11.02a. Airframe Structures - General Concepts.

1. Zone 320 under the ATA system is.

A. horizontal stabiliser.
B. vertical stabiliser.
C. central fuselage.

2. How is damage to the nose cone of an aircraft prevented during a lightning

strike?.
A. Earthing Strap.
B. Bonding Strip.
C. Special paint.

3. Tension is the stress of.

A. elongating or stretch.
B. crush or compression.
C. twisting.

4. A Fuselage Station is a.
A. lateral point on aircraft wing.
B. lateral point on aircraft fuse.
C. longitudinal point on the aircraft fuselage.

5. Composite materials are bonded by.

A. aluminium wire.
B. copper wire.
C. special paint.

6. ATA Zone 100 is.

A. upper fuselage.
B. left-hand wing.
C. lower fuselage.

7. A radome is protected from static electricity build-up by.

A. conductive paint.
B. special conductive grease
C. bonding strips.
8. Precise points are located on an aircraft by a system of.
A. longitudinal, vertical and lateral lines.
B. frame stations, water lines and buttock lines.
C. frame stations, vertical lines and lateral lines.

9. Which of the following is an example of a fail safe structure?

A. Longeron.
B. Spar.
C. Stringer.

10. Damage tolerant design.

A. allows for damage to structure by distributing loads to other
structure.
 B. allows for certain damage to the structure to go.
C. allows for certain damage to the structure to go un-repaired
between scheduled maintenance is applied only to secondary
structure.

11. In the ATA 100 zonal system the passenger entry door will have a designation
of.
A. 600.
B. 800.
C. 400.

12. Which area of the aircraft is subject to hoop stress?.

A. Pressure cabin.
B. Control surfaces.
C. Control surfaces.

13. Shear stress is described as.

A. pulling forces.
B. slip away under the action of forces.
C. compressing forces.

14. A condition after which a permanent deformation of a material is caused, is

known as.
A. bending.
B. strain.
C. shear.

15. Semi-monocoque construction.

A. is used only for the fuselage.
B. offers good damage resistance.
C. utilizes the safe-life design concept.

16. Most radio aerials are.

A. insulated from the fuselage.
B. not bonded.
C. bonded.

17. The various parts of the aircraft airframe are maintained at the same potential
by.
A. bonding.
B. static wicks.
C. earthing.

18. What governs the ultimate fatigue life of an aircraft?.

A. Flying Hours.
B. Pressure Cycles.
C. Landings.

19. The main forces on an aircraft structure are.

 A. tension, compression, torsion and strain.
B. tension, compression, twisting and shear.
C. tension, compression, torsion and shear.
.
20. The life of the structure is counted by.
A. flying hours.
B. pressurization cycle.
C. landings.

21. A member taking a compression load is called a.

A. cable.
B. beam.
C. strut.

22. Stringers are used in which of the following types of aircraft fuselage
construction?.
A. Semi-monocoque.
B. Truss type.
C. Monocoque.

23. Wing stations are measured.

A. outboard from the wing root.
B. outboard from the fuselage centreline.
C. inboard from the wing upper surface.

24. What load is a tie rod designed to accept?.

A. Bending.
B. Torsion.
C. Tensile.

25. Which of the following is primary structure?.

A. Frame.
B. Stringer.
C. Skin.

26. Fuselage station numbers are measured from the front of the aircraft in.

A. feet.
B. feet and inches.
C. inches.

27. Which parts of the aircraft are classified secondary structures?.

A. These parts of the airframe are highly stressed but if
damaged will not cause failure of the aircraft.
B. These parts of the airframe are highly stressed and if damaged
may cause failure of the aircraft and loss of life.
C. These are lightly stressed parts such as fairings, wheel shields
and minor component brackets etc.
28. Structure with built in redundancy is called.
A. double safe.
B. failsafe.
C. safe life.

29. Stress.
A. is the load per unit area acting on a material.
B. is the property of a material to resist fracture.
C. is the deformation of a material caused by applied load.

30. A piece of structure which must be replaced at a specified number of cycles,

flying hours or years, regardless of its physical condition is what type of item?

