09/07/2023 A

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005,

Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 Pre Term-03 Time : 200 Min.

Topics Covered:
Physics : Current Electricity
Chemistry : Electrochemistry, Chemical Kinetics 
Botany : Principles of Inheritance & Variation 
Zoology : Reproductive Health

General Instructions :
General Instructions :
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from Section-A
& only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries +4 marks. For every wrong response, -1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered/unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white fluid or any other rubbing material on the
Answer sheet.

Physics

1. Which one of the following relations is 3. A conductor having cuboid shape has
incorrect? dimensions in ratio 1 : 2 : 5, the ratio of
(Symbols have their usual meanings) maximum to minimum resistance across two
(A) I = neAVd   opposite faces is
(B) → 2
→ (A) 5 : 1
ne τ
J =
m
E (B) 25 : 1
(C) V = IR (C) 10 : 1
(D) ρ = ne 2
τ (D) 5 : 2
m

4. A : As the drift velocity decreases, the current

2. Two voltmeter V1 and V2 are connected in flowing through the conductor increases.
series across a DC line. V1 reads 80 V and R : The current flowing through the
has a resistance per volt of 100 Ω. V2 has a conductor is inversely proportional to drift
total resistance of 16 kΩ. The line voltage is velocity.
(A) 12880 V (A) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
(B) 160 V the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
(C) 240 V
(B) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
(D) 220 V the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements

1
Pre Term-03

5. The voltage(V) and current (I) characteristics 8. If two conducting wires A and B of same
for a metallic conductor at three different dimensions have electron density ratio 1 : 3.
temperatures, T1 , T2 and T3 are as shown in If their relaxation time is same then the ratio
the figure. The relation between T1 , T2 and of resistance of A to resistance of B is
T3 is (A) 1 : 1
(B) 3 : 1
(C) 1 : 3
(D) 9 : 1

9. Two cells A and B of equal emf E are having

internal resistances r1 and r2 (r2 > r1 )
respectively. These two cells are connected
in series with external resistance R = (r2 –
r1 ) as shown in the figure. Terminal potential
(A) T1 >T2 > T3 difference across one cell is zero. The cell is
(B) T1 <T2 < T3
(C) T1 =T2 = T3
(D) T1 =T3 > T2

6. The equivalent resistance between X and Y

of network shown below, when switch S is
closed
(A) A
(B) B
(C) Both A and B
(D) Not possible for given value of R

(A) 2R 10. The equivalent resistance between X and Y

(B) 3R in circuit given below is
4

(C) 3
R
2

(D) 4R

7. A resistance of R  draws current from a

potentiometer, where total resistance of the
potentiometer wire is R0 . A voltage V is
(A) 10R
applied to the potentiometer wire as shown 17

in the figure. The voltage across R when (B) 17R

sliding contact is in the middle of the 10

potentiometer wire, will be (C) 6R

17

(D) 7R

11. Two cities are 100 km apart. Electric power

is sent from one city to another city through
copper wire. The fall of potential per km is 10
V and resistance per km is 1 Ω. The power
loss in the wire is
(A) 1 kW
(B) 10 kW
(C) 100 W
(A) 2V R
(D) 100 kW
4R+R0

(B) 2V R

2R0 +R

(C) VR

4R+R0

(D) 2V R

2R+R0

2
Pre Term-03

12. During an experiment with a meter bridge, 16. The ratio of currents in 4 Ω resistor and 15 Ω
the galvanometer shows a null point when resistor in the following circuit is
the jockey is pressed at 40 cm from end A.
The unknown resistance R is

(A) 30 Ω (A) 4:3

(B) 60 Ω (B) 1:1
(C) 20 Ω (C) 9:1
(D) 40 Ω (D) 3:1

13. The power dissipated across the 3 Ω resistor 17. Two resistances R1 and R2 each of 100 Ω
in the circuit shown is are connected with potential source of 40 V
between A and B. If resistance of voltmeter is
200 Ω, then reading of voltmeter is

(A) 30.45 W
(B) 21.33 W
(C) 36 W
(D) 2W

14. In the given figure, the current flowing

through 2 Ω resistor is
(A) 20 V
(B) 40 V
(C) 16 V
(D) 24 V

(A) 12 A 18. There are three bulbs B1 , B2 and B3 rated as

(B) 12 A 100 W, 60 W and 60 W respectively. These
11 can be operated upto 200 V. Increasing
(C) 52
A order of their brightness for given
11
arrangement is
(D) 64
A
11

15. A potentiometer wire has length 5 m and

resistance 100 Ω. A rheostat of range (100 Ω
– 1 kΩ) and accumulator of emf 20 V is
connected with potentiometer wire. The
maximum potential gradient possible in the
wire is
(A) 4  V/m
11

(B) 40
 V/m
11

(C) 4 V/m (A) B3 < B2 < B1

(D) 2 V/m (B) B1 < B2 < B3
(C) B1 = B2 < B3
(D) B2 < B3 < B1

3
Pre Term-03

19. In the given arrangement, the galvanometer 22. The potential gradient for a potentiometer
shows null deflection. The value of X is  depends on 
(A) Resistivity of potentiometer wire
(B) Length of potentiometer wire
(C) The emf of driving cell
(D) All of these
 
 
 
(A) 200 Ω  
 
(B) 50  Ω  
9
 
(C) 25 Ω
 
(D) 25  Ω  
2
 
 
20. The current flowing through the ideal  
ammeter in the circuit shown is  

23. The equivalent resistance between points A

and B would be

(A) 5 Ω
(B) 2 Ω
(A) 2A
(C) 4 Ω
(B) 2.5 A
(D) 15  Ω
(C) 1A 2

(D) 1.25 A
24. An ideal voltmeter V and ideal ammeter A
are connected in a circuit as shown in the
21. Three 60 W, 120 V light bulbs are connected
across a 120 V source as shown in figure. figure. If the reading of the voltmeter is 32 V,
The total power dissipation in the three the reading of ammeter will be 
bulbs are 

(A) 4A
(B) 8A
(A) 60 W (C) 10 A
(B) 40 W (D) 80 A
(C) 120 W
(D) 180 W 25. If we increase the potential difference across
an ohmic resistor then
(A) Conductivity increases
(B) Electric field strength inside the resistor
decreases
(C) Current density remains unchanged
(D) Drift velocity of electron increases

