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CHAPTER 6—EMPLOYEE SELECTION
TRUE/FALSE
1. While the overall selection process is the responsibility of the HR department, line managers often
make the final decision about hiring personnel into their unit.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: p. 247 OBJ: 6-1 TYPE: U
2. The number of steps in the selection process and their sequence will vary, not only with the
organization, but also with the type and level of jobs to be filled.
3. Because more steps are generally required when filling positions externally, companies often try to
hire within and advertise externally only as a last result.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: p. 247 OBJ: 6-1 TYPE: K
4. A test that gives comparable scores when it is administered to the same individual a few days apart is
unreliable.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: p. 248 OBJ: 6-2 TYPE: K
5. Reliability refers to what a test or other selection procedure measures and how well it measures it.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: p. 248 OBJ: 6-2 TYPE: U
6. Reliability refers to the extent to which two methods yield similar results, but not to the agreement
between two or more raters.

7. If an organization's selection procedures yield comparable data over a period of time, the procedures
are valid.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: p. 248 OBJ: 6-2 TYPE: A
8. Validity refers to what a selection procedure measures and how well it measures it.
9. Criterion-related validity is the extent to which a selection tool predicts or correlates with important
elements of work behavior.
10. Concurrent validity involves testing applicants and obtaining criterion data after they have been on the
job for some indefinite period.
11. Predictive validity is assessed when the test scores of job applicants are held against the performance
data for existing employees.
12. Predictive and concurrent validity are determined by comparing test scores with supervisor
performance ratings.
13. Correlation (validity) coefficients range from 0.00 to 1.00.
14. A validity coefficient of 0.00 indicates a complete absence of relationship between the predictor and
criterion data.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: p. 275 OBJ: 6-4 TYPE: A
15. The higher the overall validity of a selection procedure, the greater the chances of hiring individuals
who will be the better performers.
16. According to CareerBuilder, far fewer people lie on application forms relative to their resumes.
17. Interviewers should steer clear of issues such as age, race, marital status, and sexual orientation.
18. Validity generalization refers to averaging validity coefficients from all tests to form a composite
'general' validity measure.
19. The closer the content of the selection instrument to actual work samples or behaviors, the higher the
content validity.
20. Content validity is the most complicated type of validity to assess.
21. Asking an applicant for an accounting position to solve accounting problems similar to those
encountered on the job is an example of construct validity.
22. Construct validity refers to the extent to which a selection tool measures a trait, such as intelligence
and anxiety.
23. Most organizations require application forms to be completed because they provide a fairly quick and
systematic means of obtaining a variety of information about the applicant.
24. On application forms, questions about arrests are not permissible.
25. Firms that operate in more than one state can easily develop one form to use in all locations.
26. Most large companies accept applications online.
27. On-line applications can speed up the selection process, combine information, and disseminate
promising leads to hiring managers more efficiently.
28. To protect themselves from hiring potentially bad employees, organizations are encouraged to ask job
applicants about past arrests on biographical information blanks.
29. In highly structured interviews, the interviewer determines the course that the interview will follow as
each question is asked.
30. Structured interviews are less likely than nondirective interviews to be attacked in court
31. A behavioral description interview focuses on hypothetical situations.
32. Organizations should try to avoid using telephone reference checks because they are less reliable than
written references.
33. An organization must advise and receive written consent from applicants if credit reports will be
requested.
34. In most instances, employers can legally use polygraph tests to screen applicants.
35. "Lie detectors" legally include pencil-and-paper honesty tests in addition to mechanical and electronic
devices.
36. Because of legislation prohibiting their use except in special occupations, use of lie detectors in private
firms is extremely low.
37. Sequential interviews are very common
38. Most interviews take place in person.
39. Federal courts have significantly expanded the areas of questioning permitted during an interview.
40. Legally, medical examinations can only be given after an offer of employment has been extended.
41. The Americans with Disabilities Act severely limits the types of medical inquiries and examinations
that employers may use.
42. It is inappropriate to ask men if they are married or have children.

