QUESTION NUMBER QUESTION OPTION A OPTION B OPTION C ANSWER

The primary reason the angle of attack must be

Thrust is acting in a different direction, causing a Vertical component of lift has decreased as the result of
1 increased, to maintain a constant altitude during a Use of ailerons has increased the drag. B
reduction in airspeed and loss of lift. the bank.
coordinated turn, is because the

Which is true regarding the use of flaps during level Raising flaps will require added forward pressure on
2 The lowering of flaps increases the stall speed. The raising of flaps increases the stall speed. B
turns? the y oke or stick.

3 Defines VNO as Maximum operating limit speed. Maximum structural cruising speed. Never-exceed speed. B

Airplane wing loading during a level coordinated turn

4 Rate of turn Angle of bank. True airspeed B
in smooth air depends upon the

5 The stalling speed of an airplane is most affected by Changes in air density Variations in flight altitude. Variations in airplane loading C

During the transition from straight-and-level flight to

6 Is momentarily decreased. Remains the same. Is momentarily increased. C
a climb, the angle of attack is increased and lift

Load factor is the lift generated by the wings of an

7 Divided by the total weight of the aircraft. Multiplied by the total weight of the aircraft. Divided by the basic empty weight of the aircraft. A
aircraft at any given time

Reduced pressure resulting from a laminar flow over

Differential pressure acting perpendicular to the chord of
8 Lift on a wing is most properly defined as the Force acting perpendicular to the relative wind the upper camber of an airfoil, which acts A
the wing.
perpendicular to the mean camber.

While holding the angle of bank constant in a level Remain constant regardless of air density and the Vary depending upon speed and air density provided the
9 Vary depending upon the resultant lift vector A
turn, if the rate of turn is varied the load factor would resultant lift vector. resultant lift vector varies proportionately

Which is true regarding the forces acting on an Upward forces is less than the sum of all Forward forces is equal to the sum of all rearward
10 Forces is greater than the sum of all forward forces. C
aircraft in a steady-state descent? The sum of all downward forces. forces.

What performance is characteristic of flight at

11 maximum lift/drag ratio in a propeller-driven Gain in altitude over a given distance. Range and maximum distance glide. Coefficient of lift and minimum coefficient of drag. B
airplane? Maximum

The need to slow an aircraft below VA is brought High density altitude which increases the
12 Turbulence which causes an increase in stall speed. Turbulence which causes a decrease in stall speed. B
about by the following weather phenomenon: indicated stall speed.

In theory , if the airspeed of an airplane is doubled

13 Twice as great. Half as great. Four times greater. C
while in level flight, parasite drag will become

As airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed

14 Decreases because of lower parasite drag. Increases because of increased induced drag. Increases because of increased parasite drag. B
for maximum lift/drag ratio, total drag of an airplane

f the airspeed is increased from 90 knots to 135 knots

15 Increase as well as the stall speed Decrease and the stall speed will increase Remain the same but the radius of turn will increase. C
during a level 60° banked turn, the load factor will

The angle of attack at which a wing stalls remains Weight, dy namic pressure, bank angle, or pitch Dy namic pressure, but varies with weight, bank angle, Weight and pitch attitude, but varies with dy namic
16 A
constant regardless of attitude. and pitch attitude. pressure and bank angle.

Which statement is true, regarding the opposing

Thrust is greater than drag and lift is greater than
17 forces acting on an airplane in steady-state level These forces are equal. Thrust is greater than drag and weight and lift are equal. A
weight.
flight?

On a wing, the force of lift acts perpendicular to, and

18 Chord line. Flightpath. Longitudinal axis. B
the force of drag acts parallel to the

An aircraft wing is designed to produce lift resulting Negative air pressure below and a vacuum above Vacuum below the wing's surface and greater air Higher air pressure below the wing's surface and
19 C
from a difference in the the wing's surface. pressure above the wing's surface. lower air pressure above the wing's surface.

In theory , if the angle of attack and other factors

20 remain constant and the airspeed is doubled, the lift The same as at the lower speed. Two times greater than at the lower speed Four times greater than at the lower speed. C
produced at the higher speed will be
 By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot
21 Lift, airspeed, and drag. Lift, airspeed, and CG. Lift and airspeed, but not drag A
can control the airplane's

A rectangular wing, as compared to other wing Wingtip, with the stall progression toward the Wing root, with the stall progression toward the wing Center trailing edge, with the stall progression
22 B
planforms, has a tendency to stall first at the wing root. tip. outward toward the wing root and tip.

QUESTION NUMBER QUESTION OPTION A OPTION B OPTION C ANSWER

23 Stall speed is affected by Weight, load factor, and power. Load factor, angle of attack, and power. Angle of attack, weight, and air density . A

Which statement is true relative to changing angle of A decrease in angle of attack will increase An increase in angle of attack will decrease pressure
24 An increase in angle of attack will increase drag. C
attack? pressure below the wing, and decrease drag. below the wing, and increase drag.

For a given angle of bank, in any airplane, the load

25 Is constant and the stall speed increases. Varies with the rate of turn. Is constant and the stall speed decreases. A
factor imposed in a coordinated constant-altitude turn

If severe turbulence is encountered during flight, the

26 Minimum control speed. Design-maneuvering speed. Maximum structural cruising speed B
pilot should reduce the airspeed to

A propeller rotating clockwise as seen from the rear,

creates a spiraling slipstream. The spiraling Right around the vertical axis, and to the left Left around the vertical axis, and to the right around the Left around the vertical axis, and to the left around
27 B
slipstream, along with torque effect, tends to rotate around the longitudinal axis. longitudinal axis. the longitudinal axis.
the airplane to the

An airfoil will alway s stall at the same indicated

There is a corresponding indicated airspeed required for
Which is true regarding the force of lift in steady, At lower airspeeds the angle of attack must be airspeed, therefore, an increase in weight will require
28 every angle of attack to generate sufficient lift to B
unaccelerated flight? less to generate sufficient lift to maintain altitude an increase in speed to generate sufficient lift to
maintain altitude.
maintain altitude.

The ratio between the total airload imposed on the

29 wing and the gross weight of an aircraft in flight is Load factor and directly affects stall speed Aspect load and directly affects stall speed. Load factor and has no relation with stall speed. A
known as

(Refer to figure 1) The vertical line from point D to

30 point G is represented on the airspeed indicator by the Green arc. Yellow arc. White arc. A
maximum speed limit of the

If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2,000 pounds was

31 subjected to a 60° constant-altitude bank, the total 3,000 pounds. 4,000 pounds. 12,000 pounds. B
load would be

If the airplane attitude initially tends to return to its

32 original position after the elevator control is pressed Positive dy namic stability . Positive static stability . Neutral dy namic stability . B
forward and released, the airplane displays

Longitudinal stability involves the motion of the

33 Rudder. Elevator. Ailerons. B
airplane controlled by its

Longitudinal dy namic instability in an airplane can be Bank oscillations becoming progressively Trilatitudinal roll oscillations becoming
34 Pitch oscillations becoming progressively steeper. B
identified by steeper. progressively steeper.

If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after

35 the elevator control is pressed forward and released, Neutral longitudinal static stability . Positive longitudinal static stability . Neutral longitudinal dy namic stability . A
the airplane display s

In a rapid recovery from a dive, the effects of load

36 Increase. Decrease. Not vary . A
factor would cause the stall speed to

When turbulence is encountered during the approach Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach
Increase the airspeed slightly above normal Decrease the airspeed slightly below normal approach
37 to a landing, what action is recommended and for speed to penetrate the turbulence as quickly as A
approach speed to attain more positive control. speed to avoid overstressing the airplane.
what primary reason? possible

Recovery from a stall in any airplane becomes more

38 Center of gravity moves forward. Elevator trim is adjusted nosedown. Center of gravity moves aft. C
difficult when its
 Why is it necessary to increase back elevator pressure
Loss of the horizontal component of lift and the increase Rudder deflection and slight opposite aileron
39 to maintain altitude during a turn? To compensate for Loss of the vertical component of lift. A
in centrifugal force. throughout the turn.
the

If airspeed is increased during a level turn, what

40 action would be necessary to maintain altitude? The And angle of bank must be decreased. Must be increased or angle of bank decreased. Must be decreased or angle of bank increased. C
angle of attack

Name the four fundamentals involved in maneuvering

41 Power, pitch, bank, and trim. Thrust, lift, turns, and glides. Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descents C
an aircraft

QUESTION NUMBER QUESTION OPTION A OPTION B OPTION C ANSWER

Maintaining a safe airspeed.

A pilot's most immediate and vital concern in the
42 event of complete engine failure after becoming Landing directly into the wind. Turning back to the takeoff field. A
airborne on takeoff is

Maintain the bank and decrease airspeed.

To increase the rate of turn and at the same time
43 Increase the bank and increase airspeed. Increase the bank and decrease airspeed. C
decrease the radius, a pilot should

(Refer to figure 2.) Select the correct statement 10 knots higher in a power-on, 60° bank, with 25 knots lower in a power-off, flaps-up, 60° bank, than in 10 knots higher in a 45° bank, power-on stall, than in
44 A
regarding stall speeds. The airplane will stall gear and flaps up, than with gear and flaps down. a power-off, flaps-down, wings-level configuration. a wings-level stall with flaps up

Experience a reduction in ground friction and Experience an increase in induced drag and require more Require a lower angle of attack to maintain the same
45 An airplane leaving ground effect will B
require a slight power reduction. thrust. lift coefficient.

One of the main functions of flaps during the Decrease the angle of descent without increasing Decrease lift, thus enabling a steeper-than-normal
46 Provide the same amount of lift at a slower airspeed. B
approach and landing is to the airspeed. approach to be made.

The spoilers should be in what position when Extended during both a landing roll or ground Retracted during both a landing roll or ground Extended during a landing roll, but retracted during a
47 A
operating in a strong wind? operation. operation. ground operation.

48 The purpose of wing spoilers is to decrease The drag. Landing speed. The lift of the wing. C

49 Propeller efficiency is the Ratio of thrust horsepower to brake horsepower. Actual distance a propeller advances in one revolution. Ratio of geometric pitch to effective pitch. A

In order to achieve single engine climb performance

50 with an engine failed in most twin prop aircraft, it is Apply full power to the live engine (firewall) Minimize drag (flaps, gear, feather prop) Secure the failed engine B
essential to:

increase,and induced drag will decrease.

If the same angle of attack is maintained in ground
51 decrease, and parasite drag will increase. increase, and induced drag will increase A
effect as when out of ground effect, lift will

Bank away from the live engine up to 5o

In order to achieve a zero sideslip condition with a
52 Center the ball on the turn and slip indicator Bank into the live engine slightly C
failed engine on a propeller aircraft, the pilot must:

Visual Meteorological Conditions

Minimum airspeed at which directional control can be Maximum airspeed at which an engine can be
53 When dealing with aerody namics, VMC refers to: B
maintained with the critical engine inoperative operated with one engine

On an aircraft without counter-rotating props, the left

Zero sideslip condition, engine windmilling and P-factor, Accelerated slipstream, Spiraling slipstream and No power available Vs power required, yaw towards
54 engine is considered to be the critical one to fail B
aft legal C of G. Torque the left engine and sideslip
because of the following factors:

Every phy sical process of weather is accompanied by

55 A heat exchange. The movement of air. A pressure differential. A
or is the result of
 56 What causes wind? The earth’s rotation Air mass modification. Pressure differences. C

In the Northern Hemisphere, the wind is deflected to

57 Right by Coriolis force. Right by surface friction. Left by Coriolis force. A
the

Why does the wind have a tendency to flow parallel Coriolis force tends to counterbalance the Coriolis force acts perpendicular to a light connecting the Friction of the air with the Earth deflects the air
58 A
to the isobars above the friction level? horizontal pressure gradient. highs and lows. perpendicular to the pressure gradient.

What prevents air from flowing directly from

59 Coriolis force. Surface friction. Pressure gradient force. A
highpressure areas to low-pressure areas?

60 Which would increase the stability of an air mass? Warming from below Cooling from below. Decrease in water vapor. B

61 Which feature is associated with the tropopause? Constant height above the Earth. Abrupt change in the temperature lapse rate. Absolute upper limit of cloud formation. B

In an upper trough on the polar side of a jet Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a highpressure South of an east/west oriented high-pressure ridge in
62 A common location of clear air turbulence is A
stream. flow. its dissipating stage.

he jet stream and associated clear air turbulence can

63 Dust or haze at flight level. Long streaks of cirrus clouds. A constant outside air temperature. B
sometimes be visually identified in flight by

During the winter months in the middle latitudes, the

64 North and speed decreases. South and speed increases. North and speed increases. B
jet stream shifts toward the

QUESTION NUMBER QUESTION OPTION A OPTION B OPTION C ANSWER

Which ty pe of jet stream can be expected to cause the A straight jet stream associated with a A curving jet stream associated with a deep low-pressure A jet stream occurring during the summer at the
65 B
greater turbulence? lowpressure trough. trough. lower latitudes.

Which conditions are favorable for the formation of a Area of unstable air rapidly transferring heat from the Broad areas of cumulus clouds with smooth, level
66 Clear, cool nights with calm or light wind. A
surface based temperature inversion? surface. bases at the same altitude.

The wind sy stem associated with a low-pressure area An anticy clone and is caused by descending cold
67 A cy clone and is caused by Coriolis force. An anticy clone and is caused by Coriolis force. B
in the Northern Hemisphere is air.

Which is the true with a respect to a high- or A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of rising A low-pressure area or trough is an area of descending A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of
68 C
lowpressure sy stem? air. air. descending air.

Which is the true regarding high- or low-pressure A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of rising Both high- and low-pressure areas are characterized
69 A low-pressure area or trough is an area of rising air. B
sy stems? air. by descending air.

Which is true regarding actual air temperature and

70 dew point temperature spread? The temperature Decreases as the relative humidity decreases. Decreases as the relative humidity increases. Increases as the relative humidity increases. B
spread

71 Moisture is added to a parcel of air by Sublimation and condensation. Evaporation and condensation. Evaporation and sublimation. C

72 Which would decrease the stability of an air mass? Warming from below. Cooling from below. Decrease in water vapor. A

What determines the structure or type of clouds which

73 The method by which the air is lifted. The stability of the air before lifting occurs. The relative humidity of the air after lifting occurs. B
will form as a result of air being forced to ascend?
 When conditionally unstable air with high-moisture
74 content and very warm surface temperature is Strong updrafts and stratonimbus clouds. Restricted visibility near the surface over a large area. Strong updrafts and cumulonimbus clouds. C
forecast, one can expect what ty pe of weather?

Cirrus ty pe with no vertical development or

If clouds form as a result of very stable, moist air
turbulence. Cumulus ty pe with considerable vertical development Stratus ty pe with little vertical development and little
75 being forced to ascend a mountain slope, the clouds C
and turbulence. or no turbulence
will be

What ty pe weather can one expect from moist,

76 Fog and low stratus clouds. Continuous heavy precipitation. Strong updrafts and cumulonimbus clouds. C
unstable air, and very warm surface temperatures?

The conditions necessary for the formation of

77 Unstable, dry air. Stable, moist air. Unstable, moist air. B
stratiform clouds are a lifting action and

Which cloud ty pes would indicate convective

78 Cirrus clouds. Nimbostratus clouds. Towering cumulus clouds. C
turbulence?

Which combination of weather-producing variables

79 would likely result in cumuliform -ty pe clouds, good Stable, moist air and orographic lifting. Unstable, moist air and orographic lifting. Unstable, moist air and no lifting mechanism B
visibility , and showery rain?

Good visibility , steady precipitation, stratus Poor visibility , intermittent precipitation, cumulus
80 What are the characteristics of stable air? Poor visibility , steady precipitation, stratus clouds. B
clouds. clouds.

81 What is a characteristic of stable air? Stratiform clouds. Fair weather cumulus clouds. Temperature decreases rapidly with altitude. A

When an air mass is stable, which of these conditions Numerous towering cumulus and cumulonimbus Smoke, dust, haze, etc., concentrated at the lower
82 Moderate to severe turbulence at the lower levels. C
are most likely to exist? clouds. levels with resulting poor visibility .

83 Which is characteristic of stable air? Cumuliform clouds. Excellent visibility . Restricted visibility . C

84 Which is a characteristic typical of a stable air mass? Cumuliform clouds. Showery precipitation. Continuous precipitation. C

Which are characteristics of a cold air mass moving Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and poor
85 Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility . Stratiform clouds, smooth air, and poor visibility . B
over a warm surface? visibility .

Which is true regarding a cold from occlusion? The Is colder than the air behind the overtaking cold Has the same temperature as the air behind the
86 Is warmer than the air behind the overtaking cold front. B
air ahead of the warm front front. overtaking cold front.

The conditions most favorable to wave formation Stable air at mountaintop altitude and a wind of at Unstable air at mountaintop altitude and a wind of at Moist, unstable air at mountaintop altitude and a
87 A
over mountainous areas are a layer of least 20 knots blowing across the ridge. least 20 knots blowing across the ridge. wind of less than 5 knots blowing across the ridge.

QUESTION NUMBER QUESTION OPTION A OPTION B OPTION C ANSWER

One of the most dangerous features of mountain

88 Below rotor clouds. Above rotor clouds. Below lenticular clouds. A
waves is the turbulent areas in and

Streamers of precipitation trailing beneath clouds Wall cloud torrents trailing beneath cumulonimbus
89 Virga is best described as Turbulent areas beneath cumulonimbus clouds. A
which evaporates before reaching the ground. clouds which dissipate before reaching the ground.

The most severe weather conditions, such as

Slow-moving warm fronts which slope above the
90 destructive winds, heavy hail, and tornadoes, are Squall lines. Fast-moving occluded fronts. B
tropopause.
generally associated with.
 If airborne radar is indicating an extremely intense
91 thunderstorm echo, this thunderstorm should be 20 miles. 10 miles. 5 miles. A
avoided by a distance of at least

What visible signs indicate extreme turbulence in Base of the clouds near the surface, heavy rain, Cumulonimbus clouds, very frequent lightning, and
92 Low ceiling and visibility , hail, and precipitation static. C
thunderstorm? and hail. roll clouds.

Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of

93 The start of rain. The appearance of an anvil top. Growth rate of clouds is maximum. A
the mature stage of a thunderstorm?

What feature is normally associated with the cumulus

94 Roll cloud. Continuous updraft. Beginning of rain at the surface. B
stage of thunderstorm?

During the life cy cle of a thunderstorm, which stage is

95 Mature. Developing. Dissipating. C
characterized predominately by downdrafts?

What minimum distance should exist between intense

96 radar echoes before any attempt is made to fly 20 miles. 30 miles. 40 miles. C
between these thunderstorms?

During an IFR cross-country fllight, y ou picked up

rime icing which y ou estimate is 1/2 thick on the
leading edge of the wings. You are now below the
clouds al 2000 feet AGL and are approaching your
Use a faster than normal approach and landing Approach and land at y our normal speed since the ice is fly y our approach slower than normal to lessen the
97 destination airport under VFR. Visibility under the A
speed. not thick enough to have any noticeable effect. “wind chill” effect and break up the ice
clouds is more than 10 miles, winds at the destination
airport are 8 knots right down the runway , and the
surface temperature is 3 degrees Celsius. You decide
to:

Frost covering the upper surface of an airplane wing The airplane to stall at an angle of attack that is The airplane to stall at an angle of attack that is lower Drag factors so large that sufficient speed cannot be
98 B
usually will cause higher than normal. than normal. obtained for takeoff.

An overall decrease of temperature with an A relatively even base altitude of approximately 35.000 Relatively small changes in temperature with an
99 A characteristic of the stratosphere is C
increase in altitude. feet. increase in altitude.

100 Which feature is associated with the tropopause? Absence of wind and turbulent conditions. Absolute upper limit of cloud formation. Abrupt change in temperature lapse rate. C

101 A jet stream is defined as wind of 30 knots or greater. 40 knots or greater. 50 knots or greater. C

the primary cause of all changes in the Earth’s Variation of solar energy recieved by the Earthe’s
102 Changes in the air pressure over the Earth’s surface Movement of air masses A
weather is regions

If the air temperature is +8oC at an elevation of 1.350

103 feet and a standard (average) temperature lapse rate 3350 FT above MSL 5350 FT above MSL 9350 FT above MSL B
exists, what will be the approximate freezing level?

A common ty pe of ground or surface based Warm air being lifted rapidly aloft in the vicinity The movement of colder air over warm air, or the Ground radiation on clear, cool nights when the wind
104 C
temperature inversion is that which is produced by of mountainous terrain.. movement f warm air under cold air. is light.

What feature is associated with temperature

105 A stable lay er of air. An unstable lay er of air. Air mass thunderstorms. A
inversion?

Which weather conditions should be expected

Smooth air and poor visibility due to fog, haze, Light wind shear and poor visibility due to haze and light Turbulence air and poor visibility due to fog, low
106 beneath a low-level temperature inversion layer when A
low clouds. rain. stratus-ty pe clouds, and showery precipitation.
the relative humidity is high?

Which force, in the Northern Hemisphere, acts at a

107 right angle to the wind and deflects it to the right until Centrifugal. Pressure gradient. Coriolis. C
parallel to the isobars?

QUESTION NUMBER QUESTION OPTION A OPTION B OPTION C ANSWER

108 Clouds, fog, or dew will alway s form when Water vapor condenses. Water vapor is present. The temperature and dew point are equal. A

To which meteorological condition does the term The temperature to which air must be cooled to The temperature at which condensation and evaporation
109 The temperature at which dew will always form. A
“dew point” refer? become saturated. are equal.
 The amount of water vapor which air can hold largely
110 Relative humidity . Air temperature. Stability of air. B
depends on

111 What enhances the growth rate of precipitation? Advective action. Upward currents. Cy clonic movement. B

The formation of either predominantly stratiform or

112 predominantly cumuliform clouds is dependent upon Source of lift Stability of air being lifted Temperature of the air being lifted B
the

Stability can be determined from which measurement

113 Low-level winds. Ambient lapse rate. Atmospheric pressure. B
of the atmosphere?

What determines the structure or type of clouds which The amount of condensation nuclei present after
114 The method by which the air is lifted. The stability of the air before lifting occurs. B
form as a result of air being forced to ascend? lifting occurs.