4
Pre Term-03

26. The relation V = IR is applicable to (Symbols 31. The current flowing through the ideal
have their usual meanings) ammeter in the circuit shown is 
(A) All conducting devices
(B) Only ohmic conductors
(C) Only semiconductors
(D) Only silver, copper and aluminium

27. A carbon resistor of resistance 

(36 ± 1.8)  MΩ is to be marked with rings of
different colours for its identification. The
colour code sequence will be
(A) Red – Green – Green – Gold
(B) Red – Blue – Blue – Gold (A) 2A
(C) Orange – Blue – Blue – Gold (B) 2.5 A
(D) Orange – Violet – Violet – Gold (C) 1A
(D) 1.25 A
28. At temperature 23°C the resistance of a wire
is 100 Ω. The temperature at which
32. The equivalent resistance between points A
resistance becomes 104 Ω is nearly (Given,
and B would be
temperature coefficient of resistance of
material is 1.5 × 10–4 °C–1 )
(A) 1027°C
(B) 827°C
(C) 290°C
(D) 290 K
(A) 5 Ω
29. On closing the switch S in the circuit as (B) 2 Ω
shown in the figure, the reading of the (C) 4 Ω
galvanometer G (D) 15 Ω
100V 2

(A) Increases
(B) Decreases 33. In the given circuit, the switch S is closed at
time t = 0, then select the correct statement
(C) Remains same
for current I in resistance PQ as shown in the
(D) May increase or decrease figure.

30. The voltmeter shown in the figure reads 10 V

across 40 Ω. The resistance of voltmeter is

(A) I = 20 mA for all time t

(B) I = 10 mA for all time t
(C) I = 20 mA at t = 0 and with time it goes
(A) 10 Ω to 10 mA
(B) 20 Ω (D) I oscillates between 10 mA and 20 mA
(C) 40 Ω
(D) Infinite 34. The electric current through 10 Ω resistor in
circuit given below is
10Ω

(A) 1 A
(B) 20 A
21

(C) 21
A
20

(D) 20 A

5
Pre Term-03

35. A capacitor of capacitance 2 μF is given a 38. In a Meter Bridge shown in the figure, the
charge 20 μC. It is connected with a battery 1
null point is found at a distance ( 3 ) m from
of emf 10 V as shown in figure. Switch S is
closed at time t = 0. Initial current in the A. If now a resistance of 6 Ω is connected in
circuit is parallel with S, the null point occurs at 60 cm
from A, then the value of S is
undefined
(A) 6 Ω
(B) 12 Ω
(C) 4 Ω
(D) 20 Ω

39. → →
(A) Zero If   J   and  E   are current density and
(B) 6  A electric field respectively inside a current
5 carrying conductor at an instant then 
→ →
(C) 1 A
J × E  is
(D) 2 A (A) Positive
(B) Negative
36. Two resistors of resistances 10 Ω and 40 Ω (C) Zero
are connected with a capacitor of
capacitance 0.1 μF and ideal battery of emf (D) May be positive or negative
10V. When switch (S) is closed, then initial
current and current in steady state through 40. The reading of ammeter in the circuit shown
the battery respectively are in the figure is 

(A) 1 A, 1 A
(B) 0.1 A, 0.2 A (A) 3 A
(C) 1 A, 0.2 A (B) 2 A
(D) 0.2 A, 1 A (C) 1.5 A
(D) 2.5 A
37. In the circuit shown in the figure, the current
flowing through 4 Ω resistor is 41. A variable resistor R is connected across a
cell of emf ε and internal resistance r.
Potential difference V across R is measured
and V – R graph is plotted as shown in the
figure. Internal resistance of the cell is

(A) 7
 A from a to b
22

(B) 17
 A from a to b
11

(C) 7
 A from b to a
22

(D) 17
 A from b to a (A) 4
Ω
11 3

(B) 3
Ω
4

(C) 5
Ω
3

(D) 5
Ω
4

6
Pre Term-03

42. Consider the following circuit as shown in 45. A carbon resistor has coloured strips as
figure. The power consumed by the variable shown in figure. What is its resistance?
resistance will be maximum if (r is the
internal resistance of cell)

(A) 26 × 107 Ω ± 5%
(B) 20 × 107 Ω ± 5%
(C) 21 × 107 Ω ± 5%
(D) 26 × 107 Ω ± 10%

(A) R = R0 + r 46. In the circuit as shown in figure, energy

(B) R0 r stored in capacitor at steady state is
R =
R0 +r

(C) R0 +r
R =
2

(D) R = r

43. The area of cross-section of a uniform

cylindrical conducting wire is decreased by
20% due to stretching it. The percentage
change in its resistance is (approximately)
(A) 56% decreases
(B) 20% increases
(C) 56% increases (A) 36 μJ
(D) 20% decreases (B) 48 μJ
(C) 72 μJ
44. A resistor of 30 Ω draws current from a (D) 18 μJ
potentiometer as shown in the figure. The
potentiometer wire AB has total resistance
40 Ω. A voltage V is supplied to the 47. A current carrying conductor is connected
potentiometer. When sliding contact is in the with a cell, after some time temperature of
middle of potentiometer, then voltage across conductor is increased by 1 unit. The
R = 30 Ω is percentage change in its resistivity is (Here
  α is temperature coefficient of resistivity)
(A) 100α%
(B) α%
(C) α %
100
α
(D) %
10

48. Current flowing through the cross-section of

a conductor is given by i = 3t2 + 2t + 1. The
average current flowing through the cross-
(A) 3V
section in first 2 second is (where i is in A
8 and t is in s)
(B) 5V (A) 5 A
8
(B) 2 A
(C) V

8 (C) 7 A
(D) 7V
(D) 3 A
8

7
Pre Term-03

49. The resistance in two arms of the meter

bridge is 10 Ω and x respectively. The
balance length is l1 from left. Now the
resistance of 10 Ω is shunted with another
resistor of resistance equal to unknown
resistance x then new balance point is
0.75l1 . The value of resistance x is

