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HCIA Exercises

1. A complete data communication system includes ( ) (Select 4 Answers)

A. Sender
B. Receiver
C. Harddisk
D. Message
E. Protocol
Answers: ABDE

2. The ( ) is the physical path along which a message passes.

A. Protocol
B. Signal
C. Medium
D. Device
Answers: C

3. Network topology type includes: (Select 4 Answers)

A. Bus
B. Star
C. Tree
D. Peer-to-peer
E. Mesh
Answers: ABCE

4. Which of the following network topologies has the highest reliability?

A. Bus
B. Star
C. Ring
D. Mesh
Answers: D

5. According to the scope of the geographical area, network type includes? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Campus network
B. LAN
C. WAN
D. Enterprise network
Answers: BC
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6. The most significant feature of a local area network (LAN) is that the LAN is intended for
only one organization and is geographically limited, allowing interconnections of a limited
number of stations. Which of the following transmission media are most common to a LAN?
(Select 3 Answers)
A. Fiber
B. Coaxial cable
C. Twisted pair cable
D. ADSL
Answers: ABC

7. Which of the following communication types are defined based on information interaction
between the transmitter and the receiver? (Select 3 Answers)
A. Simplex
B. Half-duplex
C. Duplex
D. Auto-negotiation
Answers: ABC

8. A network provides data communication services for a relatively large geographical area and
is mainly used to interconnect LANs. Which network type does this network belong to?
A. Large LAN
B. Wide area network (WAN)
C. Metropolitan area network (MAN)
D. Backbone network
Answers: B

9. The bus and star topologies, which are frequently used in a LAN, refer to the physical
connection types rather than the logical structure of the network.
A. True
B. False
Answers: B

10. When a node transmits data over a network medium, the data is transmitted to all the
nodes on the network. Which topology does this network use?
A. Star
B. Bus
C. Tree
D. Ring
Answers: B

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11. A topological structure has a central control point to enable easy network design and
equipment installation. The network media connect to the area where workstations reside
through the hub or switch at the central control point. The disadvantage of such a structure is
that a fault on the hub or switch results in a "single"-point fault.
Which topology does this type of LAN usually use?
A. Star
B. Bus
C. Tree
D. Ring
Answers: A

12. As a device for converting signals between an edge system and a communications system, a
modem is essential in a WAN. A modem is connected to a serial port on a router. Which two of
the following transmission modes does the serial port work in? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Synchronous
B. Asynchronous
C. Switching
D. Routing
Answers: AB

13. The OSI reference model defines a simple hierarchical network model for a computer
network. Which of the following standardization organizations develops the OSI reference
model?
A. ISO
B. IEEE
C. ITU
D. IETF
Answers: A

14. Keyboard is used to input data only. Which of the following is the transmission mode of the
keyboard?
A. Simplex mode
B. Half-duplex mode
C. Full-duplex mode
D. Auto negotiation
Answers: A

15. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding LAN features?

A. High transmission efficiency and high reliability
B. The structure is simple and easy to be constructed.
C. Extensive coverage
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D. Large coverage scale

Answers: D

16. A typical IP Telecommunication Network include ( ) (Select 3 Answers)

A. Backbone Network
B. Convergence Network
C. Metropolitan Area Network
D. Access Network
Answers: ACD

17. Which of the following networks are parts of a complete IP network? (Select 3 Answers)
A. Backbone network
B. Metropolitan area network (MAN)
C. Access network
D. Mobile network
Answers: ABC

19. Routers are a type of computer equipment for network interconnections. Which layer of the
OSI reference model does a router work at?
A. Session Layer
B. Data Link Layer
C. Network Layer
D. Application Layer
Answers: C

20. Which of the following network topologies are the widely used backbone network
topologies? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Full Mesh
B. Plane Hierarchical structure
C. Plane and Space Hierarchical structure
D. Multi-homing structure
Answers: BC

23. When a backbone network uses dual planes, which of the following statements are true?
(Select 2 Answers)
A. When a fault occurs on one plane, the other plane cannot function as the backup of
the faulty plane.
B. The two planes generally carry different services.
C. In normal situations, the services on the two planes do not affect each other.
D. Compared with a dual-plane structure, a hierarchical plane is more reliable.
Answers: BC
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24. In OSI reference model, OSI stands for ( ).

A. Organization Standard Institute
B. Organization Standard Interconnection
C. Open System Internet
D. Open System Interconnection
Answers: D

25. How many layers are included in OSI reference model?

A. 3
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
Answers: D

26. According to OSI reference model, when a packet is transmitted from upper layer to lower
layer, the header will be ( )
A. Added
B. Removed
C. Rearranged
D. Modified
Answers: A

27. In OSI reference model, Transport Layer is located at layer ( ).

A. 3
B. 4
C. 6
D. 7
Answers: B

28. In OSI reference model, which layer resides at the bottom?

A. Data link layer
B. Application layer
C. Physical layer
D. Network layer
Answers: C

29. According to OSI reference model, which layer defines mechanical, electrical, functional and
procedural functions to realize data transmission?
A. Transport layer
B. Data link layer
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C. Network layer
D. Physical layer
Answers: D

30. The PDU (Protocol Data Unit) that resides at physical layer is called ( )
A. Frame
B. Packet
C. Segment
D. Binary bit flow
Answers: D

31. The PDU (Protocol Data Unit) that resides at data link layer is called ( ).
A. Binary bit flow
B. Frame
C. Packet
D. Segment
Answers: B

32. Which of the following protocols reside at data link layer? (Select 3 Answers)
A. PPP
B. HDLC
C. IP
D. IEEE 802.3
Answers: ABD

33. Data link layer has two sub-layers, they are ( ) (Select 2 Answers)
A. PVC sub-layer
B. MAC sub-layer
C. LLC sub-layer
D. VC sub-layer
Answers: BC

34. Which of the following devices operate at data link layer? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Hub
B. Bridge
C. Switch
D. Router
E. Firewall
Answers: BC

35. Which of the following is the broadcast MAC address?

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A. FF-FF-FF-FF
B. FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF
C. 00-00-00-00-00-00
D. 00-00-00-FF-FF-FF
Answers: B

36. Which of the following protocols are related to WAN? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Ethernet
B. PPP
C. HDLC
D. UDP
Answers: BC

37. According to OSI reference model, router operates at ( )

A. Physical layer
B. Data link layer
C. Network layer
D. Application layer
Answers: C

38. Which of the following protocols provides error report and send information about the IP
datagram processing status back to the source?
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. ICMP
D. IGMP
Answers: C

39. The protocol data unit that resides at network layer is called ( ).
A. Segment
B. Packet
C. Bit
D. Frame
Answers: B

40. According to OSI reference model, which of the following statements about the function of
network layer is correct?
A. Ensure the correctness of data transmission
B. Control the forwarding and routing of data packet
C. Control transmission of bit flow
D. Error correction and flow control
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Answers: B

41. What is the function of ARP?

A. Map port number to IP address
B. Map MAC address to IP address
C. Broadcast IP address
D. Map IP address to Mac address
Answers: D

42. What is the function of RARP?

A. Map source IP address to MAC address
B. Map destination IP address to MAC address
C. Map destination MAC address to IP address
D. Map source MAC address to IP address
Answers: D

44. In general, IP address consists of ( ) (Select 2 Answers)

A. Logic address
B. Link address
C. Network address
D. Host address
Answers: CD

45. Which of the following protocols provides connection oriented transmission service?
A. IP
B. IPv6
C. TCP
D. UDP
Answers: C

46. Which of the following protocols reside at transport layer? (Select 2 Answers)
A. IP
B. TCP
C. UDP
D. SNMP
Answers: BC

47. What is the port number of DNS?

A. 21
B. 23
C. 53
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D. 80
Answers: C

48. Which of the following is the correct sequence about the data encapsulation process?
A. Segment->Packet->Frame->Bit->Data
B. Bit ->Segment ->Packet->Frame->Data
C. Data->Packet->Segment ->Frame->Bit
D. Data->Segment->Packet->Frame->Bit
Answers: D

49. Which of the following is the function of session layer?

A. Provide encryption and decryption
B. Provide data transformation and data format
C. Establish connection between hosts
D. Establish maintain and terminate session
Answers: D

50. Compared with OSI reference model, which of the following is not defined in TCP/IP
protocol stack?
A. Data link layer and Network layer
B. Network layer and Transport layer
C. Session layer and Presentation layer
D. Transport layer and Session layer
Answers: C

51. RPC, NFS and SQL protocols reside at the ( ) of the OSI reference model.
A. Network layer
B. Transport layer
C. Session layer
D. Presentation layer
Answers: C

52. According to OSI reference model, which of the following functions belong to presentation
layer? (Select 3 Answers)
A. Data encryption
B. Data compression
C. Session control
D. Data format transformation
Answers: ABD

53. Interconnected devices of a network are a combination of hardware and software. Which
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layer are these devices generally located at?

A. Layer 2
B. Layer 3
C. Layer 4
D. Layer 5
Answers: B

54. The OSI reference model contains seven layers in two groups, namely, upper layer and
lower layer. The upper layer starts from ( ) to Layer 7 and is also called application layer.
A. Layer 2
B. Layer 3
C. Layer 4
D. Layer 5
Answers: D

56. In the OSI reference model, one layer is used to establish end-to-end connections between
hosts and checks for bit errors before data is transmitted or retransmitted. Which of the
following layers stands for this layer?
A. Data Link Layer
B. Physical Layer
C. Network Layer
D. Transport Layer
Answers: D

57. In the OSI reference model, one layer defines the format of data to be sent to the
Application Layer in addition to providing data encryption, data encoding, and data conversion.
Which of the following layers stands for this layer?
A. Presentation Layer
B. Session Layer
C. Network Layer
D. Application Layer
Answers: A

58. In the OSI reference model, one layer converts bits into bytes and then into frames in
addition to providing medium access. Which of the following layers stands for this layer?
A. Data Link Layer
B. Session Layer
C. Network Layer
D. Application Layer
Answers: A

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59. In the OSI reference model, one layer transmits bit streams between devices. Which of the
following layers stands for this layer?
A. Data Link Layer
B. Physical Layer
C. Network Layer
D. Application Layer
Answers: B

60. In the OSI reference model, one layer processes requests and responses initiated by
applications of different devices. Which of the following layers stands for this layer?
A. Data Link Layer
B. Session Layer
C. Network Layer
D. Application Layer
Answers: B

61. In the OSI reference model, one layer provides network services through applications in
addition to communications between different applications. Which of the following layers stands
for this layer?
A. Data Link Layer
B. Session Layer
C. Network Layer
D. Application Layer
Answers: D

62. Similar to the OSI reference model, the TCP/IP model also contains several layers. How
many layers does the TCP/IP model contain?
A. Four
B. Five
C. Six
D. Seven
Answers: B

63. One distinct difference between the TCP/IP model and the OSI reference model is that the
TCP/IP model classifies two layers of the OSI model into the Application Layer. What are the two
layers?
A. Transport Layer, Presentation Layer
B. Session Layer, Presentation Layer
C. Transport Layer, Session Layer
D. Presentation Layer, Application Layer
Answers: B
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64. The layers in the TCP/IP model exchange information by using protocol data units (PDUs).
What is a PDU with a TCP header called at the Transport Layer?4
A. Frame 2
B. Packet 3
C. Field / Segment 4
D. Binary bit stream 1
Answers: C

65. Which layer in the TCP/IP model specifies the highest transmission rate and longest
transmission distance?
A. Physical Layer
B. Data Link Layer
C. Transport Layer
D. Application Layer
Answers: A

67. A transmission medium consists of glass fibers and a shield layer. It is free from interference
of magnetic signals and provides high-speed and long-distance transmission. But such a matter
is very expensive. What is this matter?
A. Coaxial cable
B. Twisted pair cable
C. Optical fiber
D. Waveguide fiber
Answers: C

68. Which of the protocols are commonly used at the Data Link Layer of a WAN? (Select 2
Answers)
A. 802.2
B. 802.4
C. HDLC
D. PPP
Answers: CD

69. Which layers in OSI reference model belong to upper layer, also called as host layer and are
responsible for data transmission and providing interface for user? (Select 3 Answers)
A. Data link layer
B. Network layer
C. Transport layer
D. Session layer
E. Presentation layer
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F. Application layer
Answers: DEF

70. According to OSI reference model, which of the following presents the correct layer
sequence if packet goes from the bottom of the protocol stack to the top?
A. Physical, Data link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, Application
B. Physical, Data link, Network, Transport, Presentation, Session, Application
C. Physical, Transport, Data link, Network, Presentation, Session, Application
D. Physical, Data link, Transport, Presentation, Network, Session, Application
Answers: A

71. Which device operates at physical layer?

A. Switch
B. Hub
C. Router
D. Firewall
Answers: B

72. What are transmission media of physical layer? (Select 3 Answers)

A. Fiber
B. Twisted pair cable
C. Radio wave
D. Ethernet
Answers: ABC

73. What are wiring standards for physical layer related to LAN? (Select 3 Answers)
A. 100Base-T
B. HDLC
C. 100Base-FX
D. 1000Base-SX/LX
Answers: ACD

78. According to TCP/IP protocol stack, which layer is responsible for transforming unreliable
channel into reliable channel, transmitting checked data frame, using error control technology
and provide sequencing of control bits?
A. Physical layer
B. Data link layer
C. Network layer
D. Transport layer
Answers: B

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79. The Ethernet standard that is widely used by LAN is defined by ( ).

A. IEEE 802.5
B. IEEE 802.2
C. IEEE 802.3
D. IEEE 802.1
Answers: C

80. Which of the following are functions of data link layer? (Select 4 Answers)
A. Physical address definition
B. Network topology discovery
C. Routing
D. Physical medium access
E. Error checking
Answers: ABDE

81. According to the default value of route preference on VRP platform, which of the following
represent the correct sequence for direct route, static route, RIP and OSPF if they are listed from
high preference to low preference?
A. Direct, Static, RIP, OSPF
B. Direct, OSPF, Static, RIP
C. Direct, OSPF, RIP , Static
D. Direct, RIP, Static, OSPF
Answers: B

82. Which of the following are routed protocols? (Select 2 Answers)

A. IP
B. OSPF
C. BGP
D. IPX
Answers: AD

83. UDP is connectionless oriented, which of the following must be used in order to ensure
reliability?
A. Internet Protocol
B. Application layer protocol
C. Network layer protocol
D. Transmission control
Answers: B

84. According to OSI reference model, which layer is responsible for end to end error checking
and flow control?
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A. Physical layer
B. Data link layer
C. Network layer
D. Transport layer
Answers: D

85. Which of the following are the functions of transport layer? (Select 4 Answers)
A. Segment upper layer data
B. Establish end to end connection
C. Transmit data from one host to another host
D. Ensure ordered, reliable, and correct transmission
E. addressing
Answers: ABCD

86. According to OSI reference model, when receiver can not process more data, which layer is
responsible for sending stop message to the transmitter?
A. Physical layer
B. Transport layer
C. Session layer
D. Presentation layer
Answers: B

88. Which of the following protocols is a management protocol used at Network Layer to
provide IP information service by embedding the protocol information in IP packets?
A. ARP
B. IP
C. ICMP
D. 802.2
Answers: C

89. Which network component is used to carry a hardware address, for example, MAC address
used for communication between devices on the same link?
A. PIC
B. Network interface card
C. POWER
D. FAN
Answers: B

90. Which of the following protocols is a transport-level protocol based on TCP, translates a
domain name into an IP address, and manages domain names in a distributed manner?
A. TCP
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B. UDP
C. DNS
D. HTTP
Answers: C

91. Which of the following protocols is used to transfer Web pages in the Internet?
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. DNS
D. HTTP
Answers: D

92. Which protocols are defined by the TCP/IP model to transmit and receive mails? (Select 2
Answers)
A. SMTP
B. POP3
C. DNS
D. HTTP
Answers: AB

93. Which of the following protocols authenticates a user remotely, authorizes the user access,
and performs charging?
A. SMTP
B. RADIUS
C. DNS
D. HTTP
Answers: B

95. Which of the following devices have functions of all seven layers of OSI reference model?
(Select 2 Answers)
A. Router
B. Email Server
C. Layer three switch
D. Network management server
Answers: BD

96. Which of the following are the functions of MAC sub-layer of data link layer? (Select 2
Answers)
A. MAC address definition
B. Providing interface used for communication with upper layer
C. Error correction
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D. Flow control
Answers: AD

97. Which of the following statements are correct about TTL field in IP packet? (Select 2
Answers)
A. The maximum value of TTL is 65535
B. Normally, it's impossible for a router to receive a packet whose TTL is zero.
C. The main purpose of TTL is to prevent IP packets from circulating endlessly in a
network which can consume a lot of bandwidth
D. TTL value will be decremented as a packet is passed through the network devices such
as hub, LAN switch and router.
Answers: BC

98. TCP is a connection oriented and reliable transport layer protocol. Which of the following
are used to ensure the transmission reliability? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Acknowledgement
B. Buffering
C. Source quench messages
D. Retransmit
Answers: AD

99. Which of the following mechanisms are used for flow control? (Select 3 Answers)
A. Acknowledgement
B. Buffering
C. Source quench messages
D. Windowing
Answers: BCD

101. According to TCP/IP reference model, which of the following application layer protocols are
based on TCP? (Select 3 Answers)
A. HTTP
B. TFTP
C. FTP
D. SMTP
E. SNMP
Answers: ACD

103. The TCP protocol assigns a source port No. to each application. How many bytes does the
source port No. in the TCP packet header consist of?
A. 1
B. 2
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C. 4
D. 8
Answers: B

104. Which of the following fields are contained in a TCP packet header? (Select 3 Answers)
A. Source Port
B. Destination Port
C. Sequence Number
D. CRC32
Answers: ABC

105. Which of the following ranges represents the size of a maximum transfer unit (MTU)
packet?
A. 64-1518
B. 60-1518
C. 64-1480
D. 60-1480
Answers: A

106. The TTL field in an IP header specifies the number of routers that a datagram is allowed
to traverse. After the datagram traverses a router, the TTL value is deducted by 1. When the TTL
reaches a certain value, the datagram is discarded. Which of the following represents this value?
A. 0
B. 1
C. -1
D. 2
Answers: A

107. Defragmentation can occur at either the original transmitter or an intermediate router.
Where is an IP datagram is reassembled after it is defragmented?
A. In the process in which the packet is looped back
B. On the next router
C. On an intermediate router
D. At the destination of the packet
Answers: D

108. Which of the following statements about TCP connection establishment are true? (Select 2
Answers)
A. A TCP connection is established after three-way handshake is done.
B. Three-way handshake can resolve the delay problem with packet data transmission.
C. The three-way handshake helps guarantee the reliability of data switching.
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D. The three-way handshake cannot guarantee the security of data switching.

