04/07/2020

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

MM : 720 Mock Test for NEET - 2020 Time : 3 Hrs.

Home Assignment – 7

Instructions :
(i) Use Blue/Black ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on
Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
1. A uniform thick rope of length 10 m is resting on a 4. If the coefficient of friction between an ANT and
horizontal frictionless surface. It is pulled by a force hemispherical bowl is  and radius of bowl is R, then
of 5 N at one end. Then what is the tension in upto what maximum height ANT may crawl?
the rope at 2 m from the end where the force is
applied?  1   1 
(1) R 1   (2) R 1  
(1) 6 N  1  2   1  2 
(2) 8 N
1 R2 1 R2
(3) Zero (3) (4)
 R
(4) 4 N
2. A car of mass (m) accelerates, starting from rest, 5. The depth d(<<R) at which the value of acceleration
while the engine supplies constant power P. Then 1
due to gravity becomes times the value at the
velocity varies with time (t) as x
surface is
(1) v  t (2) v  t1/2
R ( x  1)
(3) v t2 (4) v t3/2 (1)
R
3. The position (x) of a particle varies with time as
R ( x  1)
t = x2 + x, then acceleration of particle is (2)
x
(1) 2v3
Rx
(2) 2v3 (3)
x 1
(3) –2v3 R
(4)
(4) –2v3 x
(1)
Home Assignment-7 Mock Test for NEET - 2020
6. The ratio of heat developed in three wires having 13. In given figure under critical condition of a vertical
lengths in the ratio 1 : 5 : 8 and radii 1 : 2 : 3 in circular motion, find the velocity (v0) at point P.
parallel combination
P
(1) 1 : 25 : 64 v0
60°
(2) 1 : 4 : 9 R
A
O
(3) 40 : 32 : 45
(4) 45 : 32 : 40
7. A photodetector used to detect the wavelength of
1700 nm, has energy gap of about (1) gR (2) 3gR
(1) 0.73 eV (2) 0.03 eV
(3) 2gR (4) 4gR
(3) 1.2 eV (4) 1.16 eV
8. A physical quantity depends on time t as 14. At the centre of a spherical shell of mass M and
redius R, a point mass 2M is placed. Then,
3
A  A0 e t . Then constant  has dimensions R
gravitational potential at distance from the centre is
3
(1) [T] (2) [T–2]
(3) [T–1] (4) [T–3] M
R
9. If a block takes thrice as much time to slide down
a 45° rough inclined plane as it takes to slide down O R/3 P
a similar smooth plane. Then coefficient of friction is 2M

1 2
(1) (2)
3 3
GM 3GM
(1)  (2) 
9 8 R R
(3) (4)
8 9
7GM 3GM
10. Under the action of a force a 2 kg body moves such (3)  (4) 
R R
that it’s position x as a function of time t is given by
15. If a body has equal amount of rotational kinetic
t4
x  3. Then work done by the force in first two energy and translational kinetic energy while rolling
4 without slipping on a horizontal surface. Then body is a
seconds is
(1) Disc (2) Sphere
(1) 6 J (2) 10 J (3) Ring (4) Cylinder
(3) 7 J (4) 64 J 16. A body floats in water with one-third of its volume
11. The semivertex of conical pendulum through which a above the surface of water. If it is placed in some oil,
body can perform uniform circular motion, if the string it floats with half of its volume above the oil surface.
2 Then, specific gravity of the oil is
support times its weight, is
3 3 3
(1) (2)
(1) 90° (2) 30° 2 4
(3) 60° (4) 120° 4
(3) (4) 1
   3

12. If a  b  c and a + b = c, then angle between a 17. A string is hanging from a rigid support. A transverse

and b is wave pulse is generated at its free end. The speed
of wave pulse at distance x from its free end is
(1) 90° proportional to
(2) 30° (1) x2 (2) x
(3) 60°
1
(4) 0°
(3) x (4)
x
(2)
Mock Test for NEET - 2020 Home Assignment-7
18. The time period of oscillation of total energy of a 24. Consider two sound sources S1 and S2 having same
harmonic oscillator having angular frequency () is frequency 100 Hz and the observer O located
between them. All the three are moving with same
2 
(1) (2) velocity in same direction. The beat frequency as
  heard by the observer is

(3) Infinite (4)
2 30 m/s 30 m/s 30 m/s

19. Force acting on a charged particle kept between the S1 O S2

plates of a charged capacitor is F. If one of the
plates of capacitor is removed. Then same particle (1) Zero (2) 2
will experience a force (3) 3 (4) 4
F 25. An ideal gas at 27°C is compressed adiabatically to
(1) (2) Zero
2 8 5
(3) F (4) 2F of its original volume. If   , then rise in
27 3
20. If the current through an inductor of 2 H is given temperature is
by i = tsint, then voltage across the inductor of
(1) 450 K (2) 375 K
2 H is
(3) 675 K (4) 405 K
(1) cost + tsint (2) 2tcost + 2sint
26. The resistor in which maximum heat will be
(3) tcost + sint (4) 2tsint + 2cost produced, is
21. Young’s double slit experiment is performed by two 3 5
lights of yellow and green colours having fringe 6
1 4
widths 1 and 2, then  is 2
2

