Flight Performance/ Mass & Balance

1.If an aircraft’s C of G is at or beyond its aft limit:

a.The aircraft will be more stable longitudinally
b.The aircraft will be difficult to rotate on take-off
c.The aircraft’s stall speed will decrease
d. The aircraft’s range will be reduced

2.An aircraft loaded in a dangerous manner, so that its C of G is beyond its forward limit, will:
a.require less effort to flare when landing
b.require less effort to rotate on take off
c. have both an increased longitudinal stability and stalling speed
d.have both an increased range and endurance

3.The flight characteristics of an aircraft which has its C of G at the forward limit will be:
a.insensitivity to Pitch Control and little Longitudinal Stability
b.sensitivity to Pitch Control and little Longitudinal Stability
c.sensitivity to Pitch Control and great Longitudinal Stability
d. insensitivity to Pitch Control and great Longitudinal Stability

4.The consequences of operating an aeroplane with the C of G beyond the aft limit will be:
I. on the ground the aircraft would be tail heavy and passenger or crew movement or fuel usage could make it tip up
II. the flying controls would be too sensitive, increasing the risk of a tail strike at rotation
III. the tendency to stall would increase and it may be impossible to achieve “hands off” balanced flight
IV. recovery from a spin would be much more difficult

a. All statements are correct

b.Only statement I is correct
c.Only statements I and IV are correct
d.Only statements II and III are correct

5.When calculating the MZFM (maximum zero fuel mass), the following are included:
a. pilot, passengers & baggage, unusable fuel
b.pilot, passengers, baggage & operating fuel
c.pilot, unusable fuel, but less passengers and baggage
d.pilot, passengers, operating fuel but less baggage

6.Complete the following sentence. If an aircraft is loaded such that its C of G is approaching the aft limit:
a.the stall speed increases
b. the aircraft’s longitudinal stability will decrease
c.range and endurance increase
d.stick forces increase

Page 1 of 17
Questionnaire
Flight Performance/ Mass & Balance

7.Assuming the aircraft is at rest on the ground, what term best describes image ‘A’?

a. Zero Fuel Mass

b.Take Off Mass
c.Maximum All Up Mass
d.Empty Mass

8.Assuming the aircraft is at rest on the ground, what “mass expression” best describes image ‘D’?

a.Zero Fuel Mass

b.Basic Empty Mass
c.Empty Mass
d. Maximum All Up Mass

Page 2 of 17
Questionnaire
Flight Performance/ Mass & Balance

9.What name is given to the total mass of an aeroplane, including its total load that it is carrying, at any given time?
a.Zero Fuel Mass
b. Gross Mass
c.Basic Empty Mass
d.Maximum Landing Mass

10.What effect will increase in the gross mass of an aeroplane have on its stall speed and take-off and landing run?
a.Increase the stall speed, but decrease the take-off and landing run
b.No effect
c.Decrease the stall speed and increase the take-off and landing run
d. Increase the stall speed and increase the take-off and landing run

11.What effect will an increase in the landing mass have on an aircraft’s landing run at any given approach speed and flap
setting:
a.A decrease in landing run
b.No effect
c.Length of landing run is independent of mass
d. Increase in landing run

12.An aircraft weighing 2 000 lb with a total C of G moment of 169 400 lb-ins uplifts 440 lb of fuel. If the effective arm of the fuel
is 88.5 inches aft of the datum, what will be the aircraft’s new mass and C of G moment?
a.1 560 lb 208 340 lb-ins.
b.2 440 lb 169 488.5 lb-ins.
c.1 560 lb 169 488.5 lb-ins.
d.2 440 lb 208 340 lb-ins.

13.Your aircraft has:

A Take-off Mass=2 353 lbs

A calculated C of G for departure=89.75 inches aft of the datum
An estimated fuel burn =200 lb with a C of G 85.00 inches aft of datum.