What ty pe of clouds will be formed if very stable

115 First stratified clouds and then vertical clouds. Vertical clouds with increasing height. Stratified clouds with little vertical development. C
moist air is forced up slope?

What ty pe clouds can be expected when an unstable Stratified clouds with considerable associated
116 Lay ered clouds with little vertical development. Clouds with extensive vertical development. C
air mass is forced to ascend a mountain slope? turbulence.

Which of the following combinations of weather

producing variables would likely result in
117 Unstable, moist air, and no lifting mechanism. Stable, dry air, and orographic lifting. Unstable, moist air, and orographic lifting. C
cumuliform - ty pe clouds, good visibility , rain
showers, and possible clear-type icing in clouds?

118 The suffix ‘Nimbus” used in clouds, means Cloud with extensive vertical development. Rain cloud. Dark massive, towering cloud. B

Clouds formed by updrafts, fronts, cooling lay ers of air, High, middle, low, and those with extensive vertical
119 What are the four families of clouds Stratus, cumulus, nimbus, and cirrus. C
and precipitation into warm air. development.

120 A high cloud is composed mostly of Ozone. Condensation nuclei. Ice cry stals. C

Which family of clouds is least likely to contribute to

121 Low clouds. High clouds. Clouds with extensive vertical development. B
structural icing on an aircraft?

122 Which clouds have the greatest turbulence? Towering cumulus. Cumulonimbus. Altocumulus castellanus. B

Standing lenticular clouds, in mountainous areas,

123 An inversion. Unstable air. Turbulence. C
indicate

The presence of standing lenticular altocumulus

124 A jet stream. Very strong turbulence. Heavy icing conditions. B
clouds is a good indication of.

Ice pellets encountred during flight normally are

125 A warm front has passed. A warm front is about to pass. there are thunderstroms in the area B
evidence that

Creates a wind shift as it moves across the Earth’s Covers an extensive area and has fairly uniform
126 An air mass is a body of air that Has similar cloud formations associated with it. C
surface properties of temperature and moisture.

Which weather phenomenon is always associated

127 A wind change. An abrupt decrease in pressure. Clouds, either ahead or behind the front. A
with the passage of a frontal sy stem?

If y ou fly into severe turbulence, which flight

128 Constant airspeed (VA). Level flight attitude. Constant altitude and constant airspeed. B
condition should y ou attempt to maintain?

If severe turbulence is encountered during your IFR

Maneuverability of the airplane will be Amount of excess load than can be imposed on the wing Airplane will stall at a lower angle of attack, giving
129 flight, the airplane should be slowed to the design B
increased. will be decreased. an increased margin of safety .
maneuvering speed because the

A pilot reporting turbulence that momentarily causes

130 slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude Light turbulence. Moderate turbulence. Light chop. A
should report it as

QUESTION NUMBER QUESTION OPTION A OPTION B OPTION C ANSWER

 What are the requirements for the formation of a A cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture and an inverted Sufficient moisture, an unstable lapse rate, and a
131 A cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture. C
thunderstorm? lapse rate. lifting action.

Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of

132 The start of rain at the surface. Growth rate of clouds is maximum. Strong turbulence in the cloud. A
the mature stage of a thunderstorm?

During the life cy cle of a thunderstorm, which stage is

133 Cumulus. Dissipating. Mature. B
characterized predominately by downdrafts?

What is an indication that downdrafts have developed

134 and the thunderstorm cell has entered the mature The anvil top has completed its development. Precipitation begins to fall from the cloud base. A gust front forms. B
stage?

135 Where do squall lines m ost often develop? In an occluded front. In a cold air mass. Ahead of a cold front. C

Which thunderstorm generally produce the most

136 Warm front Squall line. Air mass B
severe conditions, such as heavy hail and destructive.

What is indicated by the term “Embeded Severe thunderstorms are embedded within a Thunderstorms are predicted to develop in a stable air Thunderstorms are obscured by massive cloud layers
137 C
Thunderstorms”? squall line. mass. and cannot be seen.

Which weather phenomenon is always associated

138 Lightning. Heavy rain showers. Supercooled raindrops. A
with a thunderstorm?

Which procedure is recommended if a pilot should

Reverse aircraft heading or proceed toward an Reduce airspeed to maneuvering speed and maintain a Set power for recommended turbulence penetration
139 unintentionally penetrate embedded thunderstorm C
area of known VFR conditions. constant altitude. airspeed and attempt to maintain a level flight
activity ?

The temperature of the collecting surface is at or Temperature of the collecting surface is below the
140 Which conditions result in the formation of frost? below freezing and small droplets of moisture are When dew forms and the temperature is below freezing. dew point of surrounding air and the dew point is C
failing. colder than freezing.

Why is frost considered hazardous to flight Frost changes the basic aerodynamic shape of the Frost causes early airflow separation resulting in a
141 Frost decreases control effectiveness. C
operation? airfoil. loss of lift.

In which meteorological environment is aircraft

142 structural icing most likely to have the highest rate of Cumulonimbus clouds. High humidity and freezing temperature. Freezing rain. C
accumulation?

Wherever there is an abrupt decrease in pressure and/or With either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at
143 Where does wind shear occur? Exclusively in thunderstorms. C
temperature. any level in the atmosphere.

It is primarily associated with the lateral vortices It usually exists only in the vicinity of thunderstorms, but It may be associated with either a wind speed
144 What is an important characteristic of wind shear? C
generated by thunderstorms. may be found near a strong temperature gradient at any level in the atmosphere.

Which is a characteristic of low-level wind shear as it With a warm front, the most critical period is With a cold front, the most critical period is just before Turbulence will alway s exist in wind-shear
145 A
relates to frontal activity ? before the front passes the airport. the front passes the airport. conditions.

Which forecast provides specific information

146 concerning expected sky cover, cloud tops, visibility , Area Forecast. Terminal Forecast. Transcribed Weather Broadcast. C
weather, and obstructions to vision in a route formal?

Frontal locations and expected movement,

Actual frontal positions, pressure patterns, temperature, Actual pressure distribution, frontal sy stems, cloud
pressure centers, cloud coverage, and
147 The Surface Analysis Chart depicts dew point, wind, weather, and obstructions at the valid heights and coverage, temperature, dew point, and B
obstructions to vision at the time of chart
time of the chart. wind at the time shown on the chart.
transmission.

Which provides a graphic display of both VFR and

148 Surface Weather Map. Radar Summary Chart. Weather Depiction Chart c
IFR weather?

When total sky cover is few or scattered, the height

149 Top of the lowest lay er. Base of the lowest lay er. Base of the highest lay er. B
shown on the Weather Depiction Chart is the

Which weather chart depicts conditions forecast to

150 Freezing Level Chart. Weather depiction Chart 12-Hour Significant Weather Prognostication Chart. C
exist at a specific time in the future?

What is the upper limit of the low level Significant

151 30.000 feet. 24.000 feet. 18.000 feet. B
Weather Prognostic Chart?
QUESTION NUMBER QUESTION OPTION A OPTION B OPTION C ANSWER

The most current en route and destination weather

152 information for an instrument flight should be AFSS. ATIS broadcast. Notices to Airman Publications. A
obtained from the

What is meant by the Special METAR weather

observation for KBOI? SPECI KBOI 09185AZ Rain and fog obscuring two-tenths of the sky , rain Rain and mist obstructing visibility , rain began at
153 Rain and overcast at 1200 feet AGL. B
32005KT 1 1/2SM RA BR OVC007 17/16 A2990 began at 1912z. 1812Z.
RMK RAB12

To best determine observed weather conditions

154 between weather reporting stations, the pilot should Pilot reports. Area Forecast. Prognostic charts. A
refer to

A pilot reporting turbulence that momentarily causes

155 slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude Light chop. Light turbulence. Moderate turbulence. B
should report it as

When turbulence causes changes in altitude and/or

156 attitude, but aircraft control remains positive, that Light Severe Moderate C
should be reported as

Turbulence that is encountered above 15.000 feet

157 AGL not associated with cumuliform cloudiness, Severe turbulence. Clear air turbulence. Convective turbulence. B
including thunderstorms, should be reported as

158 What values are used for Winds Aloft Forecasts? True directions and MPH. True directions and Knots. Magnetic direction and knots. B

SIGMETs are issued as a warning of weather

159 To all aircraft. Particularly to heavy aircraft. Particularly to light airplanes. A
conditions which are hazardous

They consist of either an observation and a forecast

They consist of an hourly observation of They contain both an observation and a forecast of all
Which correctly describes the purpose of convective or just a forecast for tornadoes, significant
160 tornadoes, significant thunderstorm activity , and thunderstorm and hailstone activity . The forecast is valid C
SIGMETs (WST)? thunderstorm activity , or hail greater than or equal
large hail stone activity . for 1 hour only .
3/4 inch in diameter.

What ty pe of in flight Weather Advisories provides an

en route pilot with information regarding the
Severe Weather Forecast Alerts (AWW) AND
161 possibility of moderate icing, moderate turbulence, Convective SIGMETs and SIGMETs. AIRMETs and Center Weather Advisories (CWA). C
SIGMETs.
winds of 30 knots or more at the surface and
extensive mountain obscurement?

What single reference contains information regarding

162 volcanic eruption, that is occurring or expected to In-flight Weather Advisories. Terminal Area Forecast (TAF). Weather Depiction Chart A
occur?

The Hazardous In flight Weather Advisory Service SIGMETs and AIRMETs at 15 minutes and 45
SIGMETs, CONVECTIVE SIGMETs and AIRMETs
163 (HIWAS) is a broadcast service over service over minutes past the hour for the first hour after Continuous broadcast of in flight weather advisories. B
at 15 minutes and 45 minutes past the hour.
selected VORs that provides issuance.

When are severe weather watch bulletins (AWW)

164 Every 12 hours as required. Every 24 hours as required. Unscheduled and issued as required. C
issued?

SIGMETs are issued as a warning of weather

165 Particularly to light aircraft. To all aircraft. Only to light aircraft operations. B
conditions potentially hazardous

Which meteorological condition is issued in the form Widespread sand or dust storms lowering
166 Moderate icing. Sustained winds of 30 knots or greater at the surface. A
of a SIGMET (WS)? visibility to less than 3 miles.

Actual pressure sy stems, frontal locations, cloud Frontal locations and expected movement, pressure Actual frontal positions, pressure patterns,
167 The surface Analysis Chart depicts tops, and precipitation at the time shown on the centers, cloud coverage, and obstructions to vision at the temperature, dew point, wind, weather, and C
chart. time of chart transmission. obstructions to vision at the valid time of the chart.

What important information is provided by the Radar

Areas of cloud cover and icing levels within the
168 Summary Chart that is not shown on other weather Lines and cells of hazardous thunderstorms. Ty pes of precipitation. A
clouds.
charts?
 What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group
169 Rotor Cloud Standing Lenticular Low Stratus A
associated with moutain wave?

At which location does Coriolis force have the laest

170 At the poles Middle latitudes (30°--‐60°) At the Equator. C
effect on wind direction

QUESTION NUMBER QUESTION OPTION A OPTION B OPTION C ANSWER

La Visibilidad es menos a 10 KM. Y hay La visibilidad horizontal es may or a 10 KM. Y el cielo La visbilidad horizontal es menor de 10 KM. Y el
171 El codigo SKC se utiliza en el METAR cuando? B
nubosidad por debajo de 5000 FT. esta despejado. viento esta despejado.

En un mapa meteorológico y en una carta de vuelo, Una linea de color púrpura, triángulos y Una linea azul y triángulos alternos colocados a lo largo Una línea de color rojo y semicirculos colocados a lo
172 A
un frente oculido se representa por? semicirculos colocados sobre éste. de éste. largo de éste.

En el tropico el may or peligro para una aeronave en

173 Los ray os y el granizo. La turbulencia. La mala visibilidad. B
vuelo cerca o dentro de una CB es?

What conclusion(s) can be drawn from a 500 millibar Winds aloft at FL 180 generally flow across the Observed temperature, wind, and temperature/dew point Upper highs, lows, troughs, and ridges will be
174 Constant Pressure Chart for a planned flight at FL B
height contours. spread along the proposed route can be approximated. depicted by the use of lines of equal pressure.
180?

(Refer to Figure 4) What is the height of the

175 FL390. FL300 sloping to FL 400 feet MSL. FL340. C
tropopause over Kentucky ?

Which meteorological conditions are depicted by Interpretation of weather conditions for geographical Conditions forecast to exist at a specific time shown
176 Conditions existing at the time of the observation. C
prognostic chart? areas between reporting stations. on the chart.

(Refer to figure 5, SFC-PROG.) The chart symbols

177 shown in the Gulf of Mexico at 12Z and extending Tropical storm. Hurricane. Tornado originating in the Gulf of Mexico. A
into AL, GA, SC and northern FL indicate a

What flight planning information can a pilot derive

178 Clear air turbulence and icing conditions. Levels of widespread cloud coverage. Winds and temperatures aloft. C
from constant pressure charts?

(Refer to figure 4.) What is the maximum wind

velocity forecast in the jet stream shown on the high
179 80KT 103KT 130KT C
level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart over
Canada?

Which presently exist exist from the 1.000-milibar

180 A prognostic chart depicts the conditions Existing at the surface during the past 6 hours. Forecast to exist at a specific time in the future. C
through the 700-milibar level.

(Refer to figure 6.) What is the meaning of the Showery precipitation (e.g. rain showers)
Continuous precipitation (e.g. rain showers) covering Showery precipitation (e.g. thunderstorms/rain
181 sy mbol depicted as used on the U.S. Low-Level embedded in an area of continuous rain covering A
half or more of the area. showers) covering half or more of the area.
Significant Weather Prog Chart? half or more of the area.

(Refer to figure 5, SFC-400MB.) The U.S. Low Level

Significant Weather Surface Prog Chart at 00Z Moderate or greater turbulence from the surface
182 Moderate or greater turbulence above FL 240. No turbulence is indicated. C
indicates that northwestern Colorado and eastern Utah to FL 240.
can expect

Occasional cumulonimbus, 1/8 to 4/8 coverage,

(Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are Frequent embedded thunderstorms, less than 1/8
183 bases below 24.000 feet MSL, and tops at 40.000 Frequent lighting in thunderstorms at FL370. A
depicted within the area indicated by arrow E? coverage, and tops at FL370.
feet MSL.

(Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are Forecast isolated thunderstorm, tops at FL 440, Existing isolated cumulonimbus clouds, tops above Forecast isolated embedded cumulonimbus clouds
184 C
depicted within the area indicated by arrow D? more than 1/8 coverage. 43.000 feet with less than 1/8 coverage. with tops at 43.000 feet MSL, and less than 1/8

(Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are Light turbulence at FL 370 within the area
185 Moderate turbulence at 32.000 feet MSL. Moderate to sever CAT has been reported at FL 320. B
predicted within the area indicated by arrow C? outlined by dashes.

(Refer to figure 7.) What information in indicated by The height of the tropopause in meters above sea The height of the tropopause in hundreds of feet
186 The height of the existing lay er of CAT. C
arrow A? level. above MSL.

1/8 to 4/8 coverage, occasional embedded

(Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are Occasionally embedded cumulonimbus, bases below 2/8 to 6/8 coverage, occasional embedded
187 thunderstorms, maximum tops at 51.000 feet B
depicted within the area indicated by arrow F? 24.000 feet with tops to 48.000 feet. thunderstorms, tops at FL 540.
MSL.
 Highest lay er of clouds or obscuring phenomena Lowest lay er of clouds that contributed to the overall Lowest lay er of clouds or obscuring phenomena aloft
188 A ceiling is defined as the height of the C
aloft that covers over 6/10 of the sky . overcast. that is reported as broken or overcast.

What significant sky condition is reported in this

METAR observation? METAR KBNA 1250Z
189 33018KT 290V360 1/2SM R31/2700FT Runway 31 ceiling is 2700 feet. Sky is obscured with vertical visibility of 800 feet. Measured ceiling is 300 feet overcast. B
+SNBLSNFG VV0008 00/M03 A2991RMK
RERAE42SNB42

QUESTION NUMBER QUESTION OPTION A OPTION B OPTION C ANSWER

The body of a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) 5 statute mile radius from the center of an airport runway 5 to 10 statute mile radius from the center of an
190 5 nautical mile radius of the center of an airport. B
covers a geographical proximity within a complex. airport runway complex.

Which primary source should be used to obtain

191 forecast weather information at your destination for Area Forecast. Radar Summary and Weather Depiction Charts. Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF). C
the planned ETA?

A ‘VRB” entry in a Termina Aerodrome Forecast

192 3 knots or less. 6 knots or less. 9 knots or less. A
(TAF) will be indicated when the wind is

When the visibility is greater than 6 SM on a TAF it is

193 6PSM. P6SM. 6SMP. B
expressed as

What is the forecast wind at 1800z in the following

194 TAF? KMEM 091740Z 1818 00000KT 1/2SM RAFG Calm. Unknown Not recorded. A
OVC005=

From which primary source should you obtain

195 information regarding the weather expected to exist at Weather Depiction Chart Radar Summary and Weather Depiction Chart. Terminal Aerodrome Forecast. C
y our destination at y our estimated time of arrival?

Which is true regarding the use of airborne The radarscope provides no assurance of avoiding The avoidance of hail is assured when flying between The clear area between intense echoes indicates that
196 weatheravoidance radar for the recognition of certain A
instrument weather conditions. and j ust clear of the most intense echoes. visual sighting of storms can be maintained when
weather conditions?

When is the wind-group at one of the forecast altitudes

omitted at a specific location or station in the Winds At the altitude is within 1.500 feet of the station
197 Is less 5 knots. Is less 10 knots. C
and Temperature ALOFT Forecast (FD)? elevation.
When the wind

When are severe weather watch bulletins (WW)

198 Every 12 hours as required. Every 24 hours as required. Unscheduled and issued as required. C
issued?

SIGMETs are issued as a warning of weather

199 particularly to light aircraft. to all aircraft. only to light aircraft operations. B
conditions potentially hazardous.

A pilot planning to depart at 1100z on an IFR flight is

particularly concerned about the hazard of icing. Low-level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart, Pilot weather reports (PIREPs), AIRMETs, and
200 What sources reflect the most accurate information on The Area Forecast, and the Freezing Level Chart. C
and the Area Forecast. SIGMETs
icing conditions (current and forecast) at the time of
departure?

Cual es la cantidad de octas de nubes cuando se

201 De 3 a 5. De 5 a 7. De 1 a 2. B
reporta BKN?

La puede solicitar el piloto o ser iniciada por el

202 Una expresion “aproximacion visual” La ordena el controlador Cancelo plan instrumentos, continuo plan visual A
controlador

Una autorización de salida en plan IFR debe contener

203 Limite, Vía, Mantenga y Restricciones Vía, Mantenga, Limite y Restricciones Restricciones, Limite, Mantenga, Vía A
en su orden:

La respuesta radar de un respondedor en MODO 3/A

204 Vuelo militar en misión especial Vuelo VFR en Colombia Solicito asignación de código C
código 2000 es:
 Una aeronave llegando a Cali con FL240 y estima el
VOR de CLO a las 22:20, recibe la siguente Inciar el descenso sobre el VOR de CLO a las Inciar el descenso sobre el VOR de CLO a las 22:35 Inciar el descenso sobre el VOR de CLO a las 22:20
205 autorización: "Autorizado al VOR de CLO, descienda 22:35 desde FL240 siempre y cuando haya desde 15000 FT siempre y cuando haya colacionado la desde FL240 siempre y cuando haya colacionado la B
y mantenga 15,000 FT, hora prevista de aproximacion colacionado la autorización. autorización. autorización.
“22:35”, al tener una falla de comunicacion

En la fraseología normalizada, en la autorización a la

206 tiempo de alejamiento y EAT Tiempo de alejamiento y ETA Nombre de radioayuda y EAT C
espera en un fijo no debe faltar:

Si estamos volando en espacio aéreo Clase A,

207 Autorizaciones para IFR Autorizaciones IFR e información VFR Información de aeronaves en VFR A
esperamos:

En el contenido de una autorización IFR debemos

208 Solo los SID ś , niveles y restricciones Con decir RECIBIDO es suficiente Toda la autorización C
colacionar:

QUESTION NUMBER QUESTION OPTION A OPTION B OPTION C ANSWER

Bajo que situación un piloto puede cambiar su plan de

209 Cuando lo solicite el controlador Si esta volando en espacio aéreo Clase A Si esta volando en espacio aéreo Clase D C
vuelo IFR a VFR

De una aeronave secuestrada con flaps abajo después

210 Déjenme solo, no intervengan La situación esta desesperada Pueden subir, situación controlada B
de aterrizar significa:

El control ceda su responsabilidad al piloto por ser

Durante una aproximación por referencia visual, se El piloto asume la navegación pero la separación El piloto es responsable de la separación con otros
211 vuelo A
espera que: VFR/IFR la hace ATS tránsitos IFR y VFR
VFR

what designed airspace associated with an airport

212 becomes inactive when the tower at that airport is not Class D, which then becomes Class C. Class D, which then becomes Class E. Class B. B
in operation?

