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Final Coaching – MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY – PART-1

Prepared by: Charles U. Arconado, RMT, MLS(ASCPi)CM, MiCM, AHI(AMT), DTA, IFBA PC
March 2023 Medical Technology Licensure Examination Review

1. __________ is an intestinal nematode capable of c. Hydrolysis of Tween 80

vertical transmission and potential cause for congenital d. Catalase test at 68ºC
infections. 10. __________ is considered the most commonly
a. Ascaris lumbricoides identified species of filarial worms that infect humans,
b. Enterobius vermicularis characterized by a sheath and nocturnal periodicity.
c. Trichuris trichura a. Wuchereria bancrofti
b. Brugia malayi
d. Ancylostoma duodenale
c. Loa loa
2. __________ is the predominant microorganism that d. Onchocerca volvulus
causes bacon to spoil despite being stored in vacuum- 11. Which biological safety cabinet allows room air to pass
packed containers.
through and within the cabinet and only sterilizes the
a. Lactobacillus
b. Micrococcus air exhausted?
c. Streptococcus a. Class I
d. Rhodococcus b. Class IIa
3. Before collection of hair, nails or skin scrapings for c. Class IIb
fungal culture, the area must be first __________. d. Class III
a. Cleanse area with 70% alcohol 12. Which biological safety cabinet sterilizes the air that
b. Use betadine on the area to sterilize flows over the infectious material as well as air to be
c. Wash with KOH exhausted; also, it is the most commonly used
d. No special procedure needed biological safety cabinet which has a fixed opening and
4. After determining a strain of Staphylococcus as
70% of the filtered air is recirculated.
coagulase negative, __________ would confirm the
identification as S. saprophyticus and novobiocin a. Class I
susceptible would confirm the identification as S. b. Class IIa
epidermidis. c. Class IIb
a. Novobiocin susceptible d. Class III
b. Novobiocin resistant 13. __________ first demonstrated that handwashing can
c. Catalase negative prevent the spread of diseases.
d. Oxidase negative
a. Joseph Lister
5. The adult of __________ possesses a cephalic cone
and a well-developed (prominent) shoulders. b. Emil von Behring
a. F. hepatica c. Ignaz Semmelweis
b. F. buski d. Francesco Redi
c. H. heterophyes 14. __________ is utilized to demonstrate the presence of
d. C. sinensis diffuse capsule surrounding the bacteria. Best example
6. __________ is characterized by extensive branching is india ink.
aerial hyphae in tap water agar.
a. Negative staining
a. Gordonia spp.
b. Rhodococcus spp. b. Gram staining
c. Streptomyces spp. c. Positive staining
d. Tsukamurella spp. d. Simple staining
7. __________ is the color produced by acid fast bacilli 15. In __________, microorganisms are most susceptible
after staining. to antibiotics.
a. Green
a. Lag phase
b. Blue
c. Red b. Log phase
d. Orange c. Stationary phase
8. It is considered the most common and earliest d. Decline phase
serological test to detect antibodies to VZV. 16. The aseptic collection of blood cultures requires that
a. ELISA the skin be cleansed with __________.
b. Complement fixation test a. 2% iodine and then 70% alcohol solution
c. FAMA test
b. 70% alcohol and then 2% iodine or an iodophor
d. Direct fluorescence antibody test
9. M. tuberculosis is best differentiated from M. bovis by c. 70% alcohol and then 95% alcohol
__________. d. 95% alcohol only
a. Growth rate 17. Opthalmia neonatorum is caused by N. gonorrhoeae as
b. Niacin and nitrate reduction tests the newborn passes the birth cannal. AgNO3 drops
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 (Crede’s prophylaxis) were once used. Nowadays, b. Carbol gentian violet rather than safranin as a
__________ is more commonly used for treatment. counter stain
a. Vancomycin c. Malachite green rather than hematoxylin as a
counter stain
b. Erythromycin
d. India ink with no counterstain
c. Clindamycin 28. __________ is a characteristic growth pattern of C.
d. Nystatin perfringens in litmus milk broth.
18. Sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS) may be used as an a. High turbidity
anticoagulant in blood cultures because it b. Clear medium after incubation
a. Removes some antimicrobials c. Exhibits pigmentation
b. Prevents phagocytosis d. Stormy fermentation
29. __________ is associated with Q fever and can be
c. Neutralizes the bactericidal effect of human serum
transmitted via inhalation of aerosols from infected
d. B and C animals.
19. __________ is best suited for the recovery of Yersinia a. B. quintana
enterocolitica from a patient with gastroenteritis. b. C. burnetti
a. Hektoen agar c. R. rickettsia
b. Cefsulodin-Irgasan-Novobiocin (CIN) agar d. O. tsutsugamuchi
c. Blood agar 30. Mycoplasma pneumoniae causes __________.
a. Lobar pneumonia with “rust-colored” sputum
d. EMB agar
b. Primary atypical pneumonia
20. When testing aminoglycosides and tetracyclines against c. Community-acquired pneumonia with “currant
P. aeruginosa, elevated concentrations of __________ jelly-like” sputum
can result to diminished activity of the antibiotics. d. Viral pneumonia
a. Nitrogen 31. __________ is the yeast enzyme detected using
b. Divalent cations birdseed (niger seed) agar.
a. Phenol oxidase
c. CO2
b. Catalase
d. pH c. Urease
21. __________ is used in infection associated with Group d. Nitrate reductase
A Streptococcus wherein the positive result is redness 32. The mycelia form of __________ (dimorphic mold)
of the skin. produces thick-walled, rectangular or barrel shaped
a. Dick’s test alternate arthroconidia.
b. Schultz-Charlton test a. Coccidioides immitis
b. Sporothrix schenkii
c. Francis test
c. Histoplasma capsulatum
d. Elek test d. Blastomyces dermatitidis
22. In the carbohydrate utilization test using CTA medium, 33. __________ is the most common viral syndrome of
__________ fails to produce acid from glucose, pericarditis, myocarditis and pleurodynia (pain upon
maltose, lactose and sucrose. It is catalase, oxidase breathing).
and DNase positive. a. Herpes simplex virus
a. N. gonorrhoeae b. Respiratory syncytial virus
c. Epstein-Barr virus
b. N. meningitidis
d. Coxsackie B virus
c. N. lactamica 34. When a delay in processing cannot be avoided,
d. M. catarrhalis specimens for viral isolation must be __________.
23. An isolate of E. coli recovered from the stool of a a. Kept at room temperature
patient with severe bloody diarrhea should be tested b. Placed in incubator temperature (35ºC)
for __________ before sending it to a reference c. Frozen immediately at -70ºC
d. Held at 4ºC and snap-frozen to -70ºC
laboratory for serotyping.
35. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
a. Sorbitol a. Onchocerca volvulus – examination of skin snips
b. Mannitol b. Cryptosporidium – modified acid-fast stain
c. Raffinose c. Schistosoma haematobium – examination of urine
d. Sucrose sediment.
24. __________ identifies late lactose fermenters. d. Echinococcus granulosus – routine ova and
a. Malonate test parasite examination
b. Potassium cyanide test 36. The following are considered STAT procedures in
c. Sorbitol fermentation diagnostic parasitology:
d. ONPG test a. CNS specimens for examination of free-living
25. __________ is the only species of Haemophilus which amoebae
does not require V factor. b. blood films in a potential malaria case
a. H. parahemolyticus c. Both a and b
b. H. parainlfuenzae d. There are no STAT procedures in parasitology
c. H. aegypticus 37. The specific gravity of the solution used in the zinc
d. H. ducreyi sulfate flotation method is __________.
26. In order for a sputum specimen to be acceptable for a. 1.01
culture, __________ must be seen. b. 1.04
a. <10 epithelial cells and >25 pus cells c. 1.18
b. <10 pus cells and >25 epithelial cells d. 1.48
c. <20 epithelial cells and >25 pus cells 38. An Entamoeba histolytica trophozoite has __________.
d. <25 epithelial cells and >20 pus cells a. Central karyosome, ingested RBCs, clear
27. The Fite-Faraco acid-fast stain is different from other pseudopodia
acid-fast stains because it uses __________. b. Ingested RBCs, clear pseudopodia, uneven
a. Hematoxylin rather than methylene blue as a chromatin
counter stain c. Ingested RBCs, clear pseudopodia, large glycogen
vacuoles
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 d. Large, blotlike karyosome, ingested WBCs, d. Short buccal capsule and large genital primordium
granular pseudopods 50. Trichinella spiralis adults are found in __________.