The position of the C of G on landing will be?

a.90.19 inches aft of the datum

b.82.52 inches aft of the datum
c.105.98 inches aft of the datum
d.96.97 inches aft of the datum

14.Your aircraft has an oil reservoir, with a capacity of 3 Imperial gallons, which is positioned 20 inches aft of the datum. Given
that the oil weighs 9.1 lb/gal, the reservoir will possess a moment of:

a.60 lb-ins
b.27.3 lb-ins
c.182 lb-ins
d.546 lb-ins

15.The Maximum Take off Mass of an aircraft may be limited by:

a.structural design load limits and or runway length, altitude and temperature
b.the authorised performance category of the aircraft, i.e. utility / normal / aerobatic
c.the airworthiness condition of the aircraft
d.all of the above

Page 3 of 17
Questionnaire
Flight Performance/ Mass & Balance

16.At what mass and C of G position would it be safe to operate the aircraft represented by the attached Mass vs C of G
Envelope?

a. 2250 lb 86.00 inches aft of the datum

b.2000 lb 84.00 inches aft of the datum
c.1900 lb 82.00 inches aft of the datum
d.2300 lb 86.00 inches aft of the datum

Page 4 of 17
Questionnaire
Flight Performance/ Mass & Balance

17.At what mass and C of G moment would it be permissible to operate, in the Normal Category, the aircraft represented by the
Centre of Gravity/Moment Envelope?

Mass Moment

a.2100 lb 75000 lb-ins

b.2300 lb 110000 lb-ins
c.2275 lb 98000 lb-ins
d.2400 lb 93000 lb-ins

Page 5 of 17
Questionnaire
Flight Performance/ Mass & Balance

18.At what mass and C of G moment would it be permissible to operate, in the Utility Category, the aircraft represented by the
Centre of Gravity/Moment Envelope?

Mass Moment

a.1900 lb 63000 lb-ins

b.1700 lb 83000 lb-ins
c.2000 lb 69000 lb-ins
d.2050 lb 75000 lb-ins

19.In which Category, Utility or Normal, would you expect to operate the aircraft represented by the attached C of G / Moment
Envelope at Graph 2, Page 43, if its mass is 2 100 lb and its C of G moment 90000 lb-inches?
a.Utility
b.Normal
c.Both
d.Neither

Page 6 of 17
Questionnaire
Flight Performance/ Mass & Balance

PERFORMANCE

1. If the density of the atmosphere is reduced, the take-off distance required will be:
a. Increased
b. Decreased
c. Unaffected
d. reduced with a wind

2. What effect will a higher aircraft mass have on the rotate speed and take off safety speed?
a. It will decrease both speeds
b. It will increase rotate speed and decrease take off safety speed
c. It will increase both speeds
d. It will decrease rotate speed and increase take off safety speed

3. That part of a runway surface which is used for normal operations during takeoff, excluding any clearway or stop way, is
referred to as:
a. the Take-Off Run Available (TORA)
b. the Accelerate-Stop Distance Available (ASDA)
c. the Take-Off Distance Available (TODA)
d. the Emergency Distance Available (EMDA)

4. Complete the following statement as accurately as possible using one of the options a), b), c) or d).
If the density of the air increases the effect will be;
a. to increase the take-off distance required
b. to increase the take-off run
c. to decrease the take-off distance required
d. to decrease the indicated airspeed at lift-off

5. Complete the following statement as accurately as possible using one of the options, a), b), c) or d).
The main reason for taking off into wind is to:
a. increase the take-off distance required
b. decrease the take-off distance available
c. increase the ground speed of the aircraft at lift-off
d. decrease the ground speed of the aircraft at lift-off and to decrease the Take-Off Distance Required

6. Complete the following statement as accurately as possible using one of the following options: a), b), c) or d).
During take-off, the use of the manufacturer's recommended take-off flap setting:
a. compared to zero flap, will increase the length of the take-off run and obstacle clearance performance
b. compared to zero flap, will decrease the take-off run required but reduce obstacle clearance performance
c. compared to zero flap, will increase the indicated airspeed at which the aircraft can lift-off
d. compared to zero flap, will ensure a steeper angle of climb after liftoff

7. Complete the following statement accurately using one of the options: a), b), c) or d).
When the density of the atmosphere is relatively low, the resulting reduction in:
a. thrust and drag has no apparent effect on the take-off distance required
b. both lift and engine power will require a longer take-off distance
c. drag will permit the use of greater flap angles
d. drag offsets the loss of engine power giving improved acceleration

8. The horizontal distance covered during take-off, from brakes-release to the 50 feet screen height, and which includes
any stop way or clearway, is referred to as:
a. the Take-Off Run Available (TORA)
b. the Accelerate-Stop Distance Available (ASDA)
c. the Take-Off Distance Available (TODA)
d. the Emergency Distance Available (EMDA)

Page 7 of 17
Questionnaire
Flight Performance/ Mass & Balance

9. That part of a take-off strip which includes the Take-Off Run Available and the stop way, is referred to as:
a. the Take-Off Run Available (TORA)
b. the clearway
c. the Take-Off Distance Available (TODA)
d. the Accelerate-Stop Distance Available (ASDA) or Emergency Distance Available (EDA)