Establecen secuencias de aproximación por

213 En el espacio aéreo CTR se: Organiza el tránsito en el círculo de aeródromo Provee separación de aeronaves en ruta B
instrumentos

La máxima velocidad de una aeronave categoría A en

214 170 Kts 230 kts 240 kts A
un circulo de espera a 12.000 es:(OACI)

En una aproximación IFR, se llama FAF al punto

215 Inicia la aproximación intermedia Esta alineada con la pista para aterrizar Efectúa la espera en fijo primario B
donde una aeronave:

Si un vuelo IFR nocturno se realiza en una FIR, será

216 NO controlado Controlado como todo IFR Controlado si las condiciones son IMC A
un vuelo:

Si una aeronave militar intercepta una aeronave civil

en vuelo y le hace la siguiente señal: Baja tren de
217 Sígame Prosiga Aterrice aqui C
aterrizaje y mantiene luces de aterrizaje encendidos,
esto significa:

Un piloto esta en la obligación de notificar a los

servicios ATS respecto a la hora estimada a un punto
218 1 3 C
de notificación, cuando exista una diferencia del que
aparece en el plan de vuelo actualizado de (minutos):

Una aeronave aproximando a Bogota con 170000 FT

y estimando el VOR de BOG a las 09:32 UTC, recibe
Inciar el descenso sobre el VOR de BOG a las
la siguente autorización: "Autorizado al VOR de Iniciar descenso y aproximación tan pronto como se le Aterrizar en el aeródromo adecuado mas cercano si
219 09:55 desde 13000 FT siempre y cuando haya A
BOG, descienda y mantenga 13000 FT, hora prevista presente la falla. esta en condiciones VMC.
colacionado la autorización y esté IMC.
de aproximación 09:55", luego sufre falla de
comunicación

Vat is defined as speed at threshold based on 1.3

220 Maximum certificated landing mass Minimum certificated landing mass Maximum certificated takeoff mass A
times stall speed in the landing configuration as:

221 La prioridad máxima de aterrizaje para aeronaves es? Aeronaves VIP1. Aeronaves ambulancia. Aeronaves en emergencia. C

What is the maximum indicated airspeed allowed in

222 156 Knots. 200 Knots. 230 Knots. B
the airspace underlyning Class B airspace?
 Straight departure is one in which the initial departure
223 5° of the alignment of the runway center line 15° of the alignment of the runway center line 25° of the alignment of the runway center line B
track is within:

For IFR operations off established airways, ROUTE

224 OF LIGHT portion of an IFR plane should list VOR 40 miles apart 70 miles apart 80 miles apart C
navigational aids which are no more than

The initial approach segment, commences at... and

225 IF and FAF IAF and IF IF and OM B
ends at...

Flight procedures for racetrack and reversal

25° Bank angle, or the bank angle giving a rate of turn of
226 procedures are based on average achieved bank angle 30° Bank angle 45° bank angle B
3°/second, wichever is less.
of:

While maintaining a constant heading, a relative

227 bearing of 15° doubles in 6 minutes. The time to the 3 minutes 6 minutes 12 minutes B
station being used is

228 The optimum Glide Path angle of an ILS is: 4.0° 3.0° 1.5° B

QUESTION NUMBER QUESTION OPTION A OPTION B OPTION C ANSWER

The maximum aircraft operations holding speed (kts)

229 230 240 265 B
above 14.000 ft to 20.000 ft, according OACI:

Each required flight crewmembers is required to keep during takeoff and landing only when passengers while the crewmembers are at their station unless he or during takeoff and landing unless he or she is unable
230 B
his or her shoulders harness fastened are aboard the aircraft she is unable to perform requires duties to perform required duties

En caso de una bomba abordo que se requiera de una

231 Bravo Romeo Bravo Wiskey Bravo Tango B
acción inmediata se deberá utilizar el código:

In class A airspace, the following flights are

232 VFR only IFR only Special VFR only B
permitted:

MDA is for Precision approach and DA is for non MDA is Minimum departure altitude and DA is decision MDA is for non precision approach and DA is for
233 The difference between MDA and DA is: C
Precision approach altitude precision approach

For the purposes of wake turbulence separation, ATC

234 Heavy , large and small A, B, C,D Number of engines A
classifies aircraft as:

The MINIMUM altitude to intercept the glide slope Minimum altitude leaving VOR in final
235 Glide Slope intercept altitude DA value for this procedure B
path on a precision approach is: approach

The difference among a PUBLISHED ROUTE and PUBLISHED route include minimum en-route PUBLISHED is for IFR flights only and PUBLISHED is authorized route and
236 A
UNPLUBLISHED ROUTE is: altitude and the other do not UNPUBLISHED is for VFR flights only UNPUBLISHED is non authorized route

The flight is estimating arrive at the primary In case of communication failure, it is the time at
237 EXPECTED APPROACH TIME means the time: The flight is clear for approach C
navigation aid which an approach must begin.

The situation which exists when the radar The situation which exists when the radar position of a
238 RADAR CONTACT is defined as: position of a particular aircraft is seen on a radar particular aircraft is seen and identified on a radar None of the above B
display . display .

The point at which as aircraft is expected to The point until the aircraft is expected to maintain visual The point at which an aircraft is granted an air traffic
239 Clearance limit is: C
reduce airspeed reference and keeps clear of clouds control clearance

The beginning of that portion of the runway The beginning of that portion of the runway used for
240 THRESHOLD is defined as: The beginning of that portion of the takeoff runway A
usable for landing warm -up.

If an airplane is consuming 95 pounds of fuel per hour

at a cruising altitude of 6500 feet and the groundspeed
241 112 kg 265 pounds 284 pounds A
is 173 knots , how much fuel is required to travle 450
NN?

En una aproximación ADF la altura mínima de

242 500 pies 450 pies 350 pies A
descenso es de:
 Los pilotos de transporte de línea y copilotos con
licencia comercial de aviones deben realizar una serie
243 de proeficiencias y repasos al año para cumplir con Dos veces al año Tres veces al año Cada 2 años A
los requisitos de la UAEAC, en cuanto a simuladores
de vuelo se refiere, el número de estos es de:

Como se interpreta si las luces PAPI se observan

244 Voy en tray ectoria Voy ligeramente alto. Voy muy alto. C
desde su avion totalmente blancas:

245 La UTA es un espacio aéreo: Categoria A, con vuelos IFR y VMC. Categoria A restringido a instrumentos. Categoria B únicamente. B

Cúal es la cantidad máxima de horas anuales que un

piloto con licencia PCA, que vuela para una empresa
246 500 Horas 700 Horas 900 Horas C
de servicio aereo regular y una aeronave de mas de
5700 KGS puede volar?

La utilizada o definida como área de vuelo para Parte del aeródromo que se utiliza para despegues,
Se define como área de maniobras en un aeródromo Todo tipo de aérea de movimiento en la cual se desplace
247 operación de aeronaves sujeta a restricciones o aterrizajes y rodaje de aeronaves excluyendo las C
a: una aeronave.
limitaciones. plataformas.

El área comprendida entre dos aeropuertos conformada El área de control dispuesta en forma de corredor y
248 Se define como aerovía: El área controlada por la torre de control C
por 2 radio ay udas y con un ancho de 12 millas nauticas equipada con ay udas para la navegación.

Se considera combustible básico para el despacho de El suficiente para volar del aeropuerto de origen a El suficiente para volar de origen a destino más el El suficiente para volar de origen a destino más
249 A
una aeronave: destino. alterno. extra.

QUESTION NUMBER QUESTION OPTION A OPTION B OPTION C ANSWER

El suficiente para volar y aterrizar en el

Se considera combustible de reserva para el despacho
250 aeropuerto alterno más lejano incluido en el plan El suficiente para sostener por 30 minutos. El suficiente para sostener por 45 minutos. A
de una aeronave:
de vuelo.

Se considera combustible mínimo para el despacho de El suficiente para llegar de origen a destino mas La suma de combustible básico + reserva +
251 El suficiente para llegar de origen a destino. C
una aeronave: reserva. contingencia(si aplica) + sostenimiento.

252 El RAC comprende: 9 partes 11 partes 24 partes C

253 El RAC se define como: Reglamento del aire de Colombia. Reglamento Aeronáutico de Colombia Reglamento de Aviones Colombia B

Normas de aeronavegabilidad y Operación de

254 La parte cuarta del RAC corresponde a: Aeródromos e instalaciones Personal Aeronáutico C
aeronaves

Normas de Aeronavegabilidad y Operación de

255 La parte Séptima del RAC corresponde a: Personal Aeronáutico Régimen Sancionatorio C
Aeronaves

Para poder servir como copiloto de una empresa de

256 transporte aéreo regular, este debe de haber cumplido 12 meses 18 meses 24 meses A
con un chequeo de rutas dentro de un período de:

257 La palabra Notam se define como: Notice to the Aircraft. Notice to the Airman Notice to the Air maintenance operator B

El Límite de horas mensuales para un tripulante de

258 80 horas 90 horas 85 horas B
aeronaves en Colombia según el RAC es de:

Una calle de rodaje de baja velocidad forma ángulo

259 120° con respecto el eje longitudinal de la pista. 90° con respecto al eje longitudinal de la pista. 90° con respecto a la torre de control. B
de:

El control de horas mensuales y anuales de un

260 El operador. El tripulante La Aeronáutica Civil B
tripulante de vuelo es responsabilidad de:

El tiempo máximo de servicio de un tripulante de

261 cabina de mando para tripulación sencilla de 12 horas 12:30 horas 14 horas B
aeronaves de transporte aéreo regular es de:

262 Espacio aéreo controlado visual por TWR: ATZ CTR TMA A
 El RAC permite libre acceso a la cabina de mando de
263 Un controlador de tráfico aéreo Un inspector de la UAEAC Un inspector de la Fuerza Aérea Colombiana B
una aeronave comercial a:

La responsabilidad Final en la operación de una

264 La UAEAC El piloto al mando La empresa explotadora B
aeronave depende de:

El RAC exige que por encima de ___________ se

debe llevar suficiente oxígeno para suministro de
265 11.000 pies 10.000 pies 12.000 pies B
todos los miembros de la tripulación en caso de una
despresurización.

De acuerdo al RAC, para despachar una aeronave Un aeropuerto alterno de despegue ubicado a 30 Un aeropuerto alterno de despegue ubicado a 45 minutos Un aeropuerto alterno de despegue ubicado a 1 hora
266 cuando el aeropuerto de origen esta por debajo de los minutos de vuelo a velocidad normal de crucero de vuelo a velocidad normal de crucero con un motor de vuelo a velocidad normal de crucero con un motor C
mínimos de aterrizaje se requiere tener: con un motor inoperativo. inoperativo. inoperativo.

La separación vertical mínima entre dos aeronaves

267 500 pies 1.000 pies 2.000 pies B
operando en espacio aéreo RVSM es de:

Un punto geográfico exacto, que coincide con una

La altura mínima en la cual una aeronave debe
Se define en una aproximación de precisión como DH La altura mínima a la que puede descender una aeronave altura especifica en la cual una aeronave de no tener
268 iniciar una aproximación frustrada en caso de no C
(Decision Height) a: con el piloto automático enganchado. contacto visual contacto visual debe iniciar una
tener contacto visual.
aproximacion frustrada

De acuerdo al RAC, se pierde autonomía para actuar

como piloto al mando o copiloto de una aeronave si
269 60 y 3 c. 90 y 3 60 y 2 B
en los_____ días precedentes no se han efectuado
_____ despegues y aterrizajes.

Durante una aproximación por referencia visual, se El control ceda su responsabilidad al piloto por ser El piloto sea responsable de la separación con otros El piloto asuma la navegación pero la separación
270 C
espera que: un vuelo VFR tránsitos IFR y VFR VFR/IFR la efectué el ATS.

271 Una aeronave vuela dentro de un FIR con: Altitudes Alturas Niveles de vuelo C

QUESTION NUMBER QUESTION OPTION A OPTION B OPTION C ANSWER

En una aproximación IFR, se denomina FAF (Final

272 Inicia la aproximación intermedia Inicia la maniobra de aproximación frustrada Se encuentra alineada con la pista para aterrizar C
Approach Fix) al punto donde una aeronave:

Si un vuelo IFR nocturno se realiza en un FIR, será

273 NO controlado Controlado si las condiciones son IMC NO controlado si las condiciones son VMC C
un vuelo:

La legislación Aérea Colombiana se encuentra

274 Manual de Reglamentos Aeronáuticos Código de comercio AIP de Colombia B
publicada en:

Si una aeronave militar intercepta una aeronave civil

en vuelo y le hace la siguiente señal: Baja tren de
275 sígame Aterrice aquí Usted esta en peligro. Sígame B
aterrizaje y mantiene luces de aterrizaje encendidos,
esto significa:

Un piloto esta en la obligación de notificar a los

servicios ATS respecto a la hora estimada a un punto
276 1 minuto 2 minutos 3 minutos C
de notificación, cuando exista una diferencia de la
que aparece en el plan de vuelo actualizado de:

La expresión aeronave OSCAR PAPA significa una

277 Operación VIP presidencial Ambulancia Orden público C
aeronave en vuelo de:

De acuerdo al RAC, el piloto al mando de una

278 aeronave podrá desviarse de una autorización emitida Esta pone en riesgo la seguridad del vuelo. Una situación de emergencia es declarada a y b son correctas C
por el ATC sí:

Cuando una aeronave se encuentre en una situación

de emergencia que ponga en peligro la seguridad de
las personas o de las aeronaves y se requiera de tomar
279 5 días 8 días 10 días C
medidas que infrinjan los reglamentos o
procedimientos locales, el piloto al mando deberá
pasar un informe escrito dentro de los siguientes:
 Para recobro de autonomía como Piloto Comercial de
aviones después de un receso de 90 días, el tripulante
280 deberá efectuar_____ despegues y aterrizajes ante un 4 3 5 B
instructor calificado, en el equipo que desea recobrar
autonomía.

El cumplimiento de las normas aeronáuticas en

281 El ministerio de transporte La UAEAC La secretaría de transporte Aéreo de Colombia A
Colombia es principal función de:

Para actuar como tripulante efectivo de una aeronave Licencia Expedida por la Aeronáutica Civil de Certificado de Carencia de Estupefacientes y Certificado
282 a y b son correctas A
en Colombia, se deberá tener en posesión siempre: Colombia y Certificado Medico de antecedentes disciplinarios

Cuando una aeronave se aproxime de frente con otra,

La aeronave de mayor envergadura iniciara un
283 las dos variaran su rumbo para evitar una colisión de Ambas aeronaves viraran a la derecha Ambas aeronaves viraran a la izquierda A
ascenso y por consecuente la otra un descenso.
acuerdo a los siguientes parámetros:

De acuerdo a lo establecido en el RAC, excepto

cuando sea necesario para el despegue o aterrizaje de
2.000 pies por encima del obstáculo mas alto en 1.000 pies por encima del obstáculo mas alto en un radio
284 una aeronave o cuando lo autorice la autoridad a y b son correctos C
un radio de 5 millas en terreno montañoso. de 5 millas en terreno no montañoso.
competente, no se efectuaran vuelos IFR a un nivel
inferior a la altitud mínima establecida de:

Las condiciones mínimas de alcance visual en

285 8 km/5 millas 5 km/3 millas 8 millas/5 kms A
Colombia por encima de 10,000 pies serán de

Cada vez que el piloto al mando de una aeronave

286 ejerza la autoridad de emergencia, deberá reportar a la 5 días hábiles 8 días hábiles 10 días hábiles A
UAEAC en los siguientes:

La responsabilidad de reportar irregularidades

287 mecánicas que ocurran durante el tiempo de vuelo es El piloto al mando El técnico de mantenimiento El explotador de la aeronave A
de:

La responsabilidad de que se efectúe un prevuelo

288 El piloto al mando El copiloto El técnico de mantenimiento A
antes de iniciar un vuelo en una aeronave es de:

El Manual de Operaciones de Vuelo de un

289 El reglamento del aire es parte de: El Reglamento Aeronáutico de Colombia El Manual de Reglamentos Aeronáuticos B
operador

QUESTION NUMBER QUESTION OPTION A OPTION B OPTION C ANSWER

Hora en la que el ATC prevé que una aeronave

que llega después de experimentar una demora, La hora en la cual se estima que una aeronave aterrice en
290 Se define como hora prevista de aproximación: Ninguna de las anteriores A
abandone el fijo de espera para completar su su aeropuerto de destino
aproximación, a fin de aterrizar

La altura mínima de decisión para una aproximación

291 100 pies 200 pies 250 pies B
ILS categoría I es igual:

292 Se considera como aproximación de precisión: ILS VOR DME Contacto radar A

Si volamos en condiciones VMC queremos decir Estamos en condiciones de vuelo visual y Estamos en condiciones de vuelo visual y nuestro plan de
293 Todas B
que: volando IMC vuelo puede ser IFR

If on an IFR flight plan, y ou are advised to be in radar Follow all possible instructions and advise ATC
294 Obey all instructions from ATC regardless Obey all instructions from ATC only while in cloud C
contact, y ou must: when unable to comply .

When fly ing a commercial route you are familiar with

and y ou are in congested airspace, you may instead of Say “ROGER” to ATC without repeating y our Simply click y our mike when answering obvious things Read back all clearances including your call sign and
295 call sign or flight number again, once you know or flight # even if this is going to congest the C
reading back all clearances and instructions to ATC. So as to not congest the frequency
ATC recognizes y our voice frequency even more.
repetitively simply :

You must advice ATC if y ou cannot climb or descent

296 to y our assigned altitude if y ou cannot maintain at No restriction if cleared at pilot discretion 500 ft on climb and 1.500 ft on descent c. 500 FPM C
least:

Only the aircraft ID and transponder code if advised as Aircraft ID, Clearance limit, Dep. Procedure, route
297 An IFR clearance must include the following: Dep. Airport, aircraft ID. Flight level and route C
filed on a passenger carrying and transponder code
 You are expected to read back clearances containing
As well as those containing wind direction and
298 altitude assignments, radar vectors or any instructions TRUE FALSE A
intensity
requiring verification:

If while on a hold and this is not y our IAF, y ou lose 2

299 Leave the hold at the EFC time Immediately fly in VMC and land as soon as possible Stay on the hold until y our EAT A
way voice communications, y ou should:

You filed from SKBO to SKMD W23-ABL-

W36FELIX-W25-RNG. Just before ABL you Continue y our flight route as per original flight plan as it
Maintain present course and filed altitude until
300 experience 2 way Com. Failure and just before this was read back on ground to clearance delivery before As y ou cross ABL, fly direct RNG C
Com is reestablished
y ou were told to fly ABL Direct RNG. With regards take off
to the correct route to fly you should:

Selected to ARMED and if absolutely necessary to

During preflight of a transport category aircraft that
Tested and when done, ensure the switch is Tested by selecting 243 mhz on the radio and listening test, it should only be done by selecting it to ON for
301 undergoes a progressive maintenance program the C
selected to ARMED for a tone when the switch is selected to ON no more than 3 seconds during ONLY the first 5
ELT should:
minutes of every hour

El MMEL (Master MEL) lo prepara el

302 Señalar lo que es cierto El MEL es más restrictivo que el MMEL (Master MEL) El MEL es preparado por el explotador del avión C
explotador

Which report should be made to ATC without a When leaving final approach fix inbound on final Correcting an E.T.A. any time a previous E.T.A. is in
303 Entering instrument meteorological conditions. B
specific request when not in radar contact? approach. error in excess of 2 minutes.

When the ground speed changes more than 5 When the average true airspeed changes 5 percent or 10
304 For which speed variation should y ou notify ATC? Any time the ground speed changes 10 MPH. B
knots. knots, whichever is greater.

Traffic priority is needed to the destination Emergency handling is required to the nearest useable Merely an advisory that indicates an emergency
305 What does “declering minimum fuel” to ATC imply? C
airport. airport. situation is possible should any undue delay occur.

When ATC has not imposed any climb or descent

restrictions and aircraft are within 1,000 feet of
306 500 feet per minute and 1,000 feet per minute. 500 feet per minute and 1,500 feet per minute. 1,000 feet per minute and 2,000 feet per minute. B
assigned altitude, pilots should attempt to both climb
and descend at a rate of between

For IFR planning purposes, what are the compulsory

reporting points when using VOR/DME or VORTAC There are no compulsory reporting points unless advised
307 Fixes selected to define the route. At the changeover points. A
fixes to define a direct route not on established by ATC.
airway s?

QUESTION NUMBER QUESTION OPTION A OPTION B OPTION C ANSWER

What action should y ou take if y our No. 1 VOR

receiver malfunctions while operating in controlled
airspace under IFR? Your aircraft is equipped with Continue the approach and request a VOR or NDB
308 Report the malfunction immediately to ATC. Continue the flight as cleared, no report is required. A
two VOR receivers. The No. 1 receiver has VOR/ approach.
Localizer/Glide Slope capability , and the No. 2 has
only VOR/Localizer capability .

During an IFR flight in IMC, a distress condition is Not hesitate to declare an emergency and obtain Wait until the situation is immediately perilous before Contact ATC and advise that an urgency condition
309 encountered, (fire, mechanical, or structural failure). A
The pilot should an amended clearance. declaring an emergency. exists and request priority consideration.

During the enroute phase of an IFR flight, the Pilot is

Activate the IDENT feature of the transponder to
310 advised “Radar service terminated”. What action is Set transponder to code 1200. Resume normal position reporting B
reestablish radar contact.
appropiate

During an IFR flight in IMC, y ou enter a holding

pattern (at a fix that is not the same as the approach
Depart the holding fix to arrive at the approach Depart the holding fix at the earliest of the flight
fix) with an EFC time of 1530. At 1520 y ou Depart the holding fix at the EFC time, and complete the
311 fix as close as possible to the EFC time and planned ETA or the EFC time, and complete the B
experience complete two-way communications approach.
complete the approach. approach.
failure. Which procedure should y ou follow to
execute the approach to a landing?
 Which procedure should y ou follow if you experience
two-way communications failure while holding at a Depart the holding fix to arrive at the approach Proceed immediately to the approach fix and hold
312 Depart the holding fix at the EFC time. B
holding fix with an EFC time? (The holding fix is not fix as close as possible to the EFC time. until EFC.
the same as the approach fix.)

Which procedure should y ou follow if, during an IFR

Continue the flight under VFR and land as soon Continue the flight at assigned altitude and route, start
313 flight in VFR conditions, y ou have two-way radio Land at the nearest airport that has VFR conditions. A
as practicable. approach at y our ETA, or, if late, start approach
communications failure?

Continue on the route specified in y our clearance, Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to
What altitude and route should be used if y ou are Fly direct to an area that has been forecast to have VFR
fly at an altitude that is the highest of last the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds,
314 fly ing in IMC and have two-way radio conditions, fly at an altitude that is at least 1,000 feet A
assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed y ou maintain the highest of the MEA’s of the clerence
communications failure? above the highest obstacles along the route.
to expect, or the MEA. route

In the event of two way radio communications failure

By the route assigned in the last ATC clearance The flight by the most direct route to the fix specified
315 while operating on an IFR clearance in VFR The flight under VFR and land as soon as practical. B
received. in the last clearance.
conditions the pilot should continue

While fly ing on an IFR flight plan, y ou experience

two-way communications radio failure while in VFR IFR and maintain the last assigned route and altitude
316 VFR and land as soon as practicable. VFR and proceed to y our flight plan destination. A
conditions. In this situation, y ou should continue y our to y our flight plan destination.
flight under

The pilot must maintain 6,000 feet until reaching

The pilot may utilize any altitude from the MEA/
What is the significance of an ATC clearence which the IAF serving the destination airport, then Climbsmay be made to or descends may be made from
317 MOCA to 6,000 feet, but each change in altitude B
reads “CRUISE SIX THOUNSAND” execute then execute the published approach 6000 feet at pilot’s discretion
must be reported to the ATC
procedure

Maintain a continuous optimum climb until Maintain an optimum climb on the centerline of the
What is the recommended climb procedure when a reaching assigned altitude and report passing Climb at a maximum angle of climb to within 1,000 feet
airway without intermediate level offs until 1,000
318 nonradar departure control instructs a pilot to climb to each 1,000 foot level. of the assigned altitude, then 500 feet per minute the last C
feet below assigned altitude, then 500 to 1500 feet
the assigned altitude? 1,000 feet.
per minute.

