RME Exam Question

1. The purpose of the Philippine Electrical Code is to provide which of the following:

A. A standard by which professionals may design installations B. Efficient electrical installations

C. Cost-effective installations D. Safe electrical installations

2. Which of the following statements is NOT one of the primary objective of the Philippine
Electrical Code?

A. To establish electrical work standards B. To establish basic material qualities

C. To ensure safety in using electricity D. none of these

3. The Philippine Electrical Code (PEC) is ____.

A. Intended to be a designed manual B. Meant to be used as an instruction manual
C. The practical safeguarding of persons and property D. Published by Bureau of Product
Standards

4. The Philippine Electrical Code does not apply to:

A. City-owned overhead distribution lines B. Utility-owned transmission lines

C. Transformers serviced by utility technicians D. All the above

5. The PEC does not apply to electric utility-owned wiring and equipment _____.

A. installed by an electrical contractor

B. installed on public property

C. consisting of service drops or service laterals

D. in a utility office building

6. Which of the following premises wiring installations is NOT covered in the scope of the Philippine
Electrical Code?

A. Parking lots C. Quarries and mines

B. Dockyards D. Motor vehicles

7. The Philippine Electrical Code, Part 1 does not cover wiring of equipment installed within or to or
from one of the following. Which is one is this?

A. Trailers C. Water crafts

B. Mobile homes D. Airplanes

8. There are situations where deviations from the code requirements are necessary. Before such
deviations are made, there must be a written permission from one of the following entries. Which one is
this?

A. Board of Electrical Eng'g C. IIEE Code Committee

B. Code Enforcing Authority D. Philippine Regulation Board

9. The powers of the members of the Board are vested in them by who's authority?

A. President of the Philippines C. Under RA 7920

B. Commissioner of PRC D. National President of IIEE

10. Special permission is _____.

A. Granted by the electrical foreman on the job. C. Given only once on one blueprint change request.

B. Verbal permission by the inspector. D. The written consent of the authority having
jurisdiction.

11. Approved is__.

A. listed and labeled equipment

B. acceptable to the authority having jurisdiction

C. tested and approved for the purpose by a qualified testing lab

D. UL listed only

12. Mandatory rules of the PEC are characterized by the use of the word ___.

A. Shall C. Both A and B

B. Should D. Neither A or B

13. Items in the Code that identify actions that are specifically required or prohibited are considered
which of the following:

A. Permissive rules C. Guidelines for examination of installation

B. Mandatory rules D. Permitted use

14. The Philippine Electrical Code is intended for what type of applications by government bodies
exercising legal jurisdiction over electrical installation?

A. advisory C. Optimal

B. mandatory D. professional

15. _____ are used to provide explanatory material, references to other sections, precautions to be
observed, and further mandatory requirements.
A. mandatory rules C. fine print notes
B. exceptions D. listings
16. There are situations where deviations from the code requirements are necessary. Before such
deviations are made, there must be a written permission from one of the following entities. Which one
is this?
A. Board of Electrical Engineering B. Code of Enforcing Authority
C. IIEE Code Committee D. Philippine Regulation Board

17. Who shall make the final decision in the interpretation of controversial provisions of the Philippine
Electrical Code?
A. IIEE Board of Governors C. Building Official
B. Board of Electrical Engineering D. IIEE Code Committee

18. It is the intent of this Code that factory installed internal wiring or the construction of equipment
need not be inspected at the time of installation of the equipment, except to __.

I. Detect alterations II. Detect damage III. Detect insulation type

A. I only C. I and II only

B. II only D. I, II and III
19. The necessary equipment connected to the load end of the service conductors to a building or other
structure and intended to constitute the main control and cutoff of the supply is known as:

a.) Service entrance b.) Service-entrance conductors

c.) Service drop d.) Service equipment

20. Which of the following Republic Act number refers to the new Electrical Engineering Law?

a.) RA 7920 c.) RA 8710

b.) RA 8450 d.) RA 1840

21. RA 7920 was approved by former president Fidel V. Ramos on?

a.) Feb 14,1995 c.) Feb 24, 1995

b.) Feb 21,1995 d.) Feb 27, 1995

22. Under RA 7920, the Board of Electrical Engineering (BEE) is composed of how many examiners?

A. 5 C. 3
B. 2 D. 4

23. RA 7920 also provides the composition of the Board of Electrical Engineering.

A. Three members and the chairman B. Two members and a chairman

C. Two members D. Three members

24. Vacancies of the board of Electrical Engineering shall be filled by the from the list of recommendees
selected by the PRC commissioner

. a.) chairman of the Board c.) IIEE

b.) PRC commissioner d.) President of the Philippines

25. The Board of Electrical Engineering is empowered to look into the conditions affecting the practice of
the electrical engineering profession adopt measures for the Enhancement of the profession and
maintenance of high professional, technical and standards.