(A) 10 Ω
(B) 30 Ω
(C) 20 Ω
(D) 5 Ω

50. Two cylindrical wires of same material and

equal length are having ratio of their radii 1 :
2. These wires are connected with a battery
as shown in the figure. The ratio of current in
two wires is Ir and that of drift speed is vr.
Then

(A) Ir =
1
,    vr = 1
2

(B) Ir =
1
,    vr = 1
4

(C) Ir =
1
,    vr =
1

4 4

(D) Will depend on R

8
Pre Term-03

Chemistry

1. The electrode potentials for M2+(aq) + e– → 5. A : Half life, t1/2 , for a first order reaction is
M+(aq) and  M+ (aq) + e– → M(s)   are independent of the initial concentration of
0.25 V and 0.60 V respectively. The value of the reactant.
 E°M /M  is
2+
R : Expression of the half life for first order
0.693
reaction is t = 1 .
(A) +0.425 V 2
k

(B) –0.425 V (A) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
(C) +0.855 V the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
(D) –0.855 V
(B) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
2. Antiferromagnetic substance among the explanation of the assertion
following is (C) Assertion is true statement but Reason
(A) MnO is false
(B) Ni (D) Both Assertion and Reason are false
(C) CrO2 statements
(D) Fe3 O4
6. Mechanism of a reaction is
− −
H2 O2 + I → H2 O + IO  (slow)
3. A current of 9.65 ampere flowing for 100 − −
seconds deposit 0.3 g of a metal. The H2 O2 + IO → H2 O + I + O2  (fast)

equivalent weight of metal is The order of overall reaction with respect to

(A) 30 H2 O2 is
(B) 45 (A) –1
(C) 60 (B) 0
(D) 90 (C) 1
(D) 2
4. For the reaction, 
3A + 2B + C → Products,  the following 7. During the electrolysis of concentrated
kinetic data was obtained H2 SO4 , the reaction taking place at anode is
Initial concentration (A) 4OH– (aq) → O2 (g) + 2H2 O(l) + 4e–
Initial rate (mol
A(mol B(mol C(mol (B) 2SO4 2– (aq) →  S2 O8 2– (aq) + 2e–
L–1 s–1 )
L–1 ) L–1 ) L–1 ) (C) 2SO4 2– (aq) →  S2 O7 2– (aq) +  1 O2 (g) +
2

0.01 0.005 0.01 5 × 10–5 2e–

(D) 2H2 O(l) → 4H+(aq) + O2 (g) + 4e–
0.02 0.005 0.01 5 × 10–5

0.01 0.010 0.01 2.5 × 10–5 8. Unit of rate constant for second order
0.01 0.005 0.02 –5 reaction is
20 × 10
(A) L2 mol–2 s–1
Hence, the rate of reaction is given by
(B) s–1
(A) Rate = k [A] [B] [C]
(B) Rate = k [A]0 [B]–1 [C]2 (C) mol L1 s–1

(C) Rate = k [A] [B] [C]–2 (D) L mol–1 s–1

(D) Rate = k [A] [B] [C]2

9. A 1st order reaction has a rate constant 3 ×
10–3 s–1 . Time required for 60% completion
of the reaction is nearly
(A) 400 s
(B) 300 s
(C) 200 s
(D) 500 s

9
Pre Term-03

10. Lead storage battery and Mercury cell, 17. A : The concentration of reactant in first order
respectively are examples of reaction decreases exponentially with time.
(A) Primary cell, Secondary cell R : Expression of concentration at time t is
(B) Secondary cell, Fuel cell [At] = [A0 ] · e–kt.
(C) Secondary cell, Primary cell (A) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
(D) Fuel cell, Primary cell
the assertion
(B) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
11. A first order reaction has a specific reaction the reason is not the correct
rate of 10–3 s–1 . How much time will it take explanation of the assertion
for 40 g of the reactant to reduce to 10 g? (C) Assertion is true statement but Reason
(A) 2 × 10–3 × 0.693 s is false
(B) 2×0.693 (D) Both Assertion and Reason are false
  s
10
−3
statements
(C) 4×0.693
  s
−3
10
18. Molar conductivities (Λ∘m ) at infinite dilution
(D) 0.693
  s
4×10
−3 of KBr, HBr and CH3 COOK are 151.6, 427.7
and 114.4 S cm2 mol–1 respectively. Molar
12. The quantity of electricity required to conductivity (Λ∘m ) for CH3 COOH will be
completely reduce 0.2 mol of  MnO −
4
  into  (A) 464.2 S cm2 mol–1
MnO 2  is (B) 161 S cm2 mol–1
(A) 96500 C
(C) 276.1 S cm2 mol–1
(B) 19300 C
(D) 390.5 S cm2 mol–1
(C) 57900 C
(D) 28950 C
19. The equivalent conductance of CH3 COOH
at infinite dilution is given by
13. In which of the following hydrogen electrode,
half cell potential at 298 K is zero? (A) ∧0eq 0
+ ∧eq
0
− ∧eq  
(CH COONa)
3
(NaCl) (H Cl)

(A) Pt ∣∣H+ (aq)(0.1 M)∣∣H2 (g)(0.1   atm) (B) 0 0 0

∧eq + ∧eq − ∧eq
(NaCl) (H Cl) (CH3 COONa)

(B) Pt ∣
+
∣     
∣H (aq)(2 M) ∣H2 (g)(2 atm) (C) 0 0 0
∧eq + ∧eq − ∧eq
(CH3 COONa) (H Cl) (NaCl)

(C) Pt ∣
+
∣     
∣H (aq)(2 M) ∣H2 (g)(4 atm) (D) 0 0 0
∧eq + ∧eq + ∧eq
(CH3 COONa) (H Cl) (NaCl)

(D) Pt ∣
+
∣     
∣H (aq)(4 M) ∣H2 (g)(2 atm)

20. Consider the reaction, A + B + C 

→  Products
14. When a dilute solution of H2 SO4 is
The rate of the reaction is doubled when the
electrolysed the product at anode is
concentrations of both A and B are doubled
(A) H2 and rate of reaction increases by four times
(B) O2 when concentration of both B and C are
doubled. The possible rate law expression
(C) OH–
of the reaction is
(D) S2 O
2−
(A) Rate = k[A]1 [B]1 [C]1
8