When departing from an airport not served by a The pilot must advise ATC as soon as possible, but no
ATC will assume the pilot has not departed if no
319 control tower, the issuance of a clearance containing a later than 30 minutes, of their intentions if not off by the ATC will protect the airspace only to the void time. B
transmission is received before the void time.
void time indicates that void time

What response is expected when ATC issues an IFR Read back the entire clearance as required by Read back those parts containing altitude assignments or Read-back should be unsolicited and spontaneous to
320 B
clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft? regulation. vectors and any part requiring verification. confirm that the pilot understands all instructions.

Which clearance items are always given in an

Altitude, destination airport, and one or more Destination airport, altitude, DP Name, Number, and/or Clearance limit, DP Name, Number, and/or
321 abbreviated IFR departure clearance? (Assume radar B
fixes which identify the initial route of flight. Transition, if appropriate. Transition, if appropriate.
environment.)

On the runup pad, y ou receive the following clearance

from ground control: CLEARED TO THE DALLAS-
LOVE AIRPORT AS FILED--MAINTAIN SIX
THOUSAND--SQUAWK ZERO SEVEN ZERO
322 FOUR JUST BEFORE DEPARTURE-- Departure control frequency. Destination airport and route. Requested enroute altitude. B
DEPARTURE
CONTROL WILL BE ONE TWO FOUR POINT
NINER. An abbreviated clearance, such as this, will
alway s contain the

QUESTION NUMBER QUESTION OPTION A OPTION B OPTION C ANSWER

When may ATC request a detailed report of an

323 When priority has been given. Any time an emergency occurs. When the emergency occurs in controlled airspace. A
emergency even though a rule has not been violated?

Which clearance procedures may be issued by ATC

324 DPs, STARs, and contact approaches. Contact and visual approaches. DPs, STARs, and visual approaches C
without prior pilot request?
 The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at any
The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching the
What is the significance of an ATC clearence which It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and
325 IAF serving the destination airport, then execute B
reads “CRUISE SIX THOUNSAND” minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000. including 6,000, but each change in altitude must be
the published approach procedure
reported to ATC.

An ATC clearence which reads “CRUISE 4000 feet” Climb to, but not descend from 4,000 feet, without Use any altitude from minimum IFR to 4,000 feet,
326 Vacate 4,000 feet without notify ing ATC. A
would mean further ATC clearance. but must report leaving each altitude.

While on an IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency Submit a detailed report to the chief of the ATC
327 which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as possible. Squawk 7700 for the duration of the emergency. A
What action must be taken? facility within 48 hours.

An abbreviated departure clearence...”CLEARED AS And number of the STAR to be flown when filed Of the first compulsory reporting point if not in a
328 Of the destination airport filed in the flight plan. B
FILED” will alway s contain the name in the flight plan. radar environment

329 14 CFR part 1 defines VLE as Maximum landing gear extended speed. Maximum landing gear operating speed. Maximum leading edge flaps extended speed. A

330 14 CFR part 1 defines VNE as Maximum landing gear extended speed. Never-exceed speed. Maximum nose wheel extend speed. B

331 14 CFR part 1 defines VY as Speed for best rate of descent. Speed for best angle of climb. Speed for best rate of climb C

Which is the correct sy mbol for the stalling speed or

332 the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane VS VS1 VSO A
is controllable?

Is the indicated airspeed corrected for instrument errors,

333 Define Calibrated Air Speed? Normal operating speed. Speed corrected by Warm climate. B
position error

334 14 CFR part 1 defines VF as Design flap speed. Flap operating speed. Maximum flap extended speed. A

Which is the correct sy mbol for the stalling speed or

335 the minimum steady flight speed in a specified VS. VS1 VSO B
configuration?

Which airspeed would a pilot be unable to identify by

336 The never-exceed speed. The power-off stall speed. The maneuvering speed. C
the color coding of an airspeed indicator?

If a standard rate turn is maintained, how long would

337 1 minute. 2 minutes. 3 minutes. B
it take to turn 360°?

To determine pressure altitude prior to takeoff, the The field elevation and the pressure reading in the
338 The current altimeter setting. 29.92 inches Hg and the altimeter indication noted. B
altimeter should be set to altimeter setting window noted.

What is an operational difference between the turn Indicates roll rate, rate of turn, and coordination, the
Is alway s electric, the turn-and-slip indicator is Indicates bank angle only , the turn-and-slip indicator
339 coordinator and the turn-and-slip indicator? The turn turn-and-slip indicator indicates rate of turn and C
alway s vacuum -driven. indicates rate of turn and coordination.
coordinator coordination.

What is an advantage of an electric turn coordinator if

It will not tumble as will vacuum-driven turn
340 the airplane has a vacuum system for other gyroscopic It is a backup in case of vacuum system failure. It is more reliable than the vacuum -driven indicators. A
indicators.
instruments?

341 A Standard rate turn is : A turn at a rate of 3% min at 100 Kts (TAS in Kts / 3o) + 5 A turn at a rate of 3o / sec C

Northerly turning errors only in the northern Nothing on a commercial transport category Aircraft Errors during acceleration or turns on only magnetic
342 Magnetic dip is responsible for: C
hemisphere counteracted by magnetic dip equipped with EFIS compasses

Pitot static instruments are connected as follows on a Airspeed = pitot + static, Altimeter = static only, Vertical Airspeed = pitot + static ,Altimeter = static only,
343 Airspeed = pitot only , Altimeter = static only C
high Performance aircraft: speed = pitot + alternate Static Vertical speed = static only

Remains the same but the ground speed is faster than

344 At higher elevation airports the indicated airspeed: Is the same as the TAS Is higher and so is the resultant ground speed C
at lower altitude airports

QUESTION NUMBER QUESTION OPTION A OPTION B OPTION C ANSWER

 TAS is the actual speed y our airplane moves through Should increase for a given TAS corrected for
345 undisturbed air. As density altitude increases y our Should remain the same regardless Should increase about 2 Kts / 1.000 Ft increment C
TAS: instrument and installation error

Display ed when the altimeter setting is corrected Display ed when the altimeter setting is set on the QNH Display ed when 29.92 is set on the altimeter
346 Pressure altitude is: C
for tem perature at sea level window regardless of outside temp. + pressure

347 Density altitude is used for: Only for fly ing altitudes below 18.000 Ft. Calculating TAS with 29.92 set on the Alt. Performance calculations with OAT charts C

While on the ground with the correct altimeter setting Within 100 Ft. for CAT I ILS approved
348 Within 20 Ft. of the other altimeter Within 75 Ft. of the actual field elevation. C
y our altimeter should read: airplanes

If on a takeoff roll below 80 Kts. one of the airspeed Continue the take off and report to Maintenance
Continue the takeoff and consult the MEL before writing Reject the take off, return to the gate and report to
349 indicators is under reading by exactly 30 Kts., you at next stop as y ou still have 1 reliable ASI C
out a Maintenance report Maintenance assum ing all the delay consequences
should: available

350 Compass correction cards Are not required on EFIS equipped aircraft Are not required on transport category aircraft Must be current and installed on all certified aircraft C

351 Pitch instruments are: Attitude, vertical speed and altimeter Altimeter, airspeed and VSI Attitude indicator, altimeter, airspeed and VSI C

When performing a VOR accuracy check at a VOR

test point on an airfield, the VOR can be considered
352 2o to either side No deviations are allowed for IFR 4o to either side C
serviceable if it is within _______ of the published
radial:

If a VOR check is desired and no VOT is available, Must be made by maintenance personnel with Is not necessary for aircraft certified for CAT II ILS Can be made between 2 VOR ́S within the aircraft
353 C
the check: special equipment approaches and the error must not exceed 4o

The ratio of aircraft true airspeed to the speed of The ratio of aircraft indicated airspeed to the speed of The ratio of aircraft equivalent airspeed, corrected for
354 What information does a Mach meter present? A
sound. sound. installation error, to the speed of

Under what condition is pressure altitude and density When indicated, and pressure altitudes are the same
355 At standard temperature. When the altimeter setting is 29.92" Hg. A
altitude the same value? value on the altimeter.

Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal When indicated altitude is equal to the pressure
356 When the atmospheric pressure is 29.92" Hg. When standard atmospheric conditions exist. B
to true altitude? altitude.

Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate

357 Air temperature lower than standard. Atmospheric pressure lower than standard. Air temperature warmer than standard. C
a lower altitude than actually flown (true altitude)?

Under what condition will true altitude be lower than When density altitude is higher than indicated
358 indicated altitude with an altimeter setting of 29.92" In warmer than standard air temperature. In colder than standard air temperature. B
Hg? altitude.

Altimeter setting is the value to which the scale of the

359 True altitude at field elevation. Pressure al titude at field elevation. Pressure altitude at sea level. A
pressure altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates

How can y ou obtain the pressure altitude on flights Use y our computer to change the indicated altitude to
360 Set y our altimeter to 29.92" Hg. Contact an FSS and ask for the pressure altitude. A
below 18,000 feet? pressure altitude.

Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting of a

How can y ou determine the pressure altitude on an Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg and read the Use y our computer and correct the field elevation for
361 station within 100 miles and correct this indicated A
airport without a tower or FSS? altitude indicated. temperature.
altitude with local temperature

Which altitude is indicated when the altimeter is set

362 Density Pressure Standard B
to 29.92" Hg?

At an altitude of 6,500 feet MSL, the current altimeter

363 setting is 30.42" Hg. The pressure altitude would be 7,500 feet. 6,000 feet. 6,500 feet. B
approximately

The pressure altitude at a given location is indicated

364 The field elevation. 29.92" Hg. The current altimeter setting. B
on the altimeter after the altimeter is set to

If the outside air temperature increases during a flight

365 at constant power and at a constant indicated altitude, Decrease and true altitude will increase. Increase and true altitude will decrease. c. Increase and true altitude will increase. C
the true airspeed will
QUESTION NUMBER QUESTION OPTION A OPTION B OPTION C ANSWER

Altimeter setting is the value to which the scale of the

366 Pressure altitude at sea level. True altitude at field elevation. Pressure altitude at field elevation. B
pressure altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates

Pressure altitude is the altitude read on your altimeter

367 when the instrument is adjusted to indicate height Sea level. The standard datum plane. Ground level. B
above

When an altimeter is changed from 30.11" Hg to

368 29.96" Hg, in which direction will the indicated Altimeter will indicate 15 feet lower. Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower. Altimeter will indicate 150 feet higher. B
altitude change and by what value?

En route at FL290, the altimeter is set correctly, but

not reset to the local altimeter setting of 30.57" Hg
369 during descent. If the field elevation is 650 feet and 715 feet. 1,300 feet. Sea level. C
the altimeter is functioning properly , what is the
approximate indication upon landing?

En route at FL290, y our altimeter is set correctly, but

y ou fail to reset it to the local altimeter setting of
370 30.26" Hg during descent. If the field elevation is 134 100 feet MSL. 474 feet MSL. 206 feet below MSL. C
feet and y our altimeter is functioning properly, what
will it indicate after landing?

Which of the following defines the ty pe of altitude

371 Indicated. Pressure. Calibrated. B
used when maintaining FL210?

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter when

Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting until Set the altimeter to the current reported setting for
372 assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or higher on a Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before takeoff. C
reaching the assigned altitude, then set to 29.92" climb out and 29.92" Hg upon reaching 18,000 feet.
direct flight off airway s?

While y ou are flying at FL250, y ou hear ATC give an

373 altimeter setting of 28.92" Hg in y our area. At what 24,000 feet. 25,000 feet. 26,000 feet. B
pressure altitude are you flying?

If y ou are departing from an airport where you cannot

374 obtain an altim eter setting, y ou should set y our On 29.92" Hg. On the current airport barometric pressure, if known. To the airport elevation. C
altimeter

The local altimeter setting should be used by all pilots The cancellation of altimeter error due to More accurate terrain clearance in mountainous
375 Better vertical separation of aircraft. B
in a particular area, primarily to provide for nonstandard temperatures aloft. areas.

Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg. With current

Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting. The
How should y ou preflight check the altimeter prior to temperature and the altimeter indication,
376 current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should indication should be within 75 feet of the actual C
an IFR flight? determine the true altitude to compare with the
correspond to the change in setting. elevation for acceptable accuracy.
field elevation.

Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With

Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting. The
How should y ou preflight check the altimeter prior to current temperature and the altimeter indication,
377 current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should indication should be within 75 feet of the actual C
an IFR flight? determine the calibrated altitude to compare with
correspond to the change in setting. elevation for acceptable accuracy.
the field elevation.

One characteristic that a properly functioning gy ro Ability to resist precession 90° to any applied Deflecting force developed from the angular velocity
378 Resistance to deflection of the spinning wheel or disc. B
depends upon for operation is the force. of the spinning wheel.

If a 180° steep turn is made to the right and the

Should immediately show straight-and-level
379 aircraft is rolled out to straight-and-level flight by Will show a slight skid and climb to the right. May show a slight climb and turn. C
flight.
visual references, the attitude indicator

As a rule of thumb, altitude corrections of less than

380 Full bar width on the attitude indicator. Half bar width on the attitude indicator. Two bar width on the attitude indicator. B
100 feet should be corrected by using a

Which condition during taxi is an indication that an The horizon bar tilts more than 5° while making The horizon bar does not align itself with the
381 The horizon bar vibrates during warmup. A
attitude indicator is unreliable? taxi turns. miniature airplane after warmup.

What pretakeoff check should be made of the attitude The horizon bar does not vibrate during The miniature airplane should erect and become stable The horizon bar should erect and become stable
382 C
indicator in preparation for an IFR flight? warmup. within 5 minutes. within 5 minutes
 During normal coordinated turns, what error due to
precession should y ou observe when rolling out to A straight-and-level coordinated flight The miniature aircraft would show a slight turn The miniature aircraft would show a slight descent
383 B
straight-and-level flight from a 180° steep turn to the indication. indication to the left. and wings-level attitude.
right?

QUESTION NUMBER QUESTION OPTION A OPTION B OPTION C ANSWER

Errors in both pitch and bank indication on an attitude

384 indicator are usually at a maximum as the aircraft 180 270 360 A
rolls out of a

When an aircraft is accelerated, some attitude

385 Climb Descent Right turn A
indicators will precess and incorrectly indicate a

When an aircraft is decelerated, some attitude

386 Left turn Climb Descent C
indicators will precess and incorrectly indicate a

While cruising at 160 knots, y ou wish to establish a

climb at 130 knots. When entering the climb (full Attitude indicator, airspeed, and vertical speed Vertical speed indication reaches the predetermined rate Attitude indicator shows the approximate pitch
387 C
panel), it is proper to make the initial pitch change by indicate a climb. of climb. attitude appropriate for the 130-knot climb.
increasing back elevator pressure until the

While cruising at 190 knots, y ou wish to establish a

climb at 160 knots. When entering the climb (full Attitude indicator shows the approximate pitch Attitude indicator, airspeed, and vertical speed indicate a
388 Airspeed indication reaches 160 knots. A
panel), it would be proper to make the initial pitch attitude appropriate for the 160-knot climb. climb.
change by increasing back elevator pressure until the

Prior to starting an engine, y ou should check the turn Needle indication properly corresponds to the Needle is approximately centered and the tube is full of Ball will move freely from one end of the tube of
389 B
and slip indicator to determine if angle of the wings or rotors with the horizon fluid other when the aircraft is rocked.

What indication should be observed on a turn The miniature aircraft will show a turn to the left The miniature aircraft will show a turn to the left and the Both the miniature aircraft and the ball will remain
390 B
coordinator during a left turn while taxiing? and the ball remains centered. ball moves to the right. centered.

What indications should y ou observe on the turn- The ball moves freely opposite the turn, and the The needle deflects in the direction of the turn, but the The ball deflects opposite the turn, but the needle
391 A
andslip indicator during taxi? needle deflects in the direction of the turn. ball remains centered. remains centered.

What does the miniature aircraft of the turn

392 Rate of roll and rate of turn. Angle of bank and rate of turn. Angle of bank. A
coordinator directly display?

What indications are display ed by the miniature

393 Rate of roll and rate of turn. Direct indication of bank angle and pitch attitude. Indirect indication of bank angle and pitch attitude. A
aircraft of a turn coordinator?

What indication is presented by the miniature aircraft Direct indication of the bank attitude and the quality of
394 Indirect indication of the bank attitude. Quality of the turn. B
of the turn coordinator? the turn.

395 Which instrument indicates the quality of a turn? Attitude indicator Heading indicator or magnetic compass. Ball of the turn coordinator. C

Rudder pressure or force around the vertical

396 What force causes an airplane to turn? Vertical lift component. Horizontal lift component. C
axis.

397 The rate of turn at any airspeed is dependent upon The horizontal lift component. The vertical lift component. Centrifugal force. A

When airspeed is decreased in a turn, what must be Decrease the angle of bank and/or increase the Increase the angle of bank and/or decrease the angle of
398 Increase the angle of attack. A
done to maintain level flight? angle of attack. attack.

During a skidding turn to the right, what is the Centrifugal force is less than horizontal lift and Centrifugal force is grater than horizontal lift and the Centrifugal force and horizontal lift are equal and the
399 relationship between the component of lift, B
the load factor is increased. load factor is increased. load factor is decreased.
centrifugal force, and load factor?

What is the relationship between centrifugal force and

400 Horizontal lift exceeds centrifugal force. Horizontal lift and centrifugal force are equal. Centrifugal force exceeds horizontal lift. B
the horizontal lift component in a coordinated turn?

When airspeed is increased in a turn, what must be Increase the angle of bank and/or decrease the angle of
401 Decrease the angle of bank Decrease the angle of attack B
done to maintain a constant altitude? attack

During standard-rate turns, which instrument is

402 Heading indicator. Turn and slip indicator or turn coordinator. Attitude indicator. B
considered primary for bank?
 If a half-standard rate turn is maintained, how long
403 1 minute. 2 minutes. 4 minutes. C
would it take to turn 360°?

If a standard rate turn is maintained, how long would

404 1 minute 2 minutes 3 minutes A
it take to turn 180°?

If a half-standard rate turn is maintained, how much

405 time would be required to turn clockwise from a 30 seconds 1 minute 1 minute 3 seconds B
heading of 090° to a heading of 180°?

QUESTION NUMBER QUESTION OPTION A OPTION B OPTION C ANSWER

During a constant-bank level turn, what effect would

Rate of turn would increase, and radius of turn Rate of turn would decrease, and radius of turn would Rate of turn would decrease, and radius of turn
406 an increase in airspeed have on the rate and radius of C
would increase. decrease. would increase.
turn?

If a standard rate turn is maintained, how much time

407 would be required to turn to the right from a heading 1 minute. 2 minutes. 3 minutes. A
of 090° to a heading of 270°?

If a standard rate turn is maintained, how much time

408 would be required to turn to the left from a heading of 30 seconds. b. 40 seconds. c. 50 seconds. C
090° to a heading of 300°?

If a half-standard rate turn is maintained, how long

409 1 minute. 1 minute 20 seconds. c. 1 minute 30 seconds. C
would it take to turn 135°?

Rate of turn can be increased and radius of turn

410 Decreasing airspeed and shallowing the bank. Decreasing airspeed and increasing the bank. Increasing airspeed and increasing the bank. B
decreased by

The displacement of a turn coordinator during a Remain constant for a given bank regardless of
411 Indicate the angle of bank. Increase as angle of bank increases. C
coordinated turn will airspeed.

(Figure 8) What changes in control displacement

412 should be made so that “2” would result in a Increase left rudder and increase rate of turn. Increase left rudder and decrease rate of turn. Decrease left rudder and decrease angle of bank. A
coordinated standard rate turn?

(Refer to Figure 8.) Which illustration indicates a

413 3 1 2 A
coordinated turn?

(Refer to Figure 8.) Which illustration indicates a

414 2 1 3 B
skidding turn?

(Figure 8) What changes in control displacement

415 should be made so that “1” would result in a Increase right rudder and decrease rate of turn. Increase right rudder and increase rate of turn. Decrease right rudder and increase angle of bank. B
coordinated standard rate turn?

(Refer to Figure 8.) Which illustration indicates a

416 1 3 2 C
slipping turn?

What pretakeoff check should be made of a After 5 minutes, set the indicator to the magnetic
After 5 minutes, check that the heading indicator card Determine that the heading indicator does not precess
417 vacuumdriven heading indicator in preparation for an heading of the aircraft and check for proper A
aligns itself with the magnetic heading of the aircraft. more than 2° in 5 minutes of ground operation.
IFR flight? alignment after taxi turns.

Swing opposite to the direction of turn when Exhibit the same number of degrees of dip as the
418 On the taxi check, the magnetic compass should Swing freely and indicate known headings. C
turning from north. latitude.
 What should be the indication on the magnetic The compass will remain on east for a short time, then
compass as y ou roll into a standard rate turn to the The compass will initially indicate a turn to the The compass will indicate the approximate correct
419 left from an east heading in the Northern gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the C
right. magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.
Hemisphere? aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic

The compass will remain on east for a short time, then
compass as y ou roll into a standard rate turn to the The compass will initially indicate a turn to the The compass will indicate the approximate correct
420 gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the C
right from an easterly heading in the Northern left. magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.
aircraft.
Hemisphere?

What should be the indication on the magnetic The compass will remain on south for a short time,
compass as y ou roll into a standard rate turn to the The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but
421 right from a south heading in the Northern The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left. then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of A
at a faster rate than is actually occurring.
Hemisphere? the aircraft

On what headings will the magnetic compass read

422 most accurately during a level 360° turn, with a bank 135° through 225°. 90° and 270°. 180° and 0°. B
of approximately 15°?