A. U.S. C. ethical
B. acceptable D. theoretical

26. The board of Electrical Engineering may issue special permits to individual foreign electrical
engineers and electrician for projects and for an allotted time of stay.

a.) only one c.) specific

b.) different d.) definite

27. There are situations where deviations from the code requirements are necessary. Before such
deviations are made, there must be a written permission from one of the following entities. Which one
is this?

a). Board of Electrical Engineering b). Code of Enforcing Authority

c). IIEE Code Committee d). Philippine Regulation Board
28. Who shall make the final decision in the interpretation of controversial provisions of the Philippine
Electrical Code?

A. IIEE Board of Governors B. Board of Electrical Engineering

C. Building Official D. IIEE Code Committee

29. Section 4 (p) Powers and Duties of the Board of Article II of Electrical Engineering is to__.

a.) Adopt an official seal

b.) Prosecute or institute criminal action against any violator of the Act and or the rules and
regulations of the Board.
c). Supervise and regulate the practice of electrical engineering in the Philippines
d). Issue subpoena or subpoena duces tecum to secure the attendance of respondents or wit4esses
relative to the investigation conducted by the Board.

30. Sec 4 (r), Powers and Duties of the board of Art II, Board of Electrical Engineering.

a). Promulgate rules and regulations including code of ethics administrative policies, orders and
issuances to carry out the provisions of this Act
b). Determine and evaluate the qualifications of the applicants for registration with or without licensure
examinations for special permits.
c). Supervise and regulate. The practice of electrical engineering in the Philippines.
d). Coordinate with the commission and the Dept. of Education, Culture & Sports (DECS) in prescribing
amending and/or revising the courses

31. What level of electrical license is needed as one of the requirements to be appointed as member of
the Board of electrical Engineering?

a. RME c. PEE
b. REE d. All of these

32. How many years is the term of office for any members of the BEE (Board of Electrical Engineering)?

a. 3 years c. 1 year
b. 2 years d. 4 years

33. Who shall be the executive officer of the Board of Electrical Engineering and shall also conduct the
examination given by the Board, as provided in Art. II, Sec 9, of the New Electrical Engineering Law?

a.) A member of the Board of Electrical Engineering

b.) The President of the Philippines
c.) The Commissioner of the Professional Regulations Commission
d.) The Chairman of the Board of the Electrical Engineering

34. An applicant for registered master electrician's examination must have at least completed ______ of
a five year Bachelor of Science in Electrical Engineering program and has a specific record of _____
practice in electrical wiring and installation.

A. 3 years, 2 years B. 2 years, 1 year C. 3 years, 1 year D. 2 years, 2 years

35. A high school graduate can take the registered master electricians examination if he has a
subsequent specific record of at least _____ years of apprenticeship in electrical wiring, installations of
electrical equipment.

A. 6 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
36. Applications for registered master electricians' examination must be at least ___ years of age.
a. 18 c. 17
b. 19 d. 21

37. Who among the electrical practitioners has the sole authority to seal electrical plans, etc and to
practice electrical engineering in its full scope as defined in RA 7920?
A. REE C. PEE
B. RME D. all of these

38. In all case where there are energized parts on the front of the switchboard or motor control centers,
the working space in front of such equipment shall NOT be less than a minimum distance. What is this
distance?

a.) 2,000 mm b.) 500 mm c.) 1,500 mm d.) 1,000 mm

39. Voltage to ground of 0-150, with exposed live parts on one side of the work space and no live or
grounded parts on the other side, must have a minimum clear distance of which of the following:

a.) 300 mm c.) 900 mm

b.) 600 mm d.) 1200 mm

40. What is the minimum depth of clear working space in front of a switchboard rated at 4,160 volts,
where there are exposed energized parts on the both sides of the workspace?

a.) 1,000 mm b.) 1,900 mm c.) 1,600 mm d.) 2,000 mm

41. The elevation of unguarded energized parts above working space if the nominal voltage between
phases is 7501 - 35000 volts is.

a. 2,600 mm b. 2,800 mm c. 3,000 mm d. 3,200 mm

42. What is the minimum depth of clear working space in front of a switchboard rated 4,160 volts,
where there are exposed energized parts on both sides of the workspace?

A. 1,000 mm C. 1,600 mm
B. 1,900 mm D. 2,000 mm

43. What is the minimum working clearance on a circuit 300 volts to ground, exposed live parts on one
side and grounded parts on the other side of the working space?