Answers: AC

109. In a TCP/IP protocol stack, the headers of packets at each layer are removed in the
decapsulation process in a specified manner. Which of the following is the right manner?
A. From upper to lower
B. From lower to upper
C. From Transport Layer to the lower layers
D. From Network Layer to the upper layers
Answers: B

110. The common address in an IP address is globally unique. Which of the following addresses
can be used repeated in a LAN?
A. Host address
B. Private address
C. Network address
D. Subnet address
Answers: B

111. The most difference between IPv6 and IPv4 is that the length of an IP address is increased
from 32 bits to ( ) bits?
A. 32
B. 64
C. 128
D. 256
Answers: C

112. IPv6 cancels the option field in the IPv4 packet header and adds multiple extended packet
headers, which improves the processing efficiency and enhances the flexibility of IPv6 and
provides a good scalability for the IP protocol.
A. True
B. False
Answers: A

113. Anycast address: Identifies a group of interfaces (usually this group of interfaces belong to
different nodes). Data packets sent to an anycast address are transmitted to an interface nearest
to the source node in a group of interfaces identified by this address. The nearest interface is the
distance metric based on the routing protocol.
A. True
B. False
Answers: A
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114. Which of the following addresses is a valid IPv6 address?

A. 2001:1:0:4F3A:206:AE14
B. 2001:1:0:4F3A:0:206:AE14
C. 2001:1:0:4F3A::206:AE14
D. 2001:1::4F3A::206:AE14
Answers: C

115. Compared with the IPv4 header, the IPv6 header removes the () fields from the IPv4
header?
A. Version, fragment domain, packet header checksum, option, and padding
B. Version, packet header length, fragmentation domain, and packet header checksum
C. Packet header length, fragment domain, packet header checksum, and flow label
D. Packet header length, fragment domain, packet header checksum, option, and padding
Answers: D

116. Which of the following fields is new in the IPv6 header?

A. Destination address
B. Source address
C. Flow label
D. Version
Answers: C

117. Which of the following statements about broadcast in IPv6 is correct?

A. Broadcast is not used in IPv6.
B. Broadcast, as a basic mechanism, is used in various IPv6 operations.
C. Broadcast in a LAN can affect all nodes.
D. The definition of broadcast in the IPv6 network is pending.
Answers: A

118. Which of the following is not an IPv6 feature?

A. Automatic address configuration
B. QoS is automatically supported.
C. Simple reconfiguration
D. Huge address space
Answers: B

119. Which of the following statements about the IPv 6 fragmentation operation is correct?
A. Fragmentation can occur only on the start host.
B. Fragmentation can occur only on the start router
C. Fragmentation operations are similar to IPv4 operations.
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D. ICMPv6 is not applicable to fragmentation.

Answers: A

120. Which of the following statements about IPv6 addresses are correct?
A. Global unicast addresses are equivalent to IPv4 public addresses.
B. Link-local unicast addresses are used for communication between local nodes in the
neighbor discovery protocol and stateless autoconfiguration process.
C. The unicast address 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1 or ::1 is a loopback address and is not allocated to
any interface. Its function is the same as that of 127.0.0.1 in IPv4, that is, it identifies the
transmitted and retrieved transmission of the node.
D. Unspecified address (::)
Answers: ABCD

121. Which of the following is the abbreviation for ICMP?

A. Internal Control Mail Protocol
B. Intranet Control Message Protocol
C. internet connection Message Protocol
D. Internet Control Message Protocol
Answers: D

122. The protocol number of ICMP is ( )

A. 1
B. 6
C. 17
D. 22
Answers: A

123. Which of the following operations can be used to verify the failure of installation or
running of TCP/IP protocol?
A. Ping 10.1.1.1
B. Ping 127.0.0.1
C. Ping 169.254.1.1
D. Ping 192.168.1.1
Answers: B

124. Which of the following applications can be used to detect the path along which the data
packets are transmitted from the source to the destination?
A. Route
B. Nestat
C. Tracert
D. Send
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Answers: C

125. Tracert is an application based on application layer, which transport layer protocol is used
by Tracert?
A. ICMP
B. ARP
C. TCP
D. UDP
Answers: D

126. How many probe packets are sent for each TTL value by default when"tracert" is used to
detect the path along which packet is sent from source to destination?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Answers: A

127. The ICMP protocol (RFC792) is not applied to Application Layer but Network Layer.
A. True
B. False
Answers: A

128. Which of the following types can ICMP packets be classified into? (Select 2 Answers)
A. ICMP transport packet
B. ICMP error reporting packet
C. ICMP query packet
D. ICMP application packet
Answers: BC

129. Which bytes in an ICMP packet use a unified format and consist of the Type, Code, and
Checksum fields?
A. First 3 bytes
B. First 4 bytes
C. First 5 bytes
D. First 8 bytes
Answers: B

130. Which of the following statements about the ICMP protocol is true?
A. The ICMP protocol searches for IP addresses based on MAC addresses.
B. The ICMP protocol translates the IP address of a public network into the IP address of
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a private network.
C. The ICMP protocol monitors errors generated in datagram transmission.
D. The ICMP protocol allocates and manages IP addresses in a network in a uniform
manner.
Answers: C

131. In which type of packet is an ICMP packet generally advertised during IP packet
processing?
A. Delay
B. Error
C. Jitter
D. Source IP address
Answers: B

132. Which of the following fields is used to check an ICMP packet?

A. Checksum field in the ICMP packet
B. Header checksum field in an IP datagram
C. Code field in the ICMP packet
D. Type field in the ICMP packet
Answers: A

133. The IP protocol is a kind of unreliable protocol and offers no error detection. To provide
error detection, which of the following must the IP protocol work with?
A. ARP
B. ICMP
C. TCP
D. UDP
Answers: C

134. When a router or host discards data because of data congestion, which type of ICMP
packet does the router or host send to the source?
A. Destination Unreachable packet
B. Source Quench packet
C. Parameter Problem packet
D. Redirect packet
Answers: B

135. Which of the following is the optical fiber?

A. <image uri ="1_5_1_1A.gif">
B. <image uri ="1_5_1_1B.gif">
C. <image uri ="1_5_1_1C.gif">
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D. <image uri ="1_5_1_1D.gif">

Answers: D

136. Which of the following is RJ45 interface connector?

A. <image uri ="1_5_1_2A.gif">
B. <image uri ="1_5_1_2B.gif">
C. <image uri ="1_5_1_2C.gif">
D. <image uri ="1_5_1_2D.gif">
Answers: A

137. Which of the following is used for connection between the console port of Quidway router
and serial interface of the computer?
A. <image uri ="1_5_1_3A.gif">
B. <image uri ="1_5_1_3B.gif">
C. <image uri ="1_5_1_3C.gif">
D. <image uri ="1_5_1_3D.gif">
Answers: B

138. How many insulated copper conductors aligned and then twisted together in a regular
manner does a twisted pair cable consist of?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 8
D. 16
Answers: A

139. Which of the following fibers allows for multiangular incidence of "multiple" beams of
light for transmission?
A. 4-core fiber
B. "Single-mode" fiber
C. Multimode fiber
D. Active fiber
Answers: C

140. Which of the following is SFP optical connector?

A. <image uri ="1_5_2_1A.gif">
B. <image uri ="1_5_2_1B.gif">
C. <image uri ="1_5_2_1C.gif">
D. <image uri ="1_5_2_1D.gif">
Answers: C

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141. Which of the following is the maximum transmission rate of V.35 working in synchronous
mode?
A. 64Kbps
B. 9200bps
C. 56kbps
D. 2048kbps
Answers: D

142. To improve a twisted pair cable's capability to withstand magnetic interference, which of
the following layers can be added as a shield layer of the twisted pair cable?
A. STP
B. UTP
C. BTP
D. RPR
Answers: A

143. Both analog transmission and digital transmission can use twisted pair cables. Which of
the following statement is true?
A. The communication distance increases with the diameter of the conductor.
B. The communication distance decreases with the diameter of the conductor.
C. The communication distance is independent of the diameter of the conductor.
D. The communication distance increases with the diameter of the conductor when the
communication distance exceeds 50 km.
Answers: A

144. The default mask of class B address is ( ).

A. 255.0.0.0
B. 255.255.0.0
C. 255.255.255.0
D. 255.225.255.255
Answers: B

145. How many hosts are available for a class B IP address?

A. 254
B. 16K
C. 64K
D. 2M
Answers: C

146. The network address of 125.3.54.56 with default subnet mask is ( )

A. 125.0.0.0
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B. 125.3.0.0
C. 125.3.54.0
D. 125.3.54.32
Answers: A

147. Which of the following class has the first octet beginning with "1110"?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
Answers: D

148. Which of the following is reserved for loopback address?

A. 127.0.0.0
B. 130.0.0.0
C. 164.0.0.0
D. 200.0.0.0
Answers: A

149. In TCP/IP protocol, what is the decimal range of the first octet of class A address?
A. 0---126
B. 0---127
C. 1---126
D. 1---127
Answers: C

150. For a traditional class C network without sub-netting, how many hosts are available at
most?
A. 1024
B. 65025
C. 254
D. 48
Answers: C

151. The function of network number in IP address is ( )

A. Specify the network to which hosts belong
B. Identify the host in the network
C. Specify the network by which devices can communicate with each other
D. Specify the network node which belongs to subnet address
Answers: A

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152. Which of the following multicast address represents all routers and hosts of the subnet?
A. 224.0.0.1
B. 224.0.0.2
C. 224.0.0.3
D. 224.0.0.9
Answers: A

153. Which of the following multicast address represents all routers of the subnet?
A. 224.0.0.1
B. 224.0.0.2
C. 224.0.0.3
D. 224.0.0.9
Answers: B

154. An IP address whose network portion and host portion are all zero represents ( )
A. Network address
B. Broadcast address of the specified network segment
C. All networks
D. Broadcast address of all the network nodes
Answers: C

155. Which class does IP address 190.233.27.13 belong to?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answers: B

156. The network address of the IP 190.233.27.13/16 is ( )

A. 190.0.0.0
B. 190.233.0.0
C. 190.233.27.0
D. 190.233.27.1
Answers: B

157. Which of the following class address are multicast address ?

A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class D
D. Class E
Answers: C
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158. The default mask length of the IP address 219.25.23.56 is ( )

A. 8
B. 16
C. 24
D. 32
Answers: C

159. Which part of the IP address is used for sub-netting?

A. Network address
B. Host address
C. Subnet network segment
D. Default subnet mask
Answers: B

160. For a class B address, how many bits at most can be used for sub-netting?
A. 8
B. 14
C. 16
D. 22
Answers: B

161. The subnet mask of a class A address is 255.255.240.0. How many bits are used for sub-
netting?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 9
D. 12
Answers: D

162. For a class C IP address, how many bits at most can be used for sub-netting?
A. 6
B. 8
C. 12
D. 14
Answers: A

163. How many hosts are available in the network 154.27.0.0 without sub-netting?
A. 254
B. 1024
C. 65534
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D. 16777206
Answers: C

164. What is the abbreviation of VLSM?

A. Variable Length Subnet Masking
B. Variable Length Shortest Masking
C. Very Long/Shortest Masking
D. Variable Long Subnet Masking
Answers: A

165. How many hosts are available for the network segment 192.168.2.16/28?
A. 16
B. 8
C. 15
D. 14
E. 7
Answers: D

166. What is the binary format for subnet mask 255.255.192.0?

A. 11111111 11110000 00000000 00000000
B. 11111111 11111111 00001111 00000000
C. 11111111 11111111 11000000 00000000
D. 11111111 11111111 11111111 00000000
Answers: C

167. What is the decimal value for binary 11001011?

A. 171
B. 193
C. 203
D. 207
Answers: C

168. Which of the following subnet masks is more appropriate for point-to-point links?
A. 255.255.255.224
B. 255.255.255.240
C. 255.255.255.248
D. 255.255.255.252
Answers: D

169. Which of the following route entries can be aggregate into 10.0.0.24/29? (Select 2
Answers)
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A. 10.0.0.25/30
B. 10.0.0.23/30
C. 10.0.0.26/30
D. 10.0.0.22/30
Answers: AC

170. Which of the following statements are correct about NAT? (Select 3 Answers)
A. NAT is the abbreviation for "Network Address Translation"
B. NAT is used for translation between private network address and public network
address.
C. When hosts inside a private network access the outside network, NAT is not needed at
all.
D. NAT provides an effective way to solve the problem of insufficient IP address.
Answers: ABD

171. Which of the following technologies can allow a host with IP address 10.0.0.1 to access the
internet?
A. Static route
B. Dynamic route
C. Route import
D. NAT
Answers: D

172. Which of the following problems can be solved by NAT?

A. Saving Internet public address
B. Improving the forwarding performance of routers
C. Enhancing the security of data transmission
D. Protecting computers from viruses attacks
Answers: A

173. What type of network addresses can be translated by NAT?

A. IP
B. IPX
C. AppleTalk
D. DECNET
Answers: A

174. IP addresses are layer-specific. A Layer 3 network device does not necessarily store the IP
address of every host; instead, it stores the IP address of each network segment. This reduces the
entries in a routing table to a great extent while improving routing flexibility.
A. True
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B. False
Answers: A

175. An IPv4 address consists of 32 bits and is generally expressed in dotted decimal notation,
for example, 11.110.96.132. Such an IP address can also be expressed in other notations. Which
are they? (Select 2 Answers)
A. 00001011.01101110.01100000.10000100
B. 0b.6e.60.84
C. 0.b.6.e.6.0.8.4
D. 0.1011.0110.1110.0110.0.1000.0100
Answers: AB

176. The 191.10.96.132 IP address uses a natural mask . In this case, which of the following
represents the network address corresponding to this IP address?
A. 191.0.0.0
B. 191.10.0.0
C. 191.10.48.0
D. 191.10.96.0
Answers: B

177. In one IP address, the network part is constant and the host part consists of all 1s. What
does this IP address stand for?
A. Network address
B. Broadcast address of a specific network segment
C. All the networks
D. Broadcast addresses of all the nodes in the specified network
Answers: B

178. When the host field of an IP address contains n bits, how many host addresses are
available in this network?
A. 2^n-1
B. 2^n-2
C. 2^n-1
D. 2^n
Answers: B

179. The first three octets of a Class C IP address represent a network. Which of the following
binary numbers does the first byte of the three octets start with?
A. 101
B. 100
C. 110
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D. 10
Answers: C

180. Which of the following represents the subnet mask of the 192.168.1.7/28 IP address?
A. 255.255.255.240
B. 255.255.255.248
C. 255.255.255.224
D. 255.255.255.252
Answers: A

181. Which of the following represents the network IP address corresponding to the
192.168.1.7/28 IP address?
A. 192.168.1.0
B. 192.168.1.4
C. 192.168.1.6
D. 192.168.1.7
Answers: A

182. The 192.168.1.7 IP address uses a natural mask. In this case, which of the following
represents the network address corresponding to this IP address?
A. 192.168.1.0
B. 192.168.1.4
C. 192.0.0.0
D. 192.168.0.0
Answers: A