What causes the northerly turning error in a magnetic

423 Coriolis force at the mid-latitudes. Centrifugal force acting on the compass card. The magnetic dip characteristic. C
compass?

The compass will remain on south for a short time,

What should be the indication on the magnetic
compass when y ou roll into a standard rate turn to the The compass will indicate a turn to the left, but at then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of
424 The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right. the aircraft A
left from a south heading in the Northern a faster rate than is actually occurring.
Hemisphere?

QUESTION NUMBER QUESTION OPTION A OPTION B OPTION C ANSWER

What should be the indication on the magnetic The compass will initially show a turn in the
The compass will remain on a westerly heading for a
compass as y ou roll into a standard rate turn to the opposite direction, then turn to a northerly The compass will indicate the approximate correct
425 short time, then gradually catch up to the actual heading C
right from a westerly heading in the Northern indication but lagging behind the actual heading magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.
of the aircraft.
Hemisphere? of the aircraft.

What should be the indication on the magnetic

compass as y ou roll into a standard rate turn to the The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but The compass will remain on north for a short time,
426 The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left. B
right from a northerly heading in the Northern at a faster rate than is actually occurring. then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of
Hemisphere?

What should be the indication on the magnetic The compass will remain on west for a short time, then
The compass will initially indicate a turn to the The compass will indicate the approximate correct
427 compass as y ou roll into a standard rate turn to the gradually catch up to th e magnetic heading of the C
right. magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.
left from a west heading in the Northern Hemisphere? aircraft

What should be the indication on the magnetic

compass as y ou roll into a standard rate turn to the The compass will indicate a turn to the left, but at The compass will remain on north for a short time,
428 left from a north heading in the Northern The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right. B
a faster rate than is actually occurring. then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of
Hemisphere?

Which practical test should be made on the electric Check that the electrical connections are secure Check that the attitude of the miniature aircraft is wings Turn on the electrical power and listen for any
429 C
gy ro instruments prior to starting an engine? on the back of the instruments. level before turning on electrical power. unusual or irregular mechanical noise.

En route at FL290, y our altimeter is set correctly, but

y ou fail to reset it to the local altimeter setting of
430 30.26" Hg during descent. If the field elevation is 134 100 feet MSL. 474 feet MSL. 206 feet below MSL. C
feet and y our altimeter is functioning properly, what
will it indicate after landing?

If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot
No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight
431 sy stem are blocked, what airspeed indication can be Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb. Constant indicated airspeed during a descent. A
even if large power changes are made.
expected?

If both the ram air input and the drain hole of the pitot
sy stem are blocked, what reaction should y ou observe The indicated airspeed would show a continuous No change until an actual climb rate is established,
432 The airspeed would drop to, and remain at, zero. C
on the airspeed indicator when power is applied and a deceleration while climbing. then indicated airspeed will increase.
climb is initiated out of severe icing conditions?
 What indication should a pilot observe if an airspeed The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with an No airspeed indicator change will occur during
433 The airspeed indicator will react as an altimeter. A
indicator ram air input and drain hole are blocked? increase in altitude. climbs or descents.

What would be the indication on the VSI during entry

The indication would be in reverse of the actual The initial indication would be a climb, then descent at a The VSI pointer would remain at zero regardless of
434 into a 500 FPM actual descent from level flight if the C
rate of descent (500 FPM climb). rate in excess of 500 FPM. the actual rate of descent.
static ports were iced over?

If, while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use

an alternate source of static pressure vented inside the The altimeter and airspeed indicator to become
435 The gy roscopic instruments to become inoperative. The vertical speed to momentarily show a climb. C
airplane, which of the following should the pilot inoperative.
expect?

During flight, if the pitot tube becomes clogged with

The airspeed indicator, altimeter, and Vertical Speed
436 ice, which of the following instruments would be The airspeed indicator only . The airspeed indicator and the altimeter. A
Indicator.
affected?

If while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use an

alternate source of static pressure vented inside the The vertical speed to momentarily show a
437 The altimeter to read higher than normal. The vertical speed to show a climb. B
airplane, which of the following variations in descent.
instrument indications should the pilot expect?

(Refer to Figure 9.) Identify the system that has failed Static/pitot sy stem is blocked, lower the nose and
Vacuum sy stem has failed, reduce power, roll left to Electrical sy stem has failed, reduce power, roll left to
438 and determine a corrective action to return the level the wings to level-flight attitude by use of A
level wings, and pitchup to reduce airspeed. level wings, and raise the nose to reduce airspeed.
airplane to straight-and-level flight. attitude indicator.

(Refer to Figure 10.) What is the flight attitude? One

439 Climbing turn to the right. Climbing turn to the left. Descending turn to the right. A
instrument has malfunctioned.

(Refer to Figure 11.) What is the flight attitude? One

440 sy stem which transmits information to the Level turn to the right. Level turn to the left. Straight-and-level flight. C
instruments has malfunctioned.

What is the correct sequence in which to use the three Aircraft control, cross-check, and instrument Instrument interpretation, cross-check, and aircraft Cross-check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft
441 C
skills used in instrument fly ing? interpretation. control. control.

QUESTION NUMBER QUESTION OPTION A OPTION B OPTION C ANSWER

What are the three fundamental skills involved in Instrument interpretation, trim application, and Cross-check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft
442 Cross-check, emphasis, and aircraft control. B
attitude instrument fly ing? aircraft control. control.

What is the third fundamental skill in attitude

443 Instrument cross-check. Power control. Aircraft control. C
instrument fly ing?

What is the first fundamental skill in attitude

444 Aircraft control. Instrument cross-check. Instrument interpretation. B
instrument fly ing?

What effect will a change in wind direction have upon When ground speed decreases, rate of descent When ground speed increases, rate of descent must Rate of descent must be constant to remain on the
445 maintaining a 3° glide slope at a constant true B
must increase. increase. glide slope.
airspeed?

The rate of descent required to stay on the ILS glide Must be increased if the ground speed is Will remain constant if the indicated airspeed remains
446 Must be decreased if the ground speed is decreased. C
slope decreased. constant.

To remain on the ILS glidepath, the rate of descent

447 Decreased if the airspeed is increased. Decreased if the ground speed is increased. Increased if the ground speed is increased. C
must be

The rate of descent on the glide slope is dependent

448 True airspeed. Calibrated airspeed. Ground speed. C
upon

he glide slope and localizer are centered, but the

449 airspeed is too fast. Which should be adjusted Pitch and power. Power only . Pitch only . B
initially ?

During a precision radar or ILS approach, the rate of

450 Remain the same regardless of ground speed. Increase as the ground speed increases. Decrease as the ground speed increases. B
descent required to remain on the glide slope will
 The gy roscopic heading indicator is inoperative. What
451 is the primary bank instrument in unaccelerated Magnetic compass. Attitude indicator. Miniature aircraft of turn coordinator. A
straight-and-level flight?

What instruments are considered supporting bank

452 instruments during a straight, stabilized climb at a Attitude indicator and turn coordinator. Heading indicator and attitude indicator. Heading indicator and turn coordinator. A
constant rate?

What instruments are primary for pitch, bank, and

power, respectively , when transitioning into a Attitude indicator, heading indicator, and Attitude indicator for both pitch and bank airspeed Vertical speed, attitude indicator, and manifold
453 A
constant airspeed climb from straight-and-level manifold pressure gauge or tachometer. indicator for power. pressure or tachometer.
flight?

What is the primary bank instrument once a standard

454 Attitude indicator. Turn coordinator. Heading indicator. B
rate turn is established?

As power is increased to enter a 500 feet per minute

Attitude indicator, heading indicator, and Airspeed indicator, attitude indicator, and manifold
455 rate of climb in straight flight, which instruments are VSI, attitude indicator, and airspeed indicator. A
manifold pressure gauge or tachometer. pressure gauge or tachometer.
primary for pitch, bank, and power respectively?

What is the primary pitch instrument during a

456 Attitude indicator VSI Airspeed indicator C
stabilized climbing left turn at cruise climb airspeed?

What is the primary pitch instrument when

457 Altimeter VSI Airspeed indicator A
establishing a constant altitude standard rate turn?

As a rule of thumb, altitude corrections of less than

458 Two bar widths on the attitude indicator. Less than a full bar width on the attitude indicator. Less than half bar width on the attitude indicator. C
100 feet should be corrected by using

What is the initial primary bank instrument when

459 Turn coordinator. Heading indicator. Attitude indicator. C
establishing a level standard rate turn?

What instrument(s) is(are) supporting bank

460 instrument when entering a constant airspeed climb Heading indicator. Attitude indicator and turn coordinator. Turn coordinator and heading indicator. B
from straight-and-level flight?

What is the primary bank instrument while

461 transitioning from straight-and-level flight to a Attitude indicator. Heading indicator. Turn coordinator (miniature aircraft). A
standard rate turn to the left?

QUESTION NUMBER QUESTION OPTION A OPTION B OPTION C ANSWER

As power is reduced to change airspeed from high to

Attitude indicator, heading indicator, and Altimeter, heading indicator, and manifold pressure
462 low cruise in level flight, which instruments are Altimeter, attitude indicator, and airspeed indicator. C
manifold pressure gauge or tachometer. gauge or tachometer.
primary for pitch, bank, and power, respectively?

Which instrument provides the most pertinent

463 information (primary) for bank control in straightand- Turn-and-slip indicator. Attitude indicator. Heading indicator. C
level flight?

Which instruments are considered primary and

464 supporting for bank, respectively , when establishing a Turn coordinator and attitude indicator. Attitude indicator and turn coordinator. Turn coordinator and heading indicator. B
level standard rate turn?

Which instruments, in addition to the attitude Altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed
465 Altimeter and airspeed only. Altimeter and VSI only . C
indicator, are pitch instruments? indicator.

Which instrument provides the most pertinent

466 information (primary) for pitch control in straightand- Attitude indicator. Airspeed indicator Altimeter C
level flight?

Which instruments are considered to be supporting

467 instruments for pitch during change of airspeed in a Airspeed indicator and VSI. Altimeter and attitude indicator. Attitude indicator and VSI. C
level turn?

Which instrument is considered primary for power as

468 the airspeed reaches the desired value during change Airspeed indicator. Attitude indicator Altimeter A
of airspeed in a level turn?
 Which instruments should be used to make a pitch
469 correction when y ou have deviated from your Altimeter and VSI. Manifold pressure gauge and VSI. Attitude indicator, altimeter, and VSI. C
assigned altitude?

Conditions that determine the pitch attitude required Airspeed, air density , wing design, and angle of Relative wind, pressure altitude, and vertical lift
470 Flightpath, wind velocity , and angle of attack. A
to maintain level flight are attack. component.

Approximately what percent of the indicated vertical

speed should be used to determine the number of feet
471 10 percent. 20 percent. 25 percent . A
to lead the level-off from a climb to a specific
altitude?

To level off from a descent to a specific altitude, the

472 10 percent of the vertical speed. 30 percent of the vertical speed. 50 percent of the vertical speed. A
pilot should lead the level-off by approximately

For maintaining level flight at constant thrust, which

473 instrument would be the least appropriate for Altimeter VSI Attitude indicator. C
determining the need for a pitch change?

To enter a constant-airspeed descent from First adjust the pitch attitude to a descent using First reduce power, then adjust the pitch using the Simultaneously reduce power and adjust the pitch
474 levelcruising flight, and maintain cruising airspeed, the attitude indicator as a reference, then adjust attitude indicator as a reference to establish a specific using the attitude indicator as a reference to maintain C
the pilot should the power to maintain the cruising airspeed. rate on the VSI. the cruising airspeed.

To level off at an airspeed higher than the descent

speed, the addition of power should be made,
475 50 to 100 feet above the desired altitude. 100 to 150 feet above the desired altitude. 150 to 200 feet above the desired altitude. B
assuming a 500 FPM rate of descent, at
approximately

To level off from a descent maintaining the

476 descending airspeed, the pilot should lead the desired 20 feet. 50 feet. 60 feet. B
altitude by approximately

While recovering from an unusual flight attitude

Airspeed and altimeter stop their movement and Airspeed arrives at cruising speed, the altimeter reverses Altimeter and vertical speed reverse their trend and
477 without the aid of the attitude indicator, approximate A
the VSI reverses its trend its trend, and the vertical speed stops its movement the airspeed stops its movement.
level pitch attitude is reached when the

During recoveries from unusual attitudes, level flight The horizon bar on the attitude indicator is The altimeter and airspeed needles stop prior to
478 A zero rate of climb is indicated on the VSI. C
is attained the instant exactly overlapped with the miniature airplane. reversing their direction of movement.

(Refer to Figure 12.) What is the correct sequence for Reduce power, increase back elevator pressure, Reduce power, level the wings, bring pitch attitude to Level the wings, raise the nose of the aircraft to level
479 B
recovery from the unusual attitude indicated? and level the wings. level flight. flight attitude, and obtain desired airspeed.

(Refer to Figure 13.) Which is the correct sequence Level wings, add power, lower nose, descend to Add power, lower nose, level wings, return to original Stop turn by raising right wing and add power at the
480 B
for recovery from the unusual attitude indicated? original attitude, and heading. attitude and heading. same time, lower the nose, and return to original

QUESTION NUMBER QUESTION OPTION A OPTION B OPTION C ANSWER

If an airplane is in an unusual flight attitude and the

attitude indicator has exceeded its limits, which VSI and airspeed to detect approaching V(S1) or V
481 Turn indicator and VSI. Airspeed and altimeter. B
instruments should be relied on to determine pitch (MO).
attitude before starting recovery?

Which is the correct sequence for recovery from a Increase pitch attitude, reduce power, and level Reduce power, correct the bank attitude, and raise the Reduce power, raise the nose to level attitude, and
482 spiraling, nose-low, increasing airspeed, unusual B
wings. nose to a level attitude. correct the bank attitude.
flight attitude?

In aircraft equipped with constant-speed propellers

and normally -aspirated engines, which procedure Decreased, reduce the RPM before reducing the Increased, increase the RPM before increasing the Increased or decreased, the RPM should be adjusted
483 B
should be used to avoid placing undue stress on the manifold pressure. manifold pressure. before the manifold pressure.
engine components? When power is being

As throttle setting is changed by the pilot, the A high blade angle, or increased pitch, reduces the
Which statement best describes the operating The propeller control regulates the engine RPM, and
484 prop governor causes pitch angle of the propeller propeller drag and allows more engine power for C
principle of a constant-speed propeller? in turn, the propeller RPM.
blades to remain unchanged. takeoffs.

Volume of fuel and volume of air entering the Weight of fuel and weight of air entering the
485 Fuel/air ratio is the ratio between the Weight of fuel and weight of air entering the cylinder. B
cy linder. carburetor.
 To establish a climb after takeoff in an aircraft
equipped with a constant-speed propeller, the output Increasing RPM by decreasing propeller blade Decreasing RPM by increasing propeller blade
486 Decreasing RPM by decreasing propeller blade angle. C
of the engine is reduced to climb power by decreasing angle. angle.
manifold pressure and

To develop maximum power and thrust, a

487 constantspeed propeller should be set to a blade angle Large angle of attack and low RPM. Small angle of attack and high RPM. Large angle of attack and high RPM. B
that will produce a

For takeoff, the blade angle of a controllable-pitch

488 Small angle of attack and high RPM. Large angle of attack and low RPM. Large angle of attack and high RPM. A
propeller should be set at a

The reason for variations in geometric pitch Permits a relatively constant angle of incidence Prevents the portion of the blade near the hub from Permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its
489 C
(twisting) along a propeller blade is that it along its length when in cruising flight. stalling during cruising flight. length when in cruising flight.

To establish a climb after takeoff in an aircraft

equipped with a constant--speed propeller, the Increasing RPM by decreasing propeller blade Decreasing RPM by increasing propeller blade
490 Decreasing RPM by decreasing propeller blade angle. C
output of the engine is reduced to climb power angle. angle.
by decreasing manifold pressure and

A fixed-pitch propeller is designed for best efficiency

491 Altitude and RPM. Airspeed and RPM. Airspeed and altitude. B
only at a given combination of

Unless adjusted, the fuel/air mixture becomes richer

492 with an increase in altitude because the amount of Decreases while the volume of air decreases. Remains constant while the volume of air decreases. Remains constant while the density of air decreases. C
fuel

Fuel control units and is an internal component not

493 A flux value is found in: Most hy draulic sy stems b. Directional Gy ro sy stems and has no moving parts C
governed from the flight deck

The intake section of a jet engine is often considered

The turbine, combustion chamber, exhaust and The compressor, combustion chamber, turbine and The Engine struts, compressor, combustion chamber
494 part of the fuselage. The other four parts which are B
reversers exhaust and exhaust
considered part of the engine are

Help the pilot lower the landing gear in emergency,

Hy draulic sy stems in modern aircraft are usually Aid in moving heavy control surfaces or Aid in lowering the landing gear, moving the nose wheel
495 activate the Power Transfer Unit (Sby .electrical A
employ ed to accessories. steering and activating the passenger stairs.
power) and engage the thrust reversers.

Constantly heated leading edges for ground

496 Large transport category jet airplanes employ : Silver colored deicing boots Heated leading edges for de-icing / anti-icing. C
deicing

The most fuel efficient type engine for commercial

497 Turbofan with afterburners Turboprop Jet/scramjet (used on the Concorde) B
passenger transport is

What ty pe measurement is used to rate power on Jet

498 Pounds of thrust Brake horse power Shaft horsepower (SHP) A
or Fanjet engines

Modern aircraft electrical sy stems normally consist Standard 350v 600 Hz AC with step-up Engine generators delivering 115v AC including 400Hz 12v AC lead-acid batteries and 24v DC static
499 B
of transformers and 24v DC sy stems generators

QUESTION NUMBER QUESTION OPTION A OPTION B OPTION C ANSWER

500 Aircraft hy draulic systems use: Aviation grade engine oil as standard fluid Hy draulic fluid Aircraft grade DOT 4 brake fluid B

Where would a pilot find the ty pe of engine oil a In the approved Airplane Operating Manual (AOM) or In the Certificate of Airworthiness (Powerplant
501 Do not even look, call maintenance B
specific aircraft uses similar subsection)

If during a preflight a pilot sees that a tire is showing Look it up in the maintance section of the company’s
502 Consult with a maintenance technician Consult the limits / tolerances in the approved AFM. A
just a thread of canvass, he should: operation specifications

If at an airport JET A or Jet B ty pe fuels are not Top it up with 100/130 LL Avgas not to exceed a Look in the Flight / Maintenance Manual for alternate
503 Not use any other fuel than JET A or Jet B B
available for y our aircraft, would you: 50% ratio fuels

Modern aircraft are usually pressurized in flight by Bleed air tapped off from usually the compressor Auxiliary Power Units which are installed for this Pressure controlled bleed air tapped off usually from
504 A
using: section of the engine purpose primarily the last stage turbine section of the engine
 At what Mach range does the subsonic flight range
505 Below .75 Mach. From .75 to 1.20 Mach c. From 1,20 to 2,50 Mach A
normally occur?

How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce

506 Immediatly after ground contact. Immediatly prior to touchdown. After apply ing maximum wheel braking. A
landing distance for turbojet aircraft?

Loud, steady roar accompanied by heavy Intermittent "bang", as backfires and flow reversal
507 What characterizes a transient compressor stall? Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by loud whine. C
shuddering. take place.

What indicates that a compressor stall has developed Complete loss of power with severe reduction in
508 Strong vibrations and loud roar. Occasional loud "bang" and flow reversal. A
and become steady? airspeed.

The EGT rises rapidly before the N1/N2N/3 reach The ITT/EGT rises rapidly and exceeds limitations
The outside air temperature is above ISA + 45o
509 In turbine engine jargon, a Hot Start is when: sufficient speed and the engine is about to exceed before sufficient turbine/compressor rotation is C
C
limitations obtained

Bringing the engine from forward thrust into a

It is merely accelerated as the exhaust is redirected Starting the engine in the opposite direction of
510 Turbine engines can deliver reverse thrust by. momentary stop (stationary) then spooled up into B
forward normal forward thrust.
reverse thrust.

What other term is used to classify a “Turboprop

511 Propjet Fanjet TPE (Turbocharged Propeller Engine) A
engine”

Approximately in what percentage do turboprop

512 engines deliver thrust via the Propeller Vs turbine 100% propeller - 0% turbine exhaust 75% propeller - 25% turbine exhaust 20% propeller - 80% turbine exhaust B
exhaust:

High-by pass ratio turbine engines can be compared in A turboprop engine with 200 or more small
513 A regular jet engine with afterburner A simple scramjet engine A
operating principle to propeller blades

A regular gas turbine engine’s performance is most

514 Ambient pressure and humidity Ambient temperature and pressure Mostly humidity in the air Vs ISA conditions B
affected by

If a normally aspirated engine’s power output (PA28)

515 is mesured in Shaft Horsepower (SHP), a turboprop Lbs of thrust b. ESHP (equivalent shaft horse power) c. Also SHP C
engine’s power output is mesured in:

What is the prime advantage of a fuel injected engine A fuel injector better atomizes the fuel for A fuel injector is better because it can be adjusted on A fuel injector is less expensive because it does not
516 A
Vs a carburetor ty pe: optimum performance wing. need carburetor de-icing

Turbine engines have a compression ratio of say 20:3

Air pressures at the combustor stage Vs the turbine
517 just like normal internal combustion engines do, this Air pressures at the intake Vs the exhaust stage Air pressures at the turbine Vs the exhaust stage A
stage
ratio on turbine ty pe engines is:

Turbine engines have a compression ratio just like

518 TRUE FALSE Impossible since turbine engines do not have pistons A
internal combustion engines

Constant speed propellers operate the same on an

Use a hy draulic oil sy stem to feed an over speed Use engine oil and a propeller governor to maintain a Use a propeller governor and turbine/turbocharger air
519 internal combustion engine as they do on most B
solenoid given RPM set by the pilot to pneumatically control the engine RPM in flight
turboprop engines because they both

Vortex circulation generated by helicopters in

Helicopters generate downwash turbulence, not The vortex strength is greatest when the generating
520 With respect to vortex circulation, which is true? forward flight trail behind in a manner similar to C
vortex circulation. aircraft is fly ing fast.
wingtip

QUESTION NUMBER QUESTION OPTION A OPTION B OPTION C ANSWER

When landing behind a large aircraft, which Stay above its final approach flightpath all the Stay below and to one side of its final approach Stay well below its final approach flightpath and land
521 A
procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance? way to touchdown. flightpath. at least 2,000 feet behind.