43. A pre-employment test is a subjective measure of behavior.
44. Individuals have a legal right to examine letters of reference about them (unless they waive the right to
do so).
45. Measures of general intelligence, such as IQ tests, are not generally regarded as good predictors of job
performance across a variety of jobs.
46. Extroversion refers to the degree to which someone is insightful, creative, artistic, and curious.
47. Personality tests measure such things as agreeableness, extroversion, and openness to experience.
48. Conscientiousness refers to the degree to which someone is trusting, amiable, cooperative, and
flexible.
49. Openness to experience refers to the degree to which someone is insightful, creative, artistic, and
curious.
50. Personality tests can inadvertently discriminate against individuals who would otherwise perform
effectively.
51. Physical ability tests tend to predict performance, accidents, and injuries.
52. Because of the physical differences between the genders, physical ability tests should be carefully
validated on the basis on the essential functions of the job.
53. If a work sample test includes major job functions and predicts job success, it has content validity.
54. If a work sample test includes major job functions and predicts job success, it has construct validity.
55. Employment interviews can serve as a public relations tool for employers.
56. "Tell me more about your experiences on your last job" is an example of a nondirective interview
question.
57. Data obtained from nondirective interviews are difficult to validate.
58. A situational interview asks the applicant what they actually did in a given situation.
59. Situational interviews ask the applicant how they would respond, while behavioral description
interviews ask the applicant how they did respond.
60. Behavioral description interviews are based on hypothetical situations.
61. Behavioral description interviews appear to be more effective than situational interviews, especially
for higher level positions.
62. HRM specialists have found that panel interviews lead to higher reliability and faster decision times
than one-to-one interviews.
63. Typically, a computer interview requires candidates to answer a series (75 - 125) of multiple-choice
questions tailored to the job.
64. Video interviews have the advantages of speed and cost effectiveness.
65. An interviewer who judges an individual favorably based on one strong point has committed a halo
error.
66. Federal law requires comprehensive background checks for all child care providers, and prohibits
convicted felons from engaging in financial and security-oriented transactions.
67. Police, fire fighting and teaching areas appear to be more prone to discrimination litigation.
68. It is much easier to measure what individuals can do than what they will do.
69. In the clinical approach to selection, different evaluators assign different weights to an applicant's
strengths and weaknesses.
70. The clinical approach to selection eliminates personal biases and stereotypes.
71. The statistical approach to decision making is less objective than the clinical approach.
72. A selection model is compensatory if it requires applicants to achieve some minimum level of
proficiency on all selection dimensions.
73. With a compensatory model, a low score on one selection test may not eliminate a candidate if he or
she gets a high score on another test.
74. The multiple hurdle model is sequential, in that candidates must score well enough on one measure to
advance on to the next.
75. The selection ratio is the ratio of the number of applicants to be selected to the total number of
applicants.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The final decision to hire an applicant usually belongs to:

a. the HR recruiter.
b. the HR manager.
c. supervisors
d. co-workers.
ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 281 OBJ: 6-5 TYPE: K
2. The type of information obtained from an applicant should be based on:
a. job specifications.
b. job design.
c. manning tables.
d. the HR manager's preferences.
ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 247 OBJ: 6-1 TYPE: U
3. What is usually the first step in the selection process?

a. reference check
b. submission of resume
c. interviews
d. background checks
ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 248 OBJ: 6-1 TYPE: K
4. Which of the following should NOT be asked on an application form?

a. application date
b. references
c. national origin
d. criminal convictions
5. The interview remains a mainstay of selection because of all of the following, EXCEPT:
a. it absolves the organization of legal liability
b. it is practical
c. it serves public relations purposes
d. interviewers maintain confidence in their judgments
ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: pp. 253-254 OBJ: 6-3 TYPE: U
6. The difference between the situational interview and the behavioral description interview is:
a. there is no difference, the terms are synonymous
b. situational interviews are for technical positions, while behavioral description interviews
apply to upper-level management positions
c. the situational interview is hypothetical, while the behavioral description interview is
based upon actual experience
d. the behavioral description interview is hypothetical, while the situational interview is
based upon actual experience
ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 255 OBJ: 6-3 TYPE: U
7. The selection procedure usually begins with:

a. employment tests.
b. a medical examination.
c. a supervisory interview.
d. completion of an application form.
ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 249 OBJ: 6-2 TYPE: K
8. During the selection procedure, an applicant may be rejected:

a. after the preliminary interview.
b. after completing the application blank.
c. after selection test results are received.
d. at any step in the procedure.
ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 247 OBJ: 6-1 TYPE: U
9. Regardless of the selection methods used, it is essential that the selection procedure be:
a. lengthy and thorough.
b. quick and efficient.
c. reliable and valid.
d. a positive experience for applicants.
10. The degree to which selection procedures yield comparable data over a period of time is known as:
a. consistency.
b. reliability.
c. validity.
d. conformity.
11. If two or more methods yield consistent results, the selection procedure can be described as:
a. having predictive validity.
b. being reliable.
c. being redundant.
d. having content validity.
12. If the data upon which selection decisions are not stable or consistent:
a. the data can still be reliable
b. the data may still have content validity
c. inferences made from the data may have validity, but not the process
d. the data cannot be valid and cannot be used as predictors
13. The Uniform Guidelines recognizes and accepts all of the following approaches to validation except:
a. criterion-related validity.
b. content validity.
c. utility validity.
d. construct validity.
14. The degree to which inferences drawn from interviews, test scores, and other selection procedures are
supported by evidence (such as good job performance) is termed:
a. evidential.
b. accuracy.
c. reliability.
d. validity.
15. The extent to which good performance on a test correlates with high marks on a performance review is
an example of:
c. construct validity.
d. cross-validation.
ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 274 OBJ: 6-4 TYPE: K
16. Examples of criteria that can be used to validate selection procedures include all of the following
except:
a. test scores.
b. sales figures.
c. performance appraisals.
d. quantity and quality of output.
ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 274 OBJ: 6-4 TYPE: A
17. Typically, establishing validity is a matter of comparing selection test scores:

a. to weighted scores on the candidates application
b. to supervisors' performance ratings
c. to previous scores done in a similar occupation
d. before and after hiring
ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 274 OBJ: 6-4 TYPE: U
18. Giving applicants a clerical aptitude test and then tracking their performance six months later is an
example of:
a. predictive validity.
b. concurrent validity.
c. content validity.
d. correlational validity.
19. The process in which a test or test battery is administered to a different sample (drawn from the same
population) for the purpose of verifying the results obtained from the original validation study is
called:
a. redundancy validation.
b. repeat validation.
c. cross-validation.
d. inferential validation.
20. Obtaining criterion data at about the same time as test scores (or other predictive information) is the
technique used in:
a. predictive validity.
b. concurrent validity.
c. content validity.
d. correlational validity.
21. The results of a validation study are usually reported in the form of a:
a. correlation coefficient.
b. validity indicator.
c. scale from 1 to 10.
d. standard deviation.
ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: pp. 274-275 OBJ: 6-4 TYPE: K
22. Validity coefficients range from:

a. 0.00 to 1.00
b. 1.00 to 10.00
c. 1.00 to 5.00
d. -1.00 to +1.00
23. A validity coefficient of -1.00 indicates:

a. a complete lack of correlation
b. an error in math
c. a perfect negative correlation
d. a perfect positive correlation
ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 275 OBJ: 6-4 TYPE: A
24. Which of the following is an inappropriate interview question?

a. Where did you go to school?
b. Have you ever been convicted of a crime?
c. Where were you born?
d. Are you legally authorized to work in the United States?
25. ____ require(s) the applicant to perform tasks that are actually a part of the work required on the job.
a. The EEOC
b. Work sample tests
c. Job knowledge tests
d. Pre-employment testing
ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 267 OBJ: 6-4 TYPE: A
26. According to the “Big Five” factors, ____ means the degree to which someone is talkative, sociable,
active, aggressive, and excitable
a. extroversion
b. agreeableness
c. conscientiousness
d. neuroticism
27. The extent to which validity coefficients can be generalized across situations is called:
a. content validity
b. validity generalization
c. cross-validation
d. predictive validity
28. The type of validity assumed to exist when a selection instrument adequately samples the knowledge
and skills needed to perform a particular job is:
c. construct validity.
d. concurrent validity.
29. According to the “Big Five” factors, _____ refers to the degree to which someone is dependable and
organized and perseveres in tasks
a. conscientiousness
b. extroversion
c. agreeableness
d. neuroticism
30. Which is the most direct and the least complicated type of validity to assess?
a. content validity
b. construct validity
c. criterion-related validity
d. concurrent validity
31. Constructs, or traits, include all of the following except:

a. intelligence
b. mechanical comprehension
c. physical ability
d. anxiety
32. Intelligence, mechanical comprehension, and anxiety are examples of:

a. job requirements.
b. job characteristics.
c. theories.
d. constructs.
33. Application forms should be developed carefully and revised as often as necessary, because:
a. scoring variables need to be adjusted
b. the EEOC has found that many questions asked are not job-related
c. most forms are too long
d. the application must have validity in order for all other employment tests to be valid
34. The purposes served by application forms include all of the following except:
a. eliminating the need for interviews.
b. determining if the applicant meets the minimum requirements.
c. providing the basis for interview questions.
d. offering sources for reference checks.
35. Which of the following is inappropriate on an application form?

