CHAPTER 2

1. The two kinds of cells in the nervous system are __________, which receive and transmit
information to other cells, and __________, which do not transmit information.

A) neurons, glia

2. The outer surface of a cell is called the __________ and the fluid inside the cell is the
__________.

D) membrane, cytoplasm

3. Which structure within an animal cell contains the chromosomes?

D) nucleus

4. The main feature that distinguishes a neuron from other cells is the neuron's

D) varied shape.

5. Which part of a neuron contains the nucleus?

A) cell body

6. Neurons have one __________, but can have any number of __________.

B) axon, dendrites

7. An axon hillock is

D) a swelling at the start of an axon, next to the cell body.

8. As a general rule, axons convey information

C) away from the cell body.

9. One way to tell the difference between a dendrite and an axon is that dendrites usually

D) taper in diameter toward their periphery.

10. An interneuron is

B) a neuron that receives all its information from other neurons and conveys impulses only to other
neurons.
11. A neuron that conveys information toward the hippocampus is considered a (an) __________
cell, with regard to the hippocampus.

A) afferent

12. A neuron that conveys information away from the hippocampus is considered a (an)
__________ cell, with regard to the hippocampus.

B) efferent

13. A neuron that has an axon and dendrites that branch diffusely, but only extend within a small
radius, is probably a(n)_________.

C) interneuron

14. In the human brain, glia cells are

C) more numerous than neurons.

15. One function NOT performed by glia is to

C) transmit information.

16. Keeping animals in a varied environment with much stimulation leads to which change in
neuronal structure?

A) Increased branching of dendrites.

17. How does the structure of neurons change when an older person becomes senile?

C) Many neurons die and dendrites branch less widely in the remainder.

18. The difference in voltage between the inside and the outside of a neuron that typically exists is
called the

C) resting potential.

19. What is meant by the term "concentration gradient"?

B) Potassium ions are more concentrated inside the cell and sodium ions are more concentrated
outside.

20. The sodium potassium pump pumps sodium ions __________ and potassium ions
__________.
D) out of the cell, into the cell

21. The sodium potassium pump makes possible which of the following features of a neuron?

B) Resting potential.

22. When the neuron is at rest, which of the following forces tends to move potassium ions OUT
OF the cell?

A) Concentration gradient.

23. If a stimulus shifts the potential inside a neuron from the resting potential to a more negative
potential, the result is

A) hyperpolarization.

24. If a stimulus shifts the potential inside a neuron from the resting potential to a potential slightly
closer to zero, the result is known as

B) depolarization.

25. A membrane produces an action potential whenever the potential across it reaches

D) the myelin sheath.

26. According to the all or none law,

C) the size of the action potential is independent of the strength of the stimulus that initiated it.

27. For a given neuron, the resting potential is  70 mV and the threshold is  55 mV.

Stimulus A depolarizes the membrane to exactly  55 mV.

Stimulus B depolarizes the membrane to  40 mV. What can we expect to happen?

D) Stimulus A and stimulus B will produce action potentials of the same size.

28. How can a neuron signal the difference between an intense stimulus and a stimulus that just
barely reaches the threshold for an instant?

C) Frequency of action potentials.

29. During the entire course of events from the start of an action potential until the membrane
returns to its resting potential, the net movement of ions is
C) sodium in, potassium out.

30. The refractory period of a neuron is a period of time when

C) a usually adequate stimulus cannot produce an action potential.

31. No stimulus can excite a membrane to produce an action potential if

A) the membrane is in its absolute refractory period.

32. Which feature of a neuron limits the number of action potentials it can produce per second?

B) Refractory period.

33. Suppose we find that the maximum firing rate of a given neuron is 50 action potentials per
second. What is the refractory period of that cell?

B) 1/50 sec.

34. Most action potentials begin

C) at the axon hillock.

35. Once an action potential starts,

D) it is regenerated at various points along the axon, the same way that it began.

36. The velocity of an action potential is

C) 1 100 m/sec.

37. On which of the following would action potentials travel the slowest?

B) A thin, unmyelinated axon.

38. The function of a myelin sheath is to

B) increase the velocity of transmission along an axon.

39. What are the nodes of Ranvier?

D) Interruptions in the myelin sheath.

 

40. Saltatory conduction refers to

B) transmission of an impulse along a myelinated axon.

41.

1. By an IPSP (Inhibitory Postsynaptic Potential), electric potential differences across the

postsynaptic membrane increase.

2. By an EPSP (Excitatory Postsynaptic Potential), electric potential differences across the

postsynaptic membrane increase.

3. By an IPSP, electric potential differences across the postsynaptic membrane decrease.

4. By an EPSP, electric potential differences across the postsynaptic membrane decrease.

B) 1 and 4 are true; 2 and 3 are untrue.

42. Suppose that the brains of two adult rats are to be investigated.

The first rat was raised in an environment full with fellow rats and sensory stimuli (enriched
environment), and the second was raised singly in a small empty cage (impoverished
environment). It will appear that the brain of the first rat in comparison with the second:

C) contains almost the same number of nerve cells; on the other hand, the number of synapses of
nerve cells is increased.

43. Assume that the duration of an action potential is 1 msec and the duration of the refractory
period is also 1 msec. What is the largest number of action potentials that can be transported over
the axon per second?

B) 500.

44. Which of the following statements related to nerve and glia cells is NOT true?

C) Nerve cells, just as glia cells, have the power to divide.

45. By the creation of action potentials, shifts in the concentrations of sodium and potassium ions
play an essential role. If we follow these changes over a certain period, we note the following:

B) first sodium ions enter the cell, somewhat later potassium ions leave the cell.

46. The speed that an action potential travels down an axon is increased by

C) the presence of a myelin sheath.

CHAPTER 3

1. The abbreviation EPSP stands for

D) excitatory post synaptic potential.

2. An EPSP is a

A) graded depolarization.

3. If an EPSP adds to what is left of a previous EPSP, what has occurred?

A) Temporal summation.

4. An EPSP results from

C) the entry of sodium into the postsynaptic neuron.

5. Spatial summation refers to

C) adding two stimuli from different sources at the same time.

6. Where do temporal summation and spatial summation take place?

D) The postsynaptic membrane in the axon hillock.

7. A normal, healthy animal never contracts the flexor muscles and the extensor muscles of the
same leg at the same time. Why not?

A) The nerves to one set of muscles have inhibitory synapses onto the nerves to the other set.

8. An IPSP is a(n)

D) temporary hyperpolarization.

9. Which of the following combinations would be most likely to produce an action potential?

B) Two EPSPs.

10. The distance a synapse is from the axon hillock

B) determines the influence of that synapse: nearer synapses have stronger influences.
 

11. The "spontaneous rate" of a neuron is its

C) rate of producing action potentials when it is not stimulated.

12. Which of the following is true about spontaneous firing rates of neurons?

A) EPSPs increase the frequency.

13. What determines whether a neuron has an action potential?

C) The combined effect of EPSPs and IPSPs.