10. What name is given to the distance which comprises Take-Off Run Available (TORA) and any clearway?
a. Emergency Distance Available (EMDA)
b. Take-Off Distance Required (TODA)
c. Accelerate-Stop Distance Available (ASDA)
d. Take-Off Distance Available (TODA)

11. A 15 knot wind at 60° off the runway heading gives a headwind component of approximately:
a. 8 knots
b. 14 knots
c. 12 knots
d. 3 knots

12. A 15 knot wind at 60° off the runway heading gives a crosswind component of approximately:
a. 8 knots
b. 14 knots
c. 12 knots
d. 3 knots

13. From the table shown, extract the rate of climb for an aircraft operating at 5000 feet with an outside air temperature
of 0° C.

CLIMB PERFORMANCE
Associated Conditions
Gross Weight: 2440 Lbs. Full Throttle
Lean Mixture per maker's instructions. 79 KIAS,

Rate of Climb - Feet per Minute Outside Air

Temperature - °C
-20° -10° 0° 10° 20°
Sea Level 850 790 730 670 610
2000 730 670 610 560 500
4000 620 550 490 430 370
6000 490 430 360 310 250
8000 370 300 250 190 150
10 000 250 180 150 70 20

a. 555 feet per minute

b. 425 feet per minute
c. 490 feet per minute
d. 295 feet per minute

14. To gain the greatest amount of height in the shortest time, an aircraft should be flown at:
a. 60 knots
b. the best rate of climb speed (Vy)
c. the best angle of climb speed (Vx)
d. at the speed for maximum endurance

Page 8 of 17
Questionnaire
Flight Performance/ Mass & Balance

15. The indicated air speed for the best rate of climb when climbing to an aircraft's service ceiling will tend to:
a. decrease then increase
b. remain the same
c. increase
d. decrease

16. What is the reason for increasing the speed in a prolonged climb?
a. to maintain the best rate of climb
b. to reduce the noise of the aircraft in sensitive areas
c. to increase the flow of air through the engine and keep it cool
d. to maintain the best angle of climb

17. The best rate of climb is achieved:

a. when flying at the speed for maximum excess thrust available
b. when climbing into wind
c. when flying at Vx
d. When flying at the speed for maximum excess power available.

18. Climbing at Vx will achieve:

a. the best time to height
b. the greatest increase in altitude in a given time
c. the maximum angle of climb
d. the maximum horizontal distance for a given vertical distance

19. One effect of climbing an aircraft with flap selected would be:
a. an improved climb performance
b. a decreased co-efficient of drag
c. a decreased co-efficient of lift
d. a reduced rate and angle of climb

20. Increasing the mass (and, therefore, the weight) of an aircraft will:
a. decrease the rate and angle of climb
b. increase the rate and angle of climb
c. increase the rate of climb and decrease the angle of climb
d. decrease the rate of climb and increase the angle of climb

21. Climbing at Vy will achieve:

a. the maximum angle of climb
b. the greatest increase in altitude in a given period of time
c. the maximum increase in height in the shortest horizontal distance
d. the best obstacle clearance performance

Page 9 of 17
Questionnaire
Flight Performance/ Mass & Balance

22. An aircraft cruising at a pressure altitude 2 000 feet is cleared to climb I" a pressure altitude 8 000 feet. Using the table,
calculate the time taken in minutes, the fuel used in gallons and the horizontal distance flown in tin* climb, assuming
zero wind.
FUEL. TIME and DISTANCE TO CLIMB
Associated Conditions
Weight: 2440 Lbs, Flaps: 0°, Full Throttle
Mixture leaned as per maker's instructions
79 Knots, indicated airspeed. No Wind

Pressure Altitude Feet ISA Temp °C From Sea Level

Time in Fuel used Distanco
Minutes Gallons
Sea Level 15 0 0 0
1000 13 2 0.4 2
2000 11 4 0.7 5
3000 9 6 1.5 8
4000 7 8 1.8 11
5000 5 10 2.0 14
6000 3 13 2.5 17
7000 1 16 3 21
8000 -1 19 4 27
9000 -3 24 5 34
10 000 -5 30 6 42

a. 19 minutes, 4 gallons, 27 miles

b. 23 minutes, 4.07 gallons, 32 miles
c. 15 minutes, 3.3 gallons, 22 miles
d. 4 minutes, 0.7 gallons, 5 miles