a. asking the applicant to provide high school, college, and post-college attendance
b. asking the applicant to disclose any prior arrests
c. asking the applicant to provide names, addresses, and phone numbers of references
d. asking the applicant to provide all work experience
36. Which of the following is inappropriate on an application form?

a. indicate whether the applicant has the legal right to work in the U.S.
b. asking the applicant to disclose any criminal convictions
c. high school and college attendance with dates
d. references' names, addresses, and phone numbers
37. Approximately ______ of private firms drug test their employees

a. 20 percent
b. 40 percent
c. 50 percent
d. 75 percent
38. ______ of applicants test positive for drugs.

a. One-third
b. About one-quarter
c. Ten percent
d. Less than five percent
39. Regarding credit reports:

a. organizations must advise and receive written consent from the applicant if a report will be
requested
b. organizations can request a report on any employee at any time without consent
c. organizations do not have to inform applicants if adverse decisions are made based on
information in the report
d. organizations cannot make adverse decisions based on information in such a report
40. The use of polygraph tests to screen applicants:

a. is recommended procedure for all potential employees.
b. should be used only in high-security employment areas.
c. is prohibited by federal law for most private employers.
d. is prohibited by executive order for government contractors only.
41. Which of the following test is not covered in the term “lie detector” under the Employee Polygraph
Protection Act?
a. polygraph.
b. paper-and-pencil honesty test.
c. voice stress analyzer.
d. deceptograph.
42. A legal means of screening out applicants who pose a security risk is to use a:
a. polygraph.
b. paper-and-pencil honesty test.
c. voice stress analyzer.
d. deceptograph.
43. Honesty tests have been shown to validly predict all of the following employee outcomes except:
a. job satisfaction.
b. theft.
c. absenteeism.
d. job performance.
44. _____ involves testing applicants and obtaining criterion data after those applicants have been hired
and have been on the job for a certain period of time.
a. Concurrent validity
b. Cross validation
c. Predictive validity
d. Longitudinal validity
45. In the _____ to decision making, those making the selection decision review all the data on the
applicants.
a. statistical approach
b. clinical approach
c. subjective iterative approach
d. demonstrated approach
46. The Americans with Disabilities Act explicitly states that:

a. employers may not test for AIDS or the presence of HIV.
b. employers may question applicants about their physical suitability for the job.
c. employers may not test applicants for illegal drug use.
d. physical exams must be directly related to the requirements of the job.
47. Since the passage of the Drug-Free Workplace Act of 1988:

a. drugs in the workplace have been prohibited.
b. employers are prohibited from conducting random drug tests.
c. all employees must submit to drug tests on demand.
d. applicants and employees of federal contractors are subject to testing for illegal drug use.
48. A pre-employment test is an objective and standardized measure of:

a. a sample of employee behavior.
b. applicant goals and desires.
c. organizational job requirements.
d. comparisons between job applicants.
49. A ratio of 0.10, for example, means that ___ percent of the applicants will be selected.
a. .1 percent
b. 1 percent
c. 10 percent
d. 90 percent
50. Measures of mental capabilities such as general intelligence, verbal fluency, numerical ability, or
reasoning ability are examples of a:
a. personality and interest inventory.
b. physical ability test.
c. cognitive ability test.
d. job sample.
51. According to a report by the U.S. Merit Systems Protection Board, a quasijudicial agency that serves
as the guardian of federal merit systems, structured interviews are _____ as nondirective interviews to
predict on-the job performance.
a. twice as likely
b. half as likely
c. just as likely
d. four times as likely
52. Which of the following interview questions is appropriate?

a. Why did you leave your last job?
b. Are you a man or a woman?
c. How much do you weigh?
d. How tall are you?
53. Which of the following interview questions is appropriate?

