HARAMAYA UNIVERSITY

HARAMAYA INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY

DEPARTMENT OF CHEMICAL ENGINEERING
MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS
1. From the following alternatives, select the one that does not involve in mass transfer
processes.
A. Evaporation of water from the pool into an air stream flowing over the water surface
B. Pumping of a liquid through a pipe
C. Extraction of oil from cotton seed using hexane
D. Elimination of toxic gases and deodorization of air

2. Drying operation under vacuum is carried out to

A. Dry those materials which have very high unbound moisture content.
B. Reduce drying temperature.
C. Increase drying temperature.
D. Dry materials having high bound moisture content
3. Separation of two or more components of a liquid solution cannot be achieved by
A. Fractional crystallization
B. Liquid extraction
C. Absorption
D. Evaporation
4. Which of the following operations does not involve leaching?
A. Dissolving gold from ores.
B. Dissolving pharmaceutical products from bark or roots.
C. Dissolving sugar from the cells of the beet.
D. Removing nicotine from its water solution by kerosene.
5. At minimum reflux ratio for a given separation
A. Number of plates is zero.
B. Number of plates is infinity.
C. Minimum number of the theoretical plates is required.
D. Separation is most efficient.
6. The solvent used in liquid extraction should not have high latent heat of vaporization, because

1
 A. The pressure drop and hence the pumping cost will be very high.
B. It cannot be recovered by distillation.
C. Its recovery cost by distillation may be prohibitively high.
D. It will decompose while recovering by distillation.
7. Pick out the wrong statement pertaining to the analogy between equations of heat and mass
transfer operations.
A. Sherwood number in mass transfer is analogous to Nusselt number in heat transfer.
B. Prandtl number in heat transfer is analogous to Schmidt number in mass transfer.
C. Reynolds number in mass transfer is analogous to Grashoff number in heat transfer.
D. Reynolds number remains the same in both heat and mass transfer.

8. In the overall heat transfer coefficient equation is

A. Geometric mean temperature difference.
B. Arithmetic mean temperature difference.
C. Logarithmic mean temperature difference.
D. The difference of average bulk temperatures of hot and cold fluids.
9. Shell side pressure drop in a shell and tube heat exchanger does not depend upon the
A. Baffle spacing & shell diameter.
B. Tube diameter & pitch.
C. Viscosity, density & mass velocity of shell side fluid.
D. None of these.
10. Among the following which statement is correct about fouling factor?
A. It is a dimensionless quantity.
B. It does not provide a safety factor for design
C. It accounts for additional resistances to heat flow.
D. It accounts for additional fluid flow
11. Of the following, which one is less influence on the economy of a multiple effect evaporator?
A. Boiling point elevations
B. Temperature of the feed
C. Rate of heat transfer
D. Ratio of the weight of the thin liquor to thick liquor
12. The main purpose of providing fins on heat transfer surface is to increase the

2
 A. Temperature gradient.
B. Mechanical strength of the equipment.
C. Heat transfer area.
D. Heat transfer co-efficient.
13. The advantage of using a 1 - 2 shell and tube heat exchanger over a 1 - 1 shell and tube heat
exchanger is
A. Lower tube side pressure drop.
B. Lower shell side pressure drop.
C. Higher tube side heat transfers co-efficient.
D. Higher shell side heat transfers co-efficient.
14. Colburn Chilton j factor (jH factor) for heat transfer depends upon
A. Biot number
B. Nusselt number
C. Reynolds number
D. Prandtl number
15. Chemical reaction fouling can be minimized by
A. Reducing the oxygen concentration in the gaseous stream.
B. Increasing the fuel-air ratio
C. keeping a high velocity of freezable species
D. By maximizing the flow impact
16. Consider a cylinder (diameter D and length D), a sphere (diameter D), and cube (side length
D). Which of the following statements concerning the sphericity (Φ) of the above objects is
true.
A. Φsphere > Φcylinder > Φcube
B. Φsphere = Φcylinder = Φcube
C. Φsphere < Φcylinder < Φcube
D. Φcylinder > Φsphere = Φcube
17. Two identically sized spherical particles of A and B having densities of ρ A and ρB,
respectively, are settling in a fluid of density ρ. Assuming free settling under turbulent flow
conditions, the ration of the terminal settling velocity of particle A to that of particle B is
given by:

3
 A.

B.