(B) Rate = k[A]0 [B]1 [C]2

15. If rate constant and rate of reaction both (C) Rate = k[A]0 [B]2 [C]1
have same units, then the order of reaction
is (D) Rate = k[A]0 [B]1 [C]1
(A) 0
(B) 1 21. Cell potential of the cell
(C) 2 Ni | Ni2+(0.01 M) || Cu2+(0.1 M) | Cu is 0.58
(D) 3 V
Standard electrode potential of Ni2+|Ni
0
electrode is (Given EOulcu* = – 0.34 V)
16. Units of the rate constant of second order
reaction are (A) – 0.21 V
(A) s–1 (B) + 0.21 V
(B) mol L–1 s–1 (C) – 0.92 V
(C) mol–1 L s–1 (D) +0.92 V

(D) mol L–1 s

10
Pre Term-03

22. Limiting molar conductivity of which of the 28. For the reaction
following ions is highest when aqueous Ni(s) + Cu2+ (0.2 M) → Ni2+ (0.2 M) + Cu(s)
solution of their salts are put under an E° = 0.34 V ,   E ° =–  0.25 V
electric field?
2+ 2+
Cu /Cu Ni /Ni

(A) Na+ The EMF of the cell is

(A) 0 V
(B) K+
(B) 0.59 V
(C) Ca2+
(C) 1.18 V
(D) Mg2+ (D) 0.83 V

23. A first order reaction is 50% completed in 30 29. How much charge is required to displace
minutes at 27°C and in 15 minutes at 37°C. 5600 mL of O2 gas at STP from water? (1 F =
The activation energy of the reaction (in 96500 C)
kJ/mol) is
(A) 1 F
(A) 11.5
(B) 2 F
(B) 53.6
(C) 0.5 F
(C) 45.8
(D) 5 F
(D) 23.7

30. Given
24. Which of the following quantities is/are
altered by the addition of a catalyst during a (i) A2+ −
+ 2e → A,     E°  
= 0.2 V
2+ − +
chemical reaction? (ii) A + e → A ,     E° = 0.1 V
(A) Rate constant Electrode potential, E° for the reaction
(B) Activation energy A+ + e– → A, will be
(C) Threshold energy (A) 0.1 V

(D) All of these (B) 0.2 V

(C) 0.3 V
(D) 0.4 V
25. Aqueous solution of which of the following
compounds is the best conductor of electric
current? 31. A : During discharging of lead storage
(A) 0.3 M NH2 CONH2 (Urea) battery, pH increases.
R : During discharging formation of PbO2
(B) 0.2 M C12 H22 O11 (Sucrose)
takes place which is basic oxide.
(C) 0.1 M HNO3 (Nitric acid) (A) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
(D) 0.1 M HCN (Hydrogen cyanide) the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
26. Select the rate law expression by the given (B) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
data shown for the reaction A + B → C the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
[A]/mol L– [B]/mol L– Rate/mol L–1 s– (C) Assertion is true statement but Reason
Exp 1 1 1
is false
a. 0.010 0.025 0.15 (D) Both Assertion and Reason are false
b. 0.020 0.025 0.60 statements
c. 0.020 0.050 0.60
(A) Rate = k [A]1 [B]1 32. If the Eo cell for a given reaction has a
(B) Rate = k [A]2 [B]1 positive value then which of the following
gives the correct relationship for the values
(C) Rate = k [A] [B]2 of ΔGo and Keq ?
(D) Rate = k [A]2 (A) ΔGo > 0, K = 1
eq
(B) ΔGo > 0, Keq < 1
27. The decay constant (λ) for radioactive decay
is independent of (C) ΔGo < 0, Keq > 1
(A) Amount of radioactive substance (D) ΔGo < 0, K < 1
eq
(B) Temperature
(C) Pressure
(D) All of these

11
Pre Term-03

33. Which of the following statement is 39. During the electrolysis of water, if 11.2 litre
incorrect? H2 is obtained at S.T.P at cathode, then
(A) Order of reaction is an experimental mass of O2 obtained at anode is 
quantity (A) 8 g
(B) Order is applicable to elementary as (B) 16 g
well as complex reactions
(C) 32 g
(C) Order can be zero or fraction
(D) 4 g
(D) Order of reaction is always equal to the
number of molecules of the reactant as
seen from balanced equation 40. The quantity of electricity required to
completely reduce 0.2 mol of  MnO −
4
  into 
MnO 2 is
34. Incorrect statement with respect to Lyophilic
colloids is (A) 96500 C
(A) Lyophilic colloids are easily formed by (B) 19300 C
direct mixing of dispersed phase with (C) 57900 C
dispersion medium
(D) 28950 C
(B) Lyophilic colloids are reversible sols
(C) Lyophilic colloids can be easily
coagulated 41. Equivalent conductivity of an aqueous
solution Al2 (SO4 )3 is related to molar
(D) Lyophilic colloids are highly solvated conductivity by the expression
(A) Λ = Λ m

eq
35. For the Arrhenius equation, the slope for the 6

1
plotb ln k vs  T is (B) Am = 3Λq

(A) R (C) Λe q
Λm =
Ea 6

(B) ln A (D) Λeq = 3Λm

(C) − E a

(D) – ln A 42. Product of electrolysis of dilute aqueous

NaCl solution using Pt electrode are
(A) Cl2 (g) and H2 (g)
36. The slope of line plotted between In k
1 (B) O2 (g) and H2 (g)
versus  ( T )  for Arrhenius equation is given
by (C) Na(s) and Cl2 (g)
(A) −E a (D) Cl2 (g) and O2 (g)
2.303 R  

(B) −
Ea
43. The quantity of electricity required to reduce
 R
0.5 mole of MnO4 – to Mn2+ is
(C) −2.303 Ea  
R
(A) 1.5 × 105 C
(D) −R
(B) 2.4 × 105 C
Ea