39. __________ is pathognomonic for Giardia lamblia a. Striated muscle
__________. b. Small intestine
a. Spiral groove, trophozoite c. Spinal fluid
b. Undulating membrane, cyst d. Blood
c. Cystostome, trophozoite 51. Zinc sulfate concentration may NOT allow detection of
d. Ventral sucking disk, trophozoite ___.
40. What differentiates modified acid-fast staining from a. Trichuris trichuria eggs
regular AFB staining? b. Giarda lamblia cysts
a. The staining time takes longer than AFB staining c. Strongyloides stercoralis rhabditiform larvae
b. The decolorizer is weaker in modified acid-fast d. Infertile ova of Ascaris lumbricoides
staining than the acid alcohol in regular AFB 52. A trematode with male and female adult forms is ___.
staining. a. Fasciolopsis buski
c. The stain is more concentrated when staining for b. Schistosoma spp.
AFB c. Clonorchis sinensis
d. A counterstain must be used for the modified d. Heterophyes heterophyes
methods 53. Which protozoa should be reported to the clinicians?
41. Autofluorescence requires no stain and is a. Endolimax nana
recommended for the identification of __________. b. Entamoeba coli
a. Entamoeba histolytica cysts c. Entamoeba dispar
b. Toxoplasma gondii tachyzoites d. Dientamoeba fragilis
c. Dientamoeba fragilis trophozoites 54. Nontuberculous colonies that develop pigment in the
d. Cyclospora cayetanensis oocysts dark or light, and take longer than 7 days to appear on
42. Eye infections with Acanthamoeba spp. have been solid media are known as ___.
implicated in __________. a. Photochromogens
a. Use of soft contact lenses b. Nonphotochromogens
b. Use of hard contact lenses c. Scotochromogens
c. Use of contaminated lens care solutions d. Rapid growers
d. Failure to remove lenses while swimming 55. An organism that is (+) in niacin, nitrate reduction,
43. Primary Amoebic Meningoencephalitis (PAM) is appears to have a serpentine cording on culture and
commonly caused by __________. grows in Tween 80 Hydrolysis after 5 days is
a. Naegleria fowleri suggestive of:
b. Acanthamoeba spp. a. M. bovis
c. Entamoeba hartmanni b. M. tuberculosis
d. Dientamoeba fragilis c. M. avium
44. __________ is the hemoflagellate form that can be d. M. kansasii
found in humans in cases of Leishmaniasis (diagnostic 56. Which of the following can be used as positive control
stage). in Gram staining?
a. Amastigote a. Escherichia coli
b. Promastigote b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Epimastigote c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d. Trypomastigote d. Staphylococcus aureus
45. __________ possesses the characteristic “thrown ball” 57. Which organism is used for the quality control of
motility. positive results in Kovac method for indole production?
a. G. duodenalis a. H. influenza
b. B. coli b. K. pneumoniae
c. T. vaginalis c. B. fragilis
d. C. mesnili d. E. coli
46. __________ is capable of exhibiting multiple ring forms 58. Which test is used to diagnose Giardia lamblia infection
and marginal/applique forms. from duodenal specimens?
a. P. falciparum a. Guaiac’s
b. P malariae b. Entero
c. P. vivax c. Biopsy
d. P. ovale d. Knott’s
47. Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale are similar 59. What is NOT considered a panic value in a Microbiology
because they __________. laboratory?
a. Exhibit Schuffner’s dots and have a true relapse in a. Positive acid fast stain
the life cycle b. S. pyogenes in a surgical wound
b. Have no malarial pigment and multiple rings c. Positive blood cultures
c. Commonly have applique forms in the red cells d. Negative blood smear for malaria
d. Have true stippling, do not have a relapse stage, 60. A lesion from the buccal mucosa of a patient with C.
and infect old red cells albicans in exudate shows ___.