A. 1500 C. 1300
B. 1200 D. 1000

44. Without live parts exposed to a person on the operating side of the equipment is called?

a.) dead front b.) isolated c.) externally operable d.) interrupted

45. Electric parts that are not suitably guarded, isolated, or insulated and are capable of being
inadvertently touched or approached nearer than a safe distance by a person are known as:

a.) Exposed c.) Accessible

b.) Externally operable d.) Dead front
46. Live parts exposed on the front of a switchboard are present; the working space in front of the
switchboard shall not be less than ____ mm.
a. 760 c. 620
b. 500 d. 750
47. Where rear access is required to work on de-energized parts on the back of enclosed equipment, a
minimum working space of _______ horizontally shall be provided.

a.) 1,000 mm c.) 800 mm

b.) 900 mm d.) 600 mm

48. The workspace about electrical equipment shall be adequate to permit at least _____ degree
opening of doors or hinge panels.

A. 90 C. 60
B. 45 D. 75

49. Working space shall not be used for__

a.) storage c.) lighting

b.) raceway d.) accessibility

50. Working space in rooms containing electrical equipment shall not be used for:

a.) Storage b.) Maintenance and repair of equipment

c.) Testing purposes d.) Inspection or servicing

51. Where the required work space is doubled, _______ entrance/s to the working space is/are
required.

A. 1 C. 3
B. 2 D. 4

52. At least _______ entrance of sufficient area shall be provided to give access to the working space
about electrical equipment.

A. 1 C. 3
B. 2 D. 4

53. In all cases where there are energized parts normally exposed on the front of switchboards, or motor
control centers, the working space in front of such equipment shall not be less than mm

A. 250 C. 750
B. 500 D. 1000

54. Where rear access is required to work on de-energized parts on the back of enclosed equipment, a
minimum working space of horizontally shall be provided.

A. 500 C. 1 000
B. 800 D. 1 200

55. When live parts of electrical equipment are guarded by suitable permanent substantial partitions, or
screens, any opening such partitions or screens shall be so sized and located that persons are not likely
to cause into accidental contact with live parts or to bring into contact with them.

A. Dust C. Wires
B. Conducting objects D. Contaminating parts
56. Sufficient access and _________ shall be provided and maintained about all electrical equipment to
permit ready and safe operation and maintenance of such equipment.

A. Ventilation C. Circulation
B. Cleanliness D. Working space

57. What must be provided for in all working spaces above service equipment?

a.) A water faucet to flush operator’s eyes b.) A drinking fountain

c.) Illumination d.) A wash basin

58. A disconnecting means for a controller is also permitted to be the disconnecting means for the
motor and driven machine, even where out of sight of the motor and driven machine:

a.) in an industrial building with qualified service personnel, if capable of being locked in the open
position
b.) if capable of being locked in the open position
c.) in commercial and industrial buildings with qualified service personnel
d.) if provided with an alarm to indicate when the disconnect is closed

60. Entrance to rooms and other guarded locations containing live parts marked with conspicuous
forbidding unqualified persons to enter.

a. Warning signs b. Blue c. Yellow d. red

61. When normally enclosed live parts are exposed for inspection or servicing, a passageway in general
open space shall be suitably__

a. shielded b. guarded c. Covered d. enclosed

62. Concrete, brick, or tile wall shall be considered as __as it applies to working space requirements.

a. insulated b. covered c. grounded d. shielded

63. A magnetic field is created around a conductor?

a.) Whenever current flows in the wire, provided the wire is made of magnetic material.
b.) Only when the wire carries a large current.
c.) Whenever current flows in the conductor.
d.) Only if the conductor is formed into a loop

64. Which of the following is a requirement to induce a voltage and a current in a wire?

a.) A magnetic field c.) Motion betwwen A and B

b.) A conductor d.) all of these

65. If a magnetic field is cut across by a coil of conductor____ is generated between the ends of the
conductor.

a.) electromotive force emf c.) stronger magnetic field

b.) resistance d.) capacitance

66. A magnetic field is created around a conductor _____.

a.) Whenever current flows in the wire, provided the wire is made of magnetic material.
b.) Only when the wire carries a large current.
c.) Whenever current flows in the conductor
d.) Only if the conductor is formed into a loop.
67. If the current flow through a conductor is increased, the magnetic field around the conductor ____.

a.) is unchanged c.) collapses

b.) becomes stronger. d.) becomes weaker

68. The voltage produced by electromagnetic induction is controlled by____.

a.) number of lines of flux cut per second c.) the size of the magnet
b.) eddy currents d.) the number of tums