183. Which category does the ARP protocol belong to?

A. Unicast
B. Multicast
C. Anycast
D. Broadcast
Answers: D

184. A router with the Proxy ARP function enabled receives an ARP request packet but finds
that the destination address in the packet is not itself. In this case, what will the router do?
(Select 2 Answers)
A. Discard the packet.
B. Check for a route that matches the destination address.
C. Forward its MAC address to the ARP request sender after finding that a route to the
destination address is available.
D. Broadcast the ARP request packet.
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Answers: BC

185. An RARP request packet is sent by means of broadcast. How is an RARP Reply packet sent
to save network resources?
A. Unicast
B. Multicast
C. Anycast
D. Broadcast
Answers: A

186. Which of the following statements about IP host address is true?

A. Host portion can be either all one or all zero
B. Network portion can be either all one or all zero
C. Network portion can be neither all one nor all zero
D. IP host address can be either all one or all zero
Answers: C

187. Which of the following is the correct host IP address?

A. 224.0.0.5/24
B. 127.32.5.62/8
C. 202.112.5.0/24
D. 162.111.111.111/16
Answers: D

188. Which of the following situations would employ dedicated host address as the source IP
and destination IP for the data packets?
A. Broadcast
B. Multicast
C. Unicast
D. Directcast
Answers: C

189. 150.25.0.0 is a network segment and its mask is 255.255.224.0. Which of the following are
valid host addresses? (Select 2 Answers)
A. 150.25.0.0
B. 150.25.1.255
C. 150.25.2.24
D. 150.15.3.30
Answers: BC
111111111 11111111 11100000 00000000
150.25. 00000001 11111111
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190. If the network mask is 255.255.240.0, which of the following are valid network address?
(Select 2 Answers)
A. 150.150.0.0
B. 150.150.0.8
C. 150.150.8.0
D. 150.150.16.0
Answers: AD

191. Which of the following is the numerically largest IP host address for a subnet address
5.32.0.0 with mask 255.224.0.0?
A. 5.32.254.254
B. 5.32.255.254
C. 5.63.255.254
D. 5.63.255.255
Answers: C

192. The subnet mask of the network segment 175.25.8.0/19 is ( )

A. 255.255.0.0
B. 255.255.224.0
C. 255.255.24.0
D. The subnet mask varies according to the class of IP address
Answers: B

193. The default subnet mask of the class D IP address is ( ) bits.

A. 8
B. 16
C. 24
D. Class D address does not have the subnet mask
Answers: D

194. 172.16.10.32/24 is ( )
A. Network address
B. Host address
C. Multicast address
D. Broadcast address
Answers: B

195. The mask of a class C subnet is 255.255.255.224. How many bits are available for sub-
netting? How many subnets are available? How many hosts are available for each subnet?
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A. 2, 2, 62
B. 3, 8, 30
C. 4, 14, 14
D. 5, 30, 6
Answers: B

196. What's the broadcast address for 10.1.0.1/17?

A. 10.1.128.255
B. 10.1.63.255
C. 10.1.127.255
D. 10.1.126.255
Answers: C

197. If the mask of a network is 255.255.248.0, then which of the following belong to the same
network segment?
A. 10.110.16.1 and 10.110.25.1
B. 10.76.129.21 and 10.76.137.1
C. 10.52.57.34 and 10.52.62.2
D. 10.33.23.2 and 10.33.31.1
Answers: C

198. Thirty-two subnets are expected to be available within a class C address segment, which of
the following is the most appropriate subnet mask?
A. 255.255.255.252
B. 255.255.255.240
C. 255.255.255.255
D. 255.255.255.248
Answers: D

199. What's the broadcast address for host address 101.11.100.100/22?

A. 101.11.100.255
B. 101.11.101.255
C. 101.11.103.255
D. 101.255.255.255
Answers: C

200. What's the broadcast address for network segment 201.1.0.0/21?

A. 201.1.7.255
B. 201.1.0.255
C. 201.1.1.255
D. 201.0.0.255
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Answers: A

201. Which of the following are valid host addresses? (Select 2 Answers)
A. 221.0.0.1/24
B. 224.0.0.5/28
C. 30.10.1.15/28
D. 12.2.2.2/30
Answers: AD

202. Which of the following is the most appropriate aggregation for network segments
172.128.12.0, 172.128.17.0, 172.128.18.0, and 172.128.19.0?
A. 172.128.0.0/21
B. 172.128.0.0/19
C. 172.128.12.0/22
D. 172.128.20.0/20
Answers: B

203. Which of the following aggregation by CIDR technology is correct?

A. 192.168.1.0-192.168.15.0 can be aggregated to 192.168.0.0/19
B. 192.168.1.0-192.168.15.0 can be aggregated to 192.168.0.0/20
C. 192.168.1.0-192.168.15.0 can be aggregated to 192.168.0.0/21
D. 192.168.1.0-192.168.15.0 can be aggregated to 192.168.0.0/22
Answers: B

204. Which of the following is the most appropriate aggregation for network segments
172.168.16.0, 172.168.17.0, 172.168.18.0, and 172.168.19.0?
A. 172.168.16.0/21
B. 172.168.17.0/21
C. 172.168.16.0/22
D. 172.168.20.0/20
Answers: C

205. Which of the following items can be translated by NAPT?

A. MAC address + port number
B. IP address + port number
C. Only MAC address
D. Only IP address
Answers: B

206. Which of the following host IP addresses is valid?

A. 129.0.0.130/25
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B. 210.12.46.7/16
C. 230.19.100.32
D. 225.38.9.18
Answers: A

207. Which address categories does the 220.32.59.31/27 IP address belong to? (Select 2
Answers)
A. Class C address
B. Broadcast address in a specific network segment
C. Invalid address
D. Private address
Answers: AB

208. The subnet mask of the 220.32.59.0/27 network segment is 255.255.255.224. Which of the
following is the valid host address?
A. 220.32.59.160
B. 220.32.59.17
C. 220.32.59.64
D. 220.32.59.128
Answers: B

209. When the subnet mask of a network is 255.240.0.0, which of the following is a valid Class
A host address?
A. 12.32.59.160
B. 129.32.59.17
C. 158.32.59.64
D. 220.32.59.128
Answers: A

210. When the subnet mask of a network is 255.255.192.0, which of the following is a valid
host address? (Select 3 Answers)
A. 12.32.59.160
B. 129.32.59.17
C. 199.32.63.255
D. 220.32.59.128
Answers: ABD

211. When a Class C subnet mask is 255.255.255.192, how many subnets does this network
consist of and how many hosts does each subnet consist of?
A. 4, 62
B. 8, 62
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C. 16, 14
D. 32, 14
Answers: A

212. For a class B network, if 5 bits are used for sub-netting, how many hosts are available in a
"single" subnet?
A. 510
B. 512
C. 1022
D. 2046
Answers: D

213. A class C network is divided into 9 subnets in which 16 hosts at most are available for
each subnet. Which of the following is an appropriate subnet mask?
A. 255.255.224.0
B. 255.255.255.224
C. 255.255.255.240
D. No appropriate subnet mask is available
Answers: D

214. What is the numerically nearest subnet for the network 172.168.16.0 with mask
255.255.252.0?
A. 172.168.20.0
B. 172.168.24.0
C. 172.168.32.0
D. 172.168.48.0
Answers: A

215. For an IP address 192.168.12.43, its mask is 255.255.255.128, its network address is ( ), and
its broadcast address is ( ).
A. 192.168.12.32 192.168.12.127
B. 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.255
C. 192.168.12.43 255.255.255.128
D. 192.169.12.128 255.255.255.128
E. 192.168.12.0 192.168.12.127
Answers: E

216. For a class B IP network 172.16.0.0, its mask is 255.255.255.192. How many subnets are
available and how many hosts are available for each subnet?
A. 512, 126
B. 1022, 62
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C. 1024, 62
D. 256, 254
E. 192, 254
Answers: C

217. What are the network address and the broadcast address for the network segment that
the IP address 190.5.4.2/22 belongs to?
A. 190.5.4.0, 190.5.7.255
B. 190.5.4.0, 255.255.255.255
C. 190.5.0.0, 190.5.4.255
D. 190.5.4.0, 190.5.4.255
Answers: A

218. Which of the following is valid host IP address?

A. 192.168.2.15/28
B. 10.0.2.128/26
C. 122.245.264.13/26
D. 12.3.4.6/24
E. 224.0.4.5
Answers: D

219. What's the network address and broadcast address for IP 190.5.6.1/22?
A. 190.5.4.0, 190.5.7.255
B. 190.5.4.0, 190.5.4.255
C. 190.5.4.0, 190.5.4.254
D. 190.5.1.0, 190.5.1.255
Answers: A

220. For an IP address 10.110.53.233, if its mask length is the same with that of the following
items, which items are in the same network segment with 10.110.53.233? (Select 2 Answers)
A. 10.110.48.10 mask 255.255.248.0
B. 10.110.43.10 mask 255.255.0.0
C. 10.110.43.10 mask 255.255.248.0
D. 10.110.48.10 mask 255.255.252.0
Answers: AB

221. A company applies for a class C IP address for subnetting, it has eight branches. Each
branch has a subnet and should have at least 14 hosts. What's the appropriate mask for
subnetting?
A. 255.255.255.0
B. 255.255.255.128
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C. 255.255.255.192
D. 255.255.255.224
Answers: D

222. Which of the following host IP address is within the same network segment with
10.110.12.29 /27?
A. 10.110.12.0
B. 10.110.12.30
C. 10.110.12.31
D. 10.110.12.32
Answers: B

223. Which of the following statements regarding the IP address 192.168.16.255/20 are correct?
(Select 2 Answers)
A. It's a broadcast address
B. It's a network address
C. It's a private address
D. It belongs to the network segment 192.168.19.0
E. It belongs to the network segment 192.168.16.0
F. It's a public address
Answers: CE

224. A company applies for a class C IP address for subnetting. It has six branches and the
largest branch should have 26 hosts. What is the appropriate mask for subnetting?
A. 255.255.255.0
B. 255.255.255.128
C. 255.255.255.192
D. 255.255.255.224
Answers: D

225. In a Class C network, after you add three digits in the default subnet mask to divide the
network into different subnets, how many hosts does each subnet allow for?
A. 62
B. 30
C. 14
D. 6
Answers: B

226. When the IP address is 199.32.59.64 and the subnet mask is 255.255.255.224, which of the
following represents the IP address of the network segment?
A. 199.32.59.64
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B. 199.32.59.65
C. 199.32.59.192
D. 199.32.59.224
Answers: A

227. The IP address of a network is 12.28.75.160. After the network is divided into different
subnets, the subnet mask is 255.255.252.0. In this case, which of the following represents the
subnet broadcast address?
A. 12.28.255.255
B. 12.28.69.255
C. 12.28.75.255
D. 12.255.255.255
Answers: C

228. The IP address of a network is 129.32.59.17. After the network is divided into different
subnets, the subnet mask is 255.255.254.0. In this case, how many subnets are available?
A. 256
B. 128
C. 64
D. 32
Answers: B

229. When an IP address is 220.32.59.128/25, which of the following represents the network
address?
A. 220.32.59.192
B. 220.32.59.128
C. 220.32.59.254
D. 220.32.59.0
Answers: B

230. Which of the following statements about free-of-charge ARP packets are true? (Select 2
Answers)
A. A system can determine whether conflicting IP addresses are used by sending a free-
of-charge ARP packet.
B. A free-of-charge ARP packet uses the same format as an ARP request packet.
C. A free-of-charge ARP packet can help to update an IP address.
D. A free-of-charge ARP packet uses the same format as an ARP reply packet.
Answers: AB

231. Which of the following is the abbreviation for DHCP?

A. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
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B. Dynamic Host Connection Protocol

C. Dynamic Hot Connection Protocol
D. Denial Host Configuration Protocol
Answers: A

232. Which layer of OSI reference model does DHCP belong to?
A. Physical layer
B. Data-link layer
C. Network layer
D. Application layer
Answers: D

233. What is the main function of DNS?

A. Domain Name Resolution
B. Remote Access
C. File Transfer
D. Mail Transfer
Answers: A

234. Which of the following is the abbreviation for HTTP?

A. Hypertext Transfer Protocol
B. Hypertext Translate Protocol
C. Hypertest Transmit Protocol
D. Hypertext Transmit Protocol
Answers: A

235. Which of the following is the default TCP port number used by HTTP?
A. 80
B. 8080
C. 110
D. 25
Answers: A

236. Which protocol does FTP use to provide reliable data transmission?
A. RTP
B. SIP
C. UDP
D. TCP
Answers: D

237. Which of the following protocols can be used for file transfer? (Select 2 Answers)
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A. FTP
B. TFTP
C. Telnet
D. Icmp
Answers: AB

238. Which of the following protocols is transport layer protocol of TFTP?

A. SIP
B. UDP
C. TCP
D. RTP
Answers: B

239. Which of the following protocols is used to send email on the internet?
A. SMTP
B. MSTP
C. FTP
D. TFTP
Answers: A

240. Which TCP port number is used by SMTP by default to send e-mail message?
A. 21
B. 23
C. 25
D. 53
Answers: C

241. POP (Post Office Protocol) is used for receiving E-mail. Which TCP port numbers does it
use by default?
A. 110
B. 53
C. 21
D. 23
Answers: A

242. Which of the following is an attribute of file transferred by using FTP?

A. Low speed
B. High throughput
C. Simple
D. Read-only memory
Answers: B
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243. TFTP can control a TFTP user according to the user name and password.
A. True
B. False
Answers: B

244. Which of the following allows a user to log in to a remote server through a terminal
connected to the same network?
A. FTP
B. TFTP
C. TELNET
D. TRACERT
Answers: C

245. Which port number does Telnet uses for protocol transmission?
A. 23
B. 24
C. 8080
D. 48
Answers: A

246. Which of the following is the most common method used to check the connectivity
between an IP network and a host, for example, the connectivity between routers and the
connectivity between a router and a host?
A. DNS
B. FTP
C. PING
D. TFTP
Answers: C

247. A series of packets are used in a Ping test to determine whether delay and packet loss
occur in communication. Which of the following represents the packet used in a Ping test?
A. FTP
B. Tracert
C. ICMP
D. Telnet
Answers: C

248. In the case of Huawei router, what is the "-i" parameter in a Ping command issued on a
VRP operating system used to set?
A. Interface for sending an Echo Request packet
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B. Source IP address for sending an Echo Request packet

C. Interface for receiving an Echo Reply packet
D. Destination IP address for receiving an Echo Reply packet
Answers: A

249. Which of the following is used to check the route that an IP packet traverses from one
host to another host?
A. FTP
B. Tracert
C. ICMP
D. Telnet
Answers: B

250. To provide the information about the IP addresses that a user packet traverses along the
path to the destination, which of the following does Tracert record in each expired ICMP TTL
packet?
A. Destination port
B. Source port
C. Destination address
D. Source address
Answers: D

251. Which transport-level protocol does Telnet use?

A. TCP
B. UDP
C. ECMP
D. UCMP
Answers: A

252. By default, which port is used by the FTP server to establish the data connection?
A. 20
B. 21
C. 23
D. 25
Answers: A

253. FTP session consists of two types of connections, they are( ) (Select 2 Answers)
A. Output connection
B. Input connection
C. Control connection
D. Data connection
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Answers: CD

254. Which of the following destination ports is used when the TFTP client connects to the
TFTP server?
A. 20
B. 21
C. 53
D. 69
Answers: D

255. Which of the following applications are based on the TCP protocol? (Select 2 Answers)
A. PING
B. FTP
C. TELNET
D. OSPF
Answers: BC

256. Which of the following protocols are not used in a Tracert process? (Select 2 Answers)
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. ICMP
D. ARP
Answers: AD

257. Which of the following statements about Ping and Tracert are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. Both Ping and Tracert can be used to test network connectivity.
B. Ping can be used to specify the source IP address of a packet.
C. Ping is often used to obtain the path for forwarding a datagram.
D. Tracert can be used to determine a faulty point.
Answers: ABD

258. Which of the following statements about FTP are true? (Select 2 Answers)
A. FTP is based on the UDP protocol.
B. FTP is used to provide low-speed file transfer.
C. TFTP can control an FTP user according to the login name and password.
D. A router can work as either an FTP Client or an FTP Server.
Answers: CD

259. Which of the following statements about TFTP are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. TFTP is based on the UDP protocol.
B. TFTP is a simple file transfer protocol and applicable to read-only memory.
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C. TFTP can control a TFTP user according to the login name and password.
D. TFTP supports only the Client mode.
Answers: ABD

260. In Window XP system, which of the following commands is used to release the IP address
assigned by the DHCP Server?
A. ipconfig /all
B. ipconfig /renew
C. ipconfig /release
D. ipconfig
Answers: C

261. Compared with telnet, which of the following advantages does SSH support? (Select 3
Answers)
A. Encrypt the transmitted data to guarantee its security and reliability
B. Prevent DNS and IP spoofing
C. Accelerate the data transmission speed by compressing the data
D. Scalable application based on UDP connection
Answers: ABC

263. Which datagram is normally used to encapsulate the DNS query messages?
A. SIP
B. RTP
C. UDP
D. TCP
Answers: C

264. Which of the following protocols or applications are based on TCP? (Select 3 Answers)
A. FTP
B. DNS
C. SNMP
D. Telnet
Answers: ABD

265. Which of the following protocols or applications are based on UDP? (Select 2 Answers)
A. FTP
B. TFTP
C. SNMP
D. Telnet
Answers: BC

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266. Which type of packet does a Ping application send?

