POWERPLANT REVIEWER SHEET b.

Three
c. Four
ENGINE INSTRUMENT SYSTEM 8. On a twin engine aircraft with fuel-injected
reciprocating engines, one fuel-flow indicator reads
1. Engine pressure ratio is the total pressure ratio considerably higher than the other in all engine
between the operating configurations. What is the probable cause
a. Aft end of the compressor and the aft end of the of this indication?
turbine a. Carburetor icing
b. Front of the compressor and the rear of the b. One more fuel nozzles are clogged
turbine c. Alternate air door stuck open
c. Front of the engine inlet and the aft end of the 9. The principal fault in the pressure type fuel flow
compressor meter indicating system, installed on a horizontally
2. Which of the following instrument conditions is opposed continuous-flow fuel injected aircraft
acceptable and does not require immediate reciprocating engine, is that a plugged fuel injection
correction? nozzle will cause a
1. Red line missing a. Normal operation indication
2. Pointer loose on shaft b. Lower than normal fuel flow indication
3. Glass cracked c. Higher than normal fuel flow indication
4. Mounting screws loose 10. A manifold pressure gauge is designed to
5. Case paint chipped a. Maintain constant pressure in the intake
6. Leaking at line B nut manifold
7. Will not zero out b. Indicate differential pressure between the intake
8. Fogged manifold and atmospheric pressure
a. 1 c. Indicate absolute pressure in the intake
b. 4 manifold
c. 5 11. In a turbine engine, where is the turbine discharge
3. Which statement is correct concerning a pressure indicator sensor located?
thermocouple-type temperature indicating instrument a. At the aft end of the compressor section
system? b. At a location in the exhaust cone that is
a. It is a balanced-type, variable resistor circuit determined to be subjected to the highest
b. It requires no external power source pressures
c. It usually contains a balancing circuit in the c. Immediately aft of the last turbine stage
instrument case to prevent fluctuations of the 12. An indication of unregulated power changes that
system voltage from affecting the temperature result in continual drift of manifold pressure
reading indication on a turbo supercharged aircraft engine is
4. The indication on a thermocouple-type cylinder head known as
temperature indicator is produced by a. Overshoot
a. Resistance changes in two dissimilar metals b. Waste gate fluctuation
b. A difference in the voltage between two c. Bootstrapping
dissimilar metals 13. (1) Engine pressure ratio (EPR) is a ratio of the
c. A current generated by the temperature exhaust gas pressure to the engine inlet air pressure,
difference between dissimilar metal hot and and indicates the thrust produced.
cold junctions (2) Engine pressure ratio (EPR) is a ratio of the
5. Which statement is true regarding a thermocouple- exhaust gas pressure in the engine inlet air pressure,
type cylinder head temperature measuring system? and indicates volumetric efficiency.
a. The resistance required for cylinder head Regarding the above statements,
temperature indicators is measured in farads a. Only No. 1 is true
b. The voltage output of a thermocouple system b. Only No. 2 is true
is determined by the temperature difference c. Bothe No. 1 & No. 2 are true
between the two ends of the thermocouple 14. A complete break in the line between the manifold
c. When the master switch is turned on, a pressure gauge and the induction system will be
thermocouple indicator will move off-scale to indicated by the gauge registering
the low side a. Prevailing atmospheric pressure
6. Which of the following types of electric motors are b. Zero
commonly used in electric tachometers? c. Lower than normal for conditions prevailing
a. Direct current, series-wound motors 15. Thermocouple leads
b. Synchronous motors a. May be installed with either lead to either post of
c. Direct current, shunt-wound motors the indicator
7. In addition to fuel quantity, a computerized fuel b. Are designed for a specific installation and
system (CFS) with a totalizer-indicator provides may not be altered
indication of how many of the following? c. May be repaired using solder less connectors
1. Fuel flow rate 16. The EGT gauge used with reciprocating engines is
2. Fuel used since reset or initial start-up primarily used to furnish temperature readings in
3. Fuel time remaining at current power setting order to
4. Fuel temperature a. Obtain the best mixture setting for fuel
a. Two efficiency
 b. Obtain the best mixture setting for engine 26. The fuel-flow indication data sent from motor driven
cooling impeller and turbine, and motor less type fuel flow
c. Prevent engine over temperature transmitters is a measure of
17. Engine oil temperature gauges indicate the a. Fuel mass-flow
temperature of the oil b. Fuel volume-flow
a. Entering the oil cooler c. Engine burner pressure drop
b. Entering the engine 27. What would be the possible cause if a gas turbine
c. In the oil storage tank engine has high exhaust gas temperature, high fuel
18. Basically, the indicator of a tachometer system is flow, and low RPM at all engine power settings?
responsive to change in a. Fuel control out of adjustment
a. Current flow b. Loose or corroded thermocouple
b. Frequency c. Turbine damage or loss of turbine efficiency
c. voltage 28. Why do helicopters require a minimum of two
19. The purpose of an exhaust gas analyzer is to indicate synchronous tachometer systems?
the a. One indicates engine RPM and the other tail
a. Brake specific fuel consumption rotor RPM
b. Fuel/air ratio being burned in the cylinders b. One indicates main rotor RPM and the other tail
c. Temperature of the exhaust gases in the exhaust rotor RPM
manifold c. One indicates engine RPM and the other main
20. Instruments that provide readings of low or negative rotor RPM
pressure, such as manifold pressure gauges, are 29. (1) Generally, when a turbine engine indicates high
usually what type? EGT for a particular EPR (when there is no
a. Vane with calibrated spring significant damage), it means that the engine is out of
b. Bourdon tube trim
c. Diaphragm or bellows (2) Some turbine-powered aircraft use RPM as the
21. Engine pressure ratio is determined by primary indicator of thrust produced, others use EPR
a. Multiplying engine inlet total pressure by turbine as the primary indicator
outlet total pressure Regarding the above statements,
b. Dividing turbine outlet total pressure by a. Only No. 1 is true
engine inlet total pressure b. Only No. 2 is true
c. Dividing engine inlet total pressure by turbine c. Both No. 1 and No.2 is true
outlet total pressure 30. On an aircraft turbine engine, operating at a constant
22. Which of the following instrument discrepancies power, the application of engine anti-icing will result
require replacement of the instrument? in
1. Red line missing from glass a. Noticeable shift in EPR
2. Glass cracked b. A false EPR reading
3. Case paint chipped c. An increase in EPR
4. Will not zero out 31. The fuel-flow indicator rotor and needle for a motor-
5. Pointer loose on shaft impeller and turbine indicating system is driven by
6. Mounting screw loose a. An electrical signal
7. Leaking at line B nut b. Direct coupling to the motor shaft
8. Fogged c. A mechanical gear train
a. 2,3,7,8 32. (1) Powerplant instrument range markings show
b. 2,4,5,8 whether the current state of powerplant operation is
c. 1,2,4,7 normal, acceptable for a limited time, or
23. The engine pressure ratio (ERP) indicator is a direct unauthorized.
indication of (2) Powerplant instrument range makings are based
a. Engine thrust being produced are based on installed engine operating limits which
b. Pressure ratio between the font and aft end of the may not exceed (but necessarily equal to) those limits
compressor shown on the engine Type Certificate Data Sheet.
c. Ratio of engine RPM to compressor pressure Regarding the above statements,
24. What unit in a tachometer system sends information a. Both No. 1 & No. 2 are true
to the indicator? b. Neither No. 1 nor No. 2 Is true
a. The three-phase ac generator c. Only No. 1 is true
b. The two-phase ac generator 33. A red triangle, dot, or diamond mark on an engine
c. The synchronous motor instrument face or glass indicates
25. In regard to using a turbine engine oil analysis a. The maximum operating limit of all normal
program, which of the following is NOT true? operations
a. Generally, an accurate trend forecast may be b. The maximum limit for high transients such
made after an engine’s first oil sample as starting
analysis c. A restricted operating range
b. It is best to start an oil analysis program on an 34. The exhaust gas temperature (EGT) indicator on a
engine when it is new gas turbine engine provides a relative indication of
c. A successful oil analysis program should be run the
over an engine’s total operating life so that a. Exhaust temperature
normal trends can be established
 b. Temperature of the exhaust gases as they pass 46. A complete break in the line between the manifold
the exhaust con pressure gauge and the induction system will be
c. Turbine inlet temperature indicated by the gauge registering
35. Which unit most accurately indicates fuel a. Prevailing atmospheric pressure
consumption of reciprocating engine? b. Zero
a. Fuel flow meter c. Lower than normal for conditions prevailing
b. Fuel pressure gauge 47. Instruments that measure relatively high fluid
c. Electronic fuel quantity indicator pressures, such as oil pressure gauges, are usually
36. What basic meter is used to indicate cylinder head what type?
temperature in most aircraft? a. Vane with calibrated spring
a. Electrodynamometer b. Bourdon tube
b. Galvanometer c. Diaphragm or bellows
c. Thermocouple-type meter 48. The fuel-flow indication system used with many fuel-
37. What instrument indicates the thrust of a gas turbine injected opposed engine airplanes utilizes a measure
engine? of
a. Exhaust gas temperature indicator a. Fuel flow volume
b. Turbine inlet temperature indicator b. Fuel pressure
c. Engine pressure ratio indicator c. Fuel flow mass
38. What is the primary purpose of the tachometer on an 49. The fuel flowmeter used with a continuous-fuel
axial-compressor turbine engine? injection system installed on an aircraft horizontally
a. Monitor engine RPM during cruise conditions opposed reciprocating engines measures the fuel
b. It is the most accurate instrument for establishing pressure drop across the
thrust settings under all conditions a. manifold valve
c. Monitor engine RPM during starting and to b. fuel nozzles
indicate overspeed conditions c. metering valve
39. In an aircraft equipped with a pressure-drop type 50. What instrument on a gas turbine engine should be
fuel-flow indicating system, if one of the injector monitored to minimize the possibility of a “hot”
nozzles becomes restricted, this would cause a start?
decrease in fuel flow with a. RPM indicator
a. A decreased fuel flow indication on the gauge b. Turbine inlet temperature
b. An increased fuel flow indication on the gauge c. Torque meter
c. No change in fuel flow indication on the gauge 51. Where are the hot and cold junctions located in an
40. If the thermocouple leads were inadvertently crossed engine cylinder cylinder temperature indicating
at installation, what would the cylinder temperature system?
gauge pointer indicate? a. Both junctions are located at the instrument
a. Normal temperature for prevailing condition b. Both junctions are located at the cylinder
b. Moves off-scale on the zero side of the meter c. The hot junction is located at the cylinder and
c. Moves off-scale on the high side of the meter the cold junction is located at the instrument
41. A common type of electrically operated oil 52. Motor driven impeller and turbine fuel flow
temperature gauge utilizes transmitters are designed to transmit data
a. Either wheatstone bridge or ratio meter a. Using aircraft electrical system power
circuit b. Mechanically
b. A thermocouple type circuit c. By fuel pressure
c. Vapor pressure and pressure switches 53. In what units are turbine engine tachometers
42. Jet engine thermocouples are usually constructed of calibrated?
a. Chromel-alumel a. Percent of engine RPM
b. Iron-constantan b. Actual engine RPM
c. Alumel-constantan c. Percent of engine pressure ratio
43. Which of the following is a primary engine 54. A change in engine manifold pressure has a direct
instrument? effect on the
a. Tachometer a. Piston displacement
b. Fuel flow meter b. Compression ratio
c. Airspeed indicator c. Mean effective cylinder pressure
44. The RPM indication of a synchronous ac motor-
tachometer is governed by the generator RECIPROCATING ENGINES
a. Voltage
b. Current 1. When is the fuel/air mixture ignited in a conventional
reciprocating engine?
c. Frequency
a. When the piston has reached top dead
45. A bourdon-tube instrument may be used to indicate center of the intake stroke.
1. Pressure b. Shortly before the piston reaches the
2. Temperature top of the compression stroke.
3. Position c. When the piston reaches top dead center
4. Quantity on the compression stroke.
a. 1 and 2 2. Direct mechanical push-pull carburetor heat control
linkages should normally be adjusted so that the stop
b. 1 and 3
located on the diverter valve will be contacted
c. 2 and 4
 a. before the stop at the control lever is 12. During ground check an engine is found to be rough-
reached in both HOT and COLD running, the magneto drop is normal, and the
positions. manifold pressure is higher than normal for any
b. before the stop at the control lever ¡s given RPM. The trouble may be caused by
reached in the HOT position and after the a. Several spark plugs fouled on different
stop at the control lever is reached in the cylinders.
COLD position. b. a leak in the intake manifold.
c. after the stoD at the control lever is c. a dead cylinder.
reached in both HOT and COLD 13. During routine inspection of a reciprocating engine ,
positions. a deposit of small , bright , metallic particles which
3. At what speed must a crankshaft turn if each cylinder do not cling to the magnetic drain plug is discovered
of a four-stroke cycle engine is to be fired 200 times in the oil sump and on the surface of the oil filter.
a minute? This condition
a. 800 RPM. a. may be a result of abnormal plain type
b. 1,600 RPM. bearing wear and is cause for further
c. 400 RPM. investigation.
4. Excessive valve clearance in a piston engine b. is probably a result of ring and cylinder
a. increases valve overlap. wall wear and is cause for engine removal
b. increases valve opening time. and/ or overhaul.
c. decreases valve overlap. c. is normal in engines utilizing plain type
5. On which part of the cylinder walls of a normally bearings and aluminum pistons and is not
operating engine will the greatest amount of wear cause for alarm.
occur? 14. Master rod bearings are generally what type?
a. Near the center of the cylinder where piston a. Plain
velocity is greatest. b. Roller
b. Near the top of the cylinder. c. Ball
c. Wear is normally evenly distributed. 15. A hissing sound from the exhaust stacks when the
6. During the inspection of an engine control system in propeller is being pulled through manually indicates
which push-pull control rods are used, the threaded a. a cracked exhaust stack
rod ends should b. exhaust valve blow-by
a. insure that the safety wire passes thru the hole c. worn piston rings
in shank of the rod-end. 16. If the exhaust valve of a four – stroke cycle engine
b. Be checked for the thread engagement of at is closed and the intake valve is just closed , the
least two threads but more than four threads. piston is on the
c. Be checked for the amount of thread a. intake stroke
engagement by means of the inspection holes. b. power stroke
7. Some aircraft engine manufactures equip their c. compression stroke
product with choked or taper-ground cylinders in 17. When will small induction system air leaks have the
order to most noticeable effect on engine operation?
a. Provide a straight cylinder bore at operating
temperatures. a. At high RPM.
b. Flex the rings slightly during operation and b. At maximum continuous and takeoff power
reduce the possibility of the rings sticking in the settings.
grooves. c. At low RPM.
c. Increase the compression pressure for starting 18. What special procedure must be followed when
purposes. adjusting the values of an engine equipped with a
8. An unsupercharged aircraft reciprocating engine, floating cam ring?
operated at full throttle from sea level, to 10,000 feet, a. Adjust valves when the engine is hot.
provided the RPM is unchanged, will b. Adjust all exhaust valves before intake
a. Lose power due to the reduced volume of air valves.
drawn into the cylinders. c. Eliminate cam bearing clearance when
b. Produce constant power due to the same volume making valve adjustment.
of air drawn into the cylinders. 19. Valve overlap is defined as the number of degrees of
c. Lose power due to the reduce density of the crankshaft travel
air drawn into the cylinders. a. during which both valves are off their
9. As the pressure is applied during a reciprocating seats.
engine compression check using a differential b. between the closing of the intake valve and
pressure tester, what would a movement of the the opening of the exhaust valve.
propeller in the direction of engine rotation indicate? c. during which both valves ate on their seats.
a. The piston was on compression stroke. 20. Which of the following engine servicing operations
b. The piston was on exhaust stroke. generally requires engine pre-oiling prior to starting
c. The piston was positioned past top dead the engine?
center. a. Engine oil and filter change.
10. The valve clearance of an engine using hydraulic b. Engine installation.
lifters, when the lifters are completely flatl, or empty, c. Replacement of oil lines.
should not exceed 21. What is the best indication of worn valve guides?
a. 0.00 inch a. High oil consumption.
b. a specified amount above zero. b. Low compression
c. a specified amount below zero. c. Low oil pressure.
11. What does valve overlap promote? 22. How may it be determined that a reciprocating engine
a. Lower intake manifold pressure and with a dry sump is pre-oiled sufficiently?
temperatures. a. The engine oil pressure gauge will indicate
b. A backflow of gases across the cylinder. normal oil pressure.
c. Better scavenging and cooling b. Oil will flow from engine return line or
characteristics. indicator port.
 c. When the quantity of oil specified by the c. obtain the best volumetric efficiency and
manufacturer has been pumped into the lower cylinder operating temperatures.
engine. 34. Engine crankshaft run out is usually checked
23. If air is heard coming from the crankcase breather or 1. during engine overhaul.
oil filler during a differential compression check, 2. during annual inspection.
