a spring loaded type of grid and requires a manual 238. Increasing the SID will;
cocking before each exposure Increase recorded detail
Moving 239. Decreasing the OID will;
217. Grids that can be carried around the hospital Increase recorded detail
Stationary 240. Using a larger focal spot size has what effect on the
218. It is the simplest type of grid radiographic image?
Linear parallel grid Decreases recorded detail
219. This grid is constructed with a specific SID that must be 241. Shape distortion can be created by.
followed Angling the CR
Focused grid 242. Which of the following has the most detrimental effect on the
220. Among the types of grid, this is the most difficult to recorded detail of the image?
Manufacture and therefore expensive focused grid Motion
221. Has higher contrast improvement factor 243. When making a significant increase in collimation.
Crossed grid mAs should be increased
222. It is defined as the ratio of contrast of radiograph made with 244. Which one of the following increases as collimation
the grid to the contrast of the radiograph made without grid increases?
Grid frequency Contrast
223. It indicates how much of an increase in patient dosage 245. The purpose of a grid in radiography is to
Accompanies the use of a particular grid ratio Increase contrast
224. The ratio of transmitted primary radiation to transmitted 246. Grid ratio is defined as the ratio of the
scattered radiation Height of the lead strips to the distance between them
Factor 247. Grid cut-off, regardless of the cause, is most recognizable
225. A graphical representation that plots the relationship between radiographically as reduced.
OD and radiation exposure Density
H & D curve 248. The air gap technique uses an increased instead of a grid.
226. It produced a satisfactory radiographic density minimizing OID
patient dose.
Intensifying screen
CLUSTER 2
249. According to the Gurney-Mott theory of latent image 266. Close collimation will help control:
formation, electrons liberated by radiation or light exposure are Radiographic fog
Attracted to the sensitivity speck 267. Which of the following devices are employed to reduce
250. Poor film-screen contact results in a loss of patient exposure to x-rays?
Recorded detail 1. Collimators 2. Filters
251. What term is defined as a measurement of the amount of light 268. A 16:1 grid compared to an 8:1 grid will:
transmitted through the film? Absorb more secondary radiation
Optical density 269. Which of the following has a direct effect on the efficiency of a
252. What is the diagnostic range of optical densities? bucky grid in removing scattered radiation?
0.50 to 2.0 Grid ratio
253. Changes in exposure have little effect on density in which of 270. When radiographing the abdomen, which of the following
the following regions of the sensitometric curve? would decrease the production of scatter radiation?
1. Toe Proper collimation
2. Shoulder 271. Unabsorbed radiation is also called:
254. When the exposure technique used produces densities Remnant
outside the straight-line portion of a sensitometric curve, how is 272. Which type of grid has lead lines running only in one
contrast affected? direction?
Decreased Linear
255. What is defined as pre-established guidelines used to select 273. Grid ratio is expressed by which of the following formulas?
standardized exposure factors? R= H/D
Exposure technique chart 274. The use of a grid will protect the:
256. A primary goal of exposure technique charts is to Film from scattered radiation
Consistently produce quality images 275. The heel effect becomes more pronounced as the:
257. Among of the following is an important condition required for 1. Anode angle decrease
a technique charts to be effective? 2. Film size increase
Equipment must be calibrated to perform properly 3. Focus-film distance decrease
258. Which of the following factors will decrease radiographic 276. Which of the following are affected by filtration of the x-ray
contrast the most? beam?
Lack of collimation 1. Exposure rate
259. The line focus principle, which has been used in the 2. HVL
manufacture of x-ray tubes for about 50 years, is slightly 277. Aluminum filtration modifies the x-ray beam by removing most
disadvantageous in that the effective focal spot size varies across of the:
the beam. At which point in the beam does the effective focal spot Longer wavelength rays
appear smallest? 178. The primary function of filters in an x-ray machine is to:
At the anode edge of the beam Reduce the patient’s exposure to low-energy x-rays
260. Radiographic contrast is so very important in the perception 279. The relationship between the intensity of incident light falling
of image detail that special attention must be given to ensure an on one side of a processes film and the intensity of the light
adequate level when a contrast medium is not being used. All of transmitted through the film is a measure of radiographic:
the following will alter radiographic contrast, except: Density
Increasing FFD or SID 280. An increase in film density results an increase in:
261. The air-gap technique improves: mAs
Radiography contrast 281. Why is a high kV technique (above 90 kV) recommended for
262. The density on a radiograph can be doubled by: gastrointestinal (GI) studies?
Increasing the mAs by 30% It is needed to penetrate the contrast medium
263. Which of the following conditions can produce a fog-like 282. Which of the following changes would have a dramatic effect
image on a finished radiograph? in on radiographic contrast?
1. Improper safelights Changing from a tabletop to a 12:1 grid
2. A low ratio grid used with a high kV technique 283. When a film demonstrates long scale contrast because of
3. Improper collimations over penetration, the appropriate change to restore a shorter scale
264. Which type of grid should be used to maintain contrast when of contrast would be:
using 125- 150 kV? Decrease kilovoltage
16:1 284. Which of the following directly affects definition?