14. What is the chemical relationship between the synaptic transmitters dopamine and
norepinephrine?

D) The brain can convert dopamine into norepinephrine in one step.

15. The synthesis of neurotransmitter molecules takes place

D) in either the cell body or the presynaptic terminal, depending on the particular neurotransmitter.

16. When an action potential reaches the end of an axon, the depolarization causes what ionic
movement?

D) Calcium into the cell.

17. The synaptic cleft is

A) the gap between the presynaptic neuron and the postsynaptic neuron.

18. When a presynaptic cell releases a neurotransmitter, the chemical

B) diffuses across the synaptic cleft.

19. The effect that a neurotransmitter has on the postsynaptic neuron is determined by

C) the receptors of the postsynaptic membrane.

20. Acetylcholinesterase is an enzyme that

D) breaks acetylcholine down, after its release, into less active components.
 

21. After acetylcholine attaches to a receptor on the postsynaptic cell,

A) the enzyme acetylcholinesterase breaks it into two fragments.

22. What would be the effect of a drug that inhibits the action of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase?

A) Prolonged action of the transmitter acetylcholine at its synapses.

23. One way to prolong the effects of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine is to use a drug that

D) inhibits the effects of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase.

24. A drug that blocks the effects of a neurotransmitter is a(n) __________; a drug that mimics or
increases the effects is a(n) __________.

D) antagonist, agonist

25. Saying that a drug has an affinity for a particular receptor means

B) the drug readily binds with the receptor.

26. The stronger an agonist's affinity is to a receptor, the __________ powerful a drug it is likely to
be; the stronger an antagonist's affinity the __________ powerful it is likely to be.

C) more, more

27. Which of the following is NOT one of the ways drugs can affect the presynaptic neuron?

C) They may cause synaptic vesicles to divide and multiply.

28. A drug that attaches directly to the receptors on the postsynaptic neuron

D) could have either agonistic or antagonistic effects.

29. Drugs influence brain activity by

D) all of the above

30. The deadly effect of the curare used by Indians on the tips of their arrows to poison wild
animals is caused by:

D) occupying the postsynaptic acetylcholine receptors so that acetylcholine no longer can function.
 

31. In general, a psychoactive drug influences synaptic transmission by three of the four following
processes:

1. The psychoactive drug occupies postsynaptic receptors, leading to an inactivation of the genuine
neurotransmitter.

2. The psychoactive drug cannot be cleared by the esterase, normally clearing the genuine
neurotransmitter.

3. The psychoactive drug leads to a disturbance of the diffusion process in the synaptic cleft,
inhibiting diffusion of the genuine neurotransmitter to the postsynaptic receptors.

4. The psychoactive drug modulates the release of the genuine neurotransmitter from the
presynaptic vesicles. Which process is not known to influence synaptic transmission?

C) 3.

32. Suppose that at rest, the axon hillock of a nerve cell simultaneously receives 10 EPSP's and 3
IPSP's where all EPSP's are 4 millivolt and IPSP's are 9 millivolt. The result is:

A) a depolarisation; no action potentials are generated.

33.

A. An EPSP (Excitatory PostSynaptic Potential) is a reduction of the electrical potential across a

postsynaptic membrane.

B. During an EPSP, the cell membrane is not permeable for sodium ions.

B) A is true, B is false.

34. Variations in diet control variations in

A) synthesis of synaptic transmitters.

35. Assume that on the axon hillock in rest simultaneously arrive 10 ESPS's and 4 ISPS's, where
all ESPS's are 3 millivolts and all ISPS's are 9 millivolt, then:

B) a hyperpolarisation is caused. No action potentials are generated.

CHAPTER 4

1. The central nervous system is made up of the __________ and __________.

D) brain, spinal cord

2. The division of the nervous system that is made up of neurons that control the heart, intestines,
and other organs is the
D) autonomic.

3. The autonomic and somatic nervous systems make up the

C) peripheral nervous system.

4. An axon in your hand that causes contraction of a muscle fiber in your finger would be part of the
__________ nervous system.

B) somatic

5. Comparing the brains of mammals, such as rats and humans, to fish and reptiles, one finds

D) the forebrain forms a larger proportion of the brain in mammals.

6. Two structures that are on the same side of the body are said to be __________ to each other.

D) ipsilateral

7. Which of the following means "toward the side, away from the midline"?

A) Lateral.

8. A set of axons within the CNS is called a

C) tract.

9. What is the difference between a ganglion and a nucleus?

B) Location in the nervous system.

10. Which of the following would be found outside the CNS?

B) Ganglion.

11. The sensory nerves enter the spinal cord on its __________ side; the motor nerves leave the
spinal cord on its __________ side.

B) dorsal, ventral

12. Gray matter in the brain and spinal cord consists mainly of
A) cell bodies and dendrites.

13. The portion of the nervous system that prepares the body for "fight or flight" activities, and
consists of two paired chains of ganglia is the __________ nervous system.

A) sympathetic

14. The sympathetic and parasympathetic make up the __________ nervous system.

B) autonomic

15. Which is controlled by a chain of ganglia near the thoracic and lumbar areas of the spinal cord?

A) Sympathetic nervous system.

16. Activity of the sympathetic nervous system increases

B) adrenal gland secretions.

17. Activity of the parasympathetic nervous system promotes

D) energy conserving, nonemergency functions.

18. What, generally, is the relationship between the activity of the sympathetic and the
parasympathetic nervous systems?

C) They usually have opposite effects on the same organ.

19. Eye movements are controlled by

B) cranial nerves 3, 4, and 6.

20. How many pairs of cranial nerves do humans have?

C) 12.

21. Which of the following is NOT part of the hindbrain?

B) Hippocampus.

22. Suppose someone suffered damage to cranial nerves 5, 9, and 10.

Which of the following functions would be most likely to be impaired?

D) Chewing and swallowing.

23. The cerebellum makes a well established contribution to the control of

D) Movement.

24. Which of the following is NOT part of the forebrain?

C) Medulla.

25. The forebrain structures located around the brain stem that are important for motivated and
emotional behavior are collectively known as the

A) limbic system.

26. An impairment of hormonal secretion, feeding, drinking, temperature regulation, or sexual

behavior suggests possible damage to the

C) hypothalamus.

27. If you wanted to see the olfactory bulbs, where should you look?

D) On the ventral surface of the brain, near the optic chiasm.

28. Damage to the basal ganglia would most likely result in

A) a movement disorder.

29. The cerebral cortex receives most of its input from neurons in the

A) thalamus.

30. The ventricles of the brain contain

C) cerebrospinal fluid.

31. What do the ventricles, central canal, and subarachnoid space have in common?

B) All are filled with cerebrospinal fluid.

 
32. Each hemisphere of the cerebral cortex receives most of its input from the __________ side of
the body and controls the muscles on the __________ side.

B) contralateral, contralateral

33. The large bundle of axons connecting the two hemispheres of the brain is the

A) corpus callosum.

34. Which part of the cerebral cortex is most important for visual information?

A) Occipital.

