60 Headings

MATCHING HEADINGS
TEST 1
Questions 1-7. Match the following headings (A-H) to the texts (Q1-Q7).
Note: There is one extra heading which you do not need to use.
HEADINGS:
A) Travelling with the family E) A soulmate to travel with
B) My lifelong friend F) People travelling together
C) A favourite activity G) A happy acquaintance
D) Professional care and help H) Numerous functions
Q1.
My five elements to enjoy and value in life are love, food, fashion, entertainment and travel. But one
element that includes the others is travel. With the mention of travel, my eyes glisten and heart begins to
pound. My favourite saying goes: ‘A hopeful heart and an open mind are the best travelling companions’.
During my trips I do my best to follow it. Travelling for me is experiencing and learning.
Q2.
You can’t get lost in an unknown place with Travelling Companion Panorama Camera. It is an optimal
tourist technology. This cuttingedge concept is a device that combines the capabilities of several different
gadgets and aids that out-of-towners often find useful. You can hold this device in one or both hands and
have a clear display in front your eyes. It can help you to map your routs, to discover places of interest and
to record your trip.
Q3.
Those who love to travel, take every opportunity to ride on anything but enjoy the ways and the items at
every stop. The most pleasurable feeling for them is when they have someone with whom they can share
their happiness, with whom they can talk and relax. Nobody wants to be alone in the world and while
enjoying something which one is very fond of like “travelling”, one feels the need of the right kind of
companionship.
Q4.
As John left the wood, a voice called after him, “Hallo, comrade, where are you travelling?” “Into the wide
world,” he replied; “I am going into the wide world also,” replied the stranger; “shall we keep each other
company?” “With all my heart,” he said, and so they went on together. Soon they began to like each other
very much, for they were both good; but John found out that his fellow traveller was much cleverer than
himself. He had travelled all over the world, and could describe almost everything.
Q5.
We have a list of people willing to use vacation time from their job to accompany you on vacation. While
none of our clients may need a doctor or a nurse to get around, all of our travellers enjoy the comfortable
feeling of travelling with a companion who has professional education and experience. You can talk
directly with each companion about your needs while travelling. An experienced travel companion can
solve most problems in advance and handle other challenges as they arise.
Q6.
Like all little girls, I had an obsession with Barbie dolls. Once I was presented with a doll named
Samantha, who had a bright red velvet dress and matching bow in her brown hair. She came with a little
travel coat which, in the words of my mom, made her the perfect travel companion. The doll was
fantastically lovely and cute and I couldn’t part with it. Even growing older while travelling it was always
in my baggage waiting for my company.
Q7.
A Travelling Companion is “a person or persons with whom you have coordinated travel arrangements,
who shares the same accommodations as you and intends to travel with you during the trip”. These are
people you are not related to — those people are usually family members. Usually “Travelling
Companion” means up to six persons whose names appear with yours on the same trip arrangement and
who, during the trip, will accompany you.
YOUR ANSWERS
QUESTIONS Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7
ANSWERS
TEST 2
HEADINGS:
A) Collecting money E) Change of colour
B) Better see once F) American dream
C) An international present G) Piece by piece
D) Size and weight H) Division of labour
Q1.
The Statue of Liberty Enlightening the World was a gift of friendship from the people of France to the
people of the United States and is a universal symbol of freedom and democracy. The Statue of Liberty
was dedicated on October 28, 1886, designated as a National Monument in 1924 and restored for her 100th
birthday on July 4, 1986.
Q2.
Sculptor Frederic Auguste Bartholdi was asked to design the sculpture with the year 1876 in mind for
completion, to commemorate the 100th anniversary of the American Declaration of Independence. The
Statue was a joint effort between America and France and it was agreed upon that the American people
would build the pedestal, and the French people were responsible for the Statue.
Q3.
In America, fund raising for the pedestal was going slowly, so Joseph Pulitzer opened up the editorial
pages of his newspaper “The World” to support the fund raising effort. Pulitzer used his newspaper to
criticize both the rich who didn’t finance the pedestal construction and the middle class who relied on the
wealthy to provide the funds. Pulitzer’s campaign of criticism was successful in motivating the people of
America to donate.
Q4.
The pedestal construction was finished in April of 1886. The Statue was completed in France in July, 1884
and arrived in New York Harbor in June of 1885 on board the French frigate “Isere”
which transported the Statue of Liberty from France to the United States. In transit, the Statue was reduced
to 350 individual parts and packed in 214 boxes.
Q5.
The height of the Statue from her heel to the top of her head is 111 feet, 6 inches and there are 154 steps
from the pedestal to the head of the Statue of Liberty. Another interesting fact is connected with the
Statue’s crown. There are seven rays on her crown, one for each of the seven continents, 9 feet in length
each and weighing as much as 150 pounds.
Q6.
The island, which has been the Statue’s home for more than 120 years, was officially renamed Liberty
Island in 1956. Today this imposing work of art continues to capture the imagination of all who see her,
whether in person or as the subject of countless photographs or artistic renderings.
Q7.
In spite of the fact that nowadays millions of people come to Liberty Island every year, there are some facts
that quite few people know. For example many people think that the Statue has always been green. In fact
is that the copper covering of the Statue of Liberty is 3/32 of an inch thick and the light green color, called
a patina, is the result of natural weathering of the copper.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 3
HEADINGS:
A) The recording process E) Writing a book
B) The name of the book comes to me F) The history of success
C) Trying to set things clear G) The doubts about the project
D) Working for money H) Too expensive for me
Q1.
The history of this book is now quite complicated. So every time I try to tell it I don’t tell it right. And
when finally I tell it right, I’m misunderstood. So the publication of this edition seemed like a good
opportunity to clear up some facts about this book.
Q2.
It started when I was traveling in Austria as a hitch hiker. I didn’t buy a book ‘Europe on Five Dollars a
Day’, because I didn’t have as much money as that for travelling. So I’ve borrowed from someone a very
old copy of the ‘Hitch Hiker’s Guide to Europe’ which suited me well.
Q3.
After I spent a day in Innsbruck, I went out into the countryside and lay down in the field. The stars came
out and I thought, it might be good if someone would write a ‘Hitchhiker’s Guide to the Galaxy’ as well.
That’s how the idea of this book was born.
Q4.
Then I was addressed by someone from BBC with an idea of making the radio series on science fiction.
And that’s when the idea of this book popped up again in my mind. I think that the BBC’s officials
hesitated a lot about this project but they had little choice for it has been started already.
Q5.
When the script was ready, we started the recording. Sometimes we were working with the sound
engineers for weeks to produce a single sound effect. Everyone complained that we are stealing their studio
time and this was absolutely true. The budget of the series has grown up twice by that time.
Q6.
In the meantime I was also writing for other radio series and editing the scripts for TV series. Of course it
is very nice to be the author of some radio program and tell your friends that you are on the radio, but on
the other hand that doesn’t bring you a lot of money at once
.
Q7.
The first episode went out on BBC Radio 4 on March 8, 1978. But it seemed to pass unnoticed for there
was no publicity, no discussion in magazines and newspapers. So all we were doing seemed to be
pointless. But then the book “The Hitchhiker’s Guide to the Galaxy” was published in England in
September 1979 and appeared on the Sunday Times best-seller list at number one and just stayed there.
That’s how it has got to be popular.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 4
HEADINGS:
A) Religion meets science E) A three-holiday period
B) Romance for school-leavers F) Spring is coming
C) Legendary or real people G) Magic and merrymaking
D) World-wide celebration H) Road to the future
Q1.
Of all the public holidays in Russia New Year is the first in popularity. Russian New Year traditions
resemble those of the Western Christmas. Another popular family winter holiday is Old New Year which is
New Year according to the Julian Calendar. It ends the New Year holiday cycle which also includes
Christmas.
Q2.
On January 25 the day of Saint Tatiana is celebrated. On this day in 1755 the Russian Empress Elizabeth
signed a decree establishing Moscow State University. So in Russia this day is also the holiday of students.
This day coincides with the end of examinations when students have all the reasons to celebrate. Time for
partying begins for them.
Q3.
One of the folk holidays is Maslenitsa or Butter Week which is celebrated during the eighth week before
Easter by snowball fights, sledding and other activities. In Slavic mythology it is a celebration of the
coming end of winter. The shape of pancakes, which were cooked on this day, was the praise to the sun.
Pancakes are still the most characteristic food of Maslenitsa.
Q4.
The night of Ivan Kupala is celebrated by joyful rituals, songs, bonfires. People believed that the highest
jumper over the bonfire was the luckiest. Mothers used to burn the shirts of their sick children in those
bonfires to put an end to their diseases. Fern was believed to bloom at midnight. No man could pick up this
flower, but if you saw it any wish would come true.
Q5.
The Russian analogue of Valentine’s Day is Peter and Fevronia Day which takes place on July 8. It
focuses, however, on family love. It is believed that Peter and Fevronia are historical figures. Peter stands
for the Murom prince David Yurievich. The prince married a peasant woman and was buried in the same
grave with his wife.
Q6.
Scarlet Sails tradition which began after World War II is a famous event of the White Nights Festival. It is
associated with a love story told by Alexander Green in the book which has the same title. One can see
ships with scarlet sails navigate along St. Petersburgh’s main waterways. Fireworks and concerts help to
celebrate freedom from “schools and rules” at the end of the school year.
Q7.
Capitulation of Nazi Germany in the Great Patriotic War is celebrated by a parade in Red Square in
Moscow. People all over Russia meet with war veterans, fireworks and outdoor concerts are held. Many
other countries also celebrate this day. For example, a ceremony is now held in London aboard a museum
ship “Belfast”, which played an important role in many important battles.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 5
HEADINGS:
A) Steps to learning English E) Learning is fun
B) Learning naturally F) Grown-ups only
C) Great variety G) A beautiful place for learning
D) Courses worldwide H) Learning through the Internet
Q1.
Kingsway runs English courses for mature, motivated people like you who want to make serious progress
in their English communication skills. All Kingsway students need English for their jobs or for other
professional purposes, which means that even on group courses the lessons will be focused toward adult
needs.
Q2.
To become a fluent English speaker, you must study and master reading, listening, and speaking. At Talk
English, the lessons are structured to give you practice in all three areas at the same time. At first you read
the sentence, then you click on the sentence to listen to it, and finally you can practise speaking by
repeating after the audio file provided by a native English speaker.
Q3.
Delfin English School London is in central London, Zone 1 in charming Bloomsbury Square. Location is
important for most students and Delfin is situated just 1 minute-walk from Holborn Metro/Tube Station or
7 minutes’ walk from Russell Square or Tottenham Court Road Metro Stations. Bloomsbury Square is a
perfect spot to have lunch and relax after class and creates a great view from all of the classrooms.
Q4.
Our English course allows you to learn as if you were living abroad. Our programme is arranged around
144 units based on a series of films. You will begin to speak and write in a relaxed, enjoyable way. You
will start speaking spontaneously by actively participating in real-life situations.
Q5.
Our specially designed courses are for those who are looking to improve their proficiency in English. Do
you want to improve your overall communication? Are you planning to take an English exam? Or do you
simply want to develop your spoken English skills? We have a wide choice of programmes and you will
choose the right course for you. Enrol for the right course and learn from our professional teachers.
Q6.
St. Giles offers you English courses to meet your personal needs, whatever your level or your age. Our
language schools are located around the world. We offer you a complete package ensuring you have
everything you need for a successful and enjoyable period of study. You can choose any place to stay in
that will meet all your needs and budgets. You will have buses running to and from our centres and of
course entertaining activities for students.
Q7.
At Express-English it’s easy to learn English online via Skype, with native English speakers. Our online
English course is based upon convenience and flexibility, as well as the development of close customer
relationships. Participate in the future of online learning, and you’ll quickly see an improvement in your
communication.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 6
HEADINGS:
A) The Renaissance architecture E) Not only a great artist
B) In the shadow F) Culture in stone
C) Pleasing the rich men G) A serious theoretical work
D) Self-taught professionals H) Burnt but reconstructed
Q1.
The profession of an architect does not always get the fame of other artists like painters or sculptors.
People admire the most beautiful works of architecture but seldom know the person who designed them.
Buildings shelter and protect us throughout our lives, yet we never learn the names of those who made our
own living comfortable.
Q2.
Architecture first began to develop as a distinct discipline in Italy during the early Renaissance period.
Until that time the designer of buildings was not a recognized profession like the painter or the sculptor.
There were no schools for those who wished to take up architecture, and the men who made the plans for
churches and palaces were seen as artisans.
Q3.
The first architect who practiced in the way that we know the profession today was Palladio who worked in
the Venetian Republic in the 16th century Italy. He built his career working for the Venetian nobles for
whom he designed villas, palaces and country estates. His place in history as an architect is based on the
beauty of his works and their harmony with the culture of the time.
Q4.
Although known today more for his painting and sculpture, the great Michelangelo was also a talented
architect. Michelangelo’s most famous contribution to architecture is the dome of St. Peter’s Basilica. It
stands as one of the most recognizable landmarks in the world.
Q5.
One of the first Englishmen to call himself “architect” was John Shute. Shute’s origins are unknown, but
he seems to have trained as a painter and was sent to Italy in 1550 by his patron, the Duke of
Northumberland. His book, The First and Chief Grounds of Architecture, was the first work in English on
classical architecture. It lay the foundations of the art and became a respectable source of professional
knowledge.
Q6.
One of the most highly acclaimed English architects in history was Sir Christopher Wren. Wren was a
professor of astronomy at Oxford who came to architecture through his interest in physics and engineering.
He rebuilt 52 churches in the City of London after the Great Fire in 1666, including his masterpiece, St.
Paul’s Cathedral.
Q7.
The world famous American architect Frank Lloyd Wright called architecture “the mother art,” explaining:
“Without architecture civilization has no soul.” Buildings are both a practical necessity and an artistic
expression of a culture. It is to be admitted that architecture is the art we live in.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 7
HEADINGS:
A) Pessimistic predictions E) Sad statistics
B) Western experience F) Strong family — great potential
C) Parents’ carelessness G) Family traditions
D) A perfect example to follow H) A common myth
Q1.
The first thing most Western people notice in the East is the respect everyone has for old people. Elderly
people live with their married children and are important members of the family. They look after the
children, help with cooking, give advice and often rule family life. Living in an extended family has
advantages for everyone: children are taken care of by their loving relatives, and grandparents feel that they
are loved and needed.
Q2.
The nuclear family is a product of the modern West. The family usually consists of mother, father, and two
children. If the mother goes out to work, she must leave them with a child minder (a babysitter). If there is
divorce or separation, the child’s life will change completely. In such families children are likely to grow
up without love and care.
Q3.
The latest evidence of the traditional family’s decline shows that within 12 years the majority of the adult
population will be unmarried. It is for the first time began that those who are divorced, widowed or have
never married have outnumbered married adults. Forecasts suggest that by 2020 the proportion of the
married adult population will fall from about 49 per cent today to 45 per cent.
Q4.
One of the wrong things said about family life in North America is that there is too little friendship
between family members. It’s true that relatives may seldom see each other, but most American families
are very friendly. Almost any American kid can say his family is very important to him. American families
have different ways of showing their love for their members. The whole family reunites to celebrate
Christmas or Thanksgiving how far from each other they may live.
Q5.
Sociologists say that two in every five marriages now are expected to fail. The number of first marriages is
at its lowest level and it has halved in fewer than 30 years. These figures have profound social and
economic consequences for families. Educators warn that it is children who suffer more when their
peaceful lives get absolutely ruined down.
Q6.
Pressures on the modern family may have a lot to do with learning difficulties teachers are seeing in
classrooms. The strong family remains the best place to bring up children to become creative and engaged
persons. Not only parental separation but fear of possible separation has a huge effect on children. This fear
interferes with the children’s classroom activities and their social behavior.
Q7.
Modern parents are still ready to make sacrifices for their children. However, their busy lives are a major
factor in a culture that is less and less child-friendly. Working parents need a lot of thought and creativity
to find time for their children. Parents mainly think about providing economically for children, and are not
attentive enough to their children’s vital emotional needs.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 8
HEADINGS:
A) Reading for pleasure E) Eat healthily
B) Developing new skills F) Аn adventure
C) Nothing you have done before G) Ideas to spend a Long Holiday
D) Cooking for others H) Fresh air benefits
Q1.
So it’s nearly the end of term. If you haven’t planned anything yet, here is a survival guide to help you.
This article will provide all the information how to spend a perfect summerbreak!
Q2.
Go and tell your parents you will make something for them and your siblings in the kitchen. They will
thank you for cooking for them. Try to cook something that they like or just have a try! It will be fun.
Q3.
This is a perfect way to relax. Go take a book outside and read it in the shade. May I suggest you “Pride
and the Prejudice”? If you don’t like such books get a science fiction.
Q4.
Don’t sit around and eat all your chips or chocolate. Try to eat fruit, vegetables and protein for most of
your meals. If you can’t live without eating something sweet then have one or 2 in the afternoon.
Q5.
Use your free time to dive into creating something. If you are interested in music, then try making some
new music. If you love writing, then try making an article on WikiHow! The possibilities are endless.
Q6.
If you have been thinking of doing something and never have the time to do it, then do it. Do not waste
your time sitting in front of the TV. Broaden your horizons with a brand-new experience.
Q7.
Simple outdoor pleasures are highly recommended. Not only a quick trip out of the house is healthy and
mood-lifting, but also a great opportunity for exercise. If you have been thinking of reducing weight, then
go out and jog, walk or do any outdoor physical activity you enjoy.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 9
HEADINGS:
A) Different from other sports E) Beginning of short track
B) Traditional and new leaders F) Events on the programme
C) Classes for skaters G) Some rules of short track
D) Necessary equipment H) Short track in the Olympics
Q1.
As the close running is dangerous because of collisions and falls, a hard shell helmet is a must. There are
also knee and neck protectors. Some skaters wear goggles to shield their eyes from wind and ice chips.
Skin-tight suits reduce wind resistance. Short track boots lace high up and are heavier to help stabilize the
foot. Blades are very sharp and asymmetrical so as to make turns almost flat to the ice.
Q2.
Primarily short track was dominated by Canada and the USA. The teams from South Korea, China, Japan
joined later, followed by the recent favourites, the Dutch. For a long time Russia could boast of the only
bronze Olympic medal in short track. Since the Sochi Olympics the Russian short track team has seriously
improved.
Q3.
Nowadays sort track includes eight competitions. These are the same for both men and women: 500 m,
1000 m, 1500 m, 3000 m, and the relay — a race between teams, with each team member in turn running
part of the total distance. The last one makes 5000 m for men and 3000 m for women.
Q4.
Short track hasn’t been a Winter Games event for very long. Ice short track was a demonstration sport at
the 15th Winter Olympics, held in Calgary (Canada) in 1988. It was upgraded to a full Olympic sport in
1992 at the Albertville Winter Games and has been part of the Winter Olympics since.
Q5.
Short track is a form of ice speed skating. The races last between 40 seconds and two minutes. The skaters
compete against the clock and against each other. Unlike in long speed skating with two skaters running at
a time, usually between four and six short trackers take part. The rink is the size of an ice hockey rink and
gives a shorter track.
Q6.
The sport originated in the USA and Canada at the beginning of the previous century. Meanwhile it was
gaining popularity in Great Britain, Japan, France, Belgium, and Australia. The countries competed among
themselves some decades before the International Skating Union (ISU) officially launched the sport’s
international competitions in 1970s.
Q7.
Disqualifications in short track are unavoidable for many reasons such as two false starts by a skater or not
wearing the equipment properly. Skaters mustn’t contact each other with hands. Pushing, blocking and
even giving another skater physical assistance is not allowed. Skating outside the designated track is also
forbidden.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 10
HEADINGS:
A) Motives for cruel treatment E) Celebrities as cybervictims
B) All shapes and sizes F) Real-life bullies versus cyberbullies
C) National No Bullying month G) The effects of what they do
D) The way to stop them H) A new way to bully
Q1.