(C) 3.4 × 105 C

37. If the half life period of a reaction becomes (D) 5.1 × 105 C
halved when initial concentration of reactant
is doubled, then the order of the reaction is 
44. For a first order reaction it takes 10 second
(A) Zero to reduce the reactant from 8 g to 2 g. The
(B) 2 rate constant of the reaction is (in sec–1 )
(C) 1 (A) 0.693
(D) 1.5 (B) 0.693 × 2
(C) 0.693
5
38. For a first order reaction, if rate constant is
(D) 0.693
0.0693 s–1 then time required for 87.5% 2

completion of the reaction is

(A) 10 s
(B) 20 s
(C) 30 s
(D) 40 s

12
Pre Term-03

45. 3F electricity was passed through molten 48. Protonation of which of the following
FeO. Weight of iron metal (Atomic wt = 56) molecule gives maximum value of
deposited at cathode (in g) is equilibrium constant?
(A) 112 (A)
(B) 84
(C) 56
(D) 28
(B)
46. Which of the following expression
represents the correct rate of given reaction?
A + 2B + 3C → 4D + 5 E

(A) 1 d[A] (C)

2 dt

(B) 1 d[D]
−  
4 dt (D)
(C) 1 d[B]
−
3
  dt

(D) 1 d[E ]

5 dt
49. A : Equivalent conductivity ( Λeq ) can be
represented in units of S cm2 eq–1 .
47. If activation energy for forward direction is k

found to be greater than the backward R : Λeq = N×1000 where k is expressed in S

direction for a reaction, then which of the cm–1 and N expressed in eq L–1 .
following is always holds true? (A) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
(A) ΔG = 0 the reason is the correct explanation of
(B) ΔH = 0 the assertion
(C) ΔH > 0 (B) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
(D) ΔH < 0 the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements

50. For strong electrolyte, variations of molar

conductivity with concentration is given by
equation
−
−
(A)
λ  = λm  + A√C
o
m
−
−
(B) o
λm  = λm  + A√C
−
−
(C) o
m  = λ  + A
√C
3
λ
m
−
−
(D) o
λ  = λm  + A√C
3

13
Pre Term-03

Botany

1. Female sex in butterflies is determined by  6. In the following question, a statement of

(A) Sperm without Z-chromosome assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
reason (R).
(B) Egg with autosome only
A : Mendel started his work on pea in 1856
(C) Egg with autosome and Z-chromosome for 7 years.

(D) Egg with Z-chromosome and sperm R : Mendel died in 1900, before recognition
without Z-chromosome of his work.
(A) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
2. Which of the given test crosses will produce
the assertion
maximum possible phenotypes in
offsprings? (B) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
(A) AABb × aabb the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
(B) AABB × aabb
(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason
(C) AaBb × aabb is false
(D) AaBB × aabb (D) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements
3. Skin colour in human, an example of
‘polygenic inheritance’ is controlled by  7. For two characters, law of independent
(A) 7 pairs of genes  assortment will be correct if, the
(B) 3 pairs of genes corresponding genes are
(C) 12 pairs of genes  (A) Present on non-homologous
chromosomes
(D) 8 pairs of genes
(B) Segregated only during crossing over
(C) Present on the same chromosome and
4. are completely linked
(D) Do not segregate during gamete
formation

8. In which of the following Mendelian crosses

A trait that can be traced in the above
pedigree chart is both dominant and recessive phenotypes
will be observed in the progeny?
(A) X-linked recessive or autosomal
recessive (A) AABB × aabb
(B) Autosomal recessive only (B) AaBb × aabb
(C) Autosomal dominant or X-linked (C) AaBb × AABB
recessive (D) aabb × aabb
(D) Autosomal dominant only
9. An individual suffering from a particular
5. A : Alteration in chromosomes results in genetic disorder, has
aberrations. (a) Short stature.
R : Chromosomal aberrations are commonly (b) Rudimentary ovaries.
observed in cancer cells. (c) Under developed feminine characters
What will be the chromosome complement
(A) Both Assertion & Reason are true and of such individual?
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion (A) 45 + XY
(B) Both Assertion & Reason are true but (B) 44 + XO
the reason is not the correct (C) 45 + XX
explanation of the assertion (D) 44 + XXY
(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
10. How many linkage groups are present in a
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false human male?
statements
(A) 46
(B) 47
(C) 23
(D) 24

14
Pre Term-03

11. In a diploid organism, a particular character 16. Find the incorrect match
is controlled by a gene which has four Phenotype
alleles in its population. How many   Gene interaction  
ratio
genotypes related to this character can be
seen in the population of this organism? (1) Duplicate genes – 15 : 1
(A) 4
Recessive
(B) 5 (2) – 12 : 3 : 1
epistasis
(C) 10
(3) Inhibitory genes – 13 : 3
(D) 8
Complementary
(4) – 9:7
12. How many phenotypes are possible in genes
children when mother and father both are (A) (1)
mulatto?
(B) (2)
(A) 16
(C) (3)
(B) 15
(D) (4)
(C) 7
(D) 20
17. A recessive autosomal genetic defect in
which there is a synthesis of incorrectly
13. Which of following traits of pea plant cannot functioning globin is
express itself in heterozygous condition? (A) α-thalassemia
(A) Terminal flower (B) Sickle cell anaemia
(B) Green pod (C) β-thalassemia
(C) Yellow seed (D) Both (1) and (2)
(D) Violet flower
18. In the following question, a statement of
14. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. given assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
organism' reason (R).
A : Mutation can be artificially induced by
certain agents called mutagens.