265. Which of the following has an effect on the production of 1. Focal spot size
secondary and scattered radiations? 2. OFD
1. Thickness of the part being x-rayed 285. The smaller the effective focal spot the:
2. Density of the tissue being x-rayed Sharper the radiographic image
3. Kilovoltage
CLUSTER 2
286. Which of the following factors does not affect image Patient
sharpness recorded detail? 305. Exposure-type artifacts include:
Kilovoltage Motion
287. Definition, as applied to radiography, refers to: 306. Radiographic contrast is a result of:
Sharpness or clarity of the image 1. Differential absorption
289. Which of the following exerts the greatest control on 2. Emulsion characteristics
radiographic definition? 307. X-ray photon beam attenuation is influenced by:
Size of the tube focal spot 1. Tissue type
290. Radiographic definition is lost when a film demonstrates 2. Subject thickness
excessive: 3. Photon quality
Motion 308. Which of the following is/are associated with subject contrast?
1. Patient thickness
291. Which of the following combinations results in the best 2. Tissue density
definition? 3. Kilovoltage
Slow-speed screens and a 1mm focal spot 309. High kilovoltage exposure factors are usually requires for
292. Which of the following are methods of limiting the production radiographic examinations using:
of scattered radiation? Barium sulphate
1. Using the prone position for abdominal examinations 310. Which of the following affect(s) both the quantity and the
2. Restricting the field size to the smallest practical size quality of the primary beam?
293. Decreasing the field size from 14x17 inches into 8x10 inches kVp
will: 311. An increase in the kilovoltage applied to an x-ray tube
Decrease radiographic density and decrease the amount of increases the:
scattered radiation generated within the part Exposure rate
294. In radiography of a large abdomen, which of the following is 312. It is the amount of kVp that should be given as one of the
(are) effective way(s) to minimize the amount of scattered radiation exposure factors in obtaining an optimum penetration on
reaching the IR? Acertain radiographic examination base kVp
1. Use of close collimation 313. Intensity of scattered radiation from the patient
2. Use of compression devices Decreases with increased tissue density
295. In general, as the intensification factor increases: 314. The charge of a Bremsstrahlung radiation
Radiographic density increases No charge
296. In comparison to 60 kVp, 80 kVp will? 315. Increasing the mAs, is tantamount to
1. Permit greater exposure latitude 1. Increasing the electron production of the filament
2. Produce longer scale contrast 2. Increasing the amount of x-rays produced
3. Produce more scattered radiation 3. Increasing the x-ray quantity
297. Misalignment of the tube-part-IR relationship results in: 316. In order to compensate for the optical density in an increased
Shape distortion changed distance, the mAs will (be),
298. Which of the following is most likely to produce a radiograph Increased
with a long scale of contrast? 317. With increased kVp, optical density
Increase photon energy Increases
299. Which of the following technical changes would best serve to 318. What is the low energy remnant rays accompanying the
remedy the effect of widely different tissue densities photoelectron?
High kVp exposure factors Characteristic radiation
300. A 15% increase in kVp accompanied by 50% decrease in 319. Which of the following will categorically provide added film
mAs will result in a(n): density or fog?
Increase in exposure latitude 1. Scattered radiation
301. Focal spot blur is greatest: 2. Recoiled photon
Toward the cathode end of the x-ray beam 320. Increasing the production of low energy remnant rays,
302. Which of the following is/are method(s) that would enable the Deteriorates radiographic contrast
radiographer to reduce the exposure time required for a particular 321. Low energy remnant radiation which is very detrimental to the
radiograph? radiographic contrast, is categorically produced during
1. Use higher mA Compton interaction
2. Use higher kVp 322. An interaction of x-ray with matter in which there is ionization
3. Use faster screen-film combination of the K-shell orbital electron of the interacted atom,
303. Why is very short exposure time essential in chest Photoelectric interaction
radiography? 323. Exposure factor which determines the type of x-ray interaction
To minimize involuntary motion with matter?
304. The primary source of scattered radiation is the: kVp
CLUSTER 2
324. Exposure time is described as 340. Which of the following pathologic conditions would require an
Directly proportional with overall radiographic density increase in exposure factors?
325. kVp increases radiographic density by Ascites
Increasing x-ray quality 341. How are mAs and radiographic density related in the process
326. Which of the following factors when decreased will increase of image formation?
density? mAs and radiographic density are directly proportional
1. Grid ratio 342. Which of the following can result from improper film storage
2. Part thickness or darkroom conditions?
327. The advantage(s) of high-voltage chest radiography is/are 1. Safelight fog
that 2. Background radiation fog
1. Exposure latitude is increased 343. Because of the anode heel effect, the intensity of the x-ray
2. It produces long-scale contrast beam is greatest along the:
3. It reduces patient dose Cathode end of the beam
328. Greater latitude is available to the radiographer in which of 344. Which of the following is performed to check the correctness
the following circumstances? of the developing parameters?
