I&C Technician

Exam Practice 5

Note: For flowing 100 Questions, the correct answers are

“Yellow” high lighted.

1. Smoke Detector to be installed in PLC Panel. Where is it installed?

A. Install Smoke Detector on Ceiling inside, and test with sample smoke

B. Install Detector on panel door and test with sample smoke

C. Install Detector on top of panel outside and test with 4-20mA signal

D. Install Detector in the bottom of panel and test with 4-20mA signal

2. A new PLC is added to the Ethernet network. How to configure the PLC on the
network?

A. Configure the IP address

B. Configure the MAC address

C. Reprogram the Ladder Logic

3. A PLC needs to be connected to DCS through Gateway. What is done?

A. Connect PLC to DCS, then DCS to Gateway

B. Connect PLC to Gateway and then DCS to Gateway

C. Connect DCS to PLC, then PLC to Gateway

4. During shutdown, how to do the maintenance of PLC?

A. Turn off the microprocessor, replace the Battery, check new firmware’s version,
reboot the PLC

B. Backup the PLC, turn off the power, replace the battery, download the new
firmware, power up the PLC

C. Backup the PLC, turn off the power, replace the battery, power up the PLC,
download the new firmware

5. Safety Harness is worn but Lanyard is good. What to do?

A. Replace the Harness only

 B. Replace both

C. Replace the Lanyard

6. Corrosion found on the I/O card in PLC rack. How to fix it?

A. Clean the card with fine abrasive and spray to clean the backplane

B. Clean the card with fine file and clean backplane with abrasive

C. Clean card and back plane with file

7. What will happen to PLC after a power outage?

A. Restart and reload the program

B. Clear the alarm and start again

C. Configure it again

D. Just re-boot the PLC

8. One of the Inputs on 16 Channel DCS Input Card doesn’t work. What is done?

A. Force the other inputs to safe state, Replace the Input card, remove the force

B. Check DCS program

C. Use another Input Channel

9. One of the DCS outputs is getting 120AC but the output device is getting zero volts.
What is done?

A. Change inline fuse

B. Output card doesn’t work (Triac output failed to turn on)

C. Output device is not working

10. DCS was updated online, then the program was downloaded from backup. Which
program will apply?

A. The downloaded backup program will run

B. The online changes will be effective

C. Old program will run until upgrade gets verified

NOTE what steps are taken to change configuration while DCS is running?
ANS: Online, upload, change configuration, save, and download

11. Technician wants to change PID parameters in DCS but finds trouble to do so:
 A. Technician doesn’t have privilege for this action

B. The software doesn’t allow parameter change after download

C. Technician is entering the wrong password

12. How to do the DCS Panel maintenance:

A. Clean the Fiber connections, Torque the network connectors

B. Replace the Fiber connections

C. Blow the panel

13. A computer connected to the UPS. UPS needs to be by-passed. What is done?

A. Turn off the computer, disconnect the UPS, connect power to computer, turn on
computer

B. Disconnect the UPS, turn off the computer, connect computer to power and turn
on

C. Turn on the By-pass switch to By-pass UPS

14. Broadband Radio SCADA System is installed in mountains and signal is weak.
What to do?

A. Use satellite system

B. Use Broad Spectrum Radio System

C. Use Directional Communication System

D. Use repeaters

15. In SCADA System the central control is sending commands to three remote units
but one of them is not receiving it. What is the cause?

A. Remote receiving unit is defective

B. Central power failure

C. The central control transmitter failure (question needs more clarification)

IUH See page 2159 & 2162 of book

16. Capacitance Level meter’s reading is 60% while actual level is 40%. What is the
first thing we can do?

A. Re-calibrate the transmitter

B. Clean the probe

 C. Adjust zero

D. Change the probe

Note: Since the probe is showing more reading, so it’s not dirty and we cannot say clean
the probe.

17. Magnetic Flow Meter’s output is not as supposed to be. What is done?

A. Clean the electrodes

B. Change the electrodes

C. Re-calibrate the Flow meter

IUHMagnetic flow meters have two electrodes in contact with the process fluid, the
caustic stream in this case. The behavior you describe is common for processes that coat
the surface of the electrodes. The coating forms a high resistance barrier that eventually
becomes high enough resistance to reduce current flow between the electrodes to near
zero. The solution is to keep the electrodes clean. There are options for most magnetic
flow meters to install ultrasonic cleaning circuits on the electrodes. These are commonly
used in the pulp and paper industry where pulp gradually coats the electrodes.

18. Vibration Proximity sensor/switch reading incorrect. What is done?

A. Re-gap to get correct voltage

B. Change the sensor

C. Need to be cleaned

19. DP Transmitter needs to be installed on steam line. How would be done?

A. Install DP Transmitter on impulse lines sloped up (Correct Answer)

B. Install on impulse lines sloped down

C. Install on impulse lines straight up

D. In stall on impulse lines at 60 degrees

20. Every time you open the valve for maintenance:

A. Clean the bushings

B. Replace the bushings

C. Replace the gasket (O-rings)

21. A VSD/VFD has Over-voltage on load side. What is the cause?

A. Transformer is supplying over voltage

B. Load wiring is oversized

 C. Harmonics are causing over voltage

D. Power Factor is low

22. A Valve with Positioner shows the following behavior:

10% Input-10% Output

30% Input-30% Output
60% Input-65% Output
100% Input-100% Output
What is the cause?
A. Cam is not working properly

B. Leakage in Diaphragm

C. Out of calibration

D. Needs bench test

23. How Cl2 Calibration is done?

A. N2 and Cl2 sample, and O2 purge

B. Ambient air and Cl2 sample, and N2 purge

C. High sample and low sample

Zeroing the instrument in ambient air is not sufficient. At low ppm

concentrations, you must zero the instrument with zero air or nitrogen
(sensor dependent) in order to be sure you are getting true zero.
Background gases in plant sites could shift your zero measurement slightly
creating errors in readings.

24. On a pneumatic system one of the pens/indicators is staying at zero level and
doesn’t record at all. What is the probable cause?

A. Recorder’s pen is out of order

B. No input signal on that recording pen

C. Servo motor is defective

25. P&ID Diagram: How to reverse the piston travel of a pneumatic actuator?

A. Reverse the Air Lines to valve C1 & C2

B. Reverse the control signal

26. How to change the characteristics of a valve from Equal Percentage to Quick
Opening, without changing the trim.
 A. Oversize the valve

B. Install characterized positioner on the valve

C. Undersize the valve

1-What effect does the positioner cam have on a valve characteristic?

The feedback cam in the positioner controls the relationship between the control signal
and valve position. With a Linear Cam at 50% signal the valve will be 50% open.

It is possible to alter the apparent characteristic of a valve by changing the shape of the
cam, e.g.; for a ball valve that has an inherent equal percentage character it is possible to
make it appear linear so that the flow rate through the valve at 50% signal is half of the
maximum flow – the valve will however only be 25% open to achieve this result.

2-Cam is a part of positioner that could make the actuator stroke (not valve’s inherent
characteristic, i.e. linear plug, equal% plug, or quick opening plug) to become linear,
equal percentage, or quick opening. For example, our control valve has a linear inherent
characteristic plug, with adjustment of the cam, we could get the equal percentage or
quick opening actuator stroke.

If our valve’s inherent characteristics are already equal percentage, then the cam adjusted
to have equal percentage characteristic, the stroke of the valve will make the flow more
equal percentage. With this configuration, if our valve’s inherent characteristic is linear,
then we will get equal percentage stroke. If our valve inherent characteristic is quick
opening, then we will get more closely to linear flow characteristic.

27. Cascade Control P&ID Diagram: Which control type is this?

A. Feed forward

B. Feedback

C. Cascade

28. Diagram of a Flange Circle with bolts A, B, C, D and E. What is the correct
sequence to tighten the Nuts?

A. A,B,C,D,E
B. E,D,C,B,A
C. B,D,E,C,A
D. D,C,A,E,B
29. Cavitation in valves is caused by:

A. Low Differential Pressure

B. High Differential Pressure

C. Worn plug and seat

D. Broken seat

(DP = P1 – P2: Cavitation is caused when P2 is very low, lower than vapor pressure.
If P2 is low, DP will be high)

30. How we check the status of a Fuse in Live Circuit?

A. Connect ohm meter across the Fuse

B. Connect Ammeter in series

C. Connect Voltmeter is series

D. Connect Voltmeter Across the Fuse

31. Diagram of a pulse encoding wheel with sensor signal through it. How many pulses
it will count if speed of wheel is 3000 RPM (What is the frequency of pulses)?

Speed ratio of drive & wheel 3:1

Drive

11 reflective spots

Photo sensor
A. 550 pulse per minute

B. 550 pulses per second

C. 33000 pulses per minute

D. 33000 pulses per second

(3000RPM=3000/60 =50RPS. So 50 Revolutions per second. If 11 reflective slots on

the encoder, in 1 second: 50x11= 550 Pulses per sec)

32. Diagram of four Level Tanks with DP Transmitters. Which DP Transmitter is Zero
Elevated?
 (Zero Elevated DP Transmitter)

33. How the RTD is tested?

A. Use Ohm meter

B. Use volt meter

C. Use ammeter

34. If pH range is 0-10 and output signal is 4-20mA, at pH 6, what will be mA signal?

(X-4)/16 = (6-0)/10
X = 13.6mA

35. A 120V system needs to be closed for service. How to do that?

A. Inform operations, isolate, turn off breaker

B. Inform supervisor, turn off breaker, isolate

C. Turn off breaker, isolate, inform operations

D. Call security, turn off breaker, isolate

36. What you need for RS232 system to communicate up to 500 meters?

A. Needed RS232 to RS485 converter (Correct)

B. Replace the system with RS485

C. Needed RS232 to Ethernet converter

37. A loop communicator does not communicate properly to loop devices:

A. low loop power

B. low loop resistance (Correct)

38. A hydraulic system’s oil is milky. What is done?

A. Replace the filter

 B. Add some ethanol

C. Replace all the seals of hydraulic equipment (Correct)

(If air or water gets in to the hydraulic system, the oil gets milky and cloudy. It means
seals are weak)

39. H2S gas has the traverse as (blocks having 1 2 3 4 5 6). What ppm value is
according to traverse? (ppm values are given with traverse block diagram)

1 2 3
4 5 6
16ppm
63ppm
85ppm
120ppm
91ppm
95ppm
What is the actual ppm value?
(Add them up and take the average)
A. 85 ppm

B. 78 ppm (average of six values) Correct

C. 65 ppm

40. Capacitance Level measurement. Where will the insulating sheath be used if the
vessel walls are made of non-metallic (non-conducting) material?

A. Use sheath with wall

B. Use sheath with active electrode (correct answer)

C. Use sheath with reference electrode

The principle of capacitive level measurement is based on change of capacitance.

An insulated electrode acts as one plate of capacitor and the tank wall (or reference
electrode in a non-metallic vessel) acts as the other plate. The capacitance depends
on the fluid level. An empty tank has a lower capacitance while a filled tank has a
higher capacitance.
A simple capacitor consists of two electrode plates separated by a small thickness of
an insulator such as solid, liquid, gas, or vacuum. This insulator is also called as
dielectric.

Non-conducting material: For measuring level of non-conducting liquids, bare

probe (no sheath or insulation) arrangement is used as liquid resistance is sufficiently
high to make it dielectric. Since the electrode and tank are fixed in place, the distance
(d) is constant; capacitance is directly proportional to the level of the material acting
as dielectric.
Conducting Material: In conducting liquids, the probe plates are insulated
(sheathed) using thin coating of glass or plastic to avoid short circuiting. The
conductive material acts as the ground plate of the capacitor.

In applications where the vessel is made of a non-conducting material, a second

probe parallel to the active probe or a conductive strip can be installed.

41. Carbon Monoxide (CO) monitor’s calibration is not proper. What is done? (See
File 2)

A. Replace the chemical cell and recalibrate (Correct)

B. Replace the monitor

42. O2 analyzer needs to be calibrated for flue gases. 2-3.5% of O2 sample is used.
Which combination is require?

A. Use 0-5% N2 gas for low range and ----

NOTE
Two steps Calibration of Oxygen Analyzer (for analyzers of paramagnetic sensor type)
1. Apply pure N2 (99.9%) from calibration gas cylinders and see the display, if it is 0%
then OK. If not, then adjust from settings to make it ZERO.
2. Apply clean and fresh atmospheric air (NOT from an air conditioned room or confined
space) and see the display, it should be 20.9 or 21.0%, if not adjust SPAN setting to display
it correctly.

43. How to Re-assemble a dismantled Valve Actuator?

A. put the bushings, attach stem, attach housing, attach diaphragm, attach
diaphragm cover

(Book, Page 2864)

Put in the Bushing in the Yoke, insert the Circular Spring Clip to hold the Bushing, install
the lower half of actuator casing with screws to the Yoke, put the spring under the yoke,
slide in the stem in yoke with diaphragm and plate, insert the spring seat and nut under
the yoke, install the diaphragm upper casing/housing and tighten the nuts.

44. What parameter do you adjust in VFD for motor which runs at low speed?

A. Adjust the Torque

B. Adjust the overheating

C. Adjust the current

45. Instrument Air System is suspected:

A. Monitor the Dew point and clean the filters

B. Lubricate the air line

46. Connecting the terminals of a device:

A. Black to Live, White to Neutral, Green to Ground

B. White to Ground, Green to Live, Black to Neutral

47. A transmitter’s input 0% output 5%, input 50% output 55%, input 90% output
95%. How to adjust it?

A. Decrease the zero

B. Increase the zero
C. Adjust the span

48. An Infrared Methane gas Sensor stays in high concentration of gas.

A. The sensor will become more sensitive with time

B. It will become less sensitive with time.

C. High concentration of Methane will not change its sensitivity over time

49. pH analyzer needs to be reinstalled after parts replacement:

A. Clean with distilled water and Check with buffer solution

B. Check with buffer solution and clean with distilled water

C. Clean with grab sample and check with distilled water

50. How to inspect the Multimeter?

A. Check the battery

B. Touch & Check the probes

C. Check the display

51. What type of actuator you need for a Push-down-close, Fail-Close valve?

A. Reverse acting with diaphragm

B. Dual Action Piston actuator

C. Direct Acting with diaphragm

52. Pneumatic Relay continuously shows 100% reading, what could be the cause?

A. The baffle gap is not proper

B. The nozzle got stuck

53. How to do the maintenance of a valve to tight-shut?

A. Lapping the Plug and Seat (or cage and seat) Correct

B. Increasing the air supply

54. A PID Controller needs to be tuned for a process where temperature suddenly rises
up. What needs to be done to decrease the overshoot?

A. Decrease the Derivative to decrease the overshoot

B. Increase the Derivative to decrease the overshoot

C. Add minutes

D. Add Proportional

(Page 2090 of Book)

The presence of derivative control action in a PID controller generally means the proportional
(P) and integral (I) terms may be adjusted more aggressively than before, since derivative (D)
will act to limit overshoot. In other words, the judicious presence of derivative action in a PID
controller lets us “get away” with using a bit more P and I action than we ordinarily could,
resulting in faster approach to set point with minimal overshoot.