A. TCP Request packet
B. TCP Reply packet
C. ICMP Request packet
D. ICMP Reply packet
Answers: C

267. Which of the following commands is used to check whether an application-level protocol
works normally?
A. PING
B. TRACE
C. Extended ping
D. TELNET
Answers: D

268. The Tracert application is usually used in data network commissioning. In this case, how
many types of ICMP packets are involved in a Tracert application?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
Answers: A

269. In Ethernet standard, which of the following mechanisms is used to avoid collision when
different nodes transmit packets simultaneously?
A. CSMA/CA
B. CSMA/DA
C. CSMA/CD
D. CSMA/AC
Answers: C

270. A MAC address has ( ) bits.

A. 6
B. 12
C. 24
D. 48
Answers: D

271. MAC address consists of two parts: provider number and serial number. The first 24 bits of
MAC address represents provider number, which of the following is the provider number of
Huawei?
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A. 00e0fc
B. 0010fe
C. 1
D. 0003cf
Answers: A

272. Hub work at ( ) layer.

A. Physical
B. Data link
C. Network
D. Application
Answers: A

273. The distance limit of category 5 UTP wiring is ( ).

A. 100 meters
B. 200 meters
C. 50 meters
D. 185 meters
Answers: A

274. Two computers are connected to each other by using twisted pair cable. The correct wiring
sequence is ( ).
A. Computers can not be directly connected with twisted pair cable
B. 1--1, 2--2, 3--3, 4--4, 5--5, 6--6, 7--7, 8--8
C. 1--3, 2--6, 3--1, 4--4, 5--5, 6--2, 7--7, 8--8
D. 1--2, 2--1, 3--6, 4--4, 5--5, 6--3, 7--7, 8-8
Answers: C

275. A PC is connected to router's Ethernet port through its network interface card. What type
of cable should be used to connect these two interfaces?
A. Cross cable
B. Straight cable
C. Console cable
D. Backup cable
Answers: A

276. According to OSI reference model, switch operates at ( ) layer.

A. Physical
B. Data link
C. Transport
D. Application
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Answers: B

277. A switch receives entire data frame and then perform CRC checking,the frame is
forwarded unless CRC checking fails. The switch mode for this switch is ?
A. Cut-Through
B. Store-and-Forward
C. Fragment-free
D. Store-free
Answers: B

278. A switch reads the destination address before receiving the entire frame and then forward
this frame. The switching mode for this switch is ?
A. Cut-Through
B. Store-and-Forward
C. Fragment-free
D. Store-free
Answers: A

279. Which of the following are advantages of layer 2 switch compared with hub? (Select 3
Answers)
A. Increase the collision
B. Higher throughput
C. Higher port density
D. Isolate collision domains
Answers: BCD

280. ( ) combines "multiple" ports to form an aggregation group. It can be used to balance the
traffic among member ports and improve the connection reliability.
A. Port Aggregation
B. Port binding
C. Port load balance
D. Port group
Answers: A

281. Which types can twisted pair cables be classified into? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Straight through cable
B. Crossover cable
C. Twisted cable
D. Shielded cable
Answers: AB

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282. Network side interfaces are classified into two types. What are these interfaces? (Select 2
Answers)
A. MDI
B. MDI_S
C. MDI_X
D. MDI_R
Answers: AC

283. An Ethernet port on a general router is of the same type as a port on the network
interface card (NIC) of a host. Which of the following represents this type?
A. MDI
B. MDI_S
C. MDI_X
D. MDI_R
Answers: A

284. What type of port does a hub use?

A. MDI
B. MDI_S
C. MDI_X
D. MDI_R
Answers: C

285. What types of port can a switch use? (Select 2 Answers)

A. MDI
B. MDI_S
C. MDI_X
D. MDI_R
Answers: AC

286. What kind of cable is used to make a connection between network devices with MDI and
MDI_X ports ?
A. Straight through cable
B. Crossover cable
C. Twisted cable
D. Shielded cable
Answers: A

287. In general, two types ports (MDI and MDI_X) can be used for device connection, What
kind of cable is used to connect network devices with same type port?
A. Straight through cable
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B. Crossover cable
C. Twisted cable
D. Shielded cable
Answers: B

288. How long can a fast Ethernet cable 100BaseTX or 100BaseT4 transmit a signal?
A. 100m
B. 550m
C. 1000m
D. 2000m
Answers: A

289. How long can a Gigabit Ethernet cable 1000BaseT transmit a signal?
A. 100m
B. 550m
C. 1000m
D. 2000m
Answers: A

290. Which transmission rates does an Ethernet allow for? (Select 3 Answers)
A. 10M
B. 100M
C. 1000M
D. 155M
Answers: ABC

291. After receiving a data frame from any port, a hub forwards it to any other port.
A. True
B. False
Answers: A

292. Which communication mode does a hub work in?

A. Simplex
B. Half-duplex
C. Full-duplex mode
D. Auto-negotiation
Answers: B

293. Which type of Ethernet uses hubs?

A. Star Ethernet
B. Shared Ethernet
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C. Switched Ethernet
D. Token ring Ethernet
Answers: B

294. The physical medium used by Ethernet include ( ). (Select 3 Answers)

A. Coaxial cable
B. Twisted pair cable
C. Optical fiber
D. V.35 cable
Answers: ABC

295. multiple PCs are connected to the same hub through twisted pair cables. What's its logical
topology structure?
A. Star
B. Tree
C. Mesh
D. Ring
E. Bus
Answers: E

296. Under Which of the following circumstances, "multiple" work stations belong to the same
collision domain?
A. "multiple" workstations are connected to a hub through twisted pair cables
B. "multiple" workstations are connected to a LAN switch through twisted pair cables
C. "multiple" workstations are connected to a router through twisted pair cables
D. "multiple" workstations are connected to a bridge through twisted pair cables
Answers: A

297. Which of the following statements about function of hub is incorrect?

A. Hub operates at physical layer, transmits binary bit flow among cables
B. Hub is a type of sharing device, only one device in the network can send data at any
given time
C. Hub operates at data link layer, transmits binary bit flow among cables
D. Hub can regenerate and reamplify the binary bit flow and this can increase the
transmission distance
Answers: C

298. In late 1980s, UTP appeared and was widely used. Which of the following are advantages
of UTP? (Select 3 Answers)
A. Low price
B. Easy to manufacture
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C. Receive and transmit using different wires

D. Both of the physical and logical topology is bus type
Answers: ABC

299. How to eliminate the collision in Ethernet?

A. Increase the length of cable
B. Decrease the number of transmitted packets
C. Decrease the number of users on each network segment
D. Replace the hub and repeater with switch or bridge
Answers: D

300. Which of the following statements regarding collision is incorrect?

A. Each ports of switch is an independent collision domain.
B. The collision that happens in the network connected with one port of a switch will
affect another network connected with another port of the switch.
C. The number of the collision domains will be increased if the hub in the network is
replaced with the bridge.
D. Reduce the number of hosts in a network can decrease probability of collision.
Answers: B

301. The last field of Ethernet frame is FCS (Frame Check Sequence). Its length is ( ) bytes.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 32
Answers: B

302. Which of the following statements about switching modes of LAN switch are true? (Select
2 Answers)
A. Store-and-forward switching mode does not check for error frames.
B. Cut-through switching mode forwards a frame after it received the first 64 octets of
the frame.
C. Fragment-free switching mode can check for error frames in the first 64 octets of the
frame.
D. Store-and-forward switching mode discards the frame with length less than 64 octets.
Answers: CD

303. Which of the following statements about collision domain and broadcast domain are
correct? (Select 3 Answers)
A. Devices connected to the same hub form a collision domain
B. Devices connected to the same hub form a broadcast domain
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C. Devices connected to the same bridge form a collision domain

D. Devices connected to the same bridge form a broadcast domain
E. Devices connected to the same router form a broadcast domain
Answers: ABD

304. Port mirroring means to get a copy of the data and then send it to the monitoring device
for data analysis and diagnosis. Port mirroring can be divided into ( ). (Select 2 Answers)
A. Port based mirroring
B. Application based mirroring
C. Flow based mirroring
D. Upper layer protocol based mirroring
Answers: AC

305. A MAC address consists of 48 bits and is generally expressed in 12-bit dotted decimal
notation. What kind of address does a MAC address consisting of all 1s stand for?
A. Multicast address
B. Broadcast address
C. Unicast address
D. Virtual address
Answers: B

306. Which of the following together with the MAC address of a general L2 switch determines
the MAC address table of the L2 switch?
A. RARP table
B. Transmission medium
C. Port
D. ARP table
Answers: C

307. An L2 switch checks the MAC address forwarding table before it forwards a packet. How
does the L2 switch forward a packet that contains an address not listed in the MAC address
forwarding table?
A. Multicast
B. Broadcast
C. Unicast
D. Searching for routes
Answers: B

308. Which layer is used to implement internal communication of a same IP network segment
in an IP network?
A. Physical Layer
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B. Layer 2
C. Layer 3
D. Application Layer
Answers: B

309. Which address of an Ethernet frame is used by a Layer 3 switch to determine whether to
perform Layer 2 forwarding or Layer 3 forwarding?
A. Destination MAC address
B. Source MAC address
C. Destination IP address
D. Source IP address
Answers: A

310. Which of the following statements about the key features of a Layer 3 switch are true?
(Select 3 Answers)
A. A Layer 3 switch provides Layer 3 functions while providing Layer 2 functions.
B. Many Layer 3 switches provide exact search and perform Layer 3 forwarding based on
Layer 3 functions.
C. All Layer 3 switches provide only ATM port.
D. Some high-end Layer 3 switches provide high-speed POS ports to improve the
upstream link efficiency.
Answers: ABD

311. What kind of wirings does 100BaseT4 Fast Ethernet specification use? (Select 3 Answers)
A. Category 3 UTP
B. Category 4 UTP
C. Category 5 UTP
D. Category 6 UTP
Answers: ABC

312. The data field of standard Ethernet frame is ( ) bytes.

A. 40-1500
B. 46-1500
C. 64-1500
D. 64-1518
Answers: B

313. An Ethernet frame is captured by network protocol analyzer tool and the value of
Type/Length field is 0x0800. Which of the following statements about the frame are correct?
(Select 2 Answers)
A. The frame structure of the frame is Ethernet_II
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B. The frame structure of the frame is 802.3

C. Its upper layer protocol is IP
D. Its upper layer protocol is IPX
Answers: AC

314. On Huawei switch, which of the following commands can be used to set port duplex mode
as"auto negotiation"? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Duplex full
B. Duplex half
C. Duplex auto
D. Undo duplex
Answers: CD

315. Which of the following commands can be used to set Ethernet port so that buffer will not
overflow when congestion occurs?
A. Flow on
B. Flow-control
C. Flow control
D. Enable flow-control
Answers: B

316. When congestion occurs on port working in full duplex mode, switch will send "PAUSE"
frame to the source to notify the source temporarily stop sending message for a short while.
Which of the following circumstances can use the "PAUSE" method for flow control? (Select 3
Answers)
A. A pair of terminals
B. A switch and a terminal
C. Congestion that occurs on a stable network
D. The link between two switches
E. End to end flow control
Answers: ABD

317. An Ethernet electrical port can work in three types of duplex modes, whereas an Ethernet
optical port can work in only one mode. Which of the following represents this mode?
A. Full-duplex
B. Half-duplex
C. Auto-negotiation
D. Simplex
Answers: A

318. In port aggregation, "multiple" ports are aggregated to form a port aggregation group so
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that all the member ports in the group share the outgoing/incoming load. At which layer is port
aggregation implemented?
A. Physical Layer
B. Data Link Layer
C. Network Layer
D. Transport Layer
Answers: B

319. Port aggregation binds "multiple" connected ports into a logical connection. How much
bandwidth does the port aggregation group provide?
A. The sum of bandwidth of any two member ports
B. The sum of bandwidth of all member ports
C. Half of the sum of bandwidth of all member ports
D. Same as the highest bandwidth of all the member ports
Answers: B

320. The incoming and outgoing packets of a mirrored port are copied to another port. Which
of the following objects is this type of mirror action based on?
A. Link
B. Equivalence
C. Flow
D. Port
Answers: D

321. Which of the following is mandatory in port mirroring configuration?

A. Redirect
B. Acl
C. Classify
D. Behavior
Answers: B

322. What benefits does port aggregation yield? (Select 3 Answers)

A. Improves link bandwidth
B. Implements load sharing
C. Improves network reliability
D. Facilitates data copy for analysis
Answers: ABC

323. Which layer implements auto-negotiation in an Ethernet without using private datagrams?
A. Application Layer
B. Network Layer
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C. Data Link Layer

D. Chips at Physical Layer
Answers: D

324. In a destination MAC address, which bit of the address determines whether a frame is sent
to a "single" station or a group of stations?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10
Answers: B

325. Regardless of multicast or unicast, an L2 switch establishes its MAC address table entries
by means of MAC address learning.
A. True
B. False
Answers: B

326. STP is short for ?

A. Rapid spanning tree protocol
B. Shortest path tree protocol
C. Spanning tree protocol
D. Sharing tree protocol
Answers: C

327. The standard for STP defined by IEEE is ( ).

A. 802.3
B. 802.11b
C. 802.1D
D. 802.1Q
Answers: C

328. Redundant paths exist in switched network. Which of the following technologies can be
used to prevent looping and increase the network reliability?
A. STP
B. Split horizon
C. Poison reverse
D. Shortest path tree
Answers: A

329. In OSI reference model, Layer 2 LAN switch operates at ( ).

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A. Physical layer
B. Data link layer
C. Network layer
D. Application layer
Answers: B

330. Which of the following descriptions about LAN switch is correct?

A. LAN switch detects loops according to the contents of packet
B. LAN switch modify the contents of packet if necessary before forwarding
C. LAN switch is transparent for user, it does not modify any contents of packet
D. LAN switch is able to work properly even when loop exists
Answers: C

331. Which of the following descriptions about STP designated port is correct?
A. Each bridge can have only one designated port
B. Designated port is responsible for sending STP packets to its connected network
segments
C. Designated port is a path leading to the root switch
D. Designated port forwards packet destined for the root switch
Answers: B

332. The main idea of STP is to generate a loop-free tree by exchanging a special kind of
message between bridges. This message is called ( ).
A. Configuration BPDU
B. TCN BPDU
C. Hello BPDU
D. Update BPDU
Answers: A

333. What is the default value of switch priority when STP is enabled on Huawei switch?
A. 4096
B. 8192
C. 16384
D. 32768
Answers: D

334. Which of the following are the interface states of STP? (Select 4 Answers)
A. Disabled
B. Blocking
C. Shut down
D. Learning
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E. Forwarding
Answers: ABDE

335. On Huawei switches running STP, the default value of forward delay is ( ) seconds.
A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 30
Answers: B

336. Which of the following descriptions about learning state in STP is incorrect?
A. The port in learning state can receive and send BPDU
B. The port in learning state can learn the source MAC address of data packet
C. The port in learning state can only learn the source MAC address but cannot transmit
the data packet.
D. The port in learning state can forward part of the data packet
Answers: D

337. Which of the following descriptions about blocking state in STP is incorrect?
A. The port in blocking state can receive BPDU
B. The port in blocking state does not learn source MAC address of data packet
C. The port in blocking state does not forward data packets
D. The port in blocking state does not receive any data packets
Answers: D

338. Which of the following descriptions about forwarding state in STP is incorrect?
A. The port in forwarding state can receive BPDU
B. The port in forwarding state does not learn source MAC address of the data packet
C. The port in forwarding state can forward data packets
D. The port in forwarding state can send BPDU
Answers: B

339. Assume all of STP enabled switches have the same bridge priority. The MAC address of
switch A is 00-e0-fc-00-00-40, the MAC address of switch B is 00-e0-fc-00-00-10, the MAC
address of switch C is 00-e0-fc-00-00-20, and the MAC address of switch D is 00-e0-fc-00-00-80.
Which switch will be elected as the root switch?
A. Switch A
B. Switch B
C. Switch C
D. Switch D
Answers: B
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340. STP uses ( ) timer to prevent from temporary loop when the link is fault?
A. Hello Time
B. Forward Delay
C. Max Age
D. Message Age
Answers: B