23. The lift produced by the wing of an aircraft in a steady climb maintaining .i constant indicated airspeed will be:
a. less than weight
b. greater than weight
c. equal to weight
d. independent of weight

24. How will an aircraft's maximum rate of climb be affected by selecting take-off flap?
a. The maximum rate of climb will increase
b. The maximum rate of climb will not be affected
c. The maximum rate of climb will remain the same provided that the pilot uses an appropriate power setting
d. The maximum rate of climb will decrease

25. What effect will a decreasing headwind component have on the best achievable angle of climb?
a. The angle of climb will decrease
b. The angle of climb will steepen
c. The angle of climb will remain constant at all values of headwind component.
d. The angle of climb is independent of the value of headwind component.

26. If the center of gravity of an aircraft is moved rearwards, the effect is:
a. stronger lift/weight couple which requires a greater tail plane force to maintain the aircraft in equilibrium
b. an increased range and endurance
c. a reduced range and endurance
d. a greater tail-load

Page 10 of 17
Questionnaire
Flight Performance/ Mass & Balance

27. What speed must be flown to attain maximum cruise endurance?

a. Vy
b. Maximum Speed
c. Vx
d. VMD

28. A wing contaminated by a small amount of ice will produce:

a. more weight and more lift
b. more drag, more weight and less lift
c. an increase in both lift and drag co-efficient
d. an increase in weight and decrease in drag

29. When gliding for maximum range an aircraft with a greater weight will:
a. have a reduced glide range
b. have a shallower glide angle
c. have a faster gliding speed but the same glide angle
d. have a faster gliding speed and a reduced gliding range

30. What speed, from Figure, should be flown for maximum range?

A B C D

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D

31. The glide range will be maximized by flying at:

a. a relatively high angle of attack such as 10°
b. A relatively low angle of attack such as 4° which will! give the best lift/ drag ratio
c. a negative angle of attack
d. a high descent angle

32. A pilot wishes to fly at a speed which will give him maximum range. He knows that he is flying in a tailwind. How will the
speed selected by the pilot compare with the maximum range speed for still air quoted in the Flight Manual?
a. It will be decreased slightly
b. It will increased slightly
c. It will be the same as for still air
d. The speed will be greater by the value of the tailwind component

33. What is the effect of a headwind on the glide angle and gliding range with respect to the ground?
a. Glide angle and glide range will! remain the same as in still air
b. Glide angle and glide range will increase
c. Glide angle and glide range will decrease
d. Glide angle will increase and glide range decrease

Page 11 of 17
Questionnaire
Flight Performance/ Mass & Balance

34. What is the maximum range speed for a piston engine aircraft?
a. VMP
b. VMD
c. At a lower speed than VMP
d. At a speed less than V MD

35. The true airspeed of an aircraft which maintains a constant indicated airspeed will:
a. increase as altitude increase
b. remain constant as altitude increases
c. decrease as altitude increases
d. act unpredictably, as true airspeed has no connection with indicated airspeed

36. Examine the graph in Figure, Which of the speeds indicated by A, B, C or D should be flown for maximum endurance?

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
Airspeed

37. The Centre of Pressure of a given aircraft is aft of the aircraft's Centre of Gravity. During straight and level flight, any
increase in the lift causing an imbalance in the equilibrium of forces is compensated for by:
a. an upward force generated by the tail plane
b. a downward force generated by the tail plane
c. an increase in thrust
d. a decrease in drag

38. Compared to gliding in still air, the effect of a tailwind will:

a. increase the glide range but have no effect on the rate of descent
b. decrease the glide angle and decrease the rate of descent
c. have no effect on the glide range or the rate of descent
d. increase the glide angle and increase the rate of descent

39. What would be the effect of an increase in temperature upon air density and aircraft performance?
a. Increased density and reduced aircraft performance
b. Increased density and increased aircraft performance
c. Reduced density and an increase in aircraft performance
d. Reduced density and reduced aircraft performance

Page 12 of 17
Questionnaire
Flight Performance/ Mass & Balance

40. In order to maximize glide range, the aircraft should be flown:

a. at a high angle of attack to achieve Vy
b. at a low angle of attack to achieve VMP
c. at a negative angle of attack to achieve Vx
d. at a low angle of attack to achieve V MD