35. After damage to the striate cortex in the occipital cortex, a person suffers

B) blindness.

36. Which part of the cerebral cortex is most important for perception of body information, including
the sense of touch?

B) Parietal lobe.

37. Someone who suddenly loses the ability to identify objects by feeling them has probably
suffered damage to the

A) parietal lobe of the cerebral cortex.

38. One of the common symptoms of damage to the parietal lobe of the cerebral cortex is

A) loss of ability to identify objects by touch.

39. What separates the frontal lobe of the cerebral cortex from the parietal lobe?

B) The central sulcus.

40. The primary area of the cerebral cortex for auditory and equilibrium sensations is the

C) temporal lobe.

41. The temporal lobe of the cerebral cortex is the primary target for which kind of sensory
information?

B) Auditory and equilibrium.

 

42. A strip along the rear of the frontal lobe, the precentral gyrus, is essential for the control of

A) fine movements.

43. A significant difference between the brains of primates and those of most other species is the

D) extensive folding of the cerebral cortex.

44. What is a lesion?

D) An area that has been damaged.

45. In an electroencephalograph

C) electrodes are attached to the scalp to record electrical activity of the brain.

46. Which instrument is used in studies of evoked potentials?

C) Electroencephalograph.

47. Early in development, the nervous system begins as

A) a tube surrounding a fluid filled cavity.

48. When do the ventricles and the central canal of the spinal cord form?

C) At the beginning of the formation of the nervous system.

49. The average adult brain weight is 1,200 to 1,400 g. The brain weighs almost that much (1,000
g)

C) at 1 year.

50. How does the number of neurons in a fetus compare to the number in an adult of 40 years?

D) The fetus has more.

51. The hypothalamus has a function by:

B) control of the automatic nervous system.

 
52. Which cranial nerves mediate the sensations and the expression of the face?

A) The trigeminal nerve and the facial nerve.

53. Which statement with respect to the cerebellum is NOT correct?

C) The cerebellum is located ventrally of the brain stem.

54. Although the human brain in many respects resembles the brain of animals, there appear to be
quantitative differences. The most striking is that:

D) in the human brain, cortical association areas are relatively most expanded.

55. During which state of alertness is the pupil of the eye, under identical light conditions, the most
dilated?

B) During the waking state, associated with beta rhythm in the EEG.

56. The feeling of sensations in the right foot can be felt by stimulations of:

A) the dorsal part of the left somatosensory cortex.

57. The brain develops from the neural tube. At the side of the head five vesicles emerge. The
thalamus and the pons develop respectively from:

C) the diencephalon and the metencephalon.

58. Which cranial nerves are involved in moving the eye balls?

D) The oculomotor nerve, the trochlear nerve and the abducens nerve.

CHAPTER 6

1. In many ways the eye is analogous to a camera. The light sensitive surface in the back of the
eye that would correspond to the film in a camera is the

B) retina.

2. Where are the rods and cones of the eye located?

A) Retina.

3. The fovea is the part of the retina

A) with the greatest perception of detail.

4. If you want to see something in fine detail, you should focus the light on which part of your
retina?

B) Fovea.

5. Anatomically, which of the following types of cell in the retina is located closest to the pupil?

D) Ganglion cells.

6. Rods and cones make direct synaptic contact with __________ and __________.

B) bipolar cells, horizontal cells

7. The optic nerve, which conveys visual information to the brain, is composed of axons from which
kind of cell?

D) Ganglion cells.

8. Why is the blind spot of the retina blind?

B) It is the point where the optic nerve leaves the retina and there are no rods or cones.

9. The point at which the optic nerve leaves the retina is known as the

A) blind spot.

10. The two kinds of receptors in the retina are

A) rods and cones.

11. The optic nerves from the two eyes

A) meet to form the optic chiasm, where half of the axons from each eye cross to the other side.

12. The occipital lobe of the cerebral cortex receives visual information directly from

D) the lateral geniculate of the thalamus.

13. In comparison to the rods, the cones of the retina are

B) more sensitive to detail.

14. Walking down a dark alley at night, Nathan is startled by the movement of a cat that he sees
out of the "corner of his eye". He is unable to see the cat when he looks directly at it because

B) cones are less sensitive to dim light.

15. The perception of color depends on

B) cones.

16. In comparison to the cones, the rods are

B) more sensitive to dim light.

17. Why are humans unable to distinguish colors in their extreme peripheral vision?

C) The periphery of the retina contains only rods.

18. Retinal ganglion cells form two classes, based on characteristics of their receptive fields: 1)
"on centre off surround" cells, 2) "off centre on surround" cells. A light moves across type 2, so that
it FIRST hits the periphery (surround) and THEN the centre, one would note the following changes
in the firing frequency of this ganglion cell:

C) an increase of the frequency, followed by a reduction falling under the original level.

19. Compared to the periphery of the retina, the fovea

C) has a greater percentage of cones.

20. The range of wavelengths detected by the human eye is approximately

B) 400 700 nm.

21. According to the Young Helmholtz theory, color vision is based on

B) three kinds of receptors.

22. In the most common form of color blindness people have difficulty distinguishing between what
two colors?

C) Red and green.

 
23. Males are __________ likely to be color blind compared to females.

C) more

24. Lateral inhibition refers to

B) the reduction of activity in one neuron by activity in a neighbouring neuron.

25. In the vertebrate retina, which type of cell is responsible for lateral inhibition?

A) Horizontal cell.

26. Horizontal cells in the vertebrate retina receive their input from __________; they send
inhibitory input to __________.

B) rods and cones, bipolar cells

27. What is the receptive field for a neuron in the visual system?

B) An area of the retina in which stimulation influences the activity of the cell.

28. If stimulating receptor A leads to either excitation or inhibition of a particular neuron in the brain,
then receptor A is part of that neuron's

C) receptive field.

29. The typical shape of a receptive field for a retinal bipolar cell is

D) either a or b above, depending on the individual cell

30. Which stimulus is most adequate in activating a ganglion cell with an off centre on surround
receptive field?

C) A stimulus which simultaneously darkens the total centre and lightens the total surround.

31. What happens when a small spot of light is moved over the receptive field of an on centre
off surround ganglion cell of the retina in a way that the spot first hits the surround and then the
centre?

A) First there is a reduction in the spontaneous firing rate of the cell, followed by a sharp increase.

32. How can one find the receptive field of a cell in the visual system?

D) Shine light on various parts of the retina and determine the cell's responses.
 

33. If we compare neurons at progressively higher levels of the visual system (bipolar, ganglion,
etc.), what do we generally find about their receptive fields?

B) At higher levels, the receptive fields are larger and more complicated, since they are made up of
a combination of lower level receptive fields.

34. Axons from the lateral geniculate extend directly to which parts of the cerebral cortex?

A) Striate cortex.

35. In which layer of the retina is visual information coded in series of action potentials?

D) In the layer of the ganglion cells.

36. The function of the horizontal cells in the retina is related to:

D) increase of contrast.