1. Using high-kVp technical factors Sensitometry
2. Using a slow film/screen combination 345. Below are the steps involved during production of x-rays.
3. Using a low-ratio grid Arrange the steps from the first to the last process:
329. The relationship between the intensity of light striking a film 2.Production of electrons
and the intensity of light transmitted through the film is an 4. Focusing of electrons
expression of which of the following? 1. Acceleration of electrons
Radiographic density 346. Deceleration of the moving electrons 2,4,1,3
330. With a given exposure, as intensifying screen speed 347. General effect of scattered x-rays to image production:
decreases, how is radiographic density affected? Decrease resolution
Decreases 348. The term for the degree of black and white of a radiograph
331. High kilovoltage exposure factors are usually required for Contrast
radiographic examinations using: 349. The technique factor use in patient with fiber glass splint with
Barium sulfate equal proportion to plaster
332. Which of the following factors influence(s) the production of Increase mAs with 50% and kVp by 8%
scattered radiation? 350. Controls the overall darkness of the radiograph
1. Kilovoltage level mAs
2. Tissue density 351. When taking orthopedic patient with wet cast
3. Size of field 3x increase mAs or 22% in kVp
333. A 15% increase in kVp accompanied by a 50% decrease in 352. The term for the degree of blackening of a radiograph
mAs will result in a(n) Density
Increase in exposure latitude 353. To increase kVp from 70 to 80, it requires a change in mAs
334. A particular mAs, regardless of the combination of mA and by:
time, will produce the same radiographic density. This is a ½ the mAs
statement of the: 354. As a general rule, when performing dry cast x-ray, mAs
Reciprocity law should be increased to
335. In which of the following examinations should 70 kVp not be 15 %
exceeded? 355. The 15% rule in radiography indicates that
Intravenous pyelogram (IVP) Reduce the mAs to ½ and add 15% more to kVp
336. Using fixed mAs and variable kVp technical factors, each 356. Factors used for post mortem radiography
centimeter increase in patient thickness requires what adjustment 30-50% increase in mAs
in kilovoltage? 357. When repeating a radiograph to correct for a density error, it
Increase 2 kVp is recommended to adjust the mAs by a factor of.
337. Factor(s) that can be used to regulate radiographic density 2
is/are 358. Voluntary motion caused by mental illness or age can be
1. Milliamperage controlled only by:
2. Exposure time Speed of exposure
3. Kilovoltage 359. The presence of ascites will result in an increase of:
338. The number of x-ray photons delivered to the patient in a Scattered radiation
given exposure is primarily regulated by 359. Which of the following qualities of a radiographic film with be
mAs most improved by the use of compression band applied to areas
339. An increase in kilovoltage will serve to with excessive amounts of soft tissue?
Produce a longer scale of contrast Contrast
CLUSTER 2
360. Which of the following is equivalent to doubling the mAs? 378. Relative intensifying screen speed is reduced with
Increasing the kVp by 15% 1. Reduced exposure factor application
361. What is the relationship between milliamperage and exposure 2. Increased film speed
time to maintain density? 379. Base plus fog should not exceed with an optical density of
Inverse 0.25
362. What factors has the most direct effect on radiographic 380. Optical density is best evaluated with what instrument?
contrast? Densitometer
kVp 381. Making the base of the film thinner will result in?
363. The response of film to radiation and subsequent processing Decreased crosstalk
is referred to as the photographic effect. Which of the following is 382. Addition of a reflective layer in the intensifying screen will,
the formula that combines the factors that produce that effect Increase density
(where FFD stands for focus- film distance and s stands for 383. Results in the emission of visible light during the period when
seconds)? x ray sensitizes the intensifying screens fluorescent chemicals,
mA X s X kV2 / FFD2 Fluorescence
364. The technologists can use many methods to increase 384. The most active layer of the intensifying screen
radiographic density and each one has a slightly different effect on Phosphor
image quality. Which of the following will have the same density 385. Occurs as a light emission even after x-ray stimulation
effect as doubling the mAs? Phosphorescence
365. When a slow screen-film system is used with a fast screen- 386. Providing the same amount of x-ray intensity to a different
film automatic exposure control system, the resulting images: phosphor crystal size, which will provide more light emission?
Are too light Large crystal
366. Most laser film must be handled 387. A low energy x-ray machine used in examining complex
In total darkness anatomical structure is suitable with:
367. The portion of a CR cassette that records the radiologic 1. Detail speed intensifying screen
image is the: 2. Rare-earth phosphor intensifying screen
Photostimulable phosphor 389. Which of the following emit green light spectrum?
368. Unopened boxes of radiographic film should be stored away Terbium activated Gadolinium oxysulfide
from the radiation and: 390. Spectral matching is related with the wavelength of light
In the vertical position Emission by the intensifying screen
369. What determines the quantity of fluorescent light emitted from 391. Which of the following light spectrum is associated with a 400
the fluorescent screen? nm wavelength?
1. Thickness of phosphor layer Ultraviolet/violet
2. Type of phosphor used 392. What is the average conversion efficiency of x-rays into light
3. kV range used for exposure by most intensifying screens?
370. The continued emission of light by a phosphor after the 5-10%
activating source has ceased is termed: 393. When orbital electron of a phosphor atom is raised into an
Phosphorescence excited state, an energy is released and is observable as
371. A change from 100 speed screens to 200 speed screens Phosphorescence
would require what change in mAs? 394. A filter specifically designed only for blue sensitive film
mAs should be halved Wratten 6B
372. Base-plus-fog is a result of: 395. Film speed is increased with
1. Blue-tinted film base 1. Large silver halide crystals
2. Chemical development 2. Tabular and flat crystals
3. The manufacturing process 396. A condition where the film becomes more sensitive to light
373. Slow speed screens are used: photons
To image fine anatomic details Latensification
374. What effect will a stained intensifying screen have on the 397. Raw material of the gelatin used in film’s emulsion
finished radiograph? Calf skin
Decrease density 398. Radiation sensitive film is otherwise known as
375. Which of the following terms is used to describe unsharp 1. Direct exposure film
edges of radiographic details? 2. Non-screen film
Blur 399. Sensitivity speck is considered to have a very significant
376. Compression of the breast during mammographic imaging function in latent image formation, such as:
improves the technical quality of the image because: 1. It act as the trap for the negative bromine ions after it
1. Geometric blurring separates from the silver ions
2. Less scattered radiation 2. It act as the provider of electrons in the silver lattice
3. Patient motion is reduced 3. It proves positivity in the film surface
CLUSTER 2
400. What will take place in the silver crystal lattice of the film after 418. Which of the following can be used to determine the
light absorption? sensitivity of a particular film emulsion?