(1) 1 (2) > 1 V

(3) < 1 (4) Cannot be predicted (1) 6 

22. The currents through diodes D1 and D2 are (2) 2 

30  D2 i2 (3) 5 
(4) 4 
i1 D1 30  27. The cathode of a photoelectric cell is changed such
that the work function changes from 1 to 2 where
(2 > 1). If the current before and after change are
I 1 and I 2 respectively and all other conditions
remaining unchanged, then (assuming h > 2)
20  5V
(1) i1 = 0.1 A, i2 = 0.1 A (1) I1 = I2

(2) i1 = 0.1 A, i2 = 0 (2) I1 < I2

(3) I1 > I2
(3) i1 = 0, i2 = 0.3 A
(4) I1 < I2 < 2I1
(4) i1 = 0, i2 = 0
28. If the shortest wavelength of Lyman series of H atom
23. A body connected at the end of a spring executes
is X, then the wavelength of first member of Balmer
SHM with a time period t1, while the corresponding
series of H atom will be
period for another spring is t 2. If the period of
oscillation with the two spring in series is T, then
9X
(1) (2) 36 X
(1) T = t1 + t2 (2) T  t  t
2 2 2 5 5
1 2

1 1 1 1 1 1 5X 5X
(3)   (4)   (3) (4)
2
T t1 t2 T t12 t2 2 9 36
(3)
Home Assignment-7 Mock Test for NEET - 2020
29. A rod of mass m and length  hinged in a vertical
34. Apparent dip at a place are cot–12 and cot 1 2 3 in
wall and kept horizontal by massless vertical thread
two mutually perpendicular planes of dip circle. The
as shown. Tension in thread is
true dip  at the place will be

(1)   cot 1(2) (2)   cot 1(2 3)

O (3)  = cot–1(4) (4)  = cot–1(3)

2
35. Two bodies, a ring and a disc are rolled down without
slipping from an inclined plane of angle  What will
mg be ratio of acceleration of centre of mass of two
(1) mg (2)
2 bodies?
3mg
(3) (4) 2mg 3 4
2 (1) (2)
1 3
30. A copper wire of cross-section A is under tension T.
Find the fractional decrease in the cross-sectional
area (Young’s modulus is Y and Poisson’s ratio is ) 1 3
(3) (4)
3 4
2T AY
(1) (2)
AY 2T 36. For a process of monoatomic gas pressure (P) and
volume (V) related as PV–3 = constant. What will be
3 AY T
(3) (4) the molar heat capacity of gas?
2T AY
31. Point charges 4 C, –1 C and 4 C are kept on 5R 3
(1) (2) R
y-axis y = 2a, y = 3a and y = 4a 3 5
(1) Only –1 C is in equilibrium 7 R
(3) R (4)
(2) None of the charges are in equilibrium 4 4

(3) All the charges are in equilibrium 37. What will be outputs of circuit, if input for terminal A
and B are (1, 0) and (0, 1)?
(4) All the charges are in stable equilibrium
A output
32. Three capacitors each of capacitance 2 F are B
connected to a cell of 6 V as shown in the figure.
(1) 1, 1 (2) 0, 0
The potential at point A will be
2 F 2 F (3) 0, 1 (4) 1, 0

A 38. Rain droplets are falling in vertically downward

direction with velocity 5 m/s. A cyclist is moving in
northward direction with velocity 10 m/s. The rain
droplets will appear to the cyclist to be coming from
2 F 6V
(1) tan–1(2) above south horizon
(1) 2 V (2) –2 V
(3) 3 V (4) –3 V  1
(2) tan 1  above north horizon
33. The magnetic field due to current carrying circular 2
coil on its axis varies with distance as
(3) Vertically downward
B B (4) tan–1(2) above north horizon

(1) (2) 39. When an elevator is moving upward, the apparent

r r weight of a body inside elevator
(1) Will increase
B B
(2) Will decrease
(3) (4) (3) Remains the same
r r (4) May be any of these
(4)
Mock Test for NEET - 2020 Home Assignment-7
40. An electric dipole in non-uniform electric field has 43. A circular parallel plate capacitor is connected to a
(1) Rotational motion only battery. Then which of the following statement is
correct for the region between the plates for steady
(2) Translational motion only state?
(3) Both rotational and translational motion
(4) All of these are possible
41. A bar magnet of magnetic moment M is bent as a
part of circle shown in the figure. The new magnetic + –
moment is
(1) Electric field is zero

(2) Magnetic field is zero

O
(3) Displacement current exist
R R
(4) Electric flux is changing
R
44. In a nuclear reaction of -decay, the daughter nuclei
3M
(1) M (2) A
5 ZX is moving with kinetic energy E. The total

5M 2M energy released is
(3) (4)
3 
E E
42. A conductor is moving with velocity v in a region of (1) ( A  4) (2) ( A)
4 4
uniform magnetic field B. The electric field at P
inside conductor is
E
× × × (3) ( A  4) (4) E (A – 4)
4