37. The corpus geniculatum laterale is a nucleus:

D) in the thalamus, belonging to the visual system.

38. Where is the receptive field of a lateral geniculate cell located?

A) In the retina.

39. Where is the receptive field of a visual cell in the striate cortex located?

A) In the retina.

40. Which stimulus is most adequate in activating a ganglion cell with an on centre off surround
receptive field?

D) A stimulus which simultaneously lightens the total centre and darkens the total surround.

41. The three types of cells in the primary visual cortex are known as

A) simple, complex, and hypercomplex.

 
 

42. A simple cell in the primary visual cortex responds to light in a receptive field shaped like a

A) bar in a particular orientation.

CHAPTER 7

1. What is the basis for differences in sensory abilities across species?

C) Organisms detect a range of stimuli that are biologically relevant for that species.

2. Which of the following would be able to see the ultraviolet markings on a flower?

A) A bee.

3. The conversion of physical energy from some external source (eg. light or sound) into an
electrochemical pattern in the neurons is called

B) transduction.

4. With reference to the sensory systems, "transduction" means

D) the conversion of physical energy into an electrochemical pattern in the neurons.

5. According to the law of specific nerve energies,

A) electrical stimulation of the auditory nerve is perceived as sound.

6. Which of the following (if true) would most seriously violate the "law of specific nerve energies"?

A) A given sensory nerve conveys visual information at one time and auditory information at
another.

7. The intensity of a sound wave is its __________; the perception of that intensity is its
__________.

D) amplitude, loudness

8. The average healthy adult can hear pitches ranging from a low of __________ Hz to a high of
almost __________ Hz.

A) 15, 20,000
 

9. Suppose the highest pitch you can hear is about 20,000 Hz. Under what circumstances will that
limit decrease?

A) It drops naturally as you grow older.

10. Three small bones connect the tympanic membrane to the oval window of the inner ear. The
function of those bones is to

B) convert air waves into waves of greater pressure.

11. The cochlea is part of which sensory system?

B) Auditory.

12. The receptor cells of the auditory system are known as

C) hair cells.

13. Transduction of sound occurs when hair cells are bent on the

C) basilar membrane.

14. "Every sound causes one location along the basilar membrane to resonate, and thereby excites
neurons in that area" This is one way to state which theory about pitch perception?

C) Place theory.

15. Travelling waves for high frequency tones produce maximum displacement

A) at the base of the basilar membrane.

16. Damage to the cochlea, hair cells, or auditory nerve can produce

B) nerve deafness.

17. Most people with nerve deafness (inner ear deafness) can hear

A) some frequencies of sound better than others.

18. Touch, pain, and other body sensations are known as __________ senses.

D) mechanical
 

19. Which two sensory systems are based on the responses of hair cells?

B) Hearing and vestibular sensation.

20. Various types of somatosensation (pain, discriminative touch, hair movement, stretch of
muscles, etc.)

D) are kept separate at all levels from the receptors through the cerebral cortex.

21. What kind of stimulation does a Pacinian corpuscle respond to?

D) Displacement of the skin.

22. Somatosensory information travels from the thalamus to four parallel strips in the

A) parietal lobe.

23. The brain chemicals known as endorphins and enkephalins produce effects similar to

C) opiates.

24. In what way do morphine and other opiate drugs decrease sensitivity to pain?

B) By mimicking the effects of endorphins at the synapses.

25. Which of the following produces analgesia (relief from pain)?

D) Endorphins.

26. If a tumor develops in the dorsal somatosensory cortex of the right half of the brain, this can
lead to a loss of feeling in

C) the left foot.

27. In the skin lie a large number of sensory receptors that together provide information about
senses. Findings indicate that feelings of pain are transmitted through

C) the free nerve endings.

28. The corpus geniculatum mediale is a nucleus

A) in the thalamus, belonging to the auditory system.

 

29. Various receptor systems which together mediate somato sensory information, are present in
the skin. Evidence exists that the sensation of pressure is mediated by

A) Pacinian corpuscles.

CHAPTER 8

1. The type of muscle that is responsible for movement of your body with respect to the
environment is the __________ muscle.

B) striated

2. The relationship between axons of motor neurons and muscle fibers is

D) the fewer muscle fibers a single axon innervates, the more precise the movements the muscle
can make.

3. Why can the eye muscles be moved with greater precision than the biceps muscles?

D) The eye muscles have a higher ratio of axons to muscle fibers.

4. A high ratio of axons to muscle fibers leads to

A) greater precision of movement.

5. When an axon releases a transmitter at the nerve muscle junction, the muscle

B) contracts (always).

6. Acetylcholine causes a muscle to contract. What will cause the muscle to relax?

B) Prolonged absence of acetylcholine.

7. What transmitter do axons release at the nerve muscle junction of skeletal muscles?

D) They all release acetylcholine.

8. The synapse where a motor neuron's axon meets a muscle fiber is called a(n)

A) Neuromuscular junction.

9. Which muscle is "antagonistic" to a flexor muscle in the left leg?

B) An extensor muscle in the left leg.

10. In order to be able to move your arm in all directions, each set of muscles in your arm and
shoulder must have

D) an antagonist set of muscles.

11. The cell bodies of motor neurons in mammals are located

B) in the spinal cord and medulla.

12. Loss of eye movements may be due to damage to either the __________ or the __________.

D) cerebellum, cranial nerves.

13. Which of these disorders is commonly treated with L DOPA?

B) Parkinson's disease.

14. Which would be especially important (i.e. used much more than normal) when you run up a
flight of stairs at full speed?

A) Fast twitch muscles.

15. Which of the following fatigues rapidly?

D) Fast twitch muscles.

16. A proprioceptor is a receptor that is sensitive to

B) the position and movement of a part of the body.

17. The muscle spindle is a receptor that responds to

D) stretch of the muscle.

18. A sudden stretch of a muscle excites a feedback system that opposes the stretch. That system
starts with the excitation of the

D) muscle spindles.

19. What statement is valid regarding Parkinson's disease?

B) The basal ganglia are affected, expressed in a tremor during rest.

20. A muscle spindle in your leg is stretched. It sends a message to the spinal cord which, in turn,
sends a message

A) back to the same muscle, causing it to contract.

21. Which kind of proprioceptor responds to increases in muscle tension?

A) Golgi tendon organ.

22. The role of the Golgi tendon organs is to

A) control the intensity of muscle contractions.

23. Muscle spindles respond to changes in muscle __________; Golgi tendon organs respond to
changes in muscle __________.

C) stretch, tension

24. Activity in a muscle spindle ultimately results in __________ of the relevant muscle; activity in
the Golgi tendon organ ultimately results in __________ of the relevant muscle.

A) contraction, inhibition of contraction

25. One difference between a skilled and an unskilled sequence of movements is that the unskilled
movements rely more on

B) moment by moment feedback.

26. A motor program is a

D) mechanism that controls a large coordinated group of movements.

27. The cerebellum is most important for

D) learned motor programs of ballistic movements.