Liberation of bromine ions Sensitometric
402. When the sensitivity specks are with bromine ions in its 419. A wire mesh test is performed to diagnose screen
vicinity, what will be the charge of the sensitivity speck at this Contact
moment? 420. The device used to give a film a predetermined exposure in
Negative order to test its response to processing is called the
403. It is the response of the film from a varying intensity of x-rays, Sensitometer
thus providing a proportional optical density change film latitude 421. Image receptors/cassettes frequently have a lead foil layer
404. Describe as the property of the base to be resistant from behind the rear screen that functions to
warping and physical damages due to handling Absorb backscatter
Dimensional stability 422. All of the following statements regarding CR (computed
405. A disadvantage of a double coated emulsion and thicker base radiography) cassettes are true, except
material CR cassettes must exclude all white light
Parallax effect 423. A change from 100-speed screens to 200-speed screens
406. Factors that contribute to film fog include: would require what change in mAs?
1. The age of the film mAs should be halved
2. Excessive exposure to safelight
3. Processor chemistry
407. In order to be suitable for use in intensifying screens, a 424. Which of the following is/are classified as rare-earth
phosphor should have which of the following characteristics? phosphors?
1. High conversion efficiency 1. Lanthanum oxybromide
2. High x-ray absorption 2. Gadolinium oxysulfide
3. High atomic number 425. Which of the following can affect the amount of developer
408. Quantum mottle is most when using replenisher delivered per film in an automatic processor?
Rare-earth screen Film size
409. What determines the quantity of fluorescent light emitted from 426. What is the purpose of the thin layer of lead that is often
a fluorescent screen? located behind the rear intensifying screen in an image receptor?
1. Thickness of the phosphor layer To prevent scattered radiation fog
2. Type of phosphor used 427. Speed of Intensifying Screen and Radiographic Film that is
3. kV range used for exposure commonly used in conventional x-ray
410. What will result from using single-emulsion film in an image Pars speed
receptor having a two intensifying screens? 428. The recommended fog level for unexposed, unprocessed
Decreased density radiographic film
411. The image receptor front can be made of which of the 0.2mR
following materials? 429. Radiographic films that will be stored for a long period of time
1.Carbon fiber 2. Magnesium must be stock in a room:
412. The continued emission of light by a phosphor after the With a temperature of <10 degrees Celsius
activating source has ceased is termed: 430. These are the rare-earth elements which are commonly used
Phosphorescence for manufacturing IS:
413. Materials that emit light when stimulated by x-ray photons are 1. Lanthanum 2. Yttrium
called: 431. The phosphor most commonly used in manufacturing IS
Phosphors Calcium tungstate
414. The term spectral matching refers to the fact that film 432. IS is composed of all of the following, EXCEPT:
sensitivity must be matched with the: Emulsion
Proper color screen fluorescence 433. Mounted in the cassette and glow with visible light when
415. An unexposed and processed film will have a density of about struck by radiation
0.1 Intensifying Screen
416. The sensitometric curve may be used to: 434. Layer of the IS that is the farthest from the film
1. Identify automatic processing problems Base
2. Determine film sensitivity 435. The term for the emission of light in response to some outside
3. Illustrate screen speed stimulation
417. What combination of exposure factors and image receptor Luminescence
speed would best function to reduce quantum mottle? 436. Phosphor used by Roentgen during x-ray discovery
1. Increased mAs Barium platinocyanide
2. Decreased kVp 437. As screen speed increases, radiation dose to patient
3. Slow-speed screens Decreases
CLUSTER 2
438. As screen exposure increases, density 470. What is the atomic number for silver?
Increases 47
439. The faster the IS speed, light emitted 471. The following are the factors affecting the performance
Increases characteristics of x-ray film, except:
450. As screen speed increases, density The thickness of the emulsion
Increases 472. What is the silver halide crystal reaction equation?
451. As screen speed decreases, contrast AgNO3 + KBr → AgBr ↓ + KNO3
Decreases 473. Which of the substances does not emit light when bombarded
452. Refers to the randomness with which a low number of x-ray by x-rays?
photon interacting with IS Silver halide
Structure mottle 474. X-ray films are categorized according to their spectral
453. Orthocromatic films are sensitive to visible light spectrums to sensitivity of emulsion, except.
what light color? Panoramic film
1. Green 475. The green-sensitive film is subdivided into three; these are
2. Blue the following.
3. Violet 1. Short 2. Medium 3. Long
454. Prematurely removed films from the developer, causes; 476. Orthochromatic films are sensitive to visible light spectrums to
Underdeveloped what light color?
455. The safelight that could be used with blue and green sensitive Green
emulsion; 477. A gelatine mixture containing silver halide compounds is
Filter type GBX 2 called.
456. In order to protect the sensitive silver emulsion film must be Emulsion
stored in a cool and dry are from; 478. Have a higher absorption efficiency screen at the mean x-ray
50 to 70°F energies normally used in radiology.