R : The radiations are the first chemical

mutagens.
(A) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
(B) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
(A) The genotype of sex chromosomes is (C) Assertion is true statement but Reason
represented as ZW is false
(B) It produces single type of gamete (D) Both Assertion and Reason are false
(C) It is responsible for sex determination statements
(D) It is heterogametic
19. Complete linkage dihybrid test cross Ratio.
15. The distance between genes for eye colour (A) 1 : 1
and wings in Drosophila is (B) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
(A) 1.3% (C) 3 : 1
(B) 62.8% (D) 7 : 1 : 1 : 7
(C) 37.2%
(D) 98.7% 20. When a mulatto male (AaBbCc) marry with
very light female (aabbcc), then find out
phenotypic ratio.
(A) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
(B) 1 : 3 : 3 : 1
(C) 1 : 2 : 2 : 2 : 1
(D) 6 : 2

15
Pre Term-03

21. In Morgan’s experiment which of the 26. ‘In any cross, if recombination frequency is
following combinations of traits in 5%’, it means
Drosophila represent(s) recombinant type? (A) The distance between genes is 5 cM
(i) White eye – Miniature wing
(B) Number of recombinants is 5 in 10
(ii) Red eye – Brown body
progenies
(iii) Red eye – Miniature wing
(iv) White eye – Brown body (C) Their crossover value is 1/5
(A) (iii) and (iv) (D) Out of total progeny produced, 5 are
(B) (iv) only parental types
(C) (i) and (ii)
(D) (ii) and (iii) 27. Mark the incorrect pair
(A) Phenylketonuria-  Autosomal recessive
disorder
22. Find out the frequency of offsprings having
(B) Sickle cell anaemia- Autosomal
genotype PPQqRrSSTt if the genotypes of
recessive disorder
parents are PPQqRRSstt and PpqqRrSSTt.
(A) 1 (C) Colourblindness - Crisscross
32 inheritance
(B) 1
(D) Thalassemia – Crisscross inheritance
16

(C) 1

64 28. Find out the feature which does not hold true
(D) 1 for multiple alleles.
8
(A) All the alleles occur on same locus of
same chromosome or its homologous
23. When a cross is made between a plant chromosome
having axial flower with intermediate sized (B) A gamete receives only one allele of
starch grain (AaBb) and a plant having the group
terminal flower with small sized starch grain
(C) Controls multiple characters in an
(aabb) in a garden pea plant, what
individual
proportion of progeny could be expected to
have (D) All the alleles can be detected in a
(a) Axial flower and large starch grains. population only
(b) Terminal flower and intermediate starch
grains. 29. The gene responsible for disorder
(A) (a) 25%, (b) 25% phenylketonuria is
(B) (a) 50%, (b) 25% a. A pleiotropic gene
(C) (a) 25%, (b) 50% b. An autosomal recessive gene
c. A co-dominant gene
(D) (a) 0%, (b) 25% d. Unable to synthesize an enzyme which
converts phenylalanine into tyrosine.
24. (A) Only b and c are correct
(B) Only b and d are correct
(C) a, b and d are correct
(D) Only d is correct

30. If four alleles of a gene controls a single

character in diploid individuals of a species,
then how many phenotypes are possible in
the population?
Which one is related with given pedigree (A) 10
chart?
(B) 6
(A) Colour blindness
(C) 4
(B) Hypertrichosis
(D) 12
(C) Cystic fibrosis
(D) Myotonic dystrophy

25. Which one is incorrect?

(A) Complementary genes – 9 : 7
(B) Duplicate genes – 15 : 1
(C) Dominant epistasis – 12 : 3 : 1
(D) Recessive epistasis – 13 : 3

16
Pre Term-03

31. In which of the following cases for a gene, 35. All of the following statements are true for
the modified allele is said to be equivalent to the hybridisation experiments conducted by
the unmodified allele? Mendel, except
(i) If it produces a non-functional enzyme (A) Experimented on 14 true breeding pea
(ii) If it produces less efficient enzyme plant varieties
(iii) If this allele does not produce any
(B) Also worked with hawkweed
enzyme
(A) (i) and (ii) only (C) Experiments were conducted from
1854 to 1861
(B) (ii) only
(D) Statistical analysis and mathematical
(C) (ii) and (iii) only logic were used for the first time in
(D) All (i), (ii) and (iii) biology

32. The condition that results polyploidy is 36. A : In chicken, sex chromosome in male are
(A) Segregation of chromosomes without ZZ, and in females are ZW.
DNA replication R : Melandrium shows female heterogamety.
(B) Unequal distribution of chromosomes (A) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
during cell division the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
(C) Failure in cell division after DNA
replication (B) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
(D) Presence of more than one origins of
explanation of the assertion
replication in DNA
(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
33. In a clinical diagnosis a female ‘A’ was (D) Both Assertion and Reason are false
identified with absence of secondary sexual statements
characters and has rudimentary ovaries.
Which of the given statements can be true
for the female ‘A’? 37. Select the incorrect statement from the
(A) The chromosome complement of the following
female cannot be 44 + XO (A) Thalassemia is a quantitative problem
(B) The female is suffering from a sex of synthesizing too few globin
recessive linked disorder polypeptides
(C) Mother of this female may be producing (B) Phenylketonuria is caused due to lack
abnormal egg (22 + O) and father of a liver enzyme, phenylalanine
producing normal sperm (22 + X) hydroxylase
(D) This female may pass this disorder to (C) Cytoplasmic male sterility in maize is a
her daughters function of defective chloroplast gene
(D) Haemophilia and myotonic dystrophy
are mendelian disorders
34. A : In addition to recombination, mutation is
another phenomenon that leads to variation
in DNA. 38. Calculate the sum total of genotypes and
R : Chromosomal aberration are commonly phenotypes, if a character is controlled by
observed in cancer cells. three pairs of genes.
(A) Both Assertion & Reason are true and (A) 27
the reason is the correct explanation of (B) 7
the assertion
(C) 14
(B) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct (D) 34
explanation of the assertion
(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason 39. A gene which masks the action of another
is false non-allelic gene is
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false (A) Epistatic gene
statements (B) Duplicate gene
(C) Complementary gene
(D) Polymeric gene