C.

D.
18. Match the equipment in Column A with the corresponding process in Column B

Column A Column B
(P) Centrifugal sifter (I) Mixing
(Q) Ball mill (II) Sedimentation
(R) Gravity thickener (III) Screening
(S) Two-arm kneader (IV) Grinding

A. P-I, Q-IV, R-II, S-III

B. P-III, Q-IV, R-II, S-I
C. P-IV, Q-I, R-II, S-III
D. P-IV, Q-III, R-I, S-II
19. Which of the following is the correct sequence of equipment for size reduction of solids?
A. Fluid energy mill, jaw crusher, hammer mill
B. Hammer mill, jaw crusher, fluid energy mill
C. Fluid energy mill, hammer mill, jaw crusher
D. Jaw crusher, hammer mill, fluid energy mill
20. Filter aids like asbestos, kieselguhr, diatomaceous earth etc. are used to increase the porosity
of the final filter cake & reducing the cake resistance during filtration. Filter aid is
A. Added to the feed slurry
B. Precoated on the filter medium prior to filtration
C. Separated from the cake by dissolving solids or by burning it off
D. All

4
21. Rittinger's number designates the new surface created per unit mechanical energy absorbed
by the material being crushed. Larger value of Rittinger's number of a material indicates its
A. Easier grindability
B. Poor grindability
C. High power consumption in grinding
D. None of the above.
22. Which of the following mechanical conveyors does not categorized under ‘carriers”?
A. Belt conveyor
B. Bucket elevator
C. Screw conveyor
D. Apron conveyor
23. Which of the following statements is correct pertainaing to centrifugal pump?
A. Discharge varies with the square of the speed
B. Power varies with the square of the speed
C. Discharge varies directly with the speed
D. Head varies inversely with the speed
24. Select the most appropriate pump from Group 2 to handle each fluid flow given in Group 1.

Column 1 Column 2
(1) piston pump
P. Highly viscous fluid flow
(2) gear pump
(3) plunger pump
Q. Fluid containing large amounts of abrasive fluids
(4) centrifugal pump

A. P (2), Q (1)
B. P (2), Q (4)
C. P (3). Q (4)
D. P (4), Q (3)
25. Which of the following pumps is used for pumping viscous fluids?
A. Centrifugal pump
B. Screw pump
C. Reciprocating pump

5
 D. Jet pump
26. Which one is wrong statement about theories of positive displacement compressors?

A. Reciprocating compressors suffer higher losses due to clearance volumes, resistance due
to discharge and suction valves and more weight
B. A diffuser section in centrifugal compressor coverts velocity energy to mechanical
energy
C. Screw compressors have fewer moving components, less vibration and surging and can
operate at variable speeds
D. Rotary vane compressors can be either stationary or portable, single or multi-staged and
driven be electric motors or internal combustion engines
27. Pick out the correct assumption concerning the Vane congruent flow
A. The impeller passages are completely filled with actively flowing fluid at all times (no
dead zone).
B. The relative path of a fluid element of the flow medium is not congruent to the blade
course.
C. The velocities of the fluid elements at similar points along the flow lines are not the same.
D. The relative path of a fluid element of the flow medium is congruent to the impeller
course.

28. A closed-loop process with a transfer function is to be controlled by a P-only

controller. If , then which of the following produces a stable

closed-loop response for the system?

29. In a specific process, the transfer functions of a process, the control valve, and the

measurement are given as and tuning of the

process parameters is needed. Considering the given values, which of the following are the
settings of a PID controller using the Ziegler-Nichols method?