69. Where a single AC conductors carrying current passes through metal with magnetic properties, the
inductive effect shall be minimized by ____.
I. Cutting slots in the metal between the individual holes through which individual conductors pass
II. Passing all the conductors in the circuit through an insulating wall sufficiently large for all the
conductors of the circuit

a.) I only c.) both I and II

b.) II only d.) neither I nor II

70. Frequency is measured in____.

a.) hertz c.) rpm

b.) voltage d.) foot pounds

71. In a 60 cycle system, what length of time does it take to go 90 degrees?

a.) 1/3 second c.) 1/60 second

b.) 1/90 second d.) 1/240 second

72. In a 60 cycle system, what length of time does it take to go 90 degrees?

a.) 1/3 second c.) 1/60 second

b.) 1/90 second d.) 1/240 second

73. 60 cycle frequency travels 180 degrees in how many seconds?

a.) 1/60 c.) 1/180

b.) 1/120 d.) duty-cycle

74. What percentage of the maximum (peak) voltage is the effective (R.M.S.) voltage?

a.) 1 c.) 0.637

b.) 0.707 d.) 0.577

75. The factor 0.707 for converting peak to rms applies only to?

a.) Square waves c.) Sawtooth waves

b.) Triangle waves d.) Sine waves

76. The voltage of a circuit is best defined as_____.

a.) the potential between two conductors

b.) the greatest difference of potential between two conductors
c.) the effective difference of potential between two conductors
d.) the average RMS difference of potential between any two conductors
77. AC voltage of the system is not the__ voltage

a.) EMF c.) average

b.) effective d.) RMS

78. An AC ammeter or voltmeter is calibrated to read RMS values; this means the meter is reading the
____.

a.) Maximum c.) Average

b.) Peak d.) Effective

79. If an AC sine wave reaches a peak voltage of 100, what is the effective root mean square voltage?

a.) 57.7 volts c.) 86.6 volts

b.) 141.4 volts d.) 70.7 volts

79. Root-mean-square is also called the_____ voltage

a.) average c.) effective

b.) Peak d.) maximum
80. The breakdown voltage of an insulation depends upon ______ value of AC voltage.

a.) r.m.s. c.) peak

b.) effective d.)1.732 of peak

81. If the number of the turns in an inductor is increased, its inductance will _____.

a.) vary b.) decrease c.) increase d.) remain in the same

82. Which of the following does NOT affect the inductance of a coil?

a.) number of turns c.) distance between turns

b.) current flowing through the coil d.) shape of the coil

83. At dc steady state, an inductor acts like ___________.

a.) an open circuit b.) a short circuit c.) a capacitor d.) an insulator

84. If the number of the turns in an inductor is increased, its inductance will

a.) vary c.) increase

b.) decrease d.) remain in the same

85. Which of the following does NOT affect the inductance of a coil?

a.) number of turns c.) distance between turns

b.) current flowing through the coil d.) shape of the coil

86. An inductive circuit has a resistance of 100 ohms and an inductance of 2 henries. What is the
impedance of the combination at W = 377 radians per second?

a.) 754 ohms c.) 682 ohms

b.) 761 ohms d.) 500 ohms

87. A capacitive load always has a ______ power factor

a.) Leading c.) Zero

b.) Lagging d.) Unity
88. In DC circuit inductance and capacitance are irrelevant In circuit analysis due to.

a.) dc supply has no frequency c.) there effect is useless in dc circuits

b.) they do not exist in dc circuits d.) all of these

89. Inductance and capacitance are not considerations in a DC current for which of the following
reasons:

a.) DC supply has no frequency b.) DC supply carries power equal

c.) Both of the above d.) None of the above

90. In a pure capacitance?

a.) Current leads voltage by 90⁰ b.) Current leads voltage by 180⁰
c.) Current lags voltage by 90⁰ d.) Current lags voltage by 180⁰

91. A circuit has a capacitance of 35 microfarad and an inductance of 0.2 H. Calculate the resonant
frequency of the circuit.

a. 65 Hz c. 50 Hz
b. 60 Hz d. 55 Hz

92. Which of the following is a property of a resonant circuit?

a.) total voltage and total current are in phase b.) power factor is zero
c.) total reactance is zero d.) all of these

93. The impedance of a series resonant circuit is_____.

a.) minimum b.) maximum c.) either A or B d.) approximately zero

94. For screw shell devices with attached leads, the conductor attached to the screw shell shall be _____
in color.

a.) White or gray b.) Orange c.) Green d.) Black

95. The Code requires which of the following colors for the equipment grounding conductor?

a.) White or gray b.) Green or green with yellow stripes

c.) Yellow d.) Blue with a yellow stripe

96. An insulated grounded conductor of 14 mm² or smaller shall be identified by a continuous ______
outer finish along its entire length.