Almost every teen has access to the internet nowadays and most of them have a mobile phone. So it is not
surprising that cyberbullying, or bullying through new technologies, has appeared. Experts now believe
that the sites that kids get bullied on are endless: Instagram, Facebook, Twitter, ask.fm, Snapchat, Vine,
ect.
Q2.
Cyberbullies do not resemble typical bullies, who are often dominant. They may be less dominant which
makes them completely different from real-life bullies. These results prove that online bullies are a
different group of troublemakers. Cyberbullies do not have to be tough to be able to bully. They abuse their
victims hiding behind their computer screens.
Q3.
Even though cyberspace seems perfect for bullying by strangers, many cyberbullies are their victims’
classmates, friends, and schoolmates. Cyberbullies are more often boys, while cybervictims are girls. Even
well-liked celebrities can be targeted by cyberbullies. Tom Daley, the British Olympic diver, was abused
online. His father died during the 2012 Olympic Games and Tom received some very cruel tweets about
this.
Q4.
When the researchers interviewed teenagers on their experiences with cyberbullying, they mentioned
competition between friends and jealousy as common motives. A revenge motive was also among them.
Friends or romantic couples thought of punishing those who had done something to harm them after the
break-up of their relationship. Entertainment and the need for resources were less often mentioned.
Q5.
Cyberbullying is often abuse through emails, instant messages, text messages or other modes of electronic
communication. This includes name-calling, lying about people to spoil their reputation. The bully may
even steal the victim’s password, hack his or her accounts, and send embarrassing messages to others or
make expensive purchases.
Q6.
Anti-bullying activists say: “Never be bullied into silence”. The 21st century online bullying can be
extremely dangerous and damaging to the emotional and physical development of youths because it opens
up its victims to 24-hour humiliation. Until our society recognizes cyberbullying as a serious crime, the
suffering of thousands of silent victims will continue.
Q7.
Cyberbullying happens every day, since teens use the Internet regularly. Only 1 out of 10 victims of
cyberbullying tells a trusted adult or a parent about their abuse. This means that the rest of them silently
suffer from deep depression. A cybervictim usually turns into a different person who starts doing badly at
school. Victims of cyberbullying are 2 to 9 times more likely to consider committing suicide.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 11
HEADINGS:
A) Not extreme any more E) Wear them any way you like
B) Both fashionable and protective F) The most democratic clothes
C) The history of extreme fashion G) For any activity
D) The way to protest H) Living in the world of music
Q1.
They hide baldness and bad haircuts. They’re ‘one size fits all’ and they look good on anybody. They are
baseball caps. They appeared in the USA and became the fashion accessory during the sports-crazy 90s.
But you don’t have to be a sports fan to wear a baseball cap. All kinds of people wear them — from truck
drivers to film stars to housewives. Rappers wear them sideways. School boys wear them backwards. It
doesn’t matter whether you wear them forwards, backwards or sideways. The most important thing is that
baseball caps look cool. They are worn by people of all ages and lifestyles. And still they are as American
as hot dogs and apple pie!
Q2.
Nike trainers first appeared at the 1972 Olympics and quickly became N° 1 footwear all over the world and
not only in the world of sports, though they had to change a lot. During the 90s, the simple trainer was
updated with extra-thick soles. Dance music fans needed comfortable shoes for all-night dancing, but
traditional trainers weren’t fashionable enough. The new thick-soled trainers were both comfortable and
cool. For years we’ve been told that we can run faster, jump higher and play better with the right trainers.
But these days most people who wear trainers are more interested in fashion than sport. Serious trainer fans
may have twenty or thirty pairs.
Q3.
It’s hard to believe that the T-shirt was once just a plain white undergarment. In the early 1900s, they were
worn by sailors in the American navy under the uniforms. Over the next few decades more people began to
wear them, but it was Hollywood that made the T-shirt such a popular thing to wear. In 1951, film
audiences were shocked and impressed by the sight of Marlon Brando’s muscles under his tight T-shirt in
A Streetcar Named Desire. Then, when James Dean wore a T-shirt in the 1955 film Rebel Without a
Cause, T-shirts suddenly became very cool. Young people across America started wearing T-shirts as a
symbol of their own rebellious feelings. Of course, there’s nothing rebellious about wearing a T-shirt now.
People of all ages and from all walks of life wear them. And these days it is OK to wear a T-shirt almost
anywhere and anytime.
Q4.
Early film actors started wearing sunglasses not because they were glamorous, but because their eyes hurt.
The lights used on film sets were extremely bright and could be harmful for their eyes. But when film stars
began wearing their sunglasses in public, they quickly became a must- have fashion accessory. Of course
sunglasses aren’t just a fashion statement. The main reason for wearing sunglasses is still to protect your
eyes against UV radiation. But you don’t have to sacrifice style for safety. The choice of frames and lenses
available these days is huge. So you can protect your eyes and still be the coolest person on the beach.
Q5.
Fashion has always been a controversial issue. Young people express themselves through fashion, and
extreme fashion is a way to rebel. In the 1960s, young people started wearing miniskirts, bell-bottomed
pants and flower patterns. Many young people became hippies, and parents despaired when their teenage
sons grew their hair long. Then came the decade of glamorous fashion with gold and silver pants. Disco-
goers wore high-heeled shoes and boots that were almost impossible to walk in. Punk rock also raised its
ugly head during the 70s. Punks had crazy Mohawk haircuts and wore dirty clothes with holes in them.
They attached pins to their clothes and even inserted them through their cheeks and eyebrows. Punks really
knew how to rebel. Now that we’ve entered the 21st century, you can wear whatever you like!
Q6.
People have different reasons for covering themselves with tattoos, piercings, and other kinds of body art.
Some do it because they want to be different. Others want to be part of the current fashion. Ten years ago,
in the West, only motorcycle riders and sailors had tattoos, and people usually only pierced their earlobes.
Today tattooing is very popular, especially amongst the young. People are piercing just about any area of
skin that can have a hole put in it. Ears are pierced from top to bottom, and rings and pins are inserted into
lips, chins, noses, eyebrows, navels and even tongues. Small tattoos have become almost normal. During
working hours they stay hidden on shoulders, upper arms, hips and ankles, waiting to be shown at a
nightclub or a party.
Q7.
Sony changed the way we listen to music in 1979 when it released the first Walkman. Suddenly we could
listen to our favourite music anywhere we liked. Of course small personal radios had been around for a
long time, but the Walkman was different. As Sony says, ‘it provided listeners a personal soundtrack to
their lives’. Technology has come a long way since the days of the original cassette Walkman. In 1984 the
CD Walkman arrived. The MiniDisc Walkman followed in 1992. Then came the MP3 player, and now we
have the Memory Stick Walkman which weighs an amazing 67 grams.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 12
HEADINGS:
A) Building a home E) Animals’ intelligence
B) Cooperation matters for everybody F) Food signals
C) Danger alarm G) Team life is easier
D) Feeding help H) Team hunters
Q1.
People work together for a simple reason — it makes difficult jobs easier. If you had to move a heavy
piece of furniture from one room to another, would you do it all by yourself or find someone to help you?
As you would probably agree, with a friend you can get the job done more quickly, and neither of you will
be as tired afterwards. For similar reasons, animals also use teamwork. In animal groups, each individual
works to help the group as a whole.
Q2.
Some species have developed intelligent ways of gathering food. Coastal bottlenose dolphins have
developed a unique way of catching fish which requires extraordinary teamwork. The dolphins follow a
school of fish until they are near a bank. Then, they swim towards the fish creating a wave which pushes
the fish out of the water and onto the bank. The dolphins end up half out of the water lying on the bank
where they eat the helpless fish. In order for this to work, each dolphin must rush towards the bank at ex-
actly the same time, otherwise the wave won’t be strong enough. How they decide when to go and who
gives the order is unknown, but a high level of communication definitely exists between them.
Q3.
Animals can’t talk but some species have developed ways of letting others know where food is. For
example, if a bee finds nectar, it has two ways of informing its hive. It may create a trail with the scent of
the nectar. When the other bees pick up the smell, they can follow it to the nectar. Or the bee may perform
the ‘waggle dance’. The other bees understand what this dance means, and then they work as a team to
collect the nectar.
Q4.
Hunting can be difficult and even dangerous for one animal. It also takes a lot of energy to chase and kill
prey, which is wasted if the prey escapes. Hunting in packs helps make predators more efficient. A pack of
wolves, for example, can kill a large animal such as a deer or moose, while one wolf can only kill a small
animal. Wolf packs, which consist of two to twenty wolves, may surprise their prey or pursue it for hours
before attacking. If there are several animals, the pack will choose the weakest one because it will take less
effort to catch. In the end, the wolves share the meat with each other.
Q5.
As well as food, animals need somewhere to live. Some animals simply move into the best place they can find, but
others build a home for themselves. A particularly intelligent builder is the beaver. Beavers live by rivers and
streams and build dams to create pools of deep water which help keep their homes safe. The whole colony about
five to six members, co-operates to create the dam with trees they’ve cut down using their long, sharp front teeth,
then construct their home, which looks like a stick igloo, in side of the bank.
Q6.
Animals also depend on each other to keep safe. For example, they might have a signal that lets the group know
when a threat is nearby. When an ant is crushed it releases a scent called ‘alarm pheromone’ that signals the other
ants to come to the crushed ant and attack the enemy. Larger animals may challenge an opponent using sounds and
body language. Wolves, for example, will growl at anything that is threatening their pack, and get ready to attack.
They also warn each other of danger by barking. Because their pack is so important to their survival, wolves will
even risk their lives to defend it.
Q7.
By living and working in groups, animals increase their chances of surviving in the wild. Each individual in the
group contributes something that helps the others. This could be as simple as communicating where food is. Or it
could be as difficult and dangerous as risking one’s life to protect another member of the group. By studying a
variety of animal group one thing is for sure: teamwork works!
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 13
HEADINGS:
A) Useful hints. E) Who can be the victim?
B) Types of bullying. F) Why are they doing it?
C) A common school problem. G) Bullying can be dangerous.
D) The other side of the coin. H) If you are a bully.
Q1.
Every day thousands of teens wake up afraid to go to school. Bullying is a problem that affects millions of
students, and it has everyone worried, not just the kids on its receiving end. Yet because parents, teachers,
and other adults don’t always see it, they may not understand how extreme bullying can get.
Q2.
Two of the main reasons people are bullied are because of appearance and social status. Bullies pick on the
people they think don’t fit in, maybe because of how they look, how they act (for example, kids who are
shy and withdrawn), their race or religion, or because the bullies think their target may be gay or lesbian.
Q3.
Some bullies attack their targets physically, which can mean anything up to punching or hitting, or even
sexual assault. Others use psychological control or verbal insults to put themselves in charge. For example,
people in popular groups often bully people they think as different by excluding them or gossiping about
them (psychological bullying). They may also tease their targets (verbal bullying). Verbal bullying can also
involve sending cruel texts, messages, or emails which is known as cyberbullying.
Q4.
One of the most painful aspects of bullying is that it is endless. Most people can take one episode of
teasing or name calling. However, when it goes on and on, bullying can put a person in a state of constant
fear. Studies show that people who are permanently abused are at risk for mental health problems, such as
low self-esteem, stress, depression, or anxiety. They may also think about suicide more.
Q5.
Bullies are at risk for problems, too. Bullying is violence, and it often leads to more violent behavior as the
bully grows up. It’s estimated that 1 out of 4 elementary-school bullies will have a criminal record by the
time they are 30. Some teen bullies end up losing friendships as they grow older. Bullies may also fail in
school and not have the career success that other people enjoy.
Q6.
Both guys and girls can be bullies. Many bullies share some common characteristics. They like to dominate
others and are generally focused on themselves. They often have poor social skills and poor social
judgment. Sometimes they have no feelings of sympathy or caring toward other people. They put other
people down to make themselves feel more interesting or powerful. And some bullies act the way they do
because they’ve been hurt by bullies in the past.
Q7.
What can you do to combat bullying? Ignore the bully and walk away. Sooner or later the bully will
probably get bored with trying to bother you. If you’re in a situation where you have to deal with a bully
and you can’t walk away, use humor — it can throw the bully off guard. Don’t use physical force (like
kicking, hitting, or pushing). Not only are you showing your anger, you can never be sure what the bully
will do in response. You are more likely to be hurt and get in to trouble if you use violence against a bully.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 14
HEADINGS:
A) How it all began E) Greedy borrower
B) Different or alike? F) A universal language
C) A way of learning languages G) A special day
D) A world language H) A language teacher
Q1.
Do you know how many people there are who speak English? It’s quite a number! The exact figure is
impossible to tell, but it is around 400 million people. Geographically, English is the most widespread
language on earth, and it is second only to Chinese in the number of people who speak it. It is spoken in the
British Isles, the USA, Australia, New Zealand and much of Canada and South Africa. English is also a
second language of another 300 million people living in more than 60 countries.
Q2.
In Shakespeare’s time only a few million people spoke English. All of them lived in what is now Great
Britain. But as a result of various historical events English spread all over the world. For example, five
hundred years ago people didn’t speak English in North America: the American Indians had their own
languages. So did the Eskimos in Canada, the aborigines in Australia, and the Maoris in New Zealand. The
English arrived and set up their colonies... Today, English is represented in every continent and in the three
main oceans — the Atlantic, the Indian and the Pacific.
Q3.
English is mixing with and marrying other languages around the world. It is probably the greatest
borrower. Words newly created or in fashion in one language are very often added to English as well.
There are words from 120 languages in its vocabulary, including Arabic, French, German, Greek, Italian,
Russian, and Spanish.
Q4.
A century ago, some linguists predicted that one day England, America, Australia and Canada would be
speaking different languages. But with the arrival of records, cinema, radio, and television, the two brands
of English have begun to draw back together again. Britons and Americans probably speak more alike
today than they did 50 or 60 years ago. (In the 1930s and 1940s, for example, American films were dubbed
in England. It’s no longer the practice today.) Canadian English, Australian English, South African
English, and many other ‘Englishes’ around the world are coming to resemble one another.
Q5.
People have long been interested in having one language that could be spoken throughout the world. Such
a language would help to increase cultural and economic ties and make communication between people
easier. Through the years, at least, 600 languages have been proposed, including Esperanto. About 10
million people have learned Esperanto since its creation in 1887, but English, according to specialists, has
better chances to become a global language.
Q6.
For linguists across the continent, the 26th of September is a time of celebration-it is the European Day of
Languages. The aim of the day is to focus on encouraging people to start learning a language. They take
part in events celebrating learning and speaking other languages and consider the benefits that language
learning can bring.
Q7.
The suggestion: “Languages are learned, they are not taught” is very productive. A new term “self-access
work” is not homework, it is class work; another one is do-it-yourself. So, it is the person who learns, the
teacher who only helps, assists, trains learners to be more responsible, motivates, involves everybody into
the learning process, encourages them to speak and promotes discussions.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 15
HEADINGS:
A) Food: eating habits E) Population
B) Entertainment with vegetables F) Time to relax
C) Food: its features G) With nature
D) Entertainment with animals H) Spain as a state
Q1.
A unique food battle festival known as La Tomatina is celebrated in Spain every year on the last
Wednesday of August. It involves thousands of people engaging in a brutal battle, throwing overripe
tomatoes at each other. The festival spans more than a week and although there are many elements to the
festival, such as parades, music, dancing and fireworks, they are all centered on the tomato fight.
Q2.
Spanish cuisine is a heavenly mixture of chicken, mixed vegetables, fish and meats. Many of the most
popular Spanish dishes are a type of Paella, which is a rice dish that features a variety of ingredients. Hot
chocolate and churros are very popular desserts throughout the country. Spain is also famous for its
aromatic wines and other alcoholic beverages like Sangria, Cava and authentic Spanish beer.
Q3.
Spain is very rich with traditions, especially those associated with food. For breakfast, some families buy
fresh churros, pair them with hot chocolate and enjoy a leisurely morning routine. Lunch is another
important meal of the day, and it is usually heavier than breakfast. This is sometimes followed by a siesta,
an afternoon nap to get through post-lunch drowsiness. During this time, shops close and then open again
after two or three hours of rest.
Q4.
Spain is an important resting spot for migratory birds, and a home for many animals. But, unfortunately,
many species of wildlife face threats from habitat loss and pollution. Due to centuries of tree cutting, large
forests are now found only in a few areas in the country. Spain has created many national parks and
refuges, but they cover only about seven percent of the country.
Q5.
Although there is a national parliament, Spain is one of the most decentralized democracies in Europe.
Each of its 17 regions manages its own schools, hospitals, and other public services. The tourist services
industry drives Spain’s economy, but at the same time, since 1986, when Spain joined the European
Community, it has worked to diversify its economy, by building important industries such as mining,
shipbuilding, and textiles.
Q6.
Bullfighting is one of the most famous traditions in Spain. This risky sport evolved from the ancient
Roman gladiator games, with human matadors opposing charging bulls. However, this tradition has lately
become widely debated and younger generations and animal-rights activists protest against bullfighting.
Either way, it remains an iconic part of the country and bullfights take place in many Spanish towns and
cities.
Q7.
La siesta is a well-known aspect of Spanish culture. Seeking to balance work with pleasure, Spaniards have
long practiced this tradition, when students and professionals return to their homes around midday for a big
lunch, followed by a few hours of rest and family time. Many businesses also shut down for a short break.
However, 21st-century big cities move at a faster pace, and don’t take siestas, but many people in smaller
towns and villages still take a siesta each day.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 16
HEADINGS:
A) How people used to treat them E) How they confuse the scientists
B) How they get their food F) When they scare the people
C) Where they live G) How they breed
D) How people start to collect their images H) What endangers them
Q1.
Flamingos are very social and often live in large groups, called colonies, throughout the world. They are
found in both the Eastern and Western hemispheres. The American Flamingo is the only one that lives in
the wild in North America, and on many Caribbean islands such as the Bahamas, Cuba, and Hispaniola. It
also lives in northern South America, the Galapagos Islands, and parts of Mexico.
Q2.
Flamingos fish while walking in shallow water and mud. When a flamingo notices its potential dinner (for
example, shrimp, snails, and plantlike water organisms), it plunges its head into the water, twists its head
upside down, and scoops the fish up using its upper beak like a shovel. Flamingos get their pink coloring
from the carotenoid pigment in their food, which is the same pigment that makes carrots orange.
Q3.
Flamingos build nests that look like mounds of mud along waterways. The parents take turns sitting on the
egg to keep it warm and after about 30 days the egg hatches. Young flamingos are born white, with soft,
downy feathers and a straight bill. Both adult birds look after the newborn flamingo. The young leave the
nest after about five days to join other young flamingos in small groups, returning to their parents for food.
Q4.
Scientists aren’t 100% sure why flamingos stand on one leg, but they have some theories. One theory says
that it is to keep one leg warm. Another idea is that flamingos are drying out one leg at a time. A third
theory states that it helps them deceive their catch, because one leg looks more like a plant than do two.
Whatever the reason, it is truly amazing that these top heavy birds can balance on one leg for hours at a
time.
Q5.
Ancient Egyptians believed that flamingos were the living representation of the god Ra. In the Americas,
the Moche people of ancient Peru worshipped nature and paid a great deal of attention to these birds and
often depicted flamingos in their art. However, Andean miners killed flamingos for their fat, which is
believed to be a remedy for tuberculosis, and in Ancient Rome their tongues were considered a delicacy.
Q6.
Many people have plastic flamingos in their yards as ornaments. This is a fun and inexpensive way to add
some elegance to one’s landscaping. In many parts of the world flamingos are popular collectibles,
appearing in the form of magnets, water globes, and jewelry. They are also said to be an image that people
find to be calming and exciting at the same time. For these purposes people buy millions of plastic
flamingos annually all around the world.
Q7.
Flamingos have been affected in many ways by global warming. One of the biggest concerns is making
nests and laying eggs. Flamingos depend on rainfall to help them mate and without adequate rain they
won’t engage in it. Many researchers find that global warming reduces the chance of rain and can cause
drought in some of the areas where they live. This could mean a significant reduction of offspring in the
years ahead.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 17
HEADINGS:
A) See a snake crawling down E) Lost city
B) Natural wonder F) The really cool place
C) Created to protect G) Go there now
D) Mysterious rocks H) Ancient sculptures
Q1.