What is this an indication of? 3. after a “prop strike” or sudden engine stoppage.
a. Exhaust valve leakage 4. during 100 – hour inspection.
b. Intake valve leakage a. 1,3 and 4
c. Piston ring leakage. b. 1 and 3
24. Excessive valve clearances will cause the duration of c. 1,2 and 3.
valve opening to 35. A condition that can occur in radial engines but is
a. increase for both intake and exhaust valves. unlikely to occur in horizontally opposed engines is
b. decrease for both intake and exhaust a. oil- fouled spark plug
valves. b. valve overlap.
c. decrease for intake valves and decrease for c. hydraulic lock.
exhaust valves. 36. Which statement is true regarding bearings used in
25. Which statement is correct regarding a four- stroke high powered reciprocating aircraft engines?
cycle aircraft engine? a. The outer race of a single-row, self –aligning ball
a. The intake valve closes on the compassion bearing will always have a radius equal to the
stroke. radius of the balls.
b. The exhaust valve opens on the exhaust b. There is less rolling friction when ball bearings
stroke. are used than when roller bearings are employed.
c. The intake valve closes on the intake stroke. c. Crankshaft bearings are generally of the ball-type
26. A characteristic of dyna- focal engine mounts as due to their ability to withstand extreme loads
applied to aircraft reciprocating engines is that the without overheating.
a. shock mounts eliminate the torsional flexing 37. Excessive valve clearance results in the valves
of the powerplant. opening
b. engine attaches to the shock mount at the a. late and closing early.
engine’s center of gravity. b. early and closing late.
c. shock mount point toward the engine’s c. late and closing late.
center of gravity. 38. What will be the likely result if the piston ring gaps
27. Which statement pertaining to fuel/air ratios is true? happen to be aligned when performing a differential-
a. The mixture ratio which gives the best pressure compression check on a cylinder?
power is richer than the mixture ratio a. Little or no effect.
which gives maximum economy. b. The rings will not be seated.
b. A rich mixture is faster burning than a c. A worn or defective ring(s) indication.
normal mixture. 39. Engine operating flexibility is the ability of the
c. The mixture ratio which gives maximum engine to
economy may also be designated as best a. deliver maximum horsepower at a specific
power mixture. altitude.
28. One cause of after firing in an aircraft engine is b. meet exacting requirements of efficiency and
a. sticking intake valves. low weight per horsepower ratio.
b. an excessively lean mixture. c. run smoothly and give the desired
c. an excessively rich mixture. performance at all speeds
29. The horsepower developed in the cylinders of a 40. An engine misses in both the right and left positions
reciprocating engine is known as the of the magneto switch. The quickest method for
a. shaft horsepower locating the trouble is to
b. indicated horsepower a. check for one or more cold cylinders.
c. brake horsepower b. perform a compression check.
30. An increase in manifold pressure with a constant c. check each spark plug.
RPM will cause the bearing load in an engine to 41. After spark plugs from an opposed engine have been
a. decrease serviced, in what position should they be
b. remain relatively constant reinstalled?
c. increase a. Next in firing order to the one from
31. Which of the following will decrease volumetric which they were removed.
efficiency in a reciprocating engine? b. Swapped bottom to top.
1. Full throttle operation. c. Next in firing order to the one from
2. Low cylinder head temperatures. which they were removed and
3. Improper valve timing. swapped bottom to top.
4. Sharp bends in the induction system. 42. Grinding the valves of a reciprocating engine to a
5. High carburetor air temperatures. feather edge is likely to result in
a. 2,4, and 5 a. Normal operation and long life.
b. 1,2,3, and 4 b. Excessive valve clearance.
c. 3,4, and 5 c. Pre-ignition and burned valves.
32. A nine –cylinder engine with a bore of 5.5 inches 43. Which of these conditions will cause an engine to have an
and a stroke of 6 inches will have a total piston increased tendency to detonate?
displacement of 1. High manifold pressure.
a. 740 cubic inches 2. High intake air temperature.
b. 1,425 cubic inches 3. Engine overheated.
c. 1,283 cubic inches 4. Late ignition timing.
33. The primary purpose in setting proper valve timing a. 1,2,3.
and overlap is to b. 1,2,3,4.
a. permit the best possible charge of fuel / air c. 1,4
mixture into the cylinders. 44. Standard aircraft cylinder oversizes usually range from
b. gain more thorough exhaust gas scavenging. 0.010 inch to 0.030 inch. Oversize on automobile engine
cylinders may range up to 0.100 inch. This is because aircraft propeller to remain at a lower, more efficient
engine cylinders RPM.
a. have more limited cooling capacity. c. To enable the engine RPM to be increased with an
b. have relatively thin walls and may be nitrided. accompanying increase in propeller RPM.
c. operate at high temperatures. 55. Which bearing is least likely to be a roller or ball bearing?
45. The purpose of two or more valve springs in aircraft a. Rocker arm bearing (overhead valve engine).
engines is to b. Master rod bearing (radial engine).
a. equalize side pressure on the valve stems. c. Crankshaft main bearing (radial engine).
b. eliminate valve spring surge. 56. On which strokes are both valves on a four-stroke cycle
c. equalize valve face loading. reciprocating
46. What could cause excessive pressure buildup in the aircraft engine open?
crankcase of a reciprocating engine? a. Power and exhaust.
a. Plugged crankcase breather. b. Intake and compression.
b. Improper warm-up operation. c. Exhaust and intake.
c. An excessive quantity of oil. 57. To reduce the power output of an engine equipped with a
47. By use of a differential pressure compression tester, it is constant-speed propeller and operating near maximum BMEP,
determined that the the
No. 3 cylinder of a nine-cylinder radial engine will not hold a. manifold pressure is reduced with the throttle
pressure after the crankshaft has been rotated 2600 from top control before the RPM is reduced with the
dead center compression stroke propeller control.
No. 1 cylinder. How can this indication usually be interpreted? b. manifold pressure is reduced with the propeller
a. A normal indication. control before the RPM is reduced with the throttle
b. Exhaust valve blow-by. control.
c. A damaged exhaust valve or insufficient exhaust c. RPM is reduced with the propeller control before the
valve clearance. manifold pressure is reduced with the throttle control.
48. One of the best indicators of reciprocating engine 58. Which of the following would indicate a general weak-
combustion chamber problems is engine condition when operated with a fixed-pitch propeller or
a. excessive engine vibration. test club?
b. starting difficulties. a. Lower than normal static RPM, full throttle
c. spark plug condition. operation.
49. If the ignition switch is moved from BOTH to either LEFT b. Manifold pressure lower at idle RPM than at static
or RIGHT during a magneto check, a normal operation is RPM.
usually indicated by c. Lower than normal manifold pressure for any given
a. no change in RPM. RPM.
b. momentary interruption of both ignition systems. 59. Some cylinder barrels are hardened by
c. slight drop in RPM. a. nitriding.
b. shot peening.
50. The primary concern in establishing the firing order for an c. tempering.
opposed engine is to 60. Why does the smoothness of operation of an engine
a. provide for balance and eliminate vibration to the increase with a greater number of cylinders?
greatest extent possible. a. The power impulses are spaced closer together.
b. keep power impulses on adjacent cylinders as far b. The power impulses are spaced farther apart.
apart as possible in order to obtain the greatest c. The engine has larger counterbalance weights.
mechanical efficiency. 61. Which of the following is a characteristic of a thrust
c. keep the power impulses on adjacent cylinders as bearing used in most radial engines?
close as possible in order to obtain the greatest a. Tapered roller.
mechanical efficiency. b. Double-row ball.
51. Increased water vapor (higher relative humidity) in the c. Deep-groove ball.
incoming air to a reciprocating engine will normally result in 62. Which condition would be the least likely to be caused by
which of the following? failed or failing engine bearings?
a. Decreased engine power at a constant RPM and a. Excessive oil consumption.
manifold pressure. b. High oil temperatures.
b. Increased power output due to increased volumetric c. Low oil temperatures.
efficiency. 63. Valve clearance changes on opposed-type engines using
c. A leaning effect on engines which use non-automatic hydraulic lifters are accomplished by
carburetors. a. rocker arm adjustment.
52. If the hot clearance is used to set the valves when the b. rocker arm replacement.
engine is cold, what will occur during operation of the engine? c. push rod replacement.
a. The valves will open early and close early. 64. The floating control thermostat, used on some
b. The valves will open late and close early. reciprocating engine
c. The valves will open early and close late. installations, helps regulate oil temperature by
53. Which fuel/air mixture will result in the highest engine a. controlling oil flow through the oil cooler.
temperature (all other factors remaining constant)? b. recirculating hot oil back through the sump.
a. A mixture leaner than a rich best-power mixture of c. controlling air flow through the oil cooler.
.085. 65. Which of the following would most likely cause a
b. A mixture richer than a full-rich mixture of .087. reciprocating engine to backfire through the induction system
c. A mixture leaner than a manual lean mixture of at low RPM operation?
.060. a. Idle mixture too rich.
54. What is the principal advantage of using propeller b. Clogged derichment valve.
reduction gears? c. Lean mixture.
a. To enable the propeller RPM to be increased without 66. What is the purpose of a power check on a reciprocating
an accompanying increase in engine RPM. engine?
b. To enable the engine RPM to be increased with an a. To check magneto drop.
accompanying increase in power and allow the b. To determine satisfactory performance.
c. To determine if the fuel/air mixture is adequate.
67. To what altitude will a turbo charged engine maintain sea c. it is an indication of normal engine wear unless the
level pressure? deposit exceeds a specified amount.
a. Critical altitude. 77. The five events of a four-stroke cycle engine in the order
b. Service ceiling. of their occurrence are
c. Pressure altitude. a. intake, ignition, compression, power, exhaust.
68. Before attempting to start a radial engine that has been b. intake, power, compression, ignition, exhaust.
shut down for more than 30 minutes, c. intake, compression, ignition, power, exhaust.
a. turn the propeller by hand three or four revolutions in 78. Ignition occurs at 28° BTDC on a certain four-stroke cycle
the opposite direction of normal rotation to check for engine, and theintake valve opens at 15° BTDC. How many
liquid lock. degrees of crankshaft travel after ignition does the intake valve
b. turn the ignition switch on before energizing the open? (Consider one cylinder only.)
starter. a. 707°.
c. turn the propeller by hand three to four b. 373°.
revolutions in the normal direction of rotation to c. 347°.
check for liquid lock. 79. What is required by 14 CFR Part 43 Appendix D when
69. If the crankshaft run out readings on the dial indicator are performing an annual/100-hour inspection on a reciprocating
plus .002 inch and minus .003 inch, the run out is engine aircraft?
a. .005 inch. a. Magneto timing check.
b. plus .001 inch. b. Cylinder compression check.
c. minus .001 inch. c. Valve clearance check.
70. Full-floating piston pins are those which allow motion 80. Backfiring through the carburetor generally results from
between the pin and the use of
a. the piston. a. an excessively lean mixture.
b. both the piston and the large end of the connecting b. excessively atomized fuel.
rod. c. an excessively rich mixture.
c. both the piston and the small end of the 81. Reduced air density at high altitude has a decided effect on
connecting rod. carburetion, resulting in a reduction of engine power by
71. During overhaul, the disassembled parts of an engine are a. excessively enriching the fuel/air mixture.
usually degreased with some form of mineral spirits solvent b. excessively leaning the fuel/air mixture.
rather than water-mixed degreasers primarily because c. reducing fuel vaporization.
a. solvent degreasers are much more effective. 82. Which of the following conditions would most likely lead
b. water-mixed degreaser residues may cause engine to detonation?
oil contamination in the overhauled engine. a. Late ignition timing.
c. water-mixed degreasers cause corrosion. b. Use of fuel with too high an octane rating.
72. When does valve overlap occur in the operation of an c. Use of fuel with too low an octane rating.
aircraft reciprocating engine? 83. How many of the following are factors in establishing the
a. At the end of the exhaust stroke and the beginning maximum compression ratio limitations of an aircraft engine?
of the intake stroke. 1. Detonation characteristics of the fuel used.
b. At the end of the power stroke and the beginning of 2. Design limitations of the engine.
the exhaust stroke. 3. Degree of supercharging.
c. At the end of the compression stroke and the 4. Spark plug reach.
beginning of the power stroke. a. Four.
73. Which statement is correct regarding engine crankshafts? b. Two.
a. Moveable counterweights serve to reduce the c. THREE
dynamic vibrations in an aircraft reciprocating 84. Cam-ground pistons are installed in some aircraft engines
engine. to
b. Moveable counterweights serve to reduce the a. provide a better fit at operating temperatures.
torsional vibrations in an aircraft reciprocating b. act as a compensating feature so that a compensated
engine. magneto is not required.
c. Moveable counterweights are designed to resonate at c. equalize the wear on all pistons
the natural frequency of the crankshaft. 85. What is an advantage of using metallic-sodium filled
74. The volume of a cylinder equals 70 cubic inches when the exhaust valves in
piston is at bottom aircraft reciprocating engines?
center. When the piston is at the top of the cylinder, the a. Increased strength and resistance to cracking.
volume equals 10 cubic inches. What is the compression ratio? b. Reduced valve operating temperatures.
a. 1 : 7 c. Greater resistance to deterioration at high valve
b. 7 : 10 temperatures.
c. 7 : 1 86. The operating temperature valve clearance of a radial
75. Which of the following is most likely to occur if an engine as compared to cold valve clearance is
overhead valve engine is operated with inadequate valve a. greater.
clearances? b. less.
a. The valves will not seat positively during start and c. the same.
engine warm up. 87. When cleaning aluminum and magnesium engine parts, it
b. The further decrease in valve clearance that occurs as is inadvisable to soak them in solutions containing soap
engine temperatures increase will cause damage to because
the valve-operating mechanism. a. some of the soap will become impregnated in the
c. The valves will remain closed for longer periods than surface of the material and subsequently cause
specified by the engine manufacturer. engine oil contamination and foaming.
76. If metallic particles are found in the oil filter during an b. the soap can chemically alter the metals causing them
inspection, to become more susceptible to corrosion.
a. It is an indication of normal engine wear unless the c. the parts can be destroyed by dissimilar metal
particles are nonferrous. electrolytic action if they are placed together in the
b. the cause should be identified and corrected solution for more than a few minutes.
before the aircraft is released for flight.
89. Using the following information, determine how many c. backfiring into the induction system.
degrees the crankshaft will rotate with both the intake and 100. (1) Pre-ignition is caused by improper ignition timing.
exhaust valves seated. (2) Detonation occurs when an area of the combustion
Intake opens 15°: BTDC. chamber becomes incandescent and ignites the fuel/air mixture
Exhaust opens 700: BBDC. in advance of normal timed ignition.
Intake closes 45°: ABDC. Regarding the above statements,
Exhaust closes 10°: ATDC. a. only No. 1 is true.
a. 290°. b. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
b. 245°. c. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.
c. 25°. 101. If an engine cylinder is to be removed, at what position in
90. What tool is generally used to measure the crankshaft the cylinder should the piston be?
rotation in degrees? a. Bottom dead center.
a. Dial indicator. b. Top dead center.
b. Timing disk. c. Halfway between top and bottom dead center.
c. Prop Protractor. 102. During overhaul, reciprocating engine exhaust valves are
91. How is proper end-gap clearance on new piston rings checked for stretch
assured during the overhaul of an engine? a. with a suitable inside spring caliper.
a. By accurately measuring and matching the outside b. with a contour or radius gauge.
diameter of the rings with the inside diameter of the c. by placing the valve on a surface plate and measuring
cylinders. its length with a vernier height gauge.
b. By using rings specified by the engine manufacturer. 103. The actual power delivered to the propeller of an aircraft
c. By placing the rings in the cylinder and measuring engine is called
the end-gap with a feeler gauge. a. friction horsepower.
92. An aircraft reciprocating engine using hydraulic valve b. brake horsepower.
lifters is observed to have no clearance in its valve-operating c. indicated horsepower
mechanism after the minimum inlet oil and cylinder head 104. If an engine with a stroke of 6 inches is operated at 2,000
temperatures for takeoff have been reached. When can this RPM, the piston movement within the cylinder will be
condition be expected? a. at maximum velocity around TDC.
a. During normal operation. b. constant during the entire 360° of crankshaft travel.
b. When the lifters become deflated. c. at maximum velocity 90° after TDC.
c. As a result of carbon and sludge becoming trapped in 105. If the oil pressure gauge fluctuates over a wide range
the lifter and restricting its option. from zero to normal operating pressure, the most likely cause
93. Compression ratio is the ratio between the is
a. piston travel on the compression stroke and on the a. low oil supply.
intake stroke. b. broken or weak pressure relief valve spring.
b. combustion chamber pressure on the combustion c. air lock in the scavenge pump intake.
stroke and on the exhaust stroke. 106. What is the purpose of the safety circlet installed on some
c. cylinder volume with piston at bottom dead center valve stems?
and at top dead center. a. To hold the valve guide in position.
94. If fuel/air ratio is proper and ignition timing is correct, the b. To hold the valve spring retaining washer in
combustion process should be completed position.
a. 20 to 300 before top center at the end of the c. To prevent valves from falling into the
compression stroke. combustion chamber.
b. when the exhaust valve opens at the end of the power 107. If the oil pressure of a cold engine is higher than at
stroke. normal operating
c. just after top center at the beginning of the power temperatures, the
stroke. a. oil system relief valve should be readjusted.
95. If an engine operates with a low oil pressure and a high oil b. engines lubrication system is probably operating
temperature, the problem may be caused by a normally.
a. leaking oil dilution valve. c. oil dilution system should be turned on immediately.
b. sheared oil pump shaft. 108. (1) Cast iron piston rings may be used in chrome-plated
c. clogged oil cooler annular jacket. cylinders.
96. What is likely to occur if a reciprocating engine is (2) Chrome-plated rings may be used in plain steel cylinders.
operated at high power settings before it is properly warmed Regarding the above statements,
up? a. only No. 1 is true.
a. Oil starvation of bearings and other parts. b. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.
b. Excessive thinning of the engine oil. c. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
c. Accelerated oil breakdown and oxidation.
97. What is the basic operational sequence for reducing the PROPELLERS
power output of an engine equipped with a constant-speed
propeller? 1. What actuates the pilot valve in the governor of a constant-
a. Reduce the RPM, then the manifold pressure. speed propeller?
b. Reduce the manifold pressure, then retard the throttle a. Engine oil pressure.
to obtain the correct RPM. b. Governor flyweights.
c. Reduce the manifold pressure, then the RPM. c. Governor pump oil pressure.
98. Which of the following will be caused by excessive valve 2. The purpose of permanently sealing and partially filling
clearance of a cylinder on a reciprocating aircraft engine? some models of McCauley propeller hubs with dyed oil is to
a. Reduced valve overlap period. a. provide an always clean separate lubrication of the
b. Intake and exhaust valves will open early and close internal parts.
late. b. dampen pressure surges and prevent too rapid
c. A power increase by shortening the exhaust event. changes in propeller blade angle.