× P × v × 45. Avalanche breakdown of p-n junction diode is due to

(1) Reverse biasing

× × ×
(1) Zero (2) vB (2) Very high electric field

(3) Collision of electron

v B
(3) (4)
B v (4) All of these

CHEMISTRY
46. If there are no intermolecular forces of attraction then 49. Standard electrode potentials of Fe2+ + 2e–  Fe and
the volume occupied by the molecules of 4.5 kg of Fe3+ + 3e–  Fe are –0.44 volt and –0.036 volt
water at STP will be respectively. The standard electrode potential for
Fe3+ + e–  Fe2+ will be
(1) 4.5 m3 (2) 11.2 m3
(1) – 0.404 V (2) + 0.404 V
(3) 22.4 m3 (4) 5.6 m3
(3) + 0.772 V (4) – 0.476 V
47. The oxidation number of phosphorous in P2O74– is
50. The vapour pressure of a dilute solution of glucose is
(1) +3 (2) +2
750 mm of Hg at 373 K. The mole fraction of solute is
(3) +5 (4) –3
1 1
48. CuSO4 solution is treated separately with KCl and (1) (2)
7.6 76
KI. In which case Cu2+ will be reduced to Cu+
1 1
(1) KCl (3) (4)
35 10
(2) KI 51. Which of the following has only -bond?
(3) Both can reduce (1) N2 (2) O2
(4) None can reduce (3) O2+ (4) C2
(5)
Home Assignment-7 Mock Test for NEET - 2020
52. The reaction A  B is started with 10 g of A. After 30 60. Identify (Z)
and 90 min, 5 g and 1.25 g of A are left respectively. NH2
The order of reaction is CHCl3 HCl/H2O
(Y) (Z) + methanoic acid
KOH 300 K
(1) Zero (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3 (1) H2N (2) CN Cl
53. The degree of dissociation of PCl5() for the equilibrium
PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) is approximately related
(3) NC Cl (4) CH 3–NH Cl
to the pressure at equilibrium (P) by the relation [<<1]

1 61. The correct order of increasing thermal stability of the

(1)   P (2)   given compounds is
P
I. HF II. HBr
1 1
(3)   (4)  
P2 P4 III. HCl IV. HI
54. A weak acid HX (Ka = 10–5) on reaction with NaOH (1) I < II < III < IV (2) IV < II < III < I
gives NaX. For 0.1 M aqueous solution of NaX, the % (3) IV < II < I < III (4) II < IV < I < III
hydrolysis is
62. Which of the following will not show geometrical
(1) 0.001% (2) 0.01% isomerism?
(3) 0.15% (4) 1% (1) [Co(ox)3]3– (2) [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl
55. Benzene reacts with iso-butyl chloride in the presence (3) [Cr(NH3)4Cl2]Cl (4) Both (2) & (3)
of anhyd. AlCl3 to give (as a major product) 63. Which one of the following has the highest
(1) t-butylbenzene (2) Isobutylbenzene paramagnetism?
(3) n-butylbenzene (4) Sec-butylbenzene (1) [Cr(H2O)6]3+ (2) [Fe(H2O)6]2+
56. Ethene is shaken with aqueous solution of Br2 with (3) [Cu(H2O)6]2+ (4) [Zn(H2O)6]2+
NaCl. Which of the following is the possible product? 64. The correct order of boiling points of noble gases is
(1) He < Ne < Ar < Kr < Xe
(1) CH2–Br (2) CH2–Br
| | (2) He > Ne > Ar > Kr > Xe
CH2–Br CH2–Cl
(3) He < Ne < Kr < Ar < Xe
(3) CH2–Br (4) All of these (4) He < Ne < Ar < Xe < Kr
|
CH2–OH 65. The correct statement/s about H2S2O7 is/are
(1) It is called peroxydisulphuric acid
57. What amount of bromine will be required to convert
2 g of phenol into 2, 4, 6-tribromophenol? (2) It contains one O–O bond in its molecule

(1) 20.4 g (2) 10.2 g (3) It is obtained by dissolution of SO3 in conc.

H2SO4
(3) 6.0 g (4) 4.0 g
(4) Both (2) & (3)
+
H2O/H 66. Which of the following will give maximum heat of
58. MgBr + CH 2–CH 2 (A) (B).
(Major product) neutrilization?
O (1) NaOH + HCl (2) NaOH + CH3COOH
(B) is
(3) NaOH + HNO3 (4) NaOH + HF
(1) Benzyl alcohol (2) 2-phenylethanol 67. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
(3) 1-phenylethanol (4) Quinol (1) Silica gel adsorbs water
59. One mole of ethylamine when reacts with nitrous acid (2) Catalytic action and colloidal nature is based on
produces dinitrogen gas at 0ºC and 1 atmospheric the phenomenon of adsorption
pressure equal to
(3) Absorption and adsorption can take place
(1) 22.4 L (2) 1 L simultaneously
(3) 11.2 L (4) 24.8 L (4) All of these
(6)
Mock Test for NEET - 2020 Home Assignment-7
68. Equal masses of methane and oxygen gas are 77. Which of the following has the lowest heat of
mixed in an empty container at 25°C. The fraction of hydrogenation per mole?
the total pressure exerted by oxygen gas is
(1) cis-2-butene (2) trans 2-butene
1 2 (3) 1-butene (4) 1, 3-butadiene
(1) (2)
2 3
78. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
1 1 273
(3) (4)  (1) Chlorobenzene is more reactive than benzene
3 3 298
towards electrophilic substitution reactions
69. According to Bohr’s theory the angular momentum of
an electron in 5th orbit is (2) C – Cl bond in chlorobenzene is less polar than
in CH3Cl
2.5h 5h
(1) (2) (3) Chlorobenzene is less reactive than CH 3Cl
 