55. What we do to simulate Conductivity Meter’s Calibration?

A. Use Decade Box

B. Use buffer solution

(Decade Box is used for RTD Simulation and Potentiometer is used for Thermocouple
Simulation)
Decade Box is also used in Conductivity Meter’s Simulation for calibration
Standard solutions for conductivity calibrations are commercially available. Conductivity
instruments can be calibrated by disconnecting the conductivity probe and using a decade box
to simulate resistance of the solution. After the instrument calibration is completed and the
probe is reconnected, the conductivity system is checked using a standard conductivity
solution, if available, or compared to another calibrated conductivity instrument in the same
solution. To perform a calibration of a
Conductivity instrument, you'll need to know the range of the instrument, the cell constant,
terminal wiring for the conductivity celli temperature compensation, and the temperature
compensation resistance at 25°C.

56. A Hydraulic Piston Actuator requires maintenance:

A. Change the old O-Rings

B. Lubricate the piston seals

C. Change the reservoir

57. Which type of gasket is most frequently used in a high-pressure hydraulic system
assembled with socket weld flanges?

A. spiral flange
B. crush ring
C. “O” ring
D. Split ring
Ans. C

58. A calibration instrument needs to be checked against standard instrument. What is

done?

A. Send the instrument outside to a standard calibration lab

B. Check the instrument locally

C. Buy the standard instruments

59. Two questions from Analytical Sensor Technologies: Catalytic Beads.

(Two questions about catalytic beads)

Popular sensor technologies used to detect the presence of combustibles in air include the
following:

• Catalytic bead
• Thermocouple
• Infrared
• Flame ionization
Catalytic bead and thermocouple sensors both function on the principle of heat generated
during
combustion. Air potentially containing a concentration of flammable gases or vapors is passed
near
a heated element, and any combustion occurring at that point will cause the local temperature
to
immediately rise. These sensors must be designed in such a way they will not initiate an
explosion,
but merely combust the sample in a safe and measurable manner. Like micro fuel cell oxygen
sensors,
these sensors may be manufactured in sufficiently small and rugged packages to enable their
use as
portable LEL sensors.

60. What adjustment must be made to a recorder that has been checked reading
correctly at 0% and 100%, but reads 10% high at the middle range?

A. Span adjustment in the direction of error

B. Zero adjustment in the opposite direction of error

C. Linear adjustment in the opposite direction of error

D. Linear adjustment in the direction of error

61. Given a P&ID. Which component on the diagram is responsible for adjusting the
Air-Fuel Ratio?

A. Air-fuel setter (P&ID shows FIC)

B. FY1

C. FY2

62. P&ID Diagram with exposed pneumatic circuit of positioner & actuator. Positioner
spring is replaced, what is done next?

A. Replace the Cam

B. Replace the loading Below

C. Adjust the zero and adjust the span

63. SAC System-(3 questions)

SAC: Stand Alone Controller

Q. Set point to SAC is 40% but PV is 30% after five minutes. What is the cause?
A. Increase Integral (repeats per minute)

B. Integral action is too low

C. Decrease PB

64. Diagram: Hand pump on a pipe, liquid goes to vessel when pumped, two check
valves on inlet and outlet of hand pump. Hand pump pulls up when pumped,
which component is causing problem?

A. Installed at suction side (No. 28)

B. Check valve at discharge side (No. 5)

C. Other component

65. It takes total accumulative time 10 minutes to fill up the hopper. The operation
may stop and restart. What type of PLC timer will be used for this application?

A. Retentive timer

B. ON timer

C. Count down timer

D. OFF timer

66. How to re-assemble a valve after maintenance?

A. Ring, packing, follower------

67. What will be the orientation of three vibration probes?

A. Orient at 90 degrees

B. Orient at 180 degrees

C. Orient at 30 degrees

68. Given an electrical diagram. What will be the value of variable resister to balance
the circuit with following specs?

Vs=25v, VLoad=10v, ILoad=15mA

Vs ILoad VLoad

A. 100 ohms

B. 350 ohms

C. 500 ohms

D. 780 ohms

69. New Ethernet network needs to be setup. What should be the settings?

A. Setup protocol, node address and parity

B. Setup node address, parity and stop bit

C. Setup parity, mac address and protocol

70. A weighing conveyer needs to be restarted after parts replacement. What to do?

A. Check the speed of the conveyer and check the load on the belt

B. Do Mechanical alignment of belt and recalibrate

71. Gateways are connected on the network but facing data collision, what is the
cause?

A. The both gateways have same network address ---(Correct)

B. The networks have different protocols

C. The network has problem

72. Density measurement by vibration:

 A. Air in the sample line

B. Leakage in sample lines

73. In a DC variable speed drive, motor is installed 500 feet from drive. At startup
motor is hunting. How to fix this problem?

A. By adjusting IR compensation

B. Increasing acceleration time

C. Decreasing deceleration time etc.

74. In Diagram two air dryers are given, you have to find which valve is isolating the
two chambers? (i.e. one is regenerating and the other is working)

A. E

B. J

C. H

D. G

75. How to do maintenance of vibration sensor on thrust bearing?

A. Isolate thrust bearing, check the connections

B. Isolate equipment, check probe connections

C. Isolate thrust bearing, check the lubricant

76. Conductivity meter shows reading too low all the times. What is the cause?

A. Sample is too cold

B. Sample is too hot

C. Exposed to excess oxygen

D. Exposed to excess nitrogen

77. Given different ranges for input pressure, output pressure and density. You have to
calculate the density?

Input pressure range= 1.5-3.5

Density range= 0.6 – 1.3 S.G
Output pressure= 50kpa
Answer: X-0.6 / 0.7 = 1.5 / 2 (Calculate by using this formula)

78. Question on piezo electric drive, frequency is changed but piezo drive output is
constant. What is the reason?
 A. Piezo electric drive is defective

B. Etc.

79. How to maintain O2 analyzer (paramagnetic sensor)

A. Purge line with any liquid, check the reading

80. Input range is 4 – 20mA. Pneumatic valve opens 80% at 16mA input. What is the
cause?

A. Packing rings too tight

B. Valve stem sticking

C. Spring tension is weak

D. Diaphragm is leak

81. Three new HART transmitters to be added onto multidrop network. How to install
them?

A. Install transmitter in parallel and configure the address (Correct answer)

B. Check the transmitter in Lab and configure the address

82. Valve position diagram given with pilot valve, question is asked about after the
maintenance of positioner always air is venting from pilot valve what is the
problem.

A. Piston seal is leaking

B. Other options related to cylinder

83. Diagram shows Flow meter with Check valve before the flow meter and one check
valve after the flow meter, how to replace the flow meter.

A. Close check valve 2, replace flow meter, close check valve 1

B. Close check valve 1, close check valve 2, replace flow meter, open check valve 2,
open check valve 1

84. Question related to remote I/O rack, PLC input data table does not update, I/O
rack has power, what will be cause?

A. Communication cable is loose

B. Processor is faulty

C. I/O cards are faulty

85. HMI to be installed in high vibration area, how to do that

A. Install HMI on vibration damping structure

B. Install at structure beam

C. Install on the ground

86. New DCS system has to be put in service what should be done before that?

A. Verify control loops, Do QC/QA, check communications

B. Survey plant site, check communications and do QC/QA

87. Pneumatic system PV does not change, PV stays at 35% and this is verified by the
changing the controller output what will be the cause

A. Valve does not respond

B. Transmitter connections are reversed

C. C.?

88. Question about Velocity base flow meter (Book page#1534 and 1535)

What to adjust for flow computer to read volumetric flow

A. Pressure and temperature

B. Pressure and velocity

C. Pressure and viscosity

89. Coriolis flowmeter is used to measure:

A. Level

B. Gas Flow

C. Mass Flow

D. Pressure

90. In a Displacement type level meter, where to attach the flange? (related to Torque
tube)

A. At displacer side

B. At Rod side

91. What data is used to change the diaphragm on pneumatic actuator?

 A. Actuator plate data is used to change the diaphragm on pneumatic actuator

B. Valve data is used to change the diaphragm on pneumatic actuator

92. Orifice plate has been changed what should be done to correctly get the output in
flow computer.

A. Change the plate data to match configuration parameters

B. Change the plate to match the parameters

93. How to test a valve operation after maintenance before putting into service how to
do that?

A. Open bypass valve, close block valve

B. Close block valve the open bypass valve

94. How to test Radio SCADA TRANSMITTER?

A. Connect the strength meter antenna, power off the transmitter, check the signal
and turn on the transmitter

B. Power off the transmitter, check the signal, connect the meter, turn on the
power and check the signal strength again

95. Positioner is defective and no more is available in spares. To run the operation, I/P
transducer is used with Actuator. How to connect this I/P transducer to Actuator?

96. There is high pressure shutdown Alarm on the system. How to fix this without
stopping the operation.

97. How to check DCS system power supply redundancy?

A. Turn off one power supply, check the bus current, Turn on the power supply
and check the bus voltage

B. Turn off one power supply, check the bus voltage, turn on first supply, turn off
the other supply and check the bus voltage then turn on the other power supply

98. VFD drive is 208V 60HZ, speed range is 4 – 20mA. What will be speed of motor at
16mA?

Correct answer is 45HZ.

99. Maintenance was done on Hydraulic system, what should be done before putting it
in service?

A. Pressurize lines and check leaks

 B. Check the reservoir level

C. Check the pistons

100. A digital valve controller has failed, what is another device which could be
used
temporarily to replace the DVC and still have the actuator respond to the PLC signals:
A. Flow meter
B. I/P converter
C. P/I converter
D. RTD/I converter
I&C Technician
Exam Practice 6

This file covers the following topics with 10 questions each

(Total Question=190):
1. Industrial Safety
2. DC Circuits
3. AC Circuits
4. Electrical Power and Motor Controls
5. Semiconductor Circuits
6. Digital Circuits
7. Basic Controls
8. Calibration Principals
9. Pressure Measurement
10. Level Measurement
11. Temperature Measurement
12. Flow Measurement
13. Analytical Measurement
14. Control Valves
15. PID Control and Tuning
16. Control Strategies
17. Instrumentation diagrams
18. Programmable Logic Controllers (PLC)
19. Digital Control systems
****************************************************************************************************
****************************************************************************************************

Question 1 – Industrial safety

The purpose of a lock-out/tag-out procedure is to:
(A) Reduce time spent doing the job
(B) Eliminate expenses related to maintenance
(C) Prevent unauthorized personnel from entering an area
(D) Secure all energy sources in a system
(E) Reduce the risk of accidental fire

Ans: D

Question 2 – Industrial safety

A victim of electric shock may likely require what sort of immediate medical attention?
(A) Bandages over the point of electrical contact
(B) Ice applied to the burned areas
(C) Antibiotics to prevent infection
(D) CPR
(E) An EEG test to record nervous system function

Ans: D
Question 3 – Industrial safety
The very first thing you should do if you are the first to witness or discover an accident
on the job site is to:
(A) Provide first-aid to the victim(s)
(B) Seek the assistance of the nearest co-worker
(C) Alert professional emergency responders
(D) Report the incident to your supervisor
(E) Cry like a baby

Ans: C

Question 4 – Industrial safety

The purpose of a cartridge-style respirator is to:
(A) Provide a pure oxygen breathing environment where there is insufficient oxygen in
the air
(B) Enhance your personal appearance for maximum social appeal
(C) Convert exhaled carbon dioxide back into oxygen for re-breathing
(D) Reduce the concentration of particulates in the air you breathe
(E) Reduce noxious odors in the air you breathe
Ans: D

Question 5 – Industrial safety

Shock is defined as an abnormal condition of the body where:
(A) There is insufficient blood delivered to the body’s cells
(B) The heart stops beating normally, and “quivers” instead
(C) The lungs are unable to process oxygen properly
(D) A broken bone has penetrated the skin
(E) The muscles in the body have “frozen” and will not move
Ans: A

Question 6 – Industrial safety

A confined space is deemed ready for employee entry when:
(A) The unit operations foreman declares it ready
(B) A company safety inspector has certified it
(C) Your supervisor assigns you to the job
(D) An independent inspection agency has completed their survey
(E) An engineer has completed the necessary calculations

Ans: B

Question 7 – Industrial safety

One of the common signs of a heart attack is:
(A) A sharp pain in the lower area of the spine
(B) Loss of bowel control
(C) A feeling of numbness in the legs
(D) Discomfort in the chest and/or upper body
(E) A general feeling of restlessness and anxiety
Ans: D

Question 8 – Industrial safety

Heat stroke is often indicated by the following symptoms:
(A) Cold and clammy skin, thirst, vomiting, confusion
(B) Hot and dry skin, inability to drink, vomiting, confusion
(C) A sudden affinity for country-western music
(D) Dizziness, vomiting, cold skin, profuse sweating
(E) Blue-colored skin, extreme hunger, feelings of anxiety, thirst
Ans: B

Question 9 – Industrial safety

Arc blast is caused by:
(A) Poor contact within electrical wire splices
(B) Radio frequency emissions from high-power transmitters
(C) Discharge of high electrical current through open air
(D) Failure to lock-out and tag-out electrical breakers
(E) Ionization of gases near high-voltage electrical conductors
Ans: C

Question 10 – Industrial safety

Current measurements are more dangerous to make with a multimeter than voltage
measurements because:
(A) You must use both hands to take the measurement
(B) Most multimeters are unfused
(C) The resulting magnetic fields may be very strong
(D) The circuit must be broken (opened)
(E) A fuse protects the voltage measurement ranges, but not current
Ans: D

*****************************************************************
Question 41 – DC circuit theory
Determine the voltage dropped across resistor R3 in this circuit:

15 volts

R1 1.8 kΩ 1 kΩ R3

2.2 kΩ
R2

(A) 7.5 volts

(B) 3.0 volts
(C) 6.6 volts
(D) 15 volts
(E) 5.4 volts

Ans: B
Question 42 – DC circuit theory
Calculate total current in this circuit:

8V R1 1.5 kΩ R2 10 kΩ R3 4.7 kΩ

(A) 493.8 µA
(B) 5.333 mA
(C) 8.000 mA
(D) 7.835 mA
(E) 8.168 mA

Ans: D
Question 43 – DC circuit theory
Calculate the necessary resistor value (R) to balance this bridge circuit:

2.7 kΩ 3.3 kΩ

V
5V out

7.9 kΩ R

(A) 9.656 kΩ
(B) 8.501 kΩ
(C) 5.830 kΩ
(D) 7.299 kΩ
(E) 6.464 kΩ

Ans: A

Question 44 – DC circuit theory

Calculate the necessary resistor size for R1 to make the total circuit current equal to 30 milliamps:

20 V R1 ? R2 5 kΩ R3 1.2 kΩ

(A) 2.143 kΩ
(B) 1.500 kΩ
(C) 967.7 Ω
(D) 666.7 Ω
(E) 310.0 Ω

Ans: A
Question 45 – DC circuit theory
Calculate the current through resistor R4 in this circuit:

R1 3.7 kΩ

15 V R2 2.2 kΩ

R35 kΩ R420 kΩ

(A) 4.054 mA
(B) 8.994 mA
(C) 1.226 mA
(D) 441.5 µA
(E) 1.668 mA

Ans: D

Question 46 – DC circuit theory

Voltages and currents in an RC or LR time-constant circuit will settle to within 1% of their final value(s)
in how many time constants?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 10
(D) 3
(E) 5

Ans: E
Question 47 – DC circuit theory
How much voltage will a DMM register if connected with the red test lead on point B and the black test
lead on point C?