28. People who have suffered damage to the cerebellum

A) have to plan their movements one at a time, not as a smooth sequence.

 
29. Speaking, piano playing, athletic skills, and other rapid movements are most impaired by
damage to the

B) cerebellum.

30. The finger to nose test is a common way of testing for possible damage to the

D) cerebellum.

31. Tests for alcoholic intoxication resemble the tests for damage to the

B) cerebellum.

32. The symptoms of damage to the cerebellum resemble those of

C) alcoholic intoxication.

33. The caudate nucleus, putamen, globus pallidus, substantia nigra, and subthalamic nucleus
make up the

A) basal ganglia.

34. Following damage to the basal ganglia, people

D) have difficulty initiating movements.

35. Direct electrical stimulation of the motor cortex generally produces

B) a coordinated movement involving more than one muscle.

36. Muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs are two kinds of proprioceptors in the muscle. Which
statement is correct?

C) Muscle spindles contain, besides a sensory part also a motor part. They are linked in parallel
with the muscle fibers.

37. Which statement is correct?

D) Muscle fibers cause the actual contraction of a muscle. They are innervated by alpha motor
neurons.

 
38. The two major systems in the mammalian cerebral cortex for controlling movement are the
__________ and the __________.

C) dorsolateral, ventromedial

39. Axons of the dorsolateral motor system extend from the __________ to the ____.

C) cerebral cortex, medulla and spinal cord

40. More than half of the axons of the dorsolateral system originate in the

A) primary motor cortex.

41. A common treatment for Parkinson's disease is a drug that

B) increases the brain's production of dopamine.

42. A common treatment for Parkinson's disease is the drug

C) L DOPA.

43. Which of the following is NOT common in people with Parkinson's disease?

D) Outbursts of emotional excitement.

44. One of the main symptoms of Parkinson's disease is

C) difficulty initiating movements.

45. Fine motor control of such movements as threading a needle depend mostly on the
__________ system.

A) sympathetic

46. The dorsolateral motor system is most important for

C) fine control of precise movements.

CHAPTER 9

1. "Endogenous" means
D) generated from within.

2. Which of the following is most clearly under the control of a circadian rhythm in most animals?

A) Sleep.

3. A "free running rhythm" is

D) the time cycle generated by a biological clock that is not reset.

4. A "Zeitgeber" is

C) a mechanism that resets a biological clock.

5. What is the principal Zeitgeber for land animals?

C) Light.

6. Under what circumstance is a person's circadian activity cycle most likely to drift out of phase
with the activity of other people?

C) If the person spends a period of time in a cave, away from sunlight.

7. If people live in an environment in which the cycle of light and dark is not 24 hours,

C) they adjust better if the cycle is close to 24 (e.g. 25).

8. When humans who are cut off from sunlight and outside contact start sleeping on a schedule
other than 24 hours, their waking/sleeping cycle generally drifts out of phase with their __________
cycle.

C) temperature

9. What ordinarily happens to a humans body temperature over the course of 24 hours?

A) It is about 1 Celsius degree higher in the afternoon than in the middle of the night.

10. The evidence we have for the existence of two (or more) biological clocks in humans is that

A) under some conditions the wake/sleep cycle drifts out of phase with the temperature cycle.

 
11. The biological clock that controls sleeping and wakefulness is apparently independent (or partly
independent) of the biological clock that controls __________.

C) temperature

12. Brain damage in what area disrupts the biological clock most greatly?

C) Suprachiasmatic nucleus.

13. What is the role of the suprachiasmatic nucleus in the biological clock?

A) Its neurons generate a 24 hour rhythm themselves.

14. One line of evidence AGAINST the repair and restoration theory of sleep is that

A) people sleep as long after an inactive day as after a vigorous day.

15. A device that can be used to measure stages of sleep is the

B) EEG.

16. An electroencephalograph measures

D) the net average activity of a large number of neurons in a given region of the brain.

17. What is the best way to objectively determine if someone is asleep?

C) Monitor brain waves.

18. Alpha waves occur in an EEG record during

C) relaxed wakefulness.

19. What do the EEG waves look like when brain activity is "desynchronized"?

D) Irregular with low amplitude.

20. EEG waves are larger when brain activity decreases because

B) neurons become more synchronized when stimulation decreases.

 
21. If as the result of an accident the brain is damaged and such that the frontal part of the
mesencephalon is destroyed then the patient would:

B) suffer from a more or less permanent coma.

22. The cause for a reduction in sleep among older persons is that there is a:

A) reduced amount of REM sleep and a reduced amount of slow wave sleep, especially of stage 4.

23. Suppose the EEG shows a pattern of irregular waves of low amplitude. What must be going on
in the brain?

A) The neurons are active out of phase with one another.

24. Sleep spindles (bursts of 12 to 14 Hz waves) and K complexes are most characteristic of
__________ sleep.

B) stage 2

25. REM sleep is synonymous with

D) paradoxical sleep.

26. Stages 2, 3, and 4 differ in their

B) percentage of slow, low amplitude waves.

27. The contradiction in "REM" sleep is the fact that

B) the brain is very active, while many of the muscles of the body are deeply relaxed.

28. Facial twitches, finger twitches, and eye movements are most characteristic of

D) REM sleep.

29. Which of the following is NOT associated with REM sleep?

D) Postural muscles tense and active.

30. The EEG record for REM sleep is most similar to that of

A) stage 1 sleep.

 
31. REM sleep is associated with

C) a high level of brain activity.

32. REM sleep stands for

D) rapid eye movement.

33. For a normal person, a cycle of sleep from stage 1 to stage 4 and back again to stage 1 lasts
about

B) 90 100 minutes.

34. REM sleep, also called paradoxical sleep, is characterised by:

C) an EEG pattern with small waves and a low muscle tension.

35. For a normal person, which part of a night's sleep contains the largest percentage of stage 4
sleep?

A) Early in the night’s sleep.

36. Compared to the early part of a night's sleep, the later part

A) includes a larger percentage of REM sleep.

37. What is the relationship between sleep stage and dreaming?

C) Dreams occur in both, but they are more frequent and more vivid in REM sleep.

38. If a person's dream seemed to that person to have lasted about 5 minutes, how long did it
really last?

A) About 5 minutes.

39. What is the best way to determine if an individual who claims to never dream does, in fact,
have dreams?

B) Wake them up during REM sleep and ask them if they had been dreaming.

40. If a person has been awakened every time he or she entered REM sleep for a few days, and is
now permitted to sleep without interruptions, he or she

A) gets about 50 percent more REM sleep than usual.

 

41. Which statement with respect to stage 2 and stage 4 of slow wave sleep is correct?

A) Stage 2 dominates in the later part of the night, while stage 4 dominates in the first part.

42. If a cat is awakened every time it starts to enter REM sleep, the number of attempts to enter
REM sleep

C) gradually increases, up to a point.

43. Human subjects deprived of REM sleep for several consecutive days generally report

B) anxiety, irritability, and impaired concentration.

