LNHS REVIEW INITIATIVES

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CHEMISTRY
PART 1: WARM UP.
A. Instructions: Classify the following as mixture or pure substance AND atom, molecules or
compound. Hindi kasi dapat binibigla ang mga bagay bagay.

B. Instructions: Fill in the table below. Mas masaya kasi pag complete.

PART 2: MULTIPLE CHOICE.

Directions: Identify the correct answer but make sure that you read and analyse each question carefully.
Minsan kasi akala mo tama ‘yun pero mali pala.
1. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a. Alchemy was the first quantitative basis of modern chemistry.
b. The principles of alchemy and modern chemistry are the same.
c. Early philosophers defined compounds as the product of three basic elements.
d. Alchemy combined chemistry with metal work.
2. Glass exhibits ________ because it easily breaks
A. Tenacity B. Malleability C. Ductility D. Brittleness

3. Most kitchen utensils have plastic handles. This is because:

A. It is lighter than metal B. It is a good conductor of heat
C. It is a poor conductor of heat D. It is denser than metal
4. This is the amount of space occupied by matter
A. Density B. Weight C. Volume D. Mass
5. This change results in the formation of a new substance
A. Potential B. Gradational C. Chemical D. Physical

6. ______is the simplest substance that cannot be decomposed further by normal chemical means.
A. Molecule B. Compound C. Mixture D. Element

7. __________ is often called the father of modern chemistry.

A. Antoine Lavoisier B. Niels Bohr C. Ernest Rutherford D. Robert Boyle

8. Which example has particles that can be drawn closer to occupy smaller volume?
A. fruit juice B. block of wood C. air inside the syringe D. ice cube
9. Last summer vacation, the Cruz family decided to go to Pagudpod, Ilocos Norte to have a beach party. On their way to
Ilocos, all of them were surprised when the tire suddenly exploded. What is the probable explanation for the blown out tire
during a long summer drive?
A. High temperature causes a decrease in volume.
B. The amount of the gases inside the tire is increased.
C. The mass of the gases inside the tire increases causing a blown up tire.
D. The volume of gases increases as the temperature increases, causing a blown up tire.
10. How can you possibly prove that gases have negligible mass?
A. put a balloon in a digital balance before and after you fill it with air
B. feel the weight of the samples on both hands
C. ask two persons to hold a box filled with air
D. support your claim through equation
11. Each of the following containers is air tight and has the same number of gas molecules. Which container has the highest
pressure?

12. Each of the following containers has the same size. Which of following containers has the most compressed gas molecules?

13. During chemical reactions

A. Atoms are destroyed B. Atoms are rearranged
C. Elements are destroyed D. New elements are produced

14. How is a chemical equation balanced?

a. changing subscripts b. erasing elements as necessary
c. adding coefficients d. adding elements as necessary
15. What determines an atom’s ability to undergo chemical reactions?
A. protons B. neutrons C. innermost electrons D. outermost electrons
16. The process whereby acid and base are combined is called _____________.
A. Distillation B. Neutralization C. Titration D. Filtration
17. Which of the following substance is a solution?
A. Copper B. Air C. Salt D. Gold
18. The main product of combustion is ____________.
A. Oxygen B. Carbon Dioxide C. Hydrogen D. Smoke
19. Which of the following is an example of chemical change?
A. The vaporization of naphthalene balls B. The burning of wood
C. The dissolution of salt in water D. The boiling of water
20. Sodium hydroxide is an example of a/an ___________.
A. Base B. Salt C. Element D. Acid
21. One of the following is NOT an acid.
A. CH3COOH B. HNO3 C. H2O D. HCl
22. The following are characteristics of acids EXCEPT:
A. It neutralizes the base B. It tastes sour
C. It turns blue litmus paper to red D. It feels soapy
23. The relative acidity or basicity of a substance is expressed in terms of pH which ranges from 1 to 14. pH 7 is neutral. Acids
have pH values smaller than 7. What is the possible pH value of bases?
A. exactly 7 B. less than 7 C. greater than 7 D. same as an acid
24. Water is a compound usually found as a liquid but it can also be a solid or a gas. Which of the following statements is
TRUE?
A. Water can only evaporate at 0˚C.
B. Water can also evaporate at lower temperature but the evaporation is slower,
C. Water can evaporate only when it is boiling.
D. Water cannot evaporate when temperature is low.
25. In freezing, liquid changes to solid. What happen in condensation?
A. Gas changes to liquid B. Solid changes to gas without passing the liquid state.
C. Liquid changes to gas D. Gas changes to another form
For items 26 – 28, please refer to the text below.
To purify water from lakes and rivers, it undergoes four processes. First, it has to pass through strainers to remove
the floating objects. Secondly, its colloidal particles have to settle out in sedimentation tank. Then, it is filtered to produce
clear water. Finally, chlorine is added before it is stored.
26. If the water is muddy, alum is added to clog colloidal particles together. Alum is then known as a __________.
A. A sterilizing agent B. Settling agent C. A strainer D. A colloidal particle
27. Clear water still contains bacteria and other organism. A chemical should be added to sterilize it. The chemical which is
commonly used is ______.
A. Chlorine B. Iodine C. Sodium Chloride D. Fluoride
28. Water from lakes and seas should pass through strainers to remove floating substance. These substances could be:
A. alum, sand and chlorine B. strainer, tank and pump
C. dust, soil particles and oil D. Seaweeds and suspended organisms like algae
29. Why does mercury rise in a thermometer when the temperature increases?
A. Mercury is a liquid metal. B. Mercury contracts when heated.
C. Mercury expands when heated. D. Heat replaces mercury at the base of the thermometer
30. Atoms are made up of protons, electrons and neutrons. What holds an atom together?
A. Chemical bond B. force of attraction between proton and neutron
C. its nucleus D. force of attraction between proton and electron