(A) +4.5 volts

(B) -4.5 volts
(C) -13.5 volts
(D) +13.5 volts
(E) +2 volts

Ans: C
Question 48 – DC circuit theory
Calculate the voltage between test point B and ground in this circuit:

A B

3 kΩ

18 V C

5 kΩ

D
E
1 kΩ

(A) 20 volts
(B) 16 volts
(C) 18 volts
(D) 2 volts
(E) 6 volts

Ans: B
Question 49 – DC circuit theory
Determine the magnitude and direction of current through resistor R4 in this circuit:

R
8 200 mA

R R
1 4

R R
3 R6 7

R2 R5
150 mA
40 mA
Note: all current arrows point in the
direction of electron flow!

(A) 240 mA → (left to right)

(B) 200 mA → (left to right)
(C) 240 mA ← (right to left)
(D) 160 mA → (left to right)
(E) 160 mA ← (right to left)

Ans: E
Question 50 – DC circuit theory
Determine the magnitude and polarity of the voltage across resistor R 4 in this circuit:

R1 R4

10 V

17 V R3 4V R6 1V

R2 R5

3V 2.5 V

(A) - 1.0 volt + (negative on left, positive on right)

(B) + 0.5 volts - (positive on left, negative on right)
(C) - 7.0 volts + (negative on left, positive on right)
(D) - 3.5 volts + (negative on left, positive on right)
(E) + 4.0 volts - (positive on left, negative on right)

Ans: B

Question 51 – AC circuit theory

What will happen to the current in this circuit as frequency increases?

5 V RMS 0.22 F

(A) Current will remain the same

(B) Cannot tell – not enough information given
(C) Current will decrease
(D) Current will decrease to a minimum and then increase
(E) Current will increase

Ans: E
Question 52 – AC circuit theory
Resonance is defined as a condition in an AC circuit when:
(A) no more magnetic flux may be forced into an iron core
(B) opposition to electric current varies with frequency
(C) complementary reactances are equal and opposite
(D) voltage and current waveforms are exactly 90o out of phase
(E) electrons are able to “tunnel” across an energy gap

Ans: C

Question 53 – AC circuit theory

Calculate the source and load currents in this transformer circuit:

1400 turns 3610 turns

Load
110 VAC 3.9 kΩ

(A) Isource = 77.22 mA Iload = 283.6 mA

(B) Isource = 187.5 mA Iload = 72.73 mA
(C) Isource = 186.5 mA Iload = 72.53 mA
(D) Isource = 164.2 mA Iload = 63.66 mA
(E) Isource = 72.53 mA Iload = 186.5 mA

Ans: B
Question 54 – AC circuit theory
The function on an oscilloscope that “locks in” waveforms so that they do not scroll horizontally across
the screen is called the
(A) Horizontal sync
(B) Timebase
(C) Beam finder
(D) Trigger
(E) Cursor

Ans: D

Question 55 – AC circuit theory

A voltage gain of 25 (expressed as a unitless ratio) may also be expressed as decibels (dB).
(A) 17.78
(B) 27.96
(C) 7.959
(D) 64.38
(E) 13.98

Ans: B

Question 56 – AC circuit theory

In an AC circuit where current lags voltage by 35o, the power factor is:
(A) 0.707
(B) 0.819
(C) 0.574
(D) 0.700
(E) 1.414

Ans: B
Question 57 – AC circuit theory
Determine the frequency of this waveform shown on an oscilloscope screen:

Vertical sensitivity = 2 volts/div

1:1 probe DC coupling Timebase
= 0.5 ms/div

(A) 400 Hz
(B) 250 Hz
(C) 0.4 Hz
(D) 10 kHz
(E) 10 Hz

Ans: A
Question 58 – AC circuit theory
Calculate the RMS value of this triangle wave, as shown by the oscilloscope:

Vertical sensitivity = 10 volts/div

1:1 probe DC coupling
Timebase = 5 s/div

(A) 17.31 volts

(B) 30 volts
(C) 3.2 volts
(D) 21.21 volts
(E) 32 volts

Ans: A

Question 59 – AC circuit theory

If a communications cable has a characteristic impedance of 75 ohms, this means:
(A) The cable’s end-to-end resistance is 75 ohms
(B) The cable’s conductor-to-conductor resistance is 75 ohms
(C) The cable should be terminated with a resistance equal to 37.5 ohms
(D) The cable’s conductor resistance is 75 ohms per mile of length
(E) The cable appears to a pulse signal as a 75 ohm load

Ans: E
Question 60 – AC circuit theory
A low pass filter is a circuit that performs the following function:
(A) Modifies the shape of an AC wave
(B) Blocks low-frequency signals from passing through
(C) Passes only the negative (low) portions of an AC wave
(D) Attenuates low-frequency signals
(E) Blocks high-frequency signals from passing through

Ans: E

Question 61 – Electric power and motor controls

The heating element used in an industrial electric boiler is rated at 15 kW, at 480 volts, 3 phase.
Calculate the current drawn by each line of this 3-phase heater.
(A) 18.48 amps
(B) 31.25 amps
(C) 32.00 amps
(D) 18.04 amps
(E) 10.42 amps

Ans: D

Question 62 – Electric power and motor controls

3-phase electrical systems are favored over single-phase systems for power distribution because:
(A) It would be expensive to convert everything to single phase
(B) 3-phase systems are easier to understand
(C) Single-phase electric motors are more rugged
(D) More power may be transmitted using less copper (wire)
(E) 3-phase power is easier to step voltage up and down

Ans: D
Question 63 – Electric power and motor controls
An AC induction motor works on the principle of:
(A) A rotating magnetic field
(B) The Lorentz force
(C) Voltage stepped up through mutual induction
(D) Magnetic hysteresis
(E) Magnetostriction converting magnetism to force

Ans: A

Question 64 – Electric power and motor controls

Variable frequency drives, or VFDs, are popular in industry for electric motor control because:
(A) They increase the available horsepower from a motor
(B) They cost less than an across-the-line starter
(C) They make the motor run quieter
(D) They increase the available torque from a motor
(E) They potentially save energy

Ans: E
Question 65 – Electric power and motor controls
The “M1” contact in the low-voltage control circuit serves the purpose of:

To 3-phase
power source
F1

F2
L1 L2
Start Stop M1
M1

M1

Motor

(A) Latching the motor in the “run” state

(B) Protecting the motor from overcurrent conditions
(C) Ensuring the motor will stop even if the “stop” switch fails
(D) Providing a fail-safe state for the motor
(E) Indicating when the motor is running

Ans: A

Question 66 – Electric power and motor controls

Overload heaters and overload contacts work together to:
(A) Protect the motor against mechanical overloading
(B) Protect the motor against massive overcurrent conditions
(C) Protect the motor against lubrication failures
(D) Protect the power lines against overcurrent conditions
(E) Protect the motor against mild overcurrent conditions

Ans: E
Question 67 – Electric power and motor controls
Calculate the amount of voltage between points A and B in this balanced three-phase circuit, assuming
a generator phase voltage of 4160 volts:

Load
Generator
A
150 Ω

150 Ω 150 Ω

(A) 27.73 V
(B) 2.080 kV
(C) 4.160 kV
(D) 7.205 kV
(E) 48.04 V

Ans: D

Question 68 – Electric power and motor controls

A single-phase AC electric motor draws 54.7 amps while being powered by a 240 volt source. Assuming
perfect power factor (1.0) and an efficiency of 87%, calculate the mechanical horsepower output by this
motor.
(A) 20.24 hp
(B) 17.18 hp
(C) 14.95 hp
(D) 15.32 hp
(E) 17.60 hp

Ans: D
Question 69 – Electric power and motor controls
A synchronous motor differs from an induction motor by the fact that . . .
(A) its speed is constant
(B) it operates on DC instead of AC
(C) it uses fewer poles
(D) it must be properly “timed”
(E) it uses brushes

Ans: A

Question 70 – Electric power and motor controls

DC motors are used in industry where . . .
(A) the motor must tolerate constant vibration
(B) low maintenance is necessary
(C) the motor’s speed must remain constant
(D) explosive gases may be present
(E) superior low-speed torque is needed

Ans: E

Question 71 – Semiconductor circuit theory

P-type semiconductor materials are made to be that way due to doping.
(A) trivalent
(B) intrinsic
(C) nonvalent
(D) pentavalent
(E) extrinsic

Ans: A
Question 72 – Semiconductor circuit theory
Identify the labels used to describe the left- and right-hand leads on this diode (respectively):

(A) Anion and cation

(B) Cation and anion
(C) Cathode and anode
(D) Anode and cathode
(E) Pentode and tetrode

Ans: C

Question 73 – Semiconductor circuit theory

Identify the terminals of this transistor:

1 3

(A) 1 = Drain ; 2 = Gate ; 3 = Source

(B) 1 = Emitter ; 2 = Base ; 3 = Collector
(C) 1 = Source ; 2 = Gate ; 3 = Drain
(D) 1 = Gate ; 2 = Emitter ; 3 = Drain
(E) 1 = Collector ; 2 = Base ; 3 = Emitter

Ans: B
Question 74 – Semiconductor circuit theory
A Hall Effect device is a component typically used to . . .
(A) measure magnetic field strength
(B) measure an electrical resistance
(C) detect vibration in machinery
(D) suppress transient voltages
(E) switch current on and off

Ans: A

Question 75 – Semiconductor circuit theory

Estimate the amount of voltage between point A and ground in this transistor amplifier circuit under quiescent
conditions. Assume an ideal silicon transistor:

+20 V

10 kΩ 5.6 kΩ

V
A out

V
in

1.5 kΩ 1 kΩ

(A) 9.31 volts

(B) 14.4 volts
(C) 2.61 volts
(D) 1.91 volts
(E) 19.3 volts

Ans: A
Question 76 – Semiconductor circuit theory
Calculate the voltage between point A and ground in this operational amplifier circuit:

4.7 kΩ 9.3 kΩ

−
A

R
load
7.1 k
2 volts − Ω


(A) -2.00 volts

(B) -2.58 volts
(C) +2.58 volts
(D) -5.96 volts
(E) +3.96 volts

Ans: D
Question 77 – Semiconductor circuit theory
Estimate the DC output voltage of this power supply circuit, when unloaded. Assume the use of silicon
rectifying diodes:

6:1 ratio

V
120 VAC out

C R
filter bleed

(A) 26.9 volts

(B) 42.4 volts
(C) 18.6 volts
(D) 19.3 volts
(E) 20.0 volts

Ans: A
Question 78 – Semiconductor circuit theory
When the pushbutton switch is actuated, the LED will:

+12 V

(A) turn on
(B) burn up
(C) blink on and off
(D) become dim
(E) turn off

Ans: E
Question 79 – Semiconductor circuit theory
The following circuit is typically used to:

+12 V

DC
motor

(A) change motor direction

(B) control motor speed
(C) control motor torque
(D) limit motor current
(E) control motor frequency

Ans: A
Question 80 – Semiconductor circuit theory
Identify the function of this DC-DC converter circuit:

V
out

V
supply −
PWM pulse

(A) Boost or Buck voltage ; same output polarity as input

(B) Buck voltage ; same output polarity as input
(C) Boost voltage ; inverted output polarity
(D) Buck voltage ; inverted output polarity
(E) Boost voltage ; same output polarity as input

Ans: E

Question 81 – Digital circuit theory

Convert the decimal number 45,688 into binary.
(A) 1000011100101011
(B) 1011001001111000
(C) 1010110011000010
(D) 1110111000011011
(E) 1001101011001110

Ans: B
Question 82 – Digital circuit theory
The two’s complement of the binary number 11001111 is:
(A) 11010000
(B) 11110011
(C) 00110000
(D) 11110100
(E) 00110001

Ans: E

Question 83 – Digital circuit theory

The Boolean representation of this digital logic gate circuit is:

C
A Output

(A) B A + C
(B) B + A C
(C) B + AC
(D) B + A C
(E) B + AC (Answer)
Ans: E
Question 84 – Digital circuit theory
The Boolean representation of this truth table is:

A B C Output
0 0 0 0
0 0 1 0
0 1 0 1
0 1 1 0
1 0 0 0
1 0 1 0
1 1 0 1
1 1 1 0

(A) AC
(B) B
(C) BC
(D) A B C
(E) AB + C

Ans: C

Question 85 – Digital circuit theory

The reset state of a flip-flop circuit is defined as:
(A) Q = 1 and Q = 0
(B) Q = 1 and Q = 1
(C) Q = 0 and Q = 1 (Answer)
(D) Clock = falling edge
(E) Q = 0 and Q = 0
Ans: C
Question 86 – Digital circuit theory
Switch debouncing is a technique used for the purpose of:
(A) Filtering noise
(B) Extending the operating life of a switch
(C) Canceling the effects of vibration
(D) Eliminating false switching events
(E) Reducing switch contact arcing

Ans: D

Question 87 – Digital circuit theory

In an electronic circuit schematic, VEE represents:
(A) The negative power supply rail of a bipolar transistor circuit
(B) The negative power supply rail of a field-effect transistor circuit
(C) The positive power supply rail of a field-effect transistor circuit
(D) The positive power supply rail of a bipolar transistor circuit
(E) The positive power supply rail of an ECL transistor circuit

Ans: A

Question 88 – Digital circuit theory

ASCII is a digital code used for:
(A) Representing alphanumeric characters
(B) Code breaking
(C) Detecting and correcting data errors
(D) Organizing data stored on a hard disk
(E) Describing angular position on a rotary encoder

Ans: A
Question 89 – Digital circuit theory
The following digital circuit is commonly known as a

(A) gate
(B) latch
(C) counter
(D) register
(E) one-shot

Ans: B

Question 90 – Digital circuit theory

A digital logic gate equipped with a tri-state output is able to:
(A) Share an output line with another gate
(B) Latch an input state for later use
(C) Produce an intermediate voltage state
(D) Switch faster than a regular gate
(E) Operate with three times less power

Ans: A
Question 91 – Basic control theory
A basic control loop will consist of:
(A) signal converter, resistor, knob, and control valve
(B) transmitter, controller, I/P transducer, and control valve
(C) transducer, valve packing, hex-head wrench, and tubing
(D) resistor, capacitor, terminal block, and battery
(E) control valve, microprocessor, terminal block, and cables

Ans: B

Question 92 – Basic control theory

In order for a control loop to work well under a wide range of conditions, it must possess:
(A) A very expensive transmitter
(B) Calibration drift
(C) Negative feedback
(D) Hysteresis
(E) Proper documentation