6
30. The unit step response of the first-order system with transfer function is

31. Identify the wrong statement considering the correlated term

A. P-controller has maximum offset
B. Offset is zero in the PID-controller
C. Offset is zero in the PD controller
D. None
32. Which of the following is correctly matched for the indication of the response of system
properties?
y(t)
y(t)

0 5 10
0 5 10
time[min] time[min]
(I); (II);
y(t)

y(t)

0 5 10 0 5 10
time[min] (III); time[min] (IV)

7
 A. Negative real part complex poles (II), Positive real poles (I), Negative real poles (IV),
Positive real part complex poles (III)
B. Negative real part complex poles (II), Negative real poles (I), Positive real poles (IV),
Positive real part complex poles (III)
C. Imaginary poles (II), Negative real poles (I), Positive real poles (IV), Positive real part
complex poles (III)
D. Negative real part complex poles (II), Positive real poles (I), Negative real poles (IV),
Imaginary poles (III)
33. In a particular control system, a response of a linear system for a change in set point is
known as
A. Servo problem
B. Regulator problem
C. Transient response
D. Frequency response
34. For the stirred tank heater shown in the Figure 1, what will be the dynamic state model, and
degree of freedom for the system, respectively?

Figure 1: stirred tank heater

8
35. Which of the following is not a component of working capital?
A. Raw materials are stock
B. Finished products in stock
C. Transportation facilities
D. Semi-finished products in the process
36. The relation between capital rate of return ratio (CRR), net present value (NPV) and
maximum cumulative expenditure (MCE) is

A.

B.
C.

D.
37. Design factors are necessary for:
A. Ensuring that the built design meets product specifications and operates safely
B. Increasing production cost
C. Reducing errors and uncertainties to increase the safety and performance of the design
D. A and C are correct
38. Effluent treatment cost in a chemical plant is categorized as:
A. Fixed cost
B. Overhead cost

9
 C. Utilities cost
D. Capital cost
39. For a typical project life, cumulative cash flow is zero at the:
A. End of the design stage
B. End of the project life
C. Breakeven point
D. Start up
40. Chemical engineering plant cost index is used for finding the present cost of a particular
chemical plant, if the cost of similar plant at some time in the past is known.
The present cost of the plant = original cost × (index value at present/ index value at time
original cost was obtained). The most major component of this cost index is:
A. Fabricated equipment and machinery
B. Process instruments and control
C. Pumps and compressor
D. Electrical equipment and material
41. Which of the following production methods of ammonia is economically most efficient?
A. Coal gasification
B. Partial oxidation of fuel oil
C. Steam reforming of natural gas
D. Water electrolysis
42. In contact process, SO3 is absorbed in 98.5% H2SO4 and not in water, because

A. SO3 gas is sparingly soluble in water.

B. Water forms an acid mist, which is difficult to absorb.

C. The purity of acid is affected.

D. To avoid scale formation in the absorber

43. Which of the following is incorrect about industrial coating?

A. They are defined by protective properties

B. They are used for the purpose of aesthetics or decoration

10
 C. They are used in offshore platforms, bridges, underground pipeline

D. They are used for enhancing durability in presence of environmental stress

44. Which one of the following statement is true about centrifugation process in
sugarcane processing?
A. It separates sugar from molasses

B. Carried out in single effect high vacuum boiling pans

C. Brix are increased from 65o to 75o by boiling at 60ºC

D. Steam used to evaporate juice and increase its concentration

45. Pick out the wrong statement pertaining to the use of valve tray, sieve tray and bubble cap
trays in continuous distillation column.
A. Bubble cap trays though most expensive are the best in situations, where low vapour
rates is to be handled and a positive liquid seal is essential at all flow rates.
B. Murphree efficiency of all the three trays are nearly equal, however the peak
efficiency is generally higher for sieve and valve trays than the bubble cap.
C. Maintenance cost for valve and sieve trays are comparatively more than bubble cap
tray due to their relatively complicated construction features.
D. Valve trays have the highest turn down ratio (i.e. the ratio of the highest to the lowest
vapour flow rates) and thus provide the maximum flexible operating range.