To avoid possible wake turbulence from a large jet

aircraft that has just landed prior to your takeoff, at At the point where the jet touched down, or just prior to Approximately 500 feet prior to the point where the
522 Past the point where the jet touched down. A
which point on the runway should y ou plan to become this point. jet touched down.
airborne?
 Which procedure should y ou follow to avoid wake
turbulence if a large jet crosses your course from left Make sure y ou are slightly above the path of the Slow y our airspeed to VA and maintain altitude and Make sure y ou are slightly below the path of the jet
523 A
to right approximately 1 mile ahead and at your jet course. and perpendicular to the course.
altitude?

During a takeoff made behind a departing large jet

Being airborne prior to reaching the jet's Extending the takeoff roll and not rotating until well
524 airplane, the pilot can minimize the hazard of wingtip Maintaining extra speed on takeoff and climbout. A
flightpath until able to turn clear of its wake. bey ond the jet's rotation point.
vortices by

During an approach, the most important and most

Amount of trim required to relieve control Heading changes necessary to remain on the runway Power and vertical velocity required to remain on the
525 easily recognized means of being alerted to possible C
pressures. centerline. proper glidepath.
wind shear is monitoring the

How can y ou determine if another aircraft is on a The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and There will be no apparent relative motion between
526 B
collision course with y our aircraft? point in space. closer at a rapid rate. y our aircraft and the other aircraft.

What altimeter setting is required when operating an Current reported altimeter setting of a station
527 Altimeter setting at the departure or destination airport. 29.92 Inches Hg. C
aircraft at 18,000 feet MSL? along the route.

When weather information indicates that abnormally

high barometric pressure exists, or will be above
528 _____ inches of mercury, flight operations will not be 30.50 31.00 32.00 B
authorized contrary to the requirements published in
NOTAMs.

After an ATC clearance has been obtained, a pilot Receives an amended clearance or has an
529 Is operating VFR on top. Requests an amended clearance. A
may not deviate from that clearance, unless the pilot emergency.

When planning for an emergency landing at night, on Turning off all electrical switches to save battery Selecting a landing area close to public access, if Landing without flaps to ensure a nose-high landing
530 B
of the primary considerations should include power for the landing. possible. attitude at touchdown.

After experiencing a powerplant failure at night, one Planning the emergency approach and landing to Maneuvering to, and landing on a lighted highway or Turning off all electrical switches to save battery
531 A
of the primary considerations should include an unlighted portion of an area. road. power for landing.

Antiauthority (don't tell me), impulsivity (do

What are some of the hazardous attitudes dealt with Risk management, stress management, and risk Poor decision making, situational awareness, and
532 something quickly without thinking), macho (I can C
in Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM)? elements. judgment.
do it).

A pilot should remain clear of an airport traffic Obstructions or areas considered hazardous to aerial
533 Light beacons producing red flashes indicate End of runway warning at departure end. B
pattern and continue circling. navigation.

(Refer to figure 14.) Which symbol does not directly

534 Top red Middle y ellow. Bottom y ellow. A
address runway incursion with other aircraft?

(Refer to figure 14.) The red symbol at the top would Upon exiting all runway s prior to calling ground At an intersection where a roadway may be mistaken as a
535 Near the approach end of ILS runways. B
most likely be found control. taxiway .

(Refer to figure 14.) The pilot generally calls ground

Passes the red sy mbol shown at the top of the
536 control after landing when the aircraft is completely Is on the dashed-line side of the middle symbol. Is past the solid-line side of the middle sy mbol. C
figure.
clear of the runway. This is when the aircraft

When a pilot recognizes a hazardous thought, he or

she then should correct it by applying the
537 corresponding antidote. Which of the following is the It won't happen to me. It could happen to me. Not so fast. Think first. Follow the rules. They are usually right. C
antidote for the ANTIAUTHORITY/DON'T TELL
ME hazardous attitude?

he basic drive for a pilot to demonstrate the 'right A total disregard for any alternative course of Generating tendencies that lead to practices that are Imposing a realistic assessment of piloting skills
538 B
stuff' can have an adverse effect on safety , by action. dangerous, often illegal, and that may lead to a mishap under stressful conditions.

QUESTION NUMBER QUESTION OPTION A OPTION B OPTION C ANSWER

Most pilots have fallen prey to dangerous tendencies

Peer pressure, get-there-itis, loss of positional or
or behavior problems at some time. Some of these Deficiencies in instrument skills and knowledge Performance deficiencies from human factors such
539 situation awareness, and operating without adequate fuel B
dangerous tendencies or behavior patterns which must of aircraft sy stems or limitations. as, fatigue, illness or emotional problems.
reserves.
be identified and eliminated include:
 An early part of the Aeronautical Decision Making Taking a self-assessment hazardous attitude Obtaining proper flight instruction and experience
540 Understanding the drive to have the 'right stuff.' A
(ADM) process involves inventory test. during training.

Hazardous attitudes which contribute to poor pilot Taking meaningful steps to be more assertive Redirecting that hazardous attitude so that
541 Early recognition of hazardous thoughts. C
judgment can be effectively counteracted by with attitudes. appropriate action can be taken.

What is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous

542 Dealing with improper judgment. Recognition of hazardous thoughts. Recognition of invulnerability in the situation. B
attitude in the ADM process?

What does good cockpit stress management begin

543 Knowing what causes stress. Good life stress management. Eliminating life and cockpit stress issues. B
with?

The passengers for a charter flight have arrived

almost an hour late for a flight that requires a Those reservation rules do not apply to this If the pilot hurries, he or she may still make it on
544 The pilot can't help it that the passengers are late. A
reservation. Which of the following alternatives best flight. time.
illustrates the ANTIAUTHORITY reaction?
While conducting an operational check of the cabin
pressurization sy stem, the pilot discovers that the rate
control feature is inoperative. He knows that he can
545 manually control the cabin pressure, so he elects to It's too late to fix it now. He can handle a little problem like this. What is the worst that could happen. C
disregard the discrepancy. Which of the following
alternatives best illustrates the INVULNERABILITY
reaction?

Complete a flight as planned, please

Examples of classic behavioral traps that experienced Assume additional responsibilities and assert Promote situational awareness and then necessary
546 passengers, meet schedules, and demonstrate C
pilots may fall into are: try ing to PIC authority. changes in behavior.
the 'right stuff.'

While on an IFR flight, a pilot emerges from a cloud

to find himself within 300 feet of a helicopter. Which He is not too concerned, everything will be
547 He flies a little closer, just to show him. He quickly turns away and dives, to avoid collision. B
of the following alternatives best illustrates the alright.
'MACHO' reaction?

Condition themselves to relax and think Be aware of life stress situations that are similar to those Avoid situations that will improve their abilities to
548 To help manage cockpit stress, pilots must A
rationally when stress appears. in fly ing. handle cockpit responsibilities.

A pilot and friends are going to fly to an out-of-town

football game. When the passengers arrive, the pilot
determines that they will be over the maximum gross He can't wait around to de-fuel, they have to get Weight and balance is a formality forced on pilots by
549 weight for takeoff with the existing fuel load. Which Well, nobody told him about the extra weight. B
there on time. the FAA.
of the following alternatives best illustrates the
RESIGNATION reaction?

Which of the following is the final step of the Decide

550 Model for effective risk management and Estimate Eliminate Evaluate C
Aeronautical Decision Making?

Which of the following is the first step of the Decide

551 Model for effective risk management and Identify Detect Evaluate B
Aeronautical Decision Making?

The Decide Model is comprised of a 6-step process to Detect, estimate, choose, identify, do, and Determine, eliminate, choose, identify, detect, and Determine, evaluate, choose, identify , do, and
552 provide a pilot a logical way of approaching A
Aeronautical Decision Making. These steps are: evaluate. evaluate. eliminate.

Mental process of analy zing all information in a Sy stematic approach to the mental process used by pilots
Decision making process which relies on good
553 Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) is a particular situation and making a timely decision to consistently determine the best course of action for a B
judgment to reduce risks associated with each flight.
on what action to take. given set of circumstances.

The Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process Identify ing personal attitudes hazardous to safe
554 identifies the steps involved in good decision making. Developing the 'right stuff' attitude. Making a rational evaluation of the required actions. A
One of these steps includes a pilot flight.

555 The 'taxiway ending' marker Identifies area where aircraft are prohibited. Indicates taxiway does not continue. Provides general taxiing direction to taxiway. B

QUESTION NUMBER QUESTION OPTION A OPTION B OPTION C ANSWER

 On a runway equipped with a precision approach, the
556 At the end of the 3.000 Ft. TDZ Depends if it is CAT I, II OR III ILS runway 500 Ft from the beginning of the runway C
touch down zone markings are located:

557 The area before a displaced threshold may be used: Only in emergencies For taxiing and landing rollout only For taxiing, take off and landing rollout C

Warning positions for Non commercial or VFR An entrance to a runway a critical area or an area
558 A red background sign with white lettering denotes: Instructions for military aircraft only C
aircraft prohibited to aircraft

Not possible at airports with separate tower, A serious offence punishable to non licensed ground Any occurrence that creates a collision hazard on a
559 A runway incursion is: C
ground and ramp controllers vehicle drivers runway

You see 2 white lights next to 2 red lights on the You see 2 white lights on the outside and 2 red lights
560 On a PAPI y ou are on a correct glide path if: You stay within the standard 3o glide path c. C
R side of the runway b. close to the left margin of the runway

White and spaced every 25 Ft except for the last 500 Ft

561 Runway center line lights are: White and green Red for the last 1.000 Ft of the runway C
which are red c.

Airlines may not operate aircraft in uncontrolled True, Passenger carrying flights must always be False, It is allowed if the airline has foreign registered
562 False, it is allowed so long as the OPS SPECS say so C
airspace: operated in class A, B or C airspaces aircraft operating in Colombia

If y ou are cleared to a VOR on a descent from Fl. 190 You are illegal unless specifically authorized by
563 to 9.000 Ft. and y our IAS is 279 Kts, when at the You must slow down to 200 Kts You are legal since y ou did not exceed 280 Kts C
VOR: ATC

On an approach to an airport, you have been advised

y ou are in radar contact and are vectored for the Not obey , since y ou may be in or encounter Obey to all instructions since y ou were advised to be in Obey so long as y ou are not asked to fly below the
564 C
approach, the controller asks y ou fly slightly below clouds radar contact Minimum Vectoring Altitude in IMC
the MEA, y ou should:

565 Intersection take offs are: Not allowed for passenger flights Not allowed in Colombia for foreign registered aircraft Allowed under dry pavement conditions only C

When computing weight and balance, the basic empty

All usable fuel and oil, but does not include any radio
weight includes the weight of the airframe, engine(s), The unusable fuel, full operating fluids, and full All usable fuel, full oil, hy draulic fluid, but does not
566 equipment or instruments that were installed by A
and all installed optional equipment. Basic empty oil include the weight of pilot, passengers, or baggage.
someone other than the manufacturer.
weight also includes

If all index units are positive when computing weight Centerline of the nose or tailwheel, depending on the
567 Centerline of the main wheels. Nose, or out in front of the airplane. B
and balance, the location of the datum would be at the ty pe of airplane.

The CG of an aircraft can be determined by which of

568 Dividing total arms by total moments. Multiply ing total arms by total weight Dividing total moments by total weight. C
the following methods?

Often create much larger pilot errors than traditional

569 Automated flight decks or cockpits Enhance basic pilot flight skills. Decrease the work load in terminal areas. B
cockpits.

Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of Sy nchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of
570 Identify REIL. Amber lights for the first 2,000 feet of runway. C
the runway . the runway threshold.

What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR Lights are closed together and easily Amber lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet of Alternate red and white lights replace the white on
571 B
runway as compared to a VFR runway? distinguinished from surrounding lights. runway for caution zone. the last 3,000 feet of the runway for caution zone.

What does the Precision Approach Path Indicator Row of four lights parallel to the runway ; red, Row of four lights perpendicular to the runway; red and
572 One light projector with two colors; red and white. B
(PAPI) consist of? white and green. white.

You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells y ou to

The aft end of the aircraft is even with the taxiway The flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold
573 call ground control when clear of the runway. You are All parts of the aircraft hace crossed the hold line. C
location sign. line.
considered clear of the runway when

(Figure 15) Rwy 30 is being used for landing. Which

574 surface wind would exceed the airplane’s cross wind 260° at 20 knots. 275° at 25 knots. 315° at 35 knots. A
capability of of 0.2 V(SO), if V(SO) is 60 knots?

(Refer to Figure 15.) If the tower-reported surface

575 wind is 010° at 18 knots, what is the crosswind 7 Knots 15 Knots 17 Knots C
component for a Rwy 08 landing?

(Refer to Figure 15.) The surface wind is 180° at 25

576 knots. What is the crosswind component for a Rwy 13 19 knots. 21 knots. 23 knots A
landing?
QUESTION NUMBER QUESTION OPTION A OPTION B OPTION C ANSWER

577 What is the standard temperature at 10,000 feet? -5°C -15°C 5°C A

578 What is the standard temperature at 20,000 feet? -15°C. -20°C. -25°C. C

What are the standard temperature and pressure

579 15°C and 29.92" Hg. 59°F and 1013.2" Hg. 15°C and 29.92 Mb. A
values for sea level?

The performance tables of an aircraft for takeoff and

580 Pressure/density altitude. Cabin altitude. True altitude. A
climb are based on

What effect, if any, would a change in ambient

581 temperature or air density have on gas turbine engine As air density decreases, thrust increases. As temperature increases, thrust increases. As temperature increases, thrust decreases. C
performance?

Rudder as required to maintain directional control,

Aileron pressure into the wind and initiate the lift- Right rudder pressure, aileron pressure into the wind, and
With regard to the technique required for a crosswind aileron pressure into the wind, and higher than normal
582 off at a normal airspeed in both tailwheel and higher than normal lift-off airspeed in both tricycle- and C
correction on takeoff, a pilot should use lift-off airspeed in both conventional- and nosewheel-
nosewheel-ty pe airplanes conventional-gear airplanes.
ty pe airplanes.

When turbulence is encountered during the approach

Increase the airspeed slightly above normal Decrease the airspeed slightly below normal approach Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach
583 to a landing, what action is recommended and for A
approach speed to attain more positive control. speed to avoid overstressing the airplane. speed to penetrate the turbulence as quickly as
what primary reason?

A pilot’s most inmidiate and vital concern in the event

584 Maintaining a safe airspeed. Landing directly into the wind. Turning back to the takeoff field. A
of a complete engine failure after take off is

Which ty pe of approach and landing is recommended

585 A power-on approach and power-on landing. A power-off approach and power-on landing. A power-on approach and power-off landing. A
during gusty wind conditions?

A proper crosswind landing on a runway requires Direction of motion of the airplane and its lateral Direction of motion of the airplane and its longitudinal Downwind wing be lowered sufficiently to eliminate
586 B
that, at the moment of touchdown, the axis be perpendicular to the runway. axis be parallel to the runway. the tendency for the airplane to drift.

What effect does an uphill runway slope have on

587 Increases takeoff speed. Increases takeoff distance. Decreases takeoff distance. B
takeoff performance?

At higher elevation airports the pilot should know that Will be unchanged, but groundspeed will be Should be increased to compensate for the thinner
588 Will be higher, but groundspeed will be unchanged. A
indicated airspeed faster. air.

Which condition would INITIALLY cause the

589 indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and the sink Sudden decrease in the headwind component. Tailwind which suddenly increases in velocity . Sudden increase in a headwind component. C
rate to decrease?

Which INITIAL cockpit indicatons should a pilot be Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches up, Indicated airspeed increases, aircraft pitches down, and Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down,
590 C
awere of when a headwind shears to a calm wind? and altitude decreases. altitude increases. and altitude decreases.

Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in

591 Increasing tailwind and decreasing headwind. Increasing tailwind and headwind. Decreasing tailwind and increasing headwind. C
airpeed?

Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of

592 Decreasing headwind or tailwind. Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind. B
airspeed?

What is the recommended technique to counter a loss Lower the pitch attitude and regain lost Avoid overstressing the aircraft, "pitch to airspeed", and Maintain, or increase, pitch attitude and accept the
593 C
of airspeed and resultant lift from wind shear? airspeed. apply maximum power. lower-than-normal airspeed indications.

What is the expected duration of an individual Two minutes with maximum winds lasting Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the
594 One microburst may continue for as long as 2 to 4 hours. C
microburst? approximately 1 minute. burst strikes the ground until dissipation.

Under what conditions would clear air turbulence When constant pressure charts show a 20-knot When constant pressure charts show a 60-knot isotaches When a sharp trough is moving at a speed less than
595 A
(CAT) most likely be encountered? isotaches less than 60 NM apart. less than 20 NM apart. 20 knots.
 Any rapid change in wind direction or velocity which Any change of airspeed greater than 20 Knots which
Any rapid change of horizontal wind shear in
596 Which is the definition of "severe wind shear"? causes airspeed changes greater than 15 knots or Vertical is sustained for more than 20 seconds or vertical B
excess of 25 knots; vertical shear excepted. speed cjanges greater than 500ft/min speed changes in excess of 100ft/min

QUESTION NUMBER QUESTION OPTION A OPTION B OPTION C ANSWER

What airport condition is reported by the tower when

597 more than one wind condition at different positions Light and variable. Wind shear. Frontal passage. B
on the airport is reported?

Which INTIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be

Altitude increases; pitch and indicated airspeed
598 awere of when a constant tailwind shears to a calm Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase. C
decrease.
wind?

Clear air turbulence (CAT) associated with a 1,000 miles or more downstream of the
599 5,000 feet above the tropopause. 100 miles or more upwind of the mountain. B
mountain wave may extend as fas as mountain.

What action is appropriate when encountering the

600 Extend flaps to decrease wind loading. Extend gear to provide more drag and increase stability . Adjust airspeed to that recomended for rough air. C
first ripple of reported clear air turbulence (CAT)

If severe turbulence is encountered, which procedure

601 Mantain a constant altitude. Mantain a constant attitude. Mantain constant airspeed and altitude. B
is recomended?

Which action is recomended regarding an altitude Mantain altitude or course to avoid a possible
602 Descend if ambient temperature is falling. Descend if ambient temperature is rising. A
change to get out of the jet stream turbulence? elongated turbulent area.

Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encontered

603 behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft Developing lift. Operating at high airspeeds. Using high power settings. A
is

Which flight conditions of large jet airplane create the

604 most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip Heavy , slow, gear and flaps up. Heavy , slow, gear and flaps down. Heavy , fast, gear and flaps down. A
vortices of the greatest strength?

What effect would a light corsswind have on the

The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the
605 wingtip vortices generated by large airplane that has A
runway longer than the downwind vortex. vortices. runway longer than the upwind vortex.
just taken off?

What wind condition prolongs the hazard of the wake

606 turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period Direct tailwind. Light quartering tailwind. Light quartering headwind. B
of time?

To avoid the wingtip vortices of a desparting jet Lift off at a point well past the jet airplanes flight Climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplanes flight
607 Remain below the flight path of the jet airplane. B
airplane during takeoff, the pilot should path. path.

If y ou take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed, at the point where the jet touched down and on the
608 prior to the point where the jet touched down. bey ond the point where the jet touched down. B
y ou should plan to lift off upwind edge of the runway .

What is the pilots responsability for the clearance or Except for SIDs, read back altitude assignmets, If the clearance or instruction is understood, and Read back the entire clearance or instruction to
609 A
instruction readback? altitude restrictions, and vectors. acknowledgement is sufficient. confirm the message is understood.

What action should a pilot take when a clearance is

610 received from ATC that appears to be contrary to a Read the clearance back in its entirety . Request a clarification from ATC. Do no accept the clearance. B
regulation?

What report should the pilot make at a clearance Time and altitude/flight level arriving or Time, altitude/flight level, and expected holding
611 Time, altitude/flight level, and expected holding speed. A
limit? leaving. speed, and inbound leg length.

What action should a pilot take if asked by ARTCC

to
612 Immediately climb to 9000. Report climbing to 9000. Report maintaining 8000. C
"VERIFY 9,000" and the flight is actually
maintaining 8,000?

Where are position reports required on an IFR flight Over all designated compulsory reporting When requested to change altitude or advise of
613 Only where specifically requested by ARTCC. A
on airway or routes? points. weather conditions.
 Vacating and altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min,
Position reports, vacating and altitude, unable to climb
Position reports, vacating and altitude, unable to time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to
Wich reports are required when operating IFR in 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix
614 climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a which cleared, a change in average true airspeed C
radar environment? or point to which cleared, and a change in average true
holding fix or point to which cleared. exceeding 5 percent or 10 Knots, and leaving and
airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 Knots.
assigned holding fix or point.

615 TCAS I provides traffic and resolution advisories. proximity warning. recomended maneuvers to avoid conflicting traffic. B

El número de las naciones unidas asignado por el

616 2 dígitos. 3 dígitos. 4 dígitos. C
comité de expertos en transporte de MP consta de:

QUESTION NUMBER QUESTION OPTION A OPTION B OPTION C ANSWER

617 ¿Cuántas clases de MP existen? 9 15 6 A

Esta prohibido transportarlos por vía aérea salvo

618 Un animal vivo infectado: Podrá llevarse abordo debidamente encerrado. Es prohibido transportarlo por vía aérea. C
dispensa de los estados interesados.

En las normas relacionadas con MP además de los

619 idiomas exigidos por el estado de origen, debería Ruso Espanol Ingles C
utilizarse:

A menos que se haya certificado que los bultos

Ningún explotador aceptara para su transporte por vía Hasta que no se hay a inspeccionado que llevan las
620 satisfacen las condiciones pertinentes previstas en Todas las anteriores C
aérea bulto o embalaje externo que contenga MP. marcas y etiquetas debidas.
las instrucciones técnicas

Quien ha instituido procedimientos internacionales

621 que regulan la introducción de MP en el transporte La OACI IFALPA. La unión postal universal A
aéreo a través del servicio postal.

odo artículo que contiene una o mas sustancias

622 Incompatible. Artículo explosivo. Liquido pirofórico C
explosivas se denomina:

623 Las sustancias tóxicas se pueden clasificar en: Sustancias venenosas. Sustancias explosivas Sustancias corrosivas. A

Que mercancías no se estibaran junto a otras en una Mercancías capaces de reaccionar peligrosamente entre
624 MP incompatibles. A y B son correctas. C
aeronave: si.