towards nucleophilic substitution reactions
25h 6h
(3) (4) (4) In chlorobenzene further electrophilic substitution
 2
takes place at ortho and para position
70. The I.E. will be maximum for the process
79. The product (Z) in the following sequence of
(1) Be  Be2+ (2) Li  Li+ reactions is
(3) Cs  Cs+ (4) Ba  Ba2+ pyridine CO2 H3O
Phenol  (X) (Y)  (Z)
71. The correct relationship between the boiling points of 4  7 atm, 410 K
dilute solutions of AlCl3(T1) and CaCl2(T2), having the (1) Aspirin (2) Salicylaldehyde
same molar concentration is
(3) Benzoic acid (4) Salicylic acid
(1) T1 > T2 (2) T2 > T1
80. Which of the following will be least soluble in
(3) T1 = T2 (4) T2  T1 sodium carbonate solution?
72. Aqueous solution of 0.004 M Na2SO4 and 0.01 M OH SO2OH
glucose are isotonic. The degree of dissociation of
NO2
Na2SO4 is
(1) (2)
(1) 85% (2) 75%
(3) 60% (4) 25% OH
73. The formation of O3 in upper part of atmosphere is O2N NO2 COOH
catalyzed by (3) (4)
(1) N2 (2) NO
81. A compound (Y) is formed when acetaldehyde
(3) CO (4) CO2
condenses with ethylamine. (Y) on further catalytic
74. Which of the following acts as a negative catalyst? hydrogenation will yield
(1) Tetraethyl lead as an antiknock compound (1) Ethyl methyl amine (2) Diethylamine
(2) Glycerol in decomposition of H2O2 (3) n-butylamine (4) Trimethylamine
(3) Ethanol in oxidation of chloroform 82. An aliphatic amine with molar mass 73 on heating
(4) All of these with excess of CH3I gave a quaternary salt. Which
of the following amine follow this data?
75. For an endothermic reaction, the correct relation
about energy of activation for forward and backward (1) N,N-diethylethanamine
reaction is (2) N-methylpropanamine
(1) Ea(f) > Ea(b) (2) Ea(f) < Ea(b) (3) 2-propanamine
(3) Ea(f) = Ea(b) (4) None of these (4) Neopentylamine
76. How many unit of NaCl is present per unit cell of 83. Which of the following is used in the preparation of
NaCl? nylon?
(1) 4 (2) 6 (1) Adipic acid (2) Butadiene
(3) 2 (4) 8 (3) Isoprene (4) Ethylene
(7)
Home Assignment-7 Mock Test for NEET - 2020
84. In metallurgical process the flux used for removing 88. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct for
acidic impurities is the manufacture of sulphuric acid by contact process?
(1) Silica (2) Sodium chloride (1) V 2O 5 is used for catalytic oxidation of SO 2
to SO3
(3) Lime stone (4) Sodium carbonate
(2) SO3 is absorbed in concentrated sulphuric acid
85. Which of the following carbonates decomposes most
readily on heating? (3) SO3 is directly absorbed in water
(1) Na2CO3 (2) K2CO3 (4) Both (1) & (2)
(3) Li2CO3 (4) CaCO3 89. Which of the following is non-reducing in nature?
86. In the formation of tetramine zinc (II) cation, the (1) Sucrose
hybrid orbitals used by Zn ion is (2) Cellulose
(1) sp3d (2) dsp2 (3) Maltose
(3) sp3 (4) dsp3 (4) Both (1) & (2)
87. Which product will not be formed when potassium 90. Acetone on condensation in presence of H2SO 4
chlorate is treated with conc. H2SO4? gives
(1) ClO2 (2) HClO4 (1) Hexane (2) Mesitylene
(3) KHSO4 (4) Cl2 (3) Xylene (4) Benzene

BOTANY
91. Which taxonomic category will have similar taxon in 95. Which of these is never released as by-product in
the classification of mango and wheat? fermentation?
(1) Class (2) Division (1) Formation of metabolic water as a product
(3) Order (4) Family (2) Evolution of CO2
92. Mitotic prophase is characterised by (3) Oxidation of glycolytic NADH

(1) Presence of only one chromatid in each (4) End product of the process always organic acid
chromosome 96. Flowering can be inhibited when the plants exposed
(2) Initiation of assembly of mitotic spindle to light above the critical photoperiod is

(3) Attachment of spindle fibres to kinetochore of (1) Maize, tomato

chromosome (2) Rice, sugarbeet
(4) Poleward movement of chromosomes (3) Cocklebur, sugarcane
93. Out of the 20 essential amino acids in plants, which (4) Cotton, oat
one is the key amino acid that can convert keto acid
97. Single cell protein can be useful in all, except
into other amino acid by the process of
transamination? (1) Reducing environmental pollution

(1) Alanine (2) Decreasing pressure on agriculture

(2) Glutamine (3) Preventing shift from meat to grain as diet by

human beings
(3) Glutamic acid
(4) Being acceptable as food in future
(4) Aspartic acid
98. Bioactive molecule used as an immunosuppressive
94. Stroma lamellae membrane in chloroplasts agent in organ transplant is produced by
(1) Have only PS I and NADP reductase enzyme (1) Tolypocladium inflatum
(2) Do not have PS II and NADP reductase (2) Monascus purpureus
(3) Have PS I and PS II but no NADP reductase (3) Candida lipolytica
(4) Do not have PS I and NADP reductase (4) Trichoderma polysporum
(8)
Mock Test for NEET - 2020 Home Assignment-7
99. Organisms that cannot maintain a constant internal 105. Which of these have diplontic life cycle?
environment with ambient environmental factor like
(1) Dryopteris, all spermatophytes
temperature known as conformers did not evolve and
became regulators because (2) Caulerpa and Marchantia