99. If the intake valve is opened too early in the cycle of c. make the location of cracks readily apparent.
operation of a four stroke cycle engine, it may result in 3. During engine operation at speeds lower than those for
a. improper scavenging of exhaust gases. which the constant-speed propeller control can govern in the
b. engine kickback. INCREASE RPM position, the propeller will
 a. remain in the full HIGH PITCH position, c. Propeller balancing.
b. maintain engine RPM in the normal manner until the 15. Which of the following forces or combination of forces
HIGH PITCH stop is reached. operates to move the blades of a constant-speed
c. remain in the full LOW PITCH position. counterweight-type propeller to the HIGH PITCH position?
4. The primary purpose of the front and rear cones for a. Engine oil pressure acting on the propeller piston-
propellers that are cylinder arrangement and centrifugal force acting on
installed on splined shafts is to the counterweights.
a. position the propeller hub on the splined shaft. b. Centrifugal force acting on the counterweights.
b. prevent metal-to-metal contact between the propeller c. Prop governor oil pressure acting on the propeller
and the splined shaft. piston-cylinder arrangement.
c. reduce stresses between the splines of the propeller 16. The blade angle of a fixed-pitch propeller
and the splines of the shaft. a. is greatest at the tip.
5. What operational force tends to increase propeller blade b. is smallest at the tip.
angle? c. increases in proportion to the distance each section is
a. Centrifugal twisting force. from the hub.
b. Aerodynamic twisting force. 17. After proper removal of aluminum blade damage, the
c. Thrust bending force. affected surface should be polished with
6. Minor surface damage located in a repairable area, but not a. fine steel wool.
on the leading or trailing edges of aluminum blades, may be b. very fine sandpaper.
repaired by first c. powdered soapstone.
a. filing with a riffle file. 18. What operational force causes the greatest stress on a
b. filing with a half round or flat file. propeller?
c. rough sanding and applying a proper filler. a. Aerodynamic twisting force.
7. When engine power is increased, the constant-speed b. Centrifugal force.
propeller tries to c. Thrust bending force.
function so that it will 19. The propeller blade angle is defined as the acute angle
a. maintain the RPM, decrease the blade angle, and between the airfoil section chord line (at the blade reference
maintain a low angle of attack. station) and which of the
b. increase the RPM, decrease the blade angle, and following?
maintain a low angle of attack. a. The plane of rotation.
c. maintain the RPM, increase the blade angle, and b. The relative wind.
maintain a low angle of attack. c. The axis of blade rotation during pitch change.
8. Which of the following statements concerning the 20. Longitudinal (fore and aft) clearance of constant-speed
installation of a new fixed-pitch wood propeller is true? propeller blades or cuffs must be at least 1/2 inch (12.7 mm)
a. If a separate metal hub is used, final track should be between propeller parts and stationary parts of the aircraft.
accomplished prior to installing the hub in the This clearance is with the propeller blades
propeller. a. at takeoff pitch (maximum thrust) angle.
b. NAS close-tolerance bolts should be used to install b. feathered or in the most critical pitch
the propeller. configuration.
c. Inspect the bolts for tightness after the first flight c. at the lowest pitch angle.
and again after the first 25 hours of flying. 21. What is a function of the automatic propeller
9. Which of the following best describes the blade movement synchronizing system on multiengine aircraft?
of a full a. To control the tip speed of all propellers.
feathering, constant-speed propeller that is in the LOW RPM b. To control engine RPM and reduce vibration.
position when the feathering action is begun? c. To control the power output of all engines.

a. High pitch through low pitch to feather position. 22. What operational force tends to bend the propeller blades
b. High pitch directly to feather position. forward at the tip?
c. Low pitch through high pitch to feather position. a. Torque-bending force.
10. Which of the following is used to correct horizontal b. Centrifugal-twisting force.
unbalance of a wood propeller? c. Thrust-bending force.
a. Brass screws. 23.What type of imbalance will cause a two-blade propeller to
b. Shellac. have a persistent tendency to come to rest in a horizontal
c. Solder. position (with the blades parallel to the ground) while being
11. The primary purpose of a propeller is to checked on a propeller balancing beam?
a. create lift on the fixed airfoils of an aircraft a. Vertical.
b. change engine horsepower to thrust. b. Horizontal.
c. provide static and dynamic stability of an aircraft in c. Harmonic.
flight. 24. Propellers exposed to salt spray should be flushed with
12. What unit in the propeller anti-icing system controls the a. stoddard solvent.
output of the pump? b. fresh water.
a. Pressure relief valve. c. soapy water.
b. Rheostat. 25. Which of the following methods is used to straighten a
c. Cycling timer. bent aluminum propeller blade that is within repairable limits?
13. Propeller aerodynamic (thrust) imbalance can be largely a. Careful heating to accomplish straightening, followed
eliminated by by heat treatment to restore original strength.
a. correct blade contouring and angle setting. b. Either hot or cold straightening, depending on the
b. static balancing. location and severity of damage.
c. keeping the propeller blades within the same plane c. Cold straightening only.
of rotation. 26. The centrifugal twisting moment of an operating propeller
14. Which of the following functions requires the use of a tends to
propeller blade a. increase the pitch angle.
station? b. reduce the pitch angle.
a. Measuring blade angle. c. bend the blades in the direction of rotation.
b. Indexing blades.
27. The angle-of-attack of a rotating propeller blade is c. rinse the blade in a Iodine solution.
measured between the blade chord or face and which of the 38.Grease used in aircraft propellers reduces the frictional
following? resistance of
a. Plane of blade rotation. moving parts and is easily molded into any form under
b. Full low-pitch blade angle. pressure. This
c. Relative airstream. statement defines
28. A powerplant using a hydraulically controlled constant- a. antifriction and plasticity characteristics of
speed propeller is operating within the propeller’s constant- grease.
speed range at a fixed throttle setting. If the tension of the b. antifriction and chemical stability of grease.
propeller governor control spring (speeder spring) is reduced c. viscosity and melting point of grease.
by movement of the cockpit propeller control, the propeller 39.An aircraft’s propeller system beta range
blade angle will a. is used to produce zero or negative thrust.
a. increase, engine manifold pressure will increase, b. is used to achieve maximum thrust during takeoff.
and engine RPM will decrease. c. refers to the most fuel efficient pitch range to use at
b. decrease, engine manifold pressure will increase, a given engine RPM.
and engine RPM will decrease. 40.What operational force causes propeller blade tips to lag in
c. decrease, engine manifold pressure will decrease, the opposite direction of rotation?
and engine RPM will increase. a. Thrust-bending force.
29.Removal of propeller blade tips within Type Certificate b. Aerodynamic-twisting force.
Data Sheet limits when correcting a defect is c. Torque-bending force.
a. a major alteration. 41.On most reciprocating multiengine aircraft, automatic
b. a major repair. propeller
c. permitted under the privileges and limitations of a synchronization is accomplished through the actuation of the
powerplant rating. a. throttle levers.
30.Propeller blade tracking is the process of determining b. propeller governors.
a. the plane of rotation of the propeller with respect to c. propeller control levers.
the aircraft longitudinal axis. 42.Which of the following generally renders an aluminum
b. that the blade angles are within the specified alloy propeller unrepairable?
tolerance of each other. a. Any repairs that would require shortening and re-
contouring of blades.
c. the positions of the tips of the propeller blades b. Any slag inclusions or cold shuts.
relative to each other. c. Transverse cracks of any size.
31.If a flanged propeller shaft has dowel pins 43.What action takes place when the cockpit control lever for
a. install the propeller so that the blades are positioned a hydroniatic constant-speed propeller is actuated?
for hand propping. a. Compression of the speeder spring is changed.
b. the propeller can be installed in only one b. The governor booster pump pressure is varied.
position. c. The governor bypass valve is positioned to direct oil
c. check carefully for front cone bottoming against the pressure to the propeller dome.
pins. 44.It is important that nicks in aluminum alloy propeller
32.The primary purpose of a feathering propeller is to blades be repaired as soon as possible in order to
a. prevent further engine damage when an engine fails a. maintain equal aerodynamic characteristics between
in flight. the blades.
b. prevent propeller damage when an engine fails in b. eliminate stress concentration points.
flight. c. equalize the centrifugal loads between the blades.
c. eliminate the drag created by a wind milling 45.The pitch-changing mechanism of the hydroniatic propeller
propeller when an engine fails in flight. is lubricated by
33.Why is the pulley stop screw on a propeller governor a. the pitch-changing oil.
adjustable? b. using an approved-type grease in a grease gun at
a. To limit the maximum engine speed during intervals prescribed by the propeller manufacturer.
takeoff. c. thoroughly greasing, necessary only during propeller
b. To maintain the proper blade angle for cruising. overhaul.
c. To limit the maximum propeller pitch for takeoff. 46.Where are the high and low pitch stops of a Hamilton
34.Propeller blade stations are measured from the Standard constant-speed or two-position counterweight
a. index mark on the blade shank. propeller located?
b. hub centerline. a. In the hub and blade assembly.
c. blade base. b. In the counterweight assembly.
35.How is the speed of a constant-speed propeller changed in c. In the dome assembly.
flight? 47.If a blade of a particular metal propeller is shortened
a. By varying the output of the governor booster pump. because of damage to the tip, the remaining blade(s) must be
b. By advancing or retarding the throttle. a. reset (blade angle) to compensate for the shortened
c. By changing the load tension against the blade.
flyweights ¡n the governor. b. returned to the manufacturer for alteration.
36.Cold straightening a bent aluminum propeller blade may be c. reduced to conform with the shortened blade.
accomplished by 48.The primary reason for careful inspection and prompt
a. the holder of a mechanic certificate with a repairing of minor surface defects such as scratches, nicks,
powerplant rating. gouges, etc. on aluminum alloy propellers is to prevent
b. an appropriately rated repair station or the a. corrosion.
manufacturer. b. unbalanced aerodynamics.
c. a person working under the supervision of the holder c. fatigue failure.
of a mechanic certificate with both airframe and 49.How can a steel propeller hub be tested for cracks?
powerplant ratings. a. By anodizing.
37.Surface treatment to counter the effects of dye-penetrant b. By magnetic particle inspection.
inspection on a propeller is accomplished by c. By etching.
a. washing off with solvent. 50.How does the propeller overspeed governor on a turboprop
b. wiping with alcohol. engine decrease propeller RPM?
 a. By allowing oil to escape from the propeller hub a. Blade angle changes are accomplished by the use
thus driving the blades to a increased blade of two forces, one hydraulic and the other
angle. centrifugal.
b. By increasing oil pressure in the propeller thus b. Since an infinite number of blade angle positions are
driving the blades to a increased blade angle. possible during flight, propeller efficiency is greatly
c. By reducing fuel flow to the fuel control thus improved.
driving the blades to a increased blade angle. c. The pilot selects the RPM and the propeller changes
51.For takeoff, a constant-speed propeller is normally set in pitch to maintain the selected RPM.
the
a. HIGH PITCH, high RPM position.
b. HIGH PITCH, low RPM position. 63. (1) During takeoff, propeller thrust (pull) is greatest if the
c. LOW PITCH, high RPM position. blade angle of attack is low and the engine power setting is
52.On aircraft equipped with hydraulically operated constant- high.
speed propellers, all ignition and magneto checking is done (2) With the aircraft stationary, propeller thrust is greatest if
with the propeller in which position? the blade
a. High RPM. angle of attack is high and the engine power setting is high.
b. Low RPM. Regarding the above statements,
c. High pitch range. a. only No. 1 is true.
53.Constant-speed non-feathering McCauley, Hartzell, and b. only No.2 is true.
other propellers of similar design without counterweights c. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
increase pitch angle using 64. Which of the following best describes the blade movement
a. oil pressure. of a propeller that is in the high RPM position when reversing
b. spring pressure. action is begun?
c. centrifugal twisting moment. a. Low pitch directly to reverse pitch.
54.The purpose of a three-way propeller valve is to b. Low pitch through high pitch to reverse pitch.
a. direct oil from the engine oil system to the c. Low pitch through feather position to reverse pitch.
propeller cylinder. 65 During the on-speed condition of a propeller, the
b. direct oil from the engine through the governor to a. centrifugal force acting on the governor flyweights is
the propeller. greater than the tension of the speeder spring.
c. permit constant-speed operation of the propeller. b. tension on the speeder spring is less than the
55.A propeller synchrophasing system allows a pilot to reduce centrifugal force acting on the governor flyweights
noise and c. centrifugal force of the governor flyweights is
vibration by equal to the speeder spring force.
a. adjusting the phase angle between the propellers 66. Most engine-propeller combinations have one or more
on an aircraft’s engines. critical ranges within which continuous operation is not
b. adjusting the plane of rotation of all propellers. permitted. Critical ranges are established to avoid
c. setting the pitch angle of all propellers exactly the a. severe propeller vibration.
same. b. low or negative thrust conditions.
56.Proper operation of electric deicing boots on individual c. inefficient propeller pitch angles.
propeller blades may best be determined by 67.Propeller blade station numbers increase from
a. feeling the sequence of boot heating and have an a. hub center line to tip.
assistant observe the loadmeter indications. b. tip to hub center line.
b. observing the ammeter or loadmeter for current c. blade shank butt to tip.
flow. 68.(1) A mechanic certificate with a powerplant rating
c. feeling the boots to see if they are heating. authorizes the holder to repair deep scars, nicks, and dents on
57.What is the purpose of an arbor used in balancing a aluminum propeller blades.
propeller? (2) A mechanic certificate with a powerplant rating authorizes
a. To support the propeller on the balance knives. the holder to perform minor straightening of steel propeller
b. To level the balance stand. blades.
c. To mark the propeller blades where weights are to Regarding the above statements,
be attached. a. only No. 1 is true.
58.Generally, unless otherwise specified by the manufacturer, b. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
repairs of nicks, scratches, gouges, etc. on aluminum propeller c. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.
blades must be made 69.Inspection of propeller blades by dye-penetrant inspection
a. parallel to the length of the blade. is accomplished to detect
b. perpendicular to the blade axis. a. cracks or other defects.
c. so as to return the damaged area to the original b. corrosion at the blade tip.
dimensions. c. torsional stress.
59. Blade angle is an angle formed by a line perpendicular to 70. Which of the following determines oil and grease
the crankshaft and a line formed by the specifications for
a. relative wind. lubrication of propellers?
b. chord of the blade. a. Airframe manufacturers.
c. blade face. b. Engine manufacturers.
60.How is anti-icing fluid ejected from the slinger ring on a c. Propeller manufacturers.
propeller? 71.Ice formation on propellers, when an aircraft is in flight,
a. By pump pressure. will
b. By centripetal force. a. decrease thrust and cause excessive vibration.
c. By centrifugal force. b. increase aircraft stall speed and increase noise.
61.The propeller governor controls the c. decrease available engine power.
a. oil to and from the pitch changing mechanism. 72.What is indicated when the front cone bottoms while
b. spring tension on the boost pump speeder spring. installing a propeller?
c. linkage and counterweights from moving in and out. a. Propeller-dome combination is incorrect.
62.Which of the following statements about constant-speed b. Blade angles are incorrect.
counter weight ropellers is also true when referring to two- c. Rear cone should be moved forward.
position counter weight propellers? 73.The primary purpose of a cuff on a propeller is to
 a. distribute anti-icing fluid. b. Full increase, high propeller blade pitch angle.
b. strengthen the propeller. c. Full increase, low propeller blade pitch angle.
c. increase the flow of cooling air to the engine 85.How is the oil pressure delivery on a hydromatic propeller
nacelle. normally stopped after the blades have reached their full-
74.The centrifugal twisting force acting on a propeller blade is feathered position?
a. greater than the aerodynamic twisting force and tends a. Pulling out the feathering push button.
to move the blade to a higher angle. b. Electric cutout pressure switch.
b. less than the aerodynamic twisting force and tends to c. Stop lugs in the teeth of the rotating cam.
move the blade to a lower angle. 86.Why is a constant-speed counterweight propeller normally
c. greater than the aerodynamic twisting force and placed in full HIGH PITCH position before the engine is
tends to move the blade to a lower angle. stopped?
75.Counterweights on constant-speed propellers are generally a. To prevent exposure and corrosion of the pitch
used to aid in changing mechanism.
a. increasing blade angle. b. To prevent hydraulic lock of the piston when the oil
b. decreasing blade angle. cools.
c. unfeathering the propellers. c. To prevent overheating of the engine during the next
76.If propeller cones or hub cone seats show evidence of start.
galling and wear, the most likely cause is 87.The actual distance a propeller moves forward through the
a. the pitch change stops were located incorrectly, air during one revolution is known as the
causing the cone seats to act as the high pitch stop. a. effective pitch.
b. the propeller retaining nut was not tight enough b. geometric pitch.
during previous operation. c. relative pitch.
c. the front cone was not fully bottomed against the 88.Repairs of aluminum alloy adjustable pitch propellers are
crankshaft splines during installation. not permitted to be made on which of the following propeller
77.One of the advantages of inspecting an aluminum propeller blade areas?
utilizing dye penetrant inspection procedure is that a. Shank.
a. defects just below the surface are indicated. b. Face.
b. it shows whether visible lines and other marks are c. Back
actually cracks rather than scratches. 89.What is the primary purpose of the metal tipping which
c. it indicates overspeed condition. covers the blade tips and extends along the leading edge of
78.The aerodynamic force acting on a rotating propeller blade each wood propeller blade?
operating at a normal pitch angle tends to a. To increase the lateral strength of the blade.
a. reduce the pitch angle. b. To prevent impact damage to the tip and leading
b. increase the pitch angle. edge of the blade.
c. bend the blades rearward in the line of flight. c. To increase the longitudinal strength of the blade.