a.) green b.) black

c.) green with yellow stripes d.) white or natural gray

97. Which of the following colors identifies the grounded conductor of a branch circuit?

a.) Green b.) Black c.) White d.) Blue

98. Insulated wires shall be marked or tagged with which of the following?

a.) maximum rated voltage b.) proper type letters

c.) manufacturer identification d.) all of these

99. What is the temperature rating of THW insulation?

a.) 60 °C c.) 75 °C
b.) 85 °C d.) 90 °C

100. The ampacity of type UF cable shall be of that ____ conductor.

a.) 60 °F c.) 60 °C
b.) 140 °C d.) 75 °C

101. What is the temperature rating of THHN insulation?

a.) 60 °C c.) 85 °C
b.) 90 °C d.) 75 °C

102. What is the temperature rating of a TW insulated conductor?

a.) 60°C c.) 75°C

b.) 90°C d.) 100°C

103. Insulated conductors used in wet locations shall be

a.) MTW c.) THHN

b.) asbestos d.) varnished cambric

104. The ampacity of type UF cable shall be of that ____ conductor.

a.) 60 °F c.) 60 °C
b.) 140 °C d.) 75 °C

105. What is the temperature rating of THHN insulation?

a.) 60 °C c.) 85 °C
b.) 90 °C d.) 75 °C

106. What is the temperature rating of a TW insulated conductor?

a.) 60°C c.) 75°C

b.) 90°C d.) 100°C

107. The conductor with the highest insulation temperature rating is__.

a.) THWN c.) RHH

b.) RH d.) THW

108. If the trade name of the conductor is "heat-resistant rubber", what type letter is it?

a.) type RHH c.) type THHW

b.) type RHW d.) type MTW
109. When derating the ampacity of multi-conductor cables to be installed in cable tray, the ampacity
duration shall be based on ____.
l. the total number of current carrying conductors in the cable tray
ll. the total number of current carrying conductors in the cable.

a.) l only c.) either l or ll

b.) ll only d.) both l and ll

110. For four to six conductors in a conduit, the derating factor for the conductor ampacity is _____.

A. 70% C. 80%
B. 90% D. 60%

111. Installing more than three current carrying conductors in the same conduit requires _______.

a.) A larger conduit c.) Derating of ampacity

b.) High heat rated conductors d.) continuous loading

112. The derating factors for sheet metal auxiliary gutters shall be applied only where the number of
current-carrying conductors exceeds _.

a.) 15 conductors c.) 30 conductors

b.) 25 conductors d.) 10 conductors

113. The means of identification of each ungrounded conductor of a branch circuit, wherever accessible,
ma be by _.

a.) tagging, or other equally effective means b.) marking tape

c.) separate color coding d.) all of these

114. The means of identification of each ungrounded conductor of a branch circuit, wherever accessible,
ma be by _.

a.) tagging, or other equally effective means b.) marking tape

c.) separate color coding d.) all of these

115. Ohm’s law is ____.

a.) An equation for determining power

b.) The relationship between voltage, current and power
c.) The relationship between voltage, current and resistance
d.) A measurement of wattage losses

116. Resistance opposes the flow of current in a circuit and is measured in ____.

a.) Farads b.) Joules c.) Ohms d.) Henrys

117. The condition of Ohm's law is that

a.) the temperature should remain constant

b.) the temperature should vary
c.) ratio V/І should be constant
d.) current should be proportional to voltage

118. When using Ohm's law IR would solve for ____.

a.) amperage b.) resistance c.) electrical power d.) voltage

119. The curve representing Ohm's Law is

a.) a parabola b.) sine function c.) linear d.) a hyperbola

120. According to Ohm's Law, current is directly proportional to

a.) temperature b.) resistance c.) voltage d.) charge

121. When using Ohm's Law, E/R would solve ___________.

a.) voltage b.) resistance c.) current d.) power

122. Ohm's law is applicable to ___________.

a.) electric arcs b.) gas discharge lamps c.) rectifying devices d.) none of these

123. What is the formula for Ohm's Law?

a.) V=I+R b.) I=VxR c.) V= I/R d.) I= V/R

124. Which of the following is the statement of Ohm's law?

a.) Electric current is directly proportional to both voltage and resistance

b.) Electric current varies directly as the voltage and inversely as the resistance
c.) Electrical power is directly proportional to the resistance and inversely as the current squared
d.) Electrical power is directly proportional to both voltage squared and the resistance

125. Question: 120V supplies a lamp that has a resistance of 192 ohms. What’s the current flow in the
circuit?

(a) 0.50A (b) 0.60A (c) 1.30A (d) 2.50A

126. Question: What’s the voltage drop over two 12 AWG conductors (resistance of 0.20 ohms per 100
ft) supplying a 16A load located 50 ft from the power supply?

(a) 1.60V ( b) 3.20V (c) 16V (d) 32V

127. Question: What’s the resistance of the circuit conductors when the conductor voltage drop is 3V
and the current flowing in the circuit is 100A?