46. Which of the following material is infrequently used for pressure vessel construction?

A. Rimmed steel

B. Mild steel

C. Killed steel

D. Semi-killed steel

47. 25 per cent cut segmental baffle means that the baffle

A. Height is 75% of the I.D. of the shell.

B. Height is 25% of the I.D. of the shell.

11
 C. Spacing is 75% of its height.

D. Width is 25% of its height.

48. Pick out the wrong statement about the design of a sieve plate column.

A. An increased weir height improves the tray efficiency at the cost of high plate
pressure drop; optimum wear height being 40-90 mm for column pressure above
atmospheric and 6-12 mm for vacuum columns.
B. For segmental down comers, the chord length is 60-80% of the column diameter. An
initial value of down comer area of 12% is taken in the design.
C. Width of the calming section provided at the inlet and outlet sides of the plate is 75
mm for column diameter below 1.5 m and 100 mm for larger diameter columns.
D. Minimum recommended down comer residence time for the disengagement of
entrained vapour is the same for both foaming and non-foaming liquids, which is
about 20 seconds.

49. Floating head heat exchangers are used for the:

A. Heat transfer between corrosive fluids.

B. Cases where temperature difference between the shell and the tubes is more (>50°C).

C. Co-current heat transfer systems.

D. Counter-current heat transfer systems.

50. In a shell and tube heat exchanger, triangular pitch arrangement as compared to square pitch
arrangement:
A. Results in higher shell side pressure drop.

B. Can accommodate less number of tubes for a given shell diameter.

C. Facilitates easier shell side cleaning; hence is more suitable for handling high dirt
factor shell side fluid.
D. Creates relatively lower turbulence on the shell side resulting in lower shell side
E. Heat transfer co-efficient.
51. A classical uncompetitive inhibitor is a compound that binds
A. reversibly to the enzyme substrate complex yielding an inactive ESI complex

12
 B. irreversibly to the enzyme substrate complex yielding an inactive ESI complex
C. reversibly to the enzyme substrate complex yielding an active ESI complex
D. irreversibly to the enzyme substrate complex yielding an active ESI complex
52. When two populations compete for a single growth limiting substrate in a continuous
fermenter, which organism would not be washed out?
A. Organism maintaining the highest substrate concentration
B. Organism maintaining the lowest substrate concentration
C. Organism maintaining the moderate substrate concentration
D. Organism maintaining the highest and lowest substrate concentration
53. Which of the statement is true for continuous Bio-reactor at steady state?
A. The rates of biomass, substrate and product concentrations are zero
B. Biomass, substrate and product concentrations are zero
C. Biomass, substrate and product concentrations do not change with time
D. Biomass, substrate and product concentrations change with time
54. Which one of the following is not serve to convert starch into high fructose corn syrup
(HFCS)?
A. α-amylase
B. Gluco-isomerase
C. Gluco-amylase
D. Maltose
55. Which of the statement is true for continuous Bio-reactor at steady state?
A. The rates of biomass, substrate and product concentrations are zero
B. Biomass, substrate and product concentrations are zero
C. Biomass, substrate and product concentrations do not change with time
D. Biomass, substrate and product concentrations change with time
56. Which one of the following can be represented the overall del factor (Δ) in sterilization
process?
A. Δoverall = Δheating + Δholding- Δcooling
B. Δoverall = Δheating + Δholding+ Δcooling
C. Δoverall = Δheating - Δholding+ Δcooling
D. Δoverall = Δheating - Δholding- Δcooling