44. Which of the following most accurately describes the effect of external stimuli while a person is
asleep?

C) You process some external stimuli while you are asleep, and those stimuli may or may not
influence your dreams.

45. The brain goes into a prolonged state of sleep if it is cut off from

C) the ascending reticular activating system.

46. High frequency electrical stimulation to the ascending reticular activating system leads to

B) increased wakefulness.

47. In contrast to the visual system, the somatosensory system, or any other single sensory
system, the cells of the ascending reticular activating system

C) have more diffuse, irregular connections.

48. The structure of the ascending reticular activating system makes it highly suitable for

A) conveying general arousal.

49. The ascending reticular activating system receives input from __________ sources, and sends
impulses __________.

A) a variety of diffuse, diffusely throughout the cerebral cortex

50. PGO (as in PGO waves) is an abbreviation for

C) pons geniculate occipital.

51. In the EEG ______ waves dominate when the subject is engaged in solving complicated
problems, ______ waves dominate when the subject is awake but in a relaxed state, and ______
waves dominate when the subject is in deep sleep.

D) beta, alpha, delta

52. Narcolepsy is characterized by

C) sudden periods of sleepiness during the day.

53. Which of the following has often been interpreted as an intrusion of REM sleep into
wakefulness?

A) Narcolepsy.

CHAPTER 10

1. How do adult mammals with damage to the preoptic area regulate their body temperature?

C) Behaviorally.

2. Mammals with damage to their preoptic area regulate their body temperature the same way as
__________.

B) reptiles

3. Prostaglandin E is a chemical that

B) causes an increase in body temperature.

4. Which of these chemicals is responsible for producing fevers?

D) Prostaglandin E.

5. If an animal that lacks physiological mechanisms of temperature control gets an infection, it

C) chooses a hotter environment and gets a fever behaviorally.

6. Which of the following is TRUE about a fever?

C) It is part of the body's defense against an illness.

7. Which animal would have the best chance of surviving a bacterial infection?

C) One with a slight or moderate temperature increase.

8. Highly concentrated urine would most likely come from a __________ in its natural habitat.

D) gerbil

9. Your posterior pituitary would be most likely to release antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

A) if you are very thirsty.

10. Which of the following reports is a replicable phenomenon?

A) A deficiency of sodium in the blood triggers an immediate increase in preference for salty tastes.

11. Most of the calories people consume are used

D) for basal metabolism.

12. Lesions to the lateral hypothalamus and ventromedial hypothalamus alter feeding at least partly
via effects on

C) insulin levels.

13. The hormone released by the posterior pituitary that causes your kidneys to reabsorb and
conserve water is __________.

A) antidiuretic hormone

14. Thirst depends on two set points: one for __________ and the other for __________.

B) pH of the blood, temperature of the brain

15. Osmotic pressure of the body fluids increases when you

D) donate blood.

16. Osmotic thirst results from

C) low blood volume.

17. When food distends the duodenum, the duodenum releases the hormone

D) prolactin.

18. An injection of CCK

A) increases sodium appetite.

19. One way in which CCK probably acts to decrease meal size is by

C) acting on the taste receptors to decrease the appeal of sweet tastes.

20. According to one likely interpretation, the hormone CCK promotes satiety by

B) increasing the rate at which glucose enters the cells of the body.

21. Why does the level of glucose in the blood vary so little under normal circumstances?

C) Mammals learn to eat only foods that contain glucose.

22. When insulin levels are high,

D) activity and energy levels increase.

23. How does a chronically high insulin level lead to increased appetite?

B) It prevents glucose from entering the cells.

24. When blood levels of insulin are extremely low (as in diabetes),

C) much glucose is in the blood but it cannot enter the cells.

25. Both high levels of insulin and very low levels of insulin lead to increased eating because in
both cases

C) little glucose is reaching the cells to be used as fuel.

26. While an animal is putting on extra fat in preparation for migration or hibernation, we should
expect insulin levels to be
C) high.

27. Variations in insulin level alter hunger by changing the

C) availability of glucose to the cells.

28. When people are eating, or getting ready to eat,

C) insulin levels rise.

29. When obese people eat, they

C) release more insulin than people of normal weight.

30. What effect, if any, does dieting have on basal metabolism?

C) Metabolic rate increases when dieting.

31. Which of the following activate the same satiety mechanism that the taste of food does?

A) Taste of plain water.

32. Prostaglandines are:

B) endogenous stimulators of an increase in body temperature due to an event in the preoptic

area.

33. Which of the following conclusions to the statement below is FALSE?

Lesions in the hypothalamus, including the preoptic area, can lead to:

B) disturbances in body temperature.

34. Humans expend most of their energy

D) maintaining body temperature.

35. A homeostatic process is one that

D) regulates blood flow.

 
36. What is one of the main differences between temperature regulation in mammals and a
thermostat in a house?

B) The thermostat has an upper and lower limit; the body only has an upper limit for temperature
regulation.

37. If an animal's body temperature stays the same as that of the environment, it is said to be
__________.

C) poikilothermic

38. One advantage of being homeothermic is that it

C) enables the evolution of precise coordination of chemical reactions.

39. One advantage of maintaining a constant body temperature is that it

C) minimizes the energy that must be expended on basal metabolism.

40. Shivering, fur erection, blood vessel constriction, and sweating are controlled by the

A) pineal body.

41. Cells in the preoptic area of the hypothalamus monitor

B) the difference in temperature between the arteries and veins.

42. A person is most likely to shiver if

A) the skin and the preoptic area are both cold.

43. After damage to the preoptic area, an animal

A) eats a great deal and gains weight.

44. The evidence we have that the preoptic area controls body temperature is that

D) heating or cooling the preoptic area leads to sweating or shivering.

45. How do amphibians and reptiles control their body temperature (if at all)?

D) By choosing an area of the environment.

 

46. Which organisms, if any, use behavioral means to regulate their body temperature?

D) Neither poikilothermic nor homeothermic.

47. How do infant rats regulate their body temperature?

C) By varying the thickness of their fur.

CHAPTER 12

1. Which of the following would greatly activate the parasympathetic nervous system?

B) Removal of a stimulus that excited the sympathetic nervous system.

2. Just after removal of a stimulus that excites the sympathetic nervous system, what happens?

D) Parasympathetic activity increases as a rebound.

3. Under what circumstances, if any, does a series of shocks excite the parasympathetic nervous
system?

C) If the person believes the shocks are inescapable.

4. A scientist would be most likely to use which of the following when attempting to obtain an
objective measure of emotion?

C) Measures of sympathetic nervous system responses.

5. One prediction based on the James Lange theory of emotions is that

C) the more intense the physiological arousal, the greater the emotion.

6. One prediction based on the James Lange theory of emotions is that

C) emotions that feel different must be associated with different physiological states.

7. The James Lange theory of emotions and the Cannon Bard theory differ mainly with regard to
the question,

A) do emotions depend on autonomic changes or are they independent?

 
8. According to the Cannon Bard theory of emotions, emotions occur

B) at the same time as physiological changes, but independent of them.