457. If a radiographic film is processing without being exposed, its Rare earth screen
appearance will be. 479. What is the part of the cassettes that prevent back scatter
Completely transparent radiation that could increase radiation dose to patient?
458. Materials found in the emulsion of direct exposure x-ray film: High-Z back
Silver bromide 480. What is the part of intensifying screen located between the
459. Giving of light without heat is called. phosphor layers?
Luminescence Base of the IS
460. Record the image output of an image intensifier onto 70mm 481. What is the part of the IS provides tight contact between the
and 105 mm roll film. film and the screen?
Photo spot films Contact felt
461. Two methods were used to prevent the halation effect on 482. It allows the primary beam to past thru easily on the
film, what are these methods. cassettes.
1. Adding dye to the non-curl backing Low-Z front
2. Using blue sensitive film 483. What is the part of the film between the silver halide crystal
462. The size of film used for cine film. layers?
1.) 16mm 2.) 35mm Base of the Film
463. What do you call the layer before the base? 484. The layer of intensifying screen that contains an active
1. Subbing layer 2 . Adhesive layer ingredient that when struck by radiation it emits light is.
464. The country in Europe that supplies a high quality of glass Phosphor layer
use as radiographic base; 485. What is the size of light emitting layer of intensifying screen?
Belgium 150 to 300 micrometer
465. What is the size of the polyester emulsion? 486. What is the layer of intensifying screen with a 1,000
175micrometer micrometer size?
466. What is the composition of silver halide crystals? Base
1. Silver bromide 487. Which of the following is an example of dual emulsion film?
2. Silver iodide Medical x-ray film
3. Silver chloride 489. Silver bromide is sensitive only, to which of the following?
467. Silver bromide is sensitive only, to which of the following? Blue light
Blue light 490. In 1920’s and early 1930’2 many hospital fires were caused
468. The speed of emulsion is governed by. by this type of base due to improper handling and storage of x-ray
Grain size film, the name of the film base being used during that time.
469. What are the two components of polyesters? Cellulose nitrate
Ethylene glycol and dimethyl terephthalate 491. What is the thickness of film base used for medical x-ray?
CLUSTER 2
0.018mm
492. What is the impurity in the shape and lattice of the silver
halide crystal that results to imaging property of this crystal?
Sensitivity specks
493. A radiograph that has insufficient density would best be
described as.
Underexposed
494. The purpose of intensifying screens is to
Decrease patient dose
495. The most common phosphor material used in today’s
intensifying screens is
Rare earth elements
496. Which of the following solutions are responsible for reducing
the exposed silver halide crystals to black metallic silver?
1. Hydroquinone 2. Phenidone
497. The pH environment required for proper development of the
exposed film is
Alkaline
498. Finished radiographs should retain what percentage of their
moisture?
20% to 30%
499. Under what environmental conditions should radiographic film
be stored?
1. Temperature between 50 and 70 degrees F
2. Relative humidity between 40% and 60%
500. The sharpness with which the details of the radiographic
image are recorded will be influenced by
1. Film-screen contact
2. Screen speed
3. FFD
501. Numerous changes can be made in the construction of an
intensifying screen in order to change its speed. These changes
are not under the technologist’s control. Which of the construction
characteristics listed below will reduce the speed of an intensifying
screen?
Dye added to the binder of the active layer
502. Which of the following would be most helpful in attenuating
backscatter?
Lead-foil cassette backing
503. The manifest image is composed of:
Metallic silver
CLUSTER 2
1. What is/are characteristic/s of squeegee assembly in an 20. Which of the following is (are) cause/s of grid cut off when using
automatic processor? reciprocating grids?
1. Functions to remove excess solution from films. Inadequate SID
2. Is located near the crossover rollers. 21. Which of the following will result if developer replenishment is
2. Radiographic contrast is a result of inadequate?
1. Differential tissue absorption. Films with excessively low contras
2. Emulsion characteristics. 22. Radiographic recorded details is directly related to:
3. Which of the following is (are) characteristic(s) of a 16:1 grid? SID
1. It absorbs a high percentage of scattered radiation. 23. Which of the following terms is used to describe unsharp edges of
2. It has little positioning latitude. tiny radiographic details?
3. It is used with high-kVp exposures. Blur
4. Foreshortening of an anatomic structure means that 24. Factors that can be used to regulate radiographic density is (are)
It is projected on the film shorter than its actual size. 1. mA
5. Films coming from the automatic processor still damp can be 2. exposure time
due to: 3. kVp
Insufficient hardening action, 25. Which of the following is performed to check the correctness of the
6. In comparison to 60 kVp, 80 kVp will developing parameters?
1. Permit greater exposure latitude Sensitometry
2. Produce longer-scale contrast, 26. Which of the following is (are) classified as rare earth phosphors?
3. Produce more scatter radiation, 1. Lanthanum oxybromide
7. Exposed silver halide crystals are changed to black metallic 2. Gadolinium oxysulfide
silver by the 27.What is the best way to reduce magnification distortion?
Reducers Decrease OID
8. Image receptors / cassettes frequently have lead foil layer 28. Radiographic contrast is a result of:
behind the rear screen to functions: 1. Differential tissue absorption
Absorb backscatter. 2. Emulsion characteristics
9. Because of the anode heel effect, the intensity of the x-ray 29. With a given exposure, the intensifying screen speed decreases,
beam is greatest along the: how is radiographic density:
Cathode end of the beam Decreases
10. Which of the following examinations might require the use of 30. Which of the following contribute to the radiographic contrast
120 kVp? present on the finished radiograph?