17
Pre Term-03

40. Which one of the following is not a wild type 46. Which of the following traits of pea plant is
trait taken by T.H. Morgan during his dihybrid expressed only in homozygous condition?
cross on Drosophila? (A) Terminal flowers
(A) Brown body colour (B) Yellow seed colour
(B) Red eye colour (C) Violet flower colour
(C) Yellow body colour (D) Inflated pod shape
(D) Normal wings
47. The human females with only one X
41. Which of the given characters is controlled chromosome in their cells 
by two pairs of genes? (A) Have normal secondary sexual
(A) Human skin colour characters
(B) Flower colour in Snapdragon (B) Are fertile but do not have normal
(C) Kernel colour in wheat secondary sexual characters
(D) Flower colour in garden pea (C) Are sterile
(D) Lack ovaries
42. In a dihybrid cross of Mendel's experiment;
what will be the ratio of wrinkled with pure 48. Which of the following abnormalities are
yellow, pure round with green and hybrid developed by an increase in the number of
round with pure yellow seeds in F2 chromosome?
generation? (A) Down's syndrome and Klinefelter's
(A) 2 : 1 : 2 syndrome
(B) 1 : 1 : 2 (B) Myotonic dystrophy and cystic fibrosis
(C) 4 : 1 : 2 (C) Klinefelter's syndrome and Turner's
(D) 1 : 1 : 1 syndrome
(D) Down's syndrome and Turner's
syndrome
43. “A progeny with _____ blood group is not
possible to the couple having O and AB
blood groups”. 49. Out of the five different phenotypes of wheat
Complete the above statement with suitable kernel colour, which phenotype will be the
option. most frequent in wheat population?
(A) B (A) Deep red
(B) AB (B) Extreme red
(C) O (C) White
(D) Both (2) and (3) (D) Intermediate red

44. Substitution of purine base with a pyrimidine 50. When a cross is made between red flowered
base or vice-versa is called and white flowered snapdragon plants, the
(A) Transition proportion of offsprings having pink and
white flowers respectively in F2 generation
(B) Transversion
will be
(C) Deletion (A) 25% and 50%
(D) Inversion (B) 50% and 25%
(C) 50% and 0%
45. Out of the seven characters of pea studied (D) 25% and 0%
by Mendel, genes for three were situated on
chromosome number four (flower position,
pod shape and plant height). Suppose if
they were closely situated and were linked,
then which of the following rule would not
have been discovered or explained by
Mendel? 
(A) Law of dominance
(B) Law of seggregation
(C) Law of independent assortment
(D) Law of purity of gametes

18
Pre Term-03

Zoology

1. The amniocentesis test is based on study of 6. RTIs lead to various complications if not
________ to detect genetic abnormalities in treated early, which may include all the
the developing foetus. following except
Choose the option that fills the blank (A) PID
correctly.
(B) Still birth
(A) External genitalia
(C) Haemophilia
(B) Secondary sexual characters
(D) Infertility
(C) Chromosomal pattern
(D) Traumatic injury
7. Inability to conceive even after 2 years of
unprotected sexual cohabitation in human
2. Choose the odd one w.r.t. copper releasing beings is called
IUDs. (A) Impotence
(A) CuT (B) Sterility
(B) Progestasert (C) Infertility
(C) Cu7 (D) Still birth
(D) Multiload 375
8. Voluntary termination of pregnancy is
3. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. considered safe upto
contraceptive device. (A) Second trimester
(A) Combined pill does not inhibit (B) Five months
ovulation
(C) 12 weeks
(B) Cu-T inhibits fertilization
(D) 120 days
(C) Morning after pill is effective within 72
hours of unprotected sex
(D) Spermicidal creams, jellies and foams 9. Which among the following is not a part of
are seldom used alone due to high renal tubule?
failure rate (A) Bowman’s capsule
(B) Glomerulus
4. Hormone releasing IUD is  (C) PCT
(A) LNG-20 (D) Loop of Henle
(B) Centchroman
(C) Lippe’s loop 10. All are medicated intrauterine devices,
(D) Mifepristone except 
(A) Cu-T
(B) Progestasert
5. Match the column-I and column-II w.r.t. STIs
and their causative agent. (C) Cu-7
  Column-I   Column-II (D) Lippes loop

(a) Syphilis (i) HPV

11. Though all persons are vulnerable to STIs
(b) Genital herpes (ii) T. vaginalis but their incidences are reported to be very
high among persons of age group
(c) Trichomoniasis (iii) T. pallidum (A) 25-35 years
(d) Genital warts (iv) HSV-2 (B) 5-10 years
Choose the correct option. (C) 15-24 years
(A) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (D) 40-50 years
(B) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(C) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) 12. Spirochaete, Treponema pallidum causes
(D) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) STI
(A) Babesiosis
(B) Syphilis
(C) Gonorrhea
(D) Trichomoniasis

19
Pre Term-03

13. Corrective treatment for infertile couples has 18. Out of the following factors given below,
become possible because of identify the reasons for population explosion
(A) MTP and choose the correct option.

(i) Decrease in MMR

(B) ART (ii) Increase in MMR

(C) RCH (iii) Decrease in IMR

(D) STI (iv) Increase in IMR

(v) Lack of health care facilities

(A) i and iii
14. Which of the following are possible ill effects
of using contraceptive devices?  (B) i and ii
a. Nausea (C) i and iv
b. Abdominal pain (D) i, ii, and v
c. Breakthrough bleeding
d. Regular menstrual bleeding
e. Breast cancer 19. At the end of ventricular diastole
(A) a, b and c only (A) Both semilunar and AV valves are
(B) a and d closed

(C) a, b, c and e (B) Both semilunar and AV valves are open

(D) a, b, c, d and e (C) Semilunar valves are open and AV
valves are closed
(D) Semilunar valves are closed and AV
15. The test tube baby program does not valves are open.
include which one of the following
techniques? 
(A) GIFT 20. Choose the incorrect statement.
(B) ZIFT (A) Saheli is an oral contraceptive which is
a selective estrogen receptor
(C) ICSI modulator
(D) IUT (B) MTP during first trimester is generally
safe
16. Match the STIs given in column I with their (C) The permissible use of the
causative organism in column II and choose amniocentesis is for detecting any
the correct answer. genetic abnormality in the fetus
  Column I   Column II (D) The test-tube baby programme
employs artificial insemination for
Genital Treponema fertilization
a. (i)
herpes pallidum 

Haemophilus 21. Select the correct option. 

b. AIDS (ii)
ducrei (A) Amniocentesis is used to test for
Down’s syndrome, haemophilia and
c. Chancroid (iii) HIV sickle cell anemia
d. Syphilis (iv) HSV (B) A rapid increase in maternal mortality
rate (MMR) and infant mortality rate
(A) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (IMR) are the reasons for population
(B) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) explosion
(C) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (C) “Saheli” was discovered at NDRI,
Lucknow
(D) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(D) The “family planning” programmes
were initiated in India in 1971
17. Hormone releasing IUD is
(A) LNG-20 22. If we consider GIFT and ZIFT, fertilization in
(B) Centchroman former and latter occur 
(C) Lippe’s loop (A) in vitro; in vivo
(D) Mifepristone (B) in vivo; in vitro
(C) in vivo; in vivo
(D) in vitro; in vitro