31. Which of the following situations demonstrate a change in the state of matter?
A. A pinch of coffee granules is added to a glass of water.
B. A hole is pricked in a balloon.
C. A block of wood is cut in half.
D. A box of chocolates is placed in a weighing scale.
32. Antacids like milk of magnesia relieve indigestion by neutralizing excess acids in the stomach. Which of the following
must be true for antacids?
A. It contains an acid. B. It has high pH C. It contains a base D. B&C
33. Carbonated beverages (i.e., softdrinks) are examples of solutions that have gas (carbon dioxide) dissolved in liquid (in
which flavors may be added like cola, lime, orange, etc.) A glass of carbonated beverage left in a warm room would soon taste
flat, while a glass of the same beverage stored in the refrigerator does not. Which best explains why this happens?
A. Water molecules evaporate more rapidly at high temperature.
B. The rate of dissolution is slower at low temperature than at high temperature.
C. The solubility of gas in liquid decreases as temperature decreases.
D. The solubility of gas in liquid decreases as temperature increases.
34. An ice cube in your hand melts, your hand begins to feel cold. Which of the following is TRUE?
A. Coldness from the ice flows into your hands.
B. The ice loses energy and becomes water.
C. Molecules in your hand gain energy from the ice.
D. Heat leaves your hand and is absorbed by the ice.
35. Oil and water do not mix because ___________.
A. Both are non-polar molecules. B. Both are polar molecules.
C. Water is polar, oil is non polar. D. Oil is polar, water is non – polar.
36. Substance X has a pH of 7.8, substance Y has a pH of 8.2 and substance Z has a pH of 9.4. Which statement(s) is/are
TRUE?
A. Substance Y is more acidic than X, but less acidic than Z.
B. Substance Y is more basic than X, but less basic than Z.
C. Substance Y is less acidic than X, but more acidic than Z.
D. Substance Y is less basic than X, but more basic than Z.
37. What is the main principle behind the Law of Conservation of Mass?
A. Heat must be added so that mass can remain constant
B. Mass will always remain constant unless a chemical reaction occurs
C. Matter does not change phase during a reaction
D. The total magnitude of mass in a system does not change during a chemical reaction
38. Who was the first to realize the Law of Conservation of Mass?
A. Amadeo Avogadro B. Michael Faraday C. Antoine Lavoisier D. Joseph Priestley
39. A 20.5 g calcium oxide (CaO) and an 3.51g water are made to completely react to form calcium hydroxide (Ca(OH) 2).
Based on Dalton’s law of conservation of mass, the mass of Ca(OH)2 should be _______ .
A. less than 20.5g B. equal to 24.01 g C. equal to 3.51 g D. cannot be determined
40. Identify the law that explains the following observation: Nitrogen dioxide can be formed by reacting 14 grams of Nitrogen
with 32 gram of oxygen.
A. Law of Constant Composition B. Law of Multiple Proportions C. Law of Conservation of Mass D. Boyle’s Law
41. Which of the following compounds CANNOT demonstrate the law of multiple proportions?
A. NO, NO2 B. CO, CO2 C. H20, H2O2 D. Na2S, NaF
42. Who was the first person to publish a theory about the existence of the atom?
A. Ernest Rutherford B. John Dalton C. JJ Thompson D. Erwin Schrodinger
43. According to Dalton’s atomic theory, which of the following is involved in a chemical reaction?
A. The conversion of one atom into another B. The formation of a new atom
C. The combination of atoms D. The disappearance of an atom
44. Which of the following is NOT part of Dalton’s Atomic Theory?
 A. All matter is made up of small particles called atoms B. A chemical reaction is a rearrangement of atoms.
C. Nuclear fission is a possibility. D. All atoms of a certain element are identical
45. Which isotope of hydrogen is also known as heavy hydrogen?
A. H-1 B. H-2 C. H-3 D. H-4
46. The nickel ion, Ni3+ is normally formed by ____________.
A. removing 3 electrons from a neutral nickel atom. B. removing 3 protons from a neutral nickel atom.
C. adding 3 electrons to a neutral nickel atom. D. adding 3 protons to a neutral nickel atom.
47. Which of the following anions is polyatomic?
A. Iodide B. Nitrite C. Sulfide D. Bromide
48. Which of the following is a binary compound?
A. Sodium nitrate B. Sodium hydroxide C. Sodium oxide D. Sodium carbonate
49. A diagram representing water molecules in the solid phase (ice) is shown on the right.
Which of these diagrams best shows what water would look like after it
melts (changes to a liquid)?