Eight thousand feet above sea level, this five-century-old pre-Columbian site was once home to the Incas.
Until American historian Hiram Bingham publicized his findings of the area in a book called “Across
South America,” the mountain-top ruins were widely unknown to anyone living outside of the Urubamba
Valley. Since Spanish colonialists had no idea of Machu Picchu’s existence, Incan architecture and design
of the buildings were preserved.
Q2.
Does the arrangement of the 25-ton sandstone blocks at Stonehenge suggest some sort of spiritual
prediction? No one really knows. Theories about the nearly 5,000-year- old circular stone structure vary.
The most intriguing time to visit Stonehenge is at sunset when a yellow-orange glow can be seen through
the magnificent towers’ arches making some people believe that it was originally a place of healing, while
others think it was used for ancestor worship.
Q3.
The 1,500-year-old pyramids, located near the town of Merida, may be less popular than their equivalents
in Egypt, but they are just as remarkable. Although there are many structures there like the Temple of the
Warriors or the Wall of Skulls, the main attraction is El Castillo, the 78-foot, 91-step central pyramid. The
absolute best time to travel to El Castillo is at sunset when shadows give the illusion that a large serpent is
sliding down the pyramid.
Q4.
The Earth’s southernmost point, Antarctica, is the driest and coldest of the seven continents. For a place
that is 98 per cent covered in one-mile-deep ice, it is hard to imagine why anyone would want to visit it at
all. But there is a strange beauty about Antarctica that is incomparable to anywhere else on the planet.
Anyway, while Antarctica has no permanent residents, there are often up to 5,000 researchers working
there at a time.
Q5.
It is believed that hundreds of years ago the natives of Easter Island carved massive heads out of stone to
honor their ancestors. Today, there are 887 “moai,” as the statues are called, which create a mysterious, yet
intriguing landscape on this Polynesian island, which is a four-and-a-half hour flight from Lima, Peru. The
tallest statue on the island, named Paro, is 33 feet high and weighs 82 tons.
Q6.
North America’s Red Canyon is 277 river miles long, eighteen miles wide, and one mile deep, and if it
doesn’t make your mouth drop with surprise, then you might not be human! Most tourists go there by car
and there are plenty of spots along the way to pull the car over and have a look from the top. You can also
go down into the canyon’s depths and experience the very heart of the canyon by going rafting on the
Colorado River, and even spend the night at a hotel below the rim.
Q7.
Thousands of miles long, the Great Wall of China is the largest cultural object humans have ever built. It
majestically snakes through China, winds around rising and falling hills, twists through an enormous
countryside, and stretches from Shanhaiguan in the east to Lop Lake in the west. However, the wall was
constructed more than 2,000 years ago not to amaze people, but in an attempt to keep out invading tribes
from the north
.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 18
HEADINGS:
A) Good enough for the royal family E) From childhood and on
B) From women to the military F) From movie stars to every woman
C) The company moves overseas G) Changes in cinematography, changes in
D) New products, new leaders make-up
H) New place, new make-up
Q1.
Max Factor is often called the father of modern make-up. The success story started in Max’s early years.
He was born Max Faktorowicz in Lodz, Poland, near the Russian border, around 1877. With 10 children,
his parents could not afford formal education for their children, so at the age of eight Max was placed in an
apprenticeship to a pharmacist. Years of mixing potions for the pharmacy developed his fascination with
cosmetics.
Q2.
Eventually, Max opened his own shop in a suburb of Moscow, selling hand-made cosmetics. “Health and
beauty products” became an important business for him. A traveling theatrical troupe bought and wore
Max’s make-up and wigs while performing for Russian nobility. Soon Max became the official cosmetic
expert for members of the Russian court, the Imperial Grand Opera and the Ballet.
Q3.
In 1904, Max and his family moved to the United States. Max Faktorowicz was now Max Factor, the name
given to him at Ellis Island by immigration officials. Now Max Factor was dreaming of movie actors and
actresses using his products. He moved his family to Los Angeles. In 1914, Max Factor created a make-up
specifically for movie actors that, unlike thick theatrical make-up, would not crack.
Q4.
The development of color film production required the Max Factor company to develop a new line of
products. The existing make-up reflected surrounding colors. As a result of how bad they looked, many
actors and actresses refused to appear in color films. At this time Frank Factor, Max’s son, took the lead
and developed a suitable product. It had a solid cake form and was applied with a damp sponge, which
concealed skin imperfections.
Q5.
Soon actresses and other women working on movies sets were stealing new makeup to use in their personal
lives. Its only disadvantage for everyday use was that it made the skin too dark under regular lights, having
been designed for the powerful lights used in film studios. Frank Factor began developing lighter shades.
In 1937, new “Pan-Cake” make-up was released to the public and it became one of the fastest selling
cosmetic items.
Q6.
After Max Factor’s death, Frank Factor took the name Max Factor, Jr., and expanded the still private
cosmetics firm. The company began development of a smear-proof lipstick which would not fade. A
special machine was constructed to test the formula’s resistance. The result was “Tru-Color” lipstick in six
shades of red. During World War II, Max Factor developed make-up shades for use by the US Marine
Corps in camouflaging faces.
Q7.
Max Factor, Jr., continued his commercially successful developments, such as cream make-up supplied in
stick form. Soon the company offered shampoo for men and its first perfume called “Electrique”. The early
1960s saw the company go public and list its stock on the New York Stock Exchange. This period also saw
the third generation of the Factor family rise to senior positions within the company.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 19
HEADINGS:
A) Varieties of theatres E) Stars for a repertoire
B) A step to a wider variety F) Modern problems
C) Not the least important G) Origin of theatre
D) Theatre and politics H) Ladies enter
Q1.
Modern Western theatre conies in large measure from ancient Greek drama, from which it takes technical
terminology, classification into genres, and many of its themes, stock characters, and plot elements. The
Greeks also developed the concepts of dramatic criticism, acting as a career, and theatre architecture. The
theatre of ancient Greece consisted of three types of drama: tragedy, comedy, and the satyr play.
Q2.
Western theatre developed and expanded considerably under the Romans. The Roman historian Livy wrote
that the Romans first experienced theatre in the 4th century BC. The theatre of ancient Rome was a
thriving and diverse art form, ranging from festival performances of street theatre, nude dancing, and
acrobatics, to the staging of broadly appealing situation comedies, to the high-style, verbally elaborate
tragedies.
Q3.
Theatre took on many different forms in the West between the 15th and 19th centuries, including
commedia dell’arte and melodrama. The general trend was away from the poetic drama of the Greeks and
the Renaissance and toward a more naturalistic prose style of dialogue, especially following the Industrial
Revolution. Theatre today, broadly defined, includes performances of plays and musicals, ballets, operas
and various other forms.
Q4.
The eighteenth century in Britain introduced women to the stage, which would have been extremely
inappropriate before. These women were looked at as celebrities but on the other hand, it was still very
new and revolutionary that they were on the stage and some said they were unladylike and looked down
on. Charles II did not like young men playing the parts of young women, so he asked that women play their
own parts.
Q5.
Theatre took a big pause during 1642 and 1660 in England because of Cromwell’s Interregnum. Theatre
was seen as something sinful and the Puritans tried very hard to drive it out of their society. Because of this
stagnant period, once Charles II came back to the throne in 1660, theatre (among other arts) exploded
because of a lot of influence from France, where Charles was in exile the years previous to his reign.
Q6.
Stagecraft is a term referring to the technical aspects of theatrical, film, and video production. It
includes constructing scenery, hanging and focusing of lighting, design and procurement of
costumes, makeup, props, stage management, and recording and mixing of sound. Considered a
technical rather than an artistic field, it is equally crucial for the practical implementation of a
designer’s artistic idea.
Q7.
While most modern theatre companies rehearse one piece of theatre at a time, perform that piece for a set
“run”, retire the piece, and begin rehearsing a new show, repertory companies rehearse multiple shows at
one time. Repertory theatre generally involves a group of similarly accomplished actors, and relies more on
the reputation of the group than on an individual star actor.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 20
HEADINGS:
A) Travel memories E) Popular hobby
B) Animal lover magazine F) Family magazine
C) Travel to stars G) People and nature
D) Star dreams H) Animals in danger
Q1.
Most people who spend a holiday travelling take a camera with them and photograph anything that
interests them — sights of a city, views of mountains, lakes, waterfalls, men and women, children, ruins of
ancient buildings, and even birds and animals. Later looking through their albums they will remember the
happy time they have had, the islands, countries and cities they have seen.
Q2.
Of course, different people dream of different things. Someone wishes a calm and quiet life; others imagine
their life as a never-ending adventure. The majority dream of something concrete: a villa in some warm
place, an account in a Swiss bank, a splendid car... It’s interesting to know what the dreams of people who
already have all this are. Celebrities, as we know, never hide their unusual hobbies, and often shock us with
their extravagant behaviour.
Q3.
It is Junior Baseball Magazine’s mission to provide information that enhances the youth baseball
experience for the entire family. The player improves his skills and is more successful. The family enjoys
the activity more and shares this precious time in their life. Junior Baseball emphasizes good
sportsmanship, safety, physical fitness and wholesome family values.
Q4.
The seas are in danger. They are filled with poison like industrial, nuclear and chemical waste. The
Mediterranean Sea is already nearly dead; the North Sea is following it. The Aral Sea is on the brink of
extinction. If nothing is done about it, one day nothing will be able to live in the seas. Every ten minutes
one species of animal, plant or insect dies out forever.
Q5.
Lots of people all over the world enjoy collecting stamps. Stamps are like little pictures. Very often they
show the flowers or the trees which grow in this or that country, or they can show different kinds of
transport of the country. Stamps may also have portraits of famous people on them. Some stamps show art
work from the history of the country.
Q6.
“Friend” is the title of my favourite magazine. It consists of 70 pages, with lots of colourful and bright
pictures and provides interesting and useful information for people who love animals. The magazine
includes numerous articles devoted to various topics connected with domestic animals, ways to take care of
them, pet food, animal health and many other topics crucial for any animal lover.
Q7.
People are beginning to realize that environmental problems are not just somebody else’s. Many people
join and support various international organizations and green parties. Human life is the most important,
and polluted air, poisoned water, wastelands, noise, smoke, gas, exhaust all influence not only nature but
people themselves. Everything should be done to improve ecological conditions on our planet.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 21
HEADINGS:
A) Perfect for a quiet holiday E) Perfect for an active holiday
B) Land of nature wonders F) Difficult start
C) Bad for animals G) New perspectives
D) A visit to the zoo H) New rules to follow
Q1.
The mountains of Scotland (we call them the Highlands) are a wild and beautiful part of Europe. A golden
eagle flies over the mountains. A deer walks through the silence of the forest. Salmon and trout swim in the
clean, pure water of the rivers. Some say that not only fish swim in the deep water of Loch Ness. Speak to
the people living by the Loch. Each person has a story of the monster, and some have photographs.
Q2.
Tresco is a beautiful island with no cars, crowds or noise — just flowers, birds, long sandy beaches and the
Tresco Abbey Garden. John and Wendy Pyatt welcome you to the Island Hotel, famous for delicious food,
comfort and brilliant service. You will appreciate superb accommodation, free saunas and the indoor
swimming pool.
Q3.
The Camel and Wildlife Safari is a unique mixture of the traditional and modern. Kenya’s countryside suits
the Safari purposes exceptionally well. Tourists will have a chance to explore the bush country near
Samburu, to travel on a camel back or to sleep out under the stars. Modern safari vehicles are always
available for those who prefer comfort.
Q4.
Arrival can be the hardest part of a trip. It is late, you are road-weary, and everything is new and strange.
You need an affordable place to sleep, something to eat and drink, and probably a way to get around. But
in general, it’s a wonderful trip, full of wonderful and unusual places. Whether it is the first stop on a trip
or the fifth city visited, every traveller feels a little overwhelmed stepping onto a new street in a new city.
Q5.
No zoo has enough money to provide basic habitats or environments for all the species they keep. Most
animals are put in a totally artificial environment, isolated from everything they would meet in their natural
habitat. Many will agree that this isolation is harmful to the most of zoo inhabitants, it can even amount to
cruelty.
Q6.
A new London Zoo Project is a ten-year project to secure the future for the Zoo and for many endangered
animals. The plan has been devised by both animal and business experts to provide world-leading
accommodation for all our animals, to more fully engage and inform people about conservation issues, to
redesign certain aspects of Zoo layout.
Q7.
Leave-no-trace camping is an increasingly popular approach to travel in wilderness areas. As the term
suggests, the goal is for the camper to leave as little impact as possible on the place he is visiting. One of
its mottos is “Take nothing but pictures. Leave nothing but footprints.” Its simplest and most fundamental
rule is: pack it in, pack it out, but it goes beyond that.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 22
HEADINGS:
A) National language E) Geography
B) Freedom of media F) Leisure and sport
C) Customs and traditions G) Modern history
D) Public transport H) Economic outlook
Q1.
Lithuania is situated on the eastern Baltic coast and borders Latvia in the north, the Kaliningrad region of
the Russian Federation and Poland in the southwest, and Belarus in the southwest and east. The
geometrical centre of Europe lies in eastern Lithuania 25km north of its capital Vilnius. The landscape
varies between lowland plains and hilly uplands and has a complex network of rivers.
Q2.
Lithuania has historically been the least developed of the Baltic republics, with a smaller industrial base
and greater dependence on agriculture. Sugar beet, cereals, potatoes and vegetables are the main crops.
Lithuania’s foreign trade has gradually changed during the 1990s, and now the European Union, not
Russia, is its main trading partner.
Q3.
Lithuanian is the mother tongue for 80% of the population. After the country joined the European Union in
2004 this language has become one of the EU official languages. Lithuania has a large number of dialects
for such a small territory, including High Lithuanian and Low Lithuanian.
Q4.
Lithuania offers different opportunities for a nice vacation. You can explore a range of large sand dunes
and pine forests while hiking in the Curonian Spit National Park, take part in some action sports in Nida, a
village that makes a true paradise for sailing, windsurfing, paragliding and kiting, or try out more extreme
sports, such as hot-air ballooning and gliding.
Q5.
Those who are interested in folklore may enjoy their stay in Lithuania in any season of the year. The Mardi
Gras celebrations are held in various Lithuanian cities and small towns at the beginning of February. The
Folklore Festival is held in Vilnius’ Old Town during in May. There you can see craft fairs, taste
traditional dishes, join song and parties and listen to psalms
Q6.
Lithuania’s TV market is dominated by commercial channels. The radio market is similarly competitive.
Lithuania’s media are free and operate independently of the state, and there are no government-owned
newspapers. However, politicians do occasionally attempt to influence editorial policy.
Q7.
In cities and towns there are buses and trolleybuses, which usually run from 05.00 to 23.00, but times do
vary between routes. You can’t pay the fare to the driver in cash but you can buy coupons from him.
Coupons can be also bought at news kiosks before boarding. Minibuses are less crowded but more
expensive.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 23
HEADINGS:
A) Expenses E) Place to stay in
B) Ways of behaviour F) Eating out
C) Nightlife G) National languages
D) Favourite food H) Great outdoors
Q1.
Norway is first of all a land for those who love nature. The breathtaking fjords in the southwest of the
country and Europe’s largest glacier are Norway’s most attractive places, but there are many other reasons
to visit this country in the north of Europe. There are wonderful opportunities to enjoy skiing, fishing and
rock-climbing. Others can take pleasure in the charm of the Norwegian countryside, with its countless
valleys, high mountain lakes and unbelievable views.
Q2.
Many tourists coming to Norway in the summer prefer to stay in a cottage used by northern Norwegian
fishermen during the winter cod-fishing season. Equipped with all the necessary facilities, these cottages
are leased to holidaymakers, providing an attractive form of accommodation. They will often be actually
over the water. Catching your own fish and cooking it on the fire will add a few pleasant moments to your
holiday.
Q3.
Norway has a long history of fishing, although much of the high quality shellfish and other species caught
off the coast are exported. However, fish remains a common dish, along with meat, potatoes and other root
vegetables, although tastes have changed in recent years to involve a wider international choice, including
pizzas and burgers. The most popular traditional hot snack is a form of sausage, sold at numerous outlets.
Q4.
Traditionally entertainment in the country is largely home-based, but this has been changing in recent
years. Most Norwegians tend to go out only on Fridays and Saturdays, the rest of the week being fairly
quiet. This is in no small part due to the high prices of food and drink, and the fact that the working day
starts early. And at weekends, it is normal for the Norwegians to enjoy drinks at home before leaving it as
late as 11.00 p.m.
Q5.
Restaurants tend to be concentrated in city centres, while in recent years the pub culture has been gradually
arriving in Norway. Cities are nowadays well supplied with a wide choice of bars, many of which offer
food that has a lower price compared to the restaurants. Most villages of any size have at least one cafe or
restaurant where it is possible to drink and eat out.
Q6.
Norwegians are generally sincere and polite, though communication doesn’t often come easy — it is
usually up to you to break the ice and establish contact. They can be very direct and rarely say ‘please’,
which may seem rude, but it’s due to the fact that the Norwegian language rarely uses the word. On the
other hand, they say ‘thank you’ for almost everything. They also tend to address people by their first name
even on many formal occasions.
Q7.
Norway is an expensive country. As labour is costly here, anything that can be seen as a ‘service’ will
generally be more expensive than you expect. Transport costs can also be a killer, because the country is
large and distances are long. But there is one good point: Norway has a high quality of tap water. So
buying bottled drinking water is usually unnecessary and this will save your budget.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 24
HEADINGS:
A) Footballers’ diets E) Secret born in the USSR
B) Ideal football shape F) Stress or relaxation
C) Length matters G) Flying fruit
D) Puree instead of pasta H) Referee’s perspective
Q1.
Good footballers must have something in their genes. Scientists have discovered a link between the length
of a footballer’s ring finger and their ability as a player. They compared the ring and index fingers of top
players. Players whose ring fingers were longer compared to their index fingers were more likely to be elite
players. Some of the players found to have long ring fingers are Bryan Robson, Ossie Ardiles, Glenn
Hoddle, Sir Stanley Matthews and Gazza.
Q2.
Fitness training is absolutely necessary for a first-rate football team. Jogging up and down the stadium a
few times is not enough. What footballers really need is a quick start. Footballers can get this ability to
start running very quickly by using a training method called ‘plyometrics’. In the 1960s, athletes in the
Soviet Union used plyometric exercises to improve their results in jumping. Step by step, the method has
become very important for many sports that include sprinting and jumping.
Q3.
In the past, footballers used to have a big fried breakfast — or even a roast dinner — before a football
match. In the new era of professional football, the menu of modern players has been radically reformed.
Arsenal manager, Arsene Wenger, is known for his scientific method of feeding his team. When he first
came to the club in 1996, he at once changed the players’ dinner menus. Sugar, red meat, chips, fried foods
and dairy products were out. Vegetables, fish, chicken and plenty of water were in.
Q4.
French diet specialists heavily criticised the pre-match diet of the England players in Euro ‘96. Their menu
of tomato soup and spaghetti was said to be more likely to produce wind than a win. Potatoes, according to
French scientists, make the best meal on the day of a game. They have glucides, which give the player a lot
of energy. They also include useful vitamins. According to one piece of research, a player should eat 200-
300 grams of mashed potatoes, boiled for 20 minutes, exactly three hours before going to the game.
Q5.
Physics can explain a football wonder — the banana kick. This happens when a ball suddenly changes its
direction at the end of its flight. At a certain speed, the air flowing over a flying ball becomes ‘turbulent’.
This means that the air moves irregularly over the ball. As the ball slows down, the air becomes ‘smooth’
again. This slowdown makes the ball turn dramatically, creating the wonderful ‘banana’ kicks that the
spectators like so much.
Q6.