Todo bulto de MP llevara las etiquetas de

625 Siempre. Vuelos nacionales Vuelos internacionales. A
manipulación apropiadas:

El piloto al mando puede negarse a efectuar un No se le ha proporcionado por escrito la

626 No se le ha solicitado la autorización oportuna. El avión lleva VIP. abordo. A
transporte de MP si: información adecuada.

Las discrepancias de los estados se comunican a Las diferencias de los explotadores se comunican a Las discrepancias de los explotadores se comunican a
627 Diga que frase es cierta: A
OACI. OACI. OACI.

628 La sigla NOTOC que significa? Notice to company . Notice to crew. Notice to Captain. C

¿Si desea buscar una sustancia por su nombre y hallar Páginas azules de manual de regulaciones de MP de
629 Manual de la aeronave. En el manual de operaciones de vuelo. B
sus propiedades, donde la buscaría? IATA.

630 Que significa la sigla DL: Dosis letal. Dosis dosificada. Dosis limite. A

631 ¿Quien asigna el grupo de embalaje? El expedidor. La IATA. El explotador. A

En Las variaciones de los estados que significa la

632 Gol Gobierno Ganancia de cada estado en cuanto MP se refiere B
ultima letra que es una G:

Que se puede transportar igual cantidad que en La cantidad que se puede transportar es menor porque no
633 La letra Y en las instrucciones de embalaje significa: De acuerdo al estado se le pone la letra Y o la Z. B
una instrucción que no tenga esa letra. es un embalaje aprobado para el transporte

La sustancia a empacar no vaya a reaccionar con algún

634 Un embalaje puede ser reutilizado siempre y cuando: Sean removidas todas las etiquetas. A y B son correctas C
componente Anterior. c.
 maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting
635 TCAS II provides traffic and resolution advisories. proximity warning. A
traffic.

Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in

Mantain the course and altitude resulting from the expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect
636 response to a TCAS advisory is expected to notify Request a new ATC clearance. C
deviation, as ATC has radar contact. prior to the advisory , after the conflict is resolved.
ATC and

Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in

Maintain the course and altitude resulting from
637 response to a TCAS II, resolution advisory (RA) is Request a new ATC clearance. notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable. C
the deviation, as ATC has radar contact.
expected to

can rest assured that no other aircraft are in the must continually scan for other traffic in visual
638 With no traffic identified by TCAS, y ou must scan only for hot air balloons. B
area conditions.

QUESTION NUMBER QUESTION OPTION A OPTION B OPTION C ANSWER

While being radar vectored, to the final approach

Any time the flight is on a published leg of an When the flight is within the 10-mile ring of a published Only when approach control clears the flight for the
639 course of an IFR approach, when may the pilot C
approach chart. approach. approach.
descend to published altitudes?

What action (s) should a pilot take if vectored across Continue on the last heading issued until Contact approach control, and advise that the flight is Turn onto final, and broadcast in the blind that the
640 B
the final approach course during an IFR approach? otherwise instructed. crossing the final approach course. flight has proceeded on final.

What is the difference between a visual and a contact A visual approach is an IFR authorization while a A visual approach is initiated by ATC while a contact Both are the same but classified according to the part
641 B
approach? contact approach is an VFR authorization. apprach is initiated by the pilot. initiating the approach.

00 percent, 50 percent, 75 percent, or 100

642 How should a pilot describe braking action? Zero-zero, fifty -fift, or normal. Nil, poor, fair or good C
percent.

When entering a holding pattern above 14,000 feet,

643 1 minute. 1-1/2 minutes. 1-1/2 minutes or 10 NM, whichever is less. B
the initial outbound leg should not exceed

Under what condition should a piot on IFR advise When the fuel supply becomes less than that If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or
644 If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay. C
ATC of minimum fuel status? required for IFR. landing priority .

ou should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when

y our fuel supply has reached a state where, upon ATC will consider this action as if y ou had declared an If y our remaining usable fuel supply suggests the
645 This will ensure y our priority handling by ATC. C
reaching y our destination, you cannot accept any emergency. need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing,
undue delay .

646 What is the hijack code? 7200 7500 7777 B

What minimum condition is suggested for declaring Any time the pilot is doubtful of a condition that When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route When distress conditions such as fie, mechanical
647 A
an emergency? could adversely affect flight safety. or landing priority . failure, or structural damage occurs.

Wich range of codes should a pilot avoid switching

648 0000 through 1000. 7200 and 7500 series. 7500, 7600 and 7700 series. C
through when changing transponder codes?

How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and

649 Steepen the bank and increase airspeed Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed Shallow the bank and increase airspeed. B
decrease the radius at the same time?

Why must the angle of attack be increased during a Compensate for loss of vertical component of the Increase the horizontal component of the lift equal to the
650 Compensate for increase in drag. A
turn to mantain altitude? lift. vertical component.

Which condition reduces the required runway for the Higher-than-recomended airspeed before
651 Lower-than-standard air density . Increase headwind component. C
takeoff? rotation.

Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross

652 Critical engine failure speed. Rotation speed. Accelerate-stop distance. A
weight increases, for a given runway?

What effect does landing at high elevation airports

653 have on groundspeed with comparable conditions Higher than at low elevation. Lower than at low elevation. The same as at low elevation. A
relative to temperature, wind and airplane weight?
 When checking the course sensitivity of a VOR
receiver, how many degrees should the OBS be
654 5° to 10°. 10° to 12°. 18° to 20°. B
rotated to move the CDI from the center to the last
dot on either side?

An aircraft 60 miles from a VOR station has a CDI

655 indication of one-fifth deflection, this represents a 6 miles. 2 miles. 1 mile. B
course centerline deviation of approximately

Which situation would result in reverse sensing of a Fly ing a heading that is reciprocal to the bearing Setting the OBS to a bearing that is 90° from the bearing Failing to change the OBS from the selected inbound
656 A
VOR receiver? selected on the OBS. on which the aircraft is located. course to the outbound course after passing the

To track outbound on the 180 radial of a VOR station, 360° and make heading corrections toward the 180° and make heading corrections away from the CDI 180° and make heading corrections toward the CDI
657 C
the recommended procedure is to set the OBS to CDI needle. needle. needle.

To track inbound on the 215 radial of a VOR station, 215° and make heading corrections toward the 215° and make heading corrections away from the CDI 035° and make heading corrections toward the CDI
658 C
the recommended procedure is to set the OBS to CDI needle. needle. needle.

What is the primary cause off all changes in the Movment of air masses from moist areas to dry
659 Variations of solar energy at the Earths surface. Changes in the air pressure over the Earth’s surface A
Earths weather? areas.

QUESTION NUMBER QUESTION OPTION A OPTION B OPTION C ANSWER

660 Wich weather condition is defined as an anticyclone? Calm. High pressure area. COL. B

Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can

661 Freezing rain. Clear air turbulence. Embedded thundrestorms. C
produce which threat to instrument flight?

What phenomenon signals the beginning of the

662 The appearance of an anvil top. The start of rain at the surface. Growth rate of cloud is ai its maximum. B
mature stage of a thunderstorm?

What condition is necessary for the formation of

663 Supercooled water drops. Water vapor. Visible water. C
structural icing in flight?

The ADF is tuned to a radiobeacon. If the magnetic

664 heading is 040° and the relative bearing is 290°, the 150°. 285°. 330°. C
magnetic bearing TO that radiobeacon would be

If the relative bearing to a nondirectional radiobeacon

665 is 045° and the magnetic heading is 355°, the 040°. 065°. 220°. A
magnetic bearing TO that radio beacon would be

(Refer to Figure 30.) At the position indicated by

instrument group 1, to intercept the 330° magnetic
666 Left to a heading of 270°. Right to a heading of 330°. Right to a heading of 360°. C
bearing to the NDB at a 30° angle, the aircraft should
be turned

Which ty pe precipitation is an indication that

667 Wet snow. Freezing rain. Ice pellets. B
supercooled water is present?

Which weather condition is present when the tropical

668 Highest windspeed, 100 Knots or more. A clear area or hurricane eyes has formed. Sustained winds of 65 Knots or more. C
strom is upgraded to a hurricane?

669 LS critical area sign indicates Where aircraft are prohibited. The edge of the ILS critical area. The exit boundary . A

Airport information signs, used to provide destination

670 y ellow inscriptions on a black background. white inscriptions on a black background. black inscriptions on a y ellow background C
or information, have

671 Holding position signs have white inscriptions on a red background. red inscriptions on a white background. y ellow inscriptions on a red background. A

(Refer to figure 31, point 1) The floor of the Class E

672 The surface. 3,823 feet MSL. 700 feet AGL. B
airspace above Georgetown Airport (Q61) is at

Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder
673 May conduct operations under visual flight rules. C
airspace? measuring equipment (DME). and altitude reporting equipment.
 Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B The pilot must receive an ATC clearance before Flight under VFR is not authorized unless the pilot in
674 Solo student pilot operations are not authorized. A
airspace? operating an aircraft in that area. command is instrument rated.

When a dashed blue circle surrounds an airport on a

675 sectional aeronautical chart, it will depict the Special VFR airspace. Class D airspace. Class B airspace B
boundary of

(Refer to figure 32, point 4) The thinner outer An area within which an appropriate transponder must be A Mode C veil boundary where a balloon may
676 magenta circle depicted around San Francisco The outer segment of Class B airspace. used from outside of the Class B airspace from the penetrate without a transponder provided it remains B
International Airport is surface to 10,000 feet MSL below 8,000 feet MSL

There is a high volume of pilot training activities

(Refer to figure 31, point 9) The alert area depicted The flight of aircraft, while not prohibited, is subject
677 or an unusual ty pe of aerial activity , neither of The flight of aircraft is prohibited. A
within the blue lines is an area in which to restriction.
which is hazardous to aircraft.

Which is true regarding flight operations to or from a

Prior to takeoff, a pilot must establish Prior to entering that airspace, a pilot must establish
678 satellite airport, without an operating control tower, Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder. C
communication with the ATC controlling facility. and maintain communication with the ATC serving
within the Class C airspace area?

(Refer to figure 31, point 7) The floor of Class E 700 feet AGL over part of the town and no floor 1,200 feet AGL over part of the town and no floor over
679 Both 700 feet and 1,200 feet AGL. C
airspace over the town of Woodland is over the remainder. the remainder.

Which is true regarding pilot certification The pilot in command must hold at least a private The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot
680 Solo student pilot operations are not authorized. B
requirements for operations in Class B airspace? pilot certificate with an instrument rating. certificate.

QUESTION NUMBER QUESTION OPTION A OPTION B OPTION C ANSWER

(Refer to figure 31, point 5) The floor of the Class E

681 The surface. 700 feet AGL. 1,200 feet AGL. B
airspace over University Airport (0O5) is

Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A Must conduct operations under instrument flight Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance Aircraft must be equipped with an approved ATC
682 A
airspace? rules. measuring equipment (DME). transponder.

When approaching to land at an airport with an ATC

683 facility , in Class D airspace, the pilot must establish 4 NM, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL. 10 NM, up to and including 3,000 feet AGL. 30 SM, and be transponder equipped. A
communications prior to

(Refer to figure 14.) While clearing an active runway,

684 y ou are most likely clear of the ILS critical area when Top red Middle y ellow. Bottom y ellow. C
y ou pass which sign?

(Refer to figure 14.) When taxiing up to an active

685 runway , y ou are likely to be clear of the ILS critical Top red Middle y ellow. Bottom y ellow. C
area when short of which symbol?

To best overcome the effects of spatial disorientation,

686 Rely on body sensations. Increase the breathing rate. Rely on aircraft instrument indications. C
a pilot should

687 Which would most likely result in hy perventilation? Insufficient oxy gen. Excessive carbon monoxide. Insufficient carbon dioxide. C

To overcome the symptoms of hyperventilation, a

688 Swallow or y awn. Slow the breathing rate. Increase the breathing rate. B
pilot should

689 Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation? Drowsiness. Decreased breathing rate. A sense of well-being. A

Which is true regarding the presence of alcohol A small amount of alcohol increases vision An increase in altitude decreases the adverse effect of Judgment and decision-making abilities can be
690 C
within the human body ? acuity . alcohol. adversely affected by even small amounts of alcohol.

691 Hy poxia is the result of which of these conditions? Excessive oxy gen in the bloodstream. Insufficient oxy gen reaching the brain. Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream. B

Hy poxia susceptibility due to inhalation of carbon

692 Humidity decreases. Altitude increases. Oxy gen demand increases. B
monoxide increases as

Which is true regarding the use of a Instrument At airfields where DP's have been established, To use a DP, the pilot must possess at least the textual To use a DP, the pilot must possess both the textual
693 B
Departure Procedure (DP) chart? DP usage is mandatory for IFR departures. description of the approved standard departure. and graphic form of the approved standard departure.
 (Refer to figures 33) The final approach fix for the
694 DENAY intersection. Glide slope intercept. ROMEN intersection/locator outer marker. B
ILS precision approach is located at

(Refer to figure 34.) In the DEN ILS RWY 35R

695 11,000 feet MSL. 7,000 feet MSL. 9,000 feet MSL. B
procedure, the glide slope intercept altitude is

(Refer to figure 36) When approaching the ATL ILS

696 RWY 8L, how far from the FAF is the missed 4.8 NM. 5.2 NM. 12.0 NM. B
approach point?

(Refer to figure 37) If the glide slope becomes

697 inoperative during the ILS RWY 31R procedure at 1,157 feet. 1,320 feet. 1,360 feet. B
DSM, what MDA applies?

(Refer to figure 37.) During the ILS RWY 31R

698 procedure at DSM, the minimum altitude for glide 2,365 feet MSL. 2,400 feet MSL. 3,000 feet MSL. B
slope interception is

he pilot in command of an aircraft operated under Experiencing any malfunctions of navigational,

699 IFR, in controlled airspace, shall report as soon as approach, or communications equipment, Requested to contact a new controlling facility . Climbing or descending to assigned altitudes. A
practical to ATC when occurring in flight.

(Refer to figure 35.) What minimum navigation

700 equipment is required to complete the VOR/DME-A One VOR receiver. One VOR receiver and DME. Two VOR receivers and DME. B
procedure?

To facilitate transition between en route and instrument

701 Which is true regarding STAR's? STAR's are Used to separate IFR and known VFR traffic. Used at certain airports to relieve traffic congestion. B
approach procedures.

QUESTION NUMBER QUESTION OPTION A OPTION B OPTION C ANSWER

While being radar vectored, an approach clearance is

Established on a segment of a published route or
702 received. The last assigned altitude should be Reaching the FAF. Advised to begin descent. C
instrument approach procedure.
maintained until

(Refer to figure 34.) The symbol [9200] in the MSA

703 circle of the ILS RWY 35R procedure at DEN Denver VORTAC. Dy mon outer marker. Cruup I-AQD DME fix. A
represents a minimum safe sector altitude within 25
NM of

What does the absence of the procedure turn barb on

704 A procedure turn is not authorized. Teardrop-ty pe procedure turn is authorized. Racetrack-ty pe procedure turn is authorized. A
the plan view on an approach chart indicate?

A pilot performing a published instrument approach is Receiving a radar vector to a final approach course or
705 Maneuvering at radar vectoring altitudes. Maneuvering at minimum safe altitudes. B
not authorized to perform a procedure turn when fix.

On an instrument approach where a DH or MDA is Flight visibility and ceiling are at, or above, the Approach and runway lights are distinctly visible to the Aircraft is continuously in a position from which a
706 applicable, the pilot may not operate below, or B
published minimums for that approach. pilot. descent to a normal landing, on the intended runway,
continue the approach unless the

Pilots are not authorized to land an aircraft from an Flight visibility is at, or exceeds the visibility Flight visibility and ceiling are at, or exceeds the Visual approach slope indicator and runway
707 A
instrument approach unless the prescribed in the approach procedure being used. minimums prescribed in the approach being used. references are distincly visible to the pilot.

(Refer to figure 38) During the ILS RWY 13L

708 procedure at DSM, what altitude minimum applies if 1,420 feet. 1,340 feet. 1,121 feet. B
the glide slope becomes inoperative?

For an airport without an approved instrument

approach procedure to be listed as an alternate airport Ceiling and visibility that allows for a descent, approach,
709 Ceiling of 2,000 feet and visibility 3 SM. Ceiling of 1,000 feet and visibility 3 NM. B
on an IFR flight plan, the forecasted weather and landing under basic VFR.
conditions at the time of arrival must have at least a

For an airport with an approved instrument approach

procedure to be listed as an alternate airport on an Ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 SM for
710 IFR flight plan, the forecasted weather conditions at Ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 NM for nonprecision. Ceiling 600 feet and visibility 2 NM for precision. A
nonprecision.
the time of arrival must be at or above the following
weather minimums.
 (Refer to figure 32, point 6) The Class C airspace at
711 Metropolitan Oakland International (OAK) which Both 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet MSL. 8,000 feet MSL. 2,100 feet AGL. A
extends from the surface upward has a ceiling of

VFR is the same as VMC and IFR is the same as False, one is the ty pe of flight plan and the other the
712 True, they are both the same False, but they are correlated C
IMC. designation as per Ops. Specs.

The brain and body tissue not receiving sufficient All of y our body not being sufficiently balanced with
713 Hy poxia is the result of: The brain not being used to a lack of oxy gen A
CO through the blood stream oxy gen and becoming hy poxic

A DME arc should be flown within ____ from the

714 1.0 DME 2.0 DME to either side of the arc 0.0. (No deviations are allowed) A
center of the arc:

If y ou are flying at 18.000 Ft. and your DME reads

715 6.0 Nm from the VOR 4.5 Nm from the VOR 3.0 Nm from the VOR C
6.0 Nm, y ou are:

716 TERPs are a US standard used for: All ICAO special charts IFR departure design criteria Non Jeppesen stars B

When fly ing a DP and you lose communications, you Proceed as per special instructions on the chart when
717 Continue fly ing the DP as published Return for a landing C
must: included

Take off minimums are a standard value or all airports True, except where otherwise published on the chart
718 True, except as published on STARs False, every airport is different C
in Colombia: or company Ops Specs

Be flown and no change request for another DP is Be flown if accepted but may be declined or changes
719 Departure Procedures must: Be flown if available for that airport C
allowed if on an IFR flight plan made if coordinated with ATC

V stands or ␣␣␣␣␣␣␣␣␣␣␣␣␣␣␣whom in 1935

V’ stands for “very high speed” and 344 is the V stands for VOR (VHF signal) and 344 is the airway
720 On a Jeppesen or NOA chart what does V344 mean: invented the airway s between VORs and 344 is the B
max. speed allowed on thsi route allocation c.
airway

721 MEA guarantees adequate terrain clearance and: Navigation signal Both navigation and communications 1.500 ground clearance around mountains A

QUESTION NUMBER QUESTION OPTION A OPTION B OPTION C ANSWER

When fly ing an airway you need to deviate 3.5 Nm to Request ATC since y ou are expected to navigate on the Do nothing, airway s are 8 Nm wide to each side of
722 Do nothing, airway s are 4 Nm wide to each side B
the left of course y ou need: center line of the airway the center line

Neither, as the radio altimeter is never activated

1.000 Ft clearance from terrain and 2.000 Ft in
723 MVA, MEA and MOCA MAA, MCA, MRA, MOCA and MEA (2.500 Ft or less) when the aircraft flies in B
mountainous areas is guaranteed on:
mountainous

In order to fly a route where you plan to fly with an

IFR approved GPS as the primary means of A WAC VFR chart since GPS is not certified for
724 A Hi or Lo enroute chart A GPS navigation chart since airways will not be used A
navigation from airport A direct to airport B, y ou enroute navigation
need:

When departing an airport in class B airspace you

Aircraft ID, present altitude, limiting altitude
725 should advice ATC upon initial contact once handed Your altitude assigned level/alt, squak code Aircraft ID, present altitude, squak code c. C
assigned and squak code
off from TWR:

When in radar contact, your aircraft DME equipment Advice ATC so he/she if required may make alternate Check the MEL to ensure the equipment is not
726 Write a maintenance report at your next stop B
becomes unserviceable, you should: arrangements required for the ty pe of flight y ou are executing

Aircraft ID, position, ETA over next PT and Nothing if y ou were advised to be in radar contact since Aircraft ID, position, time, altitude, ETA at next
727 Position reports when required should include: C
following point in this condition ATL alway s knows where you are point, following compulsory point, remarks if any

You are in radar contact and ATC clears y ou to a Just descend at will since ATC will know y our altitude at Descend as quickly as possible to relieve ATC of
728 Report leaving present altitude. A
lower altitude at Pilot’s discretion, y ou should: all times y our traffic

You gave a position report and y ou recognize that If off by more than 3 minutes advice ATC of revised
729 Advice ATC if more than 5 % error or 10 miles Do nothing as y ou are on an IFR Flt. B
y our ETA at the following point is off, y ou should: time

In a no wind condition y ou are asked at 12:00 Hrs. to The # of circuits y ou fly depends on the speed you
730 You will fly two complete racetrack patterns You will fly three complete racetrack patterns B
hold at 8.000 Ft. until 12:12 Hrs. are holding at.
 If on a descent clearance you are cleared to hold at a Reach the fix at or below the speed for your aircraft type/ Maintain the speed up so as to hold at the fastest
731 Slow down and enter the hold at VMC + 10 Kts B
fix, y ou should: category speed possible to be the first to leave the fix and

When less than VFR conditions exist in either

In all Class E airspace when conditions are below VFR, In Class E airspace when IMC exists or in Class A
732 When is an IFR flight plan required? Class E or Class G airspace and in Class A C
in Class A airspace, and in defense zone airspace. airspace.
airspace.

Prior to which operation must an IFR flight plan be Fly ing by reference to instruments in controlled
733 Entering controlled airspace when IMC exists. Takeoff when IFR weather conditions exist. B
filed and an appropriate ATC clearance received? airspace.