1. Chest radiograph 1. Atomic number of tissues radiographed
2. Barium filled stomach 2. Any pathologic process
11. How is SID related to exposure rate and radiographic density? 3. Degree of muscle development
As SID increases, exposure rate decreases and radiographic 31. An unexposed and processed film will have a density of about:
density decreases 0.1
12. A radiograph made with a parallel grid demonstrates 32. X-ray film is packaged in a foil bag to protect it from:
decreased density on its lateral edges. This is most likely due to: Excessive humidity
Decreased SID 33. Which of the following technical changes would best serve to remedy
13. Which of the following chemical used in the production of the effect of widely different tissue densities?
radiographic film emulsion? High kVp exposure factors
Silver halide 34. Exposure rate increases with an increase in:
14. Which of the following influences geometric unsharpness? 1. kVp 2. .SID
1. OID 35. 35. The microswitch for controlling the amount of replenishment used
2. Focal object distance in an automatic processor is located at the:
3. SID 36. Entrance roller
15. Using a short SID with a large image receptor is likely to: 36. The relationship between the intensity of light striking a film and
Increase anode heel effect the intensity of light transmitted through the film is an expression of
16. The function of the fixer in film processing are: which of the following?
1. Remove unexposed silver bromide crystals Radiographic density
2. Hardens emulsion 37. A focal spot size of 0.3 mm or smaller is essential for:
17. Types of shape distortion include: Magnification radiography
1. Elongation 38. Exposure type artifacts include/s:
2. Foreshortening Motion
18. Chemical fog may be attributed to: 39. The major function of filtration is to reduce:
1. Excessive developer temperature Patient dose
2. Oxidized developer 40. Where does conversion of the invisible latent image into a visible
3. Excessive replenishment manifest image take place?
19. Which of the following refers to light being reflected from one intensifyingDeveloper
screen through the film to the opposite emulsion and screen? 41. Which is/are parts of the daily recommendations for processor
Crossover quality control?
1. Sensitometric testing
2. Temperature checks
CLUSTER 2
3. Crossover rack cleaning 1. Use of close collimation
42. Which of the following have an effect on recorded detail? 2. Use of compression devices
1. Focal spot size 60. Factors that contribute to film fog include:
2. SID 1. The age of the film
43. Which of the following materials may be used as grid 2. Excessive exposure to safelight
interspace material? 3. Processor chemistry
1. Plastic 2. Aluminium 61. The relationship between the height of the grid lead strips and
44. When the use of grids is indicated in mammography, which of the distance between them is referred to as: Grid ratio
the following would be most appropriate? 62. Misalignment of the tube part film relationship results in:
5:1 moving grid Shape distortion
45. When green sensitive rare earth screen are properly matched 63. Grid cut-off due to off-centering would result in:
with the correct film, what type of safelight should be used in Overall loss of density
darkroom 64. If the radiographer is unable to achieve a short OID because of
GBX or GS1 the structure of the body part or patient condition, which of the
46. Focal spot blur is greatest following adjustment can be made to minimize magnification
Towards the cathode end of the x-ray beam distortion?
47. A changed from 100-speed screens to 200-speed screens A longer SID should be used
would require what change in mAs? 65. Compression of the breast during mammographic imaging
mAs should be halved improves the technical quality of the image because
48. Which of the following device is used to overcome severe 1. Geometric blurring is decreased.
variation in patient anatomy or tissue density, providing more 2. Less scatter radiation is produced.
uniform radiographic density? 3. Patient motion is reduced
Compensating filter 66. Foreshortening of an anatomic structure means that
49. Which of the following can affect demonstration of the anode It is projected on the film shorter than its actual size.
heel effect? 67. For which of the following examinations can the anode heel
1. SID effect be an important consideration?
2. Image receptor size 1. Lateral thoracic spine
50. Unopened boxes of radiographic film should be stored away 2. AP femur
from radiation and: 68. Screen / film imaging is one example of a(n)
In the vertical position Analog system
51. Most laser films must be handled: 69. The cause of films coming from the automatic processor still
In total darkness damp can be
52. A particular mAs, regardless of the combination of mA and time Insufficient hardening action.
will reproduce the same radiographic density, this is a stament of 70. A wire mesh test is performed to diagnose screen Contact
the: 71. Film base is currently made of which of the following materials?
Reciprocity Law Polyester
53. A film emerging from the automatic processor exhibits 72. The developer temperature in a 90-s automatic processor is
excessive density. This may be attributable to which of the usually about
following? 90 to 95°F
1. Developer too high 73. SID affects recorded detail in which of the following ways?
2. Chemical fog Recorded detail is directly related to SID.
54. Disadvantages(s) of using low kVp technical factors include: 74. A grid is usually employed in which of the following
1. Insufficient penetration circumstances?
2. Increased patient dose 1. When radiographing a large or dense bod
3. Diminish latitude 2. When using high kilovoltage
55. Quantum mottle is most obvious when using: 75. The line focus principle expresses the relationship between
Rare earth screens The actual and the effective focal spot.