A. Fail-safe.
B. Condition monitored.
C. Safe-life.

31. If you are unable to identify a structure classification as either Primary or

Secondary, what action should you adopt?.
A. Upgrade it to primary.
B. Paint it red and stamp it as tertiary.
C. Grade it as secondary.

32. Safe-life is.

A. the minimum number of flying hours that should elapse before
a major structural failure occurs.
B. the maximum number of flying hours that should elapse
before a major structural failure occurs.
C. the sharing of loads between adjacent members.

33. Bending stresses are a combination of.

A. tension and shear stresses.
B. torsional and compression stresses.
C. tension and compression stresses.

34. To prevent a system being affected by high current flows after a lightning
strike to a composite aircraft, electricity is discharged through.
A. electrically connected primary conductors.
B. a sprayed coat of non-conductive paint.
C. a sprayed coat of conductive paint.

35. A structural member intended to resist compression is a.

A. tie.
B. strut.
C. web.

36. An aircraft structure, having multiple load paths, is known as a.

A. safe-life design.
B. fail-safe design.
C. monocoque design.
 37. If a redundant structure fails it becomes.
A. fatigued.
B. safe-life.
C. failsafe.

38. A redundant structure is.

A. a safe-life structure.
B. a failsafe structure.
C. on-condition structure.

39. The measurement of the fuselage perpendicular to horizontal plane measured

in inches from bottom of the fuselage is.
A. fuselage station.
B. butt line.
C. water line.

40. What are the four stresses to be considered when building an aircraft?.

A. Compression, Tension, Torsion, Stress.

B. Compression, Torsion, Tension, Shear.
C. Compression, Torsion, Stress, Strain.

41. A structure that has a high designed reserve strength would be classified as.

A. primary.
B. tertiary.
C. secondary.

42. An example of primary stress is.

A. shear.
B. tension.
C. bending.

43. What is the water line?

A. A line below which redux bonding can not be used.
B. The datum from which vertical locations refer.
C. The zero datum from which all lateral locations are measured.

44. Lateral stations have station zero at the.

A. nose.
B. left wing tip.
C. centre line.
45. Airworthiness requirements for large aircraft are found in.
A. ANO 25.
B. JAR 25.
C. CS 25.

11.02b. Airframe Structures - General Concepts.

1. What kind of seal is used on firewall bulkheads?.
A. Soft rubber.
B. Fire-proof grommets.
C. None is required.

2. In semi-monocoque construction, compression loads are taken by.

A. stringers.
B. bulkheads.
C. frames.

3. In a monocoque structure, which component carries the majority of the loads?.

A. Longerons.
B. Stringers.
C. Skin.

4. Which anti-corrosive treatment is found on alloy steels?.

A. Zinc plating.
B. Cadmium plating.
C. Nickel plating.

5. What material can be chromated as a protection against corrosion?.

A. Aluminium alloys.
B. Magnesium alloys.
C. Ferrous alloys.

6. The primary purpose of sealant in use in pressurised aircraft is.

A. to seal the cabin.
B. to prevent corrosion.
C. to provide external streamlining.

7. When installing a 'Hi-lock' bolt, it is necessary to.

A. simply fit the bolt as they are prelubricated.
B. lubricate the collar.
C. lubricate the shank and threads.

8. Sealant or levelling compound is installed during structure repair:.

A. according to AMM and SRM chapter 51.
B. according to SB instructions.
C. according to separate manufacturer's documentations such as
BAC.

9. When both sides of a structural repair are not easily reached, which type of
fastener would you use?.
A. Pop rivet.
B. Hi lock bolt.
C. Blind rivet.

10. With regard to extraneous spilt fluids.

 A. they may be harmful to the aircraft structure.
B. they should only be cleaned up if they are on the external
surface of the aircraft.
C. they can be ignored, they provide extra protection.

11. Skin panels may be strengthened by.

A. cleats.
B. struts.
C. stringers.

12. A crack stopper is fitted.

A. before a crack starts, to prevent its initiation.
B. before a crack starts, to slow its rate of propagation.
C. after a crack starts, to slow its rate of propagation.