These days, footballs are made in a design based on the ‘Buckminster Ball’. The American architect
Richard Buckminster Fuller came up with the design when he was trying to find a way for constructing
buildings using a minimum of materials. The ball is a series of geometrical figures, which can be fitted
together to make a round body. The modern football is in fact a Buckminster Ball consisting of 32 pieces.
When they are joined together and filled with air they make a perfect sphere.
Q7.
Research has shown that watching the World Cup is good for our health — even if your team goes out on
penalties. The scientists suggest that a common interest and a nationalistic pride are very important. The
competition makes people less concentrated on their own problems. They are also more patient and can
cope with crises much easier. Watching football can, however, also be disappointing, especially when it
comes to the decisions of referees and officials. Besides, watching penalties can be very nervous.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 25
HEADINGS:
A) Training the mind E) Too fast
B) Welsh roots F) Losing control
C) Quick reaction G) Unexpected prize
D) Chemistry in tennis H) Ads with wings
Q1.
By now Wimbledon has become a popular national festival, together with Ascot and the Cup Final. Many
people in Britain don’t know that tennis was first played in Wales. It was there, in 1873, that Major Walter
Wingfield played a game with the recently invented rubber balls and enjoyed it so much, that he decided to
develop the standards of the game. He published the first book of tennis rules later that year. The first
Wimbledon championship was held a few years later in 1877 and the British Lawn Tennis Association
formed in 1888.
Q2.
Good mental preparation is necessary for professional tennis players. In a long match they can be on the
court for several hours with nobody to talk to. There can be hundreds of stops from the crowd, their
opponent and, especially at Wimbledon, the rain. Players need to practice methods for improving their
concentration and for motivating themselves when the game is going against them. They are often taught to
imagine some situations, such as a tense tie-break. Then they imagine what to do with it.
Q3.
Many players find it impossible to stay calm in the stressful situation of a long tennis match and let their
temper out. John McEnroe was famous for his quarrels with referees. Several players have been given
warnings for throwing the racket or swearing. Some players lose matches they could easily win because
their mind lets them down. Pat Rafter said that he couldn’t breathe in his 2000 Wimbledon final. The stress
of being near the victory can be too much for a person.
Q4.
The power of today’s tennis game is only partly created by the athletes themselves. Much of it comes from
their rackets. New designs mean players can hit the ball with more speed and accuracy than ever before. It
started in the 1970s when the traditional wooden racket was replaced with metal. Since then different
materials have been used. Graphite has made the biggest influence. Now the graphite can be mixed with
materials such as boron and titanium to produce even stronger, and lighter, rackets.
Q5.
Speed isn’t always a good thing. Many fans are complaining that the speed of the game is making tennis
boring to watch. After two years of testing, a new ball has now been invented which could slow down
tennis and make it more exciting to watch. The ball is put together in exactly the same way as the one used
now, but is 6% larger in diameter. The bigger ball gives the receiver 10% more reaction time in which to
return the serve. So the number of aces — serves in a match that the receiver fails to return — will be far
fewer.
Q6.
When Irishman John Boland travelled to Athens for the first modern Olympic Games in 1896, he had no
idea he would return home with the gold medal in tennis. But then, he had no idea he would compete either
— he went to watch the competion. In comparison, today’s Olympic tennis players include some of the
best athletes in the world. They are used to five-star hotels and hundreds of thousands of dollars, but at the
Olympic Games they will stay in the Olympic Village and compete for nothing but a gold medal.
Q7.
The Wimbledon tennis tournament is famous for pigeons that sometimes come flying on to Centre Court
and stop the game. So, producers of a video tennis game designed for PlayStation2 decided to use specially
trained homing pigeons, decorated with the game’s logo. Twenty birds will be spray-painted with the
Virtual Tennis 2 logo and trained to fly in and out of the home of British tennis during the matches of the
Wimbledon championship. The advertising pigeons will go straight for the fans and show their logos to
them.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 26
HEADINGS:
A) Controlling skies E) Blocked roads
B) Lack of safety F) Paid roads
C) Bicycle is faster G) Improving railways
D) Office at home H) Buses instead of cars
Q1.
The world’s first public passenger railway was built in Great Britain in 1826 and ran between the industrial
north-eastern towns of Stockton and Darlington. After 180 years’ experience the British say that their trains
still don’t seem to run efficiently or even safely. On average, about 500 accidents with broken rail tracks
happen in the country every year.
Q2.
The British government is promising to give £33.5 billion to modernise the railways before 2010. Another
£30 billion is to come from the private sector. The main target is to increase safety and speed. For example,
new London-to-Scotland high-speed trains significantly reduce journey times and in 2004 a warning
system was installed throughout the country.
Q3.
Statistics show that only 12% of all journeys made in Britain are by public transport. The remaining 88%
are made by car. Every year British people spend about two weeks travelling to and from work including
nine days in their own cars. But anyone will say this isn’t a quick and easy way to travel. In fact, a journey
from London to Manchester frequently takes seven hours. A cyclist could get there quicker.
Q4.
Every year there are about half a million traffic jams in Britain. That is nearly 10,000 a week. There are
hundreds of big traffic jams every day. According to the forecast, the number of jams will grow by 20 per
cent over the next ten years. Nearly a quarter British people find themselves in a jam every day and 55 per
cent at least once a week.
Q5.
Nowadays many British people take their children to school by car. Twenty years ago, nearly one in three
primary school children made their own way to school. Now only one child in nine makes their own way.
During the school year at 08:50 a.m. one car in five on the roads in any British town is taking children to
school. The solution could be special school buses widely used in the USA.
Q6.
Many scientists hope that new technologies allowing more people to work at home may help with traffic
problems. Fewer people will work from 9 to 5 and travel to and from work during the rush hour. But only
15% of people now want to spend more time working at home. The workplace is, for many people, a place
to meet other people and to talk to them, so they would miss it if they worked from home.
Q7.
In 1903, the Wright brothers made the first aeroplane flight. It only lasted 12 seconds but changed the
world forever. A century later, air travel is no longer a miracle, it is part of everyday life. One billion air
passengers now fly every year — that’s equivalent to a sixth of the world’s population. To make sure
everything runs smoothly, there are special air traffic control centres in each country which watch every
aeroplane.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 27
HEADINGS:
A) Useful Invention E) Verbal Misunderstanding
B) US Younger Generation F) Britain, the World Empire
C) Modern Branch of Industry G) All in One
D) Historical Separation H) Old Enough
Q1.
For 150 years America was a British colony. At that time British and American English were almost
exactly the same. When America won the War of Independence in 1776, it became a free country. The
USA was quickly growing richer, and millions of Europeans came to settle here. They brought new words
and expressions to the language. As a result, English in America began to develop in its own way and
today, there are certain differences in pronunciation, grammar, vocabulary and spelling between American
and British English.
Q2.
Typical American teenagers are in fact very ordinary. They think their teachers make them work too hard,
they love their parents but are sure they don’t understand anything, and their friendships are the most
important things in their lives. Some of them do have a lot of money to spend, but usually they have earned
it themselves. Most young people take jobs while they are in school. They work at movie theatres, fast-
food restaurants, gas stations, and stores to pay for their clothes and entertainment. Maybe this is what
makes them so independent from their parents at such a young age?
Q3.
Is it possible to have one device with the functions of a TV-set, a PC and the Internet? With the advent of
Internet TV it has become a reality. Imagine watching a film on TV and getting information on the actors
in the film at the same time! To enter web-addresses and write e-mails you use a remote control and an on-
screen keyboard or an optional wireless keyboard. By clicking a button, you can also read adverts, ‘chat’
with a friend, plan your holiday and play your favourite video games. And in the future you’ll be able to
change the plot of the film you are watching!
Q4.
When do you stop being a child and become an adult? There are lots of laws about the age when you can
start doing things. In Britain, for example, you can get married at 16, but you cannot get a tattoo until you
are 18. In most American states you can have a driving licence at 17, but you cannot drink until you are 21.
In Russia you can be put in prison when you are 16, but you cannot vote until you are 18. In fact, most
European countries and the US have the same age for voting: 18. Many people, however, think that this is
unfair. They would like to vote at an earlier age.
Q5.
Blue jeans were a by-product of the Gold Rush. The man who invented jeans, Levi Strauss, emigrated from
Germany to San Francisco in 1850. Levi was 20 years old, and he decided to sell clothes to the miners who
were in California in search of gold. When he was told that durable trousers were the most needed item of
clothing, Levi began making jeans of heavy tent canvas. Levi’s jeans were an immediate success. Soon he
switched from canvas to a cotton fabric which came from Nimes, a city in France. The miners called it
‘denim’ and bought a lot of trousers from Strauss.
Q6.
Some fifty years ago people hadn’t even heard of computers, and today we cannot imagine our life without
them. Computer technology is now the fastest-growing industry in the world. The first computer was the
size of a minibus and weighed a ton. Today, its job can be done by a chip the size of a pinhead. And the
revolution is still going on. Very soon we’ll have computers that we’ll wear on our wrists or even in our
glasses and ear-rings. Such wearable computers are now being developed in the USA.
Q7.
Some American words are simply unknown on the other side of the Atlantic, and vice versa. But a lot of
words exist in both variants, and these can cause trouble. British visitors to America are often surprised at
the different meanings that familiar words have acquired there. If an Englishman asks in an American store
for a vest, he will be offered a waistcoat, if he wants to buy a handbag for his wife, he should ask for a
purse, and if she wants to buy a pair of tights, she should ask for pantyhose: tights in America are what
ballet dancers wear.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 28
HEADINGS:
A) Lucky escape E) Ordering in
B) Long journey F) Fast food is unhealthy
C) Good way to meet G) A new way to buy
D) Growing in popularity H) Too much choice
Q1.
When you are tired and don’t want to cook, just pick up the phone. Restaurants are expensive and take
some time and effort to reach if you don’t live in the centre of town. Ordering food for home delivery is
cheap and these days there is a huge choice. Indian and Chinese are the most popular but I prefer to get in a
pizza.
Q2.
A school group on a skiing holiday to Italy narrowly avoided disaster when their coach left the road and
fell eighty meters into a valley. Trees slowed down the falling coach and because of the fresh new snow the
vehicle landed quite softly. Amazingly no one was injured.
Q3.
A teenager from London is making news around the world. On his recent holiday in Australia he set off
without his mobile phone. Experts are amazed that he is still alive after walking for fourteen days,
surviving extreme temperatures and living off the land. However, a lot of Australians are unhappy with
him. The rescue cost is estimated at more than 100,000 dollars.
Q4.
You can buy almost anything, new or second hand, on the internet. On one site you can offer the price you
want to pay for something. Whoever offers the highest price can buy that item. Recently I made the highest
offer for a nearly new pair of skis. However, I only paid half of what they would have cost new in a shop.
Q5.
Making new friends on the internet makes so much sense. You can see someone’s photo and read if they
share your interests and opinions. The important thing is you can spend time getting to know people who
are attractive to you and looking for the same things in life that you are. Still, for personal safety, most sites
recommend that in person you meet initially in a public place like a cafe or a gallery.
Q6.
I like eating out but some restaurants have huge menus. And usually every item sounds mouth watering.
The trouble is I like to read about everything on offer and sometimes waiters wait for me rather than on
me! The other issue is how they can offer so much whilst maintaining quality? I’d rather take one of five
options knowing that each one was brilliant.
Q7.
“Facebook” is a social networking website that has 250 million members and despite lots of criticism by
employers, governments and media, continues to attract thousands of new users daily. In spite of claims of
concerns about privacy, safety and wasting time at work, “Facebook” is one of the most rapidly
establishing phenomena of recent years.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 29
HEADINGS:
A) For parents and friends E) Mobile future
B) Radiation threat F) Mobile booking office
C) Threat for kids G) New language
D) Feeling of safety H) SMS to premier
Q1.
Mobile phones use ‘radio waves’ to send signals. Since the 1920s, scientists have known that radio waves
can cause the heating of the skin and influence the nervous system. But mobile phones don’t produce many
radio waves. Still children should be especially careful about mobile phone use because their nervous
system may be hurt. Children should only use mobiles for short calls
Q2.
It is known that the strength of radio wave radiation decreases with distance. It suggests that hands-free
sets may be effective in avoiding all the dangers of mobile phones. But another study described an increase
in radiation that reached the user of a hands-free set. It says that the cable of the hands-free set acted as an
antenna, directing more radio waves into the user’s ear.
Q3.
Train passengers will soon be able to buy tickets on their mobile phone. Chiltern Railways plans to sell
tickets through mobile phones. The new technology sends a code to a mobile phone in a text message,
which passengers can then scan at the station ticket barrier. It’s hoped the method will make buying tickets
easier for passengers and help fight against queues at stations.
Q4.
Many parents now use mobiles to control their children’s behaviour. It gives parents peace of mind and
makes young people feel protected. Parents say that young people are safer with mobiles than without
them. But, while parents said they liked to call their children on the mobile to actually hear their voice,
young people liked to send text messages to parents.
Q5.
A research showed that those young people who have a mobile feel more independent and often use it to
plan meetings both relatives and peers. In particular, young people often use mobiles to ask their parents if
they can come home later. The study showed that girls more often text parents to let them know they were
safe than boys. They also use text messaging for socializing purposes.
Q6.
It is not only parents who want to connect with young people through mobile technologies. Nowadays
politicians and different organizations look for ways to use text messaging as a channel for communication
with the young. In late 2004, the UK government offered people the opportunity to ‘text Tony’. People
were invited to send a text question to the prime minister to be answered as part of a ‘mobile chat’.
Q7.
The popularity of text messages led to the development of a special system of words or ‘chat speak’. For
example, acronyms, that are words made from the first letters of other words, are often used both in online
chatrooms and text messages sent to your mobile phone. This ‘chat speak’ is very popular with children
who are fast at texting. Parents might be interested to know that ‘PAW’ means ‘parents are watching’!
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 30
HEADINGS:
A) Projects for the near future E) How it started
B) How the space station is arranged F) Space research to improve our life
C) The example of global cooperation G) Training astronauts
D) They cannot have it in orbit H) Visiting space for pleasure
Q1.
The international space station has been in orbit for more than fifteen years. The idea was first introduced
in the agreement on space exploration signed by Russia and the USA. Since then scientists and engineers
from sixteen countries have contributed to the project. Thus, the station can be called the result of
technology from all over the world.
Q2.
Like Rome, the international space station was not built in a day. The space exploration project began with
small manned orbital stations designed by Russian engineers in the 1960s. Later, the bigger modules Salyut
and Mir appeared. They successfully worked in orbit from the 1970s till the 2000s. The space station,
which is currently in orbit, was formed from Zaria and Unity, autonomous space modules, in 1998. It is
regularly used for international space missions.
Q3.
Inside the two modules there is equipment that provides astronauts with atmosphere, energy, and
communications. Also, some radiators, fuel tanks and solar batteries are outside. Special screens protect all
the elements of the station from meteors. The main control area is concentrated in the third, modernized
module. Astronauts and all necessary goods reach the station in space ships.
Q4.
Crews of astronauts carry out different studies and experiments in orbit. They monitor numerous space
objects as well as the atmosphere, volcanoes and water resources of our planet. The results are recorded in
reports that astronauts send to the Earth regularly. Science experiments are done in biology, medicine and
physics. Thanks to space discoveries, scientists and engineers are able to invent new materials, medicines
and technologies for people.
Q5.
It is very important for the astronauts to have regular meals. However, their menu is very specific. All food
is prepared in a special way and stored in vacuum containers. There are also foods that cannot be used in
orbit at all. Bread is one of them. It is banned at the station because bread crumbs are difficult to collect.
The astronauts miss bread very much and nowadays the engineers are designing a space bakery to make a
special type of bread.
Q6.
The international space station is a unique destination for space tourism. Since 2012, eight non-
professional astronauts have visited it to enjoy the amazing views of the Earth. Although this type of travel
costs millions of dollars, the interest to space tourism is constantly growing all over the world. Every new
tourist is selected carefully because the health requirements are rather high. The journey takes ten days,
including the way to and from the station.
Q7.
At present, mass space travel to other planets is a common theme of science fiction films. Meanwhile the
real space exploration scenarios are much more exciting. There are several projects for setting up stations
on the Moon and to build human settlements there. A manned expedition to Mars doesn’t look like a crazy
idea any more. And of course, scientists continue looking for other life in the universe.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 31
HEADINGS:
A) To watch or to play E) A page in history
B) Their English sounds different F) Keeping up the tradition
C) One word — different meanings G) Vitally important for medicine
D) The local health care system H) Named after a famous dance
Q1.
New Zealand is located in the south-western part of the Pacific Ocean. The Maoris, the aboriginal
inhabitants, called their land Aotearoa, which means ‘land of the long white cloud’. It was first discovered
by Europeans in 1642 when a Dutch sailor, Abel Tasman, arrived. However, he had to leave New Zealand
very soon after several sailors from his crew were killed by Maoris. It was not until 1769 that English
Captain James Cook arrived and marked the land on the map.
Q2.
Kiwi is not only a fruit, as many people in the world believe. It is New Zealand’s native flightless bird and
a slang word for a New Zealander. Local people call the fruit kiwifruit. In fact, the kiwifruit is not native to
New Zealand. It’s actually from China, but it was named after the kiwi bird. The kiwifruit earns New
Zealand over a billion dollars a year. New Zealand began exporting the kiwifruit in the 1950s and it is still
very popular on the world market.
Q3.
It started at the English school of Rugby in 1823. A boy by the name of William Webb Willis felt bored
with kicking a soccer ball so he picked it up and ran with it. Actually, he had invented a new game. Today
rugby is the national sport of New Zealand. Rugby is the most popular spectator sport in New Zealand.
Adults and children adore watching it. Meanwhile golf is the most popular participation sport in the
country. It’s the No.l sport for men and the No.2 sport for women, just behind netball.
Q4.
According to the latest data, there are about 600,000 Maori people. The Maori cherish their numerous old
customs. One of the most famous is a greeting ritual called the Powhiri. In it, the aboriginals shake hands,
kiss each other once on the cheek, or do a hongi. This is done by pressing one’s nose and forehead (at the
same time) to another person. The hongi literally means ‘sharing of breath’ and that the other person is no
longer considered a visitor but a part of the community.
Q5.
A famous dessert in New Zealand is the Pavlova, a meringue cake topped with whipped cream and fresh
fruit slices. It was named in honour of the Russian ballerina Anna Pavlova who visited New Zealand in the
1920s. For decades, there has been argument between Australia and New Zealand over where it was
invented. After years of research, it was found that the recipe for the cake is of New Zealand origin.
Q6.
New Zealand inventors have a proud record of creating things the rest of the world really needs. One of the
most important Kiwi inventions in the world of public health is a disposable syringe1. Timaru’s Colin
Murdoch came up with the idea for the disposable syringe, a simple device that has saved millions of lives
and has helped diabetes sufferers around the world. He also thought up the tranquilizer dart gun for use on
animals.
Q7.
New Zealand has three official languages: English, Maori and New Zealand Sign Language. The average
citizen is bilingual. That means most people speak both English and Maori. However, New Zealand
English differs a lot from American, Canadian, Australian and other versions of English. The main
distinguishing characteristic of the New Zealand dialect is that the speakers shorten the words so that they
end in ‘o’, ‘y’ or *ie\ For example, arvo for afternoon or kindy for kindergarten.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 32
HEADINGS:
A) To forgive and forget E) How the holiday got its name
B) How Maslenitsa is celebrated F) Why pancakes are essential at Maslenitsa
C) The recipe for the holiday dish G) It is celebrated not only in Russia
D) Various functions of the holiday H) Tasting competition
Q1.
In the old days Maslenitsa was for remembrance of the dead. But in time, the Russian longing for fun and
entertainment turned the sad holiday into the jolly Maslenitsa with blini — round, yellow and hot as the
sun, sledding and horse sleigh riding, fistfights and chatting with the mother-in-law. The rituals of
Maslenitsa are very unusual and interesting because they combine rituals for the end of winter and
ceremonies for the start of spring, which were to promote a rich harvest.
Q2.