56. Use of high grid ratio grids is associated with: 76. Foreshortening can be caused by
1. Increased patient dose The radiographic object being placed at an angle to the film.
2. Higher contrast 77. In general, as the intensification factor
57. Methods that help reduce the production of scattered radiation Increases,Radiographic density increases.
include using: 78. An increase in the kilovoltage applied to the x-ray tube
1. Compression increases the
2. Beam restriction Exposure rate.
58. The continued emission of light by a phosphor after the 79. In comparison to 60 kVp, 80 kVp will
activating source has ceased is termed: 1.Permit greater exposure latitude.
Phosphorescence 2. Produce longer-scale contrast.
3. Produce more scatter radiation.
80. OID is related to recorded detail in which of the following

ways?
59. In radiography of large abdomen, which of the following is (are) Radiographic detail is inversely related to OID.
effective ways(s) to minimize the amount of scattered radiation 81. How are mAs and radiographic density related in the process
reaching the film: of image formation?
CLUSTER 2
mAs and radiographic density are directly proportional. 107.What stage of processing involves a synergistic reaction?
82. The absorption of useful radiation by a grid is called Development
Grid cut-off 108. Which is used as developing agent?
83. A decrease in recorded detail may be expected with a Phenidone
decrease in 109. What is the average silver halide crystal size in radiographic
SID. film?
84. In order to produce a just perceptible increase in radiographic 1.0 um
density, the radiographer must increase the 110. Which of the following ingredients is NOT normally found in
mAs by 30 percent the film emulsion?
85. Distortion can be caused by Silver nitrate
1. Tube angle. 111. What component of the developer helps to keep unexposed
2. The position of the organ or structure within the body. crystals from the developing agent?
3. The radiographic positioning of the part. Potassium bromide
86. The effect described as differential absorption is: 112. In the manufacture of the emulsion, which compound is
1. Responsible for radiographic contrast. particularly light sensitive?
2. A result of attenuating characteristics of tissue. AgBr
3. Minimized by the use of high kVp. 113. Which is NOT one of the major systems of an automatic
87. What unit is expressed for half-value layer below 120 kV? processor?
mm of Al Replenishment system
88. What company introduced the first roller transport system for 114. If the power of the drive motor is transferred through a chain,
processing medical radiographs? the connecting device is usually
Eastman Kodak Gear
89. What material is used as base screen support for the medical 115. Which ingredient in the fixer functions as stop bath?
x-ray film? Activator
Polyester 116. Chemical used as stop bath:
90. Which chemical converts latent image to manifest image? Acetic acid
Developer 117. Function of stop bath:
91. Which film component forms the radiographic image? Neutralize the residual developer in the emulsion and stop its
Silver halide crystals action
93. What is the purpose of washing system in film processing? 118. Which is NOT part of transport system?
Remove excess film chemicals Drying chamber
94. Which is a clearing agent? 119. What type of radiation is produced in the anode other than X-
Ammonium thiosulfate rays?
95. What is the normal thickness of x-ray film base? 1. Infrared rays
7 mils 2. Radiant heat
96. Which processing chemical/s is/are reducing agent/s? 3. Secondary radiation
Hydroquinone 120. Which is receptive to all colors?
97. Which controls the developer action on unexposed crystals? Panchromatic film
Restrainer 121. Which acts as buffer and a source of alkali?
98. Which is/are real fixing agent/s? Sodium carbonate
1. Ammonium thiosulfate 122. Which is NOT part of the roller transport system?
2 Sodium thiosulfate Temperature control
99. What causes chemical fog? 123. What system in automatic processor helps agitate the
The failure of the developing agents during processing solutions and maintain constant temperature?
100. What developer component is also known as REGULATOR? Circulating system
Restrainer 124. Which chemical is used in both the developer and fixer for
101. What chemical is used in most modern fixing solutions? automatic film processing solutions?
Ammonium thiosulfate Sodium sulfite
102. What is the largest and most complex system in an automatic 125. What is the purpose of packaging the x-ray film in a foil bag?
processor? Protect it from excessive humidity
Transport 126. What fixer chemical/s keep/s reducing drying time?
103. What is the average replenishment rate of the developer 1. Potassium alum
solution? 2. Aluminum chloride
60-70 cc/14x 17 film 3. Chromium alum
104. What is the average replenishment rate of the fixer solution? 127. Chemicals used as fixer hardener?
100-110 cc/14 x 17 film 1. 1. Potassium alum
2. 2. Aluminum chloride
3. 3.Chromium alum
105. What is the newest type of processor that requires film and 128. Which is a dual emulsion film?
chemistry to function properly? Medical x-ray film
45 second processor 129. What chemicals act as buffer and a source of hydrogen ions?
106. The wetting agent in automatic processors is usually 1. Sodium carbonate
Water 2. Sodium hydroxide
CLUSTER 2
130. Which interaction occurs when a high-energy photon interacts Phenidone
with the nucleus of an atom? 156. What chemical decreases reducing agents activity?
Pair production Potassium bromide
131. What type of film records the image output of an image 157. What agent decreases reducing agents activity?
intensifier from 70 mm to 105 mm roll film? Restrainer
Photospot films 158. What solution is dramatically affected by contamination?
132. What scale do low contrast radiographs produce? Developer
Longer scale 159. Which reducing agent is used in automatic film processing
133. What interaction between x-rays and matter does not cause developer solution?
ionization? Phenidone and Hydroquinone
Coherent scattering 160. Which has the lowest replenishment rate in film processing?