A. B. C. D.
50. Consider three samples of water in three phases. The first is solid water (ice) at 0C, the second is liquid water at 24C,
and the third is gaseous water at 100C. The water molecules in the liquid phase __________ the water molecules in the gaseous
phase.
A. move faster than B. move slower than C. move at the same speed as D. move more randomly than
51. Which of these is an example of a physical property? 
A. corrosiveness of sulfuric acid B. lead becomes a liquid when heated to 601C
C. flammability of gasoline D. neutralization of stomach acid with an antacid
52. Which of the following is an extensive property of a bubble of air?
A. Radius B. Density C. Temperature D. Percent oxygen
53. A student was given a mixture containing copper oxide (insoluble) and copper sulfate (soluble) and asked to separate them.
Firstly, she stirred the mixture into water and then filtered it. Next, she evaporated the filtrate. What substance was the residue and
filtrate?
A. Copper sulfate B. Copper sulfate and copper oxide
C. Copper oxide D. Copper oxide and copper sulfate

54. Choose the response that includes all the items listed below that are pure substances.
  I. orange juice    II. steam     III. wine     IV. oxygen    V. soup
A. I, III, V B. II, IV C. I, III, IV D. IV only
55. What substance that cannot be broken down into simpler ones is organized in the periodic table?
A. Compound B. Mixture C. Element D. Solution
56. If you mix water and soy sauce, the resulting liquid is classified as _____________________.
A. heterogeneous compound B. homogeneous compound
C. heterogeneous mixture D. homogeneous mixture
To answer numbers 9–10, refer to this information.
Potassium bromide (KBr) is an antiepileptic drug for animals. It is manufactured from potassium
carbonate and iron bromide.
57. Potassium bromide is _________________.
A. a compound B. a mixture C. an element D. a solution
58. Which of the following statements is true?
A. KBr is a product of a physical change. B. KBr is a product of a chemical change.
C. KBr is a product of an element and a compound. D. KBr can be separated into potassium and bromine by evaporation.
59. Under which of the following volumes will 1.00 mol of an ideal gas exhibit the greatest pressure at 300 K?
A. 0.01 L B. 0.10 L C. 1.00 L D. 10.0 L
60. Hydrogen, H2(g),reacts with oxygen, O2(g), to form water H2O(l):
2 H2(g) + O2(g) 2 H2O(g)
How many liters of oxygen gas, measured at STP, will be needed to react completely with 10.0 L hydrogen gas, also measured at STP?
A. 5.00 L B. 10.0 L C. 20.0 L D. 100.0 L
61. Which of the following postulates of the Kinetic Molecular Theory for gases can explain why gases exhibit pressure?
A. The molecules are in constant random motion.
B. The molecules collide with the walls of the vessel.
C. The distance between the molecules is great.
D. The molecular kinetic energy depends on temperature.
62. How will the velocity of a gas molecule vary if its molecular weight is increased from 32 g mol-1 to 64 g mol-1?
 A. The velocity will increase. B. The velocity will decrease.
C. The velocity will double. D. The velocity will remain the same.
63. Which of the following types of electromagnetic radiation will have the least energy?
A. gamma rays B. visible light C. Microwaves D. x-rays
64. Waves are characterized by frequency and wavelength. Frequency is
A. is the distance between two consecutive peaks or troughs in a wave.
B. is the number of cycles or complete oscillations that pass a given point per second.
C. the vertical distance from the midline of a wave to the peak or trough.
D. has units of J-s.
65. In the Bohr model of the H atom
A. The atom is a mass of positive charge with electrons embedded in it.
B. The electron energy increases as it gets closer to the nucleus.
C. The electron goes around the nucleus in certain allowed circular orbits.
D. Energy is absorbed when an electron goes from an orbit of high energy to an orbit of low energy
66. Complete this sentence: Atoms emit visible and ultraviolet light __________.
A. as electrons jump from lower energy levels to higher levels.
B. as the atoms condense from a gas to a liquid.
C. as electrons jump from higher energy levels to lower levels.
D. as they are heated and the solid melts to form a liquid.
67. Which type of UV has the lowest energy?
A. UVA (320 – 400 nm) B. UVB (290 – 320 nm) C. UVC (180 – 280 nm) D. UVD (100 - 179 nm)