341. What problems can lead a STP loop in a Layer 2 network result in? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Increased link bandwidth
B. Broadcast storm
C. Unstable MAC address table
D. Aggregation of ports failed
Answers: BC

342. Devices need to exchange information and parameters in order to calculate a spanning
tree. Such information and parameters are encapsulated into a certain unit when they are
exchanged between devices. Which type of unit are the information and parameters
encapsulated into?
A. TCP BPDU
B. Configured BPDU
C. Configured STP
D. Configured RSTP
Answers: B

343. How many root bridges does the STP protocol select from all the network bridges when
calculating a spanning tree?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answers: A

344. After STP protocol convergence, which port on the peer is connected directly to the root
port?
A. Designated port
B. Backup port
C. Alternate port
D. Edge port
Answers: A

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345. Which attribute is selection of a root bridge based on when the spanning tree is calculated
by the STP?
A. Bridge ID
B. Path Cost
C. Port Cost
D. Port ID
Answers: A

346. Root bridges provide root ports and designated ports.

A. True
B. False
Answers: B

347. During STP calculation, the port cost is associated with port bandwidth. Which of the
following statements about the relation between port cost and port bandwidth is true?
A. Port cost decreases when port bandwidth increases.
B. Port cost increases when port bandwidth.
C. Port cost is consistent with port bandwidth.
D. Port cost varies randomly according to port bandwidth.
Answers: A

348. There may be "multiple" paths between a non-root bridge and a root bridge. Each of the
paths has its own total cost, which is the sum of the port costs of all egress ports on the path.
A. True
B. False
Answers: A

349. STP calculates the overall cost of each path between a non-root bridge and a root bridge.
What is a port on the non-root bridge called on the path that has the minimum overall cost?
A. Designated port
B. Root port
C. Common port
D. Queue port
Answers: B

350. In STP calculation, a port identifier consists of two parts: one-byte ( ) and one-byte port
number.
A. Port priority
B. Link priority
C. Bridge MAC address
D. Port MAC address
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Answers: A

351. Which of the following descriptions about STP principle are correct? (Select 3 Answers)
A. Elect one switch as the root from all the switches in the network
B. Calculate the shortest path to the root switch
C. Each LAN elects the switch that is nearest to root switch as designated switch
D. Non-root switch elect several root ports which are the set of best paths leading to the
root switch
Answers: ABC

352. In STP, which of the following items may affect the selection of the root switch? (Select 2
Answers)
A. Switch priority
B. Switch port ID
C. Switch interface bandwidth
D. Switch MAC address
E. Switch IP address
Answers: AD

353. Which of the following descriptions about STP is incorrect?

A. STP can manage the redundant links
B. STP can block redundant links to eliminate loops
C. STP can prevent from temporary loss of connectivity
D. STP can make LAN switch operates normally in a switched network environment with
loops
Answers: C

354. Which of the following descriptions about port state transition of STP are incorrect?
A. Forwarding state can transit to Blocking state directly
B. Learning state can transit to Blocking state directly
C. Learning state can transit to Forwarding state directly
D. Blocking state can transit to Forwarding state directly
Answers: D

355. During STP calculation, STP selects a designated port and bridge for each network
segment. In this selection process, STP first compares ( ) of the port connected to the network
segment and selects the one with the lowest number.
A. Link priority
B. Root path cost
C. Port identifier
D. Port MAC address
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Answers: B

356. Which of the following ports are defined by STP and indicate that Physical Layer and Data
Link Layer are working normally and STP is enabled at ports on a device? (Select 3 Answers)
A. Root Port
B. Designated Port
C. Alternate Port
D. Disable Port
Answers: ABC

357. A port directly connects to a designated port on the peer device and is used to receive
BPDU to monitor the changes occurring in the network. However, it does not forward any
packet. Which of the following ports represents this port?
A. Root Port
B. Designated Port
C. Alternate Port
D. Disable Port
Answers: C

358. During STP calculation, when a port is in a certain state, it neither forwards any data
frame nor learns MAC address tables. It takes part in only spanning tree calculation in addition
to receiving and sending STP protocol packets. Which state does the abovementioned state refer
to?
A. Listening
B. Blocking
C. Learning
D. Forwarding
Answers: A

359. During STP calculation, when a port is in a certain state, it neither forwards any data
frame nor learns MAC address tables. Instead, it only receives and processes STP protocol
packets. Which state does the abovementioned state refer to?
A. Listening
B. Blocking
C. Learning
D. Forwarding
Answers: B

360. Workstation A and workstation B are connected to two different switch ports respectively.
Assume that workstation B hasn't sent any packet yet. Which of the following statements is true
when workstation A starts sending the first packet to workstation B?
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A. The destination port of workstation B is not found in switch's MAC table an the packet
is discarded
B. The switch learns the address of workstation B and sends the packet to the port that is
connected with B
C. The switch learns address of workstation A and broadcasts the packet out of all the
ports
D. The switch learns address of workstation A and broadcasts the packet out of all the
ports except for the port that received the packet
Answers: D

361. Which of the following descriptions about STP are correct? (Select 3 Answers)
A. A network can have only one root switch
B. All the ports of the root switch are root port
C. All the ports of the root switch are designated port
D. The switch with the smallest priority value is elected as the root switch
Answers: ACD

362. In STP, the role of switch port includes ( ) (Select 3 Answers)

A. Root port
B. Backup root port
C. Optional port
D. Alternate port
E. Designated port
Answers: ADE

363. Which of the following are the advantages of RSTP compared with STP? (Select 3
Answers)
A. A new root port is elected on the non-root switch and the previous old root port is no
longer in forwarding state. Moreover the designated port of the segment which connects with
the new root port already starts to forward the data. In this case, the new root port can enter
forwarding state immediately.
B. Once a port of the switch which is configured as edge port has been enabled, it will
become designated port immediately and transit to forwarding state.
C. If the designated port is connected with P2MP link, it can make a handshake with the
connected bridge and enter the forwarding state immediately after it receives the response.
D. If the designated port is connected with P2P link, it can make a handshake with the
connected bridge and enter the forwarding state immediately after it receives the response.
Answers: ABD

364. Which of the following are disadvantages of "single" spanning tree? (Select 3 Answers)
A. Hosts belong to the same VLAN connected to different switches may not be able to
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communicate each other

B. Load balancing can not be implemented
C. Convergence is slow
D. Sub-optimal path may exist
Answers: ABD

365. In the RSTP standard, a type of port connects to a terminal directly and enters the
forwarding state directly without any delay. Which of the following ports represents such a port?
A. Fast port
B. Backup port
C. Root port
D. Edge port
Answers: D

366. STP/RSTP is based on port, whereas MSTP is based on ( ).

A. Root bridge
B. Designated bridge
C. Root port
D. Instance
Answers: D

367. As specified by the RSTP protocol, when a designated port fails, which type of port will
function as a new designated port and enters the forwarding state without any delay?
A. Forwarding Port
B. Alternate Port
C. Backup Port
D. Edge Port
Answers: C

368. As specified by the RSTP protocol, when a root port fails, which type of port will function
as a new root port and enters the forwarding state without any delay?
A. Forwarding Port
B. Alternate Port
C. Backup Port
D. Edge Port
Answers: B

369. When the MSTP protocol is enabled, which types of bridges belong to the same MSTP
domain? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Bridges that enable root protection at the same time
B. Bridges that have the same domain name
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C. Bridges that have the same number of ports in forwarding state

D. Bridges that have the same mapping relationships between VLANs and instances
Answers: BD

370. According to IEEE802.1Q, where is VLAN ID in the tagged Ethernet frame?

A. Not fixed
B. In front of the source MAC address and destination MAC address
C. Behind the source MAC address and destination MAC address
D. Between the source MAC address and destination MAC address
Answers: C

371. A VLAN can be considered as a ( ).

A. Collision domain
B. Broadcast domain
C. Management domain
D. Blocking domain
Answers: B

372. Which of the following standards is defined by IEEE to regulate the implementation of
VLAN between switches?
A. 802.1x
B. 802.1d
C. 802.1q
D. 802.3
Answers: C

373. Which of the following technologies can reduce the scope of broadcast domain?
A. VLAN
B. Trunk
C. RARP
D. STP
Answers: A

374. The implementation of VLAN includes ( ). (Select 3 Answers)

A. Port-based VLAN
B. MAC address based VLAN.
C. Protocol-based VLAN
D. TCP port-based VLAN
Answers: ABC

375. For VLAN link type,the link between a switch and a PC is ( ).

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A. Access link
B. Trunk link
C. Hybrid link
D. ISL link
Answers: A

376. Which of the following descriptions about access port are correct? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Access port belongs to only one VLAN
B. Access port belongs to "multiple" VLAN
C. Access port is used for connection between switch and PC
D. Access port is used for connection between switches
Answers: AC

377. Which of the following descriptions about trunk port are correct? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Trunk port belongs to only one VLAN
B. Trunk port belongs to "multiple" VLAN
C. Trunk port is used for connection between switch and PC
D. Trunk port is used for connection between switches
Answers: BD

378. A switch supports 802.1Q protocol, what is the maximum number of VLAN it can support?
A. 512
B. 1024
C. 2048
D. 4096
E. Infinity
Answers: D

379. VLAN is short for?

A. Virtual local area network
B. Virtual long area network
C. Virtual local area networking
D. Virtual long area networking
Answers: A

380. In OSI reference model, VLAN tag resides at ( ) layer.

A. Physical
B. Data link
C. Network
D. Application
Answers: B
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381. Which of the following are the formats of Ethernet frame in the switching network?
(Select 2 Answers)
A. Untagged frame
B. Token frame
C. Tagged frame
D. FDDI frame
Answers: AC

382. On Quidway series switch, which of the following VLANs can be removed by using
command "undo"? (Select 3 Answers)
A. Vlan 1
B. Vlan 2
C. Vlan 1024
D. Vlan 4094
Answers: BCD

383. To implement network layer capability on the VLAN interface, we need to configure ( ) on
VLAN interface. (Select 2 Answers)
A. IP address
B. MAC address
C. Subnet mask
D. IP prefix
Answers: AC

384. A switch is configured with VLAN 3, VLAN 4 and VLAN 5. GVRP is not enabled for the
trunk port. The trunk port then receives a frame with VLAN ID 6. This frame will be ( ).
A. Flooded to all VLANs
B. Flooded to VLAN 1 only
C. Flooded to all trunk ports
D. Discarded
Answers: D

385. On VRP platform, what is the function for command "interface vlan-interface vlan-id"?
A. Create a VLAN
B. Create or enter VLAN interface
C. Configure VLAN for an interface
D. No such command
Answers: B

386. How many bytes does a VLAN tag consist of?

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A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answers: C

387. After the VLAN function is introduced to the Ethernet, the ports on a switch can be
classified into ( ). (Select 3 Answers)
A. Access port
B. Trunk port
C. Hybrid port
D. None port
Answers: ABC

388. A Trunk port always sends tagged frames to the peer equipment.
A. True
B. False
Answers: B

389. A VLAN in the Ethernet is used to separate ( ).

A. Layer 2 unicast domain
B. Layer 2 broadcast domain
C. Layer 2 multicast domain
D. Layer 2 MAC address
Answers: B

390. Direct interconnection of traffic with different VLANs is not allowed. Such traffic must be
transmitted based on ( ).
A. Port isolation
B. MAC addresses
C. VLAN routing
D. VLAN switching
Answers: C

391. During frame forwarding, a switch checks the VLAN tag carried in an Ethernet frame and
then determines whether to forward the Ethernet frame through a port if the VLAN tag is a ( )
of this port.
A. Permitted tag
B. Default PVID
C. MAC address equivalence
D. STP disable state
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Answers: A

392. After an Ethernet frame uses a VLAN tag, the Ethernet frame can be expressed in two
formats, namely, ( ) and ( ) in a switched network. (Select 2 Answers)
A. Untagged frame
B. Tagged frame
C. Row frame
D. Column frame
Answers: AB

393. On huawei router, Before you configure the IP address of an Ethernet sub-port, you need
to configure ( ).
A. MAC address
B. VLAN encapsulation
C. Global GVRP
D. Port GVRP
Answers: B

394. Which of the following methods can realize communication between VLANs at network
layer? (Select 2 Answers)
A. STP
B. GVRP
C. L2 Switch+Router
D. L3 Switch
Answers: CD

395. Workstation A and workstation B are respectively connected to two ports of a switch.
Assume the MAC table of the switch is empty now. Which of the following statements is true as
soon as the switch receives the first packet sent by Workstation A to Workstation B?
A. The switch will learn address of A
B. The switch will learn address of B
C. The switch will not learn any address
D. The switch will learn addresses of both A and B
Answers: A

396. Which of the following descriptions are correct about VLAN interface? (Select 2 Answers)
A. A virtual interface is required to be created for the VLAN if we want to assign an IP
address for that VLAN,
B. Two VLAN interfaces on the same switch can be assigned with the same IP address
C. The VLAN interface number must be the same with VLAN ID
D. The VLAN interface can be configured for the non-existed VLAN
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Answers: AC

397. An access port on a switch generally connects to a port on a computer. Which of the
following statements are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. After receiving a tag packet, the switch forwards it directly.
B. The default VLAN of an access port is the VLAN where the port is located. You do not
need to manually configure a default VLAN for an access port.
C. An access port can belong to only one VLAN.
D. After receiving an untag packet, the access port attaches its PVID information to the
packet.
Answers: BCD

398. What action does an access port take in the process of sending packets?
A. Sends tag packets.
B. Strips the VLAN information off the packet and then directly sends out the packet.
C. Exchanges the VLAN information between packets and then sends out the packet.
D. Attaches its PVID information to the packet.
Answers: B

399. What action does a Trunk port take after it receives an untag packet?
A. Discards the packet directly.
B. Attaches its trunk VLAN ID to the packet and then sends out the packet.
C. Sends out the packet directly without adding the tag information to the packet.
D. Attaches its PVID information to the packet and then sends out the packet.
Answers: D

400. Which of the following statements are true after a Trunk port receives a tag packet?
(Select 2 Answers)
A. Checks whether the Trunk port allows the tag packet to pass through.
B. Transparently transmits the tag packet.
C. Discards the tag packet directly if the Trunk port does not allow the tag packet to pass
through.
D. Attaches its PVID information to the packet and then sends out the packet.
Answers: AC

401. Which of the following statements about VLAN communication are true? (Select 2
Answers)
A. One-arm routing can be configured for a Layer 3 switch only by using a router to
implement VLAN communication.
B. One-arm routing can be configured for a Layer 2 switch only by using a router to
implement VLAN communication.
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C. Layer 3 VLAN interfaces can be configured on a Layer 3 switch to implement VLAN

communication.
D. Layer 3 VLAN interfaces can be configured on a Layer 2 switch to implement VLAN
communication.
Answers: BC

402. Which of the following statements about the advantages of the VLAN function are true?
(Select 2 Answers)
A. The VLAN function reduces network costs by reducing the number of physical ports on
switches.
B. The VLAN function improves network security by identifying users that are allowed to
access sensitive data and applications.
C. The VLAN function improves network performance by implementing flow control and
using the window advertisement mechanism.
D. The VLAN function divides a network into several small logical networks, reducing the
impact of a broadcast storm on a network.
Answers: BD

403. A frame tag adds ( ) to each frame so that the frame can be transmitted through Trunk
ports on switches.
A. Destination MAC address
B. Source MAC address of a switch
C. VLAN ID
D. Bridge ID of a switch
Answers: C

404. Which of the following are the features of the default VLAN setting in a switch
configuration? (Select 2 Answers)
A. The default VLAN cannot be deleted manually.
B. By default, the ports on all switches are member ports of a default VLAN.
C. A default VLAN must be created before a port is allocated to a VLAN.
D. The IP address configured for a switch is applied only to a member port in the default
VLAN.
Answers: AB

405. Which of the following statements about VLAN are true? (Select 2 Answers)
A. In the switch configuration, if the default VLAN is VLAN 1, it cannot be deleted or
renamed.
B. A switch supports a maximum number of 255 VLANs.
C. A "single" access port can pass through "multiple" VLANs.
D. "multiple" VLANs can pass through a "single" trunk.
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Answers: AD

406. Switch-A and Switch-B are configured with ports in VLANs for R&D Department, Sales
Department, Product Department, Financial Department, and HR Department. Each VLAN
contains 20 users. In this case, how many subnets at least are required to provide routes
between all VLANs?
A. 5
B. 20
C. 50
D. 100
Answers: A

407. The network administrator is deleting "multiple" VLANs from a switch. After the network
administrator enters the undo vlan 1 command, an error message is returned. What is the cause
of this error message?
A. A VLAN can be deleted only by a common user.
B. VLAN 1 can be deleted only after VLAN 1 is assigned to a VLAN.
C. The syntax of this command is incorrect.
D. VLAN 1 is the default management VLAN and cannot be deleted.
Answers: D