9. The currently accepted view on the role of psychological factors in health is that

B) psychological reactions play a role in both disease and wellness.

10. A psychosomatic illness is one that

D) has real physical symptoms caused, in part, by the person's personality or experiences.

11. Shocks that are __________ cause more ulcers than shocks that are __________.

A) unpredictable, predictable

12. When an animal works hard to avoid shocks, what process is likely to cause ulcers?

C) Rebound over-activity by the parasympathetic nervous system during rest periods.

13. Which of the following is most likely to be a stimulus for the formation of ulcers?

B) A rest period after a period of stress.

14. Extreme fluctuations in activity of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems can
lead to __________.

C) ulcers

15. After removal of a stimulus that had excited the __________, the __________ shows rebound
overactivity.

A) sympathetic nervous system, parasympathetic nervous system

16. Which of the following pairings of a system with a behavioral function is WRONG?

C) Limbic system – vision.

 
17. Suppose you have just gone through a period of stress and you wish to avoid ulcers. Which of
the following would be good advice?

A) Eat a small snack.

18. Over the counter cold remedies stimulate the sympathetic or inhibit the parasympathetic
nervous system. Which of the following effects would you expect such drugs to have?

B) Decrease probability of ulcers.

19. Ulcers are caused by excessive activity of the __________ system.

B) parasympathetic

20. A rat's whiskers are cut off; then it is forced to swim in a tank of turbulent water. It dies quickly.
Why?

A) Overactivity of the parasympathetic nervous system.

21. A dewhiskered rat, thrown into a tank of turbulent water, resembles a human victim of "voodoo
death" in that both are believed to die from

D) excessive parasympathetic nervous system activity.

22. Certain cases of sudden death, as in voodoo death, are due to

C) Overactivity of the parasympathetic nervous system.

23. Benzodiazepines are steadily replacing the less desirable barbiturates. Which of the following
characteristics of benzodiazepines is TRUE?

A) Benzodiazepines strengthen the working of GABA agonists.

24. When benzodiazepines attach to their receptors, the net effect is

A) increased flow of chloride at GABA synapses.

25. Benzodiazepines bind to the same receptor sites in the brain as the naturally occurring
chemicals known as

C) carbolines.

 
26. The involvement of the limbic system in expressing and regulating emotions is recognised.
Which of the following interventions does NOT really confirm this hypothesis?

D) Lesions deep in the cerebellum nucleus.

27. Alcohol decreases anxiety by

A) promoting chloride flow at the GABA receptor complex.

28. People who are subject to panic attacks tend to have

B) an overresponsive sympathetic nervous system.

29. People with panic attacks have chronically high levels of ____circulating in the blood.

A) norepinephrine

30. Many people with panic attacks make their own problems worse by

B) hyperventilating.

31. Damage to which area of the brain makes animals emotionally unresponsive?

A) Amygdala.

32. Many people with panic disorder have an overresponsive

B) sympathetic nervous system.

33. Which of the following sometimes leads to immediate indications of pleasure?

C) Electrical stimulation of the brain.

34. Benzodiazepines are most commonly used in the treatment of __________.

B) anxiety

CHAPTER 13

1. The neurological patient H.M. became widely known because of his almost
total inability to
A) form new memories.

2. Thiamine deficiency leads to Korsakoff's syndrome because thiamine is

necessary for the

A) metabolism of glucose.

3. What produces Korsakoff's syndrome?

B) A diet deficient in thiamine.

4. The net effect of blocking potassium gates in the membrane is to

D) prolong the action potential.

5. The degree of memory loss in Alzheimer's disease victims correlates with

B) a decline in brain acetylcholine levels.

6. Both classical and operant conditioning can be described as

A) an association between two events.

7. Pavlov believed that classical conditioning reflected a strengthened connection

between a brain area that represents __________ and a brain area that
represents __________.

D) CS activity, US activity

8. Lashley found that a deep cut in a rat's cerebral cortex impaired learning under
what circumstances (if any)?

D) Under none of the circumstances he studied.

9. Lashley's principles of mass action and equipotentiality imply that

A) amount of brain damage is more critical than location.

10. Which of the following observations (if true) would most seriously
CONTRADICT Lashley's principles of mass action and equipotentiality?

A) A learned response is lost after damage to one connection but not others.

 
11. Lashley's experiments in search of the engram involved damaging cells in

A) the cerebral cortex.

12. Which of the following statements about amnesia is TRUE?

C) Some people show severe impairments in some aspects of memory without

any impairments in other aspects of memory.

13. The patient H.M. has suffered severe memory disorders following a surgical
operation that removed his

C) hippocampus and amygdala.

14. Retrograde amnesia means __________; anterograde amnesia means

__________.

D) loss of memory for old events, inability to form new memories

15. The patient H.M., who had his hippocampus and amygdala removed
surgically in 1953, suffered a severe difficulty in remembering events that
happened

B) during or after 1953.

16. One peculiarity of the memory of the neurological patient H.M. is that he

A) retains new skills but does not remember having learned them.

17. Korsakoff's syndrome is a type of brain damage caused by deficiency of

_________.

A) thiamine

18. If Korsakoff's syndrome is detected early, it can be treated effectively with

D) thiamine.

19. Patients with Korsakoff's syndrome typically suffer from

A) both anterograde and retrograde amnesia.

20. The symptoms of Korsakoff's syndrome include

B) retrograde and anterograde amnesia.

21. Most Korsakoff's victims have extensive damage in the dorsomedial thalamus
and atrophy in the

C) prefrontal cortex.

22. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

C) "Plaques" and "Tangles" are anatomical characteristics of patients suffering

from Alzheimer's disease.

23. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

B) If a conditioned stimulus (CS) is no longer associated with an unconditioned

stimulus (US), then the CS slowly loses its power to cause a conditioned
response (CR). This is called extinction.

24. The degree of memory loss that occurs in normal aging is known to correlate
with the amount of decline in brain levels of __________.

D) acetylcholine

25. The memory performances of children in the first four or five years of life
resembles (in milder degree) that of adults who have suffered damage to the

D) hippocampus.

26. What do all the following have in common: children under the age 4, old
people, monkeys with damage to the hippocampus, monkeys with damage to the
prefrontal cortex?

B) better memory for skills than facts

27. One reason that memory declines in aged animals is

C) calcium channels become "leaky".

28. A neuron that is "potentiated" is one that

A) is highly responsive to new input similar to the stimuli that potentiated it.

29. How does one produce long term potentiation of cells in the mammalian
nervous system?
A) A burst of many stimuli within a few seconds.

30. If a mild touch on the siphon is repeatedly paired with electrical stimulation to
the tail of an Aplysia the animal will gradually begin to withdraw its siphon in
response to touch. This is an example of __________.

C) classical conditioning

31. In Aplysia, sensitization has been found to depend on a series of events that

D) block potassium gates in the sensory neuron.

32. In Aplysia, following a certain kind of experience, a facilitating interneuron

causes changes that block the potassium channels at the end of the axon of the
sensory neuron. The result will be

A) sensitization.