20
Pre Term-03

23. Identify the STI (Sexually Transmitted 30. Mix of ova and sperms is placed in fallopian
Infection) caused due to a protozoan.  tube of infertile couple looking for
(A) Trichomoniasis parenthood in 
(B) Gonorrhoea (A) GIFT
(C) Chancroid (B) ZIFT
(D) Syphilis (C) ICSI
(D) IUI
24. The vasa efferentia of a 32 year old man’s
reproductive tract gets blocked. The sperms 31. Government of India legalized MTP in 
will not be transported from (A) 1971
(A) Seminiferous tubules to rete testis (B) 2001
(B) Rete testis to epididymis (C) 2011
(C) Tubuli recti to rete testis (D) 1951
(D) Seminiferous tubules into their lumen
32. A condition of zero population growth rate in
25. Syphilis, a sexually transmitted infection, is which birth rate is balanced by mortality rate
caused by the infection of is defined as
(A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae (A) Couple protection
(B) Treponema pallidum (B) Demographic transition
(C) Human Immuno deficiency virus (C) Replacement level
(D) Human papilloma virus (D) Rate of natural increase

26. A correct statement regarding the new form 33. According to MTP (Amendment) act of 2017,
of birth control called ‘implant’ is that it within how many weeks can a pregnancy be
(A) Allows ovulation but does not allow safely terminated on the opinion of one
fertilization medical practitioner?
(B) Makes cervical mucus thin in (A) 12
consistency (B) 20
(C) Contains progestin as active ingredient (C) 24
(D) Always is effective only for one year (D) 36

27. ZIFT is one method of assisted reproductive 34. Use of which of the following protects the
technologies in which user from STIs and unwanted conception?
(A) Egg is transferred in fallopian tube (A) Nirodh
followed by AI (B) CuT
(B) Early embryo upto 8 blastomeres is (C) Implants
transferred to fallopian tube
(D) Tubectomy
(C) Early embryo upto 16 blastomeres is
transferred to uterus
(D) Sperm and ova both are directly 35. Terminal method of family planning includes 
transferred in fallopian tube (A) Emergency contraception
(B) Implants
28. According to the 2011 census report, the (C) Chemical methods
population growth rate was (D) Surgical methods
(A) 200/1000/year
(B) 70/1000/year 36. All of the following methods help avoid
(C) 10/1000/year transmission of STIs, except
(D) 20/1000/year (A) Using oral contraceptives pills before
coitus
(B) To avoid sex with unknown partners
29. Choose the odd one w.r.t. copper releasing
IUDs. (C) Using condoms during coitus
(A) CuT (D) Indulging in protected sex despite
multiple partners
(B) Progestasert
(C) Cu7
(D) Multiload 375

21
Pre Term-03

37. Select the mismatch w.r.t. function of 43. Choose the odd one w.r.t. methods of
contraceptives. contraception
(A) Oral contraceptive pills – Prevent (A) Coitus interruptus
ovulation (B) Lactational amenorrhoea
(B) Barrier methods – Prevent physical (C) Withdrawal method
meeting of gametes (D) Condoms and diaphragms
(C) Lactational amenorrhoea – Prevents
lactation
44. Selective estrogen receptor modulator which
(D) Vasectomy – Prevents gamete
does not primarily affect ovulation but
transport
inhibits implantation is
(A) Gossypol
38. Read the following statements. (B) Centchroman
a. Sterilisation procedure in males is called
‘vasectomy’. (C) Mala-D
b. Chlamydiasis is a bacterial disease. (D) LNG-20
c. Hepatitis B is an incurable disease.
d. Family planning programmes in India
were initiated in 1951. 45. Select the odd one among the mode of
How many of the above statements are action of contraceptive pills.
correct? (A) They inhibit ovulation in a female
(A) One (B) Alter the quality of cervical mucus to
(B) Three retard the motility of sperms in female
reproductive tract
(C) Four
(C) They make uterus unsuitable for
(D) Two implantation
(D) They permanently block the transport
39. Various causes of infertility in males include and physical meeting of gametes
all of the following except
(A) Gonadotropin deficiency 46. “Saheli” – a new oral contraceptive for the
(B) Blockage of vasa deferentia females was developed by scientists at
(C) Circumcision (A) NDRI
(D) Klinefelter’s syndrome (B) ICMR
(C) CDRI
40. Select the mismatch w.r.t. Assisted (D) IARI
Reproductive Technologies.
(A) IVF – Fertilisation in a test tube. 47. Amniocentesis can legally be used to detect
(B) ZIFT – Early embryo of more than 8 (A) Cleft lip and palate
blastomeres is transferred into the
fallopian tube. (B) Malformation of limbs
(C) GIFT – Transfer of an ovum collected (C) Down’s syndrome
from a donor into the fallopian tube of (D) Gender of foetus
another female who cannot produce
ova.
48. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t oral
(D) ICSI – One of the partner’s sperm is contraceptive pills.
placed inside the egg with a (A) Pills have higher contraceptive value in
microscopic needle in vitro. comparision to implants
(B) Alter the quality of cervical mucus
41. Choose the odd one w.r.t. viral venereal (C) Inhibit ovulation
disease.
(D) Make uterus unsuitable for implantation
(A) Genital herpes
(B) Hepatitis B
(C) Genital warts
(D) Gonorrhoea

42. Though all persons are vulnerable to STIs

but their incidences are reported to be very
high among persons of age group
(A) 25-35 years
(B) 5-10 years
(C) 15-24 years
(D) 40-50 years

22
Pre Term-03

49. Select the correct option w.r.t. the full form of

GIFT. 
(A) Germ cell intra fallopian transfer
(B) Gamete inter fallopian transfer
(C) Gamete intra fallopian transfer
(D) Gamete inter fertilization transfer

50. Select a pair of bacterial diseases in the

given options.
(A) Syphilis and Genital warts
(B) Clap and Rabies
(C) Chancroid and Typhoid
(D) Diptheria and Common cold

23