(1) Heat loss and heat gain is function of surface (3) Ginkgo and mustard
area (4) Anthophytes only
(2) Thermoregulation is energetically expensive for 106. Thorns in Citrus and Bougainvillea are
many organisms
(1) Modified axillary buds
(3) The costs benefits of maintaining a constant
internal environment are taken into consideration (2) Modified leaves
during the course of evolution (3) Small branches arising in axil of leaves
(4) All of these (4) Meant for reducing transpiration
100. Pyramid of number in tree ecosystem with predatory 107. Choose incorrect option w.r.t. meiosis cell division
food chain is
(1) Leptotene and zygotene stages are short lived
(1) Triangular as compared to pachytene
(2) Upright (2) Chromosomes clearly appear as tetrads in
(3) Spindle shaped pachytene

(4) Inverted (3) Synaptonemal complex is dissolved in

pachytene
101. Particulate matters in air can be removed most
efficiently by the use of (4) Terminalisation of chiasma completed in
diakinesis
(1) Catalytic converters in exhaust of automobiles
108. According to chemiosmotic hypothesis of ATP
(2) Scrubbers
formation in chloroplast which one does not
(3) Electrostatic precipitators contribute to develop proton gradient across thylakoid
membrane
(4) Euro-III emission norms
102. Ancient bacteria differ from other bacteria in having (1) Splitting of water

(1) Different cell wall structure (2) Reduction of NADP+ to NADPH + H+

(2) Lipid bilayers in their cell membranes but no (3) Reduction of NAD+ to NADH + H+
sterols (4) Removal of H+ from stroma while transporting
(3) Circular double stranded DNA without introns electron

(4) Anaerobic respiration 109. Percentage of offsprings with genotype aaBbCc from
a cross Aabbcc and AaBBCC would be
103. Non-vascular amphibians of plant kingdom are
characterised by all, except (1) 50% (2) 25%

(1) No free living sporophyte (3) 12.5% (4) 37.5%

(2) Can help in succession on rocks 110. Basis of DNA fingerprinting lies in

(3) Zygote divides by meiosis immediately after its (1) VNTRs (2) ESTs
formation (3) Hybridization (4) Autoradiography
(4) Presence of multicellular sex organs 111. In Verhulst-Pearl Logistic growth of a population
104. What is incorrect for the smallest group of plants? (1) Population stops abruptly due to environmental
(1) Male and female gametophytes are of resistance
independent free living existence (2) Environmental resistance becomes suddenly
(2) Pollens are transferred by air effective

(3) Two or more archegonia developed in female (3) Population finally achieves asymptote with the
gametophytes resources or carrying capacity

(4) All are heterosporous (4) Population faces a crash also

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Home Assignment-7 Mock Test for NEET - 2020
112. Which of these diversity promotes ecotype formation 118. Read the following statements w.r.t. dicot stem and
and speciation? select the right choice.
(1) Genetic diversity (2) Species diversity a. The epidermis is covered with thick layer of
cuticle
(3) Ecological diversity (4) Beta diversity
b. The cells of endodermis are rich in starch grains
113. Transcription and translation have to be tightly
regulated as these processes c. Pericycle is present on the inner side of
endodermis and above the phloem in the form of
(1) Occur in cytoplasm of bacteria
semilunar patches of sclerenchyma
(2) Are energetically very expensive
d. The vascular bundles are arranged in a ring
(3) Occur in nucleus of fruit fly
(1) c and d are incorrect
(4) Occur in plastids and mitochondria in humans
(2) b, c and d are incorrect
114. Select the incorrect match
(3) a, b and c are correct
Plants Number of Gynoecium
(4) b, c and d are correct
stamens
119. Select incorrect function w.r.t ethephon
(1) Petunia 5 G(2)
(1) Accelerates abscission in flowers
(2) Tomato 5 G(2)
(2) Promotes female flowers in cucumber
(3) Asparagus 6 G(3)
(3) Accelerates abscission in fruits
(4) Trifolium 10 G(2)
(4) Early seed production in conifers
115. Consider the following figure w.r.t. secondary
structure and select the right option. 120. Examine the figure (A-D) given below and select the
right option out of 1-4 in which all the four structures
Epidermis A, B, C and D are identified correctly.
A A