13. One of the advantages of the semi-monocoque construction is that it.

A. is easier to manufacture.
B. shares the loads.
C. takes all the loads in the skin.

14. In a fully monocoque fuselage, all the loads are carried by the.
A. longerons.
B. frames.
C. skin.

15. Joints that are designed to stop the propagation of cracks are known as.

A. failsafe joints.
B. secondary joints.
C. crack limiting joints.

16. If an aircraft has alkaline batteries, the battery compartment drain pipes will
be.
A. plastic.
B. aluminium alloy.
C. stainless steel.

17. An overweight landing is one in which the aircraft has.

A. too much kinetic energy on landing.
B. a missed placed centre of gravity on landing.
C. an excessive fuel load on take-off.

18. Symmetry checks should be carried out.

A. in the hangar with the aircraft on its wheels.
B. on the ramp with the aircraft on its wheels.
C. in the hanger with the aircraft on jacks.

19. in a semi-monocoque structure is prevented by.

A. stringers.
 B. longerons.
C. bulkheads.

20. Which loads do longerons resist?.

A. Torsional only.
B. Bending, compression, tensile and torsion.
C. Bending, compression and tensile.

11A.03.1. Airframe Structures - Aeroplanes - Fuselage (ATA 52/53/56).

1. Blowout panels are fitted to floors of pressurized aircraft to.
A. provide access for pressurising the aircraft.
B. provide access for pressurising the aircraft.
C. provide venting should a differential pressure build up
across the floor.

2. Acrylic windows must be able to flex in-situ because they have.

A. slight shrinkage due to age.
B. smaller coefficient of expansion than surrounding structure.
C. larger coefficient of expansion than surrounding structure.

3. A cargo bay must have signs stating.

A. no hazardous cargo.
B. maximum dimensions.
C. maximum loadings.

4. A fire zone in which a crew member could enter to fight a fire is.
A. class B.
B. class A.
C. class E.
5. Windscreen delamination is.
A. bubbling of the glass due to overheat.
B. separation of the glass from the vinyl interlayer.
C. windscreen peeling away from the airframe.

6. How are passenger door pressure loads transmitted to the fuselage structure?.

A. By door stops.
B. By the pressure seal.
C. Through the latching mechanism.

7. Passenger cabin windows are constructed with two panes and a seal between
them. Under normal flight conditions which pane(s) take the differential
pressure loads?.
A. Outer.
B. Inner.
C. Both.

8. How are passenger seats secured to the floor?.

 A. By the front legs while the back attachment provides anti rattle.

B. By both front and back legs.

C. By the back legs while the front attachment provides anti
rattle.

9. On passenger aircraft of two or more zones.

A. there should be at least one exit per zone.
B. the seat backs fold forward at over wing emergency exits.
C. the emergency exits are to be clearly signed.

10. In pressurized aircraft, undercarriage bays.

A. are unpressurised.
B. may be pressurized or unpressurised.
C. are pressurized.

11. The main longitudinal members in a fuselage are called.

A. frames.
B. longerons.
C. spars.

12. A partition within the aircraft's structure is called a.

A. frame.
B. bulkhead.
C. cleat.

13. Seat track cutouts provide for various seat spacings, usually in.
A. one foot increments.
B. half inch increments.
C. one inch increments.

14. Windshields are heated to.

A. maintain strength and toughness only.
B. prevent misting and icing only.
C. demist, ant-ice and maintain strength and toughness.

15. The internal doors of an aircraft.

A. carry pressure loads.
B. only carry pressure loads when the aircraft is at cruise altitude.

C. never carry pressure loads.

16. A pressure door warning light illuminates only when the door is.
A. locked.
B. not fully opened.
C. not locked.

17. If an electrically operated cargo door lifting actuator fails, it may be operated.

A. be electrical ground power.

 B. by alternate actuators.
C. manually by winding.

18. If heat is applied to the vinyl interlayer of an aircraft windscreen, its ability to
withstand impact will.
A. increase.
B. decrease.
C. not change.

19. Moisture drain valves in a pressurised fuselage.

A. are open all the time to ensure the bilge areas are well drained.

B. are open when the cabin is depressurised.

C. are open when the cabin is pressurised.

20. Passenger windows in jet transport aircraft normally have.

A. two structural panes.
B. one structural pane.
C. three structural panes.
21. A plug type window is fitted.
A. from the outside.
B. from either side.
C. from the inside.