48. The positive result in the Sabin-Feldman dye test is a. Blastoconidia, occasional mycelium
when __________. b. Macroconidia, chlamydospores
a. Toxoplasma becomes nonmotile c. Macroconidia, blastoconidia
b. Toxoplasma can no longer be demonstrated as an d. Blastoconidia, chlamydospores
intracellular organism 61. Which substance interferes with stool sample testing?
c. Toxoplasma loses its affinity for the methylene a. Cooking oil
blue dye b. Mineral oil
d. Mouse injected with serum dose not die of c. Calcium
Toxoplasmosis d. Hair dye
49. The rhabditiform larvae of Strongyloides stercoralis 62. Which nematode egg requires a warm humid
have __________. environment in order for the embryonated ovum to
a. Small genital primordium and notched tail mature and become infective and is transmitted
b. Long buccal capsule and pointed tail through oral fecal route?
c. Short buccal capsule and small genital primordium a. N. americanus
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 b. E. vermicularis 74. A single-stranded RNA genome having a helical capsid
c. A. lumbricoides with envelope is a characteristic of _____.
d. S. stercoralis a. Coronavirus
63. Nucleic acid amplification test for detection of b. Adenovirus
suspicious Bordetella, Chlamydia or Neisseria infections c. Filovirus
require a sample of ___. d. Flavivirus
a. DNA 75. Which method of susceptibility testing involves
b. Stool subjecting the isolate to a series of concentrations of
c. Urine antimicrobial agents in a broth environment?
d. RNA a. E-test
64. An emulsifying agent that stains nuclei of parasites and b. Disk diffusion
other structures to make them easily visible is ___. c. Genotypic
a. Formal ether d. Dilution
b. Grams’ iodine 76. Select the type of bacteria that can use oxygen as
c. Saline solution terminal electron acceptor in respiration.
d. Lugol’s iodine a. Aerobic
65. Anaerobic bacteria that has no definitive virulence b. Acid-fast
factors known and is associated with inflammatory c. Facultative
process in acne is ___. d. Anaerobic
a. Eubacterium 77. An organism that causes chancroid and which appears
b. Propionibacterium as small gram negative coccobacilli is ____.
c. Bifidobacterium a. H. ducreyi
d. Actinomyces b. Gardnerella vaginalis
66. The gold standard serologic test for rickettsioses is c. Brucella
_____. d. N. gonorrhaea
a. Nuclei acid hybridization test 78. How will you know if an N95 mask works properly?
b. Indirect immunofluorescent antibody assay a. Covers the mouth
c. Microimmunofluorescence b. Covers the nose
d. Nucleic acid amplification c. Snug fit
67. Which of the following is NOT true of virions? d. Wet outside but dry inside
a. Contains RNA 79. What type of organism demand special and enriched
b. Reproduce independently nutritional environment?
c. Contains DNA a. Nonpathogenic
d. Extracellular b. Fastidious
68. Which order of events should be followed at the c. Nonfastidious
conclusions of the shift of a laboratory worker to d. Pathogenic
prevent the spread of blood borne pathogens? 80. What bacteria is MOST susceptible to changes in
a. Disinfect area, remove gloves, wash hands remove temperature?
lab coat a. Neisseria meningitidis
b. Remove gloves, disinfect area, wash hands, b. Shigella species
remove lab coat c. Yersinia pestis
c. Remove gloves, wash hands remove lab coat, d. Helicobacter pylori
disinfect area 81. What does a desiccator do?
d. Disinfect area, remove gloves, remove lab coat, a. Preserve moisture-sensitive items
wash hands b. Precipitate
69. Contact with feline feces in cat litter is a primary c. Dilute concentrated acids
source of ___. d. Agglutinate
a. Rabies 82. The required preventive maintenance of centrifuges is
b. Cat-scratched fever ___.
c. Giardia a. Check temperature everyday
d. Toxoplasma b. Check and adjust every 3 hours
70. The mode of transmission of this organism is direct c. Check rpm every year
skin penetration. Which organism is referred to? d. Check rpm every 6 months
a. Strongyloides stercoralis 83. In thioglycollate broth medium, where do you find
b. Entamoeba coli obligate aerobe?