41. What speed must be flown to attain maximum cruise range.

a. VX
b. Maximum Speed
c. VMD
d. VMP

42. If weight is increased, the range of the aircraft will be:

a. Reduced
b. Unchanged
c. Increased
d. increased unless lift can be reduced

43. An aircraft has a best lift/drag ratio of 9:1. What is the maximum distance it could glide from 4 000 ft above ground level,
in zero wind conditions?
a. 6 nautical miles approximately
b. 7 nautical miles approximately
c. 18 nautical miles approximately
d. 9 nautical miles approximately

44. What effect would a 2% down-slope have on the landing distance required?
a. Increase it by 5%
b. Decrease it by 5%
c. Increase it by 10%
d. Decrease it by 10%

45. Compared to a level runway, what would be the effect of landing on a downward sloping runway?
a. The landing performance will improve
b. The landing distance will be decreased
c. The landing distance will be increased
d. The landing distance will be unaffected

46. Landings are carried out into wind because;

a. it increases the ground speed and reduces the landing distance required
b. it decreases the ground speed and reduces the landing distance available
c. It gives the pilot greater control over the aircraft at lower speeds.
d. it will reduce the ground speed and reduce the landing distance required

47. If the stalling speed in the Sanding configuration is 55 knots, V ref would be approximately:
a. 65 knots
b. 75 knots
c. 71 knots
d. 69 knots

48. If the aircraft mass is increased by 15%, the landing distance required will increase by approximately:
a. 15%, or a factor of 1.15
b. 33%, or a factor of 1.33
c. 10%, or a factor of 1.1
d. 20%, or a factor of 1.2

Page 13 of 17
Questionnaire
Flight Performance/ Mass & Balance

49. Why is flap used for landing?

a. The approach speed is increased and a flatter approach path is flown which improves forward vision
b. The approach speed is reduced and a steeper approach path is flown which improves forward vision
c. The approach speed is reduced and a flatter approach path is flown which improves forward vision
d. The approach speed is increased and a steeper approach path is flown which improves forward vision

50. If the approach and landing speeds flown in an actual landing are higher than the speeds recommended in the aircraft
manual, the effect will be that:
a. the landing distance will be increased
b. \the landing distance will be decreased
c. the landing performance will improve
d. the landing distance will be unaffected

51. The Vref 5:0 be achieved by the landing screen height of 50 feet must be:
a. 1.15 times the stalling speed in the takeoff configuration
b. 1.3 times the stalling speed in the landing configuration
c. 1.43 times the stalling speed in the landing configuration
d. 33% of the stalling speed

52. When landing, if an aircraft's indicated airspeed is lower than its ground speed, then the aircraft is experiencing:
a. a tailwind
b. a headwind
c. increased atmospheric pressure
d. a 90° cross wind

53. What is the effect of an increase in mass on the stalling speed and landing distance required?
a. Increased stalling speed and decreased landing distance
b. Decreased stalling speed and decreased landing distance
c. Increased stalling speed and increased landing distance
d. Decreased stalling speed and increased landing distance
54. In order to maximize glide range, in still air, an aircraft should be flown:
a. At high angles of attack.
b. At high angles of attack at VMP
c. At negative angles of attack.
d. At low angles of attack at the speed for minimum drag (VMD).

55. What speed must be flown to attain maximum cruise range?

a. Speed for best angle of climb (Vx).
b. Maximum Speed.
c. Speed for minimum drag (VMD)
d. Speed for minimum power (VMP)

56. What would be the effect of an increase in temperature upon the air density and aircraft performance?
a. Increased density and reduced aircraft performance.
b. Increased density and increased aircraft performance.
c. Reduced density and an increase in aircraft performance.
d. Reduced density and reduced aircraft performance.

Page 14 of 17
Questionnaire
Flight Performance/ Mass & Balance

57. Which of the following cases will result in a reduced performance and possibly exceed the structural limitations of the
aircraft?
a. An aircraft that is operated above its maximum all up weight.
b. An aircraft that is stalled at its maximum all up weight.
c. An aeroplane that is operated above its maximum all up landing weight.
d. An aircraft with a higher take off mass than a landing mass.

58. If weight is increased, the range of the aircraft will be:

a. Reduced
b. Unchanged
c. Increased
d. Reduced if no increase in lift is achieved

59. Compared to gliding in still air, the effect of a tailwind will:

a. Increase the glide range but have no effect on the glide endurance.
b. Decrease the glide angle and decrease the rate of descent.
c. Have no effect on the glide range or the rate of descent.
d. Increase the glide angle and increase the glide range.