79. A fixed-pitch wooden propeller that has been properly 90.Geometric pitch of a propeller is defined as the
installed and the attachment bolts properly torqued exceeds a. effective pitch minus slippage.
the out-of-track allowance by 1/16inch. The excessive out-of- b. effective pitch plus slippage.
track condition may be corrected by c. angle between the blade chord and the plane of
a. slightly over tightening the attachment bolts adjacent rotation.
to the most forward blade. 91.During operational check of an aircraft using hydromatic
b. discarding the propeller since out-of-track conditions full-feathering propellers, the following observations are
cannot be corrected. made: The feather button, after being pushed, remains
c. placing shims between the inner flange and the depressed until the feather cycle is complete, then opens.
propeller. When unfeathering, it is necessary to manually hold the button
80. What is the basic purpose of the three small holes (No. 60 down until unfeathering is accomplished.
drill) in the a. Both feather cycle and unfeather cycle are
tipping of wood propeller blades? functioning properly.
a. To provide a means for inserting balancing shot b. Both feather and unfeather cycles indicate
when necessary. malfunctions.
b. To provide a means for periodically impregnating c. The feather cycle is correct. The unfeather cycle
the blade with preservation materials. indicates a malfunction.
c. To allow the moisture which may collect between 92.Propeller blade angle is the angle between the
the tipping and the wood to escape (vent the a. chord of the blade and the relative wind.
tipping). b. relative wind and the rotational plane of the propeller.
81.During which of the following conditions of flight will the c. chord of the blade and the rotational plane of the
blade pitch angle of a constant-speed propeller be the greatest? propeller.
a. Approach to landing. 93.What controls the constant-speed range of a constant-speed
b. Climb following takeoff. propeller?
c. High-speed, high-altitude cruising flight. a. Engine RPM.
82. When the centrifugal force acting on the propeller b. Angle of climb and descent with accompanying
governor flyweights overcomes the tension on the speeder changes in airspeed.
spring, a propeller is in what speed condition? c. The mechanical limits in the propeller pitch
a. On speed. range.
b. Underspeed. 94.When preparing a propeller blade for inspection it should
c. Overspeed. be cleaned with
83. What are the rotational speed and blade pitch angle a. mild soap and water.
requirements of a b. steel wool.
constant-speed propeller during takeoff? c. methyl ethyl ketone.
a. Low-speed and high-pitch angle. 95.How is aircraft electrical power for propeller deicer
b. High-speed and low-pitch angle. systems transferred from the engine to the propeller hub
c. High-speed and high-pitch angle. assembly?
84.In what position is the constant-speed propeller control a. By slip rings and segment plates.
placed to check the magnetos? b. By slip rings and brushes.
a. Full decrease, low propeller blade pitch angle. c. By flexible electrical connectors.
96.What is the result of moving the throttle on a reciprocating 106. Which of the following occurs to cause front cone
engine when the propeller is in the constant-speed range with bottoming during propeller installation?
the engine developing cruise power? a. The front cone becomes bottomed in the front
a. Opening the throttle will cause an increase in propeller hub cone seat before the rear propeller hub
blade angle. cone seat has engaged the rear cone.
b. The RPM will vary directly with any movement of b. The front cone enters the front propeller hub cone
the throttle. seat at an angle causing the propeller retaining nut to
c. Movement of the throttle will not affect the blade appear tight when it is only partially tightened.
angle. c. The front cone contacts the ends of the shaft
97.Propeller fluid anti-icing systems generally use which of splines, preventing the front and rear cones from
the following? being tightened against the cone seats in the
a. Ethylene glycol. propeller hub.
b. Isopropyl alcohol. 107. How does the aerodynamic twisting force affect
c. Ethyl alcohol. operating propeller blades?
a. It tends to turn the blades to a high blade angle.
98. A constant-speed propeller provides maximum efficiency b. It tends to bend the blades forward.
by c. It tends to turn the blades to a low blade angle.
a. increasing blade pitch as the aircraft speed 108. What normally prevents a Hartzell Compact propeller
decreases. from going to feather when the engine is shut down on the
b. adjusting blade angle for most conditions ground?
encountered in flight. a. Propeller cylinder air pressure.
c. increasing the lift coefficient of the blade. b. A latch mechanism composed of springs and lock
99. Which of the following defects is cause for rejection of pins.
wood propellers? c. Accumulator provided oil pressure.
a. Solder missing from screw heads securing metal 109. Oil leakage around the rear cone of a hydromatic
tipping. propeller usually indicates a defective
b. An oversize hub or bolt hole, or elongated bolt holes. a. piston gasket.
c. No protective coating on propeller. b. spider-shaft oil seal.
100. When lubricating a Hartzell propeller blade with grease, c. dome-barrel oil seal.
to prevent damage to the blade seals, the service manual may 110. The thrust produced by a rotating propeller is a result of
recommend on some models to a. an area of low pressure behind the propeller blades.
a. pump grease into both zerk fittings for the blade b. an area of decreased pressure immediately in
simultaneously. front of the propeller blades.
b. remove the seals prior to greasing and reinstall them c. the angle of relative wind and rotational velocity of
afterwards. the propeller.
c. remove one of the two zerk fittings for the blade 111. What will happen to the propeller blade angle and the
and grease the blade through the remaining engine RPM if the tension on the propeller governor control
fitting. spring (speeder spring) is
101. What method would be used to inspect an aluminum increased?
propeller blade when a crack is suspected? a. Blade angle will decrease and RPM will decrease.
a. Use a bright light. b. Blade angle will increase and RPM will decrease.
b. Magnetic particle. c. Blade angle will decrease and RPM will increase.
c. Dye-penetrant. 112. Which of the following is identified as the cambered or
102. Apparent engine roughness is often a result of propeller curved side of a propeller blade, corresponding to the upper
unbalance. The effect of an unbalanced propeller will usually surface of a wing airfoil
be sect ion?
a. approximately the same at all speeds. a. Blade back.
b. greater at low RPM. b. Blade chord.
c. greater at high RPM. c. Blade face.
103. Manually feathering a hydro mechanical propeller means 113. When running-up an engine and testing a newly installed
to hydromatic propeller, it is necessary to exercise the propeller
a. block governor oil pressure to the cylinder of the by moving the governor control through its entire travel
propeller. several times to
b. port governor oil pressure to the cylinder of the a. seat the blades fully against the low pitch stop.
propeller. b. free the dome of any entrapped air.
c. port governor oil pressure from the cylinder of the c. test the maximum RPM setting of the governor.
propeller. 114. Maximum taper contact between crankshaft and propeller
104. The low pitch stop on a constant-speed propeller is hub is determined by using
usually set so that a. bearing blue color transfer.
a. the engine will turn at its rated takeoff RPM at b. a micrometer.
sea level when the throttle is opened to allowable c. a surface gauge.
takeoff manifold pressure. 115. The holding coil on a hydroniatic propeller feathering
b. maximum allowable engine RPM cannot be exceeded button switch holds a solenoid relay closed that applies power
with any combination of manifold pressure, altitude, to the propeller
or forward speed. a. governor.
c. the limiting engine manifold pressure cannot be b. dome feathering mechanism.
exceeded with any combination of throttle opening, c. feathering pump motor.
altitude, or forward speed. 116. How is a propeller controlled in a large aircraft with a
105. Which of the following best describes the blade turboprop
movement of a feathering propeller that is in the HIGH RPM installation?
position when the feathering action is begun? a. Independently of the engine.
a. High pitch through low pitch to feather position. b. By varying the engine RPM except for feathering and
b. Low pitch through reverse pitch to feather position. reversing.
c. Low pitch through high pitch to feather position. c. By the engine power lever.
117. The application of more protective coating on one blade a. volume of air in the cylinder increases.
than the other when refinishing a wood propeller b. weight of the fuel/air charge decreases.
a. has little or no effect on operating characteristics. c. density of air in the cylinder increases.
b. should never be done. 12. When an engine with a subsonic divergent type inlet duct
c. may be necessary to achieve final balancing. is running in place at high speed on the ground, the air
pressure within the inlet is
INDUCTION AND ENGINE AIRFLOW SYSTEM a. negative.
b. positive.
1. The action of a carburetor air scoop is to supply air to c. ambient.
the carburetor, but it may also 13. What is the purpose of a turbocharger system for a small
a. cool the engine. reciprocating aircraft engine?
b. keep fuel lines cool and prevent vapor lock. a. Compresses the air to hold the cabin pressure
c. increase the pressure of the incoming air by ram constant after the aircraft has reached its critical
effect. altitude.
2.What are the three basic regulating components of a sea- b. Maintains constant air velocity in the intake
level boosted turbocharger system? manifold.
1. Exhaust bypass assembly. c. Compresses air to maintain manifold pressure
2. Compressor assembly. constant from sea level to the critical altitude of
3. Pump and bearing casing. the engine.
4. Density controller. 14. On small aircraft engines, fuel vaporization may be
5. Differential pressure controller. increased by
a. 2,3,4. a. cooling the air before it enters the engine.
b. 1,4,5. b. circulating the fuel and air mixture through
c. 1,2,3. passages in the oil sump.
3.If carburetor or induction system icing is not present when c. heating the fuel before it enters the carburetor.
carburetor heat is applied with no change in the throttle 15. If the turbocharger waste gate is completely closed.
setting, the a. none of the exhaust gases are directed through the
a. mixture will become richer. turbine.
b. manifold pressure will increase. b. the turbocharger is in the OFF position.
c. engine RPM will increase. c. all the exhaust gases are directed through the turbine.
4.Carburetor icing on an engine equipped with a constant- 16. Bootstrapping of a turbocharged engine is indicated by
speed propeller can be detected by a. an overboost condition of the engine on takeoff.
a. a decrease in power output with no change in b. a transient increase in engine power.
manifold pressure or RPM. c. a maximum increase in manifold pressure.
b. an increase in manifold pressure with a constant 17. If a fire starts in the induction system during the engine
RPM. starting procedure. what should the operator do?
c. a decrease in manifold pressure with a constant a. Turn off the fuel switches to stop the fuel.
RPM. b. Continue cranking the engine.
5. The application of carburetor heat will have which of the c. Turn off all switches.
following effects? 18. What method(s) is/are used to provide clean air to the
a. The manifold pressure will be increased. engines of helicopters and turboprop airplanes that have
b. The mixture will become leaner. particle (sand and ice) separators installed?
The mixture will become richer. a. Positive and negative charged areas to attract and/or
6.Which of the following statements regarding volumetric repel
efficiency of an engine is true? particulates out of the airflow.
a. The volumetric efficiency of an engine will remain b. Air/moisture separators, and washing the air clean
the same regardless of the amount of throttle utilizing water
opening. droplets.
b. It is impossible to exceed l00 percent volumetric c. Sharp airflow directional change to take
efficiency of any engine regardless of the type of advantage of inertia and/or centrifugal force, and
supercharger used. filters or engine inlet screens.
c. It is possible to exceed 100 percent volumetric 19. Which of the following would be a factor in the failure of
efficiency of some engines by the use of an engine to develop full power at takeoff?
superchargers of the proper type. a. Improper adjustment o carburetor heat valve
6. When starting an engine equipped with a carburetor air control Linkage.
heater, in what position should the heater be placed? b. Excessively rich setting on the idle mixture
a. Hot. adjustment.
b. Cold. c. Failure of the economizer valve to remain closed at
c. Neutral takeoff throttle setting.
8. What is used to drive a supercharger? 20. What part of an aircraft in flight will begin to accumulate
a. Exhaust gases. ice before any other?
b. Gear train from the crankshaft. a. Wing leading edge.
c. Belt drive through a pulley arrangement. b. Propeller spinner or dome.
9. Where would a carburetor air heater be located in a fuel c. Carburetor.
injection system? 21. In addition to causing accelerated wear, dust or sand
a. At the air intake entrance. ingested by a reciprocating engine may also cause
b. None is required. a. silicon fouling of spark plugs.
c. Between the air intake and the venturi. b. sludge formation.
10. Into what part of a reciprocating engine induction system c. acid formation.
is deicing alcohol normally injected? 22. Carburetor icing nay be eliminated by which of the
a. The supercharger or impeller section. following methods?
b. The airstream ahead of the carburetor. a. Alcohol spray and electrically heated induction duct.
c. The low-pressure area ahead of the throttle valve. b. Ethylene glycol spray and heated induction air.
11. As manifold pressure increases in a reciprocating engine, c. Alcohol spray and heated induction air.
the
23. Carburetor icing nay be eliminated by which of the 35. What is the purpose of the rate-of-change controller in a
following methods? turbocharger system?
a. Alcohol spray and electrically heated induction duct. a. Limits the maximum manifold pressure that can be
b. Ethylene glycol spray and heated induction air. produced by the turbocharger at full throttle
c. Alcohol spray and heated induction air. conditions.
24. The vortex dissipators installed on some turbine- powered b. Controls the rate at which the turbocharger discharge
aircraft to prevent engine FOD utilize pressure will increase.
a. variable inlet guide vanes (IGV) and/or variable first c. Controls the position of the waste gate after the
stage fan aircraft has reached its critical altitude.
blades. 36. What directly regulates the speed of a turbocharger?
b. variable geometry inlet ducts. a. Turbine.
c. a stream of engine bleed air blown toward the b. Waste gate.
ground ahead of the c. Throttle.
engine. 37. The absolute pressure controller on some small engines is
25. The purpose of a bemouth compressor inlet is to designed to sense oil pressure which flows through the waste
a. provide an increased ram air effect at low airspeeds. gate actuator and then
b. maximize the aerodynamic efficiency of the inlet. through the controllers on the turbocharger system the
c. provide an increased pressure drop in the inlet. pressure between the turbocharger and the throttle valve is
26. An increase in manifold pressure when carburetor heat is called
applied indicates a. turbocharger boost pressure.
a. ice was forming in the carburetor. b. induction manifold pressure.
b. mixture was too lean. c. upper deck pressure.
c. overheating of cylinder heads. 38. In an airplane equipped with an alternate air system, if the
27. The differential pressure controller in a turbocharger main air duct air filter becomes blocked or clogged
system a. the system will automatically allow warm,
a. reduces bootstrapping during part-throttle unfiltered air to be drawn into the engine.
operation. b. flow of air into the engine will be slowed or cut off
b. positions the waste gate valve for maximum power. unless alternate air is selected.
c. provides a constant fuel-to-air ratio. c. system will automatically allow warm, filtered
28. Carburetor icing is most severe at alternate air to be drawn into the engine.
a. air temperatures between 30 and 40°F. 39. What indications nay shift when a turbofan engine anti-
b. high altitudes. icing (bleed air) system is turned on?
c. low engine temperatures. 1. Tachometer.
29. When operating an engine, the application of carburetor 2. EGT.
heat will have what effect on the fuel air mixture? 3. EPR.
a. Enriching the mixture because the AMC cannot make a. l and 2.
a correctionfor increased temperature. b. 2and 3.
b. Enriching the mixture until the AMC can make a c. 1, 2 and 3,
compensation. 40.The application of carburetor heat during engine operation
c. Leaning the mixture until the AMC can make a will
compensation. a. decrease the weight of the fuel/air charge.
30. The purpose of an engine/inlet anti-ice system is primarily b. decrease the volume of air in the cylinder.
to c. increase the density of air in the cylinder.
a. remove ice from engine and/or inlet areas. 41.A method commonly used to prevent carburetor icing is to
b. prevent ice formation in engine and/or inlet areas. a. preheat the intake air.
c. remove ice from engine and/or inlet areas and b. mix alcohol with the fuel.
prevent ice formationin engine and/or inlet areas. c. electrically heat the venturi and throttle valve.
31.Boost manifold pressure is generally considered to be any 42.The purpose of a sonic venturi on a turbocharged engine is
manifold pressure above to
a. 14.7 inches Hg. a. limit the amount of air that can flow from the
b. 50 inches Hg. turbocharger into the cabin for pressurization.
c. 30 inches Hg. b. increase the amount of air that can flow from the
32. A carburetor air pre-heater is not generally used on takeoff turbocharger into the cabin for pressurization.
unless absolutely necessary because of the c. increase the velocity of the fuel/air charge.
a. loss of power and possible detonation. 43.Vortex dissipator systems are generally activated by
b. possibility of induction system overboost. a. a landing gear switch.
c. inability of the engine to supply enough heat to make b. a fuel pressure switch anytime an engine is operating.
a significant difference. c. an engine inlet airflow sensor.

33.During full power output of an unsupercharged engine TURBINE ENGINES

equipped with a float-type carburetor, in which of the
following areas will the highest pressure exist? 1. Turbine engine components exposed to high temperatures
a. Venturi. generally may NOT be marked with
b. Intake manifold. 1. layout dye.
c. Carburetor air scoop. 2. commercial felt tip marker.
34.What is the purpose of the density controller in a 3. wax or grease pencil.
turbocharger system? 4. chalk.
a. Limits the maximum manifold pressure that can be 5. graphite lead pencil.
produced at a. 1,2, and 3.
other than full throttle conditions. b. 3 and 5.
b. Limits the maximum manifold pressure that can c. 4and 5.
be produced by the 2. Jet engine turbine blades removed for detailed inspection
turbocharger at full throttle. must be reinstalled in
c. Maintains constant air velocity at the carburetor inlet. a. a specified slot 1800 away.
b. a specified slot 900 away in the direction of rotation.
 c. the same slot. c. 1.3
3. The blending of blades and vanes in a turbine engine 14. Continued and/or excessive heat and centrifugal force on
a. is usually accomplished only at engine overhaul. turbine engine rotor blades is likely to cause
b. should be performed parallel to the length of the a. profile.
blade using smooth contours to minimize stress b. creep.
points. c. galling.
c. may sometimes be accomplished with the engine 15. The procedure for removing the accumulation of dirt
installed, ordinarily using power tools. deposits on compressor blades is called
4. One function of the nozzle diaphragm in a turbine engine is a. the soak method.
to b. field cleaning.
a. Decrease the velocity of exhaust gases. c. the purging process.
b. Center the fuel spray in the combustion chamber. 16. The stators in the turbine section of a gas turbine engine
c. Direct the flow of gases to strike the turbine a. increase the velocity of the gas flow.
blades at the desired angle. b. decrease the velocity of the gas flow.