Maslenitsa is one of the nicest holidays in Russia. The word Maslenitsa is derived from masloy which
means butter in Russian. It came from the tradition of baking pancakes (blini). Hot, round, and golden
pancakes look like little suns. It is believed that they help to warm up the frozen earth. In the old days,
pancakes were cooked from buckwheat flour, which gave them a red colour. Those pancakes symbolised
the victory of the sun over the winter cold.
Q3.
The circle has always been considered a holy shape in Russia. According to old beliefs, it protected people
from evil. On Maslenitsa, the Russians made pancakes, decorated the wheels of their carts, and danced the
khorovod (the round folk dance). The aim of all those ceremonies was to please the Sun so that it would be
kinder to people. Nowadays, not everyone remembers about the symbolic meaning of the pancakes, but
everyone enjoys their taste.
Q4.
Nowadays, Maslenitsa lasts for a whole week. It has turned into a fun festival with different folk
entertainments such as sledding, burning scarecrows, bonfire jumping, and eating pancakes. Each day of
the Maslenitsa festival has its name and programme. For example, Tuesday is called zaigrysh (game day).
From that day all sorts of activities started: sleigh riding, folk festivals and puppet shows.
Q5.
For simple, thin pancakes, a dough is prepared from flour, milk, eggs and some salt and sugar. The first
thing you should do is to separate the yolks from the whites. Then stir the yolks with sugar, slowly adding
milk while stirring. Add the salt and the hot, melted butter. Then start adding the flour (very slowly),
stirring the mixture. As the last step, add the stirred whites. Now everything is ready for baking pancakes
on the hot frying pans.
Q6.
And during the last day of Maslenitsa, Russian Jack-straw, the symbol of winter, is burnt. People bid
farewell to winter till the next year. There is another important tradition on Sunday — you have to ask for
forgiveness from all your close relatives and friends. That is why Russians call each other on the phone or
send messages and ask to forgive them for all the bad things they have done during the year.
Q7.
The Russian Orthodox Maslenitsa festival, which marks the end of winter and the beginning of spring, has
its origins in ancient sun worship. Every year since 2009, Russian pianist and producer Olga Balakleets has
organized a week-long celebration of Russian culture around London. By chance or not it coincides with
Maslenitsa. This festival included an impressive series of musical, cinematic and other events, along with a
reception in the House of Commons.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 33
HEADINGS:
A) Activities for all tastes E) On the Red List
B) Geographical features F) Scientific input
C) Unstable and still growing G) The people of the islands
D) In order to protect H) Unique wildlife
Q1.
The Galapagos Islands are situated to the north-west of South America, six thousand kilometers from the
continent. The islands occupy the territory of about forty five thousand square kilometers. They consist of
thirteen main
islands and a great number of smaller ones. The largest island is Isabela. The Galapagos Islands belong to
Ecuador.
Q2.
The relief of the islands is constantly changing because of volcanic activity. In geological terms, the
territory is quite ‘young’. Fields of lava still create rocks and form new islands. That is why the Galapagos
Islands are called ‘a place born of fire’ and the region is still developing. Probably soon it will look
different on the maps.
Q3.
The Galapagos Islands are one of the few places in the world without a native population. The first
documented trip by humans to the Galapagos Islands was in the 16th century. Another theory says that
representatives of ancient Indian cultures had also made journeys there long before. For centuries, the land
remained attractive for pirates. People only settled there on a permanent basis, as official residents, in the
19th century.
Q4.
Due to its rich wildlife, the Galapagos Islands have always been attractive for visitors. Among them was
the famous British scientist, Charles Darwin. He formulated his Theory of Evolution after his observations
of Galapagos’ flora and fauna. Those observations helped him to explain the origin of species in other parts
of the world and describe their evolution. In his memory, the Darwin Research Station was opened in the
Galapagos in the 1950s.
Q5.
The Galapagos are rich in exotic fauna. Most species of birds, the sea lion, the sea iguana and gigantic
tortoises, that live over a hundred years, are not found anywhere else in the world but there. The Galapagos
tortoise can weigh up to 250 kg and tourists come to the islands specially to see them. No wonder that the
tortoise became the symbol of the islands. And the name of Galapagos comes from the Spanish word
‘tortoise’.
Q6.
Tourism in the Galapagos is a fast developing industry. The number of people who come here for diving,
animal watching, and exploring lava tunnels is growing each year. It is obvious that uncontrolled human
activity could spoil the unique natural features. Because of this risk, the islands were declared a national
park and the flow of tourists is limited.
Q7.
The Galapagos Islands offer a kind of vacation and entertainment everyone would find unforgettable.
While parents can enjoy the boat rides and beaches, children would be absolutely happy to see the blue-
footed birds and amazing tortoises or to find out about pirates and hidden treasure. Hotels and sports
facilities are of a high quality, though they are rather expensive.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 34
HEADINGS:
A) Bright and safe E) The symbol of the capital
B) The bus you don’t need to drive F) Watching and learning
C) The story of the name G) They have to be skilled and attentive
D) Special traffic rules for the bus H) A perfect way to see the capital
Q1.
A walking school bus is a group of children walking to school with one or more adults. It can be informal
— when two families take turns in getting their children to school. It also can be a structured and planned
route with meeting points, a timetable and specially trained volunteers. It’s certainly safer for kids who
would otherwise walk alone to school. A walking school bus provides exercise and security.
Q2.
Every day thousands of Londoners use big red buses to move around town. These buses were designed
especially for London, by people who knew what London needed, and they have served their purpose well!
There are hundreds of bus routes all over London. The double-decker bus has become an emblem of
London, just as recognizable as Big Ben or Tower Bridge.
Q3.
Have you ever wondered why school buses are either yellow or orange? Yellow is an attention-grabbing
colour. Scientists have discovered yellow is 1.24 times better for catching our eye than red. People can
detect yellow even from the corner of their eye. Yellow is easier to notice in dim light or bad weather. For
these reasons, school buses in many countries are yellow.
Q4.
Few people know that the word bus is a short form of the Latin word omnibus. A businessman named
Stanislas Baudry started the first horse-drawn omnibus service in the French city of Nantes in 1823. The
first vehicles stopped in front of the hatter’s shop which had a large sign Omnes Omnibus. Soon Nantes
citizens gave the nickname omnibus to the vehicle. The word omnibus means for all in Latin. In 1828,
Baudry launched the omnibus service in Paris too.
Q5.
Moscow, like other touristic cities, has double-decker buses — so called hop-on — hop-off buses. A ticket
for this bus is valid for one or two days. You can get on and off the bus as many times as you like. The
second deck has two parts: an open part, and a closed one. You can enjoy the open part in the warm
weather and the closed part when the weather is not very good. Every passenger is supplied with a free city
map and a free headphone set to listen to the audio guide.
Q6.
The job of a bus driver goes beyond just driving the vehicle! Bus drivers are responsible for the safety of
their passengers, which can sometimes be as many as 100 people! They are responsible for driving their
assigned route and sometimes they have to take fares and answer passengers’ questions. Bus drivers also
check the safety of their vehicle and make sure it has working safety equipment like first aid kits and fire
extinguishers.
Q7.
The Magic School Bus is a Saturday morning animated children’s television series. It is based on the series
of books of the same name by Joanna Cole and Bruce Degen. In each story, elementary school teacher, Ms
Frizzle, and her class of eight pupils board a magic school bus, which takes them on field trips to
impossible locations, such as the solar system, clouds, the past, and inside the human body. The class pet,
Liz, a lizard, accompanies the class on their field trips.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 35
HEADINGS:
A) The Special Day of the Union E) A Big Sports Event
B) Rich in languages F) The Union of Independent States
C) The Aims of the Union G) The Choice of the Former Colony
D) Famous for its Economic Development H) Literary Awards
Q1.
The British Queen is Head of the Commonwealth (or the Commonwealth of Nations). This organization
unites 53 countries, most of which are former British colonies. The countries of the Commonwealth can be
found in Africa, Asia, Europe, in the Caribbean and the Pacific Islands. Thirty-one of the members are
small countries.
Q2.
After the Olympics, the Commonwealth Games is the second largest sports festival in the world. Only
members of the Commonwealth can participate. The Games are held once every four years but only in
between the Olympic years. The first Commonwealth Games were held in 1930 in Hamilton, Canada. In
the Commonwealth Games there are a total of 22 sports and seven para-sports.
Q3.
Jamaica, an island country in the Atlantic Ocean, was the first colony England took by conquest. But it was
also the first Caribbean nation to gain independence. This happened in 1962 but the country chose to
remain a member of the British Commonwealth. Similar to Canada, Queen Elizabeth II remains the Queen
of Jamaica but by tradition only.
Q4.
Singapore is situated in Southeast Asia. It consists of one main island and 63 tiny islands. Most of these
islands are deserted. Singapore is a city, the capital and the state at the same time. It is among the 20
smallest countries in the world. However, in spite of its small size, Singapore is the most highly developed
nation in the Commonwealth.
Q5.
All the countries of the Commonwealth use English as a common language. However, Cyprus recognizes
two official languages: Greek and Turkish. Certainly most locals are able to speak English as the island
was colonized by Britain in 1878 and didn’t get independence until 1960. The other languages spoken in
the country are Armenian, Arabic, French and German.
Q6.
Commonwealth Day is a day of celebration for all the countries of the Commonwealth. It is held on the
second Monday in March every year. Each member of the Commonwealth of Nations celebrates it in its
own unique way. In Great Britain a special service is held in Westminster Abbey in London. It is attended
by the British Monarch as Head of Commonwealth who delivers a speech. The Monarch’s speech is
broadcast throughout the Commonwealth.
Q7.
In 1987, the Commonwealth Foundation set up two prizes for writers: the Commonwealth Book Prize and
the Commonwealth Short Story Prize. The first prize is awarded for the best book published in the previous
year. It should be the writer’s first book. The second prize is given to the best piece of unpublished short
fiction (2000-5000 words).
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 36
HEADINGS:
A) Just to keep the students healthy E) The nominal head of the country
B) The official languages F) Summer alternative to hockey
C) Available only in winter G) A linguistic mistake
D) Wiped from our memory H) The real prototype of a fairytale
character
Q1.
The history of invention in Canada has followed a long and noble path. Canadian inventors have patented
more than one million inventions, which are used by people around the world. They thought up the electric
light bulb, the electric stove, the electric wheelchair, standard time, the modern zipper and the first
snowmobile. Yet few people can remember more than one or two Canadian inventors.
Q2.
The country has two national sports: lacrosse as the country’s national summer sport, and ice hockey as the
national winter sport. While Ice Hockey is Canada’s most widespread sport, Lacrosse is the country’s
official sport. Lacrosse is played with 20 players on a grass field, 10 players on each side. The players use
long-handled lacrosse sticks with a loose net on the head to catch, carry and pass the small rubber ball.
Lacrosse is greatly enjoyed by Canadians and has gained popularity in other countries, too.
Q3.
Basketball is unusual in that it was created by one person. In early December 1891, Dr. James Naismith, a
Canadian physical education professor at McGill University, proposed a dynamic indoor game to keep his
students at a proper level of fitness during the long New England winters. He wrote the basic rules and
nailed a peach basket onto a 3.05 m elevated track. In contrast with modern basketball nets, this peach
basket did not have a hole in the bottom. Nowadays basketball is played all over the world.
Q4.
In the beginning of the 20th century, a black bear cub from Canada named Winnipeg was given to London
Zoo. Soon the bear became one of the most popular attractions at the zoo. Winnie, as she was called in
London, became a favourite of Christopher Robin Milne and inspired his father, A. A. Milne, to write a
book about a bear, named Winnie the Pooh, and his friend, Christopher Robin.
Q5.
Every year, Quebec City has an Ice Hotel. The hotel melts in the summer, but is rebuilt every winter. The
name Ice Hotel isn’t an exaggeration. Everything inside the hotel is made of ice. The hotel’s cafe has tables
and chairs made of ice, and even glasses made of ice. The rooms are like little snow caves, windowless,
with curtains instead of a door. Before spending a night in the Ice Hotel, guests must sit through a special
seminar on how to not get frostbite while they sleep.
Q6.
When Jacques Cartier, a French explorer, came to the New World in the 16th century, he met with local
natives. They invited him and his companions to their kanata (the word for village or settlement in their
language). Cartier misunderstood, and believed the natives were referring to the entire country as Kanata.
So, he named the new country as Kanata. Nowadays we call it Canada.
Q7.
Canada is formally a constitutional monarchy, with the British monarch, Queen Elizabeth II, as the
supreme governor of the state. Canada passed back and forth between French and British monarchs over
the centuries before becoming an independent nation. The queen no longer rules Canada, but she still plays
a significant role in the government and in Canada’s national identity, and appears prominently on
Canadian currency.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 37
HEADINGS:
A) A big problem for a small country E) The influence of Britain
B) At a cultural crossroads F) Unpredictable weather
C) Architectural landmark G) Blended cuisine
D) Attractive to learners of English H) Making movies
Q1.
Malta is one of only a few truly bilingual countries. English language newspapers, books and magazines
are sold everywhere, many TV and radio channels broadcast in English, movies are in English, and much
of the islands’ cultural programme is in English too. This, together with an excellent climate and the option
to combine learning and holidays, makes Malta a popular place for studying English.
Q2.
To learn the history of a country, visit its libraries! But if you want to truly understand its people — try
their food! Lots of Maltese dishes are the result of the long relationship between the inhabitants of the
Malta’s and the many conquerors who occupied the Maltese Islands over the centuries. The island’s food is
an interesting combination of Italian, African and English ingredients.
Q3.
The British ruled Malta for 150 years and independence came only in 1964. Naturally, the Maltese adopted
the British system of administration, education and legislation. Signs of British lifestyle are everywhere:
there are English-style pubs, telephone booths and post boxes. There is even a British-style Labour Party
office on Republic Street — visitors are welcome! The British feel at home in Malta, as cars drive on the
left.
Q4.
In recent years, Malta has become one of Europe’s most popular film and television locations. The Maltese
Islands, their beautiful, unspoiled coastlines and breathtaking architecture have been home to several
blockbusters such as Gladiator, The Count of Monte Cristo, Troy and Munich as well as prestigious dramas
and sitcoms such as the BBC’s Byron and ITV’s Coronation Street, and more recently the TV series Game
of Thrones.
Q5.
Malta is not one island, as most people think, but five. English, which is the official language, is spoken by
almost all Maltese people. Another official language is Maltese, a dialect of Arabic, which is written in the
Latin alphabet. Today, Malta fully understands the importance of its position between Europe and the
Middle East. Besides speaking European languages such as English and Italian, many Maltese also speak
Arabic.
Q6.
Malta has no rivers or lakes. Many rely on rain, which does not come every summer, and causes floods in
winter. If you’re in Malta during the summer months, there’s no need for an umbrella. But come in
October and the islands are flooded with rain. Shortage of water has stimulated the building of special
factories that remove salt from the sea water. Nowadays they provide more than half of the country’s
freshwater needs. Officially, the tap water is safe to drink in Malta, but it tastes awful.
Q7.
The Maltese capital, Valletta, is often called a city built by gentlemen for gentlemen. It was created by the
Knights of Malta and is perhaps Malta’s greatest treasure. Impressive fortifications surround the city to this
day. Valletta is famous for its narrow streets, churches, palaces, museums and baroque buildings.
According to UNESCO, this magnificent city is one of the most concentrated historical areas in the world.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 38
HEADINGS:
A) Having much in common E) A sign of love
B) A trip to the sky F) Aggressive behaviour
C) Different ways of keeping a pet G) An urban legend
D) On government service H) Foods to avoid
Q1.
The first cat in space was a French cat named Felicette. In 1963, France blasted the cat into outer space. It
was a good-natured black-and-white female, just a Paris street cat. She was shot off in a special capsule on
top of a French rocket. She didn’t go into orbit, but in a 15 minute flight travelled 160 km into space. Then
the capsule separated from the rocket and descended by parachute. Electrodes implanted in her brain sent
signals back to the Earth. Felicette survived the journey. Later, the British press called her the “Astrocat”.
Q2.
The Chief Mouser to the Cabinet Office is the title which is given to cats living at 10 Downing Street,
London. Only two cats, Humphrey and Larry, have had this title officially. Larry was an ordinary cat who
lived in the animal shelter Battersea Dogs and Cats Home. He was taken to the Downing Street home, the
residence of the British Prime Minister, in February 2011 to ward off the black rats which had been seen on
the property’s lawn. Larry succeeded in his work and was given the honorary title.
Q3.
The most famous Mayor of London is Dick Whittington, a cloth seller. He became Mayor at least three
times between 1397 and 1419. According to an old story, Dick was a penniless boy who came to London
to make his fortune. After many adventures he succeeded in his business with the help of his cat. A
memorial stone to Whittington and his cat sits on Highgate Hill, where Dick is supposed to have heard the
City’s bells telling him he would be Mayor of London three times. But the true story of Dick Whittington
is a bit different.
Q4.
A lot of cat owners think that when a cat brings a mouse into the house that the cat is either misbehaving or
just being mean. However, it actually is a sign of affection towards its owners. When a cat is happy with its
owners and household, it wants to let you know. Since cats can’t talk, they show us their care and affection
in the only way they know ... which is by bringing us a gift, in this case a mouse.
Q5.
Cats and people have been living together for thousands of years. Nowadays, domestic cats are extremely
popular pets. Maybe it’s because cats and humans share some physiological traits. For instance, a cat’s
brain is more similar to a human brain than a dog’s, the regions of the brain responsible for emotion are
identical in both humans and cats, and cats have A and B blood types, just like people.
Q6.
When you feed your pet, remember that a cat should not be given onions, garlic, green tomatoes, raw
potatoes, chocolate, grapes, and raisins. Though milk is not toxic, it can cause an upset stomach and gas.
Tylenol and aspirin are extremely toxic to cats, as are many common houseplants. Feeding cats dog food or
canned tuna that is for human consumption can make them ill.
Q7.
Although Great Britain and the USA are equal in their love for cats, the cats’ lifestyles are not the same. In
America, cats usually enjoy the benefits of modern life, while in England, they are still mostly kept as they
have been for centuries. America is a huge country, and the majority of cats spend their lives indoors. The
British see this as sad and unnatural, and the majority of cat owners let their cats roam at will, going in and
out of the home via a pet door or ‘cat flap’.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 39
HEADINGS:
A) A matter for dispute E) Transit point
B) Be careful crossing the street F) The underground city
C) Two languages in a tiny country G) Spreading the language
D) The head of state H) The guards of the British property
Q1.
During the 17th and 18th centuries, British navigators sailed across the seas with the aim of extending
Britain’s power and prosperity. They colonised new territories around the world, bringing their language
with them. English was enforced as the official language of the new colonies, but often words from the
local languages started to trickle into the English of the colonisers. This occurred most frequently where an
equivalent word did not exist in English.
Q2.
Gibraltar, colloquially known as The Rock, (or simply Gib), is an overseas territory of the United Kingdom
sitting at the entrance of the Mediterranean Sea. The very small country is less than 7 square kilometres. It
is bordered by Spain to the north, so the people of Gibraltar, who are British citizens, are naturally
bilingual in English and Spanish. However, Gibraltar’s only official language is English.
Q3.
The Gibraltar is of great strategic importance as it lies on the narrow stretch of water between Europe and
Africa right at the point where the Mediterranean joins the Atlantic Ocean. The British recognised this and
made Gibraltar a colony in 1713. Today, it is the only British possession in the Mediterranean. British
possession of Gibraltar is a sore point with Spain, which borders it. But, as the Spanish say, “Whenever we
talk about Gibraltar, the British talk about the weather or tea.”
Q4.
The Strait of Gibraltar is the narrowest crossing point for birds migrating to and from Europe and Africa.
The Rock offers favourable bird watching opportunities. In autumn, thousands of migrating birds stop off
on their way between their breeding grounds in northern Europe and their wintering areas in Africa. In
spring, they stop there again to feed before continuing their journeys to Western Europe, journeys that may
take them as far as Greenland or Russia.
Q5.