Ans: C

Question 93 – Basic control theory

A “final control element” is typically:
(A) An indicator
(B) A pipe or vessel
(C) A pneumatic instrument
(D) A sensor
(E) A valve

Ans: E
Question 94 – Basic control theory
When connecting shield wires on an instrument signal cable, it is best to:
(A) Ground the shield conductor only at one end of the cable
(B) Ground the shield conductor at both ends of the cable
(C) Connect the shield conductor to the “hot” AC power wire
(D) Connect the shield conductor to the “neutral” AC power wire
(E) Leave both shield conductors floating (unconnected)

Ans: A

Question 95 – Basic control theory

The most common analog signal standard for industrial process instruments is:
(A) 10 to 50 milliamps DC
(B) 0 to 5 amps AC
(C) 0 to 10 volts
(D) 0 to 20 milliamps
(E) 4 to 20 milliamps DC

Ans: E

Question 96 – Basic control theory

In a process controller, “setpoint” refers to:
(A) The minimum value for the high-alarm point
(B) The maximum value for the low-alarm point
(C) The production quota for each work day
(D) The target value for the measured variable
(E) The optimum position of the control valve

Ans: D
Question 97 – Basic control theory
Identify which of the following is not an example of a “primary sensing element”:
(A) Bourdon tube
(B) Torque tube
(C) Pitot tube
(D) pH electrode
(E) Thermocouple

Ans: B
Question 98 – Basic control theory
Identify the controller’s proper action in the event that the thermocouple suddenly detects a drop in
process temperature:

Cold fluid
in

Control valve
Steam in

Transducer Heat exchanger

I/P Controller
PV SP

Out
Warm fluid
Air supply Steam out out
Thermocouple
TT
Temperature
transmitter

(A) Move the control valve further closed

(B) Re-calibrate the temperature transmitter
(C) Move the control valve further open
(D) Completely open the control valve
(E) Hold the control valve’s position steady

Ans: A
Question 99 – Basic control theory
In an automobile “cruise control” system, the vehicle’s speed is the:
(A) Process variable
(B) Setpoint
(C) Manipulated variable
(D) Inferred variable
(E) Error variable

Ans: A

Question 100 – Basic control theory

The main purpose of having a “manual” mode on a process controller is to:
(A) Document maintenance work done on the loop
(B) Allow a human operator to take control of the process
(C) Provide a way to adjust the alarm points
(D) Facilitate calibration of the loop instruments
(E) Limit the maximum travel of the control valve

Ans: B
Question 101 – Calibration principles
Identify the type of instrument calibration error(s) shown in this graph:

Output Ideal

Actual

Input

(A) Linearity error

(B) Zero error
(C) Span error
(D) Hysteresis error
(E) Both zero and span errors

Ans: B
Question 102 – Calibration principles
Identify the type of instrument calibration error(s) shown in this graph:

Actual

Output
Ideal

Input

(A) Span error

(B) Hysteresis error
(C) Linearity error
(D) Zero error
(E) Both zero and span errors

Ans: C

Question 103 – Calibration principles

The purpose of performing an “As Found” calibration on an instrument is to:
(A) Eliminate hysteresis and deadband from the instrument
(B) Spend more time calibrating the instrument
(C) Establish a baseline for comparison, to detect calibration drift
(D) “Exercise” the instrument to keep it in better condition over time
(E) Diagnose control problems in the loop

Ans: C
Question 104 – Calibration principles
A technician is calibrating an adjustable, mechanical pressure switch using an air pressure regulator
and a precision pressure gauge. Assuming this pressure switch will be used as a high pressure alarm
(tripping when the pressure exceeds 50 PSI), the technician should do the following:
(A) Set the pressure at 50 PSI and move the switch adjustment up until it actuates
(B) Set the pressure at 50 PSI and move the switch adjustment down until it actuates
(C) Adjust the switch so it actuates when the pressure decreases to 51 PSI
(D) Adjust the switch so it actuates when the pressure increases to 49 PSI
(E) Purchase a pressure switch factory-set at 50 PSI

Ans: B

Question 105 – Calibration principles

Which of the following adjustments is usually adjusted first in an instrument requiring calibration?
(A) Deadband
(B) Span
(C) Hysteresis
(D) Zero
(E) Linearity

Ans: D

Question 106 – Calibration principles

An error tolerance of +/- 0.5% is for a 4-20 mA instrument signal.
(A) +/- 0.04 mA
(B) +/- 0.5 mA
(C) +/- 0.1 mA
(D) +/- 0.08 mA
(E) +/- 0.02 mA

Ans: D
Question 107 – Calibration principles
A pressure transmitter has a calibrated measurement range of 200 to 300 PSIG, and an output range
of 4-20 mA. What is the expected output if the input pressure is 235 PSIG?
(A) 9.6 mA
(B) 1.6 mA
(C) 16.5 mA
(D) 5.6 mA
(E) 12.5 mA

Ans: A

Question 108 – Calibration principles

A pH transmitter has a calibrated range of 5 to 9 pH, with a 4-20 mA output. What is the pH
measurement if the transmitter’s output is equal to 17.3 mA?
(A) 4.156 pH
(B) 6.599 pH
(C) 8.325 pH
(D) 8.460 pH
(E) 7.481 pH

Ans: C

Question 109 – Calibration principles

A proper place to record the calibrated range of an instrument is:
(A) On the packing slip that came with the instrument
(B) In the text section of a loop diagram sheet
(C) Next to the cable symbols for that instrument on a wiring diagram
(D) On a safety lock-out tag
(E) Inside the nearest electrical junction box

Ans: B
Question 110 – Calibration principles
A “smart” transmitter is one that:
(A) Communicates using Foundation Fieldbus
(B) Calibrates itself
(C) Also plays MP3 music files
(D) Has multiple process sensors
(E) Has a microprocessor built inside

Ans: E

Question 111 – Pressure measurement

Convert a pressure measurement of 800 torr into units of PSI (gauge)
(A) 1.053 PSIG
(B) 21.42 PSIG
(C) 0.7737 PSIG
(D) 54.42 PSIG
(E) 15.47 PSIG

Ans: C

Question 112 – Pressure measurement

Which of the following is not a type of pressure sensing element?
(A) Orifice plate
(B) Bourdon tube
(C) Manometer
(D) Diaphragm
(E) Bellows

Ans: A
Question 113 – Pressure measurement
If a force of 3400 pounds is applied to a circular piston 2 inches in diameter, calculate the fluid pressure
working against the piston.
(A) 344.5 PSI
(B) 1082.3 PSI
(C) 850 PSI
(D) 1700 PSI
(E) 270.6 PSI

Ans: B

Question 114 – Pressure measurement

Another word for “pressure” is:
(A) Force
(B) Density
(C) Head
(D) pH
(E) Flow

Ans: C

Question 115 – Pressure measurement

If the pressure applied to the “high” side of a ΔP transmitter decreases while the pressure applied to the “low” side
remains steady, the transmitter output should:
(A) Remain unchanged
(B) Decrease
(C) Increase
(D) Fluctuate back and forth
(E) Saturate

Ans: B
Question 116 – Pressure measurement
Identify the proper sequence of valve actions for a three-valve manifold and bleed when taking a
differential pressure transmitter out of service:
(A) Open bleed, close one block valve, open equalizing valve, close other block valve
(B) Open equalizing valve, close both block valves (simultaneously), open bleed
(C) Open equalizing valve, open bleed, close both block valves (simultaneously)
(D) Close one block valve, open bleed, close other block valve, open equalizing valve
(E) Close one block valve, open equalizing valve, close other block valve, open bleed

Ans: E
Question 117 – Pressure measurement
Identify the condition that could cause pressure gauge A to register a greater pressure than pressure
gauge B in this liquid process:

Pressure gauge A

6" pipe

Vessel

Pressure gauge B

6" pipe

(A) A high rate of flow from left to right (top to bottom through the vessel)
(B) An extremely dense liquid
(C) Liquid boiling inside the vessel
(D) A high rate of flow from right to left (bottom to top through the vessel)
(E) Pressure gauge B calibrated for absolute pressure units instead of gauge units

Ans: A
Question 118 – Pressure measurement
How much differential pressure does this manometer indicate?

4 inches
Water level at
zero pressure
4 inches

Water

(A) 0.272 ”W.C.

(B) 745 torr
(C) 3.929 ”W.C.
(D) 4.00 ”W.C.
(E) 8.00 ”W.C.

Ans: E
Question 119 – Pressure measurement
Suppose the following pneumatic ΔP transmitter (same working principle as the Foxboro models 13
and 15) was calibrated to a range of 0 to 250 inches water column:

Supply air

Output
Orifice Nozzle
Flapper

Range bar

Nut
"Range wheel"
Spring
barForce

Screw
Relay
Bellows

diaphragm"capsule"
"High" diaphragm

port Sealing "Low"

Fluid-filled
port

What would have to be done to it to re-calibrate it for a new range of 100 to 350 inches water column?
(A) Turn the screw (located near the bellows)
(B) Bend the flapper (next to the nozzle)
(C) Turn the range wheel nut (located in the middle of the range bar)
(D) Re-size the orifice (located between air supply and nozzle)
(E) Replace the diaphragm capsule with one of a different size

Ans: A
Question 120 – Pressure measurement
The following circuit shows three pressure switches that all measure the same process pressure, but
activate different electrical loads:

L1 L2

PS-1
80 PSI
Lamp 1

PS-2
200 PSI
Lamp 2

PS-3
Solenoid
220 PSI

Determine the statuses of these loads at a pressure of 210 PSI.

(A) Lamp 1 off, Lamp 2 on, Solenoid on
(B) Lamp 1 on, Lamp 2 on, Solenoid on
(C) Lamp 1 on, Lamp 2 off, Solenoid on
(D) Lamp 1 off, Lamp 2 on, Solenoid off
(E) Lamp 1 on, Lamp 2 off, Solenoid off

Ans: A

Question 121 – Level measurement

Suppose a storage vessel holds a liquid of unpredictable density. Identify which level measurement
technology will not maintain accurate measurement of liquid height in the vessel as the liquid density
changes:
(A) Sightglass
(B) Guided-wave radar
(C) Float and tape
(D) Differential pressure transmitter
(E) Ultrasonic

Ans: D
Question 122 – Level measurement
The main advantage of a “dip tube” or “bubbler” system for level measurement is that:
(A) It can measure both solid and liquid levels
(B) It compensates for changes in liquid density
(C) It isolates the pressure transmitter from the process fluid
(D) It always elevates and never suppresses the calibration range
(E) It is less expensive to operate than a direct-connected transmitter

Ans: C

Question 123 – Level measurement

If we alter this level measurement system to have a wet leg instead of a dry leg, what single aspect of
the transmitter’s calibration will we need to change?

100%
pressure
"dry" leg
vs.
Measurement "wet" leg
span DP cell

H L
0%

(A) We will need to change the transmitter’s URV

(B) We will need to change the transmitter’s span
(C) We will need to change the transmitter’s zero
(D) We will need to change the transmitter’s LRV
(E) We will need to change the transmitter’s linearity

Ans: C
Question 124 – Level measurement
A displacer-type level transmitter has a cylindrical displacer 30 inches long and 2.5 inches in diameter.
When fully submerged in a petroleum fuel (Gf = 0.82), how much buoyant force will the displacer generate?
(A) 5.320 pounds
(B) 6.488 pounds
(C) 2.792 pounds
(D) 17.45 pounds
(E) 4.363 pounds

Ans: E

Question 125 – Level measurement

Calculate the LRV and URV for this ΔP-based liquid level measurement system:

100%

Measurement
span = 30 ft
Water

0%
7 ft
H L

(A) LRV = 444 ”H2O ; URV = 0 ”H2O

(B) LRV = 0 ”H2O ; URV = 360 ”H2O
(C) LRV = 0 ”H2O ; URV = 444 ”H2O
(D) LRV = 84 ”H2O ; URV = 444 ”H2O
(E) LRV = 7 ”H2O ; URV = 37 ”H2O

Ans: D
Question 126 – Level measurement
A d/p cell used to measure liquid level has a “suppressed zero.” This means:
(A) The transmitter is located above the 0% liquid level mark
(B) The transmitter uses filter circuits to suppress noise to a zero level
(C) The liquid is less dense than water
(D) The transmitter is located below the 0% liquid level mark
(E) The elevation of the vessel is below sea level

Ans: D

Question 127 – Level measurement

Which of the following level-measurement technologies cannot be adapted to measure solid (powder)
level in a vessel?
(A) Float and tape
(B) Ultrasonic
(C) Load cell
(D) Displacer
(E) Radar

Ans: D

Question 128 – Level measurement

A guided-wave radar transmitter is able to measure liquid interface levels based on differences of
between the two liquids.
(A) Ionization potential
(B) Density
(C) Speed of light
(D) Temperature
(E) Dielectric constant

Ans: E
Question 129 – Level measurement
The following liquid level switch will only function with liquids that are .

V
AC

Relay

Probes

Liquid

(A) Absolutely pure (i.e. not a solution)

(B) In a state of laminar flow
(C) Optically transparent
(D) Electrically conductive
(E) Denser than water

Ans: D

Question 130 – Level measurement

Calculate the hydrostatic pressure at the bottom of a vessel holding 12 vertical feet of liquid with a
density of 50 lb/ft3.
(A) 18.867 PSI
(B) 14.98 PSI
(C) 5.202 PSI
(D) 4.167 PSI
(E) 6.495 PSI

Ans: D
Question 131 – Temperature measurement
Identify the thermocouple type with the highest temperature limit from those listed here:
(A) Type S
(B) Type T
(C) Type E
(D) Type J
(E) Type K

Ans: A

Question 132 – Temperature measurement

The negative lead of a thermocouple is always colored:
(A) Yellow
(B) Red
(C) White
(D) Black
(E) Blue

Ans: B

Question 133 – Temperature measurement

The most linear temperature sensing element listed here is a/an:
(A) RTD
(B) Thermistor
(C) Bellows
(D) Diode
(E) Thermocouple

Ans: A
Question 134 – Temperature measurement
Convert a temperature measurement of 520o F into Kelvin.
(A) 793.2 K
(B) 979.7 K
(C) 544.3 K
(D) 530.0 K
(E) 246.9 K

Ans: C

Question 135 – Temperature measurement

When the reference junction is the same temperature as the measurement junction in a thermocouple
circuit, the output voltage (measured by the sensing instrument) is:
(A) Noisy
(B) Unreliable
(C) Reverse polarity
(D) AC instead of DC
(E) Zero

Ans: E

Question 136 – Temperature measurement

A “thermowell” is a:
(A) Protective tube for a temperature sensing element (Answer)
(B) Temperature sensing device
(C) Safety relief device for high pressure
(D) Heat sink
(E) Small vessel for holding liquids at high temperature

Ans: A
Question 137 – Temperature measurement
Reference junction compensation is necessary in thermocouple-based temperature instruments
because:
(A) Thermocouples are inherently nonlinear
(B) The reference junction generates a temperature-dependent voltage
(C) The junction’s electrical resistance varies with temperature
(D) Electrical noise may interfere with the measurement otherwise
(E) Copper extension wire has a tendency to corrode