134. What chemical acts as developer preservative? Developer
Sodium sulfite 161. Which describes the number of grid lines per inch or
135. Which is constructed of a beveled tungsten duct attached to centimetre?
an induction motor? Grid frequency
Rotating anode 162. Which increases recorded detail?
136. What happens to a film if there is inadequate developing 1. Decreased film speed
replenishing rate? 2. Decreased OID
Tachy film 163. Which is the proper formula for calculating magnification?
137. What material is anode made of? SID/SOD
Molybdenum and Tungsten 164. What is the primary function of a radiographic grid?
138. What happens to a film if prematurely removed from the Increase image contrast
developer solution? 165. Which radiographic quality factor can be described as
Under developed misreperesentation of the size or shape of a structure?
139. Which is considered as an activator in the developer? Distortion
Sodium hydroxide 166. Which is most affected by central ray alignment?
140. Which layer supports all layers of the intensifying screen? Distortion
Base 167. Which affects radiographic density?
141. Which cause whitish specks on the film? 1. Average atomic number tissue
Dust particles 2. Thickness of anatomic part
142. Which has a direct influence on the beam intensity? 3. Disease process that decrease tissue density
Radiographic density 168. Which of the following will decrease recorded detail?
143. What chemical acts as a source of buffer and alkali? Decrease SID
Sodium carbonate 169. If the developer temperature in the automatic processor is
144. Which controls the scale of contrast on the finished higher than normal, what will be the effect on the finished
radiograph? radiograph?
kVp 1. Loss on contrast
145. What is the geometric sharpness at the edges of the structure 2. Increased density
on a radiograph? 170. Which of the following factors are considered to be PRIME
Umbra factors that regulate radiographic density?
146. What is the geometric unsharpness at the edges of the 1. mA 2. Time
structure on a radiograph? 171.. Approximately what percentage change in kVp will double
Penumbra density within the diagnostic range of kVp and within average part
147. What component is added to the basic developer in automatic sizes?
processing 15 percent
Reducing agent 172.. Which of the following exposure factors is (are) most closely
148. What term refers to x-rays which penetrate matter? related to the quantity of photons in the x-ray beam?
Radiolucent mAs
149. Which is the function of the fixer solution? 173. The total number of x-ray photons produced at the target is
Removes unexposed silver compounds contingent upon?
150. What term refers to the decrease in intensity and the change 1. Tube current
in quality of the beam? 2. Target material
Attenuation 3. Square of the kilovoltage
151. Where does thermionic emission occur in the x-ray beam? 174. What is the relationship between kVp and half value layer?
Cathode If the kVp is doubled, the HVL doubles
152. Which phosphor is used as input screen image intensifier? 175. Types of radiation produced at the target:
Cesium iodide 1. Bremsstrahlung
153. Which ingredient of the developer is responsible for producing 2. Characteristic
the blackest part of a radiograph? 176. The transition of orbital electrons from outer to inner shell
Hydroquinone gives rises to:
154. Which segment of the circulation system contains a filter? Characteristic radiation
Filter 178. The x-ray interaction with matter that is responsible for the
155. What chemical rapidly produces fine details of shades of majority of scattered radiation reaching the film is:
gray? Compton scatter
CLUSTER 2
179. Filter used in radiographic x-ray tubes is generally composed
of:
Aluminium
180. The reduction in radiation intensity as it passes through
material is termed:
Attenuation
181. The photoelectric process is an interaction between an x-ray
photon and
Inner shell
182. The purpose of inherent and added filtration in the x-ray tube
is to:
Reduce patient skin dose
183. Which contributes MOST to patient dose?
Photoelectric effect
184. A system of master roller, planetary rollers, and guide shoes
located at the bottom of the transport rack.
Turn around assembly
185. Transport film though various stages at precise intervals
Transport system
186. Moves and changes direction of film via rollers and guide
shoes:
Transport rack
189. Provide power to run rollers at a precise rate:
Drive
190. It agitates fluids in the automatic processor?
Circulation system
191. A part of transport system where the film is inserted:
Feed tray
192. It grips the film to begin its trip through the processor.
Entrance rollers
193. It controls the replenishment rate of the processing chemicals.
Microswitch
194. The shorter dimension of the film should be against the side
rail in order to:
Maintain the proper replenishment rate.
195. It conveys the film along its path with a diameter of 1 inch:
Transport rollers
196. It is used when the film makes turns in the processor with a
diameter of 3 inches.
Master rollers
197. A curved metal lip with smooth grooves guides that guides the
film around the bend.
Guide shoes
198. It is a smaller rack assembly composed of rollers and guide
shoes.
Crossover ract
199. Most processing faults leasing to damp film are due to
depletion of:
Glutaraldehyde
200. It is the only part of electrical system that is important to
radiologic technologist.
Fuse box
201. It is the term used to describe the undesirable retention of the
fixer in the emulsion.
Hypo retention
202. What is the ability to image separate objects and visually
distinguish one from another?
Resolution
203. What happens when the effective focal spot is smaller?
The image is sharper
204. What is the main advantage of line focus principle?
Small target area

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CLUSTER 2

IMAGE PRODUCTION AND EVALUATION

201. A crossover rack is located 223. LIGHT EMISSION

380. The purpose of the wetting agent is to

1. The purpose of the automatic processor’s circulation system is Excessive humidity

2. Wash tank 45 seconds

80. OID is related to recorded detail in which of the following

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