(a) 0.03 ohms (b) 2 ohms (c) 30 ohms (d) 300 ohms

128. Question: What’s the power loss in watts for two conductors that carry 12A and have a voltage
drop of 3.60V?

(a) 4.30W (b) 24W (c) 43.20W (d) 432W

129. Question: What’s the current flow in amperes through a 7.50 kW heat strip rated 230V when
connected to a 230V power supply?

(a) 25A (b) 33A (c) 39A (d) 230A

130. A dwelling unit is_____.

a.) One unit of an apartment
b.) One or more rooms used by one or more persons
c.) One or more rooms with space for eating, living, and sleeping
d.) One or more rooms used as a housekeeping unit and having permanent cooking and sanitation
provisions
131. Two or more ungrounded conductors with equal voltage running between them and a grounded
conductor is considered which of the following:

a.) Control circuit b.) Feeder c.) Branch circuit d.) Loop feed

132. To measure the area of a dwelling to determine the lighting load, the following dimensions are
used:

a.) The floor area computed from the inside dimensions b.) The cubic feet of each room
c.) The floor area computed from the outside dimensions d.) The area six inches from the inside
walls

133. For dwelling units, the computed floor area at 24 VA per square meter does not include ____.

a.) unused spaces not adaptable for future use

b.) Garages
c.) open porches
d.) all of these

134. The branch circuit loads specified by the Code for lighting and receptacles are considered_____.

a.) minimum loads b.) maximum loads c.) loads to be served d.) Peak loads

135. Branch circuit conductors shall have an ampacity not less than_____.
a.) The load increased 125%
b.) 100% of the load to be served
c.) 80% of the load to be served
d.) 125% of the continuous load plus 80% of the non-continuous load

136. The branch circuit rating shall NOT be less than _____ of the non-continuous load.

a. 125% c. 100%
b. 80% d. 115%

137. Branch circuit conductors shall have an ampacity not less than_____.

a.) The load increased 125%

b.) 100% of the load to be served
c.) 80% of the load to be served
d.) 125% of the continuous load plus 80% of the non-continuous load

138. Where a branch circuit supplies continuous load or any combination of continuous and
noncontinuous load, the minimum branch circuit conductors size before the application of any
adjustment or correction shall have an allowable ampacity not less than the non-continuous load plus
____ percent of the continuous load

a.) 110 c.) 120

b.) 115 d.) 125

139. Wall-mounted ovens and counter-mounted cooking units are permitted to be:

a.) Cord- and plug-connected b.) Permanently connected

c.) Both A and B d.) Neither A or B

140. The minimum branch-circuit rating for household electric ranges with a rating of 8.75 kW or more
is:

a.) 30 amperes b.) 40 amperes c.) 50 amperes d.) 60 amperes

141. Tap conductors for household cooking equipment supplied from a 50 amp branch circuit shall have
an ampacity of not less than ______.

a.) 50 b.) 70 c.) 20 d.) 80

142. The_____ shall not be less than the continuous load plus 125% of the continuous load.

a.) conductor size b.) branch circuit rating

c.) non continuous load d.) continuous load

143. The continuous load supplied by a branch circuit shall not exceed the branch circuit rating by more
than _____ percent.

a.) 50 b.) 60 c.) 80 d.) 90

144. A heavy duty lamp holder shall have a rating no less than how many watts?

a.) 450 W b.) 500 W c.) 600 W d.) 660 W

145. A branch circuit that supplies only one utilization equipment.

a.) Individual branch circuit b.) Special purpose branch circuit

c.) Appliance branch circuit d.) Single branch circuit

146. An individual branch circuit is rated at 20 amperes and serves a single receptacle in a single family
dwelling. What is the required minimum rating of the receptacle if this is the only load on the circuit?

a.) 15 amperes b.) 20 amperes c.) 25 amperes d.) 30 amperes

147. The rating of any cord and plug connected utilization equipment shall NOT exceed ______ of the
branch circuit rating.