5. Some high-volume turboprop and turbojet engines are c. increase the pressure of the gas flow.
equipped with two-spool or split compressors. When these 17. What is the first engine instrument indication of a
engines are operated at high altitudes, the successful start of a turbine engine?
a. A rise in the engine fuel flow.
a. low-pressure rotor will increase in speed as the b. A rise in oil pressure.
compressor load decreases in the lower density c. A rise in the exhaust gas temperature.
air. 18. n what section of a turbojet engine is the jet nozzle
b. throttle must be retarded to prevent overspeeding of located?
the high-pressure rotor due to the lower density air. a. Combustion.
c. low-pressure rotor will decrease in speed as the b. Turbine.
compressor load decreases in the lower density air. c. Exhaust.
6. A gas turbine engine comprises which three main sections? 19. The recurrent ingestion of dust or other fine airborne
a. Compressor, diffuser, and stator. particulates into a turbine engine can result in
b. Turbine, combustion, and stator. a. foreign object damage to the compressor section.
c. Turbine, compressor, and combustion. b. the need for less frequent abrasive grit cleaning of the
7. An exhaust cone placed aft of the turbine in a jet engine will engine.
cause the pressure in the first part of the exhaust duct to c. erosion damage to the compressor and turbine
a. increase and the velocity to decrease. sections.
b. increase and the velocity to increase. 20. What turbine engine section provides for proper mixing of
c. decrease and the velocity to increase. the fuel and air?
8. The compression ratio of an axial-flow compressor is a a. Combustion section.
function of the b. Compressor section.
a. number of compressor stages. c. Diffuser section.
b. rotor diameter. 21. Which two elements make up the axial-flow compressor
c. air inlet velocity. assembly?
9. The compression ratio of an axial-flow compressor is a a. Rotor and stator.
function of the b. Compressor and manifold.
a. number of compressor stages. c. Stator and diffuser.
b. rotor diameter. 22. Three types of turbine blades are
c. air inlet velocity. a. reaction, converging, and diverging.
10. If a turbine engine is unable to reach takeoff EPR before b. impulse, reaction, and impulse-reaction.
its EGT limit is reached, this is an indication that the c. impulse, vector, and impulse-vector.
a. fuel control must be replaced. 23. The purpose of a bleed valve, located in the beginning
b. EGT controller is out of adjustment. stages of the compressor, in an aircraft gas turbine engine is to
c. compressor may be contaminated or damaged. a. vent some of the air overboard to prevent a
11. Which turbine engine compressor offers the greatest compressor stall.
advantages for both starting flexibility and improved high- b. control excessively high RPM to prevent a
altitude performance? compressor stall.
a. Dual-stage, centrifugal-flow. c. vent high ram air pressure overboard to prevent a
b. Split-spool, axial-flow. compressor stall.
c. Single-spool, axial-flow. 24. An advantage of the axial-flow compressor is its
12. Who establishes the recommended operating time between a. low starting power requirements.
overhauls (TBO) of a turbine engine used in general aviation? b. low weight.
a. The engine manufacturer. c. high peak efficiency.
b. The operator (utilizing manufacturer data and trend 25. Who establishes mandatory replacement times for critical
analysis) working in conjunction with the FAA. components of turbine engines?
c. The FAA. a. The FAA.
13. Which statements are true regarding aircraft engine b. The operator working in conjunction with the FAA.
propulsion? c. The engine manufacturer.
1. An engine driven propeller imparts a relatively small 26. What type igniter plug is used in the low tension ignition
amount of system of an aircraft turbofan engine?
acceleration to a large mass of air. a. Low voltage, high amperage glow plug.
2. Turbojet and turbofan engines impart a relatively large b. Self-ionizing or shunted-gap type plug.
amount of c. Recessed surface gap plug.
acceleration to a smaller mass of air. 27. The velocity of subsonic air as it flows through a
3. In modern turboprop engines, nearly 50 percent of the convergent nozzle
exhaust gas energy is extracted by turbines to drive the a. increases.
propeller and compressor with the rest providing exhaust b. decreases.
thrust. c. remains constant.
a. 1,2,3 28. When starting a turbine engine,
b. 1,2
 a. a hot start is indicated if the exhaust gas 39. In a gas turbine engine, combustion occurs at a constant
temperature exceeds specified limits. a. volume.
b. an excessively lean mixture is likely to cause a hot b. pressure.
start. c. density.
c. release the starter switch as soon as indication of 40. What is meant by a double entry centrifugal compressor?
light-off occurs. a. A compressor that has two intakes.
29. Hot section inspections for many modern turbine engines b. A two-stage compressor independently connected to
are required the main shaft.
a. only at engine overhaul. c. A compressor with vanes on both sides of the
b. only when an over temperature or over speed has impeller.
occurred. 41.The pressure of supersonic air as it flows through a
c. on a time or cycle basis. divergent nozzle
30. What are the two functional elements in a centrifugal a. increases.
compressor? b. decreases.
a. Turbine and compressor. c. is inversely proportional to the temperature.
b. Bucket and expander. 42. What is the proper starting sequence for a turbojet engine?
c. Impeller and diffuser. a. Ignition, starter, fuel.
31. Hot spots in the combustion section of a turbojet engine b. Starter, ignition, fuel.
are possible indicators of c. Starter, fuel, ignition.
a. faulty igniter plugs.
b. dirty compressor blades. 43. Which of the following types of combustion sections are
c. malfunctioning fuel nozzles. used in aircraft turbine engines?
32. How does a dual axial-flow compressor improve the a. Annular, variable, and cascade vane.
efficiency of a turbojet engine? b. Can, multiple-can, and variable.
a. More turbine wheels can be used. c. Multiple-can, annular, and can-annular.
b. Higher compression ratios can be obtained. 44.Generally, when starting a turbine engine, the starter should
c. The velocity of the air entering the combustion be disengaged
chamber is increased. a. after the engine has reached self-accelerating
33. (1) In a turbine engine axial-flow compressor, each speed.
consecutive pair of rotor and stator blades constitutes a b. only after the engine has reached full idle RPM.
pressure stage. c. when the ignition and fuel system are activated.
(2) In a turbine engine axial-flow compressor, the number of 45.In which type of turbine engine combustion chamber is the
rows of stages is determined by the amount of air and total case and liner removed and installed as one unit during routine
pressure rise required. maintenance?
Regarding the thove statements, a. Can.
a. only No. 1 is true. b. Can annular.
b. only No. 2 is true. c. Annular.
c. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. 46.What is the function of the stator vane assembly at the
34. The basic gas turbine engine is divided into two main discharge end of a typical axial-flow compressor?
sections: the cold section and the hot section. a. To straighten airflow to eliminate turbulence.
(1) The cold section includes the engine inlet, compressor, and b. To direct the flow of gases into the combustion
turbine sections. chambers.
(2) The hot section includes the combustor, diffuser, and c. To increase air swirling motion into the combustion
exhaust sections. chambers.
Regarding the above statements, 47. Some engine manufacturers of twin spool gas turbine
a. only No. 1 is true. engines identify turbine discharge pressure in their
b. only No. 2 ¡s true. maintenance manuals as
c. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true. a. Pt7.
35. If the RPM of an axial-flow compressor remains constant, b. Pt2.
the angle of attack of the rotor blades can be changed by c. Tt7.
a. changing the velocity of the airflow. 48. Compressor field cleaning on turbine engines is performed
b. changing the compressor diameter. primarily in order to
c. increasing the pressure ratio. a. prevent engine oil contamination and subsequent
36. Which of the following factors affect the thermal engine bearing wear or damage.
efficiency of a turbine engine? b. facilitate flight line inspection of engine inlet and
1. Turbine inlet temperature. compressor areas for defects or FOD.
2. Compression ratio. c. prevent engine performance degradation,
3. Ambient temperature. increased fuel costs, and damage or corrosion to
4. Speed of the aircraft. gas path surfaces.
5. Turbine and compressor efficiency. 49. Using standard atmospheric conditions, the standard sea
6. Altitude of the aircraft. level temperature is
a. 3, 4, 6. a. 59°F
b. 1,2,5. b. 59°C.
c. 1.2.6. c. 29°C.
37. The velocity of supersonic air as it flows through a 50. Main bearing oil seals used with turbine engines are
divergent nozzle usually what type(s)?
a. increases. a. Labyrinth and/or carbon rubbing.
b. decreases. b. Teflon and synthetic rubber.
c. is inversely proportional to the temperature. c. Labyrinth and/or silicone rubber.
38. Where do stress rupture cracks usually appear on turbine 51. Hot spots on the tail cone of a turbine engine are possible
blades? indicators of a malfunctioning fuel nozzle or
a. Across the blade root, parallel to the fir tree. a. a faulty combustion chamber.
b. Along the leading edge, parallel to the edge. b. a faulty igniter plug.
c. Across the leading or trailing edge at a right c. an improperly positioned tail cone.
angle to the edge length.
52. What should be done initially if a turbine engine catches c. Creep.
fire when starting? 64. What is the primary advantage of an axial-flow
a. Turn off the fuel and continue engine rotation compressor over a centrifugal compressor?
with the starter. a. High frontal area.
b. Continue engine start rotation and discharge a fire b. Less expensive.
extinguisher into the intake. c. Greater pressure ratio.
c. Continue starting attempt in order to blow out the 65.In a dual axial-flow compressor, the first stage turbine
fire. drives
53. What is the possible cause when a turbine engine indicates a. N(2) compressor.
no change in power setting parameters, but oil temperature is b. N(1) compressor.
high? c. low pressure compressor.
a. High scavenge pump oil flow. 66. Between each row of rotating blades in a turbine engine
b. Engine main bearing distress. compressor, there is a row of stationary blades which act to
c. Turbine damage and/or loss of turbine efficiency. diffuse the air. These stationary blades are called
54. The stator vanes in an axial-flow compressor a. buckets.
a. convert velocity energy into pressure energy. b. rotors.
b. convert pressure energy into velocity energy. c. stators.
c. direct air into the first stage rotor vanes at the proper 67. The non-rotating axial-flow compressor airfoils in an
angle. aircraft gas turbine engine, are called
55. Turbine nozzle diaphragms located on the upstream side of a. pressurization vanes.
each turbine wheel are used in the gas turbine engine to b. stator vanes.
a. decrease the velocity of the heated gases flowing c. bleed vanes.
past this point. 68. Standard sea level pressure is
b. direct the flow of gases parallel to the vertical line of a. 29.00” Hg.
the turbine blades. b. 29.29” Hg.
c. increase the velocity of the heated gases flowing c. 29.92” Hg.
past this point. 69. Severe rubbing of turbine engine compressor blades will
56. A cool-off period prior to shutdown of a turbine engine is usually cause
accomplished in order to a. bowing.
a. allow the turbine wheel to cool before the case b. cracking.
contracts around it. c. galling.
b. prevent vapor lock in the fuel control and/or fuel 70. What is the function of the inlet guide vane assembly on
lines. an axial-flow compressor?
c. prevent seizure of the engine bearings. a. Directs the air into the first stage rotor blades at
57. What is meant by a shrouded turbine? the proper angle.
a. The turbine blades are shaped so that their ends b. Converts velocity energy into pressure energy.
form a band or shroud. c. Converts pressure energy into velocity energy.
b. The turbine wheel is enclosed by a protective shroud 71. Reduced blade vibration and improved airflow
to contain the blades in case of failure. characteristics in gas turbines are brought about by
c. The turbine wheel has a shroud or duct which a. fir-tree blade attachment.
provides cooling air to the turbine blades. b. impulse type blades.
58. What is used in turbine engines to aid in stabilization of c. shrouded turbine rotor blades.
compressor airflow during low thrust engine operation? 72. Anti-icing of jet engine air inlets is commonly
a. Stator vanes and rotor vanes. accomplished by
b. Variable guide vanes and/or compressor bleed a. electrical heating elements inside the inlet guide
valves. vanes.
c. Pressurization and dump valves. b. engine bleed air ducted through the critical areas.
59. In a turbine engine with a dual-spool compressor, the low c. electrical heating elements located within the engine
speed compressor air inlet cowling.
a. always turns at the same speed as the high speed 73. Dirt particles in the air being introduced into the
compressor. compressor of a turbine engine will form a coating on all but
b. is connected directly to the high speed compressor. which of the following?
c. seeks its own best operating speed. a. Turbine blades.
60. Where is the highest gas pressure in a turbojet engine? b. Casings.
a. At the outlet of the tailpipe section. c. Inlet guide vanes.
b. At the entrance of the turbine section. 74. A weak fuel to air mixture along with normal airflow
c. In the entrance of the burner section. through a turbine engine may result in
61. A purpose of the shrouds on the turbine blades of an axial- a. a rich flameout.
flow engine is to b. a lean die-out.
a. reduce vibration. c. high EGT.
b. increase tip speed. 75. Newton’s Law of Motion, generally termed the “Law of
c. reduce air entrance. Momentum,” states:
62. Which of the following can cause fan blade shingling in a a. Acceleration is produced when a force acts on a
turbofan engine? mass. The greater the mass, the greater the
1. Engine over speed. amount of force needed.
2. Engine over temperature. b. For every action there is an equal and opposite
3. Large, rapid throttle movements. reaction.
4. FOD. c. Every body persists in its state of rest, or of motion in
a. 1,2 a straight line, unless acted upon by some outside
b. 1,2,3,4 force.
c. 1,4. 76. In an axial-flow compressor, one purpose of the stator
63. What term is used to describe a permanent and cumulative vanes at the discharge end of the compressor is to
deformation of the turbine blades of a turbojet engine? a. straighten the airflow and eliminate turbulence.
a. Stretch. b. increase the velocity and prevent swirling and
b. Distortion. eddying.
 c. decrease the velocity, prevent swirling, and decrease b. The valve controls compressor stall by dumping
pressure. compressor bleed air from the compressor discharge
77. What is the primary factor which controls the pressure port under certain conditions.
ratio of an axial-flow compressor? c. Maintains minimum fuel pressure to the engine fuel
a. Number of stages in compressor. control unit inlet and dumps excessive fuel back to
b. Compressor inlet pressure. the inlet of the engine-driven fuel pump.
c. Compressor inlet temperature. 89. When starting a turbine engine, a hung start is indicated if
78. The function of the exhaust cone assembly of a turbine the engine
engine is to a. exhaust gas temperature exceeds specified limits.
a. collect the exhaust gases and act as a noise b. fails to reach idle RPM.
suppressor. c. RPM exceeds specified operating speed.
b. swirl and collect the exhaust gases into a single 90. The abbreviation Pt7 used in turbine engine terminology
exhaust jet. means
c. straighten and collect the exhaust gases into a a. the total inlet pressure.
solid exhaust jet. b. pressure and temperature at station No. 7.
79. What is the profile of a turbine engine compressor blade? c. the total pressure at station No. 7.
a. The leading edge of the blade. 91. When the leading edge of a first-stage turbine blade is
b. A reduced blade tip thickness. found to have stress rupture cracks, which of the following
c. The curvature of the blade root. should be suspected?
80. Which of the following variables affect the inlet air density
of a turbine engine? a. Faulty cooling shield.
b. Over temperature condition.
c. Overspeed condition.
1. Speed of the aircraft. 92. What are the two basic elements of the turbine section in a
2. Compression ratio. turbine engine?
3. Turbine inlet temperature. a. Impeller and diffuser.
4. Altitude of the aircraft. b. Hot and cold.
5. Ambient temperature. c. Stator and rotor.
6. Turbine and compressor efficiency. 93. The highest heat-to-metal contact in a jet engine is the
a. 1,3,6. a. burner cans.
b. 1,4,5. b. turbine inlet guide vanes.
c. 4. 5. 6. c. turbine blades.
81. A turbine engine hot section is particularly susceptible to 94. When aircraft turbine blades are subjected to excessive
which kind of damage? heat stress, what type of failures would you expect?
a. Scoring. a. Bending and torsion.
b. Cracking. b. Torsion and tension.
c. Galling. c. Stress rupture.
82. What type of turbine blade is most commonly used in 95. The pressure of subsonic air as it flows through a
aircraft jet engines? convergent nozzle
a. Reaction. a. increases.
b. Impulse. b. decreases.
c. Impulse-reaction. c. remains constant.
83. The two types of centrifugal compressor impellers are 96. What is the purpose of the diffuser section in a turbine
a. single entry and double entry. engine?
b. rotor and stator. a. To increase pressure and reduce velocity.
c. impeller and diffuser. b. To convert pressure to velocity.
84. Newton’s First Law of Motion, generally termed the Law c. To reduce pressure and increase velocity.
of Inertia, states: 97. Which of the following is the ultimate limiting factor of
a. To every action there is an equal and opposite turbine engine operation?
reaction. a. Compressor inlet air temperature.
b. Force is proportional to the product of mass and b. Turbine inlet temperature.
acceleration. c. Burner-can pressure.
c. Everybody persists in its state of rest, or of motion 98. In the dual axial-flow or twin spoil compressor system, the
in a straight line, unless acted upon by some first stage turbine drives the
outside force. a. N(1) and N(2) compressors.
85. The turbine section of a jet engine b. N(2) compressor.
a. increases air velocity to generate thrust forces. c. N(1) compressor.
b. utilizes heat energy to expand and accelerate the 99. Which of the following engine variables is the most
incoming gas flow. critical during turbine engine operation?
c. drives the compressor section. a. Compressor inlet air temperature.
86. The fan rotational speed of a dual axial compressor b. Compressor RPM.
forward fan engine is the same as the c. Turbine inlet temperature.
a. low-pressure compressor. 100. (1) Welding and straightening of turbine engine rotating
b. forward turbine wheel. airfoils does not require special equipment.
c. high-pressure compressor. (2) Welding and straightening of turbine engine rotating
87. The Brayton cycle is known as the constant airfoils is commonly recommended by the manufacturer.
a. pressure cycle. Regarding the above statements,
b. temperature cycle. a. only No. 1 is true.
c. mass cycle. b. only No. 2 is true.