60. What is the maximum range speed for a piston engine aircraft?
a. At the speed for minimum power (VMP).
b. At or just above the speed for minimum drag (VMD)
c. At a higher speed than VNO and at the lowest safe altitude.
d. At a speed less than VMD and at the lowest safe altitude.

61. What is the effect of an increase in mass on the stall speed and landing distance required?
a. Increased stall speed and decreased landing distance.
b. Decreased stall speed and decreased landing distance.
c. Increased stall speed and increased landing distance.
d. Decreased stall speed and increased landing distance.

62. What effect would a 2% downslope have on the landing distance required?
a. Increase it by 5 %
b. Decrease it by 5%
c. Increase it by 10%
d. Decrease it by 10%
63. When landing, if an aircraft’s true airspeed is significantly less than the true ground speed than the aircraft is
experiencing:
a. A tailwind.
b. A headwind
c. A reduced atmospheric density.
d. A cross wind.

Page 15 of 17
Questionnaire
Flight Performance/ Mass & Balance

64. If the approach and landing speed is higher than the recommended speed in the aircraft manual the effect will be that:
a. The landing distance will be increased.
b. The landing distance will be decreased.
c. The landing performance will improve.
d. The landing distance will be unaffected.
65. The recommended factor by which to adjust your landing distance for a upward sloping runway is:
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. There isn’t one.

66. If a light aircraft lands on very short wet grass, by what factor should the landing distance required be multiplied?
a. 1.35
b. 1.6
c. 1.2
d. 1.43
67. To allow for landing on wet paved surface the landing distance required should be multiplied by a factor of:
a. 1.43
b. 1.6
c. 1.15
d. 1.35
68. If the temperature rises by 10 degree Celsius, the landing distance required should be multiplied by:
a. 1.05
b. 1.1
c. 1.43
d. 1.3
69. Having made allowances for variations in the surface and slope of a runway, a further safety factor is built into the
landing calculation of an aircraft for which the data is for gross performance. The factor is:
a. 33%
b. 43%
c. 25%
d. 10%
70. The recommended factor by which to increase the landing distance required on dry grass upto 20 cm long is:
a. 1.1
b. 1.2
c. 1.15
d. 1.33
71. Why is flap used for landing?
a. The approach speed is increased and a flatter approach path is flown which improves forward vision.
b. The approach speed is reduced and a steeper approach path is flown which improves forward vision.
c. The approach speed is reduced and a flatter approach path is flown which improves forward vision.
d. The approach speed is increased and a steeper approach path is flown which improves forward vision.
72. Landings are carried out into wind because:
a. It increases the ground speed and reduces the landing distance required.
b. It decreases the ground speed and reduces the landing distance available.
c. It gives the pilot greater control over the aircraft at lower speeds.
d. It will reduce the ground speed and reduce the landing distance required.

Page 16 of 17
Questionnaire
Flight Performance/ Mass & Balance

73. The recommended factor by which to increase the landing distance required on wet grass up to 20 cm long is:
a. 1.15
b. 1.2
c. 1.3
d. 1.35
74. If the aircraft mass is increased by 15%, the landing distance required will increase by approximately:
a. 15% or by a factor of 1.15
b. 33% or by a factor of 1.33
c. 10% or by a factor of 1.1
d. 20% or by a factor of 1.2
75. When more than one variable has to be factored to calculate the landing distance required:
a. Only the greatest factor need be used
b. An average of the factors should be used.
c. Only the smallest factor need be used.
d. All the factors must be multiplied together
76. The VREF to be attained by the landing screen height of 50 ft must be:
a. 1.15 times the stalling speed in the take off configuration.
b. 1.3 times the stalling speed in the landing configuration.
c. 1.43 times the stalling speed in the landing configuration.
d. 33% of stall speed.
77. Compared to landing on a level runway, what would be the effect of landing on a downward sloping runway?
a. The landing performance will improve.
b. The landing distance will be decreased.
c. The landing distance will be increased.
d. The landing distance will be unaffected.
78. What is the effect of an increase in mass on the stall speed and landing distance required?
a. Increased stall speed and decreased landing distance.
b. Decreased stall speed and decreased landing distance.
c. Increased stall speed and increased landing distance.
d. Decreased stall speed and increased landing distance
79. If the stalling speed in the landing configuration is 55 knots. VREF would be approximately:
a. 65 kt
b. 75 kt
c. 71 kt
d. 69 kt
80. To allow for an increase in aerodrome elevation of 1000ft the landing distance required should be multiplied by:
a. 1.1
b. 1.05
c. 1.33
d. 1.43

Page 17 of 17
Questionnaire