A. 100 % C. 125 %
b.) 80 % D. 90 %

148. What is the minimum rating allowed for a single receptacle connected to a branch circuit?

a.) Not less than that of the branch circuit

b.) Not less than 85% of the branch circuit rating
c.) Not less than 90% of the branch circuit rating
d.) Not less than 70% of the branch circuit rating

149. Branch circuit that supply a number of outlets for lighting and appliance.

a.) Multi-purpose branch circuit b.) Special branch circuit

c.) Individual branch circuit d.) General purpose branch circuit

150. In dwelling units, the voltage between conductors shall not exceed 230 volts nominal between
conductors that supply the terminals of.

a.) lighting fixture

b.) cord-and -plug connected loads of less than 1440 VA nominal
c.) cord-and-plug connected loads of more than 1440 VA nominal
d.) A and B
151. In a dwelling the Code requires a minimum of ____.
I. two or more 20 amp circuits for the small appliance circuits
II. one 20 amp circuit for the washing machine
llI. one 20 amp circuit for the bathroom

a.) l only c.) l and lll only

b.) l and ll only d.) l, ll and lll

152. The minimum number of branch circuits shall be determined from the ____.

a.) total computed load and the size of disconnected needed

b.) total computed load and the rating of the circuits used
c.) size or rating of the circuits
d.) minimum number required by the PEC

153. Heavy-duty type lamp holders are required on branch-circuits having a rating in excess of:

a.) 20 amperes B) 30 amperes c.) 40 amperes d.) 15 amperes

154. In estimating the loading of a branch circuit, what loading shall be used for each receptacle?

a.) 160 volt-ampere b.) 120 volt-ampere

c.) 180 volt-ampere d.) 150 volt-ampere

155. Outlets for heavy-duty lamp holders shall be rated

a.) 500 VA b.) 600 VA c.) 660 VA d.) 550 VA

156. All of the conductors in a multi-wire branch circuit must meet which of the following requirements:

a.) Originate from the same panelboard

b.) Terminate at the same location
c.) Originate from the same feeder
d.) None of the above

157. In dwelling units, a multiwire branch circuit supplying a split-wired receptacle is require to ______.

a.) have color-coded conductors to aid in identification

b.) carry an individual neutral for each ungrounded conductor
c.) have a provision at the source to simultaneosly disconnect all ungrounded conductors
d.) have a minimum of two neutrals

158. If a multiwire branch circuit supplies line-to-line loads, the branch-circuit protective device must
open each:

a.) All ungrounded conductors simultaneously

b.) Grounded conductor
c.) Ungrounded conductor individually
d.) Bonding conductor

159. A motor controller that also serves as a disconnecting means:

a.) Shall open all ungrounded conductors to the motor simultaneously

b.) Shall not be required to open all conductors to the motor
c.) Shall open only grounded conductors
d.) Shall open only one current-carrying conductor
160. The disconnecting means for individual electrically driven irrigation machine motors and controllers
shall comply with which of the following:

a.) Be capable of simultaneously disconnecting all ungrounded conductors for each motor and
controller
b.) Be readily accessible
c.) Shall not be located more than 75 feet from the machine location
d.) All of the above

161. All light fixtures connected to separately derived sensitive electronics systems operating at 60 volts
to ground must have which of the following:

a.) A disconnect means located within sight of the luminaire and that can be locked in the open position
b.) A disconnection means that simultaneously opens all ungrounded conductors
c.) An exposed lamp screw-shell
d.) All of the above

162. An emergency system power source must have adequate capacity to do which of the following:

a.) Safely carry emergency loads independently of each other

b.) Provide emergency power for up to 10 hours
c.) Safely carry all emergency loads expected to operate simultaneously
d.) None of the above

163. A multiwire branch circuit may be used to supply which of the following:

a.) A 120/240 volt system to one piece of utilization equipment

b.) A 120/240 volt system where all conductors are opened simultaneously
c.) Both of the above
d.) None of the above

164. A branch circuit that consists of at least two ungrounded conductors with a potential difference
between them and an identified grounded conductor which has equal potential between it and each of
the ungrounded conductors is considered which of the following:

a.) A split branch circuit

b.) A multi-wire branch circuit
c.) A total of two outlets
d.) One outlet at the front and one at the back of the unit

165. If a multiwire branch circuit supplies line-to-line loads, the branch-circuit protective device must
open each:

a.) All ungrounded conductors simultaneously

B) Grounded conductor
c.) Ungrounded conductor individually
d.) Bonding conductor

166. A receptacle connection made in the white wire of a multiwire circuit shall be made in accordance
with which of the following:

a.) The white wire shall be attached to the receptacle box

b.) With a pigtail to the silver terminal
c.) Grounded to a brass screw
d.) All of the above
167. Which of the following is NOT a cause for a generator to vibrate?

a.) Misalignment b.) Loose pigtails c.) Loose bolts d.) Faulty speed governor

168. Pigtails are used on brushes to _______.

a.) Compensate for wear

b.) Supply the proper brush tension
c.) Make a good electrical connection
d.) Hold the brush in the holder

169. If the number of the turns in an inductor is increased, its inductance will _____.

a.) vary b.) decrease c.) increase d.) remain in the same

170. Which of the following does NOT affect the inductance of a coil?

a.) number of turns c.) distance between turns

b.) current flowing through the coil d.) shape of the coil

171. At dc steady state, an inductor acts like ___________.

a.) an open circuit b.) a short circuit c.) a capacitor d.) an insulator

172. The property that opposes any change in current.

a.) impedance b.) resistance c.) inductance d.) capacitance

173. The current will lead the voltage when _____.

a.) Inductive reactance exceeds the capacitive reactance in the circuit.

b.) Reactance exceeds the resistance in the circuit.
c.) Resistance exceeds the reactance in the circuit.
d.) Capacitive reactance exceeds the inductive reactance in the circuit.