88. What is the purpose of the dump valve used on aircraft gas c. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.
turbine engines? 101. What is the major function of the turbine assembly in a
a. The fuel is quickly cut off to the nozzles and the turbojet engine?
manifolds are drained preventing fuel boiling off a. Directs the gases in the proper direction to the
as a result of residual engine heat. tailpipe.
b. Supplies the power to turn the compressor.
 c. Increases the temperature of the exhaust gases. c. increase the velocity and decrease the pressure of the
102. Turbine blades are generally more susceptible to gas.
operating damage than compressor blades because of 114. Which statement is true regarding jet engines?
a. higher centrifugal loading. a. At the lower engine speeds, thrust increases rapidly
b. exposure to high temperatures. with small increases in RPM.
c. high pressure and high velocity gas flow. b. At the higher engine speeds, thrust increases
103. If, during inspection at engine overhaul, ball or roller rapidly with small increases in RPM.
bearings are found to have magnetism but otherwise have no c. The thrust delivered per pound of air consumed is
defects, they less at high altitude than at low altitude.
a. cannot be used again. 115. The exhaust section of a turbine engine is designed to
b. are in an acceptable service condition. a. impart a high exit velocity to the exhaust gases.
c. must be degaussed before use. b. increase temperature, therefore increasing velocity.
104. Stator blades in the compressor section of an axial-flow c. decrease temperature, therefore decreasing pressure.
turbine engine 116. A turbine engine compressor which contains vanes on
a. increase the air velocity and prevent swirling. both sides of the impeller is a
b. straighten the airflow and accelerate it.
c. decrease the air velocity and prevent swirling. a. double entry centrifugal compressor.
105. What must be done after the fuel control unit has been b. double entry axial-flow compressor.
replaced on an aircraft gas turbine engine? c. single entry axial-flow compressor.
a. Perform a full power engine run to check fuel flow. 117. condition known as ‘hot streaking’ in turbine engines is
b. Recalibrate the fuel nozzles. caused by
c. Retrim the engine. a. a partially clogged fuel nozzle.
106. The air passing through the combustion chamber of a b. a misaligned combustion liner.
turbine engine is c. excessive fuel flow.
a. used to support combustion and to cool the 118. An advantage of the centrifugal-flow compressor is its
engine. high
b. entirely combined with fuel and burned. a. pressure rise per stage.
c. speeded up and heated by the action of the turbines. b. ram efficiency.
107. During inspection, turbine engine components exposed to c. peak efficiency.
high temperatures may only be marked with such materials as 119. At what stage in a turbine engine are gas pressures the
allowed by the manufacturer. These materials generally greatest?
include a. Compressor inlet.
1. layout dye. b. Turbine outlet.
2. commercial felt tip marker. c. Compressor outlet.
3. wax or grease pencil. 120. At what point in an axial-flow turbojet engine will the
4. chalk. highest gas pressures occur?
5. graphite lead pencil. a. At the turbine entrance.
a. 1, 2, and 4. b. Within the burner section.
b. 1, 3, and 4. c. At the compressor outlet.
c. 2.4. and 5.
108. What is one purpose of the stator blades in the
compressor section of a turbine engine? IGNITION STARTING SYSTEM
a. Stabilize the pressure of the airflow.
b. Control the direction of the airflow. 1.A safety feature usually employed in direct cranking starters
c. Increase the velocity of the airflow. that is used to prevent the starter from reaching burst speed is
109. Why do some turbine engines have more than one turbine the
wheel attached to a single shaft? a. drive shaft shear point.
a. To facilitate balancing of the turbine assembly. b. stator nozzle design that chokes airflow and
b. To help stabilize the pressure between the stabilizes turbine wheel speed.
compressor and the turbine. c. spring coupling release.
c. To extract more power from the exhaust gases 2.In a four-stroke cycle aircraft engine, when does the ignition
than a single wheel can absorb. event take place?
110. Which of the following influences the operation of an a. Before the piston reaches TDC on compression
automatic fuel control unit on a turbojet engine? stroke.
a. Burner pressure. b. After the piston reaches TDC on power stroke.
b. Mixture control position. c. After the piston reaches TDC on compression
c. Exhaust gas temperature. stroke.
111. (1) Accumulation of contaminates in the compressor of a 3.What likely effect would a cracked distributor rotor have on
turbojet engine reduces aerodynamic efficiency of the blades. a magneto?
(2) Two common methods for removing dirt deposits from a. Ground the secondary circuit through the crack.
turbojet engine compressor blades are a fluid wash and an b. Fire two cylinders simultaneously.
abrasive grit blast. c. Ground the primary circuit through the crack.
Regarding the above statements 4.Sharp bends should be avoided in ignition leads primarily
a. only No. 1 is true. because
b. only No. 2 is true. a. weak points may develop in the insulation through
c. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. which high tension current can leak.
112. The diffuser section of a jet engine is located between b. ignition lead wire conductor material is brittle and
a. the burner section and the turbine section. may break.
b. station No. 7 and station No. 8. c. ignition lead shielding effectiveness will be reduced.
c. the compressor section and the burner section. 5.Using a cold spark plug in a high-compression aircraft
113. The compressor stators in a gas turbine engine act as engine would probably result in
diffusers to a. normal operation.
a. decrease the velocity of the gas flow. b. a fouled plug.
b. increase the velocity of the gas flow. c. detonation.
6. The purpose of an undercurrent relay in a starter generator 18.In a turbine engine dc capacitor discharge ignition system,
system is to where are the high-voltage pulses formed?
a. provide a backup for the starter relay a. At the breaker.
b. disconnect power from the starter-generator and b. At the triggering transformer.
ignition when sufficient engine speed is reached. c. At the rectifier.
c. keep current flow to the starter-generator under the 19.Ignition check during engine run-up indicates excessive
circuit capacity maximum. RPM drop during operation on the right magneto. The major
7.How does high-tension ignition shielding tend to reduce portion of the RPM loss occurs rapidly after switching to the
radio interference? right magneto position (fast drop). The most likely cause is
a. Prevents ignition flashover at high altitudes. a. faulty or fouled spark plugs.
b. Reduces voltage drop in the transmission of high- b. incorrect ignition timing on both magnetos.
tension current. c. one or more dead cylinders.
c. Receives and grounds high-frequency waves 20.When internally timing a magneto, the breaker points begin
coming from the magneto and high-tension to open when the rotating magnet is
ignition leads. a. fully aligned with the pole shoes.
8.Ignition check during engine run-up indicates a slow drop in b. a few degrees past full alignment with the pole shoes
RPM. This is usually caused by c. a few degrees past the neutral position.
a. defective spark plugs. 21. When a magneto is disassembled, keepers are usually
b. a defective high-tension lead. placed across the poles of the rotating magnet to reduce the
c. incorrect ignition timing or valve adjustment. loss of magnetism. These keepers are usually made of
9. The secondary coil of a magneto is grounded through the a. chrome magnet steel.
a. ignition switch. b. soft iron.
b. primary coil. c. cobalt steel.
c. grounded side of the breaker points. 23. What components make up the magnetic system of a
10.When installing a magneto on an engine, the magneto?
a. piston in the No. 1 cylinder must be a prescribed a. Pole shoes, the pole shoe extensions, and the primary
number of degrees before top center on the coil.
compression stroke. b. Primary and secondary coils.
b. magneto breaker points must be just closing. c. Rotating magnet, the pole shoes, the pole shoe
c. piston in the No. 1 cylinder must be a prescribed extensions, and the
number of degrees after top center on the intake coil core.
stroke. 24.Magneto timing drift is caused by erosion of the breaker
11.A certain nine-cylinder radial engine used a non- points and
compensated single-unit, dual-type magneto with a four-pole a. excessive spark plug gap.
rotating magnet and separately mounted distributors. Which of b. wear of the cam followers.
the following will have the lowest RPM at any given engine c. loss of magnetism in the rotor.
speed? 25.What would be the result if a magneto breaker point
a. Breaker cam. mainspring did not have sufficient tension?
b. Engine crankshaft. a. The points will stick.
c. Distributors. b. The points will not open to the specified gap.
12.A defective primary capacitor in a magneto is indicated by c. The points will float or bounce.
a. a fine-grained frosted appearance of the breaker 26.Magneto breaker point opening relative to the position of
points. the rotating magnet and distributor rotor (internal timing) can
b. burned and pitted breaker points. be set most accurately
c. a weak spark. a. during the magneto-to-engine timing operation.
13.When the ignition switch of a single (reciprocating) engine b. during assembly of the magneto before
aircraft is turned to the OFF position. installation on the engine.
a. ‘the primary circuits of both magnetos are c. by setting the points roughly at the required clearance
grounded. before
b. the secondary circuits of both magnetos are opened. installing the magneto and then making the fine
c. all circuits are automatically opened. breaker point
14. The capacitor-type ignition system is used almost adjustment after installation to compensate for wear
universally on turbine engines primarily because of its high in the
voltage and magneto drive train.
a. low amperage. 27. (1) The platinum and iridium ground electrodes used on
b. long life. fine wire spark plugs are extremely brittle and can be broken if
c. high-heat intensity. they are improperly handled or adjusted.
(2) When gapping massive-electrode spark plugs, a wire
15.What test instrument could be used to test an ignition gauge should be inserted between the center and ground
harness for suspected leakage? electrodes while moving the ground electrode in order to avoid
a. A high tension lead tester. setting the gap too close. Regarding the above statements.
b. A high voltage dc voltmeter. a. only No. 1 is true.
c. A high amperage dc ammeter. b. only No.2istrue.
16.The greatest density of flux lines in the magnetic circuit of c. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
a rotating magnet-type magneto occurs when the magnet is in 28. Magneto pole shoes are generally made of
what position? a. laminations of high-grade soft iron.
a. Full alignment with the field shoe faces. b. laminations of high-grade Alnico.
b. A certain angular displacement beyond the neutral c. pieces of high-carbon iron.
position, referred to as E-gap angle or position. 29. What will be the result of using too hot a spark plug?
c. The position where the contact points open. a. Fouling of plug.
17.Failure of an engine to cease firing after turning the b. Pre-ignition.
magneto switch off is an indication of c. Burned capacitor.
a. an open high tension lead. 30. Hot spark plugs are generally used in aircraft powerplants
b. an open P-lead to ground. a. with comparatively high compression or high
c. a grounded magneto switch. operating temperatures
 b. with comparatively low operating temperatures. 43. In a typical starter-generator system, under which of the
c. which produce high power per cubic inch following starting circumstances may it be necessary to use
displacement. the start stop button?
31. In an aircraft ignition system, one of the functions of the a. Hung start.
capacitor is to b. Hot start.
a. regulate the flow of current between the primary and c. Contacts stick open.
secondary coil. 44.A spark plug is fouled when
b. facilitate a more rapid collapse of the magnetic a. its spark grounds by jumping electrodes.
field in the primary b. it causes preignition.
coil. c. its spark grounds without jumping electrodes.
c. stop the flow of magnetic lines of force when the 45.When internally timing a magneto, the breaker points begin
points open. to open when
32. Inspection of pneumatic starters by maintenance a. the piston has just passed TOC at the end of the
technicians usually includes checking the compression stroke.
a. oil level and magnetic drain plug condition. b. the magnet poles are a few degrees beyond the
b. stator and rotor blades for FOD. neutral position.
c. rotor alignment. c. the magnet poles are fully aligned with the pole
shoes.
34. Which of the following statements regarding magneto 47.What is the purpose of a safety gap in some magnetos?
switch circuits is NOT true? a. To discharge the secondary coil’s voltage if an
a. In the BOTH position, the right and left magneto open occurs in the
circuits are grounded. secondary circuit.
b. In the OFF position, neither the right nor left b. To ground the magneto when the ignition switch is
magneto circuits are open. off.
c. In the RIGHT position, the right magneto circuit is c. To prevent flashover in the distributor.
open and the left magneto circuit is grounded. 48.What is the radial location of the two north poles of a four-
35.The spark occurs at the spark plug when the ignition’s pole rotating magnet in a high-tension magneto?
a. secondary circuit is completed. a. 180° apart.
b. primary circuit is completed. b. 270 apart.
c. primary circuit is broken. c. 90 apart.
36.Spark plug fouling caused by lead deposits occurs most 49.Magneto breaker points must be timed to open when the
often a. rotating magnet is positioned a few degrees before
a. during cruise with rich mixture. neutral.
b. when cylinder head temperatures are relatively b. greatest magnetic field stress exists in the
low. magnetic circuit.
c. when cylinder head temperatures are high. c. rotating magnet is in the full register position.
37.Generally, when removing a turbine engine igniter plug, in 50.What are two parts of a distributor in an aircraft engine
order to eliminate the possibility of the technician receiving a ignition system?
lethal shock, the ignition switch is turned off and 1. Coil.
a. disconnected from the power supply circuit. 2. Block.
b. the igniter lead is disconnected from the plug and 3. Stator.
the center electrode grounded to the engine after 4. Rotor.
disconnecting the transformer-exciter input lead 5. Transformer.
and waiting the prescribed time. a. 2and 4.
c. the transformer-exciter input lead is disconnected and b. 3and 4.
the center electrode grounded to the engine after c. 2and 5.
disconnecting the igniter lead from the plug and 51.If an aircraft ignition switch is turned off and the engine
waiting the prescribed time. continues to run normally, the trouble is probably caused by
38.What is the electrical location of the primary capacitor in a a. an open ground lead in the magneto.
high-tension magneto? b. arcing magneto breaker points.
a. In parallel with the breaker points. c. primary lead grounding.
b. In series with the breaker points. 52.When removing a snieiciea spark plug. Which of the
c. In series with the primary and secondary winding. following is most likely to be damaged?
39.The numbers appearing on the ignition distributor block a. Center electrode.
indicate the b. Shell section.
a. sparking order of the distributor. c. Core insulator.
b. relation between distributor terminal numbers and 53. The constrained-gap igniter plug used in some gas turbine
cylinder engines operates at a cooler temperature because
numbers. a. it projects into the combustion chamber.
c. firing order of the engine. b. the applied voltage ¡s less.
40.When performing a magneto ground check on an engine, c. the construction is such that the spark occurs
correct operation is indicated by beyond the face of the combustion chamber liner.
a. a slight increase in RPM. 54. When does battery current flow through the primary
b. no drop in RPM. circuit of a battery ignition coil?
c. a slight drop in RPM. a. Only when the breaker points are open.
41.The type of ignition system used on most turbine aircraft b. At all times when the ignition switch is on
engines is c. When the breaker points are closed and the
a. high resistance. ignition switch is on.
b. low tension. 55. How many secondary coils are required in a low tension
c. capacitor discharge. ignition system on an 18-cylinder engine?
42.It is found that a shielded ignition system does not a. 36
adequately reduce ignition noise, it may be necessary to install b. 18
a. a second layer of shielding. c. 9
b. a filter between the magneto and magneto switch. 56. Which of the following breaker point characteristics is
c. bonding wires from the shielding to ground. associated with a faulty capacitor?
 a. Crowned. b. 1,4,5.
b. Fine grained. c. 1,3,6.
c. Coarse grained. 69. A magneto ignition switch is connected
57. How are most radial engine spark plug wires connected to a. in series with the breaker points.
the distributor block? b. parallel to the breaker points.
a. By use of cable-piercing screws. c. in series with the primary capacitor and parallel to the
b. By use of self-locking cable ferrules. breaker
c. By use of terminal sleeves and retaining nuts. points.
58. What is the relationship between distributor and crankshaft 70. Spark plugs are considered worn out when the
speed of aircraft reciprocating engines? a. electrodes have worn away to about one-half of
a. The distributor turns at one-half crankshaft their original dimensions.
speed. b. center electrode edges have become rounded.
b. The distributor turns at one and one-half crankshaft c. electrodes have worn away to about two-thirds of
speed. their original dimensions
c. The crankshaft turns at one-half distributor speed.
59. In a low-tension ignition system each spark plug requires 71. When timing a magneto internally, the alignment of the
an individual timing marks indicates that the
a. capacitor. a. breaker points are just closing.
b. breaker assembly. b. magnets are in the neutral position.
c. secondary coil. c. magnets are in the E-gap position.
60. The purpose of staggered ignition is to compensate for 72. Which of the following are distinct circuits of a high-
a. short ignition harness. tension magneto?
b. rich fuel/air mixture around exhaust valve. 1. Magnetic.
c. diluted fuel/air mixture around exhaust valve. 2. Primary.
61. Why are high-tension ignition cables frequently routed 3. E-gap.
from the distributors to the spark plugs in flexible metallic 4. P-lead.
conduits? 5. Secondary.
a. To eliminate high altitude flashover. a. 1,2,5.
b. To reduce the formation of corona and nitric oxide on b. 1,3,4.
the cable c. 2,4,5.
insulation. 73. Which malfunctions will allow the igniters to operate
c. To reduce the effect of the high-frequency when tested but be inoperative during a start attempt?
electromagnetic waves emanated during 1. Conductor No. lo broken.
operation. 2. Conductor No. li broken.
62. In a high-tension ignition system, a primary capacitor of 3. Ignition relay inoperative.
too low a capacity will cause 4. Conductor No. 12 broken.
a. excessive primary voltage. a. 1 or 4.
b. excessively high secondary voltage. b. 2or 3.
c. the breaker contacts to burn. c. 1 or 3.
63. As an aircraft engines speed is increased, the vo1tage 74. What is a result of flashover’ in a distributor?
induced in the primary coil of the magneto a. Intense voltage at the spark plug.
a. remains constant. b. Reversal of current flow.
b. increases. c. Conductive carbon trail.
c. vanes with the setting of the voltage regulator. 75. Which statement is correct regarding the ignition system
64. A spark plugs heat range is the result of of a turbine engine?
a. the area of the plug exposed to the cooling airstream. a. The system is normally de-energized as soon as
b. its ability to transfer heat from the firing end of the engine start
the spark plug to the cylinder head. b. It is energized during the starting and warm up
c. the heat intensity of the spark. periods only.