408. Of all the VLAN grouping methods, the grouping method by IP address is called ( ) VLAN.
A. Port-based
B. Route-based
C. MAC address-based
D. Policy-based
Answers: B

409. Which VLAN does an access port of a switch belong to?

A. The only defined VLAN
B. The VLAN with the greatest No.
C. All VLANs
D. The VLAN with the smallest No.
Answers: A

410. A network administrator wants to divide the hosts in building A into VLAN 3 and VLAN 5.
Which of the following statements about VLAN configuration is true?
A. VLAN information is saved automatically in the starting configuration.
B. After VLAN 3 and VLAN 5 are created manually, the default VLAN is removed
automatically.
C. The network administrator can create a VLAN either in the global view or in the VLAN
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view.
D. The two VLANs can be named BUILDING_A to differentiate them from the VLANs in
other geographical areas.
Answers: C

411. Which of the following statements are true in the process of deleting a VLAN? (Select 2
Answers)
A. The member port of a VLAN becomes inactive after the VLAN is deleted.
B. When a routing-based interface (Vlanif) is available for a VLAN, the Vlanif interface
must be deleted before the VLAN is deleted.
C. A network administrator can delete a VLAN either in the global view or in the VLAN
view.
D. A VLAN can be deleted only after its member port is allocated to another VLAN.
Answers: BC

412. A port on a switch is configured as a Trunk port. Assume that one host connects to this
Trunk port to access the network. Which of the following operations is mandatory?
A. Delete all the VLANs on this port in the global view.
B. Delete all the VLANs on this port in the interface view.
C. Disable this port and then enable it again to restore the default setting of the port.
D. Configure this port as an access port.
Answers: D

413. What is the result after the port trunk permit vlan all command is run?
A. The specified port allows all VLAN IDs to pass through.
B. The peer port connected to this port must have the same setting configured by running
the port trunk permit vlan all command.
C. The peer equipment connected to this port can dynamically determine which VLAN IDs
to pass through.
D. If the port default vlan 3 command is run on the connected remote device, VLAN 3
between the two devices will be blocked.
Answers: A

414. Which of the following statements about the process of creating a VLAN are true? (Select
2 Answers)
A. The member port of this VLAN enters the active state immediately.
B. A routing-based interface (Vlanif) can be created for a VLAN only after the VLAN is
created.
C. A network administrator can create a VLAN either in the global view or in the VLAN
view.
D. A VLAN can be created only after its member port is allocated to another VLAN.
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Answers: BC

415. Which of the following steps are necessary to configure a port to the specified vlan in
SYSTEM view? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Enter the VLAN view
B. Specify proportion of broadcast storm for VLAN
C. Specify description for VLAN or VLAN interface
D. Assign VLAN for the Ethernet port
Answers: AD

416. Information below shows the partial interface configuration on a Huawei switch.
According to this configuration, PVID of this interface is ( ).
[Quidway]display interface Ethernet 1/0/1
---
Mdi type: auto
Port link-type: access
Tagged VLAN ID: none
Untagged VLAN ID: 5
A. 0
B. 1
C. 5
D. Not able to interpret the PVID from the information given
Answers: C

417. Which of the following ports can be configured to permit VLAN to pass? (Select 2
Answers)
A. Trunk
B. Access
C. Hybrid
D. Normal
Answers: AC

418. A trunk port is configured to permit vlan 3, vlan4 and vlan 5 to pass. The frames of vlan 3
and vlan 4 are tagged but the frames of VLAN 5 are untagged. Which of the following may
cause the problem?
A. Port PVID is 5
B. Port PVID is 3 and 4
C. Only the command "port trunk permit vlan 3 4 "was configured for the trunk port.
D. GVRP is enabled on this port
Answers: A

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419. Which of the following descriptions about access-link are correct? (Select 2 Answers)
A. When access port receives a frame without 802.1Q tag header, the default PVID will be
added to the frame.
B. When access port receives a frame with VLAN ID in 802.1Q tag header different from
the default PVID, VLAN ID in 802.1Q tag header is changed to the default PVID.
C. When access port sends a frame, 802.1Q tag header is removed and standard Ethernet
frame is sent.
D. When access port sends a frame, 802.1Q tag header is kept and a tagged frame is sent
Answers: AC

420. Which of the following descriptions about trunk link are correct? (Select 3 Answers)
A. When trunk port receives a frame without 802.1Q tag header, the default PVID will be
added to the frame.
B. When trunk port receives a frame with 802.1Q tag header, no changes is done on the
frame.
C. When trunk port sends a frame whose VLAN ID is not same as default PVID, the frame
is sent directly.
D. When trunk port sends a frame whose VLAN ID is same as the default PVID, no
modification is done on the tag.
Answers: ABC

421. To make sure all hosts belonging to the same VLAN can receive the broadcast packets
sent to this VLAN, which of the following operations are needed on the switch? (Select 2
Answers)
A. Send the packets out of all ports of the switch.
B. Send the packets out of other ports that belong to the same VLAN.
C. Send the packets to all trunk links that allow this VLAN to pass.
D. Send the packets to all trunk links.
Answers: BC

422. When the value of the two-byte TPID field in an Ethernet frame header is 0x8100, it
indicates that this frame carries an ( ) tag.
A. 802.1P
B. 802.1Q
C. 802.1D
D. 802.1S
Answers: B

423. All Ethernet frames in a switch flow in the form of ( ).

A. BPDU
B. PVID
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C. Untagged frame
D. Tagged frame
Answers: D

424. A switch is based on port-based VLAN IDs. When the switch receives untagged frames, the
VLAN ID is determined by ( ).
A. BPDU
B. PVID
C. MAC mapping table
D. IP Address
Answers: B

425. VRRP is short for?

A. Virtual Routing Redundancy Protocol
B. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol
C. Virtual Redundancy Router Protocol
D. Virtual Redundancy Routing Protocol
Answers: B

426. Which of the following descriptions about VRRP is true?

A. Only master processes the data sent to the virtual router
B. Only slave processes the data sent to the virtual router
C. Both master and slave process the data sent to the virtual router
D. By default, only master processes the data sent to the virtual router. However, if slave
is enabled, it can also processes the data sent to the virtual router
Answers: A

427. VRRP is enabled on the network, which of the following descriptions about default
gateway configuration on PC is true?
A. Only one default gateway is configured on PC, the IP address is the master's IP
address.
B. Only one default gateway is configured on PC, the IP address is the IP address of
virtual router.
C. Two default gateways are configured on PC, the IP addresses are master's IP address
and slave's IP address.
D. Three default gateways are configured on PC, the IP addresses are master's IP address,
slave's IP address and virtual router's IP address.
Answers: B

428. Which of the following description about virtual IP address of VRRP is true?
A. One virtual router can have only one virtual IP address
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B. One virtual router can have three virtual IP addresses at most

C. One virtual router can have "multiple" virtual IP addresses, but only one is available at
one time
D. One virtual router can have "multiple" virtual IP addresses and all of these IP
addresses are available simultaneously.
Answers: D

429. Which of the following descriptions about function of VRRP is true?

A. VRRP improves the reliability of the default gateway in the network
B. VRRP makes the routing protocols converge faster
C. VRRP is mainly used for load balancing
D. VRRP provides the same default gateway for different network segments, thus
simplifies gateway configuration of PCs in the network
Answers: A

430. The range of VRRP priority that can be configured on the device is ( ).
A. 0-127
B. 0-255
C. 1-127
D. 1-254
Answers: D

431. Which of the following descriptions about VRRP priority are correct? (Select 2 Answers)
A. The owner of Virtual IP address always uses 255 as running priority despite of its
configured priority
B. The owner of Virtual IP address always uses 0 as running priority despite of its
configured priority
C. A router with VRRP priority 0 will not take part in master election and can permanently
act as slave.
D. When the master of VRRP stop running VRRP, the router will send a VRRP notification
packet whose priority field is 0
Answers: AD

432. The interface Ethernet0/0 of RTA and RTB are connected to the same LAN. VRRP are
enabled on both RTA and RTB. At the same time, virtual routers are created. The virtual routers
ID are 1 and virtual IP addresses are 10.1.1.254. RTA's priority is 200 while RTB's priority is the
default value. The following command is configured on RTA,[RTA-Ethernet0/0]vrrp vrid 1 track
Ethernet 1/0 reduced 150 Which of the following descriptions are correct? (Select 2 Answers)
A. If RTA's interface 0/0 goes wrong, RTA's priority becomes 150
B. If RTA's interface 0/0 goes wrong, RTA's priority becomes 50
C. If RTA's interface 0/0 goes wrong, RTB's priority becomes 150
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D. If RTA's interface 0/0 goes wrong, RTB becomes master

Answers: BD

433. Which of the following descriptions are correct about master election in VRRP? (Select 2
Answers)
A. The switch with highest configured priority is master
B. The switch with lowest configured priority is slave
C. The switch with highest configured priority may not be master
D. The switch with lowest configured priority may not be slave
Answers: CD

434. HDLC is ISO standard link layer protocol and it is used to encapsulate data transmitted on
asynchronous link.
A. True
B. False
Answers: B

435. On VRP platform, which of the following commands is used to configure data link layer
encapsulation type of serial interface as HDLC?
A. Encapsulation hdlc
B. Link-protocol hdlc
C. Hdlc enable
D. Link-protocol ppp
Answers: B

436. HDLC is a type of bit stream-oriented protocol used at Data Link Layer and it can
transparently transmit data consisting of different collections of characters.
A. True
B. False
Answers: A

437. All the protocols in the standard HDLC protocol suite run on synchronous serial line.
A. True
B. False
Answers: A

438. PPP is more secure than HDLC because PPP supports authentication protocols such as ( ).
(Select 2 Answers)
A. PAP
B. MD5
C. CHAP
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D. SSH
Answers: AC

439. According to OSI reference model, which layer does PPP reside at?
A. Physical layer
B. Data link layer
C. Network layer
D. Transport layer
Answers: B

440. When both ends running PPP protocol detect that the physical link is active, the link state
will transit from dead to establish. Which of the following protocols is used to negotiate the link
parameters during this phase?
A. IP
B. DHCP
C. LCP
D. NCP
Answers: C

441. PAP requires ( )-way hand-shake.

A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. One
Answers: A

442. Which of the following protocols requires three-way handshake and allows only username
to be transmitted through network while keeping the password secret?
A. PAP
B. CHAP
C. MD5
D. TCP
Answers: B

443. Serial interface of a Huawei router need to be encapsulated with PPP protocol. Which of
the following commands is required to be configured on interface view?
A. Link-protocol ppp
B. Encapsulation ppp
C. Enable ppp
D. Address ppp
Answers: A
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444. Which of the following descriptions about PAP and CHAP is correct?
A. PAP authentication requires three-way handshake
B. CHAP authentication requires two-way handshake
C. PAP authentication uses plain text to send authentication message
D. CHAP authentication uses plain text to send authentication message
Answers: C

445. On VRP platform, which of the following commands is used to configure PPP
authentication method as PAP?
A. ppp pap
B. ppp chap
C. ppp authentication-mode pap
D. ppp authentication-mode chap
Answers: C

446. Which layer is the PPP protocol located in the TCP/IP protocol stack?
A. Physical Layer
B. Data Link Layer
C. Network Layer
D. Transport Layer
Answers: B

447. In the PPP protocol, CHAP authentication involves exchange of three types of packets at
different times, namely, Challenge, Response, and Success/Failure packets.
A. True
B. False
Answers: A

448. Which of the following PPP protocols are classified into the NCP protocol? (Select 2
Answers)
A. IPv6CP
B. ICMP
C. IPCP
D. TCP
Answers: AC

449. After a PPP connection is established, whose Echo-Request and Echo-Reply packets can be
used to detect the link status?
A. Data encapsulation
B. LCP
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C. NCP
D. IPCP
Answers: B

450. The PPP protocol provides a standard method of transmitting datagrams of different
protocols on a point-to-point link. It is a point-to-point communication protocol widely used at
the present time.
A. True
B. False
Answers: A

451. After a PPP connection is established, the VRP platform sends Echo-Request packets at the
interval of ( ) seconds by default.
A. 1
B. 5
C. 10
D. 60
Answers: C

452. What function does the NCP protocol can provide for a PPP connection?
A. Error detection
B. User identifier authentication
C. Carrying of "multiple" Layer 3 protocols
D. Congestion control
Answers: C

453. In the PPP protocol, CHAP authentication involves exchange of three types of packets at
different times. To match the Request packet with a Reply packet, each packet contains an
Identifier field. In each authentication process, all the packets use the same Identifier
information.
A. True
B. False
Answers: A

454. Which of the following components are defined by PPP protocol? (Select 3 Answers)
A. Data encapsulation
B. Data encryption
C. Link Control Protocol(LCP)
D. Network Control Protocol(NCP)
Answers: ACD

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455. PPP protocol consists of three types of protocols, they are ( ). (Select 3 Answers)
A. PPPOE
B. LCP(Link Control Protocol)
C. NCP(Network Control Protocol)
D. PPP extension protocol
Answers: BCD

456. RTA connects with RTB through interface Serial0. The configuration on RTA is as follow:
[RTA]aaa
[RTA-aaa]local-user huawei password simple quidway
[RTA-aaa]local-user huawei service-type ppp
[RTA]interface Serial 0
[RTA-Serial0]link-protocol ppp
[RTA-Serial0]ppp authentication-mode pap
[RTA-Serial0]ip address 10.1.1.1 30
The configuration on RTB is as follow:
[RTB]interface Serial 0
[RTB-Serial0]link-protocol ppp
[RTB-Serial0]ppp pap local-user huawei password simple hello
[RTB-Serial0]ip address 10.1.1.2 30
With the configuration above, RTA and RTB are able to communicate with each other.
A. True
B. False
Answers: B

457. Which of the following statements are true? (Select 2 Answers)

A. LCP negotiates on authentication information.
B. CHAP performs authentication by exchanging packets twice.
C. IPCP can be used to negotiate on IP addresses and compress information.
D. PAP is used for user authentication.
Answers: CD

458. In the PPP protocol, which of the following encryption algorithms is used by CHAP?
A. DES
B. MD5
C. AES
D. None
Answers: B

459. Which of the following functions does LCP provide? (Select 3 Answers)
A. Negotiates to establish links.
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B. Negotiates to use which Layer 3 protocols.

C. Disconnects a link when the idle timer of the link expires.
D. Tests a link to check the link quality and thus to determine whether a link can be
established.
Answers: ACD

460. Which of the following packets belong to CHAP authentication protocol? (Select 4
Answers)
A. Challenge
B. Request
C. Response
D. Success
E. Failure
Answers: ACDE

461. RTA connects with RTB through interface Serial0. The configuration on RTA is as follow:
[RTA]aaa
[RTA-aaa]local-user huawei password cipher hello
[RTA-aaa]local-user huawei service-type ppp
[RTA]interface Serial 0
[RTA-Serial0]link-protocol ppp
[RTA-Serial0]ppp authentication-mode chap
[RTA-Serial0]ip address 10.1.1.1 30
The configuration on RTB is as follow:
[RTB]interface Serial 0
[RTB-Serial0]link-protocol ppp
[RTB-Serial0]ppp chap user huawei
[RTB-Serial0]ppp chap password cipher hello
[RTB-Serial0]ip address 10.1.1.2 30
With the configuration above, RTA and RTB are able to communicate with each other.
A. True
B. False
Answers: A

462. When you configure PPP authentication method as PAP, which of the following operations
are necessary? (Select 3 Answers)
A. Add the user name and password of the authenticated party to local user list
B. Configure the encapsulation type of the interface connected to the peer as PPP.
C. Configure PPP authentication method as CHAP
D. On the authenticated party end, configure the user name and password that are sent
to authenticator
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Answers: ABD

463. What is the function of the following command?

ip address ppp-negotiate
A. Enables the function of requesting for an IP address from the peer device.
B. Enables the function of accepting the request for an IP address from the remote device.
C. Enables the function of statically allocating IP addresses to the peer.
D. None of the above
Answers: A

464. In the PPP protocol, the dynamic negotiation is the same as the static negotiation in the
IPCP flow. That is, in either dynamic or static negotiation, allocation of IP addresses is completed
after one Config-Request dialog.
A. True
B. False
Answers: B

465. How many bytes does the Maximum Receive Unit (MRU) of PPP consist of by default?
A. 1024
B. 1500
C. 1518
D. 8096
Answers: B

466. IGP is the protocol which is used in ( )

A. An area
B. A LAN
C. An Autonomous System
D. Within the range of classful address
Answers: C

467. Which of the following statements regarding routing protocol is correct?

A. A protocol that allows the data packets transmitted between hosts.
B. A method that defines the format and function of the fields for data packet
C. A protocol that achieves route selection through an algorithm
D. A protocol that defines the mode and time of the binding of MAC address and IP
address
Answers: C

468. Which of the following statements regarding the function of a router are correct? (Select 3
Answers)
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A. Connecting same networks.