Tiny Gibraltar is most famous for its “apes” — tailless monkeys! There are about 160 monkeys living in
Gibraltar, in two main areas. They often approach, and sometimes climb onto tourists. Watch out! They are
still wild animals and can bite if frightened or annoyed. Legend states that, if the apes leave Gibraltar,
Gibraltar will cease to be British. Feeding the Gibraltar macaques is punishable by a fine of £ 4,000!
Q6.
Several planes arrive daily in Gibraltar from Europe and Africa. The airport is famous for the main access
road to Gibraltar from Spain called Winston Churchill Avenue, which crosses the runway and closes for
each arrival and departure of the planes. When a plane is using the airport runway, cars and pedestrians
have to wait on either side, rather like a railway crossing! It is often ranked as one of the most dangerous
airports in the world, but actually has an excellent safety record.
Q7.
In 1940, Britain was at war with Germany and Italy and the future looked gloomy for Gibraltar as the
enemy surrounded it. The British military leaders believed that an attack on Gibraltar would be fatal for it.
They decided to construct a 32 mile-long network of tunnels, to build a fortress inside a fortress, a city
within a city. In May 2005 the World War II Tunnels were opened to the general public. Now anyone can
walk through this amazing testament to the soldiers and civilians who worked hard inside the Rock during
the War.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 40
HEADINGS:
A) Pupils were put into groups to listen to E) The experiment suggests that the children
different things. did not listen to Mozart.
B) The experiment could lead to new F) Listening to Mozart seemed to improve
methods of teaching. mental ability.
C) Pupils doing best had probably liked G) Those listening to pop music did best on
what they had heard. the test.
D) It was thought that difficult music made H) The effect of music on people may be
the brain work better. different according to age.
Q1.
The idea was put forward as a scientific study by Dr Sue Hallam of the lnstitute of Education, London, to
follow up work in California which suggested that listening to music by Mozart for ten minutes had a
direct effect on people's ability to work out problems.
Q2.
The Megalab experiment took place at eleven o'clock one Thursday morning. School children were split at
random into three separate groups: one listening to Mozart, one to a pop group and one to a conversation in
which Dr Hallam discussed Megalab.
Q3.
The children were then given problem-solving tasks. The group which had listened to the discussion scored
52 per cent, those who had listened to Mozart also scored 52 per cent, but those who had listened to the
pop group scored 56 per cent. Dr Hallam said the result is interesting and 'approaching significance'.
Q4.
She thought that the reason was not due to the 'Mozart effect' but because the mood of the children had
changed, so they were more aroused and tried harder. 'They were probably enjoying it and so they were
well motivated,' she said. 'The others were probably uninterested or not particularly inspired by Mozart or
by the discussion.'
Q5.
Dr Frances Rauscher, of the Centre for the Neurobiology of Learning and Memory in Berkeley, California,
had suggested that students would do better after listening to Mozart because his music is complex and
stimulates particular activity in the brain.
Q6.
However, Dr Hallam did not Californian idea, because they were performed on adults, who music
differently. dismiss the experiments may process
Q7.
The Minister for Science said, 'lf the results are conclusive, we could see a whole new approach in the
future to the way pupils are taught in school.'
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 41
HEADINGS:
A) Cultural activities E) Financial assistance
B) Exchange programs F) Special consideration
C) Formal means of assessments G) Identification
D) Getting around the campus H) Essay writing
Q1.
For many courses in the University, the majority of your marks will be based on your written work. It is
essential that you develop your skills as a writer for the different disciplines in which you study. Most
departments offer advice and guidelines on how to present your written assignments. But you should be
aware that the requirements may vary from one department to another.
Q2.
There are two formal examination periods each year: first semester period beginning in June and the
second period beginning in November. Additionally, individual departments may examine at other times
and by various methods such as ‘take-home’ exams, assignments, orally, practical work and so on.
Q3.
If you feel your performance in an examination has been adversely affected by illness or misadventure, you
should talk to the course Coordinator in your department and complete the appropriate form. Each case is
considered on its own merits.
Q4.
The University has arrangements with colleges throughout the United States, Canada, Europe and Asia.
The schemes are open to undergraduate and postgraduate students and allow you to complete a semester or
a year of your study overseas. The results you gain are credited towards your degree at the University. This
offers an exciting and challenging way of broadening your horizons as well as enriching your academic
experience in a different environment and culture.
Q5.
Youth Allowance may be available to full-time students. Reimbursement of travel costs may also be
available in some cases. Postgraduate research funds are offered for full-time study towards Masters by
Research or PhD degrees. These are competitive and the closing date for applications is 31 October in the
year prior to the one for which the funds are sought.
Q6.
Your student card, obtained on completion of enrollment, is proof that you are enrolled. Please take special
care of it and carry it with you when you are at the University. You may be asked to show it to staff at any
time. This card is also your discount card and access card for the Students’ Union as well as allowing you
access to the library.
Q7.
The University provides opportunities for a wide range of activities, from the production of films and
plays, to concerts and magazines, and even art and photo exhibitions. If you have a creative idea in mind,
pick up a form from ACCESS on Level 3 of the College Wandsworth Building and fill it through. All the
ideas will be considered.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 42
HEADINGS:
A) Dancing helps to overcome difficulties E) Hip-Hop movement
B) Boy’s talents F) Senseless Life
C) Youth’s life in Bronx G) Youth’s hobbies in Belafonte’s film
D) Popularity of breakdance H) Personal view of the film
Q1.
These three young men belong to ‘Hip-Hop’. This movement developed during the seventies in the USA,
especially in the New York Bronx. It includes rap-songs, graffiti paintings as well as breakdance. For
young boys and girls this movement is becoming more and more a kind of expression. They see it as a way
to achieve something. Here they can express their longing for admiration, their desires and their
disappointments.
Q2.
For too many young people in the USA - especially those living in slums such as the New York Bronx -
life seems to be without sense. “Only living people are able to cry. People murder people. A world without
sense.” This is their reaction sung in a rap-song.
Q3.
The film isn’t a copy of usual breakdance films. Belafonte shows more. He shows the life of youth in the
Bronx and their thrilling joy of life. And he demonstrates breakdance in nearly acrobatic pictures. Little
Lee, whose feet seem to be of gum when the rhythm of breakdancing not only as a means of earning some
cents. For him it is more than just dancing. In it he expresses his disappointments and his longing for
something better.
Q4.
Those young people - Black and White - create a world of their own - a wild, crazy, colourful world, and
the rhythm of their music is their pulsation. For a short time they forget the cruelty of daily life in a world
without illusions and without pity. The film tries to seize light and darkness of that life.
Q5.
So it is understandable why little Black Lee is breakdancing in the streets of New York, why Ramon - an
unemployed white boy who is painting the white trains of the New York subway - considers himself to be
an artist. And Kenny, who is unemployed, too, as a disc jockey produces his own music, mixing it with the
help of things like dropping watertaps or brushes, thus producing a truly fascinated music. The reaction of
his audience speaks for itself.
Q6.
My first impression was that the problem dealt with is not presented as cliches, everybody gets a lot
background information. In an interview Harry Belafonte said: “I’ve followed break- development
attentively. It is an outcry of a youth we all have forgotten. A shriek of a youth without future in reality,
with true ‘no future’...”
Q7.
Breakdance, graffiti-painting, rap-songs, Hip-Hops... - fascinating words, but what about their background?
What make Black youth in the USA engage in such admittedly impressive hobbies? “Beat Street”, a film
produced by Harry Belafonte, provides some information. There a lot of pros and cons about this film, a lot
of different opinions about it.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 43
HEADINGS:
A) Successful career E) Sharing impressions with a friend
B) Challenging job F) Job offer
C) Preparing for a job interview G) Enjoyable job
D) Personality H) Applying for a job
Q1.
A bright sixteen-or-seventeen-year-old is needed to work on Saturdays from nine till six on our market stall
selling clothes. Our stock consists of a wide range of trousers, jeans and shirts of modem design. No
previous experience is necessary as we provide full training on the job. The main qualities required are an
ability to deal with the customers in a positive and friendly manner.
Q2.
You are a natural optimist. You are happy most of the time and always expect the best. However, you are
often careless and you don’t always work hard enough, because you think everything will be fine.
Remember, nobody is lucky all the time.
Q3.
I was twenty-three when I went to Cosmopolitan as a secretary. I had to do all the usual secretarial jobs
like answering the phone and typing letters. And at eleven o’clock I made the coffee, and I had to clean the
fridge once a month. After a year I began to train as a sub-editor and then got my National Certificate - a
qualification for British journalists. After a time I became features editor on Cosmopolitan. My secretarial
training has been incredibly useful.
Q4.
Find out as much as you can about your prospective employers and the business they are in. Think about
the questions you are most likely to be asked, and at least three questions you would like to ask them.
Don’t only talk about what you hope to get from the firm. Say what you can do for them and all the things
in your previous experience and training that you think will be useful in the new job.
Q5.
I feel I would be suitable for this position because I have good organizational skills, and I greatly enjoy
going out and meeting new people. I have experience of this kind of work. Last summer I was employed
by Imperial Hotels as a tour organizer, and arranged excursions to places of interest. I also worked for
London Life last Christmas, which involved taking groups of tourists around the capital. Please do not
hesitate to contact me if you require any further information. I look forward to hearing from you.
Q6.
At the moment I’m staying at a hotel in Athens and I’m doing quite a lot of sightseeing. You would not
believe it but the job doesn’t seem to be too demanding. Most of the time I deal with bookings and answer
inquiries. But I suppose it’ll be different when the tourist season starts next month. Even now restaurants
are beginning to get busier. Next, I’m moving to the island of Crete, which is where most of the people in
the company live. See you soon.
Q7.
There are Search and Rescue Services all around the coast of Britain. They must be ready to go out at any
time of the day or night and in any weather. Sometimes they must rescue people in the mountains in a
storm at night. It isn’t easy to navigate a helicopter in the dark just a few metres from a mountain. The
crews work on 24 hour shifts, so if a ship sinks or if someone falls down a cliff, Search and Rescue will be
there to help.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 44
HEADINGS:
A) Simulating a natural environment E) Some buildings do not require natural
B) Demands on space and energy are light
reduced F) Developing underground services
C) The plans for future homes G) Homes sold before completion
D) Underground living accommodation H) An underground home is discovered
Q1.
The first anybody knew about Dutchman Franck Siegmund and his family was when workmen tramping
through a field found a narrow steel chimney protruding from the glass. Closer inspection revealed a chink
of sky-light window among the thistles, and when amazed investigators moved down the side of the hill
they came across a pine door complete with leaded diamond glass and a brass knocker set into an
underground building. The Siegmund had managed to live undetected for six years outside the border-town
of Breda, in Holland. There are the latest in a clutch of individualistic homemakers who have burrowed
underground in search of tranquillity.
Q2.
Most have been forced to dismantle their individualistic homes and return to more conventional lifestyles.
But a Dutch-style houses are about to become respectable and chic. The foundations had yet to be dug, but
customers queued up to buy the unusual part-submerged houses, whose back wall consists of a grassy
mound and whose front is a long grass gallery.
Q3.
The Dutch are not the only would-be moles. Growing numbers of Europeans are burrowing below ground
to create houses, offices, discos and shopping malls. It is already proving a way of life in extreme climates;
in winter months in Montreal, Canada, for instance, citizens can escape the cold in an underground
complex complete with shops and even health clinics. In Tokyo builders are planning a massive
underground city to be begun in the next decade, and underground shopping malls are already common in
Japan, where 90 percent of the population is squeezed into 20 percent of the landscape.
Q4.
Building big commercial buildings underground can be a way to avoid threatening a beautiful and
‘environmentally sensitive’ landscape. Indeed many of the buildings which consume most land - such as
cinemas, supermarkets, theatres, warehouses or libraries - have no need to be on the surface since they do
not need windows.
Q5.
There are big advantages too, when it comes to private homes. A development of 194 houses which would
take up 14 hectares of land above ground would occupy 2,7 hectares below it, while the number of roads
would be halved. Under several metres of earth, noise is minimal and insulation is excellent.
Q6.
In the US, where energy-efficient homes became popular after oil crisis of 1973, 10,000 underground
houses have been built. A terrace of five homes, Britain’s first subterranean development, is under way in
Nottinghamshire. Italy’s outstanding example of subterranean architecture is the Olivetti residential centre
in Ivrea. Commissioned by Roberto Olivetti in 1969, it comprises 82 one-bedroomed apartments and 12
maisonettes and forms a house-hotel for Olivetti employees. It is built into a hill and little can be seen from
outside except a glass facade. Patricia Vallecchi, a resident since 1992, says it is little different from living
in a conventional apartment.
Q7.
Not everyone adapts so well, and in Japan scientists at the Shimuzu Corporation have developed ‘space
creation’ systems which mix light, sounds, breezes and scents to stimulate people who spend long periods
below ground. Underground offices in Japan are being equipped with ‘virtual’ windows and mirrors, while
underground departments in the University of Minnesota have periscopes to reflect views and light.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 45
HEADINGS:
A) Odd Hobby E) Divorces in Britain
B) Animal Protection F) Reserved nation?
C) Marriage: Modern View G) Nation of Animal Lovers
D) A National Hobby H) Spoil Your Pet
Q1.
The family in Britain is changing. People get married at a later age and many career-oriented women don’t
want to have children immediately. They prefer to do well at their jobs first and put off having a baby until
their late thirties. However, marriage and the family are still popular. Most people in Britain still get
married and stay together until the end of their lives. The majority of divorced people marry again, and
they sometimes take responsibility for a second family. Relationships within the family are also changing.
Parents treat their children more as equals than they used to.
Q2.
Many visitors who come to Britatin often say that it is very difficult to make friends with British people
because they are cold and reserved. This is not true. What is true is that different cultures have different
ways of showing affection. In many countries (e.g. Spain or Russia) friends often hug and kiss each other
when they get together. In Britain this is not so common. British people are not likely to tell their whole
life story to a complete stranger or even share their problems and worries with a friend. The reason is that
they don’t want to trouble other people with their problems.
Q3.
From going for picnics in the rain to playing cricket, the British do many things that confuse people from
other countries. However, there are some sports and hobbies that confuse even British people themselves.
Perhaps the strangest of them is train spotting. Basically train spotting is collecting trains. But a locomotive
won’t fit in your house or garage, will it? So train spotters simply write down the serial number of every
train they see. They stand for hours at major UK stations sipping tea from their thermos flasks and waiting
for the next train.
Q4.
Like everybody else, British people like doing things outside work. Gardening is a well-known favourite.
As the weather in Britain is relatively mild, British people manage to do gardening almost all the year
round. Sometimes this can be just doing a bit of weeding, and sometimes serious vegetable and fruit
growing. Mowing grass is also very important. Every Sunday morning (except for winter) people come out
to mow their lawns. The British see an unmown lawn not only as a sign of laziness, but also as disrespect
to others (and you can get fined for it as well).
Q5.
It is no secret that British people love their pets to bits and would do anything to make their life happy. But
just how far does this love go? The answer is QUITE far. Today, half of the 24.2 million homes in Great
Britain have a pet. Cats are especially popular because many people who live alone and go to work like
independent pets. There are eight million cats in Britain. Other popular pets are dogs, birds, rabbits, fish,
guinea-pigs and hamsters. But you can also come across such exotic pets as crocodiles, spiders, snakes and
lizards.
Q6.
The British have always loved animals. Great Britain was the first country to create a society to protect
animals in 1824. The society still exists today, and it is called the RSPCA - the Royal Society for the
Prevention of Cruelty to Animals. The RSPCA finds new owners for 96,000 homeless animals every year.
Besides, it organizes different public events and is involved in lots of activities in the sphere of protecting
animals’ rights. The RSPCA also provides charity support to animal shelters.
Q7.
Today’s posh pets need more than good food. They want to be pampered, just like humans. In Britain you
can see an astrologer who will do a special horoscope for your pet. You can take your pet to see a
psychologist. You can buy pet accessories and designer clothes. There are also special accessories designed
to keep your pet fit, such as treadmills for dogs to exercise indoors or orthopaedic beds for dogs that suffer
from a bad back. There is even a pet hotel in Newcastle that offers cats and dogs a gym, a jacuzzi and
watching videos of their owners!
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 46
HEADINGS:
A) Magic and Heroes E) Images on Stone
B) Doing Business F) Stories and Seasons
C) Early Developments G) Personal Record
D) Sounds and Symbols H) From Visual to Sound
Q1.
The earliest stage of writing is called pre-writing or proto-literacy, and depends on direct representation of
objects, rather than representing them with letters or other symbols. Evidence for this stage, in the form of
rock and cave paintings, dates back to about 15,000 years ago, although the exact dates are debatable. This
kind of proto-literate cave painting has been found in Europe, with the best known examples in South-
Western France, but also in Africa and on parts of the American continent. These petrographs (pictures on
rock) show typical scenes of the period, and include representations of people, animals and activities.
Q2.
Why did ancient people put such effort into making them? Various theories have been put forward, but the
most compelling include the idea that the pictures were records of heroic deeds or important events, that
they were part of magical ceremonies, or that they were a form of primitive calendar, recording the changes
in the seasons as they happened. These, then, are all explanations as to why man started to write.
Q3.
A related theory suggests that the need for writing arose thereafter from the transactions and bartering that
went on. In parts of what is now Iraq and Iran, small pieces of fired earth - pottery - have been found which
appear to have been used as tokens to represent bartered objects, much as we use tokens in a casino, or
money, today. Eventually, when the tokens themselves became too numerous to handle easily,
representations of the tokens were inscribed on clay tablets.
Q4.
An early form of writing is the use of pictograms, which are pictures used to communicate. Pictograms
have been found from almost every part of the world and every era of development, and are still in use in
primitive communities nowadays. They represent objects, ideas or concepts* more or less directly. They
tend to be simple in the sense that they are not a complex or full picture, although they are impressively
difficult to interpret to an outsider unfamiliar with their iconography, which tends to be localized and to
differ widely from society to society. They were never intended to be a detailed testimony which could be
interpreted by outsiders, but to serve instead as aide-memoires to the author, rather as we might keep a
diary in a personal shorthand.
Q5.
The first pictograms that we know of are Sumerian in origin, and date to about 8000 BC. They show how
images used to represent concrete objects could be expanded to include abstractions by adding symbols
together, or using associated symbols. One Sumerian pictogram, for example, indicates ‘death’ by
combining the symbols for ‘man’ and ‘winter’, another shows ‘power’ with the symbol for a man with the
hands enlarged.
Q6.
By about 5,000 years ago, Sumerian pictograms had spread to other areas, and the Sumerians had made a
major advance towards modem writing with the development of the rebus principle, which meant that
symbols could be used to indicate sounds. This was done by using a particular symbol not only for the
thing it originally represented, but also for anything which was pronounced in a similar way. So the
pictogram for na (meaning ‘animal’) could also be used to mean ‘old’ (which was also pronounced na).
The specific meaning of the pictogram (whether na meant ‘old’ or ‘animal’) could only be decided through
its context.
Q7.
It is a short step from this to the development of syllabic writing using pictograms, and this next
development took about another half a century. Now the Sumerians would add pictograms to each other, so
that each, representing an individual sound - or syllable - formed part of a larger word. Thus pictograms
representing the syllables he, na and mi (‘mother’, ‘old’, ‘my’) could be put together to form henami or
’grandmother’.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 47
HEADINGS:
A) Learning takes time E) Ear training
B) Use of a tense F) Public speaking
C) Opinion essay G) Listening for note-making
D) Punctuation H) Applying for a job
Q1.
They help the reader to make good of what is being read. The comma is second in importance to the full
stop. The full stop marks a break between sentences, and the comma marks a slightly smaller or shorter
break in the sentence. It tells the reader to pause slightly within the sentence. There are also particular cases
where commas are always used, for example, marking off the items in a list.
Q2.
Choose a topic of interest to the class as a whole. In preparing your speech remember that it is a speech and
not an essay. When you give a speech, it should not sound as though it is being read. Some people make
notes and then address the audience using their notes. Others, though, write out the whole speech but then
read it “dramatically”. In general, the sentences in a speech are shorter than they are in an essay.