13
57. Which of the following option clearly defines heat transfer?
A. The transmission of energy as a result of temperature gradient
B. The transmission of energy as a result of concentration gradient
C. The transmission of energy as a result of difference in equilibrium conditions
D. The transmission of energy as a result of difference in thermal conductivity
58. Among the following options, about the modes of heat transfer, identify the one with a wrong
explanation.
A. Convection is the transfer of heat within a fluid by mixing of one portion of a fluid with
the other
B. Conduction is the transfer of heat from one part of a substance to another part of the
same substance
C. Radiation is a transfer of heat through space or matter
D. In conduction heat transfer, the molecules forming the substance can be appreciably
displaced
59. When a drop of water falls on a red hot stove, it dances a few times in the stove without
immediate evaporation. Which one of the following explains this condition?
A. Film boiling
B. Nucleate boiling
C. Surface evaporation
D. None
60. Among the modes of mass transfer, which one is not related with the concept of dissipation
of waste gases or smoke from the smoke stack (chimney)?
A. Mass transfer by convection
B. Mass transfer by change of phase
C. Mass transfer by diffusion
D. B & C
61. A composite wall consists of two layers of different materials having conductivities k1 and k2.
For equal thickness (L) of the two layers, the equivalent thermal conductivity of the slab will
be:
A. k1 + k2

14
 2k1k 2
B.
k 1+k 2
k 1+ k 2
C.
k1k 2
D. k1 k2
62. The Nusselt number in natural heat transfer is a function of fluid Prandtl number and
A. Stanton number
B. Biot number
C. Grashoff number
D. Reynolds number
63. The rate of heat transfer through a plan layer is proportional to the temperature gradient
across the layer and heat transfer area” is well explained by:
A. Fourier’s law
B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
64. Which ONE of the following is CORRECT for an ideal gas in a closed system?

A.

B.

C.

D.
65. The four properties of a system such as pressure (P), volume (V), temperature (T) and
entropy (S) are related by:

A. Gibbs-Duhem equation

B. Gibbs-Helmholtz equation

C. Maxwell's equation

15
 D. Clausius Clapeyron equation

66. indicates the mathematical expression of:

A. Joule-Thomson co-efficient

B. Specific heat at constant pressure (Cp)

C. Co-efficient of thermal expansion

D. Specific heat at constant volume (CV)

67. Which of the following diagrams does not represent an Otto cycle?

68. A refrigeration cycle is a reversed heat engine. Which of the following has the maximum
value of the co-efficient of performance (COP) for a given refrigeration effect?
A. Vapor compression cycle using expansion valve.
B. Air refrigeration cycle.
C. Vapor compression cycle using expansion engine.
D. Carnot refrigeration cycle.

69. The equation, is applicable to a binary solution of components. A and B in

equilibrium with their vapors at constant temperature and pressure is known as:

16
 A. Van Laar equation

B. Margules equation

C. Gibbs-Duhem equation

D. Gibbs-Duhem-Margules equation

70. Which of the following is a thermodynamic property of a system?

A. Concentration

B. Mass

C. Temperature

D. Entropy

71. Which of the following is not an intensive property?

A. Chemical potential

B. Surface tension

C. Heat capacity

D. None of these.
72. For an ideal liquid solution, which of the following is unity?
A. Activity
B. Fugacity
C. Activity co-efficient
D. Fugacity co-efficient
73. A liquid phase exothermic first order reaction is being conducted in a batch reactor under
isothermal conditions by removing heat generated in the reactor with the help of cooling
water. The cooling water flows at a very high rate through a coil immersed in the reactor
such that there is negligible rise in its temperature from inlet to outlet of the coil. If the rate
constant is given as k, heat of reaction (-ΔH), volume of the reactor V, initial concentration as
CAO, overall heat transfer coefficient U, heat transfer area of the coil is equal to A, the
required cooling water inlet temperature, Tci is given by:

17
 A.

B.

C.