c. Entamoeba hartmanii a. Middle of the tube
d. Giardia lamblia b. At the bottom of the tube
71. Which organism can cause granulomatous disease in c. At the top of the tube
animals? d. Evenly spread in the tube
a. Cardiobacterium 84. Elongated embryonated, operculated ova with terminal
b. Capnocytophaga spine seen in a urine specimen is indicative of ___.
c. Actinobacillus a. Schistomosa haematobium
d. Kingella b. S. intercalatum
72. In the life cycle of Paragonimus, migration of ____ c. Schistosoma japonicum
(also the infective stage) through muscle and tissue d. S. mansoni
causes local pain and immune response to tissue 85. Which of the medically important streptococci is
damage. characterized by beta-hemolysis, bacitracin sensitive
a. Proglottids and PYR test positive?
b. Miracidium a. Streprococcus pneumonia
c. Metacercariae b. Streptococcus pyogenes
d. Cercariae c. Viridans group
73. How can anaerobic indigenous flora become d. Streptococcus agalactiae
pathogenic? 86. What is an appropriate action if the diameters of the
a. Failure to use PPE zones of inhibition are too large or too small with all
b. Impairment of blood supply the antimicrobials being tested?
c. Inadequate nutrition a. Decrease amount of agar dispensed
d. Unhygienic practices
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 b. Ensure that discs are applied to inoculated plates 93. Which type of tapeworm is characterized by pollen
within 15 minutes grain like appearance of the proglottids?
c. Ensure that plates are incubated immediately after a. Diphyllobothrium
application of discs b. Dipylidium
d. Standardize illumination c. Hymenolepis
87. What is blood agar made of? d. Taenia
a. Beef extract and casein hydrosylate 94. Which is NOT a strategy in Parasitology Quality
b. Bile salts and sheep blood Assurance?
c. Nutrients and 5% sheep blood a. Set up positive and negative controls
d. Sodium thioglycollate and sheep blood b. Ensure adequate training of all laboratory staff
88. A device used to incubate, agitate and monitor blood c. Dispatch test results for ER immediately
culture bottles for microbial growth is a ___ system. d. Standardized reporting of concentration of
a. Microbiological parasites
b. Blood monitoring 95. Positive cultures of yeast and filamentous fungi are
c. Blood culture reported with the _____.
d. Incubator a. Gram staining result
89. An organism appearing as small gram negative b. Organism identification
coccobacilli that causes chancroid is ___. c. Number of colonies
a. H. ducreyi d. Culture characteristics
b. Gardnerella vaginalis 96. Identify the cause of Loeffler’s syndrome?
c. N. gonorrhaea a. Acute inflammation
d. Brucella b. Hypersensitivity reaction
90. Which is transmitted by a black fly by laying its eggs in c. Granulomatous inflammation
running water and where the larvae attach to the d. Mechanical obstruction
rocks? 97. What type of growth can an agar slant produce?
a. Onchocerca volvulus a. Turbid
b. Mansonella ozzardi b. Clear
c. Brugia malayi c. Pellicle
d. Wuchereria bancrefti d. Diffuse
91. What is NOT considered Personal Protective 98. Animals that harbor parasites and serve as an
Equipment? important source of infection are known as ___ host.
a. Hand sanitizer a. Reservoir
b. HEPA filter b. Accidental
c. Gloves c. Natural
d. Laboratory coat d. Intermediate
92. Sputum sample from a female teenager with cystic 99. On BA plate, a non lactose fermenter that shows
fibrosis and diagnosed with pneumonia shows gram round, smooth, convex, colonies, appearing as black or
negative bacilli with yellow, smooth columbium. very dark purple and has ammonium cyanide odor is
Further testing gave the following results suggestive of _____.
• oxidase (+) a. Shigella dysenteriae
• TSI alkaline/alkaline b. Chromobacterium violaceum
• Glucose oxidized c. Vibrio cholera
• Fluorescence (-) d. Salmonella typhi
• Lysine decarboxylase (+) 100. Amniotic, peritoneal, synovial, pericardial fluids should
be transported to the laboratory within ____ minutes.
What is the most likely organism involved? a. 15
a. Shewanella putrefaciens b. 30
b. Burkholderia cepacia c. 60
c. Klebsiella pneumoniae d. 20
d. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia

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