Q3.
The use of the present perfect and the past simple can be one of the most difficult things to learn in
English, particularly for Russian speakers. It won’t be possible for you to learn it very quickly. Don’t
worry. Practice the tenses as much as possible whenever you can and little by little you will learn how to
use them properly.
Q4.
The present perfect links the past and the present. It is often used with “just” to describe an action in the
recent past. It is also used for recent actions in the past with a present result, when the evidence is in the
present. It also denotes actions which began in the past and still take place or are happening now. Finally,
we use the present perfect tense to relate experience from the past until now.
Q5.
Use the first paragraph to state your reason for writing. If you are replying to an advertisement you should
mention where you saw it. In the second paragraph draw attention to what makes you a particularly
suitable person for the post. Use present tenses to highlight your present situation and skills. Use the
present perfect to describe relevant recent experience. Use the past tense to describe relevant achievements
in the past. Don’t use informal expressions.
Q6.
The best way of improving is to get as much practice in listening as possible. Some of this may be “real”
English on television and radio. Use your knowledge of the world to help you predict or guess what people
are talking about. Never stop listening too early, because quite a lot of what is said may be repeated. Don’t
worry if you cannot understand every word. We rarely follow everything we hear, even in our own
language.
Q7.
It is important to have a good strong opening if your writing is aimed at persuading people to change their
views. You can start by presenting the opposite point of view to your own, using expressions like “Some
people argue ...” etc. This is usually followed by linking words which serve to introduce the other side of
the argument. You can personalise the argument by using real examples. Group what you want to say into
main topic areas.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 48
HEADINGS:
A) An unexpected preference for modern E) The two roles of museums
items F) Who owns the museum exhibits
B) Two distinct reasons for selection G) Collections for research purposes
C) A lengthy, but necessary task H) The 'global' size of the problem
D) The need to show as much as possible to
visitors
Q1.
When, in 1938, the Smithsonian National Museum of Natural History, in Washington DC, decided it had
run out of space, it began transferring part of its collection from the cramped attic ad basement rooms
where the specimens had been languishing to an out-of-town warehouse. Restoring those speciments to
pristine conditions was a monumental task. One member staff, for example, spent six months doing
nothing but gluing the legs back on the crane flies. But 30 million items and seven years later, the job was
done.
Q2.
At least for the moment. For the Smithsonian owns 130 million plants, animals, rocks and fossils and that
number is growing at 2-3% a year. On an international scale, however, such numbers are not exceptional.
The Natural History Museum in London has 80 million speciments. And the Science Museum has 300,000
objects recording the history of science and technology. Deciding what to do with these huge
accumulations of things is becoming a problem They cannot be thrown away, but only a tiny fraction can
be put on display.
Q3.
The huge, invisible collections behind the scenes at science and natural history museums are the result of
the dual functions of these institutions. On the one hand, they are places for the public to go and look at
things. On the other, they are places of research - and researchers are not interested merely in the big,
showy things that curators like to reveal to the public.
Q4.
The public is often surprised at the Science Museum's interest in recent objects. Neil Brown, the senior
curator for classical physics, says he frequently turns down antique brass and mahogany electrical
instruments on the grounds that they are already have enough of them, but he is happy to receive objects
such as the Atomic domestic coffee maker, and a 114-piece Do-It- Yourself toolkit with canvas case, and a
green beer bottle.
Q5.
Natural history Museums collect for a different reason. Their accumulations are part of attempts to identify
and understand the natural world. Some of the plants and animals they hold are "type speciments". In other
words, they are the standard reference unit, like a reference weight or length, for the species in question.
Other speciments are valuable because of their age. One of the most famous demonstrations of natural
selection in action was made using museum speciments. A study of moths collected over a long period of
time showed that their wings became darker (which made them less visible to birds) as the industrial
revolution made Britain more polluted.
Q6.
Year after year, the value of such collections quietly and valuably increases, as scientists find uses that
would have been unimaginable to those who started them a century or two ago. Genetic analysis,
pharmaceutical development and so on would have been unimaginable to the museum's founders.
Q7.
But as the collections grow older, they grow bigger. Insects may be small, but there are millions of them
and entomologists would like to catalogue every one. And when the reference material is a pair of giraffes
or a blue whale, space becomes a problem. That is why museums such as the Smithsonian are increasingly
forced to turn to out of town storage facilities. But museums that show the public only a small fraction of
their material risk losing the goodwill of governments and the public, which they need to keep running.
Hence, the determination of so many museums is to make their back room collections more widely
available.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 49
HEADINGS:
A) About Jago International E) The Professional Development Unit
B) Training Outside Jago F) Find out More
C) Personal Development G) Routes to Professional Development
D) Achieving the Best H) Why Jago Encourages Personnel
Development
Q1.
Jago International is a by-word for quality in vocational education. From training in the use of the humble
word processor to the highest level of negotiation skills, Jago International will arrange for employers to
gain the most from their employees' abilities, and for employees to make the best of themselves. Jago
International has an unblemished record of achievement after more than 50 years’ work with the world's
largest companies.
Q2.
Jago International is committed to the personal and professional development of its own staff. This is in
keeping with its philosophy of 'Achieving the best, for the best of all possible worlds'. Only if our own staff
are fully-trained and fulfilled can our customers receive the most up-to-date and most effective training for
their own development.
Q3.
Staff are encouraged to pursue both personal and professional qualifications to ensure they fulfil their
potential to the greatest degree. There are a number of ways staff can achieve this with the support of Jago
International. Staff may take any of the wide assortment of training courses administered through our own
Professional Development Unit. Staff may be directed to take outside qualifications from other training
providers where we do not provide these qualifications ourselves. Staff may also wish to take time to
pursue individual training goals and, where appropriate, Jago International will support this.
Q4.
Jago International's Professional Development Unit is housed in our Freemantle headquarters but delivers
courses on-site in each of our regional centres. A monthly schedule of courses available is sent to every
section and department head and is posted on main notice boards and the Jago website. These courses
extend from word processing and spreadsheet use, to staff and project management, to our own MBA
courses run in association with the University of Freemantle. These courses are free to all Jago staff.
Applications should be made through your line supervisor or head of department.
Q5.
It may be appropriate to take courses or qualifications which are not covered in the range offered by our
PDU. Staff arc encouraged to take courses and qualifications with other training organisations with the
agreement of their line supervisor or head of department. Support and funding is available to staff through
the PDU where this is thought appropriate and helpful to the company as a whole. Application forms for
funding can be obtained from Dr Bob Morley, the Director of our PDU, but must be submitted by the
appropriate head of department. Within the last year we have supported staff taking courses in Advanced
Marketing at the University of Freemantle. It is company policy for staff to make some financial
commitment to the courses they take in these circumstances.
Q6.
Staff may also wish to take other courses or training for their own personal development and there are
opportunities for support here too. The PDU has a budget for extraordinary training to provide some help
to staff undertaking training in this category. This is also administered by Dr Morley in the PDU and an
application form should be sought from him. Currently being funded are courses at the Queensland Higher
College in aromatherapy and spiritual cleansing.
Q7.
For a full description of all courses and funding opportunities available to staff through Jago International,
contact Dr Bob Morley on extension 5391 or at the Professional Development Unit at the Headquarters
Building.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 50
HEADINGS:
A) Stages of sleep E) What causes insomnia
B) The purpose of sleep F) Reasons for sleep disorders
C) How to overcome sleep-related problems G) Sleep helps to remain healthy
D) Average amount of sleep H) How some hormone works
Q1.
It is estimated that the average man or woman needs between seven-and-a-half and eight flours' sleep a
night. Some can manage on a lot less. Baroness Thatcher, for example, was reported to be able to get by on
four hours' sleep a night when she was Prime Minister of Britain. Dr Jill Wilkinson, senior lecturer in
psychology at Surrey University states that healthy individuals sleeping less than five hours or even as little
as two hours in every 24 hours are rare, but represent a sizeable minority.
Q2.
The latest beliefs are that the main purposes of sleep are to enable the body to rest and replenish, allowing
time for repairs to take place and for tissue to be regenerated. One supporting piece of evidence for this
rest-and-repair theory is that production of the growth hormone somatotropin, which helps tissue to
regenerate, peaks while we are asleep. Lack of sleep, however, can compromise the immune system,
muddle thinking, cause depression, promote anxiety and encourage irritability.
Q3.
Researchers in San Diego deprived a group of men of sleep between 3am and 7am on just one night, and
found that levels of their bodies' natural defences against viral infections had fallen significantly when
measured the following morning. 'Sleep is essential for our physical and emotional well-being and there are
few aspects of daily living that are not disrupted by the lack of it', says Professor William Regelson of
Virginia University, a specialist in insomnia. 'Because it can seriously undermine the functioning of the
immune system, sufferers are vulnerable to infection.'
Q4.
For many people, lack of sleep is rarely a matter of choice. Some have problems getting to sleep, others
with staying asleep until the morning. Despite popular belief that sleep is one long event, research shows
that, in an average night, there are five stages of sleep and four cycles, during which the sequence of stages
is repeated. In the first light phase, the heart rate and blood pressure go down and the muscles relax. In the
next two stages, sleep gets progressively deeper. In stage four, usually reached after an hour, the slumber is
so deep that, if awoken, the sleeper would be confused and disorientated. It is in this phase that sleep-
walking can occur. In the fifth stage, the rapid eye movement (REM) stage, the heartbeat quickly gets back
to normal levels, brain activity accelerates to daytime heights and above and the eyes move constantly
beneath closed lids. During this stage, the body is almost paralysed. This phase is also the time when we
dream.
Q5.
Sleeping patterns change with age, which is why many people over 60 develop insomnia. In America, that
age group consumes almost half of the sleep medication on the market. One theory for the age-related
change is that it is due to hormonal changes. The temperature rise occurs at daybreak in the young, but at
three or four in the morning in the elderly. Age aside, it is estimated that roughly one in three people suffer
some kind of sleep disturbance. Causes can be anything from pregnancy and stress to alcohol and heart
disease. Smoking is a known handicap to sleep, with one survey showing that ex-smokers got to sleep In
18 minutes rather than their earlier average of 52 minutes.
Q6.
Apart from self-help therapy such as regular exercise, there are psychological treatments, including
relaxation training and therapy aimed at getting rid of pre-sleep worries and anxieties. There is also sleep
reduction therapy, where the aim is to improve sleep quality by strictly regulating the time people go to bed
and when they gel up. Medication is regarded by many as a last resort and often takes the form of sleeping
pills, normally benzodiazepines, which are minor tranquillisers.
Q7.
Professor Regelson advocates the use of melatonin for treating sleep disorders. Melatonin is a naturally
secreted hormone, located in the pineal gland deep inside the brain. The main function of the hormone is to
control the body's biological clock, so we know when to sleep and when to wake. The gland detects light
reaching it through the eye; when there is no light, it secretes the melatonin into the bloodstream, lowering
the body temperature and helping to induce steep, Melatonin pills contain a synthetic version of the
hormone and are commonly used for jet lag as well as for sleep disturbance.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 51
HEADINGS:
A) Fashion magazines E) Fashion houses
B) Fashionable clothes for all F) Personal style
C) Preparation of a collection G) Successful career
D) Conflicting interests H) Fashion as the spirit of an age
Q1.
One of the most famous fashion designers of the 20th century was Gianni Versace. At the age of eighteen,
he began working for his mother and quickly learned the skills of dressmaking and design. By 1982 he was
incredibly famous and had won the first of many awards. His clothes were popular with famous musicians,
such as Elton John and George Michael. He was asked to design costumes for ballets, shows and concerts.
Versace died in 1997, at the age of fifty.
Q2.
The great dressmaking firms are usually directed by outstanding dress designers, such as Schiaparelli,
Balenciaga, Molyneux and Chanel. They are in Paris, London, Rome, Florence and New York, but by far
the most important are French ones. This is because France has nearly always set the fashion in clothes.
Twice a year, in January and July, they present their “collections”, that is, their displays of model clothes,
which suggest the ideas on which fashion will be based in the following spring and autumn.
Q3.
Some months before the show the fabric manufacturers bring their materials to the fashion house, and the
designer makes his selection. At the same time, he makes hundreds of sketches from which new fashion
“lines” will eventually develop. If the original idea proves a success, a “model” is made in materials of
suitable texture and colour. Accessories - hat, gloves, jewellery, etc. - are added. After months of hard
work the “models” are finally ready for presentation.
Q4.
Since the beginning of the 20th century ready-made copies of very expensive and fashionable models have
been sold in shops. Clothing manufacturers developed a method by which simplified versions of a “model”
could be reproduced in large quantities and sold to a much wider market. They employ their own designers
to adapt “models” so that they can be copied and mass-produced in different sizes.
Q5.
If you wish to be not only fashionable but also well dressed, you should bring individuality to your clothes.
Now that fashion has become universal and clothes are mass produced, it is very difficult to avoid
monotony. However, by skilful adaptation and careful selection, you can give a certain individuality to a
general fashion “line”, so that a dress manufactured by the thousands can appear to be just the dress for
you.
Q6.
The future of fashion as art may be endangered by the possibility that new styles will be dictated by
businessmen rather than by dress designers. The latter are creative artists, who are searching for new and
original ideas in fashion which will reflect the mood of the contemporary world. The aim of the
businessman is to please the mass market, which tends to be conservative in its tastes, so they cannot afford
to make a mistake, which often results in dull, lifeless fashion.
Q7.
Fashion does not just depend on one person’s idea of a new line or a different look, but on something much
wider. It expresses a feeling for what is going on in the world around. It is a mirror in which are reflected
the events, ideas and interests of an entire era. Dress designers, the artists of the fashion world, try to
interpret these influences and express them in the fashions they produce.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 52
HEADINGS:
A) New method of research E) New phrases enter dictionary
B) Non-verbal content F) A cooperative research project
C) The first study of spoken language G) Accurate word frequency counts
D) Traditional lexicographical methods H) Alternative expressions provided
Q1.
The compiling of dictionaries has been historically the provenance of studious professorial types - usually
bespectacled - who love to pore over weighty tomes and make pronouncements on the finer nuances of
meaning. They were probably good at crosswords and definitely knew a lot of words, but the image was
always rather dry and dusty. The latest technology is revolutionising the content of dictionaries and the
way they are put together.
Q2.
For the first time, dictionary publishers are incorporating real, spoken English into their data. It gives
lexicographers (people who write dictionaries) access to a more vibrant, up-to-date language which has
never really been studied before. In one project, 150 volunteers each agreed to tie a Walkman recorder to
their waist and leave it running for anything up two weeks. Every conversation they had was recorded.
When the data was collected, the length of tapes was 35 times the depth of the Atlantic Ocean. Teams of
audio typists transcribed the tapes to produce a computerized database of ten million words.
Q3.
This has been the basis - along with an existing written corpus - for the Language Activator dictionary,
described by lexicographer Professor Randolph Quirk as “the book of world has been waiting for.” It
shows advanced foreign learners of English how the language is really used. In the dictionary, key words
such as ‘eat’ are followed by related phrases such as ‘wolf down’ or ‘be a picky eater’, allowing the student
to choose the appropriate phrase.
Q4.
“This kind of research would be impossible without computers,” said Delia Summers, a director of
dictionaries. “It has transformed the way lexicographers work. If you look at the word ‘like’, you may
intuitively think that the first and most frequent meaning is the verb, as in ‘I like swimming’. It is not. It is
the preposition, as in ‘she walked like a duck.” Just because a word or phrase is used doesn’t mean it ends
up in a dictionary. The sifting out process is as vital as ever. But the database does allow lexicographers to
search for a word and find out how frequently it is used - something that could only be guessed at
intuitively before.
Q5.
Researchers have found that written English works in a very different way to spoken English. The phrase
‘say what you like’ literally means ‘feel free to say anything you want’, but in reality it is used, evidence
shows, by someone to prevent the other person voicing disagreement. The phrase ‘it’ is a question of crops
up on database over and over again. It has nothing to do with enquiry, but it’s one of the most frequent
English phrases which has never been in a language learner’s dictionary before: it is now.
Q6.
The spoken Corpus computer shows how inventive and humorous people are when they are using language
by twisting familiar phrases for effect. It also reveals the power of the pauses and noises we use to play for
time, convey emotion, doubt and irony.
Q7.
For the moment, those benefiting most from the Spoken Corpus are foreign learners. “Computers allow
lexicographers to search quickly through more examples of real English,” said Professor Geoffrey Leech of
Lancaster University. “They allow dictionaries to be more accurate and give a feel for how language is
being used.” The spoken Corpus is part of the larger British National Corpus, an initiative carried out by
several groups involved in the production of language learning materials: publishers, universities and the
British Library.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 53
HEADINGS:
A) Harvest E) Breeding
B) Etymology F) Cultivation
C) Toxicity G) Culinary uses
D) Growing indoors H) History
Q1.
The avocado originated in Mexico. The native uncultivated variety is small, with dark black skin, and
contains a large seed. The oldest evidence of avocado use, which dates to around 10000 BC, was found in a
cave in Mexico. The avocado tree also has a long period of cultivation in Central and South America. A
water jar shaped like an avocado, dating to AD 900, was discovered in the pre-Incan city of Chan Chan.
Q2.
The word ‘avocado’ comes from the Spanish ‘aguacate’. Avocados were known by the Aztecs as ‘the
fertility fruit’. In some countries of South America, such as Argentina, Bolivia, Chile, Peru, and Uruguay,
the avocado is known by its Quechua name ‘palta’. The fruit is sometimes called an ‘avocado pear’ or
‘alligator pear’ due to its shape and the rough green skin. It is known as ‘Butter Fruit’ in parts of India.
Q3.
The avocado tree does not tolerate freezing temperatures, and can be grown only in subtropical or tropical
climates. High winds reduce the humidity, dehydrate the flowers, and affect pollination. When even a mild
frost occurs, premature fruit drop may occur. The trees also need well-aerated soils, ideally more than 1 m
deep. These soil and climate conditions are available only in a few areas of the world..
Q4.
An average avocado tree produces about 500 avocados annually. Commercial orchards produce an average
of seven tonnes per hectare each year, with some orchards achieving 20 tonnes per hectare. The avocado is
a climacteric fruit, which means it matures on the tree, but ripens off the tree. Avocados used in commerce
are picked hard and green and kept in coolers until they reach their final destination.
Q5.
Avocados are often grown from pits. This is done by removing the pit from a ripe, unrefrigerated avocado.
The pit is placed in a jar or vase with tepid water. In four to six weeks, it should split and out should come
roots and a sprout. Once the stem has grown a few inches, it is placed in a pot with soil. It should be
watered every few days. Avocados have been known to grow large, so owners must be ready to repot the
plant several times.
Q6.
The fruit is not sweet, but fatty, and distinctly yet subtly flavoured. It is used in both savoury and sweet
dishes, though in many countries not for both. The avocado is very popular in vegetarian cuisine as
substitute for meats because of its high fat content. Generally, avocado is served raw, though some
cultivars can be cooked for a short time without becoming bitter. Avocados are also used to make salads.
Q7.
Avocado leaves, bark, skin, or pit are documented to be harmful to animals. Cats, dogs, cattle, and horses
can be severely harmed or even killed when they consume them. Avocado leaves contain a fatty acid
derivative, persin, which in sufficient quantity can cause equine colic and, without veterinary treatment,
death. Birds also seem to be particularly sensitive to this compound. Negative effects in humans seem to be
primarily in allergic individuals.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 54
HEADINGS:
A) Last minute offer E) Educational tour
B) Best catches without mistakes F) Green travel
C) Package holiday G) Mountain adventure
D) A holiday for independent travellers H) Underwater exploration
Q1.
La Baume is a holiday camping site that caters for tents and caravans. It is divided into two main areas,
each with their own pool area and facilities. They are a short walk apart so it is easy to enjoy the benefits of
both. La Baume also boasts a small gift shop, a swimwear shop and a supermarket, which offers most of
the goods you would expect from a local convenience store.
Q2.