68. Energy absorbed by electron is used in

A. escaping metal B. increasing kinetic energy C. both A and B D. increasing frequency
69. The photoelectric effect
A. provides the basis for generating modern–day lasers.
B. can only be observed if photons of exactly the right frequency are used
C. demonstrates that light has a particle nature.
D. shows that electrons sometimes behave like waves
70. Suppose that a tennis ball, a neutron, an electron, and a pingpong ball are all moving at the same speed. The wavelengths
associated with them will be of the order:
A. tennis ball > pingpong ball> electron> neutron B. pingpong ball> tennis ball > electron > neutron
C. neutron > electron > pingpong ball > tennis ball D. electron > neutron > pingpong ball > tennis ball
71. Electrons can clearly be seen to have a wave nature
A. under no circumstances. B. in their behaviour in electrical circuits.
C. when used in diffraction experiments. D. when colliding with other electrons in a wire.
72. According to the Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle, the uncertainty ∆x in position of an object and uncertainty ∆v in speed
are related as ∆x ∆v > h/4π, where h is Planck’s constant. This tells us that
A. knowing the exact position also tells us exactly the speed.
B. determining the position more accurately leads to a more accurate determination of the speed.
C. determining the position more accurately leads to a less accurate determination of the speed.
D. the accuracy of knowing the position is independent of the accuracy of knowing the speed.

73. An electron microscope can see finer structures than ordinary microscopes because
A. electrons are very tiny particles.
B. the energy of the electrons is relatively low.
C. the electrons have a relatively small de Broglie wavelength.
D. the electrons have a relatively large de Broglie wavelength.
74. Why don’t ordinary objects like bowling balls readily exhibit a wave nature?
A. Only objects at the atomic scale in principle can behave as waves.
B. Bowling balls normally have an extremely short de Broglie wavelength.
C. Bowling balls normally have an extremely long de Broglie wavelength.
D. Bowling balls are usually electrically neutral.

75. Which of the four quantum numbers (n, l, ml , ms) determine (a) the energy of an electron in a hydrogen atom and in a
many electron atom, (b) the size of an orbital, (c) the shape of an orbital, (d) the orientation of an orbital in space?
A. (a) n (b) ms (c) l (d) ml B. (a) ms (b) n (c) l (d) ml
C. (a) ml (b) ms (c) l (d) n D. (a) l (b) ms (c) n (d) ml
76. In the Davisson-Germer experiment in 1927, a beam of electrons was scattered off a crystal of nickel. The intensity of the
scattered beam varied with the angle of scattering, and analysis of these results lead to confirmation of
A. the wave nature of electrons. B. the Rutherford model of the nucleus.
B. the Bohr model of the atom. D. the particle nature of light.
77. Light of wavelength 105 nm falls on a metal surface for which the work function is 5.00 eV, h = 6.626 ×10-34 J ∙ s = 4.136 ×10-15
eV ∙ s, c = 3.00 ×108 m/s, 1.00 eV = 1.60 ×10-19 J. The minimum de Broglie wavelength of the photoelectrons (of mass 9.11 ×10-31
kg) emitted from this metal is closest to:
A. 0.332 nm B. 0.939 nm C. 0.235 nm D. 0.470 nm
78. Calcium has an atomic number of 20. A stable calcium atom has an electronic configuration of
a. 1s22s22p63s23p64s2 b. 1s21p61d101f2 c. 1s22s22p63s23p63d2 d. 1s22s22p63s23p6
79. Which element is represented by the orbital diagram shown on the right?
a. Carbon b. Oxygen c. Boron d. Nitrogen
80. Diamagnets are substances repelled by a magnetic field. Which of the following orbital diagram represents a diamagnetic
element?