Ans: B

Question 138 – Temperature measurement

Latent heat is:
(A) The amount of heat energy present in ambient conditions
(B) The heat required to make a substance change phase
(C) The potential energy residing in a sample of unburnt fuel
(D) The heat released when a gas suddenly decreases pressure
(E) The heat required to raise the temperature of a substance

Ans: B

Question 139 – Temperature measurement

Thermocouple extension wire may be readily distinguished from regular thermocouple-grade wire by:
(A) Different metal types
(B) Special markings on the wire’s insulation
(C) Thickness
(D) Flexibility (stranded instead of solid)
(E) Outer sheath color
Ans: E
Question 140 – Temperature measurement
A type K thermocouple is made of the following metals:
(A) Chromel and Alumel
(B) Copper and Constantan
(C) Aluminum and Tungsten
(D) Platinum and Platinum/Rhodium alloy
(E) Iron and Constantan

Ans: A

Question 141 – Flow measurement

Which of the following flow-measuring elements is inherently linear and requires no signal
characterization (e.g. sqaure-root extraction) anywhere in the loop?
(A) Target
(B) Venturi
(C) Turbine
(D) Orifice plate
(E) Pitot tube

Ans: C

Question 142 – Flow measurement

Bernoulli’s Equation is a mathematical expression of:
(A) Fluid density and compressibility in a restriction
(B) Vertical height and pressure for a static fluid
(C) The ratio of kinetic to viscous forces in a flow stream
(D) Friction loss as fluid moves through a rough pipe
(E) Potential and kinetic energies in a flow stream
Ans: E
Question 143 – Flow measurement
As an incompressible fluid moves through a restriction,
(A) Velocity decreases and pressure remains the same
(B) Velocity decreases and pressure increases
(C) Velocity increases and pressure increases
(D) Velocity increases and pressure remains the same
(E) Velocity increases and pressure decreases

Ans: E

Question 144 – Flow measurement

A flag flapping in the breeze illustrates what type of dynamic fluid effect?
(A) Vortex shedding
(B) Transitional flow
(C) Coriolis effect
(D) Laminar flow
(E) Cavitation

Ans: A

Question 145 – Flow measurement

For accurate operation, orifice plate flowmeters require:
(A) Swirls and eddies in the flow stream
(B) Transitional flow
(C) Plug flow
(D) Laminar flow
(E) Fully-developed turbulent flow

Ans: E
Question 146 – Flow measurement
A magnetic flowmeter will not properly measure the flow rate of:
(A) Dirty water
(B) Milk
(C) Caustic
(D) Oil
(E) Acid

Ans: D

Question 147 – Flow measurement

Based on the relative positions of transmitter and orifice plate, this flow-measuring installation is suitable
for:

Differential
pressure
transmitter
H L

Pipe

Orifice

(A) Water or oil flow

(B) Gas flow
(C) Steam flow
(D) Laminar flow
(E) Slurry flow

Ans: B
Question 148 – Flow measurement
Flow-straightening vanes are used upstream of orifice plate flow elements when:
(A) Accuracy is not a concern
(B) The process fluid is a gas
(C) The flow profile is laminar
(D) Insufficient straight-pipe length exists
(E) The process fluid is a liquid

Ans: D

Question 149 – Flow measurement

A ΔP transmitter calibrated for a range of 0 to 100”H 2O measures liquid flow through an orifice plate
from 0 to 1200 GPH. Calculate the new calibration range for the transmitter if we desire to decrease the
flow measurement range to 0 to 700 GPH, using the same orifice plate.
(A) 0 to 34.03 ”H2O
(B) 0 to 76.38 ”H2O
(C) 0 to 171.4 ”H2O
(D) 0 to 293.9 ”H2O
(E) 0 to 58.33 ”H2O

Ans: A

Question 150 – Flow measurement

Identify which of the following flowmeters inherently measures mass flow rate:
(A) Magnetic
(B) Flow nozzle
(C) Thermal
(D) Vortex
(E) Venturi tube

Ans: C
Question 151 – Analytical measurement
The pH of a liquid solution is a measure of:
(A) Dissolved salt content
(B) Hydroxyl ion molarity
(C) Hydrogen ion activity
(D) Electrical conductivity
(E) Sodium ion molarity

Ans: C

Question 152 – Analytical measurement

A pH value less than 7.0 means that the solution is:
(A) Acidic
(B) Alkaline
(C) Conductive
(D) Caustic
(E) Hot

Ans: A

Question 153 – Analytical measurement

The Nernst equation relates:
(A) O2 concentration to latent heat
(B) Relative ion concentration to voltage
(C) Conductivity to fluid flow rate
(D) Partial vapor pressure to fluid density
(E) Reagent dosage to change in pH

Ans: B
Question 154 – Analytical measurement
Buffer solutions are used with pH probes for the purpose of:
(A) Purging embedded sodium ions
(B) Electrode inspection
(C) Calibration
(D) Cleaning
(E) Linearization

Ans: C

Question 155 – Analytical measurement

Flue gas oxygen measurement (“O2 trim”) is important in combustion control systems for the purpose
of:
(A) Reducing sulphur emissions
(B) Safer shut-downs
(C) Faster start-ups
(D) Reducing NOX emissions
(E) Minimizing burner noise

Ans: D

Question 156 – Analytical measurement

An aqueous solution has a hydrogen ion concentration of 0.0015 M. Calculate the pH of this solution.
(A) 1.824 pH
(B) 11.18 pH
(C) 2.292 pH
(D) 2.824 pH
(E) 2.897 pH

Ans: D
Question 157 – Analytical measurement
A chromatograph separates and distinguishes different molecule types in a fluid stream by:
(A) Emitted light spectra
(B) Atomic mass (weighing)
(C) Electric charge
(D) Adsorption time-delay
(E) Reverse osmosis

Ans: D

Question 158 – Analytical measurement

An electrodeless, or toroidal, conductivity probe enjoys the following advantage over electrode-type
conductivity probes:
(A) Smaller size
(B) Lower cost
(C) Immunity to temperature changes
(D) Resists fouling
(E) Greater sensitivity

Ans: D

Question 159 – Analytical measurement

ORP measurement is often used in processes where:
(A) The addition of an oxidant must be controlled
(B) The octane value of a liquid fuel is important
(C) Conductivity of the liquid is negligible
(D) Pigments are added to a solution to control color
(E) Precise temperature control is critical

Ans: A
Question 160 – Analytical measurement
According to the Nernst equation, the voltage developed by the electrodes will when temperature
increases, all other factors remaining the same.
(A) Remain the same
(B) Decrease
(C) Fluctuate
(D) Increase
(E) Approach zero

Ans: D

Question 161 – Control valves

When a control valve is installed in a process with nearly constant differential pressure (drop) across
the valve, the best trim characteristic to choose for the valve would be:
(A) Equal percentage
(B) Quick-opening
(C) Hyperbolic
(D) Linear
(E) Anti-cavitation

Ans: D

Question 162 – Control valves

The correct identities of the four control valve types shown below are (in order from left to right):

(A) Globe, Butterfly, Disc, Ball

(B) Ball, Disc, Butterfly, Globe
(C) Diaphragm, Gate, Disc, Globe
(D) Ball, Gate, Butterfly, Plug
(E) Plug, Slide, Rotary, Ball

Ans: D
Question 163 – Control valves
An air-to-close control valve assembly may be formed with which of these actuator/valve body
combinations?
(A) Direct-acting actuator, reverse-acting valve body
(B) Direct-acting actuator, direct-acting valve body
(C) Reverse-acting actuator, reverse-acting valve body
(D) B or C
(E) A or B

Ans: D

Question 164 – Control valves

Calculate the necessary Cv rating for a liquid service control valve, given a pressure drop of 19 PSID,
a specific gravity of 0.9, and a maximum flow rate of 250 GPM. Assume there will be no flashing or choked
flow through the valve.
(A) 54.41
(B) 47.66
(C) 11.84
(D) 60.46
(E) 14.62

Ans: A

Question 165 – Control valves

The main purpose of a control valve positioner is to:
(A) Alter the fail-safe status of the valve
(B) Alter the characterization of the valve
(C) Improve the precision of the valve
(D) Increase transmitter accuracy
(E) Eliminate cavitation in the valve

Ans: C
Question 166 – Control valves
The purpose of valve packing is to:
(A) Help reduce cavitation in the valve trim
(B) Increase stiction
(C) Seal process fluid from escaping past the stem
(D) Cushion the valve against harm during shipment
(E) Lubricate the valve trim

Ans: C

Question 167 – Control valves

The definition of split range control valves implies that they are . . .
(A) Calibrated with complementary ranges.
(B) Designed to be easily disassembled.
(C) Easily re-ranged for different characteristics.
(D) Equipped with quick-acting positioners.
(E) Only used in sets of three.

Ans: A

Question 168 – Control valves

Dual-ported globe valves typically enjoy the following advantage over single-ported globe
valves:
(A) Longer service life
(B) Easier disassembly and maintenance
(C) Less actuating force required
(D) Tighter shut-off
(E) Greater temperature range

Ans: C
Question 169 – Control valves
Cavitation in a control valve is caused by:
(A) process noise
(B) vibration in the piping
(C) the Von Karman effect
(D) a laminar flow regime
(E) pressure recovery

Ans: E

Question 170 – Control valves

The proper “fail safe” status of a control valve should always be dictated by:
(A) economic savings
(B) the configuration of the positioner
(C) the nature of the process
(D) the controller’s tuning
(E) the controller’s action (direct or reverse)

Ans: C

Question 171 – PID control and tuning

Derivative control action is never used in processes where there is substantial .
(A) Variability
(B) Gain
(C) Noise
(D) Cycling
(E) Hysteresis

Ans: C
Question 172 – PID control and tuning
processes always require some degree of control action to achieve setpoint.
(A) Integrating, Derivative
(B) Integrating, Feedforward
(C) Self-regulating, Proportional
(D) Runaway, Linear
(E) Self-regulating, Integral

Ans: E

Question 173 – PID control and tuning

The reciprocal of proportional band is called:
(A) Reset
(B) Percent
(C) Minutes per repeat
(D) Gain
(E) Rate

Ans: D

Question 174 – PID control and tuning

“Quarter-wave damping” may be described as:
(A) a condition of good control where oscillations quickly subside
(B) a condition of good control where PV approaches SP without overshoot
(C) a condition of poor control where oscillations continue at constant amplitude
(D) a condition of poor control where the transmitter is damped by 25%
(E) a condition of excellent control where there are no oscillations

Ans: A
Question 175 – PID control and tuning
Reset control action is often expressed in units of:
(A) repeats per minute
(B) percent
(C) seconds per rate
(D) minutes
(E) time constant ratio (unitless)

Ans: A

Question 176 – PID control and tuning

A proportional band setting of 175% is equivalent to a gain setting of .
(A) 175
(B) 0.756
(C) 0.571
(D) 1.32
(E) 1.75

Ans: C
Question 177 – PID control and tuning
The open-loop response of a process is shown in the following trend. What sort of process is indicated
by this behavior?

100
95
90
85
80
75
70
65
60
55
PV
% 50
45
40 Output
35
30
25
20
15
10
5
0

Time
(A) Proportional
(B) Integrating
(C) Self-regulating
(D) Step-response
(E) Runaway

Ans: C

Question 178 – PID control and tuning

A condition where integral control action drives the output of a controller into saturation is called:
(A) self-bias
(B) repeat
(C) wind-up
(D) noise
(E) offset

Ans: C
Question 179 – PID control and tuning
Purely integrating processes typically respond well to aggressive control action.
(A) Nonlinear
(B) Derivative
(C) Linear
(D) Proportional
(E) Integral

Ans: D

Question 180 – PID control and tuning

Process variable filtering should be used:
(A) only on self-regulating processes
(B) to improve response time
(C) only on integrating processes
(D) to dampen noise
(E) never

Ans: D

Question 181 – Control strategies

Cascade control is characterized by:
(A) a special relay or function block to compensate for nonlinear process gain
(B) the presence of a “dead time” relay or function block
(C) two controllers whose outputs are selected either by high or low value
(D) one controller providing a setpoint for another controller
(E) the presence of a “lead/lag” relay or function block

Ans: D
Question 182 – Control strategies
Adaptive gain is used for controlling processes.
(A) Time-variant
(B) Dead time
(C) Fast
(D) Integrating
(E) Nonlinear

Ans: E

Question 183 – Control strategies

The three “elements” in a three-element boiler feedwater control system are:
(A) Steam flow, drum level, and feedwater flow
(B) Feedwater flow, water conductivity, and steam flow
(C) Turbidity, feedwater flow, and temperature
(D) Drum temperature, firing rate, and feedwater flow
(E) Drum level, water pH, and drum temperature

Ans: A

Question 184 – Control strategies

The purpose of feedforward control is to:
(A) eliminate the need for feedback control in a process
(B) save energy
(C) reduce the effect of load variation on the process variable
(D) reduce the effect of process variable noise on stability
(E) compensate for dead time and lag time in a process

Ans: C
Question 185 – Control strategies
In a feedforward control system, the controller gets its input from the .
(A) Controlled variable
(B) Load variable
(C) Manipulated variable
(D) Inferred variable
(E) Dynamic variable

Ans: B

Question 186 – Control strategies

Ratio control is where:
(A) a “wild flow” variable sets the gain of the controller
(B) fuel must be precisely rationed for economy
(C) process data is communicated in a digital format
(D) the rate of one variable must remain fixed over time
(E) one variable is controlled in proportion to another

Ans: E
Question 187 – Control strategies
The following P&ID shows a/an control strategy:

Steam
supply
FT

FC

TC

Cold feed in

TT

Condensate drain
Heated effluent

(A) Adaptive gain

(B) Ratio
(C) Model predictive
(D) Feedforward
(E) Cascade

Ans: E

Question 188 – Control strategies

The slave controller in a cascade control system must always be tuned:
(A) in manual mode
(B) slower than the master
(C) with greater filtering than the master
(D) after the master
(E) before the master

Ans: E
Question 189 – Control strategies
The following P&ID shows a/an control strategy:

Steam
supply
FT

FC Σ

Cold feed in TC

FT TT

Condensate drain Heated effluent

(A) Ratio
(B) Feedforward with trim
(C) Cascade
(D) Override
(E) Two-element

Ans: B

Question 190 – Control strategies

Lead/lag compensation, sometimes called “dynamic compensation,” is commonly used to:
(A) equalize load and manipulated variable lags in a feedforward system
(B) improve stability by changing controller gain over time
(C) filter noise from the process variable signal in a feedforward system
(D) overcome dead time by duplicating the process lags on the setpoint signal
(E) prevent integral windup by placing limits on the manipulated variable signal

Ans: A
Question 191 – Instrumentation diagrams
Identify what type of diagram this is:

Drum level Steam flow Feedwater flow

LT FT FT

d
K ∫ /dt
Σ
ATA
K ∫

T A

FCV
Feedwater valve

(A) Wiring diagram

(B) Isometric drawing
(C) P&ID
(D) Loop diagram
(E) SAMA diagram

Ans: E
Question 192 – Instrumentation diagrams
Identify what type of diagram this is:

FC

LV
1

LT
1
LIR
1
HV
2 P
/I
LY
I
/P 1a
LY LIC
1b 1

(A) Wiring diagram

(B) Isometric drawing
(C) P&ID
(D) Loop diagram
(E) SAMA diagram

Ans: C
Question 193 – Instrumentation diagrams
According to this diagram, the controller is , and it is located :

TIC

TT

(A) Electronic, on the front of the main control panel

(B) Pneumatic, in the field (process) area
(C) Pneumatic, on the front of the main control panel
(D) Pneumatic, on the front of a secondary control panel
(E) Electronic, behind the main control panel

Ans: D

Question 194 – Instrumentation diagrams

Identify the following instrumentation (P&ID and loop diagram) line types, from left to right:

(A) electric, pneumatic, digital network, filled system

(B) pneumatic, electric, hydraulic, mechanical link
(C) electric (on/off), electric (analog), pneumatic, digital network
(D) pneumatic, mechanical link, hydraulic, capillary
(E) pneumatic, electric, capillary, hydraulic

Ans: E
Question 195 – Instrumentation diagrams
If the pneumatic tube in this diagram were to suddenly break in two pieces, what would be the effect
on the process variable?