65. When using an electric starter motor, current usage c. The system generally includes a polar inductor-type
a. is highest at the start of motor rotation. magneto.
b. remains relatively constant throughout the starting 76. When the switch is off in a battery ignition system. The
cycle. primary circuit is
c. is highest just before starte cutoff (at highest RPM). a. grounded.
66. Why are turbine engine igniters less susceptible to fouling b. opened.
than reciprocating engine spark plugs? c. shorted.
a. The high-intensity spark cleans the igniter. 77. If staggered ignition timing is used, the
b. The frequency of the spark is less for igniters. a. spark plug nearest the exhaust valve will fire first.
c. Turbine igniters operate at cooler temperatures. b. spark will be automatically advanced as engine speed
67. Great caution should be exercised in handling damaged increases.
hermetically sealed turbine engine igniter transformer units c. spark plug nearest the intake valve will fire first.
because 78. When a •Shower of Sparks ignition system is activated at
a. compounds in the unit may become a fire or an engine start, a spark plug fires
explosion hazard when exposed to the air. a. as soon as the advance breaker points open.
b. some contain radioactive material. b. only while both the retard and advance breaker
c. some contain toxic chemicals. points are closed.
68. Which of the following are included in a typical turbine c. only while both the retard and advance breaker
engine ignition system? points are open.
1. Two igniter plugs. 79. (Refer to Figure 5.) Which malfunctions will allow the
2. Two transformers. igniters to operate normally during start but be inoperative
3. One exciter unit. when tested?
4. Two intermediate ignition leads. 1. Conductor No. 14 broken.
5. Two low-tension igniter leads. 2. Conductor No. lo broken.
6. Two high-tension igniter leads. 3. Conductor No. 15 broken.
a. 2,3,4. 4. Conductor No. 12 broken.
 a. 2or 4. a. external power only.
b. 1 or 3. b. either battery or external power.
c. 3 or 4. c. battery power and external power simultaneously.
80. When a magneto is operating, what is the probable cause 92. Aircraft magneto housings are usually ventilated in order
for a shift in internal timing? to
a. The rotating magnet looses its magnetism. a. prevent the entrance of outside air which may contain
b. The distributor gear teeth are wearing on the rotor moisture.
gear teeth. b. allow heated air from the accessory compartment to
c. The cam follower wear and/or breaker points keep the
wear. internal parts of the magneto dry.
81. What will be the results of increasing the gap of the c. provide cooling and remove corrosive gases
breaker points in a magneto? produced by normal arcing.
a. Retard the spark and increase its intensity. 93. Air turbine starters are generally designed so that
b. Advance the spark and decrease its intensity. reduction gear distress or damage may be detected by
c. Retard the spark and decrease its intensity. a. characteristic sounds from the starter assembly
82. What is the purpose of using an impulse coupling with a during engine start.
magneto? b. breakage of a shear section on the starter drive shaft.
a. To absorb impulse vibrations between the magneto c. inspection of a magnetic chip detector.
and the engine. 94. The primary advantage of pneumatic (air turbine) starters
b. To compensate for backlash in the magneto and the over comparable electric starters for turbine engines is
engine gears. a. a decreased fire hazard.
c. To produce a momentary high rotational speed of b. reduction gearing not required.
the magneto. c. high power-to-weight ratio.
83. How does the ignition system of a gas turbine engine 95. (Refer to Figure 5.) With power applied to the bus bar,
differ from that of a reciprocating engine? what wire supplies standby power to the starter relay contact?
a. One igniter plug is used in each combustion a. 4
chamber. b. 7.
b. Magneto-to-engine timing is not critical. c. 8
c. A high-energy spark is required for ignition. 96. In the event a pneumatic start valve will not operate and
84. The E-gap angle is usually defined as the number of the manual override must be used, the starter T-handle must be
degrees between the neutral position of the rotating magnet closed at scheduled
and the position starter drop out because
a. where the contact points close. a. the starter will overheat.
b. where the contact points open. b. the starter will overspeed at a given NA2.
c. of greatest magnetic flux density. c. the starter oil will be blown overboard.
85. In reference to a •Shower of Sparks ignition system, 97. Why do turbine engine ignition systems require high
(1) the retard breaker points are designed to keep the affected energy?
ignition system operating if the advance breaker points should a. To ignite the fuel under conditions of high altitude
fail during normal engine operation (after start). and high
(2) the timed opening of the retard breaker points is designed temperatures.
to prevent engine kickback during start. b. Because the applied voltage is much greater.
Regarding the above statements. c. To ignite the fuel under conditions of high altitude
a. only No. 1 is true. and low
b. only No.2 is true. temperatures.
c. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. 98. What is the difference between a low-tension and a high-
86. Spark plug heat range is determined by tension engine ignition system?
a. the reach of the spark plug. a. A low-tension system produces relatively low voltage
b. its ability to transfer heat to the cylinder head. at the sparkplug as compared to a high-tension
c. the number of ground electrodes. system.
87. The term reach, as applied to spark plug design and/or b. A high-tension system is designed for high-altitude
type, indicates the aircraft, while a low-tension system is for low- to
a. linear distance from the shell gasket seat to the medium-attitude aircraft.
end of the threads c. A low-tension system uses a transformer coil near
on the shell skirt. the spark plugs to boost voltage, while the high-
b. length of center electrode exposed to the flame of tension system voltage is constant from the
combustion. magneto to the spark plugs.
c. length of the shielded barrel. 99. Capacitance after firing of a spark plug is caused by
88. When using an electric starter motor, the current flow a. the stored energy in the ignition shielded lead
through it unloading after normal timed ignition.
a. is highest just before starter cutoff (at highest RPM). b. excessive center electrode erosion.
b. remains relatively constant throughout the starting c. constant polarity firing.
cycle. 100. Pneumatic starters are usually designed with what types
c. is highest at the start of motor rotation. of airflow impingement systems?
89. At what RPM is a reciprocating engine ignition switch a. Radial inward flow turbine and axial-flow
check made? turbine.
a. 1,500RPM b. Centrifugal compressor and axial-flow compressor.
b. The slowest possible RPM. c. Double entry centrifugal outward flow and axial-flow
c. Full throttle RPM. turbines.
90. In the aircraft magneto system, if the P-lead is 101. Which of the following could cause damage to the nose
disconnected, the magneto will be ceramic or to the electrode of an aircraft spark plug?
a. on regardless of ignition switch position. a. Plug installed without a copper gasket.
b. grounded regardless of ignition switch position. b. Improper gapping procedure.
c. open regardless of ignition switch position. c. Excessive magneto voltage.
91. (Refer to Figure 5.) The type of system depicted is capable 102. The purpose of a safety gap in a magneto is to
of operating with a. prevent burning out the primary winding.
 b. protect the high-voltage winding from damage. b. beginning to open.
c. prevent burning of contact points. c. fully closed.
103. Capacitance after firing in most modern spark plugs is 115. When using a timing light to time a magneto to an
reduced by the aircraft engine, the magneto switch should be placed in the
a. use of fine wire electrodes. a. BOTH position.
b. a built-in resistor in each plug. b. OFF position.
c. aluminum oxide insulation. c. LEFT or RIGHT position (either one).
104. A safety feature usually employed in pneumatic starters 116. Defective spark plugs will cause the engine to run rough
that is used if the clutch does not release from the engine drive at
at the proper time during start is the a. high speeds only.
a. flyweight cutout switch. b. low speeds only.
b. spring coupling release. c. all speeds.
c. drive shaft shear point. 117. What will be the effect if the spark plugs are gapped too
105. The amount of voltage generated in any magneto wide?
secondary coil is determined by the number of windings and a. Insulation failure.
by the b. Hard starting.
c. Lead damage.
a. Rate of buildup of the magnetic field around the 118. When testing a magneto distributor block for electrical
primary coil. leakage. which of the following pieces of test equipment
b. rate of collapse of the magnetic field around the should be used?
primary coil. a. A high-tension harness tester.
c. amount of charge released by the capacitor. b. A continuity tester.
106. Airflow to the pneumatic starter from a ground unites c. A high-range ammeter.
normally prevented from causing starter overspeed during 119.Which of the following would be cause for rejection of a
engine start by spark plug?
a. stator nozzle design that chokes airflow and stabilizes a. Carbon fouling of the electrode and insulator.
turbine wheelspeed. b. Insulator tip cracked.
b. activation of a flyweight cutout switch. c. Lead fouling of the electrode and insulator,
c. a preset timed cutoff of the airflow at the source. 120.What should be used to clean grease or carbon tracks from
107. Which of the following, obtained during magneto check capacitors or coils that are used in magnetos?
at 1,700 RPM. indicates a short (grounded) circuit between the a. Solvent.
right magneto primary and the ignition switch? b. Acetone.
a. BOTH — 1,700 RPM, R — 1,625 RPM, L — 1,700 c. Naphtha.
RPM, OFF— 1,625RPM. 122 .A clicking sound heard at engine coast-down in a
b. BOTH —1,700 RPM, R — 0RPM, L— 1,700 pneumatic starter incorporating a sprig clutch ratchet assembly
RPM, OFF— 0RPM. is an indication of
c. BOTH—1,700RPM,R—ORPM,L—1,675RPM,OFF- a. gear tooth and/or pawl damage.
-ORPM b. one or more broken pawl springs.
108. What is the approximate position of the rotating magnet c. the pawls re-contacting and riding on the ratchet
in a high-tension magneto when the points first close? gear.
a. Full register. 123. Which of the following are advantages of dual ignition in
b. Neutral. aircraft engines?
c. A few degrees after neutral. 1. Gives a more complete and quick combustion of the fuel.
109. Shielding is used on spark plug and ignition wires 2. Provides a backup magneto system.
a. protect the wires from short circuits as a result of 3. Increases the output power of the engine.
chafing or rubbing. 4. Permits the use of lower grade fuels.
b. prevent outside electromagnetic emissions from 5. Increases the intensity of the spark at the spark plugs.
disrupting the a. 2.3,4.
operation of the ignition system. b. 2.3,5.
c. prevent interference with radio reception. c. 1,2,3.
110. Igniter plugs used in turbine engines are subjected to high 124. The electrical circuit from the magneto is completed by
intensity spark discharges and yet they have a long service life through the
because they a. engine structure.
a. operate at much lower temperatures. b. P-lead.
b. are not placed directly into the combustion chamber. c. cockpit switch.
c. do not require continuous operation. 125. If the ground wire of a magneto is disconnected at the
111. Alignment 01 the marks provided or internal timing of a ignition switch, the result will be the affected magneto will be
magneto indicates that the isolated and the engine will run on the
a. breaker points are just beginning to close for No. 1 a. opposite magneto.
cylinder. b. engine will stop running.
b. magneto is in E-gap position. c. engine will not stop running when me ignition
c. No. 1 cylinder is on TOC of compression stroke. switch is turn off.
112. If new breaker points are installed in a magneto on an 126. Upon inspection of the spark plugs in an aircraft engine,
engine, it will be necessary to time the the plugs were found caked with a heavy black soot. This
a. magneto internally and the magneto to the engine. indicates
b. breaker points to the No. 1 cylinder. a. worn oil seal rings.
c. magneto drive to the engine. b. a rich mixture.
113. What component of a dual magneto is shared by both c. a lean mixture.
ignition systems? 127. In a high-tension ignition system, the current in the
a. High-tension coil. magneto secondary winding is
b. Rotating magnet. a. conducted from the primary winding via the
c. Capacitor. discharge of the
114. The spark is produced in a magneto ignition system when capacitor.
the breaker points are b. induced when the primary circuit is interrupted.
a. fully open.
 c. induced when the primary circuit discharges via the b. decrease direction.
breaker points. c. decrease direction after over-adjustment.
128. Thermocouples are usually inserted or installed on the 9. If the idling jet becomes clogged in a float-type carburetor,
a. front cylinder of the engine. the
b. rear cylinder of the engine. a. engine operation will not be affected at any RPM.
c. hottest cylinder of the engine. b. engine will not idle.
129. In order to turn a magneto off, the primary circuit must c. idle mixture becomes richer.
be 10. A carburetor is prevented from leaning out during quick
a. grounded. acceleration by the
b. opened. a. enrichment system.
c. shorted. b. mixture control system.
130. Which of the following statements most accurately c. accelerating system.
describes spark plug heat range? 11. For what primary purpose is a turbine engine fuel control
a. The length of the threaded portion of the shell usually unit trimmed?
denotes the spark plug heat range.
b. A hot plug is designed so that the insulator tip is a. To obtain maximum thrust output when desired.
reasonably short to fasten the rate of heat transfer b. To properly position the power levers.
from the tip through the spark plug to the cylinder c. To adjust the idle RPM.
head. 12. What is the relationship between the pressure existing
c. A cold plug is designed so that the insulator tip is within the throat of a venturi and the velocity of the air
reasonably short to hasten the rate of heat passing through the venturi?
transfer from the tip through the sparkplug shell a. There is no direct relationship between the pressure
to the cylinder head. and the velocity.
131. If a spark plug lead becomes grounded, the b. The pressure is directly proportional to the velocity.
a. magneto will not be affected. c. The pressure is inversely proportional to the
b. distributor rotor finger will discharge to the next velocity.
closest electrode within the distributor. 13. The fuel metering force of a conventional float-type
c. capacitor will break down. carburetor in its normal operating range is the difference
132. When will the voltage in the secondary winding of a between the pressure acting on the discharge nozzle located
magneto, installed on a normally operating engine, be at its within the venturi and the pressure
highest value? a. acting on the fuel in the float chamber.
a. Just prior to spark plug firing. b. of the fuel as it enters the carburetor.
b. Toward the latter part of the spark duration when the c. of the air as it enters the venturi (impact pressure).
flame front reaches its maximum velocity. 14. A major difference between the Teledyne-Continental and
c. Immediately after the breaker points close. RSA (Precision Airmotive or Bendix) continuous flow fuel
injection systems in fuel metering is that the
FUEL METERING SYSTEMS a. RSA system uses air pressure only as a metering
1. If the main air bleed of a float-type carburetor becomes force.
clogged, the engine will run b. Continental system utilizes airflow as a metering
a. lean at rated power. force.
b. rich at rated power. c. Continental system uses fuel pressure only as a
c. rich at idling. metering force.
2. One of the best ways to increase engine power and control 15.(1) The mixture used at rated power in air cooled
detonation and pre-ignition is to reciprocating engines is richer than the mixture used through
a. enrich the fuel/air mixture. the normal cruising range.
b. use water injection. (2) The mixture used at idle in air cooled reciprocating
c. lean the fuel/air mixture. engines is richer than the mixture used at rated power.
3. One purpose of an air bleed in a float-type carburetor is to Regarding the above statements,
a. increase fuel flow at altitude. a. only No. 1 is true.
b. meter air to adjust the mixture. b. only No.2istrue.
c. decrease fuel density and destroy surface tension. c. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
4. An excessively lean fuel/air mixture may cause 16. Generally, the practice when trimming an engine is to
a. an increase in cylinder head temperature. a. turn all accessory bleed air off.
b. high oil pressure. b. turn all accessory bleed air on.
c. backfiring through the exhaust. c. make adjustments (as necessary) for all engines on
5. When checking the idle mixture on a carburetor, the engine the same aircraft with accessory bleed air settings
should be idling normally, then pull the mixture control the same — either on or off.
toward the IDLE CUTOFF position. A correct idling mixture 17. The device that controls the volume of the fuel/air mixture
will be indicated by to the cylinders is called a
a. an immediate decrease in RPM. a. mixture control.
b. a decrease of 20 to 30 RPM before quitting. b. metering jet.
c. an increase of 10 to 50 RPM before decreasing. c. throttle valve.
6. Detonation occurs when the fuel/air mixture 18. During engine operation, if carburetor heat is applied, it
a. burns too fast. will
b. ignites before the time of normal ignition. a. increase fuel/air ratio.
c. is too rich. b. increase engine RPM.
7. What component is used to ensure fuel delivery during c. decrease the air density to the carburetor.
periods of rapid engine acceleration? 19.Anine-cylinder radial engine, using a multiple-point
a. Acceleration pump. priming system with a central spider, will prime which
b. Water injection pump. cylinders?
c. Power enrichment unit. a. One, two, three, eight, and nine.
8. In order to stabilize cams, springs, and linkages within the b. All cylinders.
fuel control, manufacturers generally recommend that all final c. One, three, five, and seven.
turbine engine trim adjustments be made in the 20. What effect does high atmospheric humidity have on the
a. increase direction. operation of a jet engine?
 a. Decreases engine pressure ratio. c. a separate boost venturi that is sensitive to the
b. Decreases compressor and turbine RPM. reduced airflow at start and idle speeds.
c. Has little or no effect. 31. What should be checked/changed to ensure the validity of
21. The throttle valve of float-type aircraft carburetors is a turbine engine performance check if an alternate fuel is to be
located used?
a. ahead of the venturi and main discharge nozzle. a. Fuel specific gravity setting.
b. after the main discharge nozzle and ahead of the b. Maximum RPM adjustment.
venturi. c. EPR gauge calibration.
c. between the venturi and the engine. 32. The device that controls the ratio of the fuel/air mixture to
22. On a float-type carburetor, the purpose of the economizer the cylinders is called a
valve is to a. throttle valve.
a. provide extra fuel for sudden acceleration of the b. mixture control.
engine. c. metering jet.
b. maintain the leanest mixture possible during cruising 33. Select the statement which is correct relating to a fuel level
best power. check of a float-type carburetor.
c. provide a richer mixture and cooling at maximum a. Use 5 pounds fuel pressure for the test if the
power output. carburetor is to be used in a gravity fuel feed system.