A. B.

C. D
..
81. Which of the following is the smallest in size?
a. N b. S c. I d. Fr
82. Electronegativity is
A. how strongly an atom pulls electrons to itself when it is bonded to other atoms.
B. how much energy is needed to take an electron away from an atom.
C. how large an atom is.
D. the total negative charge of the electrons in an atom.
83. Which has the lowest ionization energy?
A. beryllium (Be) B. strontium (Sr) C. calcium (Ca) D. magnesium (Mg)
84. If an electron dot structure has only TWO dots, the elements must be
a. Al b. Na c. Cl d. Mg
85. Which statement correctly describes the Lewis dot structure for O2?
a. There is a double bond and four lone pairs. b. There is a double bond and six lone pairs.
c. There is a single bond and four lone pairs. d. There is a single bond and six lone pairs.
86. Which of the following statements best describes the structure of BF3?
a. It obeys the octet rule on all atoms. b. It has less than an octet on at least one atom.
c. It has a lone pair of electrons on the boron atom. d. It has less than an octet of electrons on all atoms.
87. The electron pair in a C - F bond could be considered…
a. Closer to C because Carbon has a larger radius and thus exerts greater control over the shared electron pair
b. Closer to F because Fluorine has a higher electronegativity than Carbon
c. Closer to C because Carbon has a lower electronegativity than Fluorine
d Centrally located directly between the C and F
88. Considering the position of the elements in the periodic table and their relative electronegativities and bond polarities,
which bond is longest?
a. C - O triple bond b. C - O single bond c. C - C single bond d. C - C double bond
89. A list of non-metals is given below. Which elements cannot exceed the octet rule? B Si N P O S F Cl
a. Si, P, S, Cl b. B, N, O, F c. O, S, F, Cl d. B, Si, N, P

90. Which of the following statements about resonance is true?

I. Resonance hybrids occur because a compound changes back and forth between two or more resonance
structures.
II. Resonance structures differ in the arrangement of electrons but not in the arrangement of atoms.
III. Resonance hybrids contain delocalized electrons.
IV. Resonance structures for a given compound always contribute equally to the resonance hybrid.
V. Resonance structures occur when there are two or more valid Lewis structures for a given compound.
VI. Resonance hybrids are a composite of resonance structures.
a. II, III, IV, VI b. II, IV, V, VI c. II, III, V, VI d. I, II, V, VI

PART IV. PROBLEM SOLVING/ANALYSIS

1. Rubidium has two common isotopes, 85Rb and 87Rb. If the abundance of 85Rb is 72.2% and the abundance of 87Rb
is 27.8%, what is the average atomic mass of rubidium?
2. Copper used in electric wires comes in two flavors (isotopes): 63Cu and 65Cu. 63Cu has an atomic mass of 62.9298
amu and an abundance of 69.09%. The other isotope, 65Cu, has an abundance of 30.91%. The average atomic mass
between these two isotopes is 63.546 amu. Calculate the actual atomic mass of 65Cu.
3. Perform the following conversions:
a. How many grams of water are in 3.983 moles of water
b. How many molecules of carbon dioxide are in 1.98 g of carbon dioxide?
c. How many atoms of iron are in a 38.0285 g sample of iron?
d. If you have 5.2943 g of aluminum chloride (AlCl3), how many molecules of aluminum chloride are there? How
many atoms of aluminum? How many atoms of chlorine?

4. A time-travelling scientist from the early 1700s decides to run the following experiment: he takes a 10
gram sample of ethanol (CH3CH2OH) and burns it in the presence of oxygen in an open beaker. After the
reaction is done, the beaker is empty. Does this result violate the law of conservation of mass?
5. Balance the following equations:
A. Zn + HCl ZnCl2 + H2 F. P4 + O2 P2O5
B. CH4 + O2 CO2 + H2O G. NaNO3 NaNO2 + O2
C. Fe + NaBr FeBr3 + Na H. C3H8 + O2 CO2 + H2O
D. SiCl4 + H2O SiO2 + HCl I. Fe + H2O H2 + Fe3O4
E. N2 + O2 + H2O HNO3 J. Al + O2 Al2O3