FC

LV
1

LT
1

LIR
HV
2 1

I
/P
LY LIC
1 1

(A) It would remain the same

(B) It would decrease
(C) It would become noisier
(D) It would become less noisy
(E) It would increase

Ans: B
Question 196 – Instrumentation diagrams
If the gas flow through FT-42 is 1200 SCFM, how much electric current is going through cable 23 and
through cable 27?

Loop Diagram: Compressor surge control Revised by: I. Hate Surge Date: April 1, 2003

Field process area Field Panel rear Panel front

panel
JB JB Red
0-200 PSID 1 FIC
30 CBL24 1
Red Red CBL25
PDT + 4-20 mA CBL21
8 PR1
1 Blk 2 42
Red
42 - 9 2 3
Blk Blk CBL26
0-1500 SCFM
10 3 Blk
4
Red
60 Hz
5
I 4-20 mA Red ES 120VAC 6
Blk
P FY + 11 4
PR2 L1
Compressor
42b - 12 5
CBL22 Blk L2
S 13 6 G
G
L2
FV 42
AS 20 PSI L1
Red Red
FT + 14 7 + FY + ES 120VAC
4-20 mA CBL23 PR3
42 - Blk
15 Blk
8 - 42a - CBL27
60 Hz
0-1500 SCFM 16 9

(A) ICBL23 = 14.2 mA , ICBL27 = 14.2 mA

(B) ICBL23 = 14.2 mA , ICBL27 = 16.8 mA
(C) ICBL23 = 16.8 mA , ICBL27 = 16.8 mA
(D) ICBL23 = 16.8 mA , ICBL27 = 14.2 mA
(E) ICBL23 = 16.8 mA , ICBL27 = 18.3 mA

Ans: B
Question 197 – Instrumentation diagrams
Calculate the voltage between terminals 15 and 16 of TB27 when the measured flow rate is 106 GPM.
Assume a loop power supply voltage of exactly 24.00 volts, and negligible wire resistance:

Loop Diagram: #2 unit feed flow Revised by: Reynolds Navier-Stokes Date: April 1, 2005

Field process area Field Field

panel P5 panel P30 Control room

TB64 TB27 TB40

Blk CBL 9 Blk Blk Blk Blk Blk Blk
FT + 8 15 3
CBL 41 CBL 22
9 16 4
14 - Wht Wht Wht Wht Wht Wht Wht +24
+ FIR
250Ω 14
L1
FY
L2
14
G

Grn Blk
Wht
ES 120VAC
60 Hz

Tag number Description Manufacturer Model Calibration Notes

0-250 GPM
FT-14 Vortex flow transmitter Yokogawa 4-20 mA

FY-14 250 Ω resistor n/a +/- 0.1 %

FIR-14 Paper chart recorder Bristol-Babcock 1-5 VDC

(A) 26.70 volts

(B) 22.28 volts
(C) 21.30 volts
(D) 24.00 volts
(E) 2.696 volts

Ans: C
Question 198 – Instrumentation diagrams
If the thermocouple fails open, what will happen?

Loop Diagram: Furnace temperature control Revised by: Mason Neilan Date: April 1, 2002
Field panel Control room panel
Process area JB-12 CP-1

0-1500oF 0-1500oF
TE TB-15 TB-11
205 Yel Red Red Wht/Blu Wht/Blu Red Red
1 TT 3 1 7
Cable TT-205 Cable 3, Pr 1 Cable TT-205 Blk
205
Red 2 Blk Blk 4 Blu Blu 2 Blk 22 TIC
21 205
TY Red
205a 19
Blk
TB-15 TB-11
I/
P Red Red Wht/Org Wht/Org Red 18 Blk
TY 5 3 H
205b Cable TY-205b Cable 3, Pr 2 Cable TY-205b Wht
Tube TV-205 Blk Blk 6 Org Org 4 Blk N

TV
205 ES 120 VAC
AS 20 PSI Breaker #4
Valve #15 Panel L2
Column #8

Tag number Description Manufacturer Model Calibration Notes

TE-205 Thermocouple Omega Type K Ungrounded tip
TT-205 Temperature transmitter Rosemount 444 0-1500o F 4-20 mA Upscale burnout
TY-205a Resistor Vishay 250 Ω
TIC-205 Controller Siemens PAC 353 1-5 V 0-1500o F Reverse-acting control
4-20 mA
TY-205b I/P transducer Fisher 546 3-15 PSI

TV-205 Control valve Fisher Easy-E 3-15 PSI Fail-closed

(A) Valve TV-205 will close shut, making the process warm up
(B) Valve TV-205 will close shut, making the process cool down
(C) Valve TV-205 will hold position, stabilizing the process
(D) Valve TV-205 will open wide, making the process cool down
(E) Valve TV-205 will open wide, making the process warm up

Ans: B
Question 199 – Instrumentation diagrams
What kind of device provides the setpoint for the analytical indicating controller in this diagram?

HIC SP AIC Out

M AV

PV

AIT

(A) A mathematical relay

(B) Another panel-mounted controller
(C) A computer
(D) A programmable logic controller (PLC)
(E) A pneumatic hand station

Ans: C
Question 200 – Instrumentation diagrams
What sort of alarm function is provided by the controller in this diagram?

LAL
LT LIC
135 135
radar LI
135

LG
I
/P
LY AS
135 20 PSI

AS
100 PSI

LV
135

(A) High-flow alarm

(B) Low-level alarm
(C) High-temperature alarm
(D) Low-flow alarm
(E) High-level alarm

Ans: B

Question 201 – Programmable logic controllers

The acronym PLC stands for:
(A) Pressure Load Control
(B) Pneumatic Logic Capstan
(C) PID Loop Controller
(D) Pressure Loss Chamber
(E) Programmable Logic Controller

Ans: E
Question 202 – Programmable logic controllers
Ladder logic programming consists primarily of:
(A) Logic gate symbols with connecting lines
(B) Function blocks with connecting lines
(C) Text-based code
(D) Hieroglyphics
(E) Virtual relay contacts and coils

Ans: E

Question 203 – Programmable logic controllers

In a PLC, the scan time refers to the amount of time in which . . .
(A) the technician enters the program
(B) timers and counters are indexed by
(C) one “rung” of ladder logic takes to complete
(D) transmitted data communications must finish
(E) the entire program takes to execute

Ans: E
Question 204 – Programmable logic controllers
Identify the problem in this motor control PLC program:

Start switch Stop switch Motor run

Motor run

(A) Coil
(B) Start contact
(C) Stop contact
(D) Seal-in contact
(E) Power source

Ans: D

Question 205 – Programmable logic controllers

The Boolean representation of this PLC program is:

A B C

(A) ABC + D
(B) C + (A + B)D
(C) C + D(A + B)
(D) C(AB + D) (Answer)
(E) ABC + BD
Ans: D
Question 206 – Programmable logic controllers
The difference between online and offline PLC programming is . . .
(A) whether the PLC is running or stopped
(B) whether the programming PC has internet connectivity
(C) where the edited program resides
(D) the type of programming cable used
(E) the type of programmer used

Ans: C

Question 207 – Programmable logic controllers

In PLC programming, a retentive function is one that:
(A) Defaults to the “on” state
(B) Comes last in the program
(C) Defaults to the “off” state
(D) Is not reset after a power cycle
(E) Cannot be edited or deleted

Ans: D

Question 208 – Programmable logic controllers

What is the largest integer number that a PLC counter function can reach if it uses an 8 bit register?
(A) 128
(B) 255
(C) 256
(D) -127
(E) 127

Ans: B
Question 209 – Programmable logic controllers
An OR function implemented in ladder logic uses:
(A) Normally-open contacts in parallel
(B) Normally-closed contacts in series
(C) Normally-open contacts in series
(D) A single normally-closed contact
(E) Normally-closed contacts in parallel

Ans: A

Question 210 – Programmable logic controllers

A good application for a timed interrupt in a PLC program would be:
(A) A communications function block
(B) A math function block
(C) A motor start/stop rung
(D) A “watchdog” timer
(E) A PID function block

Ans: E

Question 211 – Digital control systems

The acronym DCS stands for:
(A) DeltaV Console Services
(B) Direct Cascade Sequencing
(C) Differential Concentration Switch
(D) Distributive Control System
(E) Digital Control System

Ans: D
Question 212 – Digital control systems
Many digital control systems utilize Ethernet as a communications network, because . . .
(A) no terminating resistors are necessary
(B) it is robust and inexpensive
(C) speed is not affected by traffic
(D) it is a wireless network standard
(E) it is fully deterministic

Ans: B

Question 213 – Digital control systems

Resolution refers to in the analog-to-digital conversion portion of a digital control system.
(A) the number of active bits
(B) the analog signal range
(C) how determined the designer was
(D) the speed of analog signal sampling
(E) the probability of hardware failure

Ans: A

Question 214 – Digital control systems

A checksum is used for the purpose of in digital systems.
(A) math calculations
(B) diagnostic monitoring
(C) error detection
(D) time-stamping data
(E) power monitoring

Ans: C
Question 215 – Digital control systems
A typical use for an integer variable in a digital control system is:
(A) Representing single switch status
(B) Representing power supply voltage
(C) Trigonometric math operations
(D) Exponential math operations
(E) Counting discrete events

Ans: E

Question 216 – Digital control systems

TIA/EIA-485 (formerly known as RS-485) is a digital communication standard with the following traits:
(A) Differential voltage signaling, multipoint
(B) Single-ended voltage signaling, multidrop
(C) Frequency Shift Key (FSK) signaling, superimposed on analog 4-20 mA
(D) Manchester encoding, multidrop
(E) Mark-and-space signaling, point-to-point

Ans: A

Question 217 – Digital control systems

FOUNDATION Fieldbus is unique in that:
(A) It has always been the leading fieldbus standard
(B) Data communication is entirely deterministic
(C) Control algorithms may reside in the field devices
(D) Power and data share the same wires
(E) Diagnostic data is communicated as well as process data

Ans: C
Question 218 – Digital control systems
A watchdog timer is a device or a programmed routine used for what purpose in a digital control system?
(A) To interrupt normal program flow and address an immediate need
(B) To check for errors in data communications
(C) To monitor the operation of the microprocessor
(D) To provide time delays for critical functions
(E) To signal the start of a new program cycle

Ans: C

Question 219 – Digital control systems

Digital control systems are generally superior to analog control systems, but they are always worse
with regard to:
(A) Diagnostics
(B) User-friendliness
(C) Flexibility
(D) Speed
(E) Noise immunity

Ans: D

Question 220 – Digital control systems

A triple modular redundant (TMR) digital control system would be typically used for what purpose?
(A) To control a potentially dangerous process
(B) To save energy (compared to other control systems)
(C) To increase response speed for fast processes
(D) To save money (compared to other control systems)
(E) To minimize routine maintenance requirements

Ans: A
 Answers

Answer 1
(D) Prevent injury by securing all energy sources in a system

Answer 2
(D) CPR (Cardio-Pulmonary Resuscitation)

Answer 3
(C) Alert professional emergency responders

Answer 4
(D) Reduce the concentration of particulates in the air you
breathe

Answer 5
(A) There is insufficient blood delivered to the body’s cells

Answer 6
(B) A company safety inspector has certified it

Answer 7
(D) Discomfort in the chest and/or upper body

Answer 8
(B) Hot and dry skin, inability to drink, vomiting, confusion

Answer 9
(C) A discharge of high electrical current through open air

Answer 10
(D) The circuit must be broken (opened)

Answer 41
(B) 3.0 volts

Answer 42
(D) 7.835 mA

Answer 43
(A) 9.656 kΩ

Answer 44
(A) 2.143 kΩ

Answer 45
(D) 441.5 µA

Answer 46
(E) 5

Answer 47
(C) -13.5 volts
Answer 48
(B) 16 volts

Answer 49
(E) 160 mA ← (right to left)

Answer 50
(B) + 0.5 volts - (positive on left, negative on right)

Answer 51
(E) Current will increase

Answer 52
(C) Complementary reactances become equal and opposite

Answer 53
(B) Isource = 187.5 mA Iload = 72.73 mA

Answer 54
(D) Trigger

Answer 55
(B) 27.96 dB

Answer 56
(B) 0.819

Answer 57
(A) 400 Hz

Answer 58
(A) 17.31 volts

Answer 59
(E) The cable appears to a pulse signal as a 75 ohm load

Answer 60
(E) Blocks high-frequency signals from passing through

Answer 61
(D) 18.04 amps

Answer 62
(D) More power may be transmitted using less copper (wire)

Answer 63
(A) A rotating magnetic field

Answer 64
(E) They potentially save energy
Answer 65
(A) Latching the motor in the “run” state

Answer 66
(E) Protect the motor against mild overcurrent conditions

Answer 67
(D) 7.205 kV

Answer 68
(D) 15.32 hp

Answer 69
(A) Its speed is constant
Answer 70
(E) Superior low-speed torque is needed

Answer 71
(A) Trivalent

Answer 72
(C) Cathode and anode

Answer 73
(B) 1 = Emitter; 2 = Base; 3 = Collector

Answer 74
(A) Measure magnetic field strength

Answer 75
(A) 9.31 volts
Answer 76
(D) -5.96 volts

Answer 77
(A) 26.9 volts

Answer 78
(E) Turn off

Answer 79
(A) Change motor direction

Answer 80
(E) Boost voltage; same output polarity as input
Answer 81
(B) 1011001001111000

Answer 82
(E) 00110001

Answer 83
(E) B + AC

Answer 84
(C) BC

Answer 85
(C) Q = 0 and Q = 1

Answer 86
(D) Eliminating false switching events

Answer 87
(A) The negative power supply rail of a bipolar transistor circuit

Answer 88
(A) Representing alphanumeric characters

Answer 89
(B) Latch

Answer 90
(A) Share an output line with another gate

Answer 91
(B) Transmitter, controller, I/P transducer, and control valve

Answer 92
(C) Negative feedback

Answer 93
(E) A valve

Answer 94
(A) Ground the shield conductor only at one end of the cable

Answer 95
(E) 4 to 20 milliamps DC

Answer 96
(D) The target value for the measured variable
Answer 97
(B) Torque tube

Answer 98
(A) Move the control valve further closed

Answer 99
(A) Process variable

Answer 100
(B) Allow a human operator to take control of the process

Answer 101
(B) Zero error

Answer 102
(C) Linearity error

Answer 103
(C) Establish a baseline for comparison, to detect calibration drift

Answer 104
(B) Set the pressure at 50 PSI and move the switch adjustment down until it actuates

Answer 105
(D) Zero

Answer 106
(D) +/- 0.08 mA

Answer 107
(A) 9.6 mA

Answer 108
(C) 8.325 pH

Answer 109
(B) In the text section of a loop diagram sheet

Answer 110
(E) Has a microprocessor built inside

Answer 111
(C) 0.7737 PSIG

Answer 112
(A) Orifice plate
Answer 113
(B) 1082.3 PSI

Answer 114
(C) Head

Answer 115
(B) Decrease

Answer 116
(E) Close one block valve, open equalizing valve, close other block valve, open bleed

Answer 117
(A) A high rate of flow from left to right (top to bottom through the vessel)

Answer 118
(E) 8.00”W.C.