B. Segmenting the packet so that the forwarding is easier
C. Forwarding the packet from one network to another
D. Addressing
Answers: BCD

469. Which of the following statements regarding the routing table are correct? (Select 2
Answers)
A. The next hop in the routing table is redundant because the outgoing interface can be
used for packet forwarding.
B. The routes from generated by different protocols have different preferences.
C. The costs of different routing protocols are comparable.
D. The costs of different routing protocols are not comparable
Answers: BD

470. Which of the following commands can be used to display the routing table on a Quidway
router?
A. Display ip path
B. Display ip routing-table
C. Display interface
D. Display current-configuration
Answers: B

471. Which of the following are the sources of the routes in the routing table? (Select 3
Answers)
A. Some routes are generated during the startup of the router.
B. Some routes are generated according to the data link layer protocol
C. Some routes are configured manually by the administrator
D. Some routes are generated by dynamic routing protocols
Answers: BCD

472. Which of the following entries is not included in the routing table?
A. Source address
B. Next hop
C. Destination address
D. Cost
Answers: A

473. Which of the following items are used to select the best route when a router has
"multiple" routes to the same destination? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Preference of the route
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B. Advertiser of the route

C. Cost of the route
D. TTL of the route
Answers: AC

474. Which of the following protocols are routing protocols? (Select 2 Answers)
A. RIP
B. OSPF
C. PPP
D. IPX
Answers: AB

475. Which of the following statements regarding the route preference are correct? (Select 3
Answers)
A. It is used by RIP and OSPF only
B. It is used by all routing protocols
C. It is an important factor for route selection
D. The default preference value of direct route is 0
Answers: BCD

476. What do we call the routes in the routing table that have the same cost to the same
destination?
A. Equivalent routes
B. Sub-optimal routes
C. Multipath routes
D. Default routes
Answers: A

477. Which of the following routing protocols are the link state routing protocols?
A. RIP
B. BGP
C. IP
D. OSPF
Answers: D

478. According to the algorithms, routing protocols fall into two categories. They are ( ) (Select
2 Answers)
A. IGP
B. EGP
C. Distance Vector
D. Link-state
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Answers: CD

479. Which of the following items are the contents of the routing table? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Destination
B. Cost, Interface, and Next hop
C. Node
D. Router
Answers: AB

480. Which of the following routing protocols are IGPs (Interior Gateway Protocols)? (Select 2
Answers)
A. RIP
B. OSPF
C. IP
D. BGP
Answers: AB

481. Each router forwards only the packets received by the local station through the optimal
path. The packet is forwarded by different routers on the path in a relay mode.
A. True
B. False
Answers: A

482. A routing table can be formed by using different methods. Which of the following
protocols are used to form a routing table? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Static routing protocol
B. Dynamic routing protocol
C. Application-level protocol
D. Transport-level protocol
Answers: AB

483. What functions does a router mainly provide? (Select 3 Answers)

A. Check the destination address in a datagram.
B. Determine the information source.
C. Discover possible routes.
D. Verify and maintain route information.
Answers: ACD

484. When the value of the proto field of a route in a routing table is direct, it indicates that
this route is a ( ). (Select 3 Answers)
A. Route discovered by the protocol at the link layer
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B. Port route
C. Direct route
D. Default route
Answers: ABC

485. Which of the following statements are true? (Select 2 Answers)

A. A route discovered by a protocol at the link layer need not be maintained.
B. A protocol at the link layer can discover only a route to a loopback address.
C. A protocol at the link layer can discover only a route in a network segment connected
directly to a port.
D. A protocol at the link layer can discover only a route across different network
segments.
Answers: AC

486. Which of the following statements are correct? (Select 2 Answers)

A. The calculation method of the preference and cost in the routing table are same.
B. The calculation of cost may be based on "single" link attribute or several link attributes
such as delay, hop count, bandwidth and etc.
C. When several dynamic routing protocols have the best routes to the same destination,
all these routes will be added to the routing table.
D. Some of the dynamic routing protocols calculate the best path base on the cost value.
However, Different routing protocol calculates the metric in different ways
Answers: BD

487. What does the distance vector routing protocol focus on according to the discovered
routes and calculated routes?
A. The number of hops on between the router and the destination
B. The address of the next hop specified manually
C. Whether the egress port on the route belongs to a port aggregation group
D. Link bandwidth resource information
Answers: A

488. When a routing table contains "multiple" routes that have the same route information, a
router selects ( ) as the matched route.
A. The longest route
B. The shortest route
C. The route has the longest mask
D. The route containing minimum number of hops
Answers: C

489. How can the default route be generated? (Select 2 Answers)

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A. Manually configured
B. Automatically generated by the router
C. Generated by dynamic routing protocols
D. Generated by link layer protocol
Answers: AC

490. Equal-cost routes are the routes that have the same ( ).
A. Cost
B. Priority
C. Egress port
D. Next hop
Answers: A

491. Each router only knows how to forward the packet to the next hop IP address. It doesn't
know the end to end forwarding path. This type of forwarding is called ( )
A. Hop by hop forwarding
B. Host by host forwarding
C. Router by router forwarding
D. Network by network forwarding
Answers: A

492. Which of the following is used by routers to forward the packets on the network?
A. DNS lookups
B. ARP tables
C. Routing tables
D. MAC address tables
Answers: C

493. Which of the following statements regarding routing convergence is correct?

A. Convergence is a process that occurs due to network topology changes.
B. Convergence is a process of establishing neighbor relationships between any two
routers by sending hello packets.
C. Convergence is a process of combining the routing tables of two routers.
D. Convergence is a process of synchronizing all routing tables for all the routers in the
network. It is the process for a router to reach the stable and consistence state after the network
changes.
Answers: D

494. A router receives a packet and the destination of the packet does not match any entries of
the routing table in the router. What will the router do?
A. Discard the packet directly
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B. Fragment the packet

C. Forward the packet
D. Forward the packet according to the default route if the default route exists in the
routing table, or else discard the packet
Answers: D

495. If the optimal path to the destination IP address is unavailable after a change occurs in a
network topology, the dynamic routing protocol can make adaptation to this change and
determine another optimal path to the destination IP address.
A. True
B. False
Answers: A

496. Which of the following routing protocols involves simple configuration and low-speed
convergence and is generally used in medium- and small-sized networks?
A. BGP
B. OSPF
C. ISIS
D. RIP
Answers: D

497. Which of the following indicators are used to measure the performance of a dynamic
routing protocol? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Zero routing loop
B. Low protocol cost
C. Number of subnets
D. Route priority
Answers: AB

498. Which of the following configurations regarding default route configuration is correct?
A. [Quidway]ip route-static 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
B. [Quidway]ip route-static 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 172.16.2.1
C. [Quidway- Serial0]ip route-static 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
D. <Quidway>ip route-static 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
Answers: A

499. Which of the following statements regarding default route are correct? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Default route is more preferred over the specific route
B. Default route is used only when the destination route is not in the routing table
C. Default route can be configured manually.
D. Default route is a special type of dynamic route.
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Answers: BC

500. Assume an internal network has only one route to the external networks, which of the
following configurations is better?
A. Default route
B. Host route
C. Dynamic route
D. Direct route
Answers: A

501. Suppose a gateway is configured in a host running Windows system, which of the
following is similar to the configuration on a router?
A. Direct route
B. Default route
C. Dynamic route
D. Host route
Answers: B

502. Which of the following values is the default preference value for static route on the VRP
platform?
A. 0
B. 20
C. 60
D. 100
Answers: C

503. A static route can be either configured manually by a network administrator or generated
automatically.
A. True
B. False
Answers: B

504. Which of the following command is used to configure a static route on Huawei router?
A. ip route-static
B. ip route static
C. route-static ip
D. route static ip
Answers: A

505. A command for configuring a static route contains the destination IP address and mask. In
which notations can the mask be expressed? (Select 2 Answers)
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A. Dotted decimal notation

B. Mask size (namely, the number of binary 1s in the mask)
C. Dotted binary notation
D. Dotted hexadecimal notation
Answers: AB

506. Which of the following configurations regarding static route are correct? (Select 3
Answers)
A. Ip route-static 129.1.0.0 16 serial 0
B. Ip route-static 10.0.0.2 16 129.1.0.0
C. Ip route-static 129.1.0.0 16 10.0.0.2
D. Ip route-static 129.1.0.0.255.255.0.0 10.0.0.2
Answers: ACD

507. Compared to static routing protocol, which of the following are the advantages of
dynamic routing protocol? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Low bandwidth consumption
B. Simple
C. The router running dynamic routing protocol can detect the changes of the network
topology automatically.
D. The router running dynamic routing protocol can calculate the routes automatically.
Answers: CD

508. Which of the following are the advantages of static routing protocol? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Simple configuration
B. Automatic routing updates
C. Enhanced network security
D. Save the bandwidth
Answers: AD

509. Which of the following are the disadvantages of using static routing protocol in the
network? (Select 2 Answers)
A. The configurations are complicated in a large network.
B. Re-configurations are required after the topology changes
C. External routers can not learn the static route configuration which will result in
network unreachability.
D. On the VRP platform, load balancing can not be implemented using static route
Answers: AB

510. Which of the following statements about backup routes are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. A backup route is not added to the global routing table.
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B. A static route does not take part in data forwarding.

C. After the working route fails, a backup route becomes a working route and is added to
the global routing table.
D. A static route together with the working route takes part in data forwarding.
Answers: ABC

511. Which of the following statements regarding static route are correct? (Select 3 Answers)
A. Default route is a special type of dynamic route
B. Some of the dynamic routing protocol such as OSPF can generate default routes.
C. Default route is used when the destination network is not in the routing table.
D. The network IP and mask of the default route is 0.0.0.0 and 0.0.0.0 respectively.
Answers: BCD

512. Which of the following statements about default routes are true? (Select 2 Answers)
A. A route that can be configured manually.
B. A default route can be only configured manually by a network administrator.
C. A default route is a kind of special static route.
D. A default route can be generated by using a dynamic routing protocol.
Answers: AD

513. What does a router do after it receives a datagram containing a destination address that is
not listed in the routing table?
A. The router matches an OSPF route with the destination address.
B. The router matches an RIP route with the destination address.
C. The router matches a BGP route with the destination address.
D. The router uses the default route.
Answers: D

514. How is routing information about a default route expressed?

A. The destination IP address is expressed in all 0s and the mask is expressed in all 1s.
B. The destination IP address is expressed in all 1s and the mask is expressed in all 0s.
C. Both the destination IP address and mask are expressed in all 0s.
D. Both the destination IP address and mask are expressed in all 1s.
Answers: C

515. How many routes at most does a default route on Huawei router support load sharing?
A. 0
B. 2
C. 16
D. 32
Answers: D
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516. After a change occurs in a network topology, which of the following routes does not
change automatically but changes only after the network administrator updates the change?
A. RIP route
B. OSPF route
C. BGP route
D. Static route
Answers: D

517. Which of the following statements regarding OSPF are correct? (Select 3 Answers)
A. Support CIDR (Classless Inter-Domain Routing)
B. Use the distance vector algorithm
C. Use the triggered updates to immediately notify the neighbors about the topology
changes so that the changes are synchronized in the AS.
D. Use the reserved multicast addresses to transmit protocol packets.
Answers: ACD

518. Which of the following statements regarding OSPF are correct? (Select 3 Answers)
A. OSPF is an EGP.
B. OSPF calculates the shortest path tree based on the link sate information and OSPF
itself will not generate the routing loop
C. Supporting authentication of the messages and this enhanced the security
D. Supporting ECMP (Equal Cost Multi-Path)
Answers: BCD

519. Which of the following statements regarding Router ID in OSPF are incorrect? (Select 3
Answers)
A. The Router IDs of OSPF routers in the same area must be the same but they can be
different in different areas.
B. Router ID must be the IP address OSPF router interface.
C. Router ID must be configured manually.
D. OSPF router must be having a Router ID for it to operate properly.
Answers: ABC

520. Which of the following statements regarding the OSPF router types are incorrect? (Select
3 Answers)
A. ABR can be ASBR at the same time.
B. ABR is the router connecting any two OSPF areas and it can be used to transmit the
routing information between them.
C. The router inside an OSPF area can not be ASBR.
D. An OSPF router can belong to two or more areas but can be the ABR for a "single"
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area only.
Answers: BCD

521. In OSPF protocol, most of the packets are sent by using reserved multicast address and
this can reduce the impact on non-OSPF speaking devices.
A. True
B. False
Answers: A

522. On VRP platform, which of the following is the default route preference value for OSPF
routing protocol?
A. 10
B. 1
C. 100
D. 120
Answers: A

523. Which of the following statements regarding Designated Router in OSPF are correct?
(Select 3 Answers)
A. DR is elected by all the routers in the same network segment.
B. If the priorities of two routers are different, the router with the lower priority will be
elected as DR.
C. If the priorities of two routers are equal, the router with the higher Router ID will be
elected as DR.
D. DR and BDR must be adjacent.
Answers: ACD

524. Which of the following network types are supported by OSPF? (Select 3 Answers)
A. Point-to-Point
B. Point-to-Multipoint
C. Bus Topolopy
D. Broadcast
Answers: ABD

525. In OSPF protocol, an ABR can also function as ( ) (Select 2 Answers)

A. IR (Internal Router)
B. BR (Backbone Router)
C. ASBR
D. Stub Router
Answers: BC

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526. On the VRP platform, which of the following commands is used to configure the Router ID
of a router as 1.1.1.1?
A. <Quidway>router id 1.1.1.1
B. [Quidway]router id 1.1.1.1
C. [Quidway]router-id 1.1.1.1
D. [Quidway]router id 1.1.1.1 255.255.255.255
Answers: B

527. In an OSPF area, routers exchange information about ( ). This type of information forms
an information library.
A. Link status
B. Distance vector
C. Route cost
D. Route priority
Answers: A

528. A router with OSPF enabled calculates the shortest route to the destination by using ( )
algorithm.
A. OSPF
B. SPF
C. SRC
D. OPF
Answers: B

529. OSPF can generate a loop-free shortest route tree by using a routing protocol algorithm.
Thus, the OSPF routing protocol has no loop problem.
A. True
B. False
Answers: A

530. OSPF runs over the IP protocol and the IP protocol No. used by OSPF is ( ).
A. 89
B. 80
C. 512
D. 2328
Answers: A

531. OSPF has experienced several versions. Which of the following versions is experimental
and has never been deployed?
A. OSPFv1
B. OSPFv2
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C. OSPFv3
D. OSPFv4
Answers: A

532. Which of the following OSPF versions is specific to the IPv6 technology?
A. OSPFv1
B. OSPFv2
C. OSPFv3
D. OSPFv4
Answers: C

533. Which of the following statements about the features of the OSPF protocol are true?
(Select 3 Answers)
A. The OSPF protocol supports area division.
B. The OSPF protocol is quick in route convergence when routes change.
C. The OSPF protocol supports "multiple" equal-cost routes.
D. The OSPF protocol supports encrypt protocol packets.
Answers: ABC

534. The link state database (LSDB) on an OSPF router is formed based on ( ). (Select 2
Answers)
A. local LSA
B. LSA advertised by a neighboring router
C. RSVP packet advertised to a neighboring router
D. RSVP packet advertised by a neighboring router
Answers: AB

535. Each router calculates the shortest path tree based on the LSDB with itself as a ( ) node.
A. Root
B. leaf
C. Specified root
D. Backup
Answers: A

536. The shortest path tree calculated by a router in an OSPF area provides ( ) on the path
from this router to other nodes in the network.
A. All link states
B. Routing table
C. MAC address table
D. ARP table
Answers: B
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537. Which of the following statements about an OSPF neighboring router are true? (Select 2
Answers)
A. An OSPF interface broadcasts Hello packets to discover a neighbor.
B. After a router receives a Hello packet from the peer router, it becomes the neighbor of
the peer router.
C. After an OSPF router receives a Hello packet from the peer OSPF router, it checks the
parameters in the packet. If the parameters in the packet from the peer OSPF router are
consistent with the parameters of this OSPF router, the two OSPF routers become neighbors of
each other.
D. Neighbor discovery is equivalent to adjacency establishment.
Answers: AC

538. Two OSPF routers become neighbors only after they successfully exchange ( ) packets and
LSAs.
A. Hello
B. DD
C. LSR
D. LSU
Answers: B

539. When two routers synchronize their LSDBs, they use ( ) packets to describe their own
LSDBs.
A. Hello
B. DD
C. LSR
D. LSU
Answers: B

540. Which of the following statements regarding the routing loop in OSPF is correct?
A. Routing loop is eliminated within an OSPF area.
B. Routing loop is not eliminated between two OSPF areas.
C. Routing loop is not eliminated within an OSPF Autonomous Systems.
D. No routing loop exists outside the OSPF autonomous system.
Answers: A