a. What is the origin of your name?
b. What color are your eyes?
c. Have you ever worked under a different name?
d. Are you a U.S. citizen?
ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 262 OBJ: 6-3 TYPE: K | 6-3 TYPE U
54. The personality trait of Extroversion refers to:

a. the degree to which someone is sociable, active, and excitable
b. the degree to which someone is amiable, generous, cooperative, and flexible
c. the degree to which someone is secure, independent, and autonomous
d. the degree to which someone is dependable and organized
55. The personality trait of Agreeableness refers to:

56. The personality trait of Conscientiousness refers to:

c. the degree to which someone is dependable and organized
57. The personality trait of Openness to Experience refers to:

d. the degree to which someone is insightful, creative, and curious
58. The personality trait of Neuroticism refers to:

d. the degree to which someone is insightful, creative, and curious
59. Personality tests:

a. easily demonstrate job-relatedness
b. can inadvertently discriminate against individuals who would otherwise perform
effectively
c. measure intelligence
d. measure an applicant's preference for certain activities over others
60. The Uniform CPA Examination used to license certified public accountants is an example of:
a. a work sample test
b. a job knowledge test
c. a physical ability test
d. an interest inventory
ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 267 OBJ: 6-4 TYPE: U | 6-4 TYPE: A
61. Which of the following types of tests are increasingly being aided by computer simulations?
a. personality tests
b. physical ability tests
c. cognitive ability tests
d. work sample tests
ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 268 OBJ: 6-4 TYPE: K | 6-4 TYPE: U
62. Interviews as a method of selection are popular for all of the following reasons except:
a. interviews are the most valid method of selection.
b. interviews are practical for dealing with a small number of applicants.
c. interviews function as a public relations tool.
d. interviewers have faith in their ability to make selection judgments.
ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: pp. 253-254 OBJ: 6-3 TYPE: K
63. The type of interview that allows the applicant the maximum amount of freedom in determining the
course of discussion is the:
a. nondirective interview.
b. depth interview.
c. situational interview.
d. structured interview.
64. The various types of employment interviews differ primarily in:

a. length.
b. amount of structure.
c. methods for establishing rapport.
d. the degree to which body language is studied.
65. The type of interview that provides the greatest consistency or standardization with respect to the
questions asked is the:
a. nondirective interview.
b. situational interview.
c. structured interview.
d. unstructured interview.
ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 254 OBJ: 6-3 TYPE: K | 6-3 TYPE: U
66. Questions contained in structured job interviews should be based on:

a. job analysis.
b. job design.
c. job specialization.
d. job utilization.
67. The interview method that best reduces the possibility of discrimination is the:
a. behavioral description interview.
b. panel interview.
d. structured interview.
ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: pp. 254-255 OBJ: 6-3 TYPE: U
68. An interview in which an applicant is given a hypothetical incident and is asked how he or she would
respond to it is a:
a. computer interview.
b. panel interview.
d. nondirective interview.
69. "Tell me about the last time you disciplined an employee" is an example of a:
a. behavioral description interview question.
b. panel interview question.
c. computer interview question.
d. closed response interview question.
70. “It is late at night before your scheduled vacation. You are all packed and ready to go to bed.You get a
phone call from the plant asking you to come in and handle a problem that only you can address. What
will you do?” This is an example of a/an ____ question.
a. computer interview.
b. panel interview.
d. nondirective interview.
71. A behavioral description interview is more effective than a situational interview for:
a. lower-level positions
b. higher-level positions
c. recent college graduates
d. first line supervisors
72. The benefits of panel interviews include:

a. longer decision time
b. less agreement on ratings
c. the same benefits as a structured interview
d. higher reliability because of multiple inputs
73. A type of interview that allows the firm to immediately compare answers to the ideal candidate or
profile without the problems of impression management experienced in face-to-face meetings is:
a. video interview
b. computer interview
c. panel interview
d. structured interview
74. A type of interview that allows for speed and flexibility, and helps make preliminary assessments
before incurring costs with face-to-face meetings is:
a. video interview
b. computer interview
c. panel interview
d. structured interview
75. Which of the following is an appropriate interview question?

a. Have you ever been arrested?
b. What is your date of birth?
c. Are you over the age of 18?
d. Are you a U.S. citizen?
76. Which of the following is an inappropriate interview question?