Explore the UK and Ireland knowing your guides care as deeply about the environment as they do that you
have a blast! SHAMROCKER and HAGGIS specialize in authentic tours of Ireland and Scotland. Locals
run the companies with the goal of showing you the best of their lands while making as little negative
impact as possible.
Q3.
Here’s yet another great deal for an Alaska cruise. You’ll begin your adventure in Vancouver and call in
the ports of Ketchikan and Skagway before disembarking in Seward. If you thought that being able to
afford a dream cruise to Alaska was out of reach, think again. Check out this seven-night cruise that starts
at only $349 per person, but you have to jump on it fast since the sailing date’s just days away.
Q4.
Let us pick you up from selected locations for your day out at the Kennedy Space Centre! Listen to expert
narration from our knowledgeable guides as we stop to get a bird’s eye view of the Space Shuttle launch
pads. See other shows and exhibits at the Visitor Complex, including a chance to meet a real astronaut at
the Astronaut Encounter Show. Try your hand at a mission control console and take a virtual moonwalk
before returning home!
Q5.
A dive vacation is much more than someone handing you a tank, transporting you to a dive site and saying,
‘Have Fun’. Divers want much more. Today, Aggressor Fleet yachts span the globe in twelve different
countries and the list of exotic destinations keeps growing. The yachts have got private staterooms, an
onboard chef and a slide film processing lab — amenities that were unheard of on recreational dive boats.
Q6.
Experience the centuries old Inca Trail trek, the most famous of Peru hiking tours. If you seek to explore
the culture, history, and grandeur of the Peruvian Andes, this trip is for you. From the well preserved ruins
of Machu Picchu to lush cloud forests and snow covered peaks, this ten-day tour promises the ultimate
experience in Peru adventure travel. Whatever itinerary you choose, this vacation is sure to meet your
wildest expectations.
Q7.
It is not just the spring that offers great fishing. These Boundary Waters lakes and rivers offer excellent
fishing opportunities all season long. Our guides live for fishing these waters and will help you eliminate
hours of trial and error on the water. They are there to put you on the fish! Not to mention the addition of a
camp cook. Wake in the morning to the smell of fresh brewed coffee and breakfast cooking on the fire.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 55
HEADINGS:
A) Head-and-heart listening E) Balanced communication
B) Clear responsibilities F) Caring and appreciation
C) Family discussions G) Family roots
D) Flexibility H) Encouragement
Q1.
Building a successful family is like building a home. Both need a plan. A successful family based on unity
and love takes careful planning, but it’s worth every moment. The best way to be organized as a family is
to talk together about family matters. By doing this, families enjoy a special closeness and stability.
Memories made together during this time will bond and sustain your family through the years.
Q2.
Family traditions promote feelings of warmth and unity. Trace your family tree and collect all the
photographs of your ancestors that you can find. Public libraries and bookstores have books on genealogy
for you to get you started. Compile a family oral history. Ask older relatives to talk about their parents and
childhood and record their comments. These stories contain a glimpse of the past that would be lost
otherwise.
Q3.
How much time should families spend together? That varies from family to family. Families with young
children usually spend most of their time together. Families with teenagers may spend less time together
because teens naturally want to spend more time with their friends. Healthy families keep a good balance
between ‘too much’ and ‘not enough’ time together. They spend enough time to satisfy all family
members.
Q4.
Strong families take time to talk to one another. They share their hopes and dreams, feelings and concerns.
It means laying aside personal views and really trying to understand the other person’s point of view. This
involves listening beyond words to the meanings and feelings attached to them. A good listener can better
understand and respond to the needs and concerns of others if he or she cares about them.
Q5.
Members of successful families feel they really belong in their family. They feel accepted for what they are
and promote one another’s self-esteem. They celebrate their victories and help each other learn from
mistakes. However, sometimes life gets rough and we need all the support we can get. A cheering word
from a family member can really come in handy. Put the words on sticky notes and stick them in places
where they can be easily found.
Q6.
Strong families develop predictable routines and rules that govern their everyday life. Stable patterns
empower a family to deal with challenges inevitable in family life; without such patterns, chaos would
result. At the same time, strong families adapt their relationships and family rules when the need arises.
Since no family knows what tomorrow will bring, being adaptive is a good trait for family members to
develop.
Q7.
Recent studies confirm the importance of love in families. Research shows that expressions of affection
towards children enhance their development. Strong families notice positive aspects of each member. They
notice the talents, skills and achievements that make a person unique. They find ways to be positive even
when another family member makes a mistake and make a conscious effort to develop closeness and show
love at home.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 56
HEADINGS:
A) Various applications E) A sport or a hobby?
B) Changing styles F) Unexpected victory
C) Benefits of sport G) Breaking world record
D) Choosing equipment H) Challenging sport
Q1.
Playing sports is a great way to make exercise fun and help children to develop healthy habits. Sports can
also help children improve their agility, balance, and coordination. Participating in sports can help build a
child’s self-esteem. Studies show that children who play sports work harder in the classroom. Children also
learn problem-solving skills and time management skills when they are part of a team.
Q2.
Late last week BMX legend, Kevin Robinson, made history by flying higher than any human has ever gone
on a BMX bike as part of Red Bull Experiment in New York City! Thousands of fans and spectators were
on site to catch all the action. This awesome feat had been a lifelong dream of Kevin’s which until now no
one else has ever been able to pull off!
Q3.
American tennis star Venus Williams has lost her place at the Madrid Open when she was beaten in the
second; round part of the contest by Russian teenager Alisa Kleybanova. Williams is the current world
number three and her 19-year-old opponent was unseeded so the defeat came as a big shock. Williams said
she thought Kleybanova had won ‘by just being aggressive from both sides of the court’.
Q4.
Skateboarding traces its roots to the seventies but it really reached the peak of its popularity in the mid-
eighties to the present when major skateboard manufacturers propelled it to new heights. First, they started
with half-pipe and vert ramp skateboarding. As the years went by, the focus shifted to street skateboarding,
which brought about a few changes in deck shape and wheel size.
Q5.
While the majority of scuba diving is recreation, there are those that do it for a living as well. Scientific
exploration and research is another area with a lot of scuba diving demand. They spend a lot of time in the
water watching sea life cycles, and how microorganisms fit the whole under; water environment. There are
also others that work in constructing underwater platforms that are often used for research as well as
offshore oil.
Q6.
Surfing is a sport which is undertaken by almost every individual in the U.S. This term is often referred to
as a surface water sport in which the person surfing is carried along the face of a breaking ocean wave
standing on a surfboard. Surfboards can also be used on rivers on standing waves. Some people practise
this as a hobby while others become professional surfers.
Q7.
If you’re interested in snowboarding, you will need to find out which length and width board is best for
you. Both of these factors are critical to the success of snowboarding. Be aware that shorter boards are
easier to manoeuvre, therefore making them great if you are just learning to snowboard. When it comes to
width, it is important to consider foot size when choosing the width of a board.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 57
HEADINGS:
A) New food choices E) Iconic dish
B) Seafood F) Change in quality
C) Confusing name G) Increase in popularity
D) New word in English H) Origin of the meal
Q1.
The practice of serving a roast dinner on a Sunday is related to the elaborate preparation required, and to
the housewife’s practice of performing the weekly wash on a Monday, when the cold remains of the roast
made an easily assembled meal. Sunday was once the only rest day after a six-day working week; it was
also a demonstration that the household was prosperous enough to afford the cost of a better than normal
meal.
Q2.
Great Britain is surrounded by seas on all sides. No wonder that sea foods such as fried scampi or fishcakes
are usually on offer. However, England is internationally famous for its fish and chips, which may be the
most popular and identifiable English dish. There are a lot of restaurants and take-away shops selling this
dish. The quality can vary drastically from the mass produced product to a homemade variety using more
carefully chosen ingredients.
Q3.
Many seaside towns have shellfish stalls located near the beach. Traditionally they sell snack-sized pots of
cockles, mussels, prawns, crab meat and oysters. The shellfish are served cold and the customer adds
condiments to taste. Shellfish is best eaten as fresh as possible, and certainly on the day of purchase. Some
shellfish such as octopus and prawns can be frozen successfully; others like mussels and oysters need to be
live when cooked.
Q4.
Most large supermarkets in England offer at least a dozen types of English sausage. English sausages,
colloquially known as ‘bangers’, are usually made from fresh meat such as pork or beef. Following the
post World War II period, sausages tended to contain low;quality meat and fat. However, there has been a
backlash in recent years, with most butchers and supermarkets now also selling premium varieties that may
contain venison or wild boar.
Q5.
In the 1950s some British pubs would offer ‘a pie and a pint’, with ale pies made easily on the premises by
the landlord’s wife. Since then ‘pub grub’ has expanded to include British food items such as shepherd’s
pie, fish and chips, bangers and mash, Sunday roast, ploughman’s lunch, and pasties. Food has become
more important in a pub’s trade, and today most pubs serve lunches and dinners in addition to snacks
consumed at the bar.
Q6.
English sandwiches are made with two slices of bread. Common types of filling are roast beef, cheese and
pickle, tuna, marmite and jam. A dainty form of sandwich, cut into small squares and often filled with
cucumber, is served at genteel gatherings, such as Royal Garden parties. England can claim to have given
the world the word ‘sandwich’, al; though John Montagu, 4th Earl of Sandwich, was not the first to add a
filling to bread.
Q7.
In the USA, a ‘pudding’ is a dairy dessert, made with sugar and a couple of other ingredients. However, the
British seem to call a lot of other things ‘pudding’. ‘Apple pudding’ has a layer of apple covered with a
cake topping, which looks just like apple pie. ‘Yorkshire pudding’ includes chicken or beef cooked in a
crispy batter. ‘Black pudding’ is a kind of dark sausage made from animal blood and fat. What makes the
British call this a ‘pudding’?
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 58
HEADINGS:
A) A taste of everything E) Activities for the adventurous and hardy
B) Shop till you drop F) On the crossroads of religions
C) City’s tourist attractions G) For the body, mind and soul
D) Ancient traditions live on H) From the high peaks to the deep seas
Q1.
Today Jakarta has much to offer, ranging from museums, art and antique markets, first class shopping to
accommodations and a wide variety of cultural activities. Jakarta’s most famous landmark, the National
Monument or Monas is a 137m obelisk topped with a flame sculpture coated with 35 kg of gold. Among
other places one can mention the National museum that holds an extensive collection of ethnographic
artifacts and relics, the Maritime Museum that exhibits Indonesia’s seafaring traditions, including models
of sea going vessels.
Q2.
Sumatra is a paradise for nature lovers, its national parks are the largest in the world, home to a variety of
monkeys, tigers and elephants. Facing the open sea, the western coastline of Sumatra and the waters
surrounding Nias Island have big waves that make them one of the best surfer’s beaches in Indonesia.
There are beautiful coral reefs that are ideal for diving. For those who prefer night dives, the waters of Riau
Archipelago offer a rewarding experience with marine scavengers of the dark waters.
Q3.
Various establishments offer professional pampering service with floral baths, body scrubs, aromatic oils,
massages and meditation; rituals and treatments that use spices and aromatic herbs to promote physical and
mental wellness. Various spa hotels are extremely popular. Indonesians believe that when treating the body
you cure the mind.
Q4.
Jakarta has a distinctly cosmopolitan flavor. Tantalize your taste buds with a gastronomic spree around the
city’s many eateries. Like French gourmet dining, exotic Asian cuisine, American fast food, stylish cafes,
restaurants all compete to find a way into your heart through your stomach. The taste of Indonesia’s many
cultures can be found in almost any corner of the city: hot and spicy food from West Sumatra, sweet tastes
of Dental Java, the tangy fish dishes of North Sulawesi.
Q5.
In the face of constant exposure to modernization and foreign influences, the native people still faithfully
cling to their culture and rituals. The pre-Hindu Bali Aga tribe still maintains their own traditions of
architecture, pagan religion, dance and music, such as unique rituals of dances and gladiator-like battles
between youths. On the island of Siberut native tribes have retained their Neolithic hunter-gathering
culture.
Q6.
Whether you are a serious spender or half-hearted shopper, there is sure to be something for everybody in
Jakarta. Catering to diverse tastes and pockets, the wide variety of things you can buy in Jakarta is mind
boggling from the best of local handicrafts to haute couture labels. Modern super and hyper markets, multi-
level shopping centers, retail and specialty shops, sell quality goods at a competitive price. Sidewalk
bargains range from tropical blooms of vivid colors and scents in attractive bouquets to luscious fruits of
the seasons.
Q7.
The land’s long and rich history can’t be separated from the influence of Hinduism, Buddhism, Islam and
Christianity. There is one of the oldest Hindu temples in Java, the majestic Buddhist ‘monastery on the
hill’, Borobudur, the largest Buddhist monument in the world. About 17 km away from this monastery is a
9th century temple complex built by the Sanjaya dynasty. Prambanan complex is dedicated to the Hindu
trinity: Ciwa, Vishnu and Brahma. The spread of Islam also left interesting monuments such as the 15th
century Minaret Mosque in Kudus.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 59
HEADINGS:
A) City management E) Meeting the city’s everyday needs
B) Interior of the houses F) City’s finance
C) Bright colours G) City architecture
D) Busy waterway H) City’s leading position
Q1.
London was a good place to live in the fourteenth century, and all Londoners were very proud of it. It had a
population of about forty thousand and that made it as large as the next four towns in England combined.
Its political prestige was enormous, and whatever king occupied the throne in nearby Westminster, the
opinions of Londoners had to be considered.
Q2.
In so busy a city, the problem of adequate water supply and sewage disposal and city cleaning were
necessarily complicated. Each of the twenty-five areas of the city had at least one full-time street cleaner.
Untidy trades like that of the butchers were kept as far away as possible from the centre. Each citizen had
to have the road paved in front of his house.
Q3.
The city was democratically and intelligently run, and mostly by men who received no pay for their
services. The mayor received a large grant for entertainment purposes, and the town-scrgeant and town-
clerk were given salaries because theirs were full-time posts, but aldermen and members of the common
council worked for nothing. They watched over the welfare of the city because they were its citizens.
Q4.
The houses were somewhat dark, especially when the wooden shutters had to be closed, as glass was
expensive and of poor quality. Most of the houses in London were built tightly packed together, with each
storey extending further towards the street than the last one and sometimes the top floors of buildings on
opposite sides of the street were so big that they actually met in the middle.
Q5.
As if to compensate for the crooked dark streets and the small dark houses, the outsides of the houses were
painted and carved, and priests walked in red and green boots. Even burial cloths were crimson and blue
and gold. In churches, there were cloths of gold, with flowers and ostrich feathers woven of jewels and
metallic thread. No one could have called London dull.
Q6.
A well-to-do family lived in a house where the main room was the hall. There were painted tables,
cupboards and chairs with matching curtains in some bright, cheerful colour. The bedroom was a single
upstairs room usually used by the whole family. The beds were the most valuable articles of furniture in
the whole house. The kitchen and pantry were well equipped.
Q7.
The shortest and quickest route through London was by boat, and the river was never empty of the private
barges of the nobility and the public boats of the watermen, who travelled back and forth as the fourteenth-
century equivalent of a taxi system. There was also a constant movement of goods, with local boats
bringing all the necessary things.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
TEST 60
HEADINGS:
A) Vandalism E) Teenage addict
B) Comfortable furniture F) Graffiti artist
C) Expression of feelings G) Judging by appearances
D) Missing teenager H) Teenager’s room
Q1.
For many young people aerosol art is just as serious as wall painting was for their prehistoric ancestors.
Graffiti is very personal to the teenager who produces it. The motivation behind a piece of graffiti can be
happiness or sadness, frustration or relief. For some artists, graffiti is a reaction to what happens in their
lives. For this reason, it is an art form that is very close to the hearts of the young.
Q2.
I am allowed to do what I like with it. I don’t have a lot of space, but it is my favourite place, so I spend a
lot of time there. 1 am the youngest in the family so 1 also have a lot of old toys on the shelves. I
sometimes get bored with the way it is and when I do I change it round. I often move the bed and change
the posters on the walls. I’ve asked my parents for a television but I don’t think I’d get one.
Q3.
I have been playing video games since I was ten. I am now fifteen and I can’t get rid of my habit. These
days I play for about twenty-five hours a week. Playing video games stops me from exercising and playing
basketball and I have no time for friends. Many of the games are very violent but I don’t take them
seriously. They are just fun. I think the main problem with games is that they are too much fun.
Q4.
First impressions are vital. For many employers, neat and tidy hair and smart clothes are as important as
qualifications. What factors contribute to that vital first impression? It varies a lot according to our culture.
For example, in the United States tall people are considered more reliable and serious in business. In many
cultures physically attractive people are thought of as warmer, kinder, more sociable and even more
intelligent.
Q5.
Dean Palmer is fourteen years old. He may also use the names Dick Page or Daryl Preston. He has short
fair hair and is of medium height and slim build. He wears glasses. He was last seen wearing jeans, a
brown leather jacket and black trainers. If he is at your school, or has ever been admitted into the school,
please telephone the police immediately.
Q6.
I’m known as Chase. That’s my tag. When I started I would go out at night with a few friends and just
painted football slogans and things like that on any wall I could find I suppose it was a way of making a
statement. Eventually I got caught. I still continue to express my feelings with the help of aerosol painting,
but these days I get permission first.
Q7.
These people just want to get attention. Some people call them artists but many citizens really don’t think
that a scribble on the wall is art. In fact, graffiti is a serious social problem as it causes great damage. It
ruins the appearance of towns and cities and cleaning it up costs a lot of money.
YOUR ANSWERS
ANSWERS
ANSWERS
MATCHING HEADINGS
TEST 1
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7
C H E G D B F
TEST 2
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C H A G D B E
TEST 3
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C H B G A D F
TEST 4
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E A F G C B D
TEST 5
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E A G B C D H
TEST 6
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B D C E G H F
TEST 7
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D B E H A F C
TEST 8
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G D A E B C H
TEST 9
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D B F H A E G
TEST 10
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H F E A B D G
TEST 11
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E G F B D A H
TEST 12
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B D F H A C G
TEST 13
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C E B G D F A
TEST 14
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D A E B F G C
TEST 15
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B C A G H D F
TEST 16
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C B G E A D H
TEST 17
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7
E D A F H B C
TEST 18
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7
E A H G F B D
TEST 19
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7
G B A H D C E
TEST 20
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7
A D F H E B G
TEST 21
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7
B A E F C G H
TEST 22
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7
E H A F C B D
TEST 23
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7
H E D C F B A
TEST 24
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7
C E A D G B F
TEST 25
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7
B A F D E G H
TEST 26
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7
B G C E H D A
TEST 27
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7
D B G H A C E
TEST 28
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7
E A B G C H D
TEST 29
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7
C B F D A H G
TEST 30
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7
C E B F D H A
TEST 31
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7
E C A F H G B
TEST 32
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7
D E F B C A G
TEST 33
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7
B C G F H D A
TEST 34
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7
B E A C H G E
TEST 35
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7
F E G D B A H
TEST 36
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7
D F A H C G E
TEST 37
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7
D G E H B A C
TEST 38
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7
B D G E A H C
TEST 39
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7
G C A E H B F
TEST 40
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7
F A G C D H B
TEST 41
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7
H C F B E F A
TEST 42
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7
E F C A B H G
TEST 43
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7
F D A C H E B
TEST 44
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7
H G F E B D A
TEST 45
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7
C F A D G B H
TEST 46
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7
E F B G C D H
TEST 47
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7
D F A B H E C
TEST 48
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7
C H E A B G D
TEST 49
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7
A H G E B C F
TEST 50
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7
D B G A F C H
TEST 51
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7
G E C B F D H
TEST 52
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7
D A H G E B F
TEST 53
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7
H B F A D G C
TEST 54
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7
D F A E H G B
TEST 55
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7
C G E A H D F
TEST 56
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7
C G F B A E D
TEST 57
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7
H E B F A D C
TEST 58
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7
C E G A D B F
TEST 59
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7
C H E G D F A
TEST 60
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q5 Q6 Q7
C H E G D F A

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