To operate under IFR below 18,000 feet, a pilot must

734 file an IFR flight plan and receive an appropriate ATC Entering controlled airspace. Entering weather conditions below VFR minimums. Takeoff. A
clearance prior to

To operate an aircraft under IFR, a flight plan must

Controlling the aircraft solely by use of
735 have been filed and an ATC clearance received prior Entering weather conditions in any airspace. Entering controlled airspace. C
instruments.
to

When is an IFR clearance required during VFR

736 When operating in the Class E airspace. b. When operating in the Class A airspace. When operating in airspace above 14,500 feet. B
weather conditions?

When departing from an airport located outside

737 controlled airspace during IMC, y ou must file an IFR Takeoff. Entering IFR conditions. Entering Class E airspace. C
flight plan and receive a clearance before

No person may operate an aircraft in controlled And receives a clearance by telephone prior to Prior to takeoff and requests the clearance upon arrival And receives a clearance prior to entering controlled
738 C
airspace under IFR unless he/she files a flight plan takeoff. on an airway . airspace.

During y our preflight planning for an IFR flight, y ou

determine that the first airport of intended landing has
no instrument approach prescribed in 14 CFR part 97.
The weather forecast for one hour before through one Then to the alternate airport, and then for 30 Then to the alternate airport, and then for 45 minutes at
739 And then fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed. B
hour after y our estimated time of arrival is 3000' minutes at normal cruising speed. normal cruising speed.
scattered with 5 miles visibility . To meet the fuel
requirements for this flight, y ou must be able to fly to
the first airport of intended landing,

QUESTION NUMBER QUESTION OPTION A OPTION B OPTION C ANSWER

What are the minimum fuel requirements in IFR

conditions, if the first airport of intended landing is
And fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal Fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at Fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 30 minutes
740 forecast to have a 1,500-foot ceiling and 3 miles B
cruising speed. normal cruising speed. at normal cruising speed.
visibility at flight-planned ETA? Fuel to fly to the
first airport of intended landing,

What minimum weather conditions must be forecast

for y our ETA at an alternate airport, that has only a 1,000-foot ceiling and visibility to allow descent
741 VOR approach with standard alternate minimums, for 800-foot ceiling and 1 statute mile visibility . 800-foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility . from minimum en route altitude (MEA), approach, B
the airport to be listed as an alternate on the IFR flight and
plan?

What are the alternate minimums that must be

742 forecast at the ETA for an airport that has a precision 400-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility . 600-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility . 800-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility . B
approach procedure?

When an alternate airport is required, what are the

Ceiling 200 feet above the approach minimums Ceiling 200 feet above field elevation and visibility 1
weather minimums that must be forecast at the ETA
743 and at least 1 statute mile visibility , but not less 600 foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility . statute mile, but not less than the minimum visibility B
for an alternate airport that has a precision approach
than the minimum visibility for the approach. for the approach
procedure?

What are the minimum weather conditions that must

The ceiling and visibility at ETA, 2,000 feet and The ceiling and visibility from 2 hours before until 2 The ceiling and visibility at ETA must allow descent
744 be forecast to list an airport as an alternate when the C
3 miles, respectively . hours after ETA, 2,000 feet and 3 miles, from MEA, approach, and landing, under basic VFR
airport has no approved IAP?

When a pilot elects to proceed to the selected

Ceiling 200 feet above the published minimum, visibility
745 alternate airport, which minimums apply for landing 600-1 if the airport has an ILS. The landing minimums for the approach to be used. C
2 miles.
at the alternate?
 If a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate,
Minimums specified for the approach procedure Minimums shown for that approach in a separate
746 the landing minimums used at that airport should be Alternate minimums shown on the approach chart. A
selected. listing of “IFR Alternate Minimums”
the

When making an instrument approach at the selected The landing minimums published for the type of
747 Standard alternate minimums (600-2 or 800-2). The IFR alternate minimums listed for that airport. C
alternate airport, what landing minimums apply ? procedure selected.

An airport without an authorized IAP may be

included on an IFR flight plan as an alternate, if the Allow for descent from the IAF to landing under Allow for a descent from the MEA, approach, and a
748 Be at least 1,000 feet and 1 mile. C
current weather forecast indicates that the ceiling and basic VFR conditions. landing under basic VFR conditions.
visibility at the ETA will

Preferred IFR routes beginning with a fix indicate that The established airway (s) between the departure An instrument departure procedure (DP), or radar
749 Direct route only . B
departing aircraft will normally be routed to the fix by airport and the fix. vectors.

The most current en route and destination flight

750 information for planning an instrument flight should The ATIS broadcast. The FSS. Notices to Airmen (Class II). B
be obtained from

What point at the destination should be used to

The final approach fix on the expected instrument The initial approach fix on the expected instrument
751 compute estimated time en route on an IFR flight The point of first intended landing. C
approach. approach.
plan?

For aircraft other than helicopters, what forecast

weather minimums are required to list an airport as an Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 800 feet and 2 Ceiling and visibility from 2 hours before until 2 hours Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 600 feet and 2 miles,
752 A
alternate on an IFR flight plan if the airport has VOR miles, respectively . after ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles, respectively. respectively .
approach only ?

For aircraft other than helicopters, what minimum

weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at
600-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at y our 600-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility from 2 hours before
753 an alternate airport that has a precision approach 800-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at y our ETA. A
ETA. to 2 hours after y our ETA.
procedure, with standard alternate minimums, in order
to list it as an alternate for the IFR flight?
For aircraft other than helicopters, is an alternate
airport required for an IFR flight to ATL (Atlanta
Hartsfield) if the proposed ETA is 1930Z?, TAF
KATL 121720Z 121818 20012KT 5SM HZ BKN030 No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast
No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to Yes, because the ceiling could fall below 2,000 feet
754 FM2000 3SM TSRA OVC025CB FM2200 to be at or above 2,000 feet and 3 miles within 1 A
remain at or above 1,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively. within 2 hours before to 2 hours after the ETA.
33015G20KT P6SM BKN015 OVC040 BECMG hour before to 1 hour after the ETA.
0608 02008KT BKN 040 BECMG 1012 00000KT
P6SM CLR=

QUESTION NUMBER QUESTION OPTION A OPTION B OPTION C ANSWER

For aircraft other than helicopters, what minimum

From 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA,
conditions must exist at the destination airport to From 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA, forecast From 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, forecast
755 forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 2 and 1/2 C
avoid listing an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan ceiling 3,000, and visibility 3 miles. ceiling 2,000, and visibility 3 miles.
miles.
when a standard IAP is available?

What action is recommended if a pilot does not wish Advise clearance delivery or ground control Enter “NO DP” in the remarks section of the IFR
756 Advise departure control upon initial contact. C
to use an instrument departure procedure? before departure. plan

Reception of signals from a radio facility , located off

the airway being flown, may be inadequate at the
757 MOCA MRA MCA B
designated MEA to identify the fix. In this case,
which altitude is designated for the fix?

ATC may assign the MOCA when certain special

758 22 NM of a VOR. 25 NM of a VOR. 30 NM of a VOR. A
conditions exist, and when within

For IFR operations off of established airways below

759 18,000 feet, VOR navigation aids used to describe the 40 NM apart. 70 NM apart. 80 NM apart. C
route flight should be

At what point should the timing begin for the first leg Abeam the holding fix, or wings level, whichever When the wings are level at the completion of the 180° When over or abeam the holding fix, whichever
760 C
outbound in a nonstandard holding pattern? occurs last. turn outbound. occurs later.
 Obstacle clearance, accurate navigational signals
A 1,000-foot obstacle clearance within 2 miles of an Acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets
761 MEA is an altitude which assures from more than one VORTAC, and accurate C
airway and assures accurate DME mileage. obstruction clearance requirements.
DME mileage.

To ensure proper airspace protection while in a

762 holding pattern, what is the maximum airspeed above 230KT 265KT 200KT B
14,000 feet for civil turbojet aircraft?

What obstacle clearance and navigation signal 1,000 feet and acceptable navigation signal
1,000 feet within a 25 NM radius of the navigation 500 feet and acceptable navigation signal coverage
763 coverage is a pilot assured with the Minimum Sector coverage within a 25 NM radius of the navigation B
facility but not acceptable navigation signal coverage. within a 10 NM radius of the navigation facility .
Altitudes depicted on the IAP charts? facility .

When the wings are level and the wind drift When the wings are level after completing the turn to the
When holding at an NDB, at what point should the
764 correction angle is established after completing outbound heading, or abeam the fix, whichever occurs When abeam the holding fix. C
timing begin for the second leg outbound?
the turn to the outbound heading. first.

(Refer to Figures 39 and 40.) What is the significance It signifies a localizer-only approach is available GRICE intersection also serves as the FAF for the
765 The localizer has an additional navigation function. B
of the sy mbol at GRICE intersection? at Harry P. Williams Memorial. ILS approach procedure to Harry P. Williams

To ensure proper airspace protection while in a

766 holding pattern, what is the maximum indicated 220 knots. 265 knots. 200 knots. B
airspeed above 14,000 feet?

The lowest published altitude which meets obstacle An altitude which meets obstacle clearance
The lowest published altitude which meets
requirements, assures acceptable navigational signal requirements, assures acceptable navigation signal
767 What is the definition of MEA? obstacle clearance requirements and assures A
coverage, two-way radio communications, and provides coverage, two-way radio communications, adequate
acceptable navigational signal coverage.
adequate radar coverage. radar coverage, and accurate DME mileage.

To ensure proper airspace protection while holding at

768 5,000 feet in a civil aircraft, what is the maximum 230 knots. 200 knots. 210 knots. B
indicated airspeed a pilot should use?

What timing procedure should be used when Timing for the outbound leg begins over or Timing for the inbound leg begins when initiating the Adjustments in timing of each pattern should be
769 A
performing a holding pattern at a VOR? abeam the VOR, whichever occurs later. turn inbound. made on the inbound leg.

Acceptable navigational signal coverage at the

770 MOCA is assured for a distance from the VOR of 12 NM. 22 NM. 25 NM. B
only

Which aeronautical chart depicts Military Training

771 IFR Planning Chart. IFR Low Altitude En Route Chart. IFR High Altitude En Route Chart. B
Routes (MTR) above 1,500 feet?

When more than one circuit of the holding pattern is

772 needed to lose altitude or become better established At Pilot’s discretion Only in an emergency. Only if pilot advises ATC and ATC approves. C
on course, the additional circuits can be made

QUESTION NUMBER QUESTION OPTION A OPTION B OPTION C ANSWER

(Refer to Figure 41.) En route on V112 from BTG

773 VORTAC to LTJ VORTAC, the minimum altitude 6,400 feet. 6,500 feet. 7,000 feet. C
crossing Gy mme intersection is

Reception of signals from an off-airway radio facility

may be inadequate to identify the fix at the designated
774 MRA MCA MOCA A
MEA. In this case, which altitude is designated for
the fix?

Which condition is guaranteed for all of the following

775 altitude limits: MAA, MCA, MRA, MOCA, and Adequate navigation signals. Adequate communications. 1,000-foot obstacle clearance. C
MEA? (Non-mountainous area.)

If no MCA is specified, what is the lowest altitude for

776 crossing a radio fix, bey ond which a higher minimum The MEA at which the fix is approached. The MRA at which the fix is approached. The MOCA for the route segment beyond the fix A
applies?

(Refer to Figure 42.) Which VHF frequencies, other

777 than 121.5, can be used to receive De Ridder FSS in 122.1, 126.4. 123.6, 122.65. 122.2, 122.3. C
the Lake Charles area?
 How can an IAF be identified on a Standard Any fix illustrated within the 10 mile ring other than the The procedure turn and the fixes on the feeder
778 All fixes that are labeled IAF. A
Instrument Approach Procedure (SIAP) Chart? FAF or stepdown fix. facility ring.

(Refer to Figures 43 and 43A.) What is the difference

779 in elevation (in feet MSL) between the airport 15 feet. 18 feet. 22 feet. A
elevation and the TDZE for RWY 36L?

(Refer to Figure 44.) What is the minimum altitude at

780 which y ou should intercept the glide slope on the ILS 3,000 feet MSL. 1,800 feet MSL. 1,690 feet MSL. B
RWY 6 approach procedure?

When cleared to execute a published sidestep

maneuver for a specific approach and landing on the At the published minimum altitude for a circling As soon as possible after the runway or runway At the localizer MDA minimum and when the
781 B
parallel runway , at what point is the pilot expected to approach. environment is in sight. runway is in sight.
commence this maneuver?

Certificated approach speed at maximum gross 1.3 times the stall speed in landing configuration at
782 Aircraft approach categories are based on 1.3 times the stall speed at maximum gross weight. B
weight. maximum gross landing weight.

(Refer to Figure 45.) If cleared for NDB RWY 28

approach (Lancaster/Fairfield) over ZZV VOR, the Proceed straight in from CRISY, descending to Proceed to CRISY, then execute the teardrop procedure Proceed direct to CASER, then straight in to S-28
783 A
flight would be expected to Category A aircraft Last MDA after CASER. as depicted on the approach chart. minimums of 1620-1.
assigned altitude 3,000 feet

If all ILS components are operating and the required

Expiration of the time listed on the approach chart
784 visual references are not established, the missed Arrival at the DH on the glide slope. Arrival at the middle marker. A
for missed approach.
approach should be initiated upon

(Refer to Figure 46.) What is the purpose of the

It provides safe clearance above the highest It provides an altitude above which navigational course It is the minimum vector altitude for radar vectors in
785 10,300 MSA on the Price/Carbon County Airport A
obstacle in the defined sector out to 25 NM. guidance is assured. the sector southeast of PUC between 020° and
Approach Chart?

(Refer to Figure 43A.) Which navigational

Localizer and glide slope, DME, TACAN with no Localizer information only , ATIS and DME are Localizer and glide slope, DME, and no voice
786 information and services would be available to the C
voice capability . available. capability .
pilot when using the localizer frequency?

(Refer to Figures 47 and 48.) Which aircraft approach

787 category should be used for a circling approach for a A B C B
landing on RWY 27?

Only if the Pilot requests a STAR in the remarks section When ATC deems it aprpiate, unless the Pilot
788 Under which condition does ATC issue a STAR? To all pilots whenever the STAR’s available C
of the flight plan requests NO STAR

(Refer to Figure 49.) Using an average ground speed

of 90 knots, what constant rate of descent from 2,400
789 200 feet per minute. 400 feet per minute. 600 feet per m inute. A
feet MSL at the 6 DME fix would enable the aircraft
to arrive at 2,000 feet MSL at the FAF?

(Refer to Figure 50.) If cleared for a straight-in LOC

Begin final approach without making a procedure
790 approach from over OALDY, it means the flight Land straight in on runway 31. Comply with straight-in landing minimums. C
turn.
should

QUESTION NUMBER QUESTION OPTION A OPTION B OPTION C ANSWER

(Refer to Figure 51.) The sy mbol on the plan view of

791 the ILS RWY 35R procedure at DEN represents a Denver VORTAC. Gandi outer marker. Denver/Stapleton International Airport. A
minimum safe sector altitude within 25 NM of

Where a holding pattern is specified in lieu of a The 1 minute time limitation or DME distance as
792 procedure turn, the holding maneuver must be A radius of 5 miles from the holding fix. 10 knots of the specified holding speed. A
specified in the profile view.
executed within

Which procedure should be followed by a pilot who

is circling to land in a Category B airplane, but is Use the approach minimums appropriate for Use Category D minimums since they apply to all
793 Use Category B minim ums. A
maintaining a speed 5 knots faster than the maximum Category C. circling approaches.
specified for that category?

When the approach procedure involves a procedure

794 180 knots IAS. 200 knots IAS. 250 knots IAS. B
turn, the maximum speed should not be greater than
 What does the sy mbol T within a black triangle in the Takeoff minimums are 1 mile for aircraft having
Takeoff minimums are not standard and/or departure
795 minimums section of the IAP for a particular airport two engines or less and 1/2 mile for those with Instrument takeoffs are not authorized. C
procedures are published.
indicate? more than two engines.

When simultaneous approaches are in progress, how One pilot on tower frequency and the other on
796 On tower frequency. On approach control frequency. A
does each pilot receive radar advisories? approach control frequency.

A straight-in landing may not be made, but the A straight-in landing may be made if the pilot has the
When may a pilot make a straight-in landing, if using The pilot may land straight-in if the runway is the active
797 pilot may continue to the runway at MDA and runway in sight in sufficient time to make a normal C
an IAP having only circling minimums? runway and he has been cleared to land.
then circle to land on the runway. approach for landing, and has been cleared to land

What does the absence of the procedure turn barb on

798 A procedure turn is not authorized. Teardrop-ty pe procedure turn is authorized. Racetrack-ty pe procedure turn is authorized. A
the plan view on an approach chart indicate?

(Refer to Figure 43A.) What rate of descent should

y ou plan to use initially to establish the glidepath for
799 425 feet per minute. 530 feet per minute. 635 feet per minute. C
the ILS RWY 36L approach? (Use 120 knots ground
speed.)

Only the fixes at the start of arc approaches and those on

Any fix on the en route facilities ring, the feeder
Which fixes on the IAP Charts are initial approach either the feeder facilities ring or en route facilities ring
800 facilities ring, and those at the start of arc Any fix that is identified by the letters IAF. C
fixes? that have a transition course shown to the approach
approaches.
procedure.

(Refer to Figure 52.) What is the elevation of the

801 70 feet MSL. 54 feet MSL. 46 feet MSL C
TDZE for RWY 4?

(Refer to Figure 53.) What is the TDZ elevation for

802 363 feet MSL. 365 feet MSL. 396 feet MSL. A
RWY 16 on Eugene/Mahlon Sweet Field?

The slant range distance the pilot can see down

What does the Runway Visual Range (RVR) value, The horizontal distance a pilot should see when looking The slant visual range a pilot should see down the
803 the runway while crossing the threshold on glide B
depicted on certain straight-in IAP Charts, represent? down the runway from a moving aircraft. final approach and during landing.
slope.

(Refer to Figure 53) Using a ground speed of 90 knots

on the ILS final approach course, what rate of descent
804 415 feet per minute. 480 feet per minute. 555 feet per minute. B
should be used as a reference to maintain the ILS
glide slope?

(Refer to Figure 54.) With a ground speed of 120

knots, approximately what minimum rate of descent
805 1,200 fpm. 500 fpm. 800 fpm. C
will be required between I-GPO 7 DME fix (ROBOT)
and the I-GPO 4 DME fix?

You must have the airport in sight or a preceding

What conditions are necessary before ATC can You must have the preceding aircraft in sight, and You must have the airport in sight or the preceding
806 aircraft to be followed, and be able to proceed to the C
authorize a visual approach? be able to remain in VFR weather conditions. aircraft in sight, and be able to proceed to, and land
airport in VFR conditions

Assume this clearence is recieved “CLEARED FOR

ILS RWY 07 LEFT APP, SIDE RWY 07 RIGHT” As soon as possible after the runway environment Any time after becoming aligned with the final approach After reaching the circling minimums for Runway 07
807 A
when would the Pilot be expected to commence the is in sight. course of Runway 07 left, and after passing the FAF right.
SIDESTEP maneuver?

(Refer to Figure 55.) What indication should y ou get

808 when it is time to turn inbound while in the procedure 4 DME miles from LABER. 10 DME miles from the MAP. 12 DME miles from LIT VORTAC. A
turn at LABER?

QUESTION NUMBER QUESTION OPTION A OPTION B OPTION C ANSWER

(Refer to Figure 54.) What is the usable runway

809 5,957 feet. 7,000 feet. 7,900 feet. A
length for landing on runway 21 at PDX?

If the RVR equipment is inoperative for an IAP that

requires a visibility of 2,400 RVR, how should the
810 As a slant range visibility of 2,400 feet. As an RVR of 2,400 feet. As a ground visibility of 1/2 SM. C
pilot expect the visibility requirement to be reported
in lieu of the published RVR?
 (Refer to Figure 56.) Under which condition should
Immediately upon reaching the 5.0 DME from the When passage of the MAP waypoint is shown on the After the MDA is reached and 1.8 DME fix from the
811 the missed approach procedure for the VOR/DME B
FAF. ambiguity indicator. MAP way point.
RNAV RWY 33 approach be initiated?

Landing minimums to the adjacent runway will be

Parallel ILS approach runway centerlines are Parallel ILS approaches provide aircraft a minimum of 1-
Which of the following statements is true regarding higher than the minimums to the primary runway, but
812 separated by at least 4,300 feet and standard IFR 1/2 miles radar separation between successive aircraft on B
Parallel ILS approaches? will normally be lower than the published circling
separation is provided on the adjacent runway. the adjacent localizer course.
minimums.

he RVR minimums for takeoff or landing are

RVR minimums which are specified in the
published in an IAP, but RVR is inoperative and RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing the RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing all
813 procedure should be converted and applied as A
cannot be reported for the runway at the time. Which runway has an operative HIRL sy stem. other components of the ILS sy stem are operative.
ground visibility .
of the following would apply ?

If an early missed approach is initiated before Proceed to the missed approach point at or above
Begin a climbing turn immediately and follow missed Maintain altitude and continue past MAP for 1
814 reaching the MAP, the following procedure should be the MDA or DH before executing a turning A
approach procedures. minute or 1 mile whichever occurs first.
used unless otherwise cleared by ATC. maneuver.

(Refer to Figure 54.) You have been cleared to the

CREAK intersection via the BTG 054° radial at 7,000
completion of the procedure turn, and established
815 feet. Approaching CREAK, y ou are cleared for the CREAK outbound. intercepting the glide slope. B
on the localizer.
LOC/DME RWY 21 approach to PDX. Descent to
procedure turn altitude should not begin prior to

Refer to Figure 57.) If y our aircraft was cleared for the

ILS RWY 17R at Lincoln Municipal and crossed the
816 As soon as intercepting LOC inbound Immediately Only at the point authorized by ATC. B
Lincoln VOR at 5,000 feet MSL, at what point in the
teardrop could a descent to 3,000 feet commence?

If during an ILS approach in IFR conditions, the

Required to immediately execute the missed Permitted to continue the approach and descend to the Permitted to continue the approach to the approach
817 approach lights are not visible upon arrival at the DH, A
approach procedure. localizer MDA. threshold of the ILS runway .
the pilot is