541. Which of the following statements regarding OSPF area are incorrect? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Without manual configuration, an OSPF area is a backbone area with area ID 0 by
default.
B. OSPF supports area division.
C. Every OSPF area is identified by a 32-bit Area ID number.
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D. Area ID must be assigned by IANA and we can not simply assign it.
Answers: AD

542. Which of the following steps are necessary to configure OSPF on Huawei router? (Select 3
Answers)
A. Configuring Router ID
B. Enabling OSPF process
C. Specifying OSPF area
D. Configuring the network segments included by each area
Answers: BCD

543. Which of the following statements regarding DR in OSPF network are correct? (Select 2
Answers)
A. There must be one DR in an OSPF area.
B. A DR must be elected among the routers through the negotiations that are defined by
OSPF protocol.
C. Only the router with highest priority will be elected as DR.
D. Only NBMA or Broadcast network need to elect DR
Answers: BD

544. Which of the following statements regarding adjacencies of OSPF routers are correct?
(Select 4 Answers)
A. After two routers have been received the Hello packets from each other, they will form
the adjacency automatically.
B. If two routers are fully adjacent, the network type between them may be Point-to-
Point network.
C. If two routers are fully adjacent, the network type between them may be Point-to-
Multipoint network.
D. If two routers are fully adjacent and the network type between them is broadcast
network, then one of routers must be either DR or BDR.
E. Only two adjacent routers can exchange LSAs.
Answers: BCDE

545. In broadcast network of OSPF protocol, any two DR Others will neither exchange routing
information nor send Hello packet to each other due to the existence of DR.
A. True
B. False
Answers: B

546. OSPF is an application layer protocol and it runs on ( )

A. UDP, port number 520
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B. TCP, port number 179

C. IP, Protocol Number 89
D. Data Link layer
Answers: C

547. On the VRP platform, which of the following commands can be used to enter area 0 view?
(Select 2 Answers)
A. [Quidway]ospf area 0
B. [Quidway-ospf-1]area 0
C. [Quidway-ospf-1]area 0.0.0.0
D. [Quidway-ospf-1]area 0 enable
Answers: BC

548. Which of the following commands is used to display the OSPF neighbor relationship
establishment?
A. display ospf neighbor
B. display ospf brief
C. display ospf peer
D. display ospf interface
Answers: C

549. With what kind of routers does a DRother router exchange link state information and
route information? (Select 2 Answers)
A. DR
B. BDR
C. DRother
D. All OSPF neighbors
Answers: AB

550. An OSPF area is a collection of a group of routers and networks. OSPF defines that the
routers that have the same ( ) belong to the same OSPF area.
A. neighbor
B. LSDB
C. LSA
D. adjacency
Answers: B

551. Which of the following statements about router IDs are true? (Select 2 Answers)
A. The routers contained in the same LSDB have the same router ID.
B. Each router in an OSPF network must have a unique router ID.
C. Two routers in different OSPF areas can have the same router ID.
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D. A router ID is expressed in the same format as an IP address.

Answers: BD

552. OSPF takes the precedence to select ( ) as a router ID unless you specify a router ID
manually.
A. the biggest IP address of all the loopback port addresses
B. the biggest IP address of the physical port IP addresses
C. 127.0.0.1
D. the IP address of a port connected to an OSPF neighbor
Answers: A

553. OSPF allows for "multiple" processes. By default, OSPF selects a process whose No. is ( ).
A. 0
B. 1
C. 10
D. 100
Answers: B

554. After OSPF divides an AS into different areas, what is communicated between these areas?
A. Abstract route information for each area
B. Link state information for each area
C. Topology information for each area
D. Link bandwidth information for each area
Answers: A

555. A backbone OSPF area is responsible for releasing the information collected by each
border router to non-backbone OSPF areas. Which of the following represents the ID of a
backbone OSPF area?
A. area 0
B. area 1
C. area 0.0.0.1
D. area 0.0.0.2
Answers: A

556. Which of the following statements regarding the backbone area in OSPF protocol are
correct? (Select 3 Answers)
A. The area ID of the backbone area is 0.0.0.1.
B. Each area must be connected to the backbone area.
C. Backbone area is responsible for advertising the aggregated routing information
generated by ABR between non-backbone areas.
D. ABR connects to different areas and at least one of the connected area is backbone
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area.
Answers: BCD

557. Assume that a non-backbone area and backbone area can not be directly connected.
Which of the following ways can be used to solve this problem?
A. Configuring ABR
B. Configuring ASBR
C. Configuring Virtual-link
D. Configuring Stub area
Answers: C

558. A router runs OSPF and its interface Serial 0 with IP address 10.0.0.1/30 belongs to the
backbone area, which of the following commands is used to enable OSPF at this interface?
A. [Quidway-ospf -1-area-0.0.0.0]network 10.0.0.0
B. [Quidway-ospf -1-area-0.0.0.0]network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.3
C. [Quidway-serial0]ospf area 0 enable
D. [Quidway-ospf -1]network 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.252
Answers: B

559. In an OSPF network, an ASBR router advertises the information about the routes outside
an AS to the AS. Which of the following routers can function as an ASBR? (Select 3 Answers)
A. IR
B. ABR
C. A router that belongs to the backbone OSPF area
D. A router that does not belong to the backbone OSPF area
Answers: BCD

560. Which of the following statements about the configuration of OSPF areas are true? (Select
2 Answers)
A. All non-backbone OSPF areas must be connected to a backbone OSPF area, either
physically or logically.
B. An ABR generates LSDBs separately for backbone OSPF areas and non-backbone OSPF
areas.
C. The same network segment on an ABR must be enabled in both backbone OSPF areas
and non-backbone OSPF areas.
D. An ABR generates a uniform LSDB for all OSPF areas.
Answers: AB

561. What functions does a Hello packet of OSPF implement? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Discover a neighbor.
B. Delete unreachable neighbors at specified time.
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C. Maintain neighborhood.
D. Negotiate parameters among adjacent ports.
Answers: AC

562. What advantages does hierarchical routing defined by OSPF have? (Select 3 Answers)
A. Extend the interval of SPF calculation.
B. Decrease the size of a routing table.
C. Reduce the number of link state update packets.
D. Reduce the number of network layers.
Answers: ABC

563. OSPF routers are classified into four types. Which of the following statements about
interior routers (IRs) are true? (Select 2 Answers)
A. The ports on an IR belong to a same area.
B. An IR is located in the center of a physical area.
C. Only one port on an IR connects to a backbone area.
D. If all the ports on an IR belong to area 0, this IR functions as a backbone router.
Answers: AD

564. Which of the following areas fall into the OSPF area group? (Select 3 Answers)
A. Standard area
B. Stub area
C. Totally stubby area
D. Boundary area
Answers: ABC

565. Which of the following statements about the functions of an ABR are true? (Select 3
Answers)
A. An ABR is a gateway in the case of communication between different areas.
B. An ABR collects the topology information about an area that is connected to the ABR
and sends the information to the backbone area.
C. An ABR maintains one LSDB for every area connected to the ABR.
D. An ABR provides at least two port for connecting to a backbone area.
Answers: ABC

566. Which of the following is the metric of OSPF?

A. Number of hops
B. COST
C. Priority
D. LSA
Answers: B
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567. Each OSPF router floods LSAs to advertise link status information, including ( ). (Select 3
Answers)
A. Ports
B. Available neighbors
C. Information about adjacent network segments
D. Local link status information
Answers: BCD

568. According to the OSPF protocol, a router floods LSAs. In this context, what does "flood"
mean?
A. An action sending a link state database
B. An action synchronizing a link state database
C. An action sending and synchronizing a link state database
D. An action deleting a link state database from a port
Answers: C

569. Which of the following statements about the information contained in a DD packet are
true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. A DD packet contains all information about each LSA.
B. A DD packet contains only the header of an LSA.
C. The header of an LSA is the unique identifier of the LSA.
D. The header of an LSA is only a small portion of all the data of the LSA.
Answers: BCD

570. In IS-IS, the system ID must be the IP address of the router.

A. True
B. False
Answers: B

571. The IS-IS protocol supports TLV encoding. The BGP4 protocol does not support TLV
encoding.
A. True
B. False
Answers: B

572. How many layers the IS-IS can devided into?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
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Answers: A

573. How many area addresses can be supported by an IS-IS router at the same time?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answers: B

574. In IS-IS, which of the following commands is used to change the interface level?
A. [Quidway-isis-1] is-level level-1
B. [Quidway-isis-1] isis level level-1
C. [Quidway-GigabitEthernet1/0/0] isis is-level level-1
D. [Quidway-GigabitEthernet1/0/0] isis circuit-level level-1
Answers: D

575. OSPF and IS-IS have many similarities. In OSPF, the backbone area is represented by area
0. What is the area number of the IS-IS backbone area?
A. Area 0
B. Area 1
C. Area 49
D. No specific backbone area.
Answers: D

576. What are the parts of an LSP ID?

A. System ID
B. Pseudonode ID
C. LSP content
D. LSP ID
Answers: ABD

577. Which of the following statements about the IS-IS backbone area are correct?
A. It is composed of all L2 routers (including L1/L2).
B. Can be discontinuous.
C. Used for inter-area routing.
D. This field is identified by the area area 0.
Answers: AC

578. Which layer does IS-IS run?

A. Data-Link layer
B. Network Layer
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C. Transport Layer
D. Applicaion Layer
Answers: A

579. Which of the following statements about the IS-IS backbone area are correct?
A. A router belonging to all areas
B. All routers belong to the same area.
C. Some L2 and L1-L2 routers
D. A central area connected to other areas
Answers: C

580. This device is used between the zones with different security level, control the information
exchanged between two networks, enforce the implementation of unified security policy, and
prevent the intruder from copying and accessing the important information illegally. In short
words, it protects the security of the system. Which of the following devices provides the
function mentioned above?
A. Firewall
B. Gateway
C. Router
D. IDS
Answers: A

581. The control policy configured in firewall is"unless the deny action is specified, else the
action is permit". This type of control policy is call ( ).
A. Loose control policy
B. Strict control policy
C. Compromise control policy
D. Default control policy
Answers: A

582. Which of the following is the default control policy on Eudemon firewall?
A. Loose control policy
B. Strict control policy
C. Compromise control policy
D. No default control policy
Answers: B

583. The evolution of firewall technology goes through the following three stages, and these
stages include ( ) (Select 3 Answers)
A. Packet filtering firewall
B. Proxy firewall
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C. Stateful firewall
D. Link-layer firewall
Answers: ABC

584. This type of firewall directly obtains the information such as source IP address, destination
IP address, source TCP/UDP port, destination TCP/UDP port and protocol number in the packet
header and filters the packets based on the defined policy. Which of the following is the firewall
described above?
A. Packet filtering firewall
B. Proxy firewall
C. Stateful firewall
D. Link-layer firewall
Answers: A

585. Which of the following are the disadvantages of packet filtering firewall? (Select 2
Answers)
A. Complicated configuration and can result in a lot of problems due to mis-configuration
B. As the complexity and length of ACL increase, its performance will degrade greatly
C. Simple configuration
D. Low overhead, high processing speed
Answers: AB

586. Packet filtering firewall filters packet based on quintuplet. Which of the following are the
components of quintuplet? (Select 3 Answers)
A. IP address
B. Protocol number
C. Port number
D. Application program
E. MAC address
Answers: ABC

587. Which of the following firewalls acts as an intermediate node in which it acts as a server
for the client and acts as a client for the server? Which of the following firewalls best describes
the firewall mentioned above?
A. Packet filtering firewall
B. Proxy firewall
C. Stateful firewall
D. Application layer gateway firewall
Answers: B

588. Which of the following statements regarding proxy firewall are correct? (Select 3 Answers)
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A. For the proxy firewall, a module must be developed for each application. Therefore,
the development cost is high.
B. Proxy firewall has better security compared with packet filtering firewall.
C. Proxy firewall does not support abundant services
D. The performance of proxy firewall is higher
Answers: ABC

589. Which of the following methods are supported by VRP platform to configure the router?
(Select 3 Answers)
A. Through the Console port
B. Through Telnet
C. Through the AUX port
D. Through FTP
Answers: ABC

590. Which of the following is abbreviation of VRP?

A. Versatile Routine Platform
B. Virtual Routing Platform
C. Virtual Routing Plane
D. Versatile Routing Platform
Answers: D

591. On VRP platform, the command lines are classified into four levels in increasing priority:
Visit level, Monitoring level, Configuration level, and Management level. At which level, the
operator is permitted to configure service but is not permitted to operate the file system?
A. Visit level
B. Monitoring level
C. Configuration level
D. Management level
Answers: C

592. On Huawei VRP platform, which of the following can be used to invoke the history
command saved by the command line interface? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Up cursor key <
B. Left cursor key <
C. Ctrl+P
D. Ctrl+U
Answers: AC

593. Which of the following commands can be used to view the current configurations on a
Quidway router?
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A. Display current-configuration
B. Display saved-configuration
C. View saved-configuration
D. Show startup- configuration
Answers: A

594. Which of the following storage devices are supported by Huawei Quidway router? (Select
4 Answers)
A. SDRAM
B. NVRAM
C. Flash
D. Hard Disk
E. CF Card
Answers: ABCE

595. Which of the following storage devices is used to store the startup configuration files in a
router?
A. SDRAM
B. NVRAM
C. Flash
D. BootROM
Answers: B

596. The operation deleting the configuration files saved in the storage devices will become
effective after rebooting the router.
A. True
B. False
Answers: A

597. Which of the following commands is used to enter the system-view from the user view on
a Huawei router?
A. System-view
B. Enable
C. Configure terminal
D. Interface system
Answers: A

598. Which of the following products use the VRP platform as the core engine of their
software? (Select 3 Answers)
A. Router
B. Ethernet switch
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C. Service gateway
D. LTE
Answers: ABC

599. VRP uses a component-based system architecture. It provides various functions and
features in addition to application-based scalability and customization.
A. True
B. False
Answers: A

600. What functions does VRP provide? (Select 3 Answers)

A. Provides a unified user interface and a unified management window.
B. Provides the functions of a control plane.
C. Defines interfaces of a forwarding plane.
D. Blocks communication between a forwarding plane and the VRP control plane.
Answers: ABC

601. Which component of the VRP platform provides user authentication charging and user
policy management?
A. Service control plane
B. Versatile control plane
C. System management plane
D. None of the above
Answers: A

602. Currently, Huawei routers support local or remote configuration by using the SSH.
A. True
B. False
Answers: B

603. Which of the following must be used to establish the configuration environment when a
router is powered on for the first time?
A. SSL
B. SSH
C. Console port
D. Telnet
Answers: C

604. After powering on a router for the first time, a user correctly configures the IP address of
each port on the router, the login authentication mode, and incoming and outgoing call
limitations. In this case, how can the user log in to the router the next time? (Select 2 Answers)
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A. SSD
B. SSL
C. Console
D. Telnet
Answers: CD

605. When a router and a PC are in a same LAN, which of the following methods can be used
to Telnet the router through the PC? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Connect the PC to the router through a hub or a Layer 2 switch by using a standard
straight through cable.
B. Connect the PC to the router directly by using a crossover cable.
C. Connect the PC to the router through a hub or a Layer 2 switch by using a crossover
cable.
D. Connect the PC to the router directly by using a standard straight through cable.
Answers: AB

606. If a WAN exists between a router and a terminal, a user on the terminal can Telnet the
router only when ( ).
A. A route is available between the terminal and the router.
B. A route is available between the terminal and the router and the communication
between the terminal and router is normal.
C. The terminal and router are in the same VPN.
D. The IP address of the terminal and that of the router belong to the same network
segment.
Answers: B

607. FTP and TFTP can be used to update the system file on Huawei routers. Which of the
following statements are correct? (Select 3 Answers)
A. Huawei router can be configured as FTP Client
B. Huawei router can be configured as FTP Server
C. Huawei router can be configured as TFTP Client
D. Huawei router can be configured as TFTP Server
Answers: ABC

608. Which of the following commands can switch a view from the system view to the user
view?
A. System-view
B. Router
C. Quit
D. User-view
Answers: C
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609. Which of the following parameter settings for the hyper terminal are correct when we
configure a Huawei router through the Console port?
A. 4800bps, 8 data bits,1 stop bits, odd parity check, and no flow control
B. 9600bps, 8 data bits, 1 stop bits, no parity check, and no flow control
C. 9600bps, 8 data bits, 1 stop bits, even parity check, and hardware flow control
D. 19200bps, 8 data bits, 1 stop bits, no parity check, and no flow control
Answers: B

610. When VRP platform is configured as TFTP client, it can transmit files in binary mode and
ASCII mode.
A. True
B. False
Answers: B

611. Which of the following protocols can be used to upgrade VRP? (Select 3 Answers)
A. FTP
B. TFTP
C. TELNET
D. XMODEM
Answers: ABD

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