D.
74. In order to achieve the same conversion under identical reaction conditions and feed flow
rate for a non-autocatalytic reaction of positive order, the volume of an ideal CSTR is
A. Always greater than that of an ideal PFR
B. Always smaller than that of an ideal PFR
C. Same as that of an ideal PFR
D. Smaller than that of an ideal PFR only for first order reaction
75. For a solid-catalyzed reaction, the Thiele Modulus is proportional to:

A.

B.

C.

D.
76. Which of the following will give maximum gas conversion?
A. Fixed bed reactor
B. Fluidized bed reactor
C. Semi-fluidized bed reactor
D. Plug-flow catalytic reactor

18
77. What is the order of a chemical reaction, , if the rate of formation of 'C',
increases by a factor of 2.82 on doubling the concentration of 'A' and increases by a factor of
9 on trebling the concentration of 'B'?
A. 7/2
B. 7/4
C. 5/2
D. 5/4
78. Pick out the wrong statement pertaining to space velocity of flow reactors.
A. The unit of space velocity is (hour)-1.
B. Space velocity is the reciprocal of space time.
C. The space velocity of 3 hr-1 means that three reactor volumes of feed at specified
conditions are being fed into the reactor every hour.
D. The space velocity of 3 hr-1 means that one third reactor volume of feed at specified
conditions are being fed into the reactor.
79. Consider two steady isothermal flow configurations shown schematically as Case I and Case
II in Figure 1. In Case I, a CSTR of volume V1 is followed by a PFR of volume V2, while in
Case II a PFR of volume V2 is followed by a CSTR of volume V1. In each case, a volumetric
flow rate of Q of liquid reactant is flowing through the two units in series. An irreversible
reaction (order n) takes place in both cases, with a reactant concentration CA0
being fed into the first unit.

19
Figure 1. Schematic configuration of CSTR and PFR connected in series

Choose the correct option

A.

B.

C.

D.
80. For a heterogeneous catalytic reaction
A. Free energy of activation is lowered in the presence of catalyst, which remains unchanged
at the end of reaction.
B. A relatively small amount of catalyst can cause the conversion of large amount of
reactants which does not mean that catalyst concentration is important.

20
 C. The catalyst does not form an intermediate complex with the reactant.
D. The surface of the catalyst does not play an important role during reaction.
81. For a solid catalyzed chemical reaction, the effectiveness of solid catalyst depends upon the
A. Physical adsorption
B. Chemical adsorption
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. Neither (a) nor (b)
82. Pick out the wrong statement about chemical reactors.
A. In a batch reactor, which is exclusively used for liquid phase reactions; temperature
pressure and composition may vary with time.
B. In a semi-batch reactor, one reactant is charged batch-wise, while the other reactant is
fed continuously.
C. In a continuous flow reactor, uniform concentration cannot be maintained throughout
the vessel even in a well agitated system.
D. In a continuous flow reactor, both the reactants and the products flow out continuously.
83. The rate constant of a chemical reaction will increases by:
A. Increasing the temperature
B. Decreasing the temperature
C. Increasing concentration of reactant
D. increasing pressure
84. When the reaction is exothermic, in which one of the following chemical reactor does the
hotspot problem can occur?
A. Stirred tank reactor
B. Plug flow reactor
C. Batch reactor
D. Fluidized bed reactor
85. Which of the following statements are correct?
P) For a rheopectic fluid, the apparent viscosity increases with time under a constant applied
shear stress
Q) For a pseudoplastic fluid, the apparent viscosity decreases with time under a constant
applied shear stress

21
 R) For a Bingham plastic, the apparent viscosity increases exponentially with the
deformation rate
S) For a dilatant fluid, the apparent viscosity increases with increasing deformation rate
A. P and Q only
B. Q and R only
C. R and S only
D. P and S only
86. The fluid property, due to which, mercury does not wet the glass is
A. Surface tension
B. Viscosity
C. Cohesion
D. Adhesion
87. Water hammer in a pipeline results from the
A. Bursting of pipelines due to closure by a valve.
B. Rapid pressure change due to a rapid change in the rate of flow.
C. Pressure increase due to closure of a valve resulting in decrease in rate of flow.
D. None of these.
88. Which of the following denotes the effect of compressibility in fluid flow?
A. Weber number
B. Mach number
C. Euler number
D. Reynolds number
89. The dimension of dynamic viscosity is
A. ML-1T-1
B. L2T-1
C. LT-2
D. ML-1T-2
90. In fluid flow, cavitation is caused, if the
A. Fluid velocity decreases to zero.
B. Total energy decreases.
C. Both (A) and (B).

22
 D. Flow pressure approaches its vapor pressure at the prevailing temperature.
91. Match the following

Group 1 Group 2
(P) Euler number (1) Viscous force/inertial force
(Q) Froude number (2) Pressure force/inertial force
(3) Inertial force/gravitational force
(R) Weber number
(4) inertial force/surface tension force

A. (P)- (1), (Q)- (2), (R)- (3)

B. (P)- (2), (Q)- (3), (R)- (4)
C. (P)- (3), (Q)- (2), (R)- (1)
D. (P)- (4), (Q)- (3), (R)- (2)
92. What causes convective acceleration in fluid flow?
A. Steep slope in flow
B. Unsteady nature of flow
C. Non-uniformity of flow
D. Turbulence in flow
93. From the general material balance, which of the following is correct concerning steady state
systems?
A. Accumulation of the system is equal to zero.
B. Accumulation of the system is greater than zero.
C. Production of the system is equal to zero.
D. Input and output of the system are equal.

94. The heat change for the reaction, C (s) + 2S (s) → CS2 (l), is 104.2 kJ. It represents the heat
of:
A. Formation
B. Solution
C. Combustion
D. Fusion

23
95. The latent heat of vaporization
A. Decreases with increasing temperature.
B. Decreases as pressure increases.
C. Become zero at critical point
D. All
96. Validity of the relationships inputs = outputs, holds applicable for the system at steady state
A. With chemical reaction
B. Without chemical reaction
C. Without chemical reaction and losses
D. None of these
97. Which of the following unit works in anaerobic conditions?
A. Sludge digestion tank
B. Sedimentation tank
C. Activated sludge treatment
D. Trickling filters
98. Which processes are considered as a secondary stage of wastewater treatment?
A. screening, sedimentation and flotation processes
B. adsorption, membrane filtration, ozonation and advanced oxidation processes
C. aeration, trickling filter, the activated sludge and disinfection processes
D. All of the above
99. Which of the following parameter does not affect the dosage of the coagulant?
A. Turbidity of water
B. Time of settlement
C. Temperature of water
D. Viscosity of water
100. For a given discharge, the efficiency of sedimentation tank can be increased by:
A. Decreasing depth of the tank
B. Decreasing surface area of the tank
C. Increasing surface area of the tank
D. Increasing depth of the tank

24
Table 1. Answer key for all multiple choice questions

1. B 2. A 3. D 4. B 5. C 6. C

7. C 8. C 9. D 10. C 11. A 12. C

13. C 14. C 15. A 16. A 17. A 18. B

19. D 20. D 21. A 22. C 23. C 24. B

25. B 26. B 27. A 28. C 29. A 30. B

25
31. C 32. C 33. A 34. B 35. D 36. A

37. D 38. C 39. C 40. C 41. C 42. B

43. B 44. A 45. C 46. A 47. A 48. D

49. B 50. A 51. B 52. B 53. C 54. D

55. C 56. B 57. A 58. D 59. A 60. D

61. C 62. C 63. A 64. D 65. C 66. C

67. C 68. D 69. D 70. D 71. C 72. C

73. B 74. A 75. A 76. C 77. A 78. C

79. B 80. A 81. B 82. C 83. A 84. B

85. D 86. A 87. B 88. B 89. A 90. D

91. B 92. C 93. A 94. A 95. D 96. C

101. 102.
97. A 98. C 99. D 100. C

26