Answer 119
(A) Turn the screw (located near the bellows)

Answer 120
(A) Lamp 1 off, Lamp 2 on, Solenoid on

Answer 121
(D) Differential pressure transmitter

Answer 122
(E) It isolates the pressure transmitter from the process fluid

Answer 123
(C) We will need to change the transmitter’s zero

Answer 124
(E) 4.363 pounds

Answer 125
(D) LRV = 84”H2O; URV = 444”H2O

Answer 126
(D) The transmitter is located below the 0% liquid level mark

Answer 127
(D) Displacer

Answer 128
(E) Dielectric constant
Answer 129
(D) Electrically conductive

Answer 130
(D) 4.167 PSI

Answer 131
(A) Type S

Answer 132
(B) Red

Answer 133
(A) RTD

Answer 134
(C) 544.3 K

Answer 135
(E) Zero

Answer 136
(A) Protective tube for a temperature sensing element

Answer 137
(B) The reference junction generates a temperature-dependent voltage

Answer 138
(B) The heat required to make a substance change phase

Answer 139
(E) Outer sheath color

Answer 140
(A) Chromel and Alumel

Answer 141
(C) Turbine

Answer 142
(E) Potential and kinetic energies in a flow stream

Answer 143
(E) Velocity increases and pressure decreases

Answer 144
(A) Vortex shedding
Answer 145
(E) Fully-developed turbulent flow

Answer 146
(D) Oil

Answer 147
(B) Gas flow

Answer 148
(D) Insufficient straight-pipe length exists

Answer 149
(A) 0 to 34.03”H2O

Answer 150
(C) Thermal

Answer 151
(C) Hydrogen ion activity

Answer 152
(A) Acidic

Answer 153
(B) Relative ion concentration to voltage

Answer 154
(C) Calibration

Answer 155
(D) Reducing NOX emissions

Answer 156
(D) 2.824 pH

Answer 157
(D) Adsorption time-delay

Answer 158
(D) Resists fouling

Answer 159
(A) The addition of an oxidant must be controlled

Answer 160
(D) Increase
Answer 161
(D) Linear

Answer 162
(D) Ball, Gate, Butterfly, Plug

Answer 163
(D) B or C

Answer 164
(A) 54.41

Answer 165
(C) Improve the precision of the valve

Answer 166
(C) Seal process fluid from escaping past the stem

Answer 167
(A) Calibrated with complementary ranges.

Answer 168
(C) Less actuating force required

Answer 169
(E) Pressure recovery

Answer 170
(C) The nature of the process

Answer 171
(C) Noise

Answer 172
(E) Self-regulating, Integral

Answer 173
(D) Gain

Answer 174
(A) A condition of good control where oscillations quickly subside

Answer 175
(A) Repeats per minute

Answer 176
(C) 0.571
Answer 177
(C) Self-regulating

Answer 178
(C) Wind-up

Answer 179
(D) Proportional

Answer 180
(D) To dampen noise

Answer 181
(D) One controller providing a setpoint for another controller

Answer 182
(E) Nonlinear

Answer 183
(A) Steam flow, drum level, and feedwater flow

Answer 184
(C) Reduce the effect of load variation on the process variable

Answer 185
(B) Load variable

Answer 186
(E) One variable is controlled in proportion to another

Answer 187
(E) Cascade

Answer 188
(E) Before the master

Answer 189
(B) Feedforward with trim

Answer 190
(A) Equalize load and manipulated variable lags in a feedforward system

Answer 191
(E) SAMA diagram

Answer 192
(C) P&ID
Answer 193
(D) Pneumatic, on the front of a secondary control panel

Answer 194
(E) Pneumatic, electric, capillary, hydraulic

Answer 195
(B) It would decrease

Answer 196
(B) ICBL23 = 14.2 mA, ICBL27 = 16.8 mA

Answer 197
(C) 21.30 volts

Answer 198
(B) Valve TV-205 will close shut, making the process cool down

Answer 199
(C) A computer

Answer 200
(B) Low-level alarm

Answer 201
(E) Programmable Logic Controller

Answer 202
(E) Virtual relay contacts and coils

Answer 203
(E) The entire program takes to execute

Answer 204
(D) Seal-in contact

Answer 205
(D) C (AB + D)

Answer 206
(C) Where the edited program resides

Answer 207
(D) Is not reset after a power cycle

Answer 208
(B) 255
Answer 209
(A) Normally-open contacts in parallel

Answer 210
(E) A PID function block

Answer 211
(D) Distributive Control System

Answer 212
(B) It is robust and inexpensive

Answer 213
(A) The number of active bits

Answer 214
(C) Error detection

Answer 215
(E) Counting discrete events

Answer 216
(A) Differential voltage signaling, multipoint

Answer 217
(C) Control algorithms may reside in the field devices

Answer 218
(C) To monitor the operation of the microprocessor

Answer 219
(D) Speed

Answer 220
(A) To control a potentially dangerous process
I&C Technician
Exam Practice 7

OCCUPATIONAL SKILLS – QUESTIONS & ANSWERS

1. A victim of electric shock may likely require what sort of immediate medical
attention?
(A) Bandages over the point of electrical contact
(B) Ice applied to the burned areas
(C) Antibiotics to prevent infection
(D) CPR
(E) An EEG test to record nervous system function
______________________________________________________________________
2. The very first thing you should do if you are the first to witness or discover an
accident on the job site is to:
(A) Provide first-aid to the victim(s)
(B) Seek the assistance of the nearest co-worker
(C) Alert professional emergency responders
(D) Report the incident to your supervisor
(E) Go find at least one co-worker to help you so you can work as a team
______________________________________________________________________
3. The purpose of a cartridge-style respirator is to:
(A) Provide a pure oxygen breathing environment where there is insufficient oxygen
in the air
(B) Enhance your personal appearance for maximum social appeal
(C) Convert exhaled carbon dioxide back into oxygen for re-breathing
(D) Reduce the concentration of particulates in the air you breathe
(E) Reduce noxious odors in the air you breathe
______________________________________________________________________
4. Shock is defined as an abnormal condition of the body where:
(A) There is insufficient blood delivered to the body’s cells
(B) The heart stops beating normally, and “quivers” instead
(C) The lungs are unable to process oxygen properly
(D) A broken bone has penetrated the skin
(E) The muscles in the body have “frozen” and will not move
______________________________________________________________________
5. A confined space is deemed ready for employee entry when:
(A) The unit operations foreman declares it ready
(B) A company safety inspector has certified it
(C) Your supervisor assigns you to the job
(D) An independent inspection agency has completed their survey
(E) An engineer has completed the necessary calculations
______________________________________________________________________
6. One of the common signs of a heart attack is:
(A) A sharp pain in the lower area of the spine
(B) Loss of bowel control
(C) A feeling of numbness in the legs
(D) Discomfort in the chest and/or upper body
(E) A general feeling of restlessness and anxiety
______________________________________________________________________
7. Arc blast is caused by:
(A) Poor contact within electrical wire splices
(B) Radio frequency emissions from high-power transmitters
(C) Discharge of high electrical current through open air
(D) Failure to lock-out and tag-out electrical breakers
(E) Ionization of gases near high-voltage electrical conductors
______________________________________________________________________
8. Current measurements are more dangerous to make with a multimeter than voltage
measurements because:
(A) You must use both hands to take the measurement
(B) Most multimeters are unfused
(C) The resulting magnetic fields may be very strong
(D) The circuit must be broken (opened)
(E) A fuse protects the voltage measurement ranges, but not current

9. The purpose of a lock-out/tag-out procedure is to:

(A) Reduce time spent doing the job
(B) Eliminate expenses related to maintenance
(C) Prevent unauthorized personnel from entering an area
(D) Secure all energy sources in a system
(E) Reduce the risk of accidental fire

10. How to lower the speed of the drill press?

A) Longer the belt
B) Shorter the belt
C) Change the big motor
D) Change the small motor

Ans: B

11. Working on Ladder which is 6 Meter high, what type of safety needed:
A-Full Safety Harness
B-etc.
Ans: A

12. To install a new device in a hazardous area!

A) Get permission, verify the place is safe, and install the device

13. After you got permission to repair a defective device---

A) Notify the operator, turn off the power and tag out, and file a report
14. When applying solder to a splice connection, what is the proper procedure you
should do?
a. The solder is applied to the splice after it has been heated for a few seconds.
b. The solder is applied at the instant that the heat is applied.
c. The solder is applied directly to the soldering tip.
d. None of the above

Ans. A

15. What is a class “A” fire?

A. electrical equipment, motors, switches
B. gasoline
C. ordinary combustions like wood, paper, etc.
Ans. C

16. What is the definition of a Class B fire?

A. Fires that involve energized electrical equipment, such as wiring, controls, motors or
appliances.
B. Fires that involve combustible metals such as magnesium and sodium.
C. Fires involving common combustibles such as wood, paper, cloth, rubber and trash.
D. Fires involving flammable liquids, gases, gasoline and synthetic or oil-based
products.
Ans. D

17. What is a class “C” fire?

A. electrical equipment, motors, switches
B. gasoline
C. ordinary combustions like wood, paper, etc.
Ans. A

18. When using a wrench, the safest and most efficient way to use it is by?
A. pushing away from you
B. pulling towards you
C. put a pipe on end and push
D. can be used as a hammer
Ans. B

19. Scaffolding erected this much feet above the ground must have guard rails?
A. 3ft
B. 5ft
C. 7ft
D. 10ft

Ans. D
20. What is the knot below called?

A. granny
B. slip know
C. clove
D. pipe
Ans. A

21. What type of fire extinguisher should be used on electrical fires?

A. class A
B. class B
C. class C
D. class D

Ans. C

22. When would WHMIS require the use of a workplace label?

a. When the instructions for use are missing.
b. When a controlled product is shipped from the manufacturer.
c. When a controlled product is transferred from its’ original container.
d. When the MSDS is missing from a controlled product.
Ans. C

23. When using a fire extinguisher to extinguish a fire, it should be?

A. pointed at the top of the flames
B. held within 6 inches of the flame
C. pointed at the base of the fire
D. moved up and down to cool the flame

Ans. C

24. Federal regulation requires that hazardous information about a product be provided
to all users of that product. What is the form used to provide this information?
a. Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
b. Hazardous Information Sheet (HIS)
c. Occupational Safety and Hazard Form (OSHF)
d. Safety Information Form (SIF)
Ans. A
25. Which of the following is not an essential element necessary to produce an ordinary
fire?
a. Oxygen
b. Heat
c. Hydrogen
d. Fuel
Ans. C

26. What is the purpose of a class a ground fault circuit interrupter?

A. for short circuit and ground fault only
B. overload short circuit and ground fault
C. overload reverse current and ground fault
D. overload and short circuit only
Ans. A

27. Lockout devices are used to do which of the following?

A. supply air pressure to an air feeder
B. establish the size of container to hold the finished parts
C. keep affected personnel from being injured by machinery that may be activated by
mistake
Ans. C

28. “Source of Energy” is which of the following characteristics?

A. pneumatic
B. hydraulic
C. electrical
D. all of the above
Ans. D

29. Which products do manufacturers have to supply an MSDS for?

A. products that contain chemicals
B. products that have the potential to cause harm
C. products used for sanitation purposes
D. all products sold
Ans. D

30. Which of the following is NOT a legal question that may be asked during an
employment interview?
a. How old are you?
b. Are you over the age of 18?
c. Are you physically able to perform this job?
d. In which languages are you fluent?
Ans. A

31. A product you are planning to use is marked with this symbol?
What personal protective equipment would you expect to wear?
 a. Fire resistant clothing.
b. Supplied air respirator and full face mask
c. Dust mask and leather work gloves.
d. Chemically resistant gloves, apron and a face shield.
Ans. D

32. When removing a 129 V DC explosion-proof instrument from service, which

procedure would ensure equipment and personal safety?

a) Lockout and tag, inform operations, open breaker, isolate from process.
b) Inform operations, lockout and tag, open breaker, isolate from process.
c) Lockout and tag, isolate from process, open breaker, inform operations.
d) Inform operations, isolate from process, open breaker, lockout and tag.

Ans. D

33. What is to be done with an oil filled dead weight tester after using to bench check a
pressure signal?
A) Drain the oil and flush the DWT out, return to storage location
B) Clean the weights & fittings, return to storage location.
C) Pressurize the chamber, cap both ends, and return to storage location
D) Disconnect the tubing, send out for recertification

Ans. B

34. What is the proper procedure for working on a hydraulic valve which is part of a
control system? After obtaining all required work approvals.
A) Open oil line equalizer, pull disconnect, lock out disconnect, perform work, return to
service, inform operations
B) Shut off pump, pull disconnect, lock out disconnect, verify zero pressure, perform
work, return to service, inform operations
C) Verify zero pressure, Shut off pump, pull disconnect, lock out disconnect, perform
work
D) Shut off pump, pull disconnect, lock out disconnect, verify zero pressure, perform
work, inform operations
Ans. B
35. A configuration change needs to be completed to a PLC or DCS program, how
would this be done to assure back up for records. Using a laptop computer and proper
cabling.

A) Connect laptop, make copy of program, make changes, and download changes to
process, verify changes, save changes to master disc, disconnect laptop.

B) Connect laptop, make changes, download changes to process, and verify changes,
save changes to master disc, disconnect laptop.
C) Connect laptop, make copy of program, make changes, and download changes to
process, save changes to master disc, disconnect laptop.
D) Connect Laptop, put all loops on manual, make copy of program, and make
changes,
download changes to process, verify changes, save changes to master disc,
disconnect laptop.