C B

(1) ‘A’ represents cork cells

(2) ‘B’ is developed after redifferentiation
(3) ‘C’ is developed from phellogen
C
(4) ‘C’ represents secondary phloem
116. How many diseases in the list given below are
caused by virus? D
Mumps, Small pox, Typhoid, Influenza, Herpes
(1) Two (2) Three
(3) Four (4) Five (1) A – Stigma, B – Oogonium, C – Archegoniophore,
D – Offset
117. Formation of triploid endosperm precedes
development of the embryo in (2) A – Stamen, B –Antheridium, C – Archegoniophore,
D – Offset
a. Ginkgo b. Castor
(3) A – Stigma, B – Oogonium, C – Antheridiophore
c. Beans d. Sequoia
D – Offset
(1) d only (2) a & d
(4) A – Stamen, B – Antheridium, C – Archegoniophore,
(3) b & c (4) All of these D – Stolon
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Mock Test for NEET - 2020 Home Assignment-7
121. Taylor is heterozygous for two autosomal gene pair 126. According to mass flow hypothesis of phloem
(CcDd). He is also colour-blind. What is the transport
probability of gametes having c, d and colour-blind
(1) Sucrose is loaded actively in phloem sieve tube
genes?
directly from mesophyll cells
1 1 (2) Loading of sugar at source produces hypotonic
(1) (2)
2 4 condition
1 1 (3) Turgor pressure gradient between source and
(3) (4)
8 16 sink has no role in phloem transport
122. In lac operon, promoter gene provides binding site for (4) Loading of the phloem sets up a water potential
(1) -galactosidase gradient that facilitates movement of sugar in
mass
(2) Lactose
127. During photorespiration, the decarboxylation reaction
(3) Repressor protein
occurs in
(4) RNA polymerase
(1) Peroxisomes
123. Read the following statements w.r.t. predation and
(2) Mitochondria
select the two wrong statements
(3) Chloroplast
A. Predators help in maintaining species diversity
in a community (4) Chloroplast of bundle sheath cell
B. Predators in nature are prudent 128. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t.
anemophily?
C. Predators cannot reduce the intensity of
competition among competing prey species (1) Well exposed stamens
D. Predators do not act as conduits for energy (2) Pollen grains are light and sticky
transfer across trophic levels. (3) Feathery stigma to trap pollen grains
(1) A and B (4) It is quite common in grasses
(2) C and D 129. In mitochondrial electron transport system
(3) A and C (1) Number of ATP molecules synthesised does not
(4) B and C depend on nature of electron donor
124. When a cross is made between tall garden pea plant (2) Ubiquinone receives reducing equivalents via
with yellow seeds (TtYy) and tall garden pea plant FADH2 also
with green seeds (Ttyy), what proportion of (3) Cytochrome c is a large protein attached to
phenotype in the offspring could be expected to be outer surface of inner mitochondrial membrane
tall and green?
(4) Complex IV has cyt. a and cyt. a 3 but no
3 copper centres
(1)
8
130. Decomposition is inhibited during
1
(2) (1) Warm and moist environment
2
(2) Low temperature and anaerobiosis
1
(3)
4 (3) Warm and aerobic environment
3 (4) Aerobic and slightly acidic condition
(4)
4 131. In India, the Air (Prevention and control of Pollution)
125. Select the incorrect match w.r.t recent extinction of act came into force in 1981, but was amended in
animals _______ to include noise as an air pollutant.
(1) Quagga – Africa (1) 1974
(2) Thylacine – Australia (2) 1989
(3) Steller’s sea cow – Russia (3) 1987
(4) Dodo – India (4) 1988
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Home Assignment-7 Mock Test for NEET - 2020
132. Mesosome helps in all the following processes 134. Which one of the following statements is correct?
except
(1) In onion, seeds are endospermous
(1) Cell wall formation
(2) Placentation in Dianthus is basal
(2) Synthesis and secretion of proteins
(3) DNA replication (3) Stamens are epipetalous in lily

(4) Respiration (4) Epigynous flowers are found in mustard

133. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. centrioles 135. Fungus with septate mycelium, parasitic to potato
(1) Cartwheel like organisation crop and can reproduce by asexual spores only is

(2) They are made up of nine evenly spaced (1) Phytophthora

peripheral fibrils of tubulin
(2) Alternaria
(3) The central part is non-proteinaceous and called
the hub (3) Claviceps

(4) They form the basal body of cilia or flagella (4) Ustilago

ZOOLOGY
136. Which of the following is correct match of phylum Which of the following is a correct set w.r.t. the
and its distinctive feature? secretion of the given gland?
Phylum Distinctive feature (1) Mucus, saliva, earwax, thyroxine

(1) Echinodermata – Endoskeleton is of (2) Saliva, earwax, milk, oil

calcareous ossicles. All are (3) Mucus, saliva, earwax, melatonin
marine and have water (4) Maltase, sucrase, secretin, mucus
vascular system. Excretory
system is well developed. 138. Read the following statements w.r.t. B-DNA
(A) Backbone is formed by the sugar-phosphate-
(2) Hemichordata – Worm like marine animals.
sugar chain
Circulatory system is of
closed type. Respiration by (B) The two strands of polynucleotides are
gills and excretion by antiparallel
proboscis gland. (C) At each step of ascent, the strand turns 36°
(3) Annelida – May be aquatic or (D) The rise per base pair would be 34 Å
terrestrial, free living and How many statements are correct?
sometimes parasitic. All
(1) One (2) Two
possess lateral
appendages, parapodia (3) Three (4) Four
which help in swimming. 139. Given below is a primary structure of a portion of a
(4) Aschelminthes – They are bilaterally hypothetical protein, N and C refer to the two termini
symmetrical triploblastic and of every protein.
pseudocoelomate. Sexes
are separate. Fertilisation is N

internal and development C

may be direct or indirect.