174. With the increase of frequency, the capacitive reactance of the circuit

a.) decrease b.) increases c.) remains same d.) none of the above

175. The power factor of a purely inductive circuit is.

a.) zero b.) lagging c.) leading d.) unity

176. The power factor of a purely capacitive circuit is.

a.) zero b.) lagging c.) leading d.) unity

177. In DC circuit inductance and capacitance are irrelevant In circuit analysis due to.

a.) dc supply has no frequency b.) they do not exist in dc circuits

c.) there effect is useless in dc circuits d.) all of these

178. In a DC circuit, the ratio of watts to volt-amperes is_____.

a.) Unity b.) Greater than one

c.) Less than one d.) Cannot tell what it might be

179. Watts are equal to which of the following:

a.) Voltage divided by amps
b.) Amps multiplied by voltage times the power factor
c.) Ohms multiplied by amps and divided by the power factor
d.) None of the above

180. A 240 volt, 3-phase electric heater that draws 11 amperes and has a power factor of 1.0 produces
heat equal to which of the following:

a.) 2640 watts of heat b.) 2200 watts of heat

c.) 4567 watts of heat d.) 5280 watts of heat

181. The power factor for a single-phase 50 amp 100 volt electric motor that draws 25 watts is which of
the following:

a.) 20 b.) 0.2 c.) 0.025 d.) 0.005

182. The ratio of W/VA in an ac circuit means

a.) Power factor b.) Reactive factor

c.) Quality factor d.) Load factor

183. Power factor is equal to _____.

a.) Z/X b.) Z/R c.) X/R d.) cos Ѳ

184. In pure inductive circuit, the current will

a.) lag by 90° b.) lead by 90°

c.) remains in phrase d.) makes some angle with the voltage

185. The power factor of a R-L-C circuit of which XL > XC is

a.) Lagging b.) leading c.) zero d.) unity

186. The voltage will lead the current when the _____ in the circuit.

a.) Inductive reactance exceeds the capacitive reactance

b.) Reactance exceeds the resistance in the circuit
c.) Resistance exceeds reactance
d.) Capacitive reactance exceeds the inductive reactance

187. Which of the following is not true?

a.) It is an electrical impossibility to have a circuit with only inductive reactance because the metallic
wire has a resistance.
b.) The voltage of a circuit is the greatest effective difference of potential that exists between any two
conductors of a circuit.
c.) The current is said to lag the voltage in a circuit that has only capacitive reactance.
d.) Power factor is the phase displacement of current and voltage in and AC circuit.

188. For a series RC circuit, the circuit power factor is_____.

a.) lagging b.) leading c.) in-phase d.) zero

189. The power factor of an over-excited synchronous motor is ____.

a.) lagging b.) Leading c.) unity d.) zero

190. If the power factor of a circuit is increased, then which of the following occurs:

a.) The active power is increased

b.) The reactive power is decreased
c.) Both of the above
d.) None of the above

191. In order to correct a low power factor, which of the following should be checked first:

a.) Resistance b.) Watts c.) Inductive load d.) All of the above

192. A low power factor in an industrial plant is most likely caused by_____.

a.) Insufficient resistive loads

b.) Insufficient inductive loads
c.) Excessive resistive loads
d.) Lack of synchronous condenser

193. Which of the following is not true?

a.) A fluorescent fixture is more efficient than an incandescent fixture.

b.) room temperature has an affect on the operation of a fluorescent lamp.
c.) Fluorescent fixtures have a good power factor with the current leading the voltage.
d.) The life of a fluorescent bulb is affected by starting and stopping.

194. Of the following _____ is a false statement.

d.) the lower factor of a motor is much greater at partial loads than at full load
c.) in industrial plant, low power factor is usually due to underloaded induction motors.
b.) the term kilovolt-ampers indicate the apparent power made up of energy component and a wattless
or induction component
a.) the term kilowatt indicates the measure of power which is all available for work.

195. The power factor of an incandescent light bulb would be ____.

a.) unity b.) 0.7 leading c.) 0.7 lagging d.) zero RME Board Exam Questions

196. The approximate power factor of an electric flat iron is equal to _____.

a.) unity b.) 0.9 c.) 0.8 d.) zero