Ans. A

36. What is the minimum distance a portable ladder is to extend above a work platform?
A. 36”
B. 28”
C. 12”
D. 24”
Ans. A

37. In a pneumatic drawing, what does an equilateral triangle represent?

a. Direction of fluid flow
b. Air pressure is adjustable
c. Variable fluid pressure
d. GPM rating of the compressor
Ans. A

38. Which of the following symptoms indicates heat stroke?

a. Dizziness, vomiting, cold skin, profuse sweating
b. Hot and dry skin, inability to drink, vomiting, confusion
c. Sudden affinity for country-western music
d. Cold and clammy skin, thirst, vomiting, confusion
Ans. B

39. Which of the following is the normal atmospheric pressure at sea level?
a. 14.7
b. 14.7 psia
c. 14.7 psig
d. 14.7 psi
Ans. D
40. Which of the following is the PSI with a reading of 80 PSIA from?
a. 19.8 PSI
b. 70 PSI
c. 65.3 PSI
d. 82.6 PSI
Ans. C
(As atmosphere pressure at sea level = 14.7 PSI, then 80-14.7 =65.3)

41. Which of the following is authorized to remove a lockout tag out?

a. Only the person who applied the lock

b. Any one in management
c. Only a certified Health and Safety member
d. Any authorized worker
Ans. A

42. Which of the following is the purpose of CPR?

a. Maintain oxygenated blood circulation
b. Dislodge blood clots within the victim’s lungs
c. Build upper body strength
d. Stabilize body temperature to avoid hypothermia
Ans. A

43. Where must an intrinsic safety barrier panel be installed from which of the
following?
A. hazardous area with no grounds.
B. safe area with no grounds.
C. hazardous area with the ground bus bars returned to plant ground.
D. safe area with an isolated ground.
Ans. D

44. Which type of gasket is most frequently used in a high-pressure hydraulic system
assembled with socket weld flanges?
A. spiral flange
B. crush ring
c. “O” ring
d. Split ring
Ans. C

45. Which of the following given below is the correct method to use a tagline?
A. assists the main line in lifting
B. prevent swinging of the load
C. prevent the whip line from coming unraveled
D. secure the snatch block
Ans. B
(Tag Line is a nylon rope which helps the riggers to hold the load on the crane and
avoid swinging).

46. What safe work procedures should be followed when working with PVC solvent
cements and primers inside an enclosed building?
a. Keep containers tightly closed when not in use, open only when brush is to be used
to dispense primer or solvent cement and ventilate area.
b. Wear approved gloves, keep containers tightly closed when not in use, open only
when brush is to be used to dispense primer or solvent cement and ventilate area.
c. Wear leather palmed gloves and only cut a small hole in the lid of the containers large
enough for the brush required to dispense materials.
d. Wear cotton gloves, cut a small hole in the lid of the containers large enough for the
brush required to dispense materials and ventilate area as needed.
Ans. B

47. A key element of a comprehensive safety and health program is one of the
following?
a. Hazard prevention and control.
b. Pre-employment physicals.
c. Record keeping.
d. Drug and alcohol testing.

Ans. A

2.8 OHSA SECTION 73: PORTABLE LADDERS

(e) When not securely fastened, be inclined so that the horizontal distance from the top
support to the foot of the ladder is not less than 1/4 and not more than 1/3 of the length
of the ladder. R.R.O. 1990, Reg. 851, s. 73.

48. Color Coding of a three wire system:

Black Live or Hot
WhiteNeutral
GreenGround

49. In addition to wearing safety boots, which combination of personal protective

equipment should be utilized when working at a switching substation?

a. Safety gloves, face shield and glow stick.

b. Work gloves, anti-glare safety goggles and glow stick.

c. Safety gloves, safety goggles and ear plugs.

d. Work gloves, face shield and ear plugs.

Ans. C

50. When new materials are received on a job site, what is to be done with the material
safety data sheet (MSDS)?

a. Tape it to the container(s)

b. Read and discard

c. Give it to the supervisor

d. Place it in the on-site MSDS file folder

Ans. D

51. The hand signal used to instruct the crane operator to stop is?

a. Arm extended, palm down, move hand right and left

b. Forefinger pointing up, hand moving in small circles

c. Arm extended forward hand open at right angle pointing upward

d. Arm extended downward hand making a fist

Ans. A

52. When setting up a ladder against a wall, which rung is safest to step on before
danger ensues?

a. 2nd from bottom

b. 1st from top

c. 3rd from top

d. 4th from top

Ans C
53.

ANSWER: D

54. Four Diagrams of a man with hand signals (Like Thumb rule):
Question: Which figure shows to “raise the boom”

55. Identify the hand signal in the drawing below?

a. Swing load
b. Travel forward
c. Extend boom
d. Dog everything
Ans. C
(See drawings at the end of this file)
Crane Hand Signals

1. Hoist

With forearm vertical, forefinger pointing up, move hand in small horizontal circles

2. Lower

With arm extended downward, forefinger pointing down, move hand in small horizontal
circles.

3. Use Main Hoist

Tap fist on head; then use regular signals.

4. Use Whip line (Auxiliary Hoist)

Tap elbow with one hand; then use regular signals.

5. Raise Boom

Arm extended, finger closed, thumb pointing upward.

6. Lower Boom

Arm extended, finger closed, thumb pointing downward.

7. Move Slowly

Use one hand to give any motion signal and place other hand motionless in front of
hand giving the motion signal. (Hoist slowly shown as example.)
8. Raise the Boom and Lower the Load

Arm extended, fingers closed, thumb pointing upward, other arm bent slightly with
forefinger pointing down and rotate hand in horizontal circles.

9. Lower the Boom and Raise the Load

Arm extended, fingers closed, thumb pointing downward, other arm with forearm
vertical, forefinger pointing upward and rotate hand in horizontal circles.
Workplace Hazardous Materials Information System

CLASS A: COMPRESSED GAS

This class includes compressed gases, dissolved gases, and gases liquefied by
compression or refrigeration.

CLASS B: FLAMMABLE AND COMBUSTIBLE MATERIAL

This class includes solids, liquids, and gases capable of catching fire in the presence of
a spark or open flame under normal working conditions.

CLASS C: OXIDIZING MATERIAL

These materials increase the risk of fire if they come in contact with flammable or
combustible materials.
CLASS D: POISONOUS AND INFECTIOUS MATERIAL
Division 1: Materials Causing Immediate and Serious Toxic Effects
These materials can cause death or immediate injury when a person is exposed to
small amounts. Examples: sodium cyanide, hydrogen sulphide.

CLASS D: POISONOUS AND INFECTIOUS MATERIAL

Division 2: Materials Causing Other Toxic EFFECTS
These materials can cause life-threatening and serious long-term health problems as
well as less severe but immediate reactions in a person who is repeatedly exposed to
small amounts.

CLASS D: POISONOUS AND INFECTIOUS MATERIAL

Division 3: Bio-hazardous Infectious MATERIAL
These materials contain an organism that has been shown to cause disease or to be a
probable cause of disease in persons or animals.
CLASS E: CORROSIVE MATERIAL
This class includes caustic and acid materials that can destroy the skin or eat through
metals. Examples: sodium hydroxide, hydrochloric acid, nitric acid

CLASS F: DANGEROUSLY REACTIVE MATERIAL

These products may self-react dangerously (for example, they may explode) upon
standing or when exposed to physical shock or to increased pressure or temperature, or
they emit toxic gases when exposed to water.
May react violently causing explosion, fire
or release of toxic gases when exposed to
light, heat, vibration or extreme temperatures.
18.1 Calibration versus re-ranging
To calibrate an instrument means to check and adjust (if necessary) its response so the output
accurately corresponds to its input throughout a specified range.

In order to do this, one must expose the instrument to an actual input stimulus of precisely known quantity.

To range an instrument means to set the lower and upper range values so it responds with the
desired sensitivity to changes in input.

For example, a pressure transmitter set to a range of 0 to 200 PSI (0 PSI = 4 mA output ; 200 PSI = 20 mA
output) could be re-ranged to respond on a scale of 0 to 150 PSI (0 PSI = 4 mA ; 150 PSI = 20 mA).

Calibration of Chlorine Gas (Cl2)

Buy Chlorine Calibration Gas, 3 ppm (Cl) - FREE shipping over $99* and Lowest Price Guarantee*.

• Precision Chlorine (Cl) calibration gas used to calibrate sensors in Chlorine (Cl) gas detection
equipment for environmental emissions monitoring, industrial hygiene monitors and trace impurity
analyzers.
• Exceeds or meets the requirements of Gas Detection Equipment Manufacturers
• Fully compatible with all manufacturers' calibration sensors, equipment and detectors
• Precision blended and inspected to industry standards - National Institute of Standards and
Technology (NIST) traceable and certified

Balance Gas

Contemporary multigas analyzers measure the partial pressure of each gas of interest in a dry gas
mixture. They also measure ambient barometric pressure (PB). The partial pressure of oxygen
(PO2) is measured by paramagnetic analysis, and the partial pressures of nitrous oxide and carbon
dioxide (PN2O and PCO2) and the anesthetic agent are measured by IR technology. If the sum of
these partial pressures is subtracted from the ambient barometric pressure, the result is the partial
pressure of unmeasured gases and may be displayed as “Balance Gas”. In most cases the balance
gas is nitrogen, and in the absence of a specific nitrogen gas analyzer (i.e., Raman or mass
spectrometer), balance gas has been described as the “poor man’s nitrogen.” However, if a heliox
(75% helium, 25% oxygen) mixture were being analyzed, helium would be read as the balance
gas.
Calibration procedure: Differential pressure
level transmitter
How to calibrate Dp level transmitter at field

Material Required
Data sheet
Pressure calibrator (std)
Multimeter (std)
Hart communicator

Step
➢ Ask panel man to put the controller in manual mode for control loop and to put it on
MOS for ESD loop.
➢ Hook up HART Communicator and verify some parameters by refer to data sheet.
Typical parameters are, tag number, PV, LRV and URV.
➢ Isolate the instrument from the process.
➢ Release both pressure and drain low and high side liquid throughout manifold drain.
➢ Open both plug at seal pot
➢ Top up seal liquid for low side until half of seal pot.
➢ Remove tubing at high side of manifold
➢ Hook up pressure calibrator at high side and isolate the vent valve
➢ Hook up a multimeter in series with the signal to the DCS to measure current signal.
➢ Apply pressure as per calculation when level equivalent to zero
➢ Multimeter should show 4mA
➢ If not, do zero adjustment at transmitter using HART Communicator
➢ Apply pressure as per calculation when level equivalent to 100%Multimeter should
show 20mA
➢ If not, do span adjustment at transmitter using HART Communicator
➢ After completion of the job ask panel operator to put loops back in normal mode or
normalize the MOS
➢ Fill the calibration form and file it for future reference.
➢ Note: There is many way to perform calibration for DP level but the important thing
is the DP reading at HART communicator should same with the LRV and URV
Example calculation:

Product S.G=0.89
Glycol S.G = 1.02

A= 2000mm (measurement length)

B= 100mm (off set)
C=A+B=2100mm

Dp = pressure at high side – pressure at low side

LRV = (B x Product S.G) – (A x Glycol S.G)

= (100mm x 0.89) – (2000 x 1.02)
= 89 – 2040
= -1951 mmH2O

URV = (C x Product S.G) – (A x Glycol S.G)

= (2100mm x 0.89) – (2000 x 1.02)
= 1869 - 2040
= -171 mmH2O

Note:

Calculation for apply pressure at high side manifold transmitter

0% = (B x Product S.G)
= (100mm x 0.89)
= 89 mmH2O

100% = (C x Product S.G)

= (2100mm x 0.89)
= 1869 mmH2O
Calibration Procedure: Differential Pressure
Flow Transmitter
How to calibrate flow DP transmitter

Material
Data sheet
Pressure calibrator (std)
Multimeter (std)
Hart communicator

Steps
➢ Ask panel man to put the controller in manual mode for control loop and to put it on
MOS for ESD loop.
➢ Hook up HART Communicator and verify some parameters by refer to data sheet.
Typical parameters are, tag number, PV, LRV and URV.
➢ Isolate the instrument from the process.
➢ WARNING – If the process is hazardous, please unsure proper flushing is
done to remove the entire hazard.
➢ Release both pressure and drain low and high side liquid throughout manifold drain.
➢ Connect pressure calibrator to high side of manifold
➢ Expose the low side to atmosphere
➢ Hook up a multimeter in series with the signal to the DCS to measure current signal.
➢ Apply pressure as per data sheet LRV (normally 0mmH2O)
➢ Multimeter should show 4mA
➢ If not, do zero adjustment at transmitter using HART Communicator
➢ Apply pressure as per data sheet URV
➢ Multimeter should show 20mA
➢ If not, do span adjustment at transmitter using HART Communicator
➢ Verify the linearity by increasing and decreasing the pressure
(0%,25%,50%,75%,100%,75%,50%,25% and 0%of range)
➢ After completion of the job ask panel operator to put loops back in normal mode or
normalize the MOS
➢ Fill the calibration form and file it for future reference.
Example calculation

Instrument calibrated range: 0 – 2500 mmH2O

Process calibrated range: 0 – 105000 Nm3/h
Q =K P

0% 0 mmH2O = ( 0/2500) x 105000

= 0 Nm3/h

50% 1250 mmH2O = ( 1250/2500) x 105000

= 7424.6 Nm3/h

100% 2500 mmH2O = ( 2500/2500) x 105000

= 105000 Nm3/h

How is D.P transmitter applied to a close

tank & open tank with dry leg or wet leg?

Span = ( X ) ( GL )
HW at minimum level = ( Z ) ( GS ) + ( Y ) ( GL )
HW at maximum leve l = ( Z ) ( GS ) + ( X + Y ) ( GL )
Where :
GL = Specific gravity of tank liquid.
GS = Specific gravity of seal liquid.
HW = Equivalent head of water.
X, Y & Z are shown in fig (1.1)

Example :
Open tank with X = 300 inches
Y = 50 inches
Z = 10 inches
GL = 0.8
GS = 0.9
Span = ( 300 ) ( 0.8 ) = 240 inches
HW at minimum level = ( 10 ) ( 0.9 ) + ( 50 ) ( 0.8 ) = 49 inches
HW at maximum level = (10 ) ( 0.9 ) + ( 50 + 300 ) ( 0.8 ) = 289 inches
Calibrated range = 49 to 289 inches head of water

Close tank with wet leg:

Span = ( X ) ( GL )
HW at minimum level = ( Y ) ( GL ) – ( d )( GS )
HW at maximum level = ( X + Y ) ( GL ) – ( d ) ( GS )
Where : GL = Specific gravity of tank liquid
GS = Specific gravity of tank liquid
HW = Equivalent head of water
X, Y and Z are shown in fig.

Example :
X = 300 inches
Y = 50 inches
d = 500 inches
GL = 0.8
GS = 0.9
Span = ( 300 ) ( 0.8 ) = 240 inches

HW minimum level = ( 50 ) ( 0.8 ) - ( 500 ) ( 0.9 ) = - 410 inches

HW maximum level = ( 300 + 50 ) ( 0.8 ) – ( 500 ) ( 0.9 ) = - 170 inches
Calibrated range = - 410 to –170 inches head of water.
( minus sings indicate that the higher pressure is applied to the low pressure side of the
transmitter )