137. Given below is a diagrammatic representation of
glandular epithelium.
OH

SH
CH3 CH2 CH2 H
– HN – CH – CO – NH – CH – CO – NH – CH – CO – NH – CH – CO –
A B C D

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Mock Test for NEET - 2020 Home Assignment-7
Choose the correct option w.r.t. identification of 145. In the following ducts, the moving fluid is urine.
amino acid labelled as A, B, C and D. However one of them is an exception choose the
exception
A B C D
(1) Collecting duct
(1) Serine Cysteine Tyrosine Alanine
(2) Serine Cysteine Tyrosine Glycine (2) Renal pelvis
(3) Alanine Cysteine Tyrosine Glycine (3) Distal convoluted tubules
(4) Alanine Cysteine Tyrosine Serine (4) Ureter
140. Mark the odd one w.r.t. composition of succus 146. Given below is a diagrammatic representation of right
entericus pectoral girdle and upper arm.
(1) Dipeptidases (2) Lipases Scapula

(3) Nucleosidases (4) Amylases

141. Though heart is autoexitable, its rate can be
moderated by neural and hormonal mechanisms. All
of the following increase the heart rate, except
Clavicle
(1) Adrenaline (2) Noradrenaline
Humerus
(3) Acetylcholine (4) Nicotine
142. Match the following
Radius
Column I Column II Ulna

a. Tidal volume (i) 1100 to 1200 ml

b. Inspiratory reserve (ii) 500 ml Carpals

volume Metacarpals

c. Expiratory reserve (iii) 2500 ml to 3000 ml Phalanges

volume
Choose the correct option which includes incorrectly
d. Residual volume (iv) 1000 ml to 1100 ml labelled bone?
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (1) Radius and ulna
(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (2) Carpals and metacarpals
(3) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) (3) Scapula and clavicle
(4) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (4) Humerus and carpals
143. The blood group in which both antigens (A and B) 147. In striped muscles, cross bridges rapidly dissociates
present on the surface of RBC is when
(1) A (2) B (1) ADP and inorganic phosphate separates from
(3) O (4) AB myosin head

144. Given below is a diagrammatic representation of (2) ATP attaches to myosin head
ECG of a patient (3) Calcium binds to tropomyosin
R (4) Troponin tropomyosin complex masks the active
T binding sites for myosin on the actin filaments
148. All the following structures are found in an electrical
synapse, except.
Q S
(1) Gap junction
Which of the following nodal tissue must be
damaged in patient’s heart? (2) Synaptic vesicles
(1) SA node (2) AV node (3) Presynaptic membrane
(3) Bundle of His (4) Purkinje fibre (4) Post-synaptic membrane
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Home Assignment-7 Mock Test for NEET - 2020
149. Given below is a list of hormonal disorders 155. Among the given statements one is wrong for
competitive inhibition
(a) Acromegaly
(1) Competitive inhibition is often used to control
(b) Myxedema
bacterial pathogens
(c) Addison’s disease
(2) Competitive inhibitors closely resemble the
(d) Diabetes mellitus substrate in its molecular structure
How many of them is/are the disorders due to (3) Competitive inhibitors link to the enzyme through
hypersecretion? covalent linkage
(1) One (4) Competitive inhibitors do not affect Vmax of the
(2) Two reaction if Km of the reaction is increased
156. Given below are four statements (I-IV) regarding
(3) Three
human blood circulatory system
(4) Four
(I) Veins possess thick walls and a narrow lumen
150. During cleavage all of the following increase, except
(II) In the treatment of angina NO and nitroglycerine
(1) Number of cells is recommended
(2) Nuclear cytoplasmic ratio (III) Duration of cardiac cycle can be altered
(3) Size of cell/blastomere depending on metabolic needs of a person
(IV) Heart failure can be treated with the help of
(4) Metabolism
pacemakers
151. The assisted reproductive technology, in which
How many of the above are correct statements?
embryo formed by in-vivo fertilisation?
(1) I only (2) II & III
(1) ZIFT (2) IVF-ET
(3) III & IV (4) I & IV
(3) IUT (4) GIFT
157. In a standard ECG, the T wave denotes
152. In which of the following diseases, Aedes mosquito
acts as vector/carrier? (1) Depolarisation of atria

(1) Malaria, dengue and filaria (2) Depolarisation of AV node

(3) Repolarisation of ventricles
(2) Dengue, chikungunya and yellow fever
(4) Start of atrial systole
(3) Dengue, kala-azar and sleeping sickness
158. Antidiuretic hormone does not deal with
(4) Diphtheria, tetanus and pertussis
(1) Vasoconstriction of blood vessels
153. Diacetyl morphine is commonly called
(2) Prevention of diuresis
(1) Smack
(3) Excitation of osmoreceptors on detecting
(2) Crack increase in body fluid volume
(3) Coke (4) Increase in water absorption from DCT and
(4) Speed ball collecting duct
154. Choose the incorrect option w.r.t. origin and 159. In which one of the following the genus name, its two
evolution of life characters and its class/phylum are correctly
matched?
(1) The first cellular form of life were probably
chemoheterotrophic prokaryotes Genus
Two characters Class/phylum
name
(2) Charles Darwin concluded that existing living (1) Pteropus (a) Body covered by Reptiles
forms share similarities to varying degrees not hair
only among themselves but also with life forms (b) Oviparous
that existed millions of years ago (2) Chameleon (a) Pentadactyl limbs Reptiles
(b) Prehensile tail
(3) According to Darwin variations are small and (3) Torpedo (a) Electric organs Chondrichthyes
directionless (b) Four pairs of gill slits