CHAPTER 14

1. Both monkeys and humans with damage to the prefrontal cortex are impaired in their
performance of tasks requiring

C) suppressing one's previous response and substituting a new one.

2. Perseveration (the tendency to make the same response repeatedly when another response
should be made instead) is characteristic of humans and monkeys with damage to the

A) prefrontal cortex.

3. Difficulty shifting from performing a task following one rule to following a different rule is a
common symptom of damage to the

A) prefrontal cortex.

4. Using the distinction between short term and long term memory, one would describe H. M.'s
memory problems as an inability to

D) establish new long term memories.

5. H.M., Korsakoff's patients, and Alzheimer's patients all have impairments in __________
memory, but are unimpaired in __________ memory.

D) declarative, procedural
 

6. Memory for acquired skills, such as tying shoelaces or driving a car, is called __________
memory.

B) procedural memory

7. The study of amnesiac patients leads us to the conclusion that people have __________ kind of
memory, and that memory depends on __________ of the brain.

D) more than one, different parts

8. In the context of memory, the term consolidation refers to

A) the formation of long term memory.

9. Rats given electroconvulsive shock (ECS) shortly after learning a task

D) are more likely to forget the task if there is only a short delay between learning and the ECS.

10. When a rat re-enters a correct arm in a radial arm maze, before trying other correct arms, there
has been a failure in __________ memory.

A) working

11. Which of the following tests is used to measure working memory in animals?

A) Radial maze.

12. Damage to the dorsomedial thalamus and atrophy in the prefrontal cortex are most associated
with

B) Korsakoff's syndrome.

13. When prompted with cues, Korsakoff's victims can often produce words from lists they saw but
claim to have never seen. This is an example of __________ memory.

C) implicit

14. A group of Korsakoff's syndrome patients read over a list of words. Later, what evidence of
memory (if any) do they show?

D) They say many of the correct words if they are given the first three letters.

 
15. Someone with a mild to moderate case of Alzheimer's disease would be most likely to
remember

A) how to drive a car.

16. H.M., Korsakoff's patients, and Alzheimer's patients all have their best success at learning and
retaining new __________.

B) skills

17. H.M., Korsakoff's patients, and Alzheimer's patients all have better memory for

C) skills than facts.

18. Alzheimer's disease is associated with what kind of brain damage?

C) Tangles and plaques in the cerebral cortex and hippocampus.

19. Plaques and tangles in the cerebral cortex are characteristic of people with

D) Alzheimer's disease.

20. Which of the following is TRUE about the role of genetics in the development of Alzheimer's?

B) People with a family history of Alzheimer's have an increased chance of getting the disease, but
others get it as well.

21. If people with Down's syndrome live long enough, they invariably develop

D) Alzheimer's disease.

22. Which kind of person is most likely to develop Alzheimer's disease?

B) People with Down's syndrome.

23. Remembering which of the following is an example of working memory?

C) Where you left your keys today.

CHAPTER 15

1. What does the enzyme MAO do?

A) Breaks down catecholamines

2. The consequence of stimulating an autoreceptor is to

C) decrease the release of transmitter from the presynaptic cell.

3. Which of these disorders is associated with short latency to REM sleep early in the night?

D) Depression.

4. The sleep and temperature cycles of seasonal affective disorder patients are __________,
unlike other depressed patients.

B) phase delayed

5. Lithium is most commonly prescribed for

D) manic depressive disorder.

6. Why must physicians carefully monitor the dosage of lithium they give to manic depressive
patients?

D) The most beneficial dosage is just less than the dosage that is toxic.

7. Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of schizophrenia?

D) Alternation between one personality and another.

8. Someone with deterioration of everyday functioning AND hallucinations or delusions or thought

disorder is classified as having

A) schizophrenia.

9. Which of the following behaviors meets the definition of schizophrenia?

C) Deterioration of daily functioning, hallucinations, and thought disorder.

10. The most common thought disorder of schizophrenia is

D) impaired understanding of abstract concepts.

11. Which of the following is an example of a "negative symptom" of schizophrenia?

B) Lack of emotional expression.

12. A schizophrenic patient whose main symptoms are lack of emotional expression, lack of social
interaction, and lack of speech is said to suffer from

B) negative symptoms.

13. With regard to schizophrenia, the difference between positive symptoms and negative
symptoms refers to a difference between

B) behaviors that are present and behaviors that are absent.

14. What is meant when we say that a schizophrenic patient has a "negative symptom"?

D) The patient fails to engage in a behavior common in other people.

15. Which is NOT true about the incidence of schizophrenia?

A) It is commonly estimated to occur in 10 15 percent of the population.

16. Schizophrenia is generally diagnosed for the first time when a person is between the ages

C) 15 and 30.

17. What is the usual time course of schizophrenia?

D) Onset in young adulthood, continuation for years, perhaps for life.

18. Which of these indications of brain damage is common in people with schizophrenia?

B) Loss of neurons in the thalamus, cerebral cortex, and hippocampus.

19. Which of the following is common in schizophrenia?

B) Relatively low metabolism in the frontal cortex.

20. Which statement relating to the following two hypotheses is TRUE?

A) Dopamine hypothesis: too much dopamine causes schizophrenia; Monoamine hypothesis: a

shortage of norepinephrine and/or serotonin is responsible for affective disorders.

 
21. Total brain activity, as measured by the rate of glucose metabolism, is

D) high in mania and low in depression.

22. Borna disease virus has been found in some of the people who suffer from

D) manic depressive disorder.

23. Which of the following is associated with depression and bipolar disorder?

B) Borna disease virus.

24. Which of the following is NOT associated with depression?

A) Impulsiveness.

25. A restless, impulsive person whose speech rambles from one idea to another may fit which of
these categories?

C) Mania.

26. People with unipolar disorder

C) vary between depression and normal mood.

27. Which of the following is TRUE about unipolar disorder?

B) It is less common than bipolar disorder.

28. Manic depressive disorder is synonymous with

B) bipolar disorder.

29. Which is TRUE when considering the role of genetics in depression?

C) Adopted children who become depressed are more likely to have depressed biological relatives
than depressed adoptive relatives.

30. The hormonal changes associated with menstruation and giving birth have what apparent
effect on depression?

C) They trigger an episode of depression or aggravate such an episode.

 
31. Depressed people as a rule have signs of decreased activity in the __________ hemisphere of
their cerebral cortex. When they are given ECT to just one hemisphere, it is given on the
__________ side.

B) left, right.

32. When a patient is given electroconvulsive shock therapy today,

C) the patient must first give informed consent.

33. For which of these people is electroconvulsive shock LEAST likely to be given?

B) Schizophrenic patients.

34. For which of these types of disorders is electroconvulsive shock MOST likely to be used?

B) Depression with delusions.

35. One advantage of electroconvulsive shock over antidepressant drugs is that the shock
treatment

A) produces its benefits faster.

36. What is the best treatment for seasonal affective disorder?

A) Bright light.