22. Drain valves are normally closed by.

A. spring pressure.
B. cabin air pressure.
C. rubber strips.

23. Drain holes in unpressurised areas are.

A. either open or closed.
B. always open.
C. always closed.

24. The life of a fuselage depends on.

A. the pressurisation cycles not including ground cycles.
B. the pressurisation cycles excluding maximum differential.
C. all pressurisation cycles.

25. Passenger cabin seat rails form part of the.

A. frames.
B. stringers.
C. longerons.

11A.03.2. Airframe Structures - Aeroplanes - Wings (ATA 57).

1. A spar web will take loads in.

A. bending.
B. tension.
C. shear.
2. Wing bending and shear loads are taken by.
A. spar cap.
B. skin.
C. main spar.

3. A cantilever wing is a.
A. usual airliner wing.
B. top wing of a biplane.
C. swept-back wing.

4. On a mono-spar wing, what gives the wing its profile contour?.

A. Milled stringers.
B. The position of the spars.
C. Ribs.

5. A wing's leading edge would have provisions and linkages for slats and.

A. leading edge flaps.

B. trailing edge flaps.
C. slots.

6. The mid-spar is fitted in large aircraft to.

A. support fitting the engine mount & landing gear mount.
B. assist the main spar with operational loads.
C. provide redundant design.

7. The main undercarriage is attached to the.

A. aircraft structure.
B. rear main spar.
C. front main spar.

8. The principle load bearing members of the wing are.

A. spars.
B. struts.
C. ribs.

9. One purpose of a rib is to.

A. support the bending loads on a fuselage.
B. form the main lateral member in an aerofoil.
C. maintain the correct contour of an aerofoils covering.

10. What is a cantilever wing?.

A. One that folds for access to limited space.
B. One that has external supporting struts.
C. One that has no external supporting struts.

11. A spar is tapered from root to tip because.

A. shear forces are greatest at the root.
B. bending moment is greatest at the root.
 C. centre of lift occurs close to the root.

12. A spar web is.

A. a member between the spar and wing/fuselage connection.

B. an area between two spar caps.

C. a rib/spar joint.

13. A leading edge slat is attached to the.

A. slat track.
B. wing upper skin.
C. front spar.

11A.03.3. Airframe Structures - Aeroplanes - Stabilisers (ATA 55).

1. The web of an 'I' beam takes mainly which type of load?.

A. Shear.
B. Tension.
C. Bending.

2. The term 'empennage' incorporates.

A. rudder, ailerons, spoilers.
B. elevators, stabiliser, ailerons.
C. elevators, stabiliser, rudder.

3. The four main structural items making up a horizontal stabiliser are.

A. spar, rib, bulkheads, skin panels.

B. spar, rib, stringers, skin panels.
C. spar, rib, longerons, skin panels.

4. To correct for nose heaviness on an aircraft fitted with a variable incidence

tailplane, the incidence of the tailplane would be.
A. decreased, which is done by lowering the leading edge.
B. decreased, which is done by lowering the trailing edge.
C. increased, which is done by lowering the leading edge.

5. An upward elevator deflection on the reverse camber tailplane.

A. may increase or decrease download depending upon the aircraft
C of G position.
B. will decrease tailplane download.
C. will increase tailplane download.

6. The direction of travel of an electrically operated variable incidence tailplane

is determined by.
A. a gearbox.
B. solenoid operated clutches.
C. direction of rotation of the electric motor.
 7. On an aircraft with a variable incidence trimming tailplane, the tailplane
incidence changes.
A. if the control column is moved back or forward.
B. automatically if the elevator moves.
C. if the trim wheel is turned back or forward.

11A.03.4. Airframe Structures - Aeroplanes - Flight Control Surfaces (ATA

55/57).

1. Construction such as horn balance and inset hinge balance installed on control
surface assembly.
A. serves as a 'servo' system of balance.
B. has same effect of the balance tab.
C. is meant to trim CG of control surfaces.
2. The fin helps to give.
A. directional stability about the normal axis.
B. longitudinal stability about the normal axis.
C. directional stability about the longitudinal axis.