23. In turbine engines that utilize a pressurization and dump b. Block off the main and idle jets to prevent a
valve, the dump portion of the valve continuous flow of fuel through the jets.
a. cuts off fuel flow to the engine fuel manifold and c. Do not measure the level at the edge of the float
dumps the manifold fuel into the combustor to burn chamber.
just before the engine shuts down. 34. If an aircraft engine is equipped with a carburetor that is
b. drains the engine manifold lines to prevent fuel not compensated for altitude and temperature variations, the
boiling and subsequent deposits in the lines as a fuel/air mixture will become
result of residual engine heat (at engine a. leaner as either the altitude or temperature increases.
shutdown). b. richer as the altitude increases and leaner as the
c. dumps extra fuel into the engine ¡n order to provide temperature increases.
for quick engine acceleration during rapid throttle c. richer as either the altitude or temperature
advancement. increases.
24. If a float-type carburetor becomes flooded, the condition is 35. An aircraft engine continuous cylinder fuel injection
most likely caused by system normally discharges fuel during which stroke(s)?
a. a leaking needle valve and seat assembly. a. Intake.
b. the accelerating pump shaft being stuck. b. Intake and compression.
c. a clogged back-suction line. c. All (continuously).
25. Which of the following is NOT an input parameter for a 36. What carburetor component actually limits the desired
turbine engine fuel control unit? maximum airflow to the engine at full throttle?
a. Compressor inlet pressure. a. Throttle valve.
b. Compressor inlet temperature. b. Venturi.
c. Ambient humidity. c. Manifold intake.
26. An aircraft should be facing into the wind when trimming 37. The desired engine idle speed and mixture setting
an engine. However, if the velocity of the wind blowing into a. is adjusted with engine warmed up and
the intake is excessive, it is likely to cause a operating.
a. False low exhaust gas temperature reading. b. should give minimum RPM with maximum
b. Trim setting resulting in engine overspeed. manifold pressure.
c. False high compression and turbine discharge c. is usually adjusted in the following sequence; speed
pressure, and a subsequent low trim. first, then mixture.
27. When troubleshooting an engine for too rich a mixture to 38. An indication that the optimum idle mixture has been
allow the engine to idle, what would be a possible cause? obtained occurs when the mixture control is moved to IDLE
a. Economizer valve not operating correctly. CUTOFF and manifold pressure
b. Mixture setting too rich. a. decreases momentarily and RPM drops slightly
c. Air leak in the intake manifold. before the engine ceases to fire.
b. increases momentarily and RPM drops slightly
before the engine ceases to fire.
c. decreases and RPM increases momentarily
28. An aircraft engine equipped with a pressure-type before the engine ceases to fire.
carburetor is started with the 39.Which method is commonly used to adjust the level of a
a. Primer while the mixture control is positioned at float in a float-type carburetor?
IDLE CUTOFF. a. Lengthening or shortening the float shaft.
b. mixture control in the FULL-RICH position. b. Add or remove shims under the needle-valve seat.
c. primer while the mixture control is positioned at the c. Change the angle of the float arm pivot.
FULL-LEAN position. 40. Under which of the following conditions will the trimming
29. The back-suction mixture control system operates by of a turbine engine be most accurate?
a. varying the pressure within the venturi section. a. High wind and high moisture.
b. varying the pressure acting on the fuel in the float b. High moisture and low wind.
chamber. c. No wind and low moisture.
c. changing the effective cross-sectional area of the 41. What factor is not used in the operation of an aircraft gas
main metering orifice (jet). turbine engine fuel control unit?
30. On an engine equipped with a pressure-type carburetor, a. Compressor inlet air temperature.
fuel supply in the idling range is ensured by the inclusion in b. Mixture control position.
the carburetor of c. Power lever position.
a. a spring in the unmetered fuel chamber to 42. Which statement is correct regarding a continuous-flow
supplement the action of normal metering forces. fuel injection system used on many reciprocating engines?
b. an idle metering jet that bypasses the carburetor in a. Fuel is injected directly into each cylinder.
the idle range. b. Fuel is injected at each cylinder intake port.
 c. Two injector nozzles are used in the injector fuel 56. In a supervisory EEC system, any fault in the EEC that
system for various speeds. adversely affects engine operation
43. At what engine speed does the main metering jet actually a. causes redundant or backup units to take over and
function as a metering jet in a float-type carburetor? continue normal operation.
a. All RPM’s. b. usually degrades performance to the extent that
b. Cruising RPM only. continued operation can cause damage to the engine.
c. All RPM’s above idle range. c. causes an immediate reversion to control by the
44. When a new carburetor is installed on an engine, hydro mechanical fuel control unit.
a. warm up the engine and adjust the float level. 57. Which of the following is least likely to occur during
b. do not adjust the idle mixture setting; this was operation of an engine equipped with a direct cylinder fuel
accomplished on the flow bench. injection system?
c. the engine is warmed up to normal temperatures, a. Afterfiring.
adjust the idle mixture, then the idle speed. b. Kickback during start.
c. Backfiring.
58. If the volume of air passing through a carburetor venturi is
45. What carburetor component measures the amount of air reduced, the pressure at the venturi throat will
delivered to the engine? a. decrease.
a. Economizer valve. b. be equal to the pressure at the venturi outlet.
b. Automatic mixture control. c. increase.
c. Venturi. 59. The purpose of the back-suction mixture control in a float-
46. What is the relationship between the accelerating pump type carburetor is to adjust the mixture by
and the enrichment valve in a pressure injection carburetor? a. regulating the pressure drop at the venturi.
a. No relationship since they operate independently. b. regulating the pressure on the fuel in the float
b. Unmetered fuel pressure affects both units. chamber.
c. The accelerating pump actuates the enrichment valve. c. regulating the suction on the mixture from behind
47. Which of the following is NOT a function of the the throttle valve.
carburetor venturi? 60. The function of the altitude compensating, or aneroid
a. Proportions the fuel/air mixture. valve used with the Teledyne-Continental fuel injection
b. Regulates the idle system. system on many turbocharged engines is to
c. Limits the airflow at full throttle. a. prevent an overly rich mixture during sudden
48. A full-authority electronic engine control (EEC) is a acceleration
system that receives all the necessary data for engine operation b. prevent detonation at high altitudes.
and c. provide a means of enriching the mixture during
a. adjusts a standard hydro mechanical fuel control unit sudden acceleration.
to obtain the most effective engine operation. 61. How will the mixture of an engine be affected if the
b. develops the commands to various actuators to bellows of the automatic mixture control (AMC) in a pressure
control engine parameters. carburetor ruptures while the engine is operating at altitude?
c. controls engine operation according to ambient a. It will become leaner.
temperature, pressure, and humidity b. No change will occur until the altitude changes.
49. One of the things a metering orifice in a main air bleed c. It will become richer.
helps to accomplish (at a given altitude) in a carburetor is 62. A supervisory electronic engine control (EEC) is a system
a. pressure in the float chamber to increase as airflow that receives engine operating information and
through the carburetor increases. a. adjusts a standard hydromechanical fuel control
b. a progressively richer mixture as airflow through the unit to obtain the most effective engine operation.
carburetor increases. b. develops the commands to various actuators to
c. ‘better fuel vaporization and control of fuel control engine parameters.
discharge, especially at lower engine speeds. c. controls engine operation according to ambient
50. During the operation of an aircraft engine, the pressure temperature, pressure, and humidity.
drop in the carburetor venturi depends primarily upon the 63. Where is the throttle valve located on a float-type
a. air temperature. carburetor?
b. barometric pressure. a. Between the venturi and the discharge nozzle.
c. air velocity. b. After the main discharge nozzle and venturi.
51. Which type of fuel control is used on most of today’s c. After the venturi and just before the main discharge
turbine engines? nozzle.
a. Electromechanical. 64. The economizer system in a float-type carburetor
b. Mechanical. a. keeps the fuel/air ratio constant.
c. Hydro mechanical or electronic. b. functions only at cruise and idle speeds.
53. When trimming a turbine engine, the fuel control is c. increases the fuel/air ratio at high power settings.
adjusted to 65. Under which of the following conditions would an engine
a. produce as much power as the engine is capable of run lean even though there is a normal amount of fuel present?
producing. a. The use of too high an octane rating fuel.
b. set idle RPM and maximum speed or EPR. b. Incomplete fuel vaporization.
c. allow the engine to produce maximum RPM without c. The carburetor air heater valve in the HOT position.
regard to power output 66. The active clearance control (ACC) portion of an EEC
54. On a carburetor without an automatic mixture control as system aids turbine engine efficiency by
you ascend to altitude, the mixture will a. adjusting stator vane position according to operating
a. be enriched. conditions and power requirements.
b. be leaned. b. ensuring turbine blade to engine case clearances
c. not be affected. are kept to a minimum by controlling case
55. What corrective action should be taken when a carburetor temperatures.
is found to be leaking fuel from the discharge nozzle? c. automatically adjusting engine speed to maintain a
a. Replace the needle valve and seat. desired EPR.
b. Raise the float level. 67. What method is ordinarily used to make idle speed
c. Turn the fuel off each time the aircraft is parked. adjustments on a float-type carburetor?
a. An adjustable throttle stop or linkage.
 b. An orifice and adjustable tapered needle. a. The amount of fuel returning to the fuel tank
c. An adjustable needle in the drilled passageway from the carburetor will be increased.
which connects the airspace of the float chamber and b. The engine will continue to run after the mixture
the carburetor venturi. control is placed in IDLE CUTOFF.
68. Which of the following best describes the function of an c. A rich mixture will occur at all engine speeds.
altitude mixture control? 80. The metered fuel pressure (chamber C) in an injection-
a. Regulates the richness of the fuel/air charge type carburetor
entering the engine. a. is held constant throughout the entire engine
b. Regulates the air pressure above the fuel in the float operating range.
chamber. b. varies according to the position of the poppet valve
c. Regulates the air pressure in the venturi. located between chamber D (unmetered fuel) and
69. What could cause a lean mixture and high cylinder head chamber E (engine-driven fuel pump pressure).
temperature at sea level or low altitudes? c. will be approximately equal to the pressure in
a. Mixture control valve fully closed. chamber A (impact pressure).
b. Defective accelerating system. 81.Why must a float-type carburetor supply a rich mixture
c. Automatic mixture control stuck in the extended during idle?
position. a. Engine operation at idle results in higher than normal
70. A punctured float in a float-type carburetor will cause the volumetric efficiency.
fuel level to b. Because at idling speeds the engine may not have
a. lower, and enrich the mixture. enough airflow around the cylinders to provide
b. rise, and enrich the mixture. proper cooling.
c. rise, and lean the mixture. c. Because of reduced mechanical efficiency during
71. Which of the following causes a single diaphragm idle.
accelerator pump to discharge fuel? 82.If a float-type carburetor leaks fuel when the engine is
a. An increase in venturi suction when the throttle valve stopped, a likely cause is that the
is open. a. float needle valve is worn or otherwise not seated
b. An increase in manifold pressure that occurs properly.
when the throttle valve is opened. b. float level is adjusted too low.
c. A decrease in manifold pressure that occurs when the c. main air bleed is clogged.
throttle valve is opened. 83.A reciprocating engine automatic mixture control responds
72. During idle mixture adjustments, which of the following is to changes in air density caused by changes in
normally observed to determine when the correct mixture has a. altitude or humidity.
been achieved? b. altitude only.
a. Changes in fuel/air pressure ratio. c. altitude or temperature.
b. Fuel flowmeter. 84.When air passes through the venturi of a carburetor, what
c. Changes in RPM or manifold pressure. three changes occur?
73. Idle cutoff is accomplished on a carburetor equipped with a. Velocity increases, temperature increases, and
a back-suction mixture control by pressure decreases.
a. introducing low pressure (intake manifold) air into b. Velocity decreases, temperature increases, and
the float chamber. pressure increases.
b. turning the fuel selector valve to OFF. c. Velocity increases, temperature decreases, and
c. the positive closing of a needle and seat. pressure decreases.
74. The generally acceptable way to obtain accurate on-site 85.Float-type carburetors which are equipped with
temperature prior to performing engine trimming is to economizers are normally set for
a. call the control tower to obtain field temperature. a. their richest mixture delivery and leaned by means of
b. observe the reading on the aircraft Outside Air the economizer system.
Temperature (OAT) gauge. b. the economizer system to supplement the main
c. hang a thermometer in the shade of the nose system supply at all engine speeds above idling.
wheel-well until the temperature reading c. their leanest practical mixture delivery at cruising
stabilizes. speeds and enriched by means of the economizer
75. What are the positions of the pressurization valve and the system at higher power settings.
dump valve in a jet engine fuel system when the engine is shut 86.What is the possible cause of an engine running rich at full
down? throttle if it is equipped with a float-type carburetor?
a. Pressurization valve closed, dump valve open. a. Float level too low.
b. Pressurization valve open, dump valve open. b. Clogged main air bleed.
c. Pressurization valve closed, dump valve closed c. Clogged atmospheric vent.
76. What is a function of the idling air bleed in a float-type 87. The use of less than normal throttle opening during
carburetor? starting will cause
a. It provides a means for adjusting the mixture at idle a. a rich mixture.
speeds. b. a lean mixture.
b. It vaporizes the fuel at idling speeds. c. backfire due to lean fuel/air ratio.
c. It aids in emulsifying/vaporizing the fuel at idle 88.The primary purpose of the air bleed openings used with
speeds. continuous flow fuel injector nozzles is to
77. If an engine is equipped with a float-type carburetor and a. provide for automatic mixture control.
the engine runs excessively rich at full throttle, a possible b. lean out the mixture.
cause of the trouble is a clogged c. aid in proper fuel vaporization.
a. main air bleed. 89. The density of air is very important when mixing fuel and
b. back-suction line. air to obtain a correct fuel-to-air ratio. Which of the following
c. atmospheric vent line. weighs the most?
78. A mixture ratio of 11:1 normally refers to a. 75 parts of dry air and 25 parts of water vapor.
a. a stoichiometric mixture. b. 100 parts of dry air.
b. 1 part air to 11 parts fuel. c. :50 parts of dry air and 50 parts of water vapor.
c. 1 part fuel to 11 parts air. 90.Reciprocating engine power will be decreased at all
79. What will occur if the vapor vent float in a pressure altitudes if the
carburetor loses its buoyancy? a. air density is increased.
 b. humidity is increased. b. Remains at idle and automatically accelerates to
c. manifold pressure is increased. rated speed when placed under load.
91. Select the correct statement concerning the idle system of c. Remains at or near rated speed regardless of
a conventional float-type carburetor.
the load condition
a. The low-pressure area created in the throat of the
venturi pulls the fuel from the idle passage. 5. Frequently, an aircraft’s auxiliary power unit (APU)
b. Climatic conditions have very little effect on idle generator
mixture requirements. a. Is identical to the engine-driven generators.
c. The low pressure between the edges of the throttle b. Supplements the aircraft’s engine- driven
valve and the throttle body pulls the fuel from he generators during peak loads.
idle passage. c. Has a higher load capacity than the engine-
93. An aircraft carburetor is equipped with a mixture control
driven generators.
in order to prevent the mixture from becoming too
a. lean at high altitudes. 6. An APU is usually rotated during start by
b. rich at high altitudes. a. A turbine impingement system.
c. rich at high speeds. b. A pneumatic starter.
94. To determine the float level in a float-type carburetor, a c. An electric starter.
measurement is usually made from the top of the fuel in the 7. Generally, when maximum APU shaft output power
float chamber to the is being used in conjunction with pneumatic power
a. parting surface of the carburetor.
a. Pneumatic loading will be automatically
b. top of the float.
c. centerline of the main discharge nozzle. modulated to maintain a safe EGT.
95. The economizer system of a float-type carburetor performs b. Electrical loading will be automatically
which c following functions? modulated to maintain a safe EGT.
a. It supplies and regulates the fuel required for all c. Temperature limits and loads must be carefully
engine speeds. monitored by the operator to maintain a safe
b. It supplies and regulates the additional fuel
EGT.
required for all engine speeds above cruising.
c. It regulates the fuel required for all engine speeds and 8. When necessary, APU engine cooling before
all altitudes. shutdown may be accomplished by
96. Fuel is discharged for idling speeds on a float-type a. Unloading the generator(s).
carburetor b. Closing the bleed air valve.
a. from the idle discharge nozzle. c. Opening the bleed air valve.
b. in the venturi. 9. The function of an APU air inlet plenum is to
c. through the idle discharge air bleed.
a. Increase the velocity of the air before entering
97. The fuel level within the float chamber of a properly
adjusted float-type carburetor will be the compressor.
a. slightly higher than the discharge nozzle outlet. b. Decrease the pressure of the air before entering
b. slightly lower than the discharge nozzle outlet. the compressor.
c. at the same level as the discharge nozzle outlet. c. Stabilize the pressure of the air before it
98. What is the purpose of the carburetor accelerating system? enters the compressor.
a. Supply and regulate the fuel required for engine 10. On APU’s equipped with a free turbine and load
speeds above idle.
compressor, the primary function of the load
b. Temporarily enrich the mixture when the throttle
is suddenly opened. compressor is to
c. Supply and regulate additional fuel required for a. Provide air for combustion and cooling in the
engine speeds above cruising. engine gas path.
b. Provide bleed air for aircraft pneumatic
systems.
c. Supply the turning force for operation of the
APU generator(s).
AUXILIARY POWER UNIT

1. Fuel is normally supplied to an APU form

a. Its own independent fuel supply
b. The airplane’s reserve fuel supply
c. The airplane’s main fuel system
2. Fuel scheduling during APU start under varying
pneumatic bleed and electrical loads is maintained
a. Manually through power control lever position.
b. Automatically by the APU fuel control
system.
c. Automatically by an aircraft main engine fuel
control unit.
3. Usually, most of the load placed on an APU occurs
when
a. An electrical load is placed on the generator(s).
b. The bleed air valve is opened.
c. The bleed air valve is closed.
4. When in operation, the speed of an APU
a. Is controlled by a cockpit power lever.