a. Have you ever worked under a different name?
b. If hired, can you prove your age?
c. What is your race?
d. What is your address?
77. All of the following questions may be considered appropriate during an interview except:
a. Have you ever been arrested?
b. Do you have a legal right to work in the U.S.?
c. Are you physically able to perform the essential duties of the job?
d. Did you finish school?
78. The selection decision should focus on:

a. the strategic objectives of the organization.
b. the personality match of the applicant and the supervisor.
c. the motivation of the applicant.
d. both "can-do" and "will-do" factors of the applicant.
ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 278 OBJ: 6-5 TYPE: U | 6-5 TYPE: A
79. “Can-Do” factors in selection decisions include:

a. skills
b. personality
c. values
d. motivation
ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 278 OBJ: 6-5 TYPE: U | 6-5 TYPE: A
80. HR staffs should consider all of the following factors during hiring decisions except:
a. Should the individuals be hired according to their highest potential or according to the
needs of the organization?
b. What effect will the applicants' family situation have on job performance?
c. To what extent should those applicants who are not qualified but qualifiable be
considered?
d. Should overqualified individuals be considered?
ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: pp. 278-279 OBJ: 6-5 TYPE: U
81. Between the two approaches to selection decisions, the ____ approach is considered superior, although
the ____ is the most commonly used.
a. subjective, qualitative
b. subjective, quantitative
c. statistical, clinical
d. clinical, statistical
82. A selection model that requires an applicant to achieve some minimum level of proficiency on all
selection dimensions is referred to as a ____ model.
a. Multiple cutoff
b. Multiple hurdle
c. Compensatory
d. Contingency
83. The approach to decision making that identifies candidates with the highest scores based on
quantitative predictors is the:
a. personal judgment approach.
b. quantitative approach.
c. objective approach.
d. statistical approach.
84. A coach who recruits a basketball player who has superb shooting skills but lacks ball-handling and
defensive skills is employing a ____ selection decision model.
a. multiple hurdle
b. compensatory
c. multiple cut-off
d. clinical
85. A selection model in which an applicant moves on to the next stage in the process on the condition that
she or he satisfies a score criteria on previous parts of the process is referred to as a ____ model.
a. Multiple cutoff
b. Multiple hurdle
c. Compensatory
d. Contingency
86. A low selection ratio means:

a. the cutoff score for selection decisions will be relatively low.
b. there are very few qualified applicants.
c. only the most promising applicants will be hired.
d. little selectivity among applicants will be possible.
87. A selection ratio of .10 means that:

a. only top 10% of the applicants will be given selection tests
b. only 10% of the applicants will be selected.
c. only 10% of the applicants have the minimum qualification
d. only 10% of the vacancies in the organization will be filled
88. In large organization, notifying applicants of the selection decision and making job offers are generally
the responsibility of:
a. the HR department.
b. the line manager.
c. the supervisor.
d. the industrial relations manager.
89. The “O” in KSAO stands for:

a. optimal
b. outside
c. other factors
d. obligation
90. Following 9/11 and a rash of corporate scandals, background checks have ______________.
a. fallen into disfavor.
b. become standard for many corporations.
c. become voluntary.
d. become more inexpensive.
91. State courts have ruled that companies can be held liable for ___________ if they fail to do adequate
background checks.
a. over recruiting
b. staff inflation
c. deceptive interviewing
d. negligent hiring
92. Generally, ___________ reference checks are preferable because they save time and provide for
greater candor.
a. e-mail
b. fax
c. telephone
d. mail
93. One of the drawbacks of pre-employment testing is that it creates the potential for _________.
a. cross-validation.
b. legal challenges.
c. employer misunderstanding.
d. spurious correlation.
ESSAY
1. Define the concepts of reliability and validity.
ANS:
Reliability describes the degree to which interviews, tests, and other selection procedures yield
comparable data over a period of time. For example, if an interviewer judges the capabilities of a
group of applicants differently today than yesterday, his or her judgment is unreliable. Reliability can
also be determined by interrater reliability or agreement between two or more raters. Selection
decision data that are unreliable cannot be used as predictors of job success.
Validity refers to what a selection procedure measures and how well it measures it. For personnel
selection, validity indicates the extent to which data from a selection procedure are predictive of job
performance or other relevant criteria. In order for a test to be valid, it must also be reliable. However,
reliability does not assure validity.
PTS: 1 REF: p. 248 OBJ: 6-2
2. Identify steps that organizations must follow when they use credit reports to make employment
decisions?
ANS:
First, organizations must advise and receive written consent from applicants if such reports will be
requested. If an employer plans to use a more comprehensive type of third party report, such as an
investigative consumer report, the applicant must be advised in writing.
Second, the organization must provide a written certification to consumer reporting agency about the
purpose of the report and must assure them that it will not be used for any other purpose. In the case of
investigative reports, the employer also has to certify that it will give the applicant the information if
he or she asked for it.
Third, before taking any adverse action based on the information in the report, organizations must
provide applicants a copy of the consumer report as well as a summary of their rights.
Fourth, if the organization decides not to hire the applicant based on the report, it must provide an
adverse-action notice to that person which must contain the name, address, and phone number of the
agency that provided the report. The employer must also provide a statement that the reporting agency
did not make the hiring decision, that the applicant has the right to obtain an additional free copy of the
report, and that the applicant has a right to dispute the accuracy of information with the reporting
agency.
PTS: 1 REF: p. 264 OBJ: 6-3
3. Identify and explain the different types of employment tests.
ANS:
• Cognitive ability tests measure mental capabilities such as general intelligence, verbal fluency,
numerical ability, and reasoning ability.
• Personality and interest inventories measure dispositional characteristics such as extroversion,
inquisitiveness, and dependability.
• Physical ability tests assess a job candidate's physical abilities such as strength and endurance.
• Job knowledge tests are a type of achievement test designed to measure a person's level of
understanding about a particular job.
• Job sample tests, or work sample tests, require the job applicant to perform tasks that are actually part
of the work required on the job.
Students may also discuss Honesty/Integrity testing, Polygraph testing, Medical exams, Drug testing
and Biodata tests.
PTS: 1 REF: pp. 265-274 OBJ: 6-4

4. Compare and contrast the following four interview approaches: (1) nondirective interview, (2)
structured interview, (3) situational interview, and (4) behavioral description interview.
ANS:
In a nondirective interview, the interviewer allows the applicant the maximum amount of freedom in
determining the course of the discussion. The interviewer asks broad, general questions, but permits
the applicant to talk freely with little interruption. The greater freedom afforded to the applicant in the
nondirective interview is particularly valuable in bringing to the interviewer's attention any
information, attitudes, or feelings that may be concealed by a more structured approach. However, the
unstructured nature of this approach limits the consistency of information provided and makes it
difficult to cross-check agreement with other interviewers. Thus, the reliability and validity of the
nondirective approach are suspect.
The structured interview has a number of standard questions asked of each job applicant. Questions are
job-related based upon job analysis. Since applicants are asked identical questions, the structured
interview provides a more consistent basis for evaluating job candidates. This interview strives to
maximize the validity of selection decisions.
With the situational interview, the applicant is given a hypothetical incident and asked to respond how
he or she would handle it. Responses are evaluated relative to preestablished standards.
Behavioral description interviews focus on actual work experiences in the applicants past. The
behavioral questions ask the applicant what he or she actually did in a given situation. This
interviewing approach assumes that past performance is the best predictor of future performance.
PTS: 1 REF: pp. 254-256 OBJ: 6-3
5. List and discuss the steps in the hiring process.
ANS:
1. Submission of resume;
2. Completion of application;
3. Interview;
4. Reference and background checks;
5. Pre-employment tests;
6. Medical exam/drug test;
7. Hiring decision.
PTS: 1 REF: p. 248 OBJ: 6-1
6. What qualities in interviewers should organizations look for?
ANS:
Humility, ability to think objectively, maturity, and poise are all admirable interviewer qualities.
Experience in associating with diverse people is also desirable. Overtalkativeness, extreme opinions,
and biases should be avoided.
PTS: 1 REF: p. 258 OBJ: 6-3

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Test Bank for Managing Human Resources 16th

Edition Snell Bohlander 1111532826 9781111532826

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CHAPTER 6—EMPLOYEE SELECTION

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13. Correlation (validity) coefficients range from 0.00 to 1.00.

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20. Content validity is the most complicated type of validity to assess.

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24. On application forms, questions about arrests are not permissible.

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26. Most large companies accept applications online.

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31. A behavioral description interview focuses on hypothetical situations.

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37. Sequential interviews are very common

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38. Most interviews take place in person.

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42. It is inappropriate to ask men if they are married or have children.

43. A pre-employment test is a subjective measure of behavior.

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