(4) Evolution for Darwin was gradual while de-Vries (4) Scoliodon (a) Lateral line system Osteichthyes
(b) Ampullae of lorenzini
believed mutation caused speciation
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Mock Test for NEET - 2020 Home Assignment-7
160. Mark the correct option for tissue, location and 166. The common ancestors of seed ferns and
function progymnosperms are ________ that appeared
towards the end of __________ period.
Tissue Location Function
(1) Reticular Spleen Support (1) Chlorophyta, Devonian
tissue
(2) Brush bordered PCT Absorption (2) Psilophyton, Silurian
cuboidal
epithelium (3) Sphenopsids, Carboniferous
(3) Neurosensory Taste buds Conversion of
epithelium and cornea all types of
(4) Zosterophyllum, Jurassic
stimuli to
electrical stimuli
167. Adaptive radiation of a species in an isolated
(4) Glandular Lining of blood To handle geographical area is possible when
epithelium vessels blood pressure
(1) Biotic potential of the species is limited
161. One amongst the following hormones in excess is
(2) The resource is unlimited and superior
considered as diabetogenic hormones
competitors are absent
(1) Insulin (2) Cortisol
(3) Reproductive fitness of all the resident species
(3) Thyroxine (4) Aldosterone is comparable
162. Pineal gland secretes a hormone melatonin, plays a (4) Nature is favourable to one extreme of a trait in
very important role in the following, except an array of phenotypes
(1) Regulate diurnal rhythm of our body 168. The ability of Agrobacterium tumifaciens to behave
as a natural genetic engineer is because of
(2) Regulate body temperature
(1) Its ability to secrete opines
(3) Deal with skin pigmentation
(2) Its ability to link its prokaryotic DNA with
(4) Stimulate gonadal function
eukaryotic DNA without human interference
163. The process of formation of a mature female gamete
(3) Its ability to infect injured dicot plants
is called oogenesis, for which one amongst the
following statements is incorrect? (4) Presence of vir gene in its Ti plasmid, that
produces tumour
(1) A primary follicle carries primary oocyte that has
entered meiosis I 169. A genetically engineered micro-organism used
successfully in bioremediation of oil spills is a
(2) The primary follicle surrounded by many layers species of
of granulosa cells and a new theca is called
secondary follicle (1) Xanthomonas

(3) At puberty about 60,000–80,000 primary follicles (2) Pseudomonas

are lost by atresia (3) Bacillus
(4) After the formation of tertiary follicle the primary (4) Trichoderma
oocyte completes its first meiotic division
170. Use of IUDs within 72 hours of coitus, as emergency
164. One amongst the following may not be considered contraceptive is mainly aimed at
as the outcome of an undetected STD
(1) Preventing sperm ascent
(1) Pelvic inflammatory diseases
(2) Preventing mating of sperm and ovum
(2) Ectopic pregnancies
(3) Preventing implantation
(3) Abortions and still births
(4) Killing of sperms
(4) Lactational amenorrhoea
171. In response to decrease in blood volume and blood
165. Following examples show analogy, except pressure which of the following does not occur?
(1) Eye of Octopus and eye of mammal (1) Increase in level of Aldosterone
(2) Flippers of penguins and dolphins (2) Increase in the level of ADH
(3) Sweet potato and potato (3) Increase in level of Renin
(4) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita (4) Increase in the level of ANF
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Home Assignment-7 Mock Test for NEET - 2020
172. Find the mismatch 177. Mark the correct combination of drugs which quickly
reduce the symptoms of allergy
(1) Joint between carpal and metacarpal of thumb –
Gliding joint (1) Histamine, serotonin, heparin
(2) Joint between humerus and pectoral girdle – Ball (2) Antihistamine, adrenaline, steroids
and Socket joint
(3) Adrenaline, noradrenaline, histamine
(3) Hinge joint – Elbow joint
(4) Interferon, adrenaline, steroids
(4) Joint between Atlas and Axis – Pivot joint
178. Mark the non-invasive technique without any side
173. The regulation of sexual behaviour, expression of effects to diagnose the cancer of internal organs
emotional reactions and motivation is the function of
(1) Radiography
(1) Corpora quadrigemina
(2) Computed tomography
(2) Basal ganglia
(3) Histopathological studies
(3) Limbic system
(4) Magnetic resonance imaging
(4) Cerebrum and hypothalamus
179. Change of frequency of alleles in a population would
174. Damage of suspensory ligaments of eye will affect
be expected in a population if it
(1) Ability to see colours
(1) Shows no genetic drift
(2) Ability to absorb dazzling effect of light
(2) Shows no selection
(3) Accommodation property of eye
(3) Is evolving
(4) The texture of lens
(4) Shows no gene flow
175. Humoral immune response of body
180. The importance of gas bubbles in sparged tank
(1) Deals with cellular immune response
reactor is that
(2) Is stimulated by T-cells
(1) Gas bubbles are meant for sterilisation of the
(3) Is mainly responsible for Graft rejection culture
(4) Promotes the increased activity of neutrophils (2) Bubbles dramatically increase the oxygen
176. Type of antibody that remains attached to mucus transfer area
membranes of body is (3) Bubbles help in purification of culture
(1) IgA (2) IgM
(4) Bubbles help in easy release of product from
(3) IgD (4) IgG sampling port

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Edition: 2020-21