3. Which of the following are primary control surfaces?.

A. Roll spoilers, elevators, tabs.
B. Elevators, roll spoilers, tabs.
C. Elevators, ailerons, rudder.

4. Aerodynamic balance.
A. will reduce aerodynamic loading.
B. will cause CP to move towards the trailing edge and cause
instability.
C. will cause CP to move towards the trailing edge and cause
instability.

5. Flutter can be reduced by using.

A. servo tabs.
B. mass balancing.
C. a horn balance.

6. An elevator provides control about the.

A. horizontal stabilizer.
B. longitudinal axis.
C. lateral axis.

7. The outboard ailerons on some large aircraft.

A. are isolated at low speeds.
B. are isolated to improve sensitivity.
C. are isolated at high speeds.

8. An excess of aerodynamic balance would move the control surface centre of

pressure.
A. rearwards, resulting in too much assistance.
 B. rearwards, resulting in loss of assistance.
C. forwards, resulting in an unstable overbalance.

9. A flying control mass balance weight.

A. keeps the control surface C of G as close to the trailing edge as
possible.
B. tends to move the control surface C of G close to the hinge
line.
C. ensures that the C of G always acts to aid the pilot thus
relieving control column load.

10. What is attached to the rear of the vertical stabilizer?.

A. Elevator.
B. Aileron.
C. Rudder.

11. The method employed to mass balance control surfaces is to.

A. attach weights forward of the hinge line.
B. allow the leading edge of the surface to project into the airflow.

C. fit bias strips to the trailing edge of the surfaces.

12. Control surface flutter may be caused by.
A. excessive play in trim tab attachments.
B. high static friction in trim tab control tabs.
C. incorrect angular movement of trim tabs.

13. A 'frise' aileron is incorporated to.

A. provide aerodynamic balancing so assisting the pilot to move
the control.
B. ensure aileron control is retained at high angles of attack.
C. equalize aileron drag in a turn.

14. Aerodynamic balance of a control surface may be achieved.

A. by a horn at the extremity of the surface forward of the
hinge line.
B. by a trimming strip at the trailing edge of the surface.
C. by weights added to the control surface aft of the hinge line.

15. A control surface is provided with aerodynamic balancing to.

A. decrease the drag when the control is deflected.
B. assist the pilot in moving the control.
C. increase stability.

16. The balance tab is an auxiliary surface fitted to a main control surface.

A. operating automatically to provide feel to the controls.

B. operated independently at which point in the length of cable the
tensiometer is applied.
 C. operating automatically to assist the pilot in moving the
controls.

17. Aerodynamic balancing of flight controls is achieved by.

A. placing a weight ahead of the hinge point.
B. providing a portion of the control surface ahead of the
hinge point.
C. placing a weight in the leading edge of the control surface.

18. Aerodynamic balance is used to.

A. make the flying controls easier to move.
B. prevent flutter of the flying controls.
C. reduce the control load to zero.

19. A horn balance is.

A. a rod projecting forward from the control surface with a weight on the
end.
B. a rod projecting upward from the main control surface to which the
control cables are attached.
C. a projection of the outer edge of the control surface forward of the
hinge line.

20. A control surface is mass balanced by.

A. the attachment of weights acting forward of the hinge line.

B. the attachment of weights acting on the hinge line.

C. fitting a balance tab.
21. The purpose of anti-balance tabs is to.
A. relieve stick loads.
B. trim the aircraft.
C. give more feel to the control column.

22. A flying control mass balance weight.

A. tends to move the control surface C of G forward of the hinge
line.
B. tends to move the control surface C of G close to the hinge
line.
C. keeps the control surface C of G as close to the trailing edge as
possible.

23. An elevator controls the aircraft motion in.

A. yaw.
B. pitch.
C. roll.

11A.03.5. Airframe Structures - Aeroplanes - Nacelles/Pylons (ATA 54).

1. Jet engines are usually mounted by.

A. aluminium castings.
B. forged mounts and bolted to aircraft forged structure.
 C. welded steel tubing.

2. A pylon structural member supports the.

A. centre section.
B. engine.
C. empennage.

3. Wing mounted podded engines and integral fuel tanks.

A. provide wing bending relief.
B. provide increased safety if the undercarriage collapses on
